02-11-2025

0999DMD363161250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) Three metal rods identical in dimension A, B and C are placed end to end and a temperature
difference is maintained between the ends of A and C. If thermal conductivity of B is thrice that of C
and half that of A, then effective thermal conductivity of the system is :-

(1) 12K/7
(2) 6K/7
(3) 7K/3
(4) 2K

2) A gas has molar heat capacity C = 4.5 R in the process PT = constant. The number of degrees of
freedom of molecules in the gas is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 5

3) Assertion:- The triple-point of water is a standard fixed point in modern thermometry.

Reason:- Melting point of ice and the boiling point of water change due to change in pressure but
triple-point of water does not change.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) One mole of a gas mixture is heated under constant pressure, and heat required Q is plotted
against temperature difference acquired. Find the value of γ for mixture :-

(1) 3/4
(2) 1/4
(3) 3/2
(4) 2/3

5) A monoatomic gas is taken along path AB as shown. Calculate change in internal energy of system
:-

(1) 279.8 J
(2) 341 J
(3) 241 J
(4) None of these

6) We took two separate gases with the same number densities for both. If the ratio of the diameters
of their molecules is 4 : 1, then ratio of their mean free paths is :-

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 16

7) A pendulum clock is 5 sec. fast at temperature 15oC and 10 sec. slow at 30oC, find the
temperature at which clock gives correct time :-

(1) 25oC
(2) 23oC
(3) 20oC
(4) 18oC

8) A carnot engine whose low temperature reservoir is at 7°C has an efficiency of 50%. It is desired
to increase the efficiency to 70%. By how many degrees should the temperature of the high
temperature reservoir be increased approximately ?

(1) 933°C
(2) 473°C
(3) 560°C
(4) 373°C

9) Steam at 100ºC is added slowly to 1400 gm of water at 16ºC until the temperature of water is
raised to 80ºC. The mass of steam required :-
(1) 120 gm
(2) 240 gm
(3) 160 gm
(4) 320 gm

10) One mole of a monoatomic gas is carried along process ABCDEA as shown in the diagram. Find

the net work done by gas :-

(1)

(2) 1J

(3)

(4) 0J

11) Figure shows the isotherms of fixed mass of an ideal gas at three temperatures TA, TB and TC
then.

(1) TA > TB > TC

(2) TA < TB < TC
(3) TB < TA < TC
(4) TA = TB = TC

12) A glass thermometer is unmarked and has length of column L100°C = 60 cm L0°C = 10 cm. If L = 50
cm, then temperature thermometer will be:-

(1) 70°C
(2) 80°C
(3) 90°C
(4) 100°C

13) Two spheres P and Q of same colour having radii 8 cm and 2 cm are maintained at temperatures
127°C and 527°C respectively. The ratio of energy radiated by P and Q is –
(1) 0.054
(2) 0.0034
(3) 1
(4) 2

14) A body is in thermal equillbrium with the surrounding :

(1) It will stop emitting heat radiation

(2) Amount of radiation emitted and absorbed by it will be equal
(3) It will emit heat radiation at faster rate
(4) It will emit heat radiation slowly

15) Water in a lake is changing into ice at 0oC when atmospheric temperature is –10oC. If the time
taken for 1cm thick ice layer to be formed is 7 hour, the time required for the thickness of ice to
increase from 1cm to 2cm is

(1) 7 hours
(2) 14 hours
(3) < 7 hour
(4) > 14 hour

16)

One mole of a monatomic ideal gas is taken through a cycle ABCDA as shown in the P-V diagram.
Column-II gives the characteristics involved in the cycle. Match them with each of the processes
given in Column-I.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Process A → B (p) Internal energy decreases

(B) Process B → C (q) Internal energy increases

(C) Process C → D (r) Heat is lost

(D) Process D → A (s) Heat is gained

(t) Work is done on the gas

(1) A → p,r,t ; B → p,r ; C → q,s ; D → r,t
(2) A → r,t ; B → q,r ; C → q,s ; D → r,s
(3) A → p,r,t; B → p,q,r ; C→s; D → r,t
(4) A → p,r,t ; B → p,r ; C→q; D → r,s
17) During an experiment an ideal gas obeys an addition equation of state PV = constant. The initial
2

temperature and volume of gas are T and V respectively, then find temperature of gas when it
expands to volume 4V :-

(1) 4 T

(2)

(3) 2 T

(4)

18) Heating curve of two substance x & y of same mass is shown below. If Cx & Cy represents
specific heat of x & y respectively & Lx, Ly represents latent heat of fusion, then (Heating rate is

same for both)

(1) Cx < Cy & Lx < Ly

(2) Cx < Cy & Lx > Ly
(3) Cx > Cy & Lx > Ly
(4) Cx > Cy & Lx < Ly

19) A chamber with a gas is maintained at a pressure of 8.31×10–10 N/m2 and temperature 100 K,
then number of molecules of gas in 1 cm3 volume is :-

(1) 1.6×108
(2) 1023
(3) 1.4×1010
(4) 6.023×105

20) An ideal gas follows PVn = constant equation, the value of for the gas :-

(1) n
(2) 1/n
(3) n+1
(4) n–1

21) Two stars A and B of surface area Sa and Sb & temperature Ta and Tb glow red and blue
respectively. Choose the correct option ?

(1) Ta > Tb
(2) Ta < Tb
(3) TaSa = TbSb
(4) TaSb = TbSa

22) A gas is in equilibrium at T kelvin. If mass of one molecule is m and its component of velocity in x
direction is vx. Then mean of its is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

23) A tungsten body of diameter 2.3 cm is at 2000°C. It radiates 30% of the energy radiated by a
black body of same radius and temperature. Find radius of black body which will radiate energy at
same rate at the same temperature ?

(1) 2.32 cm
(2) 1.49 cm
(3) 0.629 cm
(4) 0.123 cm

24) An elevator cable is to have a maximum stress of 7 × 107 N/m2 to allow for appropriate safety
factors. Its maximum upward acceleration is 1.5 m/s2. If the cable has to support the total weight of
2000 Kg of a loaded elevator. The area of cross-section of the cable should be

(1) 3.28 cm2

(2) 2.38 cm2
(3) 0.32 cm2
(4) 8.23 cm2

25) The length of a metal wire is L1 when the tension in it is T1 and is L2, when the tension is T2. The
natural length of the wire is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A U-tube closed at one end is filled with three immiscible liquids having densities ρ, 3ρ and 8ρ as
shown in figure. The pressure inside the tube at close end is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) P0 + hρg

27) A vessel whose bottom has round hole with diameter of 0.1 mm is filled with water. The
maximum height to which the water can be filled without leakage is : [S.T. of water = 75 dyne/cm, g
= 1000 cm/s2, angle of contact θ = 0°]

(1) 100 cm
(2) 75 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 30 cm

28) The speed of wind streamlines on the upper and lower part of an aeroplane wings are 70 ms–1
and 60 ms–1 respectively. If area of wings is 2.5 m2 and density of air is 1.3 kg m–3. Find uplift force
acting on aeroplane :

(1) 2.11 × 103 N

(2) 3.55 × 103 N
(3) 7.32 × 103 N
(4) 6.25 × 10–3 N

29) Two mercury drops (each of radius r) merge to form a bigger drop. The surface energy of the
bigger drop is : (Surface tension = T)

(1) 25/3 π r2 T
(2) 4πr2T
(3) 2πr2T
(4) 28/3 π r2 T

30) A metal block of area 0.10 m2 is connected to a 0.020 kg mass via a string that passes over an
ideal pulley as shown in figure. A liquid with a film thickness of 0.30 mm is placed between the block
and the table. When system is released the block moves to the right with a small constant speed of
0.090 ms–1, then coefficient of visocity of liquid is :

(1)
× 10–3 Pa s

(2)
× 10–3 Pa s
(3) 10–2 Pa s

(4)
× 10–3 Pa s

31) A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a liquid of relative density
0.72. If relative density of silver is 10, then tension in the string will be: [take g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 37.12 N
(2) 42 N
(3) 73 N
(4) 21 N

32) Assertion (A) : A thin stainless steel needle can lie floating on a still water surface.
Reason (R) : When the buoyancy force balances the weight of the object, object floats.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

33) A block of wood of mass 120 kg floats in water. The weight that can be put on the block to make
it just sink, should be (density of wood = 600 kg/m3) ?

(1) 80 kg
(2) 50 kg
(3) 60 kg
(4) 30 kg

34) The surface energy of a liquid drop is E. If it is sprayed into 1000 equal droplets then their
surface energy will be -

(1) E
(2) 10E
(3) 100E
(4) 1000E
35) A cube made of material having density 0.9 × 10 kg/m floats between water and a liquid of
3 3

density 0.7 × 10 kg/m then what part of cube is immersed in water.

3 3

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) 64 rain drops of equal size are falling in air with terminal velocity 1.5 ms–1. If these drops coalese
to form a big drop then terminal velocity of big drop is-

(1) 6 ms–1
(2) 16 ms–1
(3) 24 ms–1
(4) 32 ms–1

37) If the difference between pressure inside and outside of a soap bubble is 4 mm of water and its
radius is 6 mm. What is the surface tension (in dynes per cm) ? [g = 1000 cm/sec2]

(1) 0.06
(2) 60
(3) 600
(4) 6

38) Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with an initial speed of 2 m/s. The cross
sectional area of tap is 2 cm2. Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream of water
and that the flow is steady. The cross sectional area of stream 0.6 m below the tap is :-

(1) 1 cm2
(2) 2 cm2
(3) 0.5 cm2
(4) 10 cm2

39) A tank of height 20 m is full of water. There is a hole of cross sectional area 1 cm2 in its bottom.
The initial volume of water that will come out from this hole per second is :-

(1) 10–3 m3/s

(2) 2 × 10–3 m3/s
(3) 20 m3/s
(4) 2 × 10–4 m3/s

40) A cubical block of wood of edge 'a' and density 'ρ' floats in water of density '2ρ'. The lower
surface of the cube just touches the free end of a massless spring of force constant K fixed at the
bottom of the vessel. The weight W put over the block, so that it is completely immersed in water
without wetting the weight is :-

(1) a(a2ρg + k)
(2) a(aρg + 2k)

(3)

(4)

41) A 20 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises upto 8 cm. If the entire
arrangement is put in a freely falling elevator, the length of water column in the capillary tube will
be :-

(1) 8 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 20 cm

42) A cylindrical vessel contains a liquid of density ρ up to height h. The liquid is closed by a piston
of mass m and area of cross section A. There is a small hole at the bottom of the vessel. The speed υ

with which the liquid comes out of the hole is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Four identical hollow cylindrical columns, support a big structure of mass M. The inner and
outer radii of a column are R1 and R2 respectively. Assuming the load distribution to be uniform, the
compressional strain of each column is (where Y is Young's modulus of the column)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The surface tension of soap solution is 0.03 N m–1. The work done in blowing to form a soap
bubble of surface area 40 cm2 is :-

(1) 2.4 × 10–4 J

(2) 1.2 × 10–2 J
(3) 3.6 × 10–4 J
(4) 4.2 × 10–2 J

45)

A wire of initial length L and radius r is stretched by a length ℓ. Another wire of same material but
with initial length 2L and radius 2r is stretched by a length 2ℓ. The ratio of the stored elastic energy
per unit volume in the first and second wire is :

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

CHEMISTRY

1) The molar conductivity of 0.02 M HCOOH is 40.4 S cm2 mol–1,

If and then dissociation constant of
HCOOH is –

(1) 2.22 × 10–3

(2) 2.22 × 10–4
(3) 2.22 × 10–5
(4) 1.22 × 10–2

2) Molar conductances of BaCl2, H2SO4 and HCI at infinite dilutions are x1, x2 and x3, respectively
then Equivalent conductance of BaSO4 at infinite dilution will be:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

3) A solution contains Fe2+, Fe3+ and I– ions. This solution was treated with iodine at 35 °C. E° for
Fe / Fe is +0.77 V and E° for I2/2I = 0.536 V. The favourable redox reaction is :-
3+ 2+ –

(1) Fe2+ will be oxidised to Fe3+

(2) I2 will be reduced to I
–

(3) There will be no redox reaction

(4) I will be oxidised to I2
–

4) Given are E° values for some half reactions

I2 + 2e– → 2I– ; E° = 0.54 V
MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e–→ Mn2+ + 4H2O ; E° = 1.52 V
Fe3+ + e– → Fe2+ ; E° = 0.77 V
Sn4+ + 2e– → Sn2+ ; E° = 0.1 V
The strongest reducant and oxidant respectively are :

(1) Sn , MnO4
2+ –

(2) MnO4 , Sn
– 4+

(3) Sn2+, Mn2+

(4) I2, Sn
2+

5) The specific conductance of a saturated solution of silver bromide is κ Scm–1. The limiting ionic
conductivity of Ag+ and Br– ions are x and y, respectively. The solubility of silver bromide in gL–1 is :
(molar mass of AgBr = 188) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Match the items of Column-I and Column-II

Column-I Column-II

cell reaction
i. Lechlanche cell a.
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

does not involve any ion in solution and is used

ii. Ni-Cd cell b.
in hearing aids

iii. Fuel cell c. rechargeable

 reaction at anode
iv. Mercury cell d.
Zn → Zn + 2e
2+ –

converts energy of combustion into electrical

e.
energy
(1) i – d; ii – c; iii – a, e; iv – b
(2) i – c; ii – a; iii – a, c & e; iv – b
(3) i – b; ii – c; iii – a, c; iv – d
(4) i – e; ii – b; iii – c, d; iv – e

7) A current of 9.65 ampere is passed through the aqueous solution NaCl using suitable electrodes
for 1000 s. The amount of NaOH formed during electrolysis is

(1) 2.0g
(2) 4.0g
(3) 6.0g
(4) 8.0g

8) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : 2F electricity is required for the oxidation of 1 mole H2O to O2.
Statement II : To get 40.0 g of Aluminium from molten Al2O3 required electricity is 4.44 F.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

9) What will be the value of equilibrium constant of the reaction :-

Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu++(aq) + 2Ag(s)
= 0.48 V

(1) 10
(2) 1048
(3) 1016
(4) 1024

10) The oxidation potential of hydrogen half cell will be negative if.
(a) p(H2) = 1 atm and [H+] = 1M
(b) p(H2) = 1 atm and [H+] = 2M
(c) p(H2) = 0.2 atm and [H+] = 1M
(d) p(H2) = 0.2 atm and [H+] = 0.2M

(1) a, c
(2) b, c
(3) a, d
(4) b, d

11) Given :
(i) Cu + 2e → Cu, E° = 0.337 V
2+ –

(ii) Cu + e → Cu , E° = 0.153 V
2+ – +1

Electrode potential, E° for the reaction,

Cu+ + e– → Cu will be :-

(1) 0.38 V
(2) 0.52 V
(3) 0.90 V
(4) 0.30 V

12) Match the following columns

Column-II
Column-I (Production of
(Amount of
elements
charge in
from their solution)
Faraday)

20 g of Ca produce from
(i) (a) 0.5 F
molten CaCl2

1 mole of H2 produce
(ii) (b) 1F
from H2O

1 mole of O2 produce
(iii) (c) 2F
from H2O

0.5 g equivalent Al
(iv) produce from molten (d) 4F
Al2O3
(1) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(2) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

13) If an external opposite potential greater than 1.1 V is applied in Daniell cell then which of the
following is correct-
(A) Electrons flow from Cu to Zn electrodes
(B) Electrons flow from Zn to Cu electrodes
(C) It now functions as electrolytic cell
(D) Zinc is deposited at zinc electrode and copper dissolve at copper electrode
(E) Current flow from Cu to Zn electrode.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) B and C
(2) A, C and D
(3) A, C, D and E
(4) B, C, D and E

14) The e.m.f. of the following galvanic cells :-

(a) Zn|Zn (1M)||Cu (1M)|Cu
+2 2+

(b) Zn|Zn (0.1M)||Cu (1M)|Cu

2+ 2+

(c) Zn|Zn (1M)||Cu (0.1M)|Cu

2+ 2+

(d) Zn|Zn2+(0.1M)||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu
are represented by E1, E2, E3 and E4 respectively. Which of the following is true?

(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4

(2) E3 > E2 > E1 > E4
(3) E3 > E1 = E4 > E2
(4) E2 > E1 = E4 > E3

15)

A cell is constituted as follows

Pt | H2 (1 atm) | HA1| | HA2 | H2 (1 atm)| Pt
The pH of two acid solutions HA1 and HA2 are 5 and 3 [Link] emf of the cell is :-

(1) 0.059 V
(2) 0.0295 V
(3) 0.118 V
(4) – 0.118 V

16) Which of the following is a state function?

(1) q
(2) w
(3) q + w
(4) All of these

17) The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is:

(1) q > 0, ΔT > 0 and w > 0

(2) q = 0 ΔT = 0 and w = 0
(3) q = 0, ΔT < 0 and w > 0
(4) q < 0, ΔT = 0 and w = 0

18) A gas is compressed by constant pressure 0.5 atm from a volume of 10 litre to 1 litre. If the gas
absorbs 250 J of heat from the surroundings what will be the value of ΔU :-

(1) –205 J
(2) –705.85 J
(3) +705.85 J
(4) +205 J
19) Two moles of an ideal gas are expanded isothermally & reversibly from 1 litre to 10 litre at 300
K. The enthalpy change (in kJ) for the process is :-

(1) 11.4
(2) –11.4
(3) 0
(4) 4.8

20) ΔU° for combustion of methane is –x KJ mol–1. The value of ΔH° for the same reaction would be -

(1) = ΔU°
(2) > ΔU°
(3) < ΔU°
(4) = 0

21) Calculate w for the isothermal reversible expansion of 1mol of an ideal gas at 273 K from an
initial pressure of 1.0 bar to a final pressure of 0.1 bar :-

(1) –5227 J
(2) +5227.2 J
(3) –2257 J
(4) +2257 J

22) Calculate ΔG° at 298 K for the reaction :

2A(g) + B(g) → 2D(g)
ΔU° = –10.5 kJ and ΔS° = –44.1 JK–1

(1) 0.165 kJ
(2) 2.165 kJ
(3) 0.968 kJ
(4) 1.165 kJ

23) For the reaction

KP = 5 × 10–5 at 25°C. ΔG° for the reaction will be: (R = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1)

(1) 24.5 KJ
(2) 40.5 KJ
(3) –7.3 KJ
(4) –40.5 KJ

24) Enthalpies of formation of CO(g), CO2(g), N2O(g) and N2O4(g) are –110, –393, 81 and 10 kJ mol–1
respectively. Find the value of ΔH for the reaction :
N2O4(g) + 3CO(g) → N2O(g) + 3CO2(g)

(1) +778 kJ mol–1

(2) –211.7 kJ mol–1
(3) +211.7 kJ mol–1
(4) –778 kJ mol–1

25) Given
NH3(g) + 3Cl2(g) → NCl3(g) + 3HCl(g) ; ΔH1
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) ; ΔH2
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) ; ΔH3
The heat of formation of NCl3(g) in terms of ΔH1, ΔH2 and ΔH3 is :-

(1)
ΔHf = ΔH1 + ΔH2 – ΔH3

(2)
ΔHf = – ΔH1 + ΔH2 + ΔH3

(3)
ΔHf = – ΔH1 – ΔH2 – ΔH3
(4) None of these

26) Calculate enthalpy change of the following reaction

CH2 = CH2 (g) + H2 (g) → CH3–CH3 (g)
The bond energy of C–H, C–C, C = C, H–H are 414, 347, 615 and 435 kJ mol–1 respectively:-

(1) –250 kJ
(2) +250 kJ
(3) +125 kJ
(4) –125 kJ

27) The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. Enthalpy of
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be :

(1) 800 kJ mol–1

(2) 400 kJ mol–1
(3) 100 kJ mol–1
(4) 200 kJ mol–1

28) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) NaCl(s) → (p) Enthalpy of atomisation

(ii) NaCl(s) → (q) Enthalpy of solution

(iii) Na(s) → Na(g) (r) Enthalpy of formation

(iv) (s) Lattice enthalpy

H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(ℓ)
(1) (i)-q ; (ii)-r ; (iii)-p, (iv)-q
(2) (i)-q ; (ii)-s ; (iii)-r, (iv)-p
(3) (i)-r ; (ii)-s ; (iii)-p, (iv)-q
(4) (i)-q ; (ii)-s ; (iii)-p, (iv)-r

29) Heat of combustion of C2H5OH(ℓ) at constant pressure and temperature 27°C is found to be –q J
mol–1. Hence heat of combustion (in J mol–1) of ethanol at the same temperature and constant volume
will be :

(1) 300 R–q

(2) –(q + 300 R)
(3) q – 300 R
(4) q + 300 R

30) On the basis of curve, true statements are- (1) T1 = T2

(2) T2 > T3
(3) |Wisothermal| > |Wadiabatic|
(4) ΔUisothermal > ΔUadiabatic

(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 1, 2, 3
(3) 1, 2, 4
(4) 2, 3, 4

31) Which pair of element have same number of electron in their valence shell :-

(1) Na, Sr
(2) Se, Te
(3) Mn, Fe
(4) He, Ne

32) Elements with atomic number 10, 18, 36, 54 and 86 are all :-

(1) light metals

(2) inert gases
(3) halogens
(4) Alkaline earth metals

33) If M+3 has configuration [Ar]3d10 then M belongs to :-

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) f-block

34) Which group of elements belong to the same period in periodic table :-

(1) Li, Na, K

(2) Cu, Ag, Au
(3) Sn, Sb, Te
(4) Al, Ga, Ge

35) Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name of the recently discovered element of carbon
family :

(1) Unnilquadium
(2) Ununquadium
(3) Ununseptium
(4) Unniloctium

36) Which of the following is correct set of magic number for VB group ?

(1) 18, 18, 32

(2) 8, 8, 18
(3) 8, 18, 32
(4) 18, 32, 32

37) Give correct IUPAC symbol for last chalcogens :-

(1) Uus
(2) Uuh
(3) Uuo
(4) Uup

38)

The period no. of atomic no. 65 is :-

(1) 5th period

(2) 4th period
(3) 6th period
(4) 7th period

39) Isoelectronic species are :-

(1) K+, Cl–

(2) Na+, Cl–
(3) Na, Ar
(4) Na+, Ar

40) Total number of elements of 5 period which have one or more than one 5d electrons :-
th

(1) 10
(2) 16
(3) 30
(4) Zero

41) How many elements belongs to s-block (according to electronic configuration) ?

(1) 13
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 15

42) What is the minimum value of n (period number) for which subshell g has to be introduced :

(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 11

43) Which pair elements has same chemical properties :-

(1) 13, 22
(2) 3, 11
(3) 4, 24
(4) 2, 4

44) The electronic configuration of four elements are

(I) [Xe] 6s1 (II) [Xe] 4f14 5d1 6s2
(III) [Ar] 4s 4p (IV) [Ar] 3d7, 4s2
2 5

Select the incorrect statement about these elements :

(1) (I) is a strong reducing agent

(2) (II) is a d-block element
(3) (III) has high electron affinity
(4) (IV) exhibits variable oxidation state

45) Which of the following doesn't follow Aufbau principle/(n +ℓ) rule ?

(1) [Kr]4d45s1
(2) [Ar]3d104s1
 0
(3) [Kr]4d105s
(4) All of these

BIOLOGY

1) Mendel proposed which of the following term for hereditary units ?

(1) Factor
(2) Genome
(3) Genetic particle
(4) Gene

2) The Punnett square shown below represents the pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross when
yellow (Y) is dominant over white (y) and round (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds-

A plant of type 'H' will produce seeds with the genotype identical to seeds produced by the plants of

(1) Type M
(2) Type J
(3) Type P
(4) Type N

3) In case of incomplete dominance, Phenotypic ratio in F2 Generation would be :-

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

4) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Male fruit fly is Homogametic.

(2) In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms have no sex-chromosome.
(3) In domesticated fowls sex of progeny depends on the type of egg rather than sperm.
(4) Human males have one of their sex-chromosome much shorter than the other.

5) The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the
distance between genes was explained by :
(1) T.H. Morgan
(2) Gregor J. Mendel
(3) Alfred Sturtevant
(4) Sutton Boveri

6) In the inheritance of size of starch grain in pisum sativum, the F1 had a phenotype that:-

(1) Resemble both of the parents

(2) Resemble none of the parents
(3) Resemble either one of the parents
(4) Both (1) and (3)

7) How many different traits were present on chromosome no. 4 in Pisum sativm as choosen by
Mendel?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) "When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is
independent of the other pair of character." This explains:-

(1) Law of dominance

(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) Postulate of paired factors

9) Which symbol of pedigree is correctly matched?

(1)
- Female

(2)
- 6 affected offspring

(3) - Affected male of x linked recessive disease

(4) - Marriage between relatives

10) Which of the following is not true for F2 generation of dihybrid cross-

(1) 9-phenotypic categories, 4 genotypic categories

(2) 9-genotypic categories, 16 zygotic combination
(3) 62.5% parental combination, 37.5% new combination
(4) 4-types male gametes, 4 type female gamete

11) Which of the following combination seems to have some linkage in character selected by
Mendel?
(1) Stem height and pod colour
(2) Flower colour and flower position
(3) Seed shape and seed colour
(4) Plant height and pod shape

12) The condition in which only one allele of a pair is present in a diploid organism is known as :-

(1) Homozygous
(2) Heterozygous
(3) Hemizygous
(4) Incomplete dominance

13) In Morgan's experiment, what was the percentage of recombination in case of body colour and
eye colour genes in F2 generation ?

(1) 37.2%
(2) 1.3%
(3) 98.7%
(4) 27.3%

14) Which of the following structure was discovered by Henking ?

(1) Y-body
(2) Barr body
(3) X-body
(4) Nu-body

15) If human mother has O blood group, her foetus blood can not be –

(1) A
(2) B
(3) AB
(4) O

16) A character which is expressed in hybrid is called:-

(1) Dominant
(2) Recessive
(3) Hypostatic
(4) Epistatic

17) What is genotypic ratio of mendelian monohybrid cross ?

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1

18) Which chromosome set is found in male grass hopper ?

(1) 2A + XY
(2) 2A + XO
(3) 2A + YY
(4) 2A + XX

19) Which of the following disease is not applicable for pedigree analysis :-

(1) Cystic fibrosis

(2) Sickle Cell Anaemia
(3) Thalassemia
(4) AIDS

20) Observe the given diagram & select the correct option :-

(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a out cross.

(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal cross to find out the genotype of organism.
It is the diagrammatic representation of test cross to find out the genotype of dominant
(4)
organisms.

21) In the cross given below :

AaBbccDd ×AabbCCDd
What percentage of progeny will have genotype aaBbCcDD?

(1) 6.2%
(2) 3.1%
(3) 12.4%
(4) 25%

22) Given below is the diagram of a monohybrid cross between round and wrinkled seeded pea
plants. The round allele (R) is dominant over wrinkled allele (r). From the given diagram label a, b, c,
d & e :-

(1) a = R, b = r, c = RR, d = rr, e = RR

(2) a = R, b = r, c = Rr, d = rr, e = RR
(3) a = r, b = R, c = rr, d = Rr, e = RR
(4) a = R, b = r, c = Rr, d = Rr, e = Rr

23) Assertion: Grasshopper is an example of XO type of sex determination.

Reason: In Grasshopper the males have only one X-chromosome besides the autosomes, whereas
females have a pair of X-chromosomes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) Assertion :- In heterozygous condition phenotype depends on dominant allele.

Reason :- Dominant allele forms functional enzyme.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) Assertion: In his experiment of garden pea plant, Mendel self-pollinated the tall F1 plant and
found that in F2 generation some of the offsprings were dwarf. The characters not seen in the F1
generation were now expressed.
Reason: Parent contains two alleles during gamete formation. The factors or alleles of a pair
segregate from each other such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
26)

Sickle cell Anaemia is

(1) Autosomal recessive

(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) X-linked recessive
(4) X-linked dominant

27) In a certain plant species, red flower colour is incompletely dominant to white flower colour (the
heterozygote is pink) and tall stems are completely dominant to dwarf stems. If a tall pink plant
(TtRr) is crossed with a tall white plant (TTrr), which one of the following types of plants would be
produced in the offsprings ?

(1) Tall pink and tall white

(2) Dwarf pink and tall red
(3) Dwarf red and tall pink
(4) Tall pink and dwarf white

28) The height of a plant is under control of polygenic inheritance. The plant having genotype 'aabb'
has 20 cm height and height of plant having genotype AaBb is 50 cm. what will be the maximum
height of the plant :-

(1) 45 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 80 cm
(4) 15 cm

29) There are three genes a, b, c percentage of crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c is
28% and a and c is 8%. What is the sequence of genes on chromosome

(1) b, a, c
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, b
(4) None

30) If a plant produces Abcdde gamete then which law of inheritance will not be followed ?

(1) Dominance
(2) Segregation
(3) Independent assortment
(4) (1) and (3) both

31) Mendelian ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 is due to :-

(1) Law of segregation

(2) Law of Dominance
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) Law of unit characters

32)

Result of test cross is

(1) 1 : 1 phenotypic ratio

(2) 1 : 2 : 1 phenotypic ratio
(3) 1 : 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio
(4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio

33) The figure below shows three types of sex determination. Select the option giving correct
identification.

(1) C- ZZ males, ZW females

(2) A - XO Males, XX females
(3) B - XY females, XX males
(4) C - ZZ femals, XX males

34)

A dihybrid cross Produces same phenotypic and genotypic F2 ratio as 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1.

What does this cross indicate :-

(1) Both characters show complete dominance

(2) Only one character with quantitative inheritance
(3) Both characters show incomplete dominance
(4) Both (2) & (3)

35)

Which cross will prdouce 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 phenotypic ratio ?

(1) AaBb × AaBb

(2) AaBB × aaBb
(3) Aabb × aaBb
(4) AABB × aabb

36) Choose the correct match :-

(1) A-Histone octamer, B-DNA, C- Core of histone molecule, D-H1 Histone

(2) A-DNA, B-H1 Histone, C- Core of histone molecule, D-Histone octamer
(3) A - Histone octamer, B - H1 Histone, C - Core of histone molecule, D - DNA
(4) A - Core of histone molecule, B - DNA, C - Histone octamer, D - H1 Histone

37) Which of the following statement is correct :-

(1) Meselson and Stahl used radioactive isotope of 15N

(2) DNA replication is semi conservative as well as bidirectional
(3) E. coli DNA has many ori site
(4) All the statements are correct

38) In Hershey and Chase experiments, radioactive 32P was used to culture bacteriophages. It
resulted in radioactive :-

(1) Viral proteins

(2) Viral DNA
(3) Plasma membrane of bacteria
(4) Bacterial capsule

39) If Meselson and stahl's experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, The ratio
of N15/N15 : N15/N14 : N14/N14 containing DNA in the fourth generation would be :-

(1) 1 : 1 : 0
(2) 1 : 4 : 0
(3) 0 : 1 : 3
(4) 0 : 1 : 7

40) Assertion (A) :- Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from Griffith's
transformation experiment.
Reason (R) :- The method of DNA replication is semi-conservative.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

41) Assertion :- DNA is perferred over RNA for storage of genetic information.
Reason :- DNA is more stable than RNA.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

42) Consider the following four statements and select the incorrect statement.

(1) Two nucleotides are linked through 3'-5' phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide
(2) A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through a ester linkage to form a nucleoside
The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix. This in addition to H-bonds
(3)
confers stability of the helical structure
(4) The nitrogenous bases linked to sugar moiety project from the backbone

43) Identify A, B and C is the diagram depicting transcription below :-

A B C

(1) Rho (ρ) protein Nascent RNA Sigma (σ) factor

(2) RNA Rho (ρ) protein Sigma (σ) factor

(3) Sigma (σ) factor Rho (ρ) protein Nascent RNA

 (4) Sigma (σ) factor Nascent RNA Rho (ρ) protein
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Which of the following is required to synthesise a protein in a cell :-

(1) mRNA
(2) rRNA
(3) tRNA
(4) All the above

45) Histones are rich in :

(1) Basic amino acids

(2) Acidic amino acids
(3) Lysine and Arginine
(4) (1) and (3) both

46) If both strands of DNA are transcribed then the two RNA molecules formed must be :-

(1) Parallel and identical

(2) Antiparallel and complementary
(3) Parallel and complementary
(4) Antiparallel and Identical

47) Which of the following is adapter RNA ?

(1) m-RNA
(2) t-RNA
(3) r-RNA
(4) hn-RNA

48) Read the following 4 statement A-D and choose the correct option.
(A) RNA was the first genetic material.
(B) RNA used to act as a genetic material as well as a catalyst.
(C) RNA being a catalyst was reactive and hence unstable.
(D) RNA is evolved from DNA
How many statements are correct.

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B only
(3) C, D
(4) B, C only
49) In the given schematic structure of a transcription unit, identify the correct labelling for A to D.

A B C D

Template Coding
(1) Promotor Terminator
strand strand

Template Coding
(2) Terminator Promotor
strand strand

Coding Template
(3) Terminator Promotor
strand strand

Template Coding
(4) Promotor Terminator
strand strand
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

50) Which of the following statements concerning the regulatory genes (i), associated with the lac
operon are incorrect ?
I. mRNA is transcribed from the i gene whether lactose is present or not.
II. mRNA is transcribed from the i gene only when the lactose is present.
III. mRNA is transcribed from the i gene only when the lactose is not present.
IV. Lactose inhibits the translation of i gene mRNA.

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and IV
(4) II, III and IV

51) Anticodon present on tRNA complementary to initiator codon AUG of mRNA is

(1) ACU
(2) GUA
(3) TAC
(4) UAC

52) AAG codon codes for which amino acid ?

(1) Tyrosine
(2) Phenyl Alanine
(3) Lysine
(4) Tryptophan

53) Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations ?

(1) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-shift mutations

(2) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations
(3) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens
(4) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation

54) A segment of DNA has a base sequence : AAG, GAG, GAC, CAA, CCA–, Which one of the
following sequence represents a frame shift mutation :-

(1) AAG, GAG, GAC, CAA, CCA–

(2) AAG, AGG, ACC, AAC, CA–
(3) ACG, GAG, GAC, CAG, CC–
(4) AAG, GCG, GAC, CAG, CC–

55) [Link] cells with a mutated Z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium containing only
lactose as the source of energy because :-

(1) The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells

(2) They cannot synthesize functional β–galactosidase
(3) In the presence of glucose [Link] cells do not utilize lactose
(4) They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell

56) In prokaryotes, the predominant step of regulation of gene expression is :-

(1) Transcriptional level

(2) RNA processing
(3) Translation initiation
(4) RNA transfer from nucleus to cytoplasm

57)

The repressor protein binds to which of the following and prevent transcription of the lac z,y,a
genes.

(1) RNA polymerase

(2) Operator
(3) Promotor
(4) Lactose

58) Which of the following is not a RNA polymerase ?

(1) Primase
(2) Severo - Ochoa Enzyme
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(4) Reverse transcriptase

59) In prokaryote all the process like replication, transcription and translation take place in :

(1) completely in cytoplasm

(2) partially in nucleus
(3) completely in nucleus
(4) partially in nucleus and partially in cytoplasm

60) Read the following statements :-

(i) DNA from every tissue from an individual shows same degree of polymorphism.
(ii) The methodologies of HGP involves only one major approach of sequencing DNA of genome.
(iii) In lac operon, y-gene codes of for permease which increases permeability of cell membrane to β-
galactoside.
How many statements are correct-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None

61) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III :-

Column I Column II Column III

Initiation of Pribnow
1 a. i. Methionine
translation box
Removal of
2 super coil b. AUG ii. DNA gyrase
in replication
TATAAT Topo Recognise
3 c. iii.
sequence isomerase by σ factor
Loop Termination
4 (rho) factor d. iv.
recognition of transcription
(1) 1-b-i, 2-c-ii, 3-a-iii, 4-d-iv
(2) 1-d-ii, 2-a-iii, 3-c-iv, 4-b-i
(3) 1-c-iii, 2-d-iv, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii
(4) 1-a-iv, 2-b-iii, 3-c-ii, 4-d-i

62) DNA and RNA differ from each other with respect to :-

(1) Nitrogen base only

(2) Sugar only
(3) Nitrogen bases and phosphate
(4) Nitrogen bases and sugars

63) Which of the following property is not related to genetic code ?

(1) Comma less

(2) Ambiguous
(3) Degenerate
(4) Nearly Universal

64) Peptidyl transferase activity in 80-S and 70-S ribosomes is exhibited respectively by :-

(1) 23-S rRNA and 28-S rRNA

(2) 28-S rRNA and 23-S rRNA
(3) 18-S rRNA and 16-S rRNA
(4) 16-S rRNA and 18-S rRNA

65) Consider the given diagram of tRNA and select the right choice w.r.t. amino acid :-

(1) (A) - UCA; (B) - GUA

(2) (A) - ACU; (B) - AUG
(3) (A) - UCA; (B) - AAG
(4) (A) - UCA; (B) - AUG

66) 132 bp long ds DNA, from which 100th bp is removed, it will change how many amino acids in
polypeptide chain ?

(1) 32
(2) 33
(3) 1
(4) 11

67) Find out the correct sequence of structural genes in Lac operon:-

(1) y, a, z
(2) a, z, y
(3) z, y, a
(4) z, a, y

68) Which of the following molecule is present in the structure of tRNA?

(1) DHU
(2) Ψ
(3) Cytosine
(4) All of the above

69) DNA as a genetic material is not present in :-

(1) Tobacco mosaic virus

(2) Q. B. bacteriophage
(3) [Link]
(4) Both (1) and (2)

70) Which of the following feature is represented by chemically less reactive and structurally more
stable nucleic acid:-

(1) Presence of 5-methyl uracil

(2) Catalytic nature
(3) Scope for rapid mutation
(4) Direct involvement in protein synthesis

71) Regulation of lac-operon by repressor is referred to as:-

(1) Negative control

(2) Positive control
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Corepressor control

72) Select the correct option :-

Direction of
Direction
reading of
of RNA
the template
Synthesis
DNA Strand

(1) 5'-3' 3'-5'

(2) 3'-5' 5'-3'

(3) 5'-3' 5'-3'

(4) 3'-5' 3'-5'

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) Identify the correct match :-

(a) Rho factor (i) Tailing

 Poly A
(b) (ii) hn RNA
polymerase

Terminator
(c) 28s RNA (iii)
site

(d) Introns (iv) Ribozyme

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

74) Which of the following was not a goal of the mega project HGP ?

(1) To determine the sequence of 6 billion chemical base pairs

(2) To store the gathered information in database
(3) To transfer related technologies to other sectors, such as industry
(4) To address the ELSI that may a rise from the project

75) RFLP is due to variable number of ?

(1) Minisatellite in coding region

(2) Microsatellite in coding region
(3) Minisatellite in non-coding region
(4) Microsatellite in non-coding region

76) First life on earth was :-

(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Chemoheterotrophs
(3) Autotrophs
(4) Photoautotrophs

77) Who was the first to explain recapitulation theory :

(1) Weismann
(2) Haeckel
(3) Darwin
(4) Malthus

78) Choose the correct statement for the given experimental setup of Pasteur:
(1) This experiment was done to disprove the biogenesis
(2) Bacteria did not appear in the solution of flask B
(3) Bacteria appeared in the solutions of both the flask
(4) Bacteria appeared in the neck of flask A

79)

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A. Gene pool I. Stable within a generation

B. Genetic drift II. Change in gene frequency by chance

C. Gene flow III. Transfer of genes into or out of population.

D. Gene frequency IV. Total number of genes and their alleles

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

80) Match List-I with List-II according to convergent evolution.

List-I List-II

A. Lemur I. Flying phalanger

B. Bobcat II. Numbat

C. Ant eater III. Spotted cuscus

D. Flying squirrels IV. Tasmanian tiger cat

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D -I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
81)

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A. Living Fossil I. Elongated canine teeth

B. Connecting Link II. Vermiform appendix

C. Vestigial Organ III. Echidna

D. Atavism IV. Latimeria

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

82) Assertion: Crocodiles, Dinosaurs and Birds are result of divergent evolution.
Reason: Thecodonts were common ancestors of crocodiles, dinosaurs and birds.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

83) Which of the following statements is/are true?

(A) About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing.
(B) Homo habilis probably ate meat.
(C) About 65 mya ago, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from earth.
(D) Fossil of Homo erectus discovered in Java in 1881.

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A & C only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) B and D only

84) Evolutionary biology is the study of

(1) Origin of earth and universe

(2) Genetics of humans only
(3) History of life forms on earth
(4) Ecology of animals only

85) The story of origin of life and evolution of biodiversity on earth is explained in context of

(1) Special Creation theory

(2) Evolution of earth and universe
(3) Human evolution only
(4) Climate and geography

86) When we look at stars in clear night sky we are actually.

(1) Looking back in time

(2) Looking future of universe
(3) Looking in present time
(4) Feeling happy

87) Which experiment finally disproved the theory of spontaneous generation of life ?

(1) Darwin experiments on finches

(2) Miller urey experiment
(3) Pasteur swan-neck flask experiment
(4) Experiment on pea by Mendal

88) In millers experiment in 1953, which molecules were formed ?

(1) DNA and RNA

(2) Amino acids
(3) Enzymes
(4) Vitamins

89) Which of the following statements correctly describe palacontological evidences for Evolution ?

(1) Fossils are remains of animal parts only which are found in rocks.
(2) Different aged sedimentary layers contain fossil of same life forms
(3) Fossils help to determine geological period of existance of organisms.
(4) Fossil study shows that life forms remained unchanged through out history

90) Universe was formed about how many years ago ?

(1) 20 billion
(2) 13.8 billion
(3) 20 million
(4) 65 million
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Req =

Req =

Req =

=
Keq = 2K

2) PT = C , PV = nRT
T ∝ PV
P(PV) = C
P2V = C
PV1/2 = C

⇒ x=

C = CV +

4.5 R =

2.5 R =
f=5

3) Assertion is true because the triple point of water has a precisely defined temperature and
pressure used for thermometer calibration.

Reason is true because melting and boiling points change with pressure, unlike the unique
temperature and pressure of the triple point where all three phases coexist in equilibrium.

The stability and uniqueness of the triple point (stated in the Reason) are why it serves as a
reliable standard fixed point (stated in the Assertion). Thus, the Reason explains the Assertion.

4)

Slope →

1 × CP = 25
 = 3 ⇒ γ = 3γ – 3 ⇒ 2γ = 3 ⇒ γ = 3/2

5) ΔU = nCvΔT = f/2 (P2V2 – P1V1)

ΔU = Zero

6) λ =

⇒ (∵ n1 = n2)

7) Let temperature at which clock gives correct time is T

5= α (T – 15) ...(1)

10 = α (30 – T) ...(2)

8)
Case I :-

T1 = 560 K
Case II :-

9)

Heat gain = Heat loss

1400 × 1 (80 – 16)
= m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 80)

m=

10) (W)ABC = ⇒ +1J (Clockwise)

(W)ADE = = (Anticlockwise)
11) P = (nRT) ⇒ = P

using y = mx, we get, slope = m =

slope ∝ and (slope)A > (slope)B > (slope)C

⇒ TA < TB < TC

12) L100° = 60 cm

L0° = 10 cm
T = 80°C

13)

14) Amount of radiation emitted and absorbed by it will be equal.

15)

t2 = 21 hour

16) Process A → B
P = constant, V↓, W = –ve ⇒ work done on the gas and T ∝ V ; T↓, ΔU = –ve ⇒ change in
internal energy ↓
Q = ΔU + W = –ve ie. heat is lost
Process B → C, V = constant ; W = 0
and P ∝ T ; P↓, T↓ ; change in internal energy –ve
Q = ΔU
Q = –ve → Heat loss
Process C → D, P = constant
V↑, W = +ve
and V ∝T; T↑, ΔU = change in internal energy ↑ +ve
Q = ΔU + W
Q = +ve → Heat gained
Process D → A
T = constant ΔU = 0
V↓, W = –ve ; WD on the gas
Q = W + ΔU
 Q = –ve → Heat loss

17) PV = constant
2

= constant
TV = constant

18) ⇒ Cx < Cy
L ∝ Δt ⇒ Lx > Ly

19) PV = NKT

= 6.023×105

20)
=n

21) According to wein's law T↓ , λm

so ⇒ ⇒

22)

for random motion vx = vy = vz

23) rate (e = 1)

R1 = 0.629 cm

24) Max. stress =

 = 3.28 × 10 m
–4 2

25)

Let L → natural length

...(i)

...(ii)
Dividing (i) by (ii) and solving

26)

PA = PB

0
P + hρg + (2h)(3ρ)g = Ptube +

0
P + 7hρg = Ptube + hρg

0
∴ Ptube = P + hρg

27) h =

28) =

PL – Pu = – = (702 – 602)

Fup = (PL – Pu)A = (70 + 60) (70 – 60) × 2.5

= 2.11 × 103 N

29)

Let radius of big drop is 'R'

So R = (n1/3) (r) (For two drop n = 2)
R = (21/3) (r)
Surface energy U = (T) (A)
U = (T) (4πR2)
U = (T) [4π(21/3r)2]
U = (T) 4(π) 22/3 r2
 = (T) (2 )π(r )
8/3 2

30) Fv = T = Mg

= × 10–3 Pa s.

31) Let ρS, ρL be the density of silver and liquid. Also m and V be the mass and volume of silver
block.
∴ Tension in string = mg – bouyant force
T = ρSVg – ρL Vg = (ρS – ρL) Vg

Also V =

∴ T= mg

= × 4 × 10
= 37.12 N.

32) The core concept involves forces acting on objects placed on a water surface. Typically,
objects float if the buoyant force balances their weight (Archimedes' principle). However, a
thin needle floats because surface tension-the cohesive force at the water surface-supports its
weight without it sinking, rather than buoyancy.

Remember that buoyancy applies when an object displaces fluid, but surface tension can
support small objects if they don't break the water surface. This distinction helps in cases
involving floating needles or insects like water striders.

33) Volume of log of wood

Let x weight that can be put on the log of wood.

So weight of the body = (120 + x) ×10 N
Weight of displaced liquid = Vσg = 0.2×103×10 N
The body will just sink in liquid if the weight of the body will be equal to the weight of
displaced liquid.
∴ (120 + x) ×10 = 0.2 × 103 × 10
⇒ 120 + x = 200 ∴ x = 80 kg

34)

(SE)f = 10E
35) Let total volume is V and immersed volume in water is V1 then
w = Th1 + Th2
V ρ g = (V – V1) ρ2 g + V1 ρwg
V × 0.9 = (V – V1) × 0.7 + V1 × 1
V (0.9 – 0.7) = V1 (1 – 0.7)

36)
vT ∝ r2

vT' = 16 × 1.5 = 24 ms–1

37) = ρgh

⇒T=
= 60 dyne/cm

38)

By Bernoulli’s theorem

⇒
⇒ = 22 + 2 × 10 × 0.6
⇒ v2 = 4 m/s
By equation of continuity
A1v1 = A2v2
⇒ 2 × 10–4 × 2 = A2 × 4
⇒ A2 = 10–4 m2 = 1 cm2

39)

= 2 × 10–3 m3/s
40) Since, density of block = (density of water), 50% of its volume is immersed in water.
In the second case, half of the volume of the block is further immersed in water. Therefore,

W = Extra upthrust + Spring force

=a×a× × 2ρ × g + K

W=a

41) In a freely falling arrangement, liquid rises to the full length of capillary tube.

42) Applying Bernoulli's theorem at points 1 and 2, difference of pressure energy between 1

and 2 = difference in kinetic energy between 1 and 2. Hence,

43) Area of cross-section of each column, A =

Since each column supports one-quarter of the load.

∴F=

Compressional strain of each column =

44) Work done = Surface tension × change in surface area

= 0.03 × 2 × (40 × 10–4) J
= 2.4 × 10–4 J

45) Elastic potential energy stored per unit volume in a stretched wire
According to question,
(strain)1st wire = (strain)2nd wire
and Y1 = Y2 (as matrial is same)
 Hence U1 = U2 i.e., U1 : U2 = 1:1

CHEMISTRY

46)

= 2.22 × 10–4

47)

BaCl2 → Ba2+ + 2Cl– ____(I)

H2SO4 → 2H+ + ____(II)
HCl → H + Cl _____(III)
+ –

BaSO4 → Ba2+ + _____(IV)

(IV) = (I) + (II) –

48)

Comparing
>
Cathode : Fe+3 + e¯ → Fe+2

Anode : I¯ → I2 + e¯

Cell rxn : Fe+3 + I¯ → Fe+2 + I2

So I¯ will be oxidised to I2

49) Larger the value of E°RP larger is tendency for reduction and consequently stronger will be
the oxidant. Similarly, smaller the value of E°RP larger the tendency for oxidation and
consequently stronger will be the reductant.

50) (for sprangly soluble salt)

51)

Theory based

52)

{V.F of NaOH = 1}
= 0.1 mol.
W = n × Mw
= 0.1 × 40
= 4g

53)

St.-I :- 1 mole
V.F of H2O = 2
geq. of H2O = 1 mol × (V.F = 2)
= 2F

St.-2 :- geq. of Al =
= 4.44 F

54) log Keq

log Keq
log Keq = 16
Keq = 1016

55)

O.P of H2 electrode
H2 → 2H+ + 2e–

56)

Question Explanation :
To find .
Concept :
This question is based on Relation between ΔGº and Eº
ΔG° = –nFE°

Solution :
Given :

Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu ; n = 2 ; = – 2F(0.337) ............ (i)

Cu
2+
+ e → Cu ; n = 1 ;
– +
= – F(0.153) ............ (ii)
Cu + e → Cu ; n = 1 ;
+ –
= – F × Eº ............ (iii)
(i) – (ii) = (iii)

– F × Eº = – 0.337 × 2F – (– 0.153 F)

Eº = 0.52 V

Final answer : Option (2).

57)

Explanation

Faraday’s Laws of Electrolysis Faraday’s laws state that the amount of substance deposited or
liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the charge passed.

Concept

The charge required to deposit or liberate 1 mole of a substance depends on its equivalent
weight and valency.

Q=nF

where Q is the charge, n is the number of moles of electrons required, and F (Faraday
constant) is 96,500 C.

Calculations

A. 20 g of Ca from molten CaCl2

A. Molar mass of Ca = 40 g/mol

B. Number of moles of Ca = 20/40 = 0.5 moles

C. Reaction: Ca2++2e−→Ca

D. Charge required = 0.5×2F=1F

 E. Matches with (b)

B. 1 mole of H2 from H2O

A. Reaction: 2H2​O+2e →H2​+2OH

− −

B. For 1 mole of H2, 2 moles of e– required → Charge = 2F

C. Matches with (c)

C. 1 mole of O2 from H2O

A. Reaction: 2H2​O→O2​+4H++4e−

B. For 1 mole of O2, 4 moles of e– required → Charge = 4F

C. Matches with (d)

D. 0.5 g equivalent Al from Al2O3

A. Equivalent weight of Al = 9 g (as valency = 3, molar mass = 27 g/mol)

B. 0.5 g equivalent Al = (0.5/9) moles

C. Charge required per equivalent = 1F

D. Charge required = (0.5/9)×9F=0.5F

E. Matches with (a)

Answer Option 1, ( i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a).

58)

Given Data:

A. Daniell cell: Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(aq) || Cu²⁺(aq) | Cu(s)

B. Standard potential (E°cell) ≈ 1.1 V
C. External potential > 1.1 V and opposite in direction.

Concept:
A. Galvanic Cell (Daniell Cell - spontaneous):

A. Oxidation at the anode (Zn): Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻

B. Reduction at the cathode (Cu): Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu
C. Electrons flow from Zn to Cu.
D. Current flows from Cu to Zn (opposite to electron flow).
B. Electrolytic Cell (non-spontaneous):

A. Oxidation at the anode (Cu): Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻

B. Reduction at the cathode (Zn): Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Zn
C. Electrons are forced to flow from Cu to Zn.
D. Current flows from Zn to Cu.

Answer Explanation :
The key concept is the reversal of the reaction due to the applied potential. The external
potential overcomes the cell's natural potential, effectively flipping the signs of the half-cell
potentials and thus the overall cell potential.
(A) Electrons flow from Cu to Zn electrodes: Correct. The external potential forces the
electrons to flow in the opposite direction.
(C) It now functions as an electrolytic cell: Correct. The cell is now consuming electrical
energy to drive a non-spontaneous reaction.
(D) Zinc is deposited at the zinc electrode and copper dissolves at the copper electrode:
Correct. The reactions are reversed. Zinc ions are being reduced to zinc metal, and copper
metal is being oxidized to copper ions.

Final Answer:
The correct answer is 2: A, C, and D.

59)

(i) If [Zn+2] = [Cu+2] = 1M ⇒ Ecell = 1.1 V

(ii) If [Zn+2] = 0.1 M and [Cu+2] = 1M ⇒ Ecell > 1.1 V
(iii) If [Zn+2] = 1M and [Cu+2] = 0.1 M ⇒ Ecell < 1.1 V
(iv) If [Zn+2] = [Cu+2] = 0.1 M ⇒ Ecell = 1.1 V
So correct order will be

60)

H2 → 2H+
10–5 M
2H+ → H2
10–3 M
2H+ → 2H+
10–3M 10–5M
E = E0 = 0.118 volt

61)

q + w is state function

62) Question Explanation: We need to find correct conditions for free expansion for free
expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic process.

Concept :
→ Free expansion under adiabatic process.
→ ΔE = q + w

Solution :
During free expansion ⇒ w = 0
During adiabatic process ⇒ q = 0
∵ ΔE = q + w
q = 0, w = 0, ΔE = 0
ΔE ∝ ΔT ⇒ ΔT = 0

q = 0 ΔT = 0 and w = 0

Final Answer : option (2)

63)

ΔE = q + w

64)

In isothermal process
ΔH = 0
ΔU = 0

65) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(ℓ)

Δng = – 2
∵ Δng < 0 ∴ ΔH° < ΔU°

66)

ω = –2.303 nRT log

= –2.303 × 1 × 8.31 × 273 log

= –2.303 × 8.31 × 273 × 1
= –5227 J

67) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 183, Q. no. 6.19

68) ΔG° = –2.303 RT log10KP

ΔG° = –2.303 × 8.31 × 298 × log(5 × 10–5)
ΔG° = 2.303 × 8.31 × 298 × [5 – log5]
ΔG° = 24523 Joule
= 24.52 KJ

69)

ΔH = ΣΔHf(P) –ΣΔHf(R)
or ΔH = [81 + 3(–393)] – [9.7 + 3(–110)]
or ΔH = –1098 + 320.3
or ΔH ≃ –778 kJ mol–1

70)

Hess law

(T.R)

71)
ΔH = [4 × eC–H + eH–H + eC=C] – [6 × eC–H + eC–C]
ΔH = [4 × 414 + 435 + 615] – [6 × 414 + 347]
ΔH = –125 kJ

72)

B.E. of X2 = x

∴ B.E. of
B.E of xY = x

ΔHf = –200
ΔH = B.E(R) – B.E(P)

x = 800

73)

Theory based
74)
Δng = –1
–q = Δu – 300 R
Δu = 300 R – q

75) In adiabatic expansion temperature decrease and isothermal expansion temperature is

constant, area under the curve ∝ work.

76)

Explanation:
The question asks which of the provided pairs of elements share the same number of electrons
in their outermost (valence) electron shell.

Concept: (Electron sharing in their outermost shell)

Selenium (Se) and Tellurium (Te) are both in Group 16 of the periodic table. Elements in
Group 16 possess 6 valence electrons. Therefore, Se and Te have the same number of valence
electrons.

Final Answer : Option (2)

77) Question Explanation: Given at. no. 10, 18, 35, 54 and 86 fall in which of the options.
Concept : Apply magic no. to arrive at the given atomic no's.
Solution :

Thus we can conclude that the given atomic no's 10, 18, 36, 54, 86 belongs to inert gas group.
Final Answer : option (2).

78) Asking for: If M+3 has configuration [Ar]3d10 then M belongs to :-

Concept: Electronic configuration, block elements, transition metals.
Formula: N/A, but understanding the relationship between electronic configuration and block
placement
Solution/Explanation:
1. M Configuration: The given configuration [Ar]3d indicates that the M ion has a
+3 10 +3

completely filled 3d subshell.

2. Neutral M: To determine the block of the neutral atom M, we need to add back the three
electrons that were removed to form the M+3 ion.
3. Adding Electrons:
° [Ar] 3d represents a configuration where the 4s and 4p orbitals are empty.
10

° Adding three electrons would result in the following possible scenarios:

0
• 4s1 3d10 4p (d-block)
0
• 4s2 3d10 4p (d-block)
• 4s2 3d10 4p1 (d-block)
If M+3 has a 3d10 configuration, then M must have electrons in 4s and 4p orbitals.
4. p-block
° The most likely case is that the neutral atom M had a configuration ending in 4s2 3d10 4p1,
which corresponds to a p-block element
° For example, consider the element Gallium (Ga), Ga has the configuration [Ar] 4s2 3d10 4p1. If
Ga loses 3 electrons, it forms Ga with the configuration [Ar] 3d10.
° If M is Gallium (Ga) then it is a p-block element
Answer:
Option: 2

79)

Explanation -

The question asks to identify the set of elements from the given options that are all located in
the same horizontal row (period) of the periodic table.

Concept - Identification of period

Solution -

Elements in the same period have the same highest electron shell. Examining the periodic
table positions, Sn (Period 5, Group 14), Sb (Period 5, Group 15), and Te (Period 5, Group 16)
all belong to Period 5.

Final Answer - Option (3)

80) Explanation:
Question is asking about identification of element belonging to carbon family
Concept:
Identificaiton of group
Solution:
Carbon belongs to group 14 of the periodic table.
Ununquadim (Uuq) is the temporary, systematic name for the element with atomic number
114, which was later renamed Flerovium (Fl). It's a synthetic, radioactive, and superheavy
element. Ununquadium is located in Group 14 of the periodic table.

81)