Question Match the pair

a) Economizer i) steam
b) Air-preheater ii) water
c) Superheater iii) coal
d) Boiler iv) air
A a)-ii), b)-iv), c)-i), d)-iii)
B a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-i), d)-ii)
C a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-ii), d)-i)
D a)-i), b)-iv), c)-i), d)-ii)
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

a) Coal and ash circuit i) Surface condenser
b) Air and flue gas circuit ii) Pulverization
c) Feed water and steam circuit iii) Chimney
d) Cooling water circuit iv) Superheater
A a)-ii), b)-iv), c)-i), d)-iii)
B a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-i), d)-ii)
C a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-ii), d)-i)
D a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-iv), d)-i)
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

a) Flue gases i) Surface condenser
b) Cooling water ii) Pulverization
c) steam iii) Chimney
d) Coal iv) Superheater
A a)-ii), b)-iv), c)-i), d)-iii)
B a)-iii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-ii)
C a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-ii), d)-i)
D a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-iv), d)-i)
Answer B
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

a) Conveyer belt i) Coal Combustion
b) Induced fan ii) Flue gas
c) Furnace iii) Ash collection
 d) Chimney iv) Coal Handling
A a)-ii), b)-iv), c)-i), d)-iii)
B a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i), d)-iv)
C a)-iv), b)-iii), c)-i), d)-ii)
D a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-iv), d)-i)
Answer C
Marks 2

Question Which statements are correct

1) A large extent of land is required for the erection of thermal plant.
2) The operation of a thermal plant requires huge quantities of water.
3) The site should be near to the residential localities
4) It should be located away from load centers
A 1) and 3)
B 1) and 4)
C 2) and 1)
D 4) and 2)
Answer C
Marks 2

Question In type boiler tubes are surrounded by water and in type boiler
is surrounded by fire in steam power plant
A Water tube, Fire tube
B Fire tube, Water tube
C Coolant tube, Fire tube
D Water tube, Coolant tube
Answer B
Marks 2

Question In turbines, the steam pressure remains the same and in turbines, the
steam pressure remains the same during the flow of steam over the turbine blades
A impulse, reaction
B reaction, impulse
C kaplan, reaction
D kaplan, impulse
Answer A
Marks 2
Question In turbines, complete steam is placed on turbine blades and in turbines,
partial steam is placed on turbine blades
A impulse, reaction
B reaction, impulse
C kaplan, reaction
D kaplan, impulse
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Which statements are correct related to superheater?

1) Superheater is one of the auxiliary equipment used to increase the efficiency of a boiler
2)A superheater is used to reduce temperature of saturated steam
3) A superheater is used to remove the last traces of moisture from the saturated steam
4) A superheater utilizes the heat content of flue gases
A 1), 2) and 3)
B 2), 3) and 4)
C 1), 3) and 4)
D All are correct
Answer C
Marks 2

Question Which statement is correct related to condenser in steam power plant

1) It evaporates the steam exhausted from the turbine.
2) It helps maintain a low pressure (below the atmospheric pressure) at the exhaust.
3) This use of a condenser in a power plant decrease the efficiency.
A 1)
B 2)
C 3)
D All
Answer B
Marks 2

Id
Question is used to increase the temperature of feed water utilizing heat of .
A Air-preheater, flue gases
B Superheater, flue gases
C Flue gases, superheater
D Economizer, Flue gases
Answer D
Marks 2

Question is used to increase the temperature of steam utilizing heat of

.
A Air-preheater, flue gases
B Superheater, flue gases
C Flue gases, superheater
D Flue gases, Air-preheater,
Answer B
Marks 2

Question In condenser steam to be condensate is surrounded by cooling water and in

condenser steam to be condensate is surrounded by tube of cooling water
A surface, jet
B mixing, non mixing
C jet, surface
D Non mixing, mixing
Answer C
Marks 2

Question On which factors the design of a furnace is based on the following factors:
1) The amount of fuel to be burnt.
2) The type of the fuel to be burnt.
3) The type of firing.
4)The load on the boiler and the maximum steam output required.
A Only 1) and 2)
B Only 2) and 3)
C Only 3) and 4)
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Jet condenser is a example of condenser and surface condenser is the example
of condenser
A Contact, Non-contact
B Non-contact, Contact
C Shell type, tube type
D Tube type, shell type
Answer A
Marks 2

Question and firing schemes can be used for small thermal plants and large thermal
power plants receptively
A Pulverized, solid
B Solid, pulverized
C Gas, pulverized
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 2

Question The path followed by flue gas cycle is

A Superheater--Economizer--Airpreheater--Chimney
B Superheater--Economizer--Condenser--Chimney
C Economizer--Superheater--Airpreheater--Chimney
D Air-preheater-- Superheater-- Economizer-- Condenser
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Which statement is incorrect in case of coal firing

1) the proper quantities of the primary and secondary air needed for combustion,
2) the necessary stoker or grate area needed for burning the coal,
3) the designed temperature to be attained, and
4) the coal can directly feed to furnace without preparation
A 4
B 2
C 1
D 3
Answer A
Marks 2

Question The coal based steam power plants are located in Maharashtra at
A Chandrapur, Koradi, Parali
B Chandrapur, Tarapur, Radhanagari
C Parali, Koyan, Bhira
D Tarapur, Chandrapur, Ujani
Answer A
Marks 2

Question In following which is correct sequence in coal handling system

A Unloading-- Preparation-- Outdoor storage – Indoor storage
B Preparation-- Unloading-- Outdoor storage – Indoor storage
C Outdoor storage – Indoor storage-- Preparation-- Unloading
D Indoor storage--Outdoor storage – Preparation-- Unloading
Answer A
Marks 2

Question is known as dead storage and is known as live storage

A Indoor, Outdoor
B Outdoor, Indoor
C Plant, Outdoor
D Indoor, Plant
Answer B
Marks 2

Question In site selection of thermal power plant, which statements are correct?
1) Cost of land should be reasonable.
2) Abundant quality of cooling water for the condenser should be available.
3) Station should be located near to the load center.
4) Site should be connected by good transportation facility
A 1), 2) and 3)
B 2), 3) and 4)
C 1), 2) and 4)
D All
Answer D
Marks 2

Question analysis of coal gives information about moister, ash content of coal where as
analysis gives chemical composition of coal.
A Proximate, Ultimate
B Ultimate, Proximate
C Otto, Proximate
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Question is a part of cooling water circuit and is a part feed water and steam circuit
A Superheater, Air-preheater
B Condenser, Economizer
C Economizer, Condenser
D Boiler, Chimney
Answer B
Marks 2

Question is a part of fuel and ash circuit and is a part feed water and steam circuit
A Superheater, Air-preheater
B Condenser, Economizer
C Economizer, Condenser
D Chimney, Economies
Answer D
Marks 2

Question The natural draught can be produced by _ and forced draught can be produced by
.
A Fan, Chimney
B Chimney, Fan
C Jet, Chimney
D Steam jet, Fan
Answer B
Marks 2

Question is a part of air and gas circuit and _ is a part fuel and ash circuit
A Superheater, Condenser
B Condenser, Economizer
C Economizer, Condenser
D Chimney, Coal handling system
Answer D
Marks 2

Question is a part of cooling water circuit and is a part fuel and ash circuit
A Superheater, Condenser
B Condenser, Economizer
C Economizer, Condenser
D Spray Pond, pulverization
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

a) Fire tube boiler i) Furnace inside boiler
b) Water tube boiler ii) Furnace outside boiler
c) Externally fired boiler iii) Hot gases is inside tube
d) Internally fired boiler iv) Water is inside tube
A a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-ii) d)-i)
B a)-iv), b)-iii), c)-i) d)-ii)
C a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iii) d)-iv)
D a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iv) d)-iii)
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

a) Fire tube boiler i) Works on pressure below 80 bar
b) Water tube boiler ii) Works on pressure above 80 bar
c) High pressure boiler iii) Limited upto 16 bar pressure
d) Low pressure boiler iv) Can be used with 100 bar pressure
A a)-iv), b)-iii), c)-i) d)-ii)
B a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-ii) d)-i)
C a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iii) d)-iv)
D a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iv) d)-iii)
Answer B
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

a) Artificial draught i) Combination of induced and forced type fan
b) Forced draught ii) Fan is installed near the base of chimney
c) Induced draught iii) Can be produced using chimney
d) Balanced draught iv) Fan installed near the base of boiler
A a)-iv), b)-iii), c)-i) d)-ii)
B a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-ii) d)-i)
C a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iii) d)-iv)
D a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iv) d)-iii)
Answer B
Marks 2
Question Match the pair
a) Gravitational separators collector i) Wet type dust collector
b) Plate type dust collector ii) Dry type dust collector
c) Spray type collector iii) Electrostatic dust collector
A a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iii)
B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)
C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii)
D a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)
Answer D
Marks 2

Question storage provides coal to meet one day requirement of boiler and storage
store the coal required in bulk quantity.
A Live, dead
B Dead, Live
C Outdoor, indoor
D Outdoor, Live
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Which statements are incorrect in following?

1) Belt conveyer are suitable to transport large quanitity of coal economically.
2) There should be no standing water near the storage area.
3) Air-preheater is used to heat the water feeding to boiler.
4) Economizer is used to heat air feed to the furnace for combination.
A 1) and 2)
B 2) and 3)
C 3) and 4)
D 4) and 1)
Answer C
Marks 2

Question Find true or false statements

i) Ligtinite type coal content high moister, low calorific value and large ash.
ii) Coke type coal content low moister, high calorific value and low ash.
A Both staments are false
B Both staments are true
C i)-false ii)-true
D i)-true ii)-false
Answer B
Marks 2

Question Find true or false statements

i) The Rankine cycle efficiency can be increased by increasing average temperature of heat
supplied.
ii) The Rankine cycle efficiency can be increased by reducing average temperature of heat
rejected.
A Both staments are false
B Both staments are true
C i)-false ii)-true
D i)-true ii)-false
Answer B
Marks 2

Question Find true or false statements

i) The Regenerative cycle reduces the thermal stresses set up in boiler
ii) The Rankine reduces the thermal stresses set up in boiler
A Both staments are false
B Both staments are true
C i)-false ii)-true
D i)-true ii)-false
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Good steam boiler prduces weight of steam of the required quality at
expenses
A minimum, maximum
B maximum, minimum
C minimum, minimum
D maximum, maximum
Answer B
Marks 2

Question The steam turbine is having low efficiency that steam turbine
A reaction, impulse
B impulse, reaction
C pelton wheel, impulse
D reaction, pelton wheel
Answer B
Marks 2
 S.E (Electrical)

Power Generation Technique

MCQs No. 1
1. Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy ?
(A) Tidal power
(B) Geothermal energy
(C) Nuclear energy
(D) Wind power.
2. Pulverized coal is
(A) coal free from ash
(B) non-smoking coal
(C) coal which bums For long time
(D) coal broken into fine particles.
3. Heating value of coal is approximately
(A) 1000-2000 kcal / kg
(B) 2000-4000 kcal / kg
(C) 5000-6500 kcal / kg
(D) 9000-10,500 kcal / kg.
4. Water gas is a mixture of
(A) CO2 and O2
(B) O2and H2
© H2, N2 and O2
(D) CO, N2 and H2
5. Coal used in power plant is also known as
(A) steam coal
(B) charcoal
(C) coke
(D) soft coal.
6. Which of the following is considered as superior quality of coal ?
(A) Bituminous coal
(B) Peat
(C) Lignite
(D) Coke.
7. In a power plant, coal is carried from storage place to boilers generally by means of
(A) bucket
(B) V-belts
(C) trolleys
(D) manually.
8. Live storage of coal in a power plant means
(A) coal ready for combustion
(B) preheated coal
 (C) storage of coal sufficient to meet 24 hour demand of the plant
(D) coal in transit.
9. Pressure of steam in condenser is
(A) atmospheric pressure
(B) more than pressure
(C) slightly less than pressure
(D) much less than pressure.
10. Equipment used for pulverizing the coal is known as
(A) Ball mill
(B) Hopper
(C) Burner
(D) Stoker.
11. Power plants using coal work closely on known which of the following cycle ?
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Binary vapor cycle
(C) Brayton cycle
(D) Rankine cycle.
12. Critical pressure of water is
(A) 1 kg / cm2
(B) 100 kg / cm2
(C) 155 kg / cm2
(D) 213.8 kg / cm2
13. The efficiency of a thermal power plant improves with
(A) increased quantity of coal burnt
(B) larger quantity of water used
(C) lower load in the plant
(D) use of high steam pressures.
14. Which of the following contributes to the improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle in a
thermal power plant ?
(A) Reheating of steam at intermediate stage
(B) Regeneration use of steam for heating boiler feed water
(C) Use of high pressures
(D) All of the above.
15. Steam pressures usually used in thermal power plants are
(A) 5 kg/cm2 to 10 kg / cm2
(B) 50 kg/cm2 to 100 kg / cm2
(C) 110 kg/cm2 to 170 kg / cm2
(D) 200 kg/cm2 to 215 kg / cm2
16. When pulverized fuel is not used, the equipment used for supplying coal to the boiler is
(A) Heater
(B) Stoker
(C) Burner
(D) Skip hoist.
17. Burning of low grade fuel can be improved by
(A) Blending with better quality
(B) Oil assisted ignition
 (C) Pulverizing
(D) Any of the above.
18. As steam expands in turbine
(A) its pressure increases
(B) its specific volume increases
(C) its boiling point increases
(D) its temperature increases.

19. Water is supplied to a boiler

(A) at atmospheric pressure
(B) at slightly more than atmospheric pressure
(C) at 100 cm/kg2
(D) at more than the steam pressure on the boiler.
20. Which of the following enters the super heater of a boiler ?
(A) Cold water
(B) Hot water
(C) Wet steam
(D) Super-heated steam.
21. Super heated steam is always
(A) at a temperature higher than the saturation temperature corresponding to a
steam pressure
(B) at a pressure more than the boiler steam pressure
(C) separated from water particles before being supplied to turbine
(D) at a pressure less than the maximum cycle pressure.
22. The equipment installed in power plants to reduce air pollution due to smoke is
(A) Induced draft fans
(B) De-super heaters
(C) Electrostatic precipitators
(D) Re-heaters.
23. Permissible pH value of water for boilers is
(A) 1
(B) 7
(C) slightly more than 7
(D) 10.
24. A condenser in a thermal power plant condenses steam combing out of
(A) Boiler
(B) Super-heater
(C) Economizer
(D) Turbine.
25. Which of the following, is not a high pressure boiler ?
(A) Loeffler boiler
(B) Lancashire boiler
(C) Velox boiler
(D) Lamont boiler.
26. What is the maximum size of steam turbine usually being installed, for thermal power plants
(A) 120 MW
 (B) 250 MW
(C) 500 MW
(D) 1000 MW.
27. Overall thermal efficiency of a steam power station is in the range
(A) 18-24%
(B) 30-40%
(C) 44-62%
(D) 68-79%.
28. Which of the following is not the voltage at which power is usually transmitted
(A)132 kV
(B) 66 kV
(C) 33 kV
(D) 20 kV.
29. Most of the generators in thermal power plants run at
(A) 3000 rpm
(B) 1500 rpm
(C) 1000 rpm
(D) 750 rpm.
30. In regenerative cycle, bled steam is
(A) discharged to atmosphere
(B) condensed in steam condenser
(C) used to beat feed water for boiler
(D) is mixed with steam supplied to turbine.
31. Standard frequency usually for electric supply is
(A) 50 Hz
(B) 60 Hz
(C) 50 to 60 Hz
(D) 50 to 55 Hz.
32. In power station practice "spinning reserve" is
(A) reserve generating capacity that is in operation but not in service
(B) reserve generating capacity that is connected to bus and ready to take the load
(C) reserve generating capacity that is available for service but not in operation
(D) capacity of the part of the plant that remains under maintenance.
33. Bagasse is
(A) low quality coal
(B) a fuel consisting of wood
(C) fibrous portion of sugarcane left after extracting the juice
(D) a kind of rice straw.
34. Low grade fuels have
(A) low moisture content
(B) low ash content
(C) low calorific value
(D) low carbon content.
35. Which variety of coal has lowest calorific value?
(A) Steam-coal
(B) Bituminous coal
 (C) Lignite
(D) Anthracite.
36. In a steam locomotive the engine is
(A) Single cylinder
(B) Vertical
(C) Condensing
(D) Non-condensing.
37. The boilers using lignite as fuel do not use
(A) under feed stoker
(B) traveling grate stoker
(C) spreader stoker
(D) all of the above.
38. In a steam turbine cycle, the lowest pressure occurs in
(A) turbine inlet
(B) boiler
(C) condenser
(D) super heater.
39. Steam pressure in modem thermal plants of 100 MW and above capacity may be exacted to
be
(A) 10 kg/cm2
(B) 50 kg/cm2
(A) up to 100kg/cm2
(D) more than 100 kg/cm2.
40. The overall efficiency of a boiler in a thermal power plant is of the order of
(A)10%
(B) 25 to 30%
(C) 40 to 50%
(D) 70 to 80%.
41. Chemical composition of coal is given by
(A) Proximate analysis
(B) Ultimate analysis
(C) Orast analysis
(D) All of the above
42. Which coal will have highest ash content ?
(A) Bituminous coal
(B) Grade I steam coal
(C) Coking coal
(D) Lignite.
43. Ash content of most of the Indian coals is around
(A) 1%
(B) 5%
(C) 10%
(D) 20%.
44. Ash content of coal can be reduced by
(A) slow burning
(B) washing
 (C) pulverizing
(D) mixing with high grade coal.
45. A 100 MW thermal power-plant will consume nearly how many tonnes of coal in one hour ?
(A) 50 tonnes
(B) 150 tonnes
(C) 1500 tonnes
(D) 15,000 tonnes.
46. The steam consumption per kWh of electricity generated in a modem power plant is of the
order of
(A) 1-2 kgs
(B) 2-4 kgs
(C) 5-7 kgs
(D) 10-12 kgs.
47. For low head and high discharge, the hydraulic turbine used is
(A) Kaplan turbine
(B) Francis turbine
(C) Pelton wheel
(D) Jonual turbine.
48. Soot is virtually nothing but
(A) ash
(B) cinder
© gas
(D) carbon
49. In pumped storage
(A) Power is produced by means of pumps
(B) Water is stored by pumping to high pressures
(C) Downstream water is pumped up-stream during off load periods
(D) Water is re circulated through turbine.
50. If the air standard efficiency of. a thermodynamic cycle is given as
η= 1 - ( k ( r-1 ) ) / ( rk-1 ) where r = compression ratio, k = Cp/ Cv the cycle is
(A) Lenoir cycle
(B) Brayton cycle
(C) Atkinson cycle
(D) None of the above.
 S.E (Electrical)

Power Generation Technique

MCQs No. 2
1. A graphical representation between discharge and time is known as
(A) Monograph (B) Hectograph
(C) Topograph (D) Hydrograph.
2. Cost of operation of which plant is least ?
(A) Gas turbine plant (B) Thermal power plant
(C) Nuclear power plant (D) Hydroelectric plant.
3. In a hydro-electric plant a conduct system for taking water from the intake works to the turbine is known as
(A) Dam (B) Reservoir
(C) Penstock (D) Surge tank.
4. A Pelton wheel is
(A) inward flow impulse turbine (B) Outward flow impulse turbine
(C) Inward flow reaction turbine (D) Axial flow impulse turbine.
5. Running away speed of a Pelton wheel is
(A) Actual operating speed on no load (B) Full load speed
(C) No load speed when governor mechanism fails
(D) 90% greater than the normal speed.
6. Spouting velocity is
(A) Ideal velocity of jet (B) 50% of ideal velocity of jet
(C) Actual velocity of jet (D) Velocity of jet under specified conditions.
7. Outward radial flow turbines
(A) are impulses turbines (B) are reaction turbines
(C) are partly impulse partly reaction turbines
(D) may be impulse or reaction turbines.
8. A Francis turbine is
(A) Inward flow reaction turbine (B) Inward flow impulse turbine
(C) Outward flow reaction turbine (D) Outward flow impulse turbine.
9. A Kaplan turbine is
(A) a high head mixed flow turbine (B) an impulse turbine, inward flow type
(C) an reaction turbine, outward flow type (D) low head axial flow turbine.
10. In turbulent flow
(A) the fluid particles move in orderly manner
(B) momentum transfer is on molecular scale only
(C) shear stresses are generally larger than in laminar flow
(D) cohesion is more effective than momentum transfer in causing shear stress.
11. An impulse turbine
(A) always operates submerged (B) makes use of a draft tube
(C) is most suited for low head installations
(D) operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy.
12. In an impulse turbine
(A) water must be admitted over the whole circumference of the wheel
(B) it is net possible to regulate the flow without loss
(C) wheel must run full and be-kept entirely submerged in water below the tail race
(D) the pressure in the driving fluid as it moves over the vane, is atmospheric.
13. In binary vapor cycle
(A) steam at 2 different pressures is used (B) steam is expanded in 2 turbines
(C) two fluids are used (D) vapor and liquid are used as working substances
14. Steam engine used in locomotive is
(A) single acting, condensing type (B) single acting, non-condensing type
(C) double acting, non-condensing type (D) double acting, condensing type.
15. In a thermal power plant cooling towers are used to
(A) condense low pressure steam (B) cool condensed steam
(C) cool water used in condenser for condensing steam (D) cool feed water of boiler
16. Major constituent of methane gas is
(A) CO (B) methane
(C) oxygen (D) hydrogen.
17. Caking is
(A) making cakes of coal out of fine powders (B) a variety of free burning coals
(C) coal produced from burning of wood in inert atmosphere
(D) in boiler furnace some coals become plastic and form lumps or masses of coal.
18. 1 atomic mass unit is equal to
(A) 1.66 x 10 -27 kg (B) 1.66 x 10-25 kg
(C) 1.66 x 10 -17 kg (D) 1.66 x 10-10 kg.
19. Particles having the same atomic number but different mass numbers arc called
(A) Positrons (B) Beta particles
(C) Isotopes (D) Decayed panicles.
20. Which of the following material can be used as a moderator ?
(A) Graphite (B) Heavy water
(C) Beryllium (D) Any of the above.
21. In closed cooling system
(A) hot water is re circulated after cooling (B) water does not flow
(C) air and water cooling is simultaneously used
(D) constant supply of fresh water for cooling is required.
22. A gas turbine works on
(A) Carnot cycle (B) Brayton cycle
(C) Dual cycle (D) Rankine cycle.
23. Maximum efficiency of an open cycle gas turbine is nearly
(A) 30% (B) 40%
(C) 50% (D) 60%.
24. Compressor used in gas turbines is
(A) reciprocating compressor (B) plunger type compressor
(C) screw compressor (D) multistage axial flow compressor.
25. Which auxiliary of gas turbine consumes most of the power ?
(A) Burner (B) Combustion chamber
(C) Compressor (D) Fuel pump.
26. Gas turbine is widely used in
(A) pumping stations (B) aircraft
(C) locomotives (D) automobiles.
27. In aircraft using gas turbine, the cycle used is
(A) Simple (B) Regeneration
(C) Reheating (D) Reheating with regeneration
28. Overall efficiency of gas turbine is
(A) equal to Rankine cycle efficiency (B) equal to Carnot cycle efficiency
(C) more than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency
(D) less than Diesel cycle efficiency.
 29. In the figure, constant volume cycle is represented by

(A) 1245 (B)1235

(C) 12461 (D) 12345
30. The cycle 1236 represents
(A) Otto cycle (B) Dual cycle
(C) Constant pressure cycle (D) Atkinson cycle.
31. Diesel cycle is represented by
(A) 1236 (B) 1246
(C) 1245 (D) 1285
32. Which cycle cannot be represented in the given figure ?
(A) Otto cycle (B) Constant pressure cycle
(C) Carnot cycle (D) Brayton cycle.
33. The horse power of a Diesel locomotive is of the order of
(A) 100 to 200 (B) 500 to 1000
(C) 2000 to 2500 (D) 10.000 to 12,000.
34. A Diesel engine consumes Diesel oil nearly at the rate of
(A) 180 to 200 gm/BHP hr (B) 400 to 450 gm/BHP hr
(C) 600 to 750 gm/BHP hr (D) 1 kg/BHP hr.
35. The compression ratio in case of diesel engines is
(A) 5 to 7 (B) 7 to 10
(C) 14 to 22 (D) 25 to 36.
36. The firing order of a four cylinder engine is
(A)1-2-4-3 (B)1-4-2-3
(C) 1-2-3-4 (D)1-3-2-4.
37. The performance of engines of different HP, RPM and sizes can be compared on the basis of
(A) specific fuel consumption (B) compression ratio
(C) clearance volume (D) cylinder volume.
38. Advantage of hydro-electric power station is
(A) low operating cost (B) free from pollution problems
(C) no fuel transportation problems (D) all of the above.
39. Which engine will have highest efficiency, between given temperature limits ?
(A) Carnot cycle (B) Otto cycle
 (C) Diesel cycle (D) Dual cycle.
40. Which if (he following is a non-petroleum fuel ?
(A) Benzol (B) Methyl alcohol
(C) Ethyl alcohol (D) All of the above.
41. Heating value of diesel oil is the range
(A) 1000-1200 kcal/kg (B) 2000-5000 kcal/kg
(C) 5000-9000 kcal/kg (D) 9500-11000 kcal/kg.

42. Which of the following relation is correct ?

(A) Weight of oxygen = 0.32 weight of air (B) Weight of oxygen = 0.32 weight of air
(C) Weight of air = 0.23 weight of oxygen (D) Weight of air =2.33 x weight of oxygen.
43. How many kg of air are required for the combustion of one kg of diesel fuel ?
(A) 1 kg (B) 1.3 kg
(C) 4 kg (D) 15 kg.
44. Due to burning of 1 kg of pure carbon with a minimum quantity of air required, the percentage of carbon
dioxide in the exhaust gas would be
(A) 10% (B) 19%
(C) 29% (D) 39%.
45. Diesel engine fuels are rated by
(A) Octane number (B) H.U.C.R.
(C) Cetane number (D) CRF number
46. The formula for cetane is
(A) C16 H34 (B) C12H32
(C) C10 H32 (D) C8H16.
47. Cetane number of high speed diesel available in market is
(A) 100 (B) 80 to 90
(C) 60 to 75 (D) 45 to 55
48. If a engine has spark plug, it can be safely concluded that the engine is
(A) not a diesel engine (B) a two stroke petrol engine
(C) a four stroke petrol engine (D) an air cooled petrol engine.
49. Air standard efficiency of a diesel engine depends on
(A) compression ratio (B) speed
(C) fuel (D) torque
50. A diesel engine of a bus is stared by
(A) Hand cranking (B) Self-starter
(C) Compressed air (D) Mini-petrol engine.
51. In a diesel engine fuel is injected at a pressure of
(A) 10 kg/cm2 (B) 20-30 kg/cm2
2
(C) 60 - 80 kg/cm (D) 90 - 130 kgcm2
52. Diesel [Link] power plants are usually
(A) horizontal (B) slow speed (C) supercharged (D) air cooled.
54. Piston rings for engines are made of
(A) east iron (B) copper (C) aluminium (D) mild steel.
55. In a piston the maximum temperature occurs at
(A) ring section (B) gudgeon pin (C) top sides (D) top center.
56. The temperature at which a lubricating oil will give off sufficient vapors to form combustible mixture with
air, is known as (A) Flash point (B) Fire point
(C) Pour point (D) Combustion point.
57. Which temperature for a lubricating oil will be lowest ?
(A) Flash point (B) Fire point (C) Pour point (D) Boiling
58. Specific gravity of diesel oil is
(A) 0.84 (B) 1.14 (C) 2.7 (D) 3.8.
59. Rank of coal is based oil
(A) fixed carbon and healing value (B) ash content
(C) size (D) ash and moisture content.
60. The function of piston rings in an internal combustion engine is
(A) to prevent lubrication oil from entering the combustion space
(B) to prevent leakage of combustion chamber products past piston
(C) to transfer heat from piston to cylinder walls
(D) all of the above.
 S.E (Electrical)

Power Generation Technique

MCQs No. 3
1. Which engine has the highest air fuel ratio ?
(A) Petrol engine (B) Gas engine
(C) Diesel engine (D) Gas turbine.
2. Which of the following will not assist in getting high power output from a compression ignition engine ?
(A) High compression ratio (B) Fine atomization of fuel
(C) High charge density (D) Large quantity of excess air.
3. The purpose of super-charging an engine is
(A) to increase the power output of the engine
(B) to reduce specific fuel consumption
(C) to reduce the noise of the engine (D) to improve the cooling of cylinders.
4. Most of the heat generated in internal combustion engine is lost in
(A) cooling water (B) exhaust gases
(C) lubricating oil (D) radiation.
5. In case of diesel engines thermal efficiency is of the order of
(A) 10 to 15 percent (B) 15 of 25 percent
(C) 25 to 30 percent (D) 30 to 40 percent
6. A mixture containing 60% cetane and 40% Iso-octane will have
(A) cetane number 60 (B) cetane number 40
(C) octane number 40 (D) none of the above.
7. For supercharging of diesel engines, the air is supplied through
(A) reciprocating compressor (B) centrifugal blower
(C) axial flow compressor (D) injector.
8. The compression ratio in case of gas turbine is of the order of
(A) 5 to 7 (B)10 to 15
(C) 15 to 22 (D) 22 to 30.
9. A regenerator in a gas turbine
(A) reduces heat loss in exhaust (B) permits use of higher compression ratio
(C) improves thermal efficiency (D) permits use of fuels of inferior quality.
10. Out of the following diesel engines, the minimum air consumption per BHP will be in
(A) 4 stroke, mechanical injection (B) 4 stroke, air injection
(C) 2 stroke, air injection (D) 2 stroke, mech. injection, pump scavenging.
11. For the same maximum pressure and heat input the most efficiency cycle is
(A) Brayton cycle (B) Otto cycle
(C) Diesel cycle (D) Dual cycle.
12. For the same temperature limits and heat input, the most efficient cycle is
(A) Carnot cycle (B) Otto cycle
(C) Diesel cycle (D) Brayton cycle.
13. An air filter is used in
(A) nuclear power plants (B) steam power plants
(C) diesel engine power plants (D) hydro-power plants.
14. Which of the following is not a part of diesel engine power plant ?
(A) Cooling tower (B) Penstock
(C) Oil pump (D) Strainer.
15. Of the total heat supplied to a diesel engine plant, which one has the highest proportion ?
(A) Useful output (B) Heat lost to cooling water
(C) Heat lost in exhaust gases (D) Heat loss in friction radiation, etc.
16. Supercharging of a diesel engine means
(A) overloading the engine for peak load (B) operating the engine with age
(C) operating engine at higher altitudes
(D) supplying pressurized air during suction.
17. Which power plant cannot have single units of 100 MW capacity?
(A) Steam power plant (B) Nuclear power plant
(C) Hydroelectric power plant (D) Diesel engine power plant.
18. In a thermal power plant, heat from the flue gases is recovered in
(A) chimney (B) de-super heater
(C) economizer (D) condenser.
19. Which of the following is not a fire tube boiler ?
(A) Cochron boiler (B) Lancashire boiler
(C) Locomotive boiler (D) Babcock and Wilcox boiler.
20. In a super-heater
(A) pressure rises, temperature drops
(B) pressure rises, temperature remains constant
(C) pressure remains constant and temperature rises
(D) both pressure and temperature remains constant.
21. Bagasse is
(A) a variety of coal (B) a fuel consisting of wood etc.
(C) fibrous portion of sugarcane left after extracting the juice
(D) a kind of rice straw.
22. Which of the following is not an accessory for a boiler ?
(A) Feed water pump (B) Condenser
(C) Economizer (D) Air pre-heater.
23. A compound pressure gauge indicates
(A) fluctuating pressures (B) pressures above atmospheric pressure
(C) pressures below atmospheric pressure
(D) pressures above and below atmospheric pressure.
24. For the same cylinder size and rpm which engine will produce more power ?
(A) Gas engine (B) Petrol engine
(C) Diesel engine (D) Super-charged engine.
25. The internal combustion engines never work on
(A) Diesel cycle (B) Rankine cycle
(C) Otto cycle (D) Dual combustion cycle.
26. A Joule cycle consists of
(A) two isothermal and two adiabatic processes
(B) two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes
(C) two isothermal and two constant volume processes
(D) two constant volume and two constant pressure processes.
27. In ideal diesel cycle the working substance is
(A) air (B) diesel
(C) mixture of air and diesel (D) any combustible gas.
28. The efficiency of an otto cycle will approach that of Carnot cycle when
(A) engine is operated at high rpm (B) engine is run at high load
(C) constant volume processes are replaced by isothermal processes
(D) adiabatic processes are replaced by isothermal processes.
29. Which power plant normally operates at high speeds ?
(A) Diesel engine plant (B) Petrol engine plant
 (C) Steam turbine plant (D) Hydro-electric power plant.

30. Which instrument can be used to measure the flow of a liquid through a pipe ?
(A) Pitot tube (B) Venturimeter
(C) Pressure gauge (D) Orifice.
31. A pitot tube is used to measure
(A) energy of liquid (B) pressure of liquid
(C) energy and pressure of liquid (D) energy, pressure and discharge of liquid.
32. A rotameter is used to measure
(A) velocity of fluids (B) viscosity of fluids
(C) density of fluids (D) discharge of fluids.
33. Vacuum can be measured by
(A) venturimeter (B) pitot tube
(C) U tube manometer (D) rotameter.
34. A binary vapor cycle
(A) uses a fluid at two pressures in the cycle (B) uses fluid in liquid and vapor form
(C) uses two different vapors as working fluid (D) uses same fluid twice.
35. In a steam power plant water is used for cooling purposes in
(A) boiler (B) economizer
(C) condenser (D) super-heaters.
36. Which steam will have least enthalpy
(A) wet steam at 10 kg/cm2 (B) dry and saturated steam at 10 kg/s cm2
(C) super-heated steam at 10 kg/cm2
37. In which part of the steam power plant the pressure of steam is less than the atmospheric pressure ?
(A) Condenser (B) Boiler
(C) Turbine (D) Super beater.
38. In a thermal power plant a cooling tower cools
(A) steam from boiler (B) steam from turbine
(C) water from economizer (D) water from condenser.
39. Within the boiler, the temperature of steam is highest in
(A) water drum (B) water tubes
(C) water walls (D) super heater.
40. In a steam power plant which pipe line section is invariably lagged ?
(A) pipes carrying steam from boiler to turbine
(B) pipes carrying water from condenser
(C) pipes carrying water from water treatment plant
(D) pipes carrying water from boiler feed pump to boiler.
41. Which of the following is generally not a constituent of coal ?
(A) Sulphur (B) Moisture
(C) Chromium (D) Hydrogen.
42. Coil is generally considered to be of
(A) vegetable origin (B) animal origin
(C) lava origin (D) none of the above.
43. When coal analysis gives fixed carbon, volatile combustible matter, ash and moisture the analysis is termed
as
(A) ultimate analysis (B) proximate analysis
(C) orsat analysis (D) gross analysis.
44. API degree are used to measure
(A) specific gravity of oils (B) viscosity of oils
(C) flash and fire points of fuels (D) sulphur content of fuels.
45. Sulphur content of liquid fuels assumes importance from the point of view of
(A) efficiency (B) heating rate
 (C) corrosion (D) firing rate.

46. Fire and flash points of oils assume importance from the point of view of
(A) viscosity (B) tendency to freeze during winter
(C) heating value (D) ignition and storage hazards.
47. Coking is
(A) formation of lumps or masses of coke in boiler furnaces at high temperatures
(B) heating of coal in absence of air, driving out CO2 and leaving behind the residue and carbon
(C) burning of coal in furnace
(D) producing lumps of coal from fine powders with the help of a binder.
48. The air standard efficiency of a diesel engine depends on
(A) compression ratio (B) speed
(C) torque (D) all of the above.
49. The efficiency of steam generators is first a function of design. Beyond that, efficiency depends upon the
loading and manner of operation. Good operation consists in
(A) control and limiting of air(B) minimizing combustibles in refuse and flue gas
(C) maintaining clean heat transfer surfaces (D) all of the above.
50. Generally the major constituent of exhaust gases from a thermal power plant is
(A) oxygen (B) carbon monoxide
(C) nitrogen (D) carbon dioxide.
51. The compression ratio for diesel engines is generally in the range
(A) 5 to 10 (B) 14 to 22
(C) 10 to 14 (D) 22 to 30.
52. Binary vapor cycles are not finding favor with designers because
(A) ideal vapors are not available (B) initial cost of such plants is high
(C) higher pressures demand thicker sections of piping
(D) such plants are suitable for high load factors only.
53. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle improves as a result of all of the following EXCEPT
(A) heating of air before compression (B) inter-cooling of air
(C) reheating of gas (D) multistage expansion.
54. Even with best possible arrangements, the thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle is always below
(A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 25% (D) 40%.
55. The scavenging efficiency of a 4 stroke diesel engine is usually in the range
(A) 50% to 60% (B) 60% to 75%
(C) 75% to 90% (D) 95% to 100%.
56. Spot the odd one out
(A) Coke-oven as (B) Water gas
(C) Freon gas (D) Producer gas.
57. The cooking gas used in our homes is a by product of
(A) steel plants (B) fertilizer plant
(C) petroleum refineries (D) paper plants.
58. In power plants cooling towers are used to
(A) cool exhaust steam (B) cool repeated steam
(C) cool feed water (D) cool condenser outlet water.
59. Electrostatic precipitator is installed between
(A) coal bunker and boiler (B) boiler furnace and chimney
(C) economizer and air heater(D) condenser and economizer.
60. Which of the following equipment is installed to minimize pollution of surroundings ?
(A) Water treatment plant (B) De-super heaters
(C) Cooling towers (D) Electrostatic precipitators.
61. Fly ash : Non-combustible particle : : Cinders:
(A) charred coil (B) moisture
 (C) dust (D) fog.
62. The path followed by the gases discharged from chimney called the 'plume', depends on
(A) thermal properties of gases (B) dynamic properties of gases
(C) wind direction (D) all of the above.
63. In diesel engines, the injection pressure is of the order of
(A) 2 kg/cm2 (B) 20 kg/cm2
(C) 100 kg/cm2 (D) 400 kg/cm2.
64. In a turbine blades acts as
(A) moving blades in impulse turbine stages (B) moving lades in reaction turbine stages
(C) reversing blades in velocity stages of impulse turbines (D) any of the above.
65. Topping turbines are
(A) high pressure non-condensing units installed in existing plants to exhaust into existing low
pressure turbines
(B) those which divert major parts of the throttle steam at intermediate stages of the turbine of process
unit
(C) introduce and remove steam into the turbine after the throttle
(D) none of the above.
66. In case of non-condensing turbines the back pressure is
(A) atmospheric (B) below atmospheric pressure
(C) above atmospheric pressure (D) depends on the size of turbine.
67. In all of the following turbines the back pressure will be above the atmospheric pressure EXCEPT
(A) Topping turbine (B) First turbine of repeat cycle
(C) Condensing turbine (D) Non-condensing turbine.
68. In bleeder turbines, part of the steam is extracted for
(A) heating secondary air (B) fed water heating (C) reheating (D) condensation.
69. As compared to steam at entry to the turbine, which of the following will be larger at exit ?
(A) Pressure (B) Flow rate (C) Specific volume (D) Specific enthalpy.
70. Pelton wheels are installed on
(A) run of river plants with pondage (B) run of river plants without pondage
(C) base load plant (D) high head plants.
71. Suspended solids can be removed from water by
(A) settling (B) coagulation (C) filtration (D) any of the above.
72. Dissolved solids in water can be removed/reduced by
(A) distillation (B) demineralization (C) softening (D) any of the above.
73. Small domestic electric power generators are usually of capacity around
(A) 10 kVA (B) 5 kVA (C) 1 kVA (D) 100 VA.
74. Producer gas is a by product from
(A) fertilizer plants (B) steel plants (C) paper plants (D) sugar mills.
75. Sour crude
(A) is corrosive when heated
(B) evolves significant amounts of hydrogen sulphide on distillation
(C) produces light fractions which require sweetening
(D) all of the above.
76. Dam: Hydro plant::
(A) Chimney : Gases (B) Coal: Steam plant
(C) Gas turbine: Steam turbine (D) Reactor: Nuclear plant.
77. Bulb turbines are
(A) high speed turbines (B) high pressure turbines
(C) low head turbines (D) high head turbines.
78. A frauds turbine is
(A) Inward flow reaction turbine (B) Inward flow impulse turbine
(C) Outward flow reaction turbine (D) Outward flow impulse turbine.
79. In hydro power plants
(A) Initial cost is high and operating cost is low (B) Initial cost as well as operating costs are high
(C) Initial cost is low and operating cost is high (D) Initial cost as well as operating cost is low.
80. In which of the following power plant the availability of power is least reliable ?
(A) Solar power plant (B) Wind energy
(C) Tidal power plant (D) Geothermal power plant.
 S.E (Electrical)

Power Generation Technique

MCQs No. 4
1. Geothermal energy is
(A) a renewable energy resource (B) alternative energy source
(C) inexhaustible energy source (D) any of the above.
2. The disadvantage of renewable sources of energy is
(A) lack of decidability (B) availability in low energy densities
(C) intermittency (D) all of the above.
3. In the Geysers steam is continuously vented through fissures in the ground. These vents are called
(A) vent holes (B) pot holes (C) fumaroles (D) sun spots.
4. Geologists believe that below the earth's crust, the molten mass exists in the form of
(A) magma (B) vent (C) hot cell (D) liquation.
5. In hydrothermal source of geothermal energy
(A) hot water or steam is available (B) hot gases are available
(C) molten lava is available (D) none of the above.
6. In axial flow turbines
(A) only part of the available head is converted into velocity before the water enters the wheel
(B) water is admitted over part of the circumference
(C) it is possible that the wheel may run full
(D) it is possible to regulate the flow.
7. In hydrothermal systems when steam, water and dissolved solids are available as source of energy, the
entrained solids are removed by
(A) filters (B) centrifugal separators (C) strainers (D) none of the above
8. Presence of sand in geopressurized water is likely to cause problems of
(A) erosion (B) heat exchange (C) water circulation (D) all of the above
9. Presence of non-condensable gases in geopressurized water causes
(A) corrosion of parts (B) pollution (C) flow problems (D) all of the above.
10. When geothermal energy is available in the form of saline water, power is developed using
(A) flashed-steam system (B) binary-cycle system
(C) total flow system (D) any of the above.
11. Petrothermal systems are composed of hot dry rock with
(A) no underground water (B) large underground water
(C) petrochemicals (D) dense gases.
12. In petrothermal systems of geothermal energy there is hot dry rock but no underground water. In such
systems energy is obtained by
(A) circulating compressed air (B) pumping water
(C) creating water wells (D) none of the above.
13. Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are called
(A) diffusers (B) ponds (C) heliostats (D) mantle.
14. Which of the following area is preferred for solar thermal electric plants ?
(A) mountain tops (B) hot arid zones (C) coastal areas (D) high rainfall zones.
15. In solar thermal conversion systems the solar heat is transferred to
(A) water-steam (B) liquid metals (C) molten salts (D) any of the above.
16. Photovoltaic solar energy conversion system makes use of
(A) fuel cell (B) solar cell (C) solar pond (D) none of the above.
17. Solar cells are made of
(A) silicon (B) germanium (C) silver (D) aluminium.
18. The voltage of a single solar cell is
(A) 0.5 V (B) 1 V (C) 1.1 V (D) 5 W.
19. The output of a solar cell is of the order of
(A) 0.1 W (B) 0.5 W (C) 1 W (D) 5 W.

20. A module is a
(A) newly installed solar cell
(B) series parallel arrangement of solar cells
(C) a series of solar cells when not used for power generation
(D) none of the above.
21. The major disadvantage, with solar cells for power generation is
` (A) lack of availability (B) large area requirement
(C) variable power (D) high cost.
22. The maximum theoretical efficiencies of solar sales could be around
(A) 99% (B) 60% (C) 48% (D) 1%.
23. The source of energy for satellite is
(A) battery (B) solar cell (C) cryogenic storage (D) any of the above.
24. Winds caused by greater solar heating of the earth's surface near the equator than near the northern or
southern poles, are known as
(A) local winds (B) equatorial winds (C) planetary winds (D) trade winds.
25. Local winds are caused by
(A) differential heating of land and water (B) differential heating of plains and mountains
(C) any of the above (D) none of the above.
26. The total power of a wind stream is proportional to
(A) velocity of stream (B) ( velocity of stream )2
3
(C) (velocity of stream ) (D) 1/ (velocity of stream)
27. Tidal energy mainly makes use of
(A) kinetic energy of water (B) potential energy of water
(C) both kinetic as well as potential energy of water (D) none of the above.
28. Which of the following is a reaction turbine
(A) Banki turbine (B) Jonval turbine (C) Girard turbine (D) None of the above.
29. All of the following are electrical mechanical storage systems EXCEPT
(A) Pumped hydro-system (B) Torsion bar system
(C) Super-conducting coils (D) Kinetic flywheels.
30. Thermal storage of energy is possible in the form of
(A) sensible heat (B) latent heat (C) chemical reaction (D) any of the above.
31. Turn around efficiency of pump hydro-schemes seldom exceeds
(A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 25% (D) 65%.
32. Batteries used for electrical energy storage are
(A) Laclanche cells (B) Edison cells (C) Lead acid cells (D) Any of the above.
33. Turn around efficiency of battery energy storage system is around
(A) 75 percent (B) 50 percent (C) 25 percent (D) 10 percent.
34. Sodium sulphur batteries use electrolyte consisting of
(A) solid aluminium oxide (B) dilute sulphuric acid (C) brine (D) KOH.
35. Certain metals become super-conducting when cooled below
(A) melting point (B) transition temperature (C) 00 K (D) 00 C.
36. Which power plant is free from environmental pollution problems ?
(A) Thermal power plant (B) Nuclear power plant
(C) Hydro-power plant (D) Geothermal energy power plant
37. Chemical representation for heavy water is
 (A) H20 (B) H2O2 (C) H30 (D) D3O.
38. The presence of CO 2 and H2 O in the atmosphere results in absorption of
(A) short wave ultra-violet radiations (B) visible wavelengths of spectrum
(C) long wave infrared radiations (D) all of the above.
39. Return to earth of the oxides of sulphur and nitrogen occurs in the form of
(A) acid rain (B) acid snow (C) acid fog (D) any of the above.

40. The average pH of normal rainfall is usually

(A) neutral (B) slightly acidic (C) slightly alkaline.
41. Earth coal
(A) lignite (B) coal dust (C) black earth (D) wet coal.
42. Ebb current is
(A) the same as eddy current
(B) the movement of the tidal current away from shore or down a tidal stream
(C) the removal by screen of undesirable fine materials from broken are
(D) none of the above.
43. Ekman spiral is an idealized mathematical description of
(A) ocean temperature gradient
(B) wind distribution in the planetary boundary layer
(C) carbon dioxide percentage variation with elevation
(D) radioactive decay of materials.
44. Which of the following converts electrical energy to radiant heat ?
(A) Solar cell (B) Storage battery (C) Wankel engine (D) Incandescent lamp.
45. Which of the following converts thermal energy to kinetic energy ?
(A) Thermocouple (B) Storage battery (C) Fuel cell (D) Rocket.
46. Beneficiation process is mainly used for
(A) coals (B) oils (C) nuclides (D) minerals.
47. Betz law finds application in
(A) MHD systems (B) Solar cells (C) Geothermal power plants (D) Wind mills.
48. Cleat is
(A) main joint in a coal seam along which it breaks most easily (B) floor of a coal seam
(C) carton and sulphur compound (D) crude oil containing low percentage of sulphur.
49. Coal broken into angular fragments is known as
(A) coal briquettes (B) coal breccia (C) coal bank (D) coal auger.
50. Coal rank classifies coal according to its
(A) carbon percentage (B) ash content (C) degree of metamorphism (D) density.
51. Baryon is one of the class of heavy elementary particles that includes
(A) hyperons (B) neutrons (C) protons (D) all of the above.
52. Isotopes of uranium
(A) U235 (B) U234 (C) U238 (D) all of the above.
53. Baume scale measures
(A) purity of water (B) radioactivity
(C) specific gravity of liquids (D) specific gravity of gases.
54. Beaufort scale is used to measure
(A) beta and gamma radiations (B) with speed (C) isolation (D) depth of sea
55. Beaufort scale is graded from 0 to
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 22 (D) 100.
56. API gravity is expressed in terms of
(A) gm/cc (B) dimensionless numbers (C) degrees (D) none of the above.
57. Argillaceous rocks have
(A) high clay content (B) high moisture content
(C) low moisture content (D) low mineral content.
58. ASTM coal classification is based on
(A) proximate analysis (B) ultimate analysis
(C) orsat analysis (D) none of the above.
59. Barn
(A) spent fuel from a nuclear reactor (B) a unit of area
(C) an electronic instrument for rapid counting of radiation (D) a coal that does not form coke.
60. One barrel is nearly
(A) 0.96 cubic meter (B) 0.44 cubic meter
(C) 0.16 cubic meter (D) 0.013 cubic meter.
61. Activated carbon is used for
(A) absorption, of gases (B) paints and varnishes as coloring agent
(C) production of carbon steels (D) purification of water.
62. The phenomenon of physical adhesion of molecules to the surfaces of solids without chemical reaction is
known as
(A) dredging (B) coking (C) adsorption (D) liquation.
63. Solid or liquid panicles of microscopic size which are suspended in air or another gas form what is known
as
(A) aerosol (B) hyperon (C) geognosy (D) eluvium.
64. Air curtains find applications in
(A) air conditioned spaces (B) green houses
(C) nuclear power pants (D) solar energy systems.
65. The percentage of carbon in anthracites is generally
(A) more than 90% (B) around 75% (C) between 50% and 70% (D) below 50%.
66. In a 2 stroke engine there is one power stroke in
(A) 90c of crank rotation (B) 180c of crank rotation
(C) 360 of crank rotation (D) 720c of crank rotation.
c

67. A fast breeder reactor

(A) operates with fast neutrons and produces less fissionable material than it consumes
(B) operates with fast neutrons and produces more fissionable material than it consumes
(C) operates with slow neutrons and produces less fissionable material than it consumes
(D) operates with slow neutrons and produces more fissonable material than it consumes.
68. Fluidized bed combustion helps to reduce
(A) boiler size (B) pollution (C) both (A) and (B) above.
69. Fly ash generally results from
(A) gas turbines (B) diesel engines (C) pulverized coal boilers (D) fluidized bed boilers.
70. In a boiler, the carry over of slugs of water into the piping due to dirty water is termed as
(A) beating (B) foaming (C) seal ping (D) pitting.
71. If a engine has a spark plug, it is concluded that the engine is a
(A) petrol engine (B) diesel engine (C) carnot engine (D) joute engine.
72. In geothermal power plants waste water is
(A) re circulated after cooling in cooling towers (B) discharged into sea
(C) discharged back to earth (D) evaporated in ponds.
73. Grade of the coal is the same as
(A) ultimate analysis (B) proximate analysis (C) orsat analysis (D) rank.
74. API gravity of water is taken as
(A) zero (B)1.0 (C) 10 (D) 100.
75. Liquids lighter than water (such as petroleum oils) have APT gravities numerically
(A) less than 1.0 (B) greater than 1.0 (C) greater than 10 (D) around 100.
76. All of the following arc hard coals Except
(A) Anthracite (B) Lignite (C) Bituminous (D) Semi bituminous.
77. All of the following are heavy metals except
(A) Mercury (B) Sodium (C) Chromium (D) Cadmium.
78. Which of the following is heavy oil ?
(A) Gasoline (B) Kerosene oil (C) Diesel oil (D) Bunker oil.
79. Deuterium oxide is used in nuclear reactors as
(A) fuel (B) moderator (C) shield (D) regulator.
80. Heliochemical process is the process by which
(A) solar energy is utilized through photosynthesis
(B) neutron energy is converted into thermal energy
(C) geothermal energy is converted Into electrical energy
(D) wind energy is converted into electrical energy.
81. Fixed carbon in case of bituminous coals is less than
(A) 70% (B) 50% (C) 35% (D) 15%.
82. Humacite is the name associated with
(A) lignites (B) radioactive minerals (C) bitumens (D) refrigerants.
83. In case of humic coals, hydrogen percentage varies from
(A) 4 to 6 percent (B) 10 to 15 percent (C) 16 to 20 percent (D) 20 to 30 percent.
84. Hyperon has mass
(A) greater than that of a proton and less than that of a deutron
(B) less than that of a proton and more than that of a deutron
(C) more than that of a proton as well as deuteron
(D) less than that of a proton as well as a deuteron
85. The charge of a two stroke diesel engine consists of
(A) air + diesel fuel + lubricating oil (B) air + diesel fuel
(C) air + lubricating oil (D) air only.
86. Integrated demand is
(A) the demand averaged over a specific period (B) the joint demand of several consumers
(C) supplementary demand of various consumers (D) none of the above.
87. Which of the following is not needed in magneto hydrodynamic power plants ?
(A) Chimney (B) Combustor (C) Steam-turbine (D) Fuel.
88. Marsh gas
(A) a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons produced from coal or oil
(B) a by product of blast furnace
(C) low calorific value gas containing carbon monoxide and steam
(D) same as methane
89. Nephtha is a volatile colourless product obtained from
(A) methyl alcohol (B) vinyl acetate (C) sugarcane (D) petroleum.
90. Natural gas is obtained
(A) as by product from blast furnace (B) as by product from petroleum refining
(C) from earth's surface usually along with crude (D) from ammonia.
91. Osmotic energy conversion involves energy production from
(A) low boiling point liquids (B) low vapor pressure liquids
(C) miscible liquids (D) salt water.
92. Parr's-classification of coal is based on
(A) proximate analysis (B) ultimate analysis (C) orsat analysis (D) none of the above.
93. Peat coal is
(A) anthracite coal, small in size (B) same as peat
(C) low ash content lignite (D) none of the above.
94. Perlite is
(A) a low ash containing coal (B) same as lignite
(C) an insulation material (D) none of the above.
95. PF number refers to
(A) acidic/alkaline water (B) energy with which water is held in the soil
(C) decomposition of molecules caused by the absorption of light
 (D) smog produced by the action of sunlight on the pollutants.
96. A photovoltaic cell converts
(A) heat energy into mechanical energy (B) chemical energy into electrical energy
(C) solar energy into electrical energy (D) electrical energy into chemical energy.
97. Producer gas mainly contains
(A) carbon dioxide and steam (B) carbon monoxide and nitrogen
(C) methane, ethane and butane (D) hydrocarbons.
98. Pyrheliometer measures
(A) intensity of direct solar radiation (B) wind speed at an elevation
(C) fission caused by thermal neutrons (D) total electromagnetic radiation emitted by the sun.
99. Quad is a measure of
(A) photosynthesis (B) wind power (C) radioactive decay (D) energy.
100. For the same heat input and the same maximum pressure, the most efficient cycle is
(A) Brayton cycle (B) Otto cycle (C) Diesel cycle (D) Dual cycle.
101. Sweet gas is free of
(A) carbon dioxide (B) carbon monoxide (C) nitrogen (D) hydrogen sulphide.
102. Therm is a unit of
(A) radioactivity (B) heating value (C) wind speed (D) tidal wave.
103. Thermal neutrons are
(A) exceptionally fast neutrons (B) fast neutrons (C) moderately fast neutrons (D) slow neutrons.
104. No moving parts are required in
(A) MHD generator (B) Tidal power plant C) Thermionic conversion (D) OTEC power plant.
105. TNT stands for
(A) thermonuclear thorium (B) total neutron transition
(C) thermal neutron treatment (D) trinitrotoluene.
106. A sodium graphite reactor uses
(A) sodium as moderator and graphite as coolant
(B) sodium as coolant and graphite as moderator
(C) a mixture of sodium and graphite as coolant
(D) a mixture of sodium and graphite as moderator.
107. Solvent refined coal has low percentage of
(A) ash (B) sulphur (C) impurities (D) all of the above.
 PGT MCQ AKSED IN Q (6) which dam is constructed faster with
high quality of construction.
PREVIOUSE ONLINE EXAM A) buttress dam
Q (1) DETERMINE TOTAL POWER B) gravity dam
DENSITY OF WIND TURBINE HAVING AIR C)arch dam
DENSITY OF 2 KG/m3 AND SPEED OF D) none of these
WIND IS 20m/SEC
A)8 W/m2
B) 80 W/m2 Q (7) Steam power plant efficiency
C) 800 W/m2 can be improved by
D) 8000 W/m2 A) decreasing the load on the plant
B) using large quality of water
Q (2)To remove extra water from the C)burning large quanity of coal
reservoir is provide in the body D) using high temperature & pressure of steam.
of dam
A)penstoc Q (8)indicating thermal efficiency is defined..
k A) BP/IP
B)spillway B) BP*IP
C)conduit C) IP/BP
D)dike D) IP/(m*CV)

Q (3) Variation of windvelocity with Q (9) within the boiler the temperature of
altitude is A)sea shear steam is highest in..
B) wind shera A) water drum
C) water B) water tube
shear C)water walls
D)none D) super heater

Q (4)in the following which is correct Q (10) it is desirable to use reactor core as:
sequence in coal handling system A) Cubical or cylinder
A) unloading-preparation-outdoor storage- B) Cubical or spherical
indoor storage C)Cylindrical or spherical
B) Preparation- unloading- outdoor storage- D) Spherical
indoor storage
C) outdoor storage- indoor storage- Q (11) matches the pair:
preparation - unloading
a. Regenerator 1 improve work ratio
D) indoor storage-outdoor storage- 2. Increased pressure
preparation- unloading b. Combustor of working fluid

Q (5) is a part of fuel and ash circuit and 3Provide chemical

is a part of feed water & steam [Link]-cooler reaction between
circuit. A)steam circuit fuel & air.
B)superheater,air- 4Heat transfer between
preheater [Link] exhaust gas and cool air.
C)condenser,economiser
D) chimney,economiser
 D)Cannot say

A) a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1 Q (17)Nuclear power plant should

B)a-1 b-2 c-4 d-3 preferably be loacated:
C)a-3 b-4 c-1 d-2 A)near a coal field
D)a-4 b-3 c-1 d-2 B) near a reservoir.
C) Away from coal field & reservoir dam
Q (12) ) stroke engine copared D) Near load center.
stroke engine have capital cost
A) two, four Q (18)A size of thermal power plant
B) four, two increases the capital cost per KW of installed
C)three, four capacity A)increses
D) two. three B)decreses
C)remains the
Q (13)the performance of engine of different same
outputs, speed and sizes can be compared on D )may increased & decreased
the basis of
A) Specific fuel consumption Q (19) Wind power is and
B) cylinder volume A) Clean, polluting
C)compression ratio B) Exhaustible, on polluting
D) piston size C)Inexhaustible, Non-Polluting
D) Exhaustible, polluting
Q (14) when penstock burns which of the
following cut off the supply of water? Q (20) permissible PH value of water for boiler is…
A)sluices valve A) 1
B)automatic sluices B) 7
valve C)gates C)Slightly more than 7
D)none of these D) 10

Q (15) In two stage gas turbine plant Q (21) type turbines required yaw
reheating after first stage control mechanism and type does not
A) Improve thermal efficiency but reduce required it
work ratio A) propeller, horizontal
B) Improve work ration but reduces B) Vertical, horizontal
thermal efficiency C)Horizontal, vertical
C)Reduces both work ratio & thermal D) None of these
efficiency.
D) Increses bth of the work ratio & Q (22)A two stroke engine may be indentify by
thermal efficiency A) Cooling system
B) Lubricating system
Q (16) Generation cost of diesel power plant C)Absence of valve
compared to steam,Hydro & Gas power plant D) Any of above
is A)Low
B)High Q (23) in system fuel from a central
C)Equ pulverizing unit is delivered to a bunkers and
al then to the various bunkers
A) Unit B) does not posses the basic requirement
B) central of any energy source
C)none of these C) is plentiful, inexhaustible, renewable &
D) both unit & central non- polluting.
D) All of these.
Q (24) A regenerator in gas turbine
A) Reduces heat flow in exhaust Q (30) The type of windmill can be
B) Permit use of high compression ration classified. A)orientation of axis of rotor
C)Improve thermal efficiency B) type of rotor
D) Permit use of fuels of inferior quality C) both A & B
D) None of these
Q (25)A device used to heat the
compressed air with the help of exhaust Q (31) type turbinr consist of two
gases of gas turbine is called convex blades with aerofoil cross section and
A) heat pump type turbine consist a hellow
B) Reheated elliptical cylinder sliced in two pieces.
C)Regenerator A) horizontal,
D) auxiliary combustor vertical B)vertical,
horizontal
Q (26) Tarapur atomic power station is C)savonius,
A) CANDU type reactor darrieus
B) Pressurized water reactor D)darrieus,
C)Gas cooled rector savonius
D) Boiling water reactor
Q (32) Which of the following the most
Q (27) For largest output diesel electric efficient power plant?
power plants the engine used are A)hydrauli
A) horizontal type c B)steam
B) vertical type,multi cylinder & super charged. C)nuclear
C)air cooled D)diesel
D) Low RPM
Q (33) AWTG with gas turbine or Diesel
Q (28) The Wind is blowing at the rate of engine os called
10m/sec having atmosphere at 1 Bar,300K. If A) stand alone system
R=287 Nm/KgK. Find max. Power is to be B) grid connected system
developed per square meter by wind turbine C) hybrid system
A)580 W D) none of these
B) 58
W Q (34) Hydraulic turbine are used to convert
C)850 to
W A)mechanical to
D)85 electrical B)kinetic to
W potential
C)kinetic to mechanical
Q (29)Wind as a source power D)potential to kinetic
A)is non-steady and unreliable.
Q (35) inverter in stand alone system is used
A) To distribute AC & DC power
B) To distribute DC into AC power B) flow duration curve
C) TO convert AC into DC power C) mass curve
D) none of these. D) either by hydrograph or by mass curve.

Q (36) water hammer process in penstock Q (42) Rankine cycle efficiency of good stem
results in power plant may be in te range of
A) noise increases A)15 to 20%
B) pressure increases B)35 to 45%
C) noise increases, pressure increases, C)70 to 80%
velocity decreases D)90 to 95%
D) none of above
Q (43)The following present serious
Q (37)overall thermal efficiency of diesel difficulty in designing reactor shield
power plant is given by following by formula: A)Alpha Particles
Where, mf=fuel consumption in kg/sec. B) Beta particles
C.V.=calorific value of fuel in C) thermal neutrons
KJ/kg B.P.=Brake power D) fast neutrons and gamma
A) (mf*CV)/BP rays. Q (44) Match the pair
B) BP/(mf*CV) Turbine Specific speed
C)IP/(mf*CV A pelton wheel 1. 10-35
) B. KAPLAN 2. 300-100
D)(mf*CV)/I TURBINE
P C. FRANCIS 3. 60-300
TURBINE

Q (38)number of bldes in Francis turbine are A)A-1 B-2 C-3

and in Kaplan B)A-2 B-1 C-3
they are C)A-3 B-2 C-1
A) 3 to 8, 16to 24. D) NONE
B) 16 to 24, 3 to 8.
C) 6 to 9, 10 to 15 Q (45)A hydroelectric power station is
D) 10 to 15, 6 to 9. commonly found in.
A)desert areas
Q (39)in buttress dam the laid on B) hilly
supporting structure called as areas
A)clat deck C)swamps
B) tail race D)grass
C)buttress land
es Q (46) The principal type of water turbine are
D)all of the above A)
impulse
Q (40)sudden rise of pressure is called B)reactio
A)surge tank n
B)spillways C) both impulse & reaction
C)water D) none of these.
hammer
D)none Q (47) A pond age regulated water to cater
Q (41)storage requirement can be A) sudden change in flow of water.
determined from B) No changes appear
A)hydrograph
C)Both are wrong.
D) Both are correct.

Q (48)in closed cycle gas turbine plant

A)heat exchange called source
B) Heat engine exchanger sink before
supplied to compressor
C) both the source & sink operates.
D) all of these.

Q (49) economizer is normally employed

when boiler pressure exceeds
A) 70 kg/cm2
B) 50 kg/cm2
C)30 kg/cm2
D) can be used for all pressure.
1. Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy ?
(A) Tidal power
(B) Geothermal energy
(C) Nuclear energy
(D) Wind power.

Get Answer
C

2. Pulverized coal is
(A) coal free from ash
(B) non-smoking coal
(C) coal which bums For long time
(D) coal broken into fine particles.

Get Answer
D

3. Heating value of coal is approximately

(A) 1000-2000 kcal / kg
(B) 2000-4000 kcal / kg
(C) 5000-6500 kcal / kg
(D) 9000-10,500 kcal / kg.

Get Answer
C

4. Water gas is a mixture of

(A) CO2 and O2
(B) O2and H2
(C) H2, N2 and O2
(D) CO, N2 and H2.
Get Answer
D

5. Coal used in power plant is also known as

(A) steam coal
(B) charcoal
(C) coke
(D) soft coal.

Get Answer
A

6. Which of the following is considered as superior quality of coal ?

(A) Bituminous coal
(B) Peat
(C) Lignite
(D) Coke.

Get Answer
A

7. In a power plant, coal is carried from storage place to boilers generally by means of
(A) bucket
(B) V-belts
(C) trolleys
(D) manually.

Get Answer
B

8. Live storage of coal in a power plant means

(A) coal ready for combustion
(B) preheated coal
(C) storage of coal sufficient to meet 24 hour demand of the plant
(D) coal in transit.

Get Answer
C

9. Pressure of steam in condenser is

(A) atmospheric pressure
(B) more than pressure
(C) slightly less than pressure
(D) much less than pressure.

Get Answer
D

10. Equipment used for pulverizing the coal is known as

(A) Ball mill
(B) Hopper
(C) Burner
(D) Stoker.

Get Answer
A

11. Power plants using coal work closely on known which of the following cycle ?
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Binary vapor cycle
(C) Brayton cycle
(D) Rankine cycle.

Get Answer
D
12. Critical pressure of water is
(A) 1 kg / cm2
(B) 100 kg / cm2
(C) 155 kg / cm2
(D) 213.8 kg / cm2.

Get Answer
D

13. The efficiency of a thermal power plant improves with

(A) increased quantity of coal burnt
(B) larger quantity of water used
(C) lower load in the plant
(D) use of high steam pressures.

Get Answer
D

14. Which of the following contributes to the improvement of efficiency of Rankine

cycle in a thermal power plant ?
(A) Reheating of steam at intermediate stage
(B) Regeneration use of steam for heating boiler feed water
(C) Use of high pressures
(D) All of the above.

Get Answer
D

15. Steam pressures usually used in thermal power plants are

(A) 5 kg/cm2 to 10 kg / cm2
(B) 50 kg/cm2 to 100 kg / cm2
(C) 110 kg/cm2 to 170 kg / cm2
(D) 200 kg/cm2 to 215 kg / cm2
Get Answer
C

1) The potential of developing tidal power in India is in

a. Kutch
b. Ran
c. San joe
d. Severn

ANSWER: Kutch

2) Pugga valley in Ladakh is suitable for which among the following power generation?
a. Solar
b. Geo thermal
c. Wind
d. None of these

ANSWER: Geo thermal

3) Presence of non – condensable gasses in a geo – pressured water causes

a. Pollution problem
b. Corrosion problem
c. Flow problem
d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

4) Direct conversion of heat energy into electrical energy is possible through

a. MHD generators
b. Fuel or solar cells
c. Thermionic converters.
d. Both (a) and (c)
e. None of these

ANSWER: Both (a) and (c)

5) In geo thermal power plants waste water is

a. Discharged back to earth.
b. Discharged into the sea.
c. Recirculated after cooling in cooling towers.
d. Evaporated in ponds.

ANSWER: Discharged back to earth.

6) What is a load curve?
a. A plot of load vs current.
b. A plot of load vs time.
c. A plot of load vs duration of time.
d. Total number of units generated vs time.

ANSWER: A plot of load vs time.

7) What does the area under the load curve represent?

a. System voltage
b. Current
c. Energy consumed
d. Maximum demand

ANSWER: Energy consumed

8) What does the highest point on the daily load curve represent?
a. Peak load
b. Maximum demand
c. Both (a) & (d)
d. None of these

ANSWER: Maximum demand

9) Load curve of a generation is always

a. Positive slope
b. Zero slope
c. Negative slope
d. Combination of (a), (b) and (c)

ANSWER: Combination of (a), (b) and (c)

10) If the daily load curve is divided by 24, what does this curve represent?
a. Average load for the day
b. Connected load
c. Maximum demand
d. Demand factor

ANSWER: Average load for the day

11) What does a mass curve represent?

a. Average load
b. The total energy consumed by the load upto a particular time in a day
c. The number of hours for which a particular lasts during the day
d. The variation of load during different hours of the day

ANSWER: The total energy consumed by the load upto a particular time in a day
12) The mass curve is plotted from which of the following curve?
a. Chronological curve
b. Energy load curve
c. Load duration curve
d. None of these

ANSWER: Load duration curve

13) What does a load duration curve represent?

a. The variation of load during different hours of the day
b. Average load
c. The number of hours for which a particular lasts during the day
d. None of the above

ANSWER: The number of hours for which a particular lasts during the day

14) What is the shape of the load duration curve?

a. Rectangular shape
b. Triangular shape
c. Parabolic shape
d. Free hand sketch

ANSWER: Rectangular shape

15) Maximum and Minimum loads on the load duration curve is represented on which
respective side?
a. Left and Right.
b. Right and Left.
c. Randomly.
d. None of these.

ANSWER: Left and Right.

16) What does the chronological load curve indicate?

a. Variation in demand factor during 24 hours.
b. Variation of demand from instant to instant during 24 hour.
c. The total energy consumed upto different times of the day.
d. The total number of hours for which a particular load lasts during the day.

ANSWER: Variation of demand from instant to instant during 24 hour.

17) What is a load factor?

a. The ratio of average to maximum demand.
b. The ratio of maximum demand to average load.
c. The product of maximum demand and average load.
d. The ratio of average load to the plant capacity.

ANSWER: The ratio of average to maximum demand.

18) What is the load factor of a power plant?
a. Greater than unity
b. Less than unity
c. Always more than unity
d. Normally more than unity

ANSWER: Less than unity

19) The load factor plays a key role in determining which among the following?
a. Plant capacity
b. Overall cost per unit generated
c. Overall demand
d. Both (a) and (c)

ANSWER: Overall cost per unit generated

20) An
industrial consumer has a load pattern of 2000 kW 0.8 lag for 12 hours and
1000 kW unity power factor for 12 hours. What is the load factor? a. 0.5
b. 0.55
c. 0.6
d. 0.75

ANSWER: 0.75

21) What is the plant capacity factor?

a. A ratio of kWh generated to the product of plant capacity and the number of hours for
which the plant is in operation.
b. The ratio of sum of individual maximum demands to the maximum demand on power
stations.
c. The ratio of actual energy produced to the maximum possible energy.
d. The ratio of maximum demand on the power station to the connected load.

ANSWER: The ratio of actual energy produced to the maximum possible energy.

22) Capacity factor will be very low when the power plant _______________ _.
a. is operated as base load plant.
b. is operated for supplying base load as well as the peak loads.
c. is operated in emergency only.
d. is under maintainance.

ANSWER: is operated in emergency only.

23) A thermal
generating station has a installed capacity of 15 MW and supplies a daily
load of 10 Mw for 12 hours and 5 MW for remaining 12 hours. The
plant capacity factor for this station is _______ _.
a. 1
b. 0.75
c. 0.67
d. 0.5

ANSWER: 0.5

24) In a power station, the cost of generation of power reduces most effectively when
_______________.
a. Diversity factor alone increases.
b. Both diversity factor and load factor increases.
c. Only load factor increases.
d. Both diversity factor and load factor decreases.

ANSWER: Both diversity factor and load factor increases.

25) What is the diversity factor?

a. A ratio of kWh generated to the product of plant capacity and the number of hours for
which the plant is in operation.
b. The ratio of sum of individual maximum demands to the maximum demand on power
stations.
c. The ratio of actual energy produced to the maximum possible energy.
d. The ratio of maximum demand on the power station to the connected load.

ANSWER: The ratio of sum of individual maximum demands to the maximum

demand on power stations.

1) What is demand factor?

a. Average load to maximum demand.
b. Maximum demand to connected load.
c. Connected load to maximum demand.
d. Maximum demand to average load.

ANSWER: Maximum demand to connected load.

2) What is the value of demand factor?

a. Greater than unity.
b. Less than unity.
c. Always more than unity.
d. Normally more than unity.

ANSWER: Less than unity.

3) What is connected load?

a. Installed electrical load in the premises of the consumer.
b. Maximum load a consumer draws.
c. Load drawn by a consumer at any instant.
d. None of the above.

ANSWER: Installed electrical load in the premises of the consumer.

4) The power system experiences peak demand from ___________ _.

a. Midnight to 8 A.M
b. 8 A.M to 2 P.M
c. 2 P.M to 6 P.M
d. 6 P.M to 10 P.M

ANSWER: 6 P.M to 10 P.M

5) The maximum
demand on the power system is 100 MW. If the annual load factor is 40%.
Calculate the total energy generated in a year.
a. 3761 * 105 kWh
b. 4174 * 105 kWh
c. 3504 * 105 kWh
d. 3500 * 105 kWh

ANSWER: 3504 * 105 kWh

6) The power demand can be estimated approximately by

a. Load survey method.
b. Mathematical method.
c. Statistical method.
d. Economic parameters.

ANSWER: Statistical method.

7) A generating station has a connected load of 55 MW and maximum demand of 20 MW.

What is the demand factor?
a. 0.4785
b. 0.3636
c. 2.75
d. 1100

ANSWER: 0.3636

8) Determine the average demand of a plant if its load factor and maximum demand are
0.60 and 30 MW.
a. 20 MW
b. 18 MW
c. 50 MW
d. 13 MW

ANSWER: 18 MW
9) Utilization factor is defined as the ratio of
a. Average demand to the rated capacity of the plant.
b. Maximum demand on the power plant to the rated capacity of the power plant.
c. Rated capacity of the power plant to the maximum demand.
d. None of these

ANSWER: Maximum demand on the power plant to the rated capacity of the power
plant.

10) A consumer
consumes 400 kWh per day at a load factor of 0.3. If he increases the load
factor to 0.6 without any increase in maximum demand. What is the
consumption of energy in kWh?
a. 800 kWh
b. 650 kWh
c. 1125 kWh
d. 425 kWh

ANSWER: 800 kWh

11) The yearly

load duration curve of a power plant is a straight line. The maximum
load is 850 MW and minimum load is 650 MW. The capacity of the plant is 950
MW. What is the capacity factor and the utilization factor?
a. 0.89, 0.78
b. 0.83, 0.65
c. 0.78, 0.89
d. 0.65, 0.83

ANSWER: 0.78, 0.89

12) Interconnected systems have the advantage of

a. Reduced reserve plant capacity, capital cost per kW and economy in operation.
b. Improved load factor, diversity factor and operation efficiency and increased reliability of
supply.
c. All of these
d. None of these

ANSWER: All of these

13) Major share of power generated in India is through which means?

a. Hydroelectric power plants.
b. Nuclear power plants.
c. Thermal power plants.
d. Gas turbine power plants.

ANSWER: Thermal power plants.

14) What is the modern trend in electric power generation?
a. To have a large number of small size thermal plants located at different places.
b. To have large size thermal plants near load centre.
c. To have large size thermal plants located near coal fields.
d. None of the above.

ANSWER: To have large size thermal plants located near coal fields.

15) Which among the following plants have the least operating cost?
a. Steam plants
b. Hydro plants
c. Nuclear plants
d. Diesel plants

ANSWER: Hydro plants

16) What are the essential requirements for power plants to be operated as peak load plants?
a. Capability of quick start, synchronisation and taking up of system load.
b. Quick response to load variations.
c. Low capital cost.
d. All of these.
e. None of these.

ANSWER: All of these.

17) In a steam power station, electric power is generated at what power?

a. 440 V
b. 1.1 kV
c. 11 kV
d. 33 kV

ANSWER: 11 kV

18) Annual operating cost of a generating plant consists of

a. Fixed charges
b. Semi fixed charges
c. Operating or running charges
d. All of these
e. None of these

ANSWER: All of these

19) For a nuclear plant, what is its useful life?

a. 10 years.
b. 30 years
c. 100 years
d. 60 years
 ANSWER: 30 years

20) What happens in a load shedding?

a. System voltage is reduced.
b. System frequency is reduced.
c. System loads are switched off.
d. System power factor is changed.

ANSWER: System loads are switched off.

21) Why is load shedding done?

a. Reducing peak demand on the system.
b. Repairing of machines.
c. Power factor improvement.
d. Efficient operation of equipment.

ANSWER: Reducing peak demand on the system.

22) Generators for the base load plants are usually designed for maximum efficiency around
a. 20% overload
b. Full load
c. 75% full load
d. None of these

ANSWER: Full load

23) What are fixed charges?

a. Cost of investment irrespective of energy generated.
b. Operating cost of the fuel along with cost of investment plant.
c. Operating cost only.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Cost of investment irrespective of energy generated.

24) Which components are included in the annual operating cost?

a. Fuel, maintenance cost and labour
b. Interest, taxes, insurance and depreciation
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Fuel, maintenance cost and labour

25) What does the annual fixed cost include?

a. Fuel, maintenance cost and labour
b. Interest, taxes, insurance and depreciation
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
 ANSWER: Interest, taxes, insurance and depreciation

26) The capital cost of a power plant depends on ______________ _.

a. Total installed capacity only
b. Total number of units only
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these

ANSWER: Both (a) and (b)

27) What is meant by semi fixed charges?

a. It is the cost which is independent of maximum demands and units generated.
b. It is the cost which depends only on the units generated.
c. It is the cost which depends upon the maximum demand but it is independent of units
generated.
d. None of these.

ANSWER: It is the cost which depends upon the maximum demand but it is
independent of units generated.

28) The annual depreciation reserve depends on _____________ _.

a. Capital cost only.
b. Salvage value only.
c. On any method of calculation of depreciation factor.
d. All of these
e. None of these

ANSWER: All of these

29) Depreciation charge may be based on which method?

a. Straight line method.
b. Sinking fund method.
c. Both (a) & (b).
d. None of these.

ANSWER: Both (a) & (b).

30) In a straight line method, annual depreciation charges are calculated by

a. The capital cost minus salvage value divided by the number of years of life.
b. The capital cost divided by the number of years of life.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. None of these

ANSWER: The capital cost minus salvage value divided by the number of years of
life.
1) What percent
of installed capacity of gas turbines contribute to the total installed
capacity of the power plants in India?
a. 5 %
b. 8 %
c. 11 %
d. 15 %

ANSWER: 11 %

2) Which state in India among these doesn’t have a gas turbine plant?
a. Jammu Kashmir
b. Tripura
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Bihar

ANSWER: Tamil Nadu

3) On which cycle does the gas turbine work?

a. Carnot
b. Brayton
c. Dual cycle
d. Rankine cycle

ANSWER: Brayton

4) The gas turbines are mainly used in________ _.

a. Locomotives
b. Aircrafts
c. Automobiles
d. Pumping stations

ANSWER: Automobiles

5) Gas turbine plants are not used _________ _.

a. as peak load plants.
b. as base load plants.
c. as standby power plants.
d. in combination with the steam power plants.

ANSWER: as base load plants.

6) Combined cycle power plants are suitable for ___________.

a. Base loads.
b. Peak loads.
c. Intermediate loads.
d. Both base and peak loads.
 ANSWER: Both base and peak loads.

7) Name the turbine developed on the basis of aircraft engine technology.

a. Brayton
b. Aerodynamic
c. Aero derivative
d. Rankine

ANSWER: Aero derivative

8) Which among these is the main component of a gas turbine plant?

a. Condenser
b. Compressor
c. Boiler
d. None of these

ANSWER: Compressor

9) Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?

a. Reciprocating compressor
b. Screw compressor
c. Multistage axial flow compressor
d. None of these

ANSWER: Multistage axial flow compressor

10) What part or % of power developed is utilised for driving the compressor? a. 65 %
b. 70 %
c. 55 %
d. 80 %

ANSWER: 65 %

11) The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the following fuels?
a. Coal and Peat
b. Kerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil
c. Gas oil
d. Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel

ANSWER: Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel

12) The heating value of gaseous fuels is about

a. 500 kJ/litre
b. 30 kJ/litre
c. 100 kJ/litre
d. 10 kJ/litre
 ANSWER: 30 kJ/litre

13) The compressor has to be started

a. Before starting the gas turbine.
b. After starting the gas turbine.
c. Simultaneously with starting of gas turbine.
d. At any time during the operation.

ANSWER: Before starting the gas turbine.

14) What would be the temperature of the gas in the combustion chamber? a. 500
°
b. 1600 °
c. 1200 °
d. 650 °

ANSWER: 1600 °

15) The efficiency of the open cycle gas plant is quite low. Why?
a. Gas gets cooled before reaching the turbine wheels.
b. A lot of mechanical energy is used up by the compressor.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. None of these

ANSWER: Both (a) and (b).

16) Which among these are used to improve the efficiency of gas turbines?
a. Regenerator.
b. Inter cooling.
c. Reheating.
d. All of these.

ANSWER: All of these.

17) What is regeneration?

a. Removal of heat from compressed air between stages of compression.
b. Transfer of heat energy from exhaust gases to the compressed air flowing between
compressor and the combustion chamber.
c. To increase the temperature of partially expanded gases by burning more fuel.
d. None of these

ANSWER: Transfer of heat energy from exhaust gases to the compressed air flowing
between compressor and the combustion chamber.

18) What is meant by inter cooling?

a. Removal of heat from compressed air between stages of compression.
b. Transfer of heat energy from exhaust gases to the compressed air flowing between
compressor and the combustion chamber.
c. To increase the temperature of partially expanded gases by burning more fuel.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Removal of heat from compressed air between stages of compression.

19) Which material is used for the manufacture of the turbine blades?
a. Stainless steel
b. Carbon steel
c. High nickel alloy
d. High alloy steel

ANSWER: High nickel alloy

20) Which among these plants are most efficient?

a. Open cycle
b. Combined cycle
c. Closed cycle
d. None of these

ANSWER: Combined cycle

21) In a 2 stroke engine, the operation cycle are completed in how many strokes and
revolution?
a. 4 strokes and 2 revolutions
b. 2 stroke and 2 revolutions
c. 2 strokes and 1 revolution
d. 4 stroke and 4 revolutions

ANSWER: 2 strokes and 1 revolution

22) The speed of the diesel engine may vary from

a. 0 – 100 rpm
b. 200 – 1000 rpm
c. 500 -5000 rpm
d. 1000 – 3000 rpm

ANSWER: 1000 – 3000 rpm

23) The diesel plants are mainly used ________ _.

a. as peak load plants.
b. as base load plants.
c. as standby power plants.
d. both peak and stand by plants.

ANSWER: both peak and stand by plants.

24) What is the ranging capacity of the diesel plant? a.

50 – 750 kW
b. 100 – 1175 kW
c. 75 – 3750 kW
d. 150 – 4575 kW

ANSWER: 75 – 3750 kW

25) It is very
much necessary to treat the makeup water to remove the scale forming the
impurities. Which treatment is used?
a. Zeolite softener
b. Lime or lime soda treatment
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Both (a) and (b)

Question Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy?
A Tidal power
B Geothermal energy
C Nuclear Energy
D Wind power
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In steam power plant which of the following component needs more maintenance
A Condenser
B Boiler
C Turbine
D Coal carrying system
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The efficiency of the electro static precipitators will be of the order:
A 99.00%
B 90.00%
C 85.00%
D 80.00%
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Economizer is normally employed when boiler pressure exceeds:

A 70 kg/cm2
B 50 kg/cm2
C 30 kg/cm2
D can be used for all pressures
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Hydrogen cooling employed in large thermal power plant alternator:

A Increases the insulation life
B Decreases the insulation life
C Does not affect the insulation life
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Rankine cycle comprises of

A two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
B two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
C two isothermal processes and two constant pressure processes
D One isothermal process and two constant pressure processes
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
A 15 to 20%
B 35 to 45%
C 70 to 80%
D 90 to 95% .
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
A change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
B change of temperature between inlet and outlet.
C change of entropy between inlet and outlet
D change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to

A Rankine cycle efficiency
B Carnot cycle efficiency
C Regenerative cycle efficiency
D Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency

A is always greater than simple Rankine thermal efficiency
B is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when steam is bled at
particular pressure
C is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency.
D is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Regenerative heating i.e., bleeding steam to reheat feed water to boiler
A decreases thermal efficiency of the cycle
B increases thermal efficiency of the cycle
C does not affect thermal efficiency of the cycle
D may increase or decrease thermal efficiency of the cycle depending upon the point of
extraction of steam
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 and high pressure limit of p2
A has higher thermal efficiency than the Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
B has lower thermal efficiency than Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
C has same thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
D may be more or less depending upon the magnitudes of p1and p2.
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant

A improves in summer as compared to that in winter
B improves in winter as compared to that in summer
C is unaffected by climatic conditions
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Carnot cycle comprises of

A two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
B two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
C two isothermal processes and three constant pressure processes
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by

A exhaust gases
B heaters
C draining steam from the turbine
D all above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Economiser is used to heat

A air
B feed water
C flue gases
D all above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Economiser utilizes heat of

A air
B feed water
C flue gases
D all above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The modern steam turbines use

A impulse turbines
B reaction turbines
C impulse-reaction turbines
D Kaplan turbine
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The draught which a chimney produces is called

A induced draught
B natural draught
C forced draught
D balanced draught
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Artificial draught is produced by

A induced fan
B forced fan
C induced and forced fan
D all of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question For the induced draught the fan is located

A near bottom of chimney
B at the top of the chimney
C near bottom of furnace
D anywhere permissible
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine
A is different
B is same
C increases from one side to the other side
D decreases from one side to the other side
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is

A fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
B rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
C no change in absolute pressure in the condenser
D rise in temperature of condensed steam
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is

A to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output from the primemover
B to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime mover
C to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used again in boiler
D all of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Method which is commonly applied for unloading the coal for small power plant is
A lift trucks
B coal accelerators
C tower cranes
D belt conveyor
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Primary air is that air which is used to

A reduce the flame length
B increase the flame length
C transport and dry the coal
D provide air around burners for getting optimum combustion
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Secondary air is the air used to

A reduce the flame length
B increase the flame length
C transport and dry the coal
D provide air round the burners for getting optimum combustion
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Bucket elevators are used for

A carrying coal in horizontal direction
B carrying coal in vertical direction
C carrying coal in any direction
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators are used to remove

A dust
B clinkers
C iron particles
D sand
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question It is important the heat the water before feeding to boiler because
A The dissolved gases which corrodes the boiler are removed
B Thermal stresses arises due to the cold water entering the boiler can be reduced
C Some impurities carried by steam and condensate due to corrosion in boiler and condenser
are precipitated outside the boiler
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Which type of alternator is employed in thermal power plant

A salient type
B non salient pole type
C both can be used
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The indication to determine the incomplete combustion is:

A high percentage of CO2 content in the flue gases
B high temperature of the flue gases
C high percentage of CO content in the flue gases
D all the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The purpose of Spray pond in Thermal power plant is:

A to deposit the ash coming out of the thermal power plant
B to cool the water coming out of condenser
C to remove the dissolved gases in the feed water
D to remove flue gases from boiler
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In India largest thermal power station is located at

A Kota
B Sarni
C Chandrapur
D Neyveli
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Pulverized coal is

A coal free from ash
B non-smoking coal
C coal which bums For long time
D coal broken into fine particles.
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In thermal power plants the condenser used is of:

A surface type
B jet type
C can be both surface type and jet type
D none of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Without Electrostatic precipitators

A ID fan rating should be increased
B Economizer rating should be increased
C Chimney height should be reduced
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question For the same draught produced the power of induced draught fan as compared to
forced draught fan is
A less
B more
C same
D not predictable
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In case of non-condensing turbines the back pressure is

A atmospheric
B below atmospheric pressure
C above atmospheric pressure
D depends on the size of turbine.
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Which power plant normally operates at high speeds ?

A Diesel engine plant
B Petrol engine plant
C Steam turbine plant
D Hydro-electric power plant
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Economisers improve boiler efficiency by

A 1 to 5%
B 4 to 10%
C 10 to 12%
D 15-20%
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept now-a-days is of the order
of
A 20 kgf/[Link]
B 50 kgf/[Link]
C 100 kgf/[Link]
D 150 kgf/[Link]
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Electrostatic precipitator is installed between:

A induced fan and chimney
B air preheater and induced fan
C economizer and air preheater
D boiler furnace and economiser
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1
Question In a super heater
A pressure rises and temperature drops
B temperature rises and pressure drops
C temperature rises and pressure remains unchanged
D pressure rises and temperature remains the same
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Pipes carrying steam in thermal power plant are generally made of
A steel
B cast iron
C aluminum
D cobalt
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The steam power plant efficiency can be improved by

A decreasing the load on the plant
B using large quantity of water
C burning large quantity of coal
D using high temperature and pressure of steam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The coal which has highest ash content (lowest calorific value) is
A Lignite
B Coke
C Bituminous coal
D Peat
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The efficiency of the thermal power plant is of the order

A 15.00%
B 30.00%
C 50.00%
D 60.00%
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1
Question Economizer of boiler has main function of
A heat up the incoming water with excess steam
B heat up the pulverized fuel by exhaust gases
C heat up the incoming air by exhaust gases
D heat up the incoming water by exhaust gases
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question What are the combustible elements in the fuel:

A carbon, hydrogen and ash
B carbon, hydrogen and sulphur
C carbon and hydrogen
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Heating value of coal is approximately

A 1000-2000 kcal / kg
B 2000-4000 kcal / kg
C 5000-6500 kcal / kg
D 9000-10,500 kcal / kg
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Which of the following is considered as superior quality of coal ?

A Bituminous coal
B Peat
C Lignite
D Coke
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In a power plant, coal is carried from storage place to boilers generally by means of
A bucket
B V-belts
C trolleys
D manually
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Live storage of coal in a power plant means

A coal ready for combustion
B preheated coal
C storage of coal sufficient to meet 24 hour demand of the plant
D coal in transit.
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The efficiency of a thermal power plant improves with

A increased quantity of coal burnt
B larger quantity of water used
C lower load in the plant
D use of high steam pressures.
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Which of the following contributes to the improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle in a
thermal power plant ?
A Reheating of steam at intermediate stage
B Regeneration use of steam for heating boiler feed water
C Use of high pressures
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In case of impulse steam turbine

A there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
B there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
C there is enthalpy drop in nozzles
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine
A is same
B is different
C increases from one side to the other side
D decreases from one side to the other side
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In case of reaction turbine

A there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
B there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
C there is enthalpy drop in nozzles
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In jet type condenser

A Cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them
B steam water passes through tubes and Cooling surrounds them
C Steam and cooling water mix
D Staem and cooling water do not mix
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In shell or tube type condenser

A Cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them
B steam water passes through tubes and Cooling surrounds them
C Steam and cooling water mix
D Staem and cooling water do not mix
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In a surface condenser if air is removed there is

A Fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
B rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
C No change in absolute pressure in condenser
D Rise in temperature of condensed steam
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Belt conveyer can be used to transport coal at inclination upto

A 30 degree
B 60 degree
C 80 degree
D 90 degree
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Coal rank classifies coal as per its:

A specific gravity
B degree of metamorphism
C carbon percentage
D ash content
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Generally the speed of turbine generators employed in thermal power plants will be in the
range of:
A 750 rpm
B 1000 rpm
C 3000 rpm
D 5000 rpm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Induced draft fans are used to:

A cool the steam let out by the turbine in the thermal power station
B cool the hot gases coming out of boiler
C forces the air inside the coal furnace
D pull the gases out of furnace
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Which of the following equipment is installed in steam power plant to reduce air pollution:
A Air filer
B HEPA filter
C Electro static precipitator
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Equipment used for pulverizing the coal is:

A hopper
B stoker
C ball mill
D electro static precipitator
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question In Thermal Power Plant the feed water coming from economizer is heated using:
A HP steam
B LP steam
C re heater
D flue gases
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Which of the following enters the super heater of a boiler ?

A Cold water
B Hot water
C Wet steam
D Super-heated steam.
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question The equipment installed in power plants to reduce air pollution due to smoke is
A Induced draft fans
B De-super heaters
C Electrostatic precipitators
D Re-heaters
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Permissible pH value of water for boilers is

A 1
B 7
C slightly more than 7
D 10

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 1

Question Chemical composition of coal is given by

A Proximate analysis
B Ultimate analysis
C Orast analysis
D All of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit 1
Question The power output from an hydroelectric power plant depends on
A type of dam, type of catchment area and discharge.
B type of dam, head and system efficiency.
C discharge, head and system efficiency.
D type of turbine, type of dam and type of catchment area.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question If power P available from a hydro-scheme is given by the formula P = 9.81 QH, where Q is
the flow rate through the turbine in l/sec and H is the head in metres, then P will be in units
of
A W
B H
C KJ/s
D KwhS
Answer A
Marks 1

Question A hydroelectric power station is commonly found in

A desert areas.
B hilly areas.
C swamps
D grasslands.
Answer B
Marks 1

Question In hydroelectric power plants

A operating cost is low and initial cost is high.
B operating cost is high and initial cost is low.
C both operating cost as well initial cost are high.
D both operating cost as well as initial cost are low.
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The advantage(s) of hydro-plants is/are

A low operating cost.
B they can be started and loaded very quickly.
C they can be used as base load and peak load plants as well;
D all of these
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Gross head of an hydroelectric power station is

A the difference of water level between the level in the storage and tail race.
B the height of water level in the river where the tail race is provided
C the height of water level in the river where the storage is provided.
D all of the these
Answer A
Marks 1

Question A graphical representation of the discharge and time is known as

A load curve
B load duration curve.
C monograph
D hydrograph.
Answer D
Marks 1

Question An hydrograph indicates

A the discharge at any time during the period under consideration.
B the maximum and minimum run off during the period.
C the average run-off during the period.
D all of these
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Hydrograph is similar to

A load-duration curve
B mass curve.
C chronological-load curve.
D energy load curve
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The factors affecting the run-off are

A rain fall pattern, shape and size of catchment area.#
B the topography and nature of soil in the catchment area.
C amount of vegetation and weather condition in the catchment area.
D all of theses
Answer D
Marks 1

Question The flow-duration curve at a given head of a hydroelectric plant is used to determine
A total power available at the site.
B total units of energy available.
C load-factor at the plant.
D diversity factor for the plant
Answer A
Marks 1
Question The area under a flow-duration curve represents.
A total units of energy available.
B total power available at site.
C total quantity of run-off during that period.
D maximum rate of run-off during that period.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question A mass curve can be plotted from

A load duration curve.
B chronological load curve.
C energy load curve.
D both load duration curve and chronological load curve.
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Storage requirement can be determined from

A hydrograph.
B flow-duration curve.
C mass curve.
D either by hydrograph or by mass curve
Answer B
Marks 1

Question In hydropower stations what is an enlarged body of water just above the intake and used as
a regulating reservoir, called?
A Spillways.
B Forebay.
C Reservoir
D Penstock.
Answer B
Marks 1

Question A penstock is used as a conduit between

A the steam chest and the turbine in a thermal station.
B the dam and the turbine in a hydrostation.
C the turbine and the discharge drain.
D the heat exchanger and the turbine in a nuclear power plant.
Answer B
Marks 1

Question In high head hydroelectric power plant, the velocity of water flow in penstock is around
A 2 m/s
B 4 m/s.
C 7 m/s
D 10 m/s
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Location of a surge tank, in an hydroelectric power station, is near

A turbine.
B tail race.
C reservoir.
D dam.
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The function of a surge tank is to

A supply water at constant pressure.
B relieve water hammer pressures in the penstock pipe.
C produce surge in the pipeline.
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Water hammer occurs in

A surge tank.
B penstock.
C turbine casing.
D draft tube.
Answer B
Marks 1

Question In a medium or high head hydroelectric power station, a surge tank is provided to
A reduce the length of the penstock pipes
B augment water at the forebay.
C control the pressure variations in the penstock pipes due to sudden load changes.
D control the water flow through the turbine.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The draft tube is provided to

A raise the water surface of the stream to create an artificial head.
B reduce the effect of water hammer.
C increase the acting head on the water wheel.#
D none of the above.
Answer C
Marks 1
Question For variable heads of near about but less than 30 metres, which type of turbines is used in
hydropower stations?
A Pelton.
B Kaplan.
C Francis.
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 1

Question For harnessing lower variable water heads, the suitable hydraulic turbine with high
percentage of reaction and runner adjustable vanes is
A Kaplan
B Francis
C Pelton
D Impeller
Answer A
Marks 1

Question For high head and low discharge the water turbine used is
A Pelton wheel.
B Kaplan turbine.
C Francis turbine.
D propeller turbine.
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The "specific speed"of a water turbine is the speed at which the turbine develops
A maximum horse power.
B unit horse power at all heads.
C unit horse power at unit head.
D minimum horse power.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The specific speeds of Kaplan, Francis and Pelton turbines are in
A the increasing order.
B the decreasing order
C neither increasing nor decreasing order.
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 1

Question An impulse turbine

A is most suited for low head and high discharge power plants.
B operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy,
C makes use of draft tube'.#
D always operates submerged.
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Turbines installed at Bhakra Nangal are

A Pelton wheels.
B Francis turbines.
C Kaplan turbine's.
D Propeller turbines.
Answer A
Marks 1

Question In reaction turbine, the function of draft tube is to

A reduce water hammer,
B increase flow rate of water.
C convert kinetic energy of water to potential energy by a gradual expansion in divergent
part.
D none of these
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The maximum head of at Kaplan turbine is limited to

A 25 m.
B 70 m
C 125 m.
D 150m
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Which of the following statements is/are correct?

In pumped storage power plants,
A water is recirculated through water turbines.
B reversible turbines are used which operate as turbines for power generation during peak
load hours and as pumps for pumping water during peak-off hours.
C plain Francis turbines are used.
D both (a) and (c) above are employed
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Factors affecting the run-off are

A rain fall pattern, shape and size of catchment area.
B the topography and nature of soil in the catchment area.
C amount of vegetation and weather condition in the catchment area.
D all of the above,
Answer D
Marks 1

Question In pump storage hydropower plant, the electrical machine is made to work alternately as
generator and motor. The efficiency of the generator working at the same electric power
level is
A greater than that as motor.
B equal to that as motor.
C less than that as motor.
D greater or less than that as motor depending on the type of themachine.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question In India, pumped storage power plant

A does not exist at all.
B exists is Rajasthan alone
C exists in Kadampurai (TN).
D exists in Haryana
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The pumped storage scheme is employed to supply

A during the peak hours.
B during the off-peak hours.
C system base load.
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 1

Question In pumped storage scheme, the generator is also used as

A induction generator or synchronous condenser.
B induction generator or synchronous motor.
C synchronous generator or induction generator.
D synchronous motor or synchronous condenser.
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Pump storage schemes are used to improve

A the power factor
B the diversity factor.
C the quality of voltage.
D the plant capacity factor as well as the load factor
Answer D
Marks 1

Question A hydel power plant of run-off-river type should be provided with pond age so that the
A firm-capacity of the plant is increased.
B operating head is controlled.
C pressure inside the turbine casing remains constant.
D kinetic energy of the running water is fully utilized.
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The first hydro power plant was set up in-------

A 1895
B 1890
C 1897
D 1886
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The power developed by the hydraulic turbine depends on the

A quantity of money
B quantity of water available
C availability of land
D none of above
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Which of the following are the advantages of hydro power plant
A it is more reliable than others
B not require any fuel for power generation
C require less supervising staff
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Which are disadvantages of hydro power plant

A power produced depends on availability of water
B require high capital cost
C disturbs ecology of area
D all of above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Which of the following term are used in dam

A reservoir
B trash rack
C water
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Question What is the function of anchor
A support dam
B support penstock
C both support dam and penstock
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Which of following term belongs to data

A tailrace
B turbine
C power house
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Which of the following is wrong for selection of site of dam

A located at the neck of river
B soil bearing capacity is high
C near to earth quake zone
D all of above
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Which of the following are the types of dams

A gravity
B buttress
C both gravity and buttress
D none
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Gravity dams are constructed by using

A R.C.C.
B P.C.C.
C R.C.C. And P.C.C. both
D none
Answer A
Marks 1

Question In gravity dams the water thrust is resisted by

A power plant
B earth dam
C gravity
D None
Answer C
Marks 1

Question In buttress dam the laid on supporting structure called as:

A clat deck
B tail race
C buttresses
D all of above
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The other name of buttresses dam is

A earth dam
B hollow gravity type dam
C gravity dam
D power plant
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The slide slope of earth dam is done by using

A spillway
B stone pitching
C slide channel
D Allof these
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The height of earth dam is

A 80m
B 70m
C 50m
D 60m
Answer B
Marks 1
Question Consider the following statements regarding pumped storage plants:
1. A pumped storage plant is a base load plant.
2. The starting time of a pumped storage plant is very short.
3. Reversible turbines and pumps are highly suitable for pumped storage plants:
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A 1 and 2.
B 1 and 3.
C 2 and 3.
D 1,2 and 3.
Answer C
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

a) Flow-duration duration curve i) Potential power contained in stream flow Vs. Time
b) Power duration curve ii) River discharge Vs. Time
c) Hydrographs iii) Accumulated flow Vs. Time
d) Mass Curve iv) Run off Vs. % of time
A a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-iii)
B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)
C a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-i), d)-ii)
D a)-iv), b)-i), c)-ii), d)-iii)
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Hydraulic turbine are used to convert--------to----------

A mechanical to electrical
B kinetic to potential
C kinetic to mechanical
D potential to kinetic
Answer C
Marks 2

Question The quantity of water available for hydro-electric plant is 250 under a head of 1.6
m. If the speed of the turbine is 50 r.p.m. and efficiency 82%, then what is the number of
turbine units required. Take specific speed as 740.

A 4

B 5

C 6
D 7
Answer B
Marks 2
Question Match the pairs
Turbine Specific Speed
a) Pelton wheel turbine i) 10-35
b) Kaplan turbine ii) 300-100
c) Francis turbine iii) 60-300
A a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iii)

B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-ii), c)-i)

D None
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Which statements are incorrect in concerned with site selection of hydropower plants?
1) The site should be selected on availability of water and method of storage
2) The head and storage capacity should be minimum.
3) The site should be near to load centres.
4) The site should be located in earthquake area.
A 1) and 2)
B 3) and 4)
C 2) and 4)
D 2) and 3)
Answer C
Marks 2

Question Which statements are correct in concerned with site selection of hydropower plants?
1) The site should be selected on availability of water and method of storage
2) The head and storage capacity should be minimum.
3) The site should be near to load centres.
4) The site should be located in earthquake area.
A 1) and 2)
B 3) and 4)
C 2) and 4)
D 1) and 3)
Answer D
Marks 2
Question Sudden rise in pressure in penstock is called and it can be reduced using .
A Hydrographs, spillways
B Forebays, spillways
C Reservior, surge tank
D Water hammer, surge tank
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Sharp bends should be avoided in to reduce losses.

A Penstocks, hydraulic
B Spillways, mechanical
C Turbine, mechanical
D Surge tank, water hammer
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Part Function
a) Reservoir i) To control the flow of water
b) Dam ii) To store water
c) Gate iii) To provide working head
A a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iii)

B a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)

C a)-iii), b)-ii), c)-i)

D None
Answer B
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Function Part
a) To reduce water hammer effect i) Spillway
b) To carry water from dam to power house ii) Surge tank
c) To discharge flood water iii) Penstocks
A a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iii)

B a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)

C a)-iii), b)-ii), c)-i)

D None
Answer B
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Function Part
a) To convert kinetic energy into mechanical i) Trash rack
b) To prevent entry of debris intakes from dam ii) Hydraulic Turbine
c) To provide temporary water to turbine iii) Forebay
A a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)

B a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)

C a)-iii), b)-ii), c)-i)

D None
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Plant Hydraulic Turbine
a) Low head plants i) Francis
b) Medium head plants ii) Pelton wheel
c) High head plants iii) Kaplan
A a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)

B a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)

C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii)

D None
Answer C
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Hydraulic Turbine Plant
a) Francis i) Low head plants
b) Pelton wheel ii) Medium head plants
c) Kaplan iii) High head plants
A a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)

B a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)

C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii)

D None
Answer B
Marks 2

Question The storage power plant is suitable as type load and Pumped storage power
plants are suitable for type load
A Peak, base
B Base, peak

C Base and peak, peak

D None
Answer C
Marks 2

Question Impulse turbines are suitable for head and reaction turbine are suitable for
head.
A High, low
B Low, high
C High, high
D Low, low
Answer A
Marks 2

Question In Francis turbine water enters and in Kaplan turbine it enters .

A Radially, axially
B Axially, radially
C Radially, radially
D Axially, axially
Answer A
Marks 2

Question The specific speed of Francis turbine ranges from and in Kaplan turbine it
ranges from .
A 250-850, 50-250
B 50-250, 250-850
C 100-200, 1000-2000
D 150-250, 750-1000
Answer B
Marks 2
Question Number of blades in Francis turbine are and in Kaplan turbine they are .
A 3 to 8, 16 to 24
B 16 to 24, 3 to 8
C 6 to 9, 10 to 15
D 10 to 15, 6 to 9
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Flow of water on inlet and outlet turbine is same and turbine it is
different.
A Propeller, Kaplan
B Reaction, Impulse
C Impulse, Reaction
D Kaplan, Impulse
Answer C
Marks 2

Question A Pelton wheel of 3m runner works under a head of 800m. If it runs at 60 rpm and
discharge is 3 m3/sec. Calculate input power.
A 23544 kW
B 23.544 kW
C 2.3544 kW
D 235.44 kW
Answer A
Marks 2

Question A Pelton wheel turbine shaft power output is 21660 kW. If the generator efficiency is
96%, determine number of turbines required to generate 100MW power
A 3
B 5
C 7
D 9
Answer B
Marks 2

Question A Pelton wheel turbine shaft power output is 50000 kW. If the generator efficiency is 90%,
determine number of turbines required to generate 100MW power
A 3
B 5
C 7
D 9
Answer A
Marks 2

Question A Pelton wheel turbine shaft power output is 50000 kW. If the generator efficiency is 90%,
and turbines are 3, the power generated is
A 135 MW
B 250 MW
C 75 MW
D 100 MW
Answer A
Marks 2

Question A Pelton wheel turbine shaft power output is 100000 kW. If the generator efficiency is
95%, and turbines are 5, the power generated is
A 435 MW
B 250 MW
C 75 MW
D 100 MW
Answer A
Marks 2

Question If the generator efficiency is 90%, and number of turbines are 5, the power generated is
500 MW. A Pelton wheel turbine shaft power output is
A 111.11 MW
B 99.99 MW
C 90 MW
D 100 MW
Answer A
Marks 2

Question If the generator efficiency is 90%, and number of turbines are 10, the power generated is
500 MW. A Pelton wheel turbine shaft power output is
A 111.11 MW
B 55.55 MW
C 50 MW
D 100 MW
Answer B
Marks 2

Question The average flow in a year is 1067 m3/sec and head is 160m. If the overall efficiency is
88%, output power developed is
A 1473 MW
B 1743 MW
C 4317 MW
D 1734 MW
Answer A
Marks 2

Question The average flow in a year is 1067 m3/sec and head is 200m. If the overall efficiency is
90%, output power developed is
A 1884 MW
B 1488 MW
C 1848 MW
D 4818 MW
Answer A
Marks 2

Question The average flow in a year is 1500 m3/sec and head is 200m. If the overall efficiency is
90%, determine number of turbines to give output of 2000MW
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer A
Marks 2
Question Local winds are caused by…………….
A differential heating of land and water
B differential heating of plains and mountains
C any of these
D none of the above.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The total power of a wind stream is proportional to……………..

A velocity of stream
B square velocity of stream
C cube velocity of stream
D 1/ (velocity of stream)
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Winds caused by greater solar heating of the earth's surface near the equator than near the
northern or southern poles, are known as
A local winds
B equatorial winds
C planetary winds
D trade winds.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Planetary winds their directions are caused due to

A Greater solar heating of earth’s surface near the equator compared to heating near the
south/north poles
B Rotation of earth
C Uneven layer of heating of air and frictional resistance
D All the above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Local winds and their directions are caused due to

A Greater solar heating of earth’s surface near the equator compared to heating near the
south/north poles
B Rotation of earth
C Uneven layer of heating of air and frictional resistance
D None of the above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Local winds are caused due to

A Evaporation of water from sea
B Due to differential heating of landmass and water
C Due to differential heating of land surface near mountains
D Both B &C
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Wind power is a

A Direct form of solar energy
B indirect form of solar energy
C It has nothing to do with solar energy
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Total wind power density is

A Wind power * area of wind stream
B Wind power /area of wind stream
C area of wind stream / wind power
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Total wind power

A Increases with increase in diameter of rotor &square of wind speed
B Increases as a square of rotor diameter and cube of wind speed
C Increase as square of both the rotor diameter and the square of wind speed
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Maximum theoretical efficiency of turbine rotor equals to

A ½
B 2/3
C 16/27
D 8/27
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Power coefficient of wind rotor is

A ½
B 2/3
C 16/27
D 8/27
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Maximum power occurs at the optimum velocity Ce to wind velocity Ci as

A 1/3
B 8/27
C ½
D 2/3
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Wind power can be used at places where the wind speeds in KMPH are in the range of
A 3-8
B 8-15
C 8-25
D 8-40
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Maximum theoretical efficiency of wind turbine is about 59.26% .The actual practical
efficiency in a percentage is in the range of (approximately)
A 0-20
B 20-30
C 35-44
D 45-50
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Which are not the advantages of wind up power

A Has a low maintenance cost
B Capital cost is high
C Available energy is dilute and fluctuating
D Causes sound pollution
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The type of windmills can be classified based on

A Orientation of axis of rotor
B Type of rotor
C Both A &B
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Horizontal axis windmills are usually

A Propeller type with rotor speeds 60-200 RPM
B Multi-bladed type, rotor speed 60-80 RPM
C Propeller type with rotor speeds 300-400 RPM
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Darrieus type rotor for vertical axis windmills use 2 -3

A Convex blades of profile type
B Concave blades
C Flat blades
D Convex blades of aerofoil cross-section
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Methods used to control fluctuation of power when wind speeds are high may be
A Pitch control
B Passive stall control
C Active stall control
D All the above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Passive stall control for power control uses

A Change of angle of attack
B Actuates the pitch mechanism which turns the rotor blades out of the wind
C Having two blades with changeable pitch angles
D By rotating the turbine about a vertical axis facing or away the wind
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Yaw Power control means

A Change of angle of attack
B Actuates the pitch mechanism which turns the rotor blades out of the wind
C Having two blades with changeable pitch angles
D By rotating the turbine about a vertical axis facing or away the wind
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Pitch control method for control of fluctuation power involves

A Change of angle of attack
B Actuates the pitch mechanism which turns the rotor blades out of the wind
C Having two blades with changeable pitch angles
D By rotating the turbine about a vertical axis facing or away the wind
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Active stall control for fluctuation of power involves

A Change of angle of attack
B Actuates the pitch mechanism which turns the rotor blades out of the wind
C Having two blades with changeable pitch angles
D By rotating the turbine about a vertical axis facing or away the wind
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Power coefficient is maximum in case of following types windmills

A Propeller type
B Savonius type
C Darieus type
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Suitable sites for installation windmills are

A Plane land with available wind speeds 6m/s to 30 m/s
B Hill tops
C Sea shores
D All the above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Windmills should not be located near populated area or cities and forest since
A Causes noise pollution
B Due resistance offered to air movement by building and forests
C Having low height structures
D Both A &B
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Cut in speed for windmills is

A Less than 5m/s
B 5-10 m/s
C 5-15m/s
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1

Question A WTG with gas turbine or diesel engine is called as

A Stand alone system
B Grid connected system
C hybrid system
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Energy storage used for large power generation upto 10 MW is

A Storage Batteries
B grid
C No storage needed
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Induction type generators are preferred over DC and synchronous type of generators
because it has
A Low cost
B Better transient performance
C Low maintenance
D All of the above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Which type of generator is preferred for variable shaft speed upto ±10%
A D C type
B Synchronous type
C Induction type
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The kinetic energy per unit volume is given by where p is the density of the air and Vis the
velocity of wind in m/ see _
A 0.5ρV2
B ρV
C 2ρV2
D 4ρV2
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Maximum wind energy available is proportional to _

A air density
B cube of wind velocity
C square of the rotor diameter
D all of these
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Theoretical maximum efficiency of wind power is about _

A 30%
B 48%
C 59%
D 65%
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Which type of wind mills are termed as "cross-wind axis"machines?

A Horizontal axis wind mills.
B Vertical axis wind mills.
C Both horizontal and vertical mills
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The drawbacks of wind energy is _

A unreliability and non-steadiness
B can affect the bird life
C output voltage and frequency fluctuations
D all of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Question Which type of generator is employed in wind power plant?
A Synchronous generator
B Induction generator
C Permanent magnet motor
D Brushless motor
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The types of wind mills can be classified based on _

A orientation of axis of rotor
B type of rotor
C both on orientation of axis and type of rotor
D none of these
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Wind power can be used at places where the wind speeds in kmph are in the
range of
A 3-8
B 8 - 15
C 8 - 25
D 8 - 40
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Hybrid wind power systems are used because _

A to meet the constant power requirement since wind power is not available
continuously
B there is no grid available
C both (a) and (b)
D none of these
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Wind as a source power _

A is non-steady and unreliable.
B does not possess the basic requirements of any energy source
C is plentiful, inexhaustible, renewable and non-polluting.
D all of these
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Hybrid wind power systems are used because

A To meet the constant power requirement since wind power is not available continuously
B There is no grid available
C Both A and B
D None
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Inverter in standalone system is used

A To distribute AC and DC power
B To convert DC into AC power
C To convert AC into DC power
D None
Answer B
Marks 1

Question A charge controller is used for controlling the

A Charge of batteries
B Discharge of batteries
C Both charging and discharging
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Induction type generators are preferred over DC and synchronous type of generators
because it has
A Low cost
B Better transient performance
C Low maintenance
D All of above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Energy storage used for large power generation upto 10 MW is

A Storage batteries
B Grid
C No storage needed
D None
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The total wind power per unit area of wind stream is known as
A Total wind power density
B Total wind power intensity
C Heat density
D Heat intensity
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Axial force is equal to the rate of change of

A Momentum of inertia
B Momentum of mass
C Momentum of air
D None
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The ratio of maximum power obtained from the turbine to the total power is
A Heat coefficient
B Power coefficient
C Both heat and power
D None
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The material used for blades is

A Glass fiber reinforced plastic
B Nylon fiber
C Synthetic fiber
D None
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The effective wind velocity produces the total force acting on the blade section is
A Static force
B Dynamic force
C Aero dynamic force
D None
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Which effect is caused by spinning a cylinder in an air stream

A Heat effect
B Mass effect
C Magnus effect
D All of above
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Variation of wind velocity with altitude is

A Sea shear
B Wind shear
C Water shear
D None
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Diameter of propeller type wind mill is

A 10m – 15m
B 15m – 20m
C 25 m – 40m
D 50m – 60m
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Speed of wind mill in horizontal axis wind turbine generators is

A 100rpm – 200rpm
B 200rpm – 300rpm
C 300rpm – 400rpm
D 400rpm – 500rpm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit 9

Question Wind power is?

A polluting
B non polluting
C unclean
D poor
Answer B
Marks 1

Question A typical propeller type wind mill has its blades?

A 50m to 100m
B 300 to 400 m
C 3 to 4 m
D 25 to 40m
Answer D
Marks 1

Question In HAWT, how many blades are of wood?

A 1 or 2
B 2 or 3
C 3 or 4
D 4 or 5
Answer B
Marks 1

Question In VAWT turbine shaft is coupledto?

A alternator
B insulator
C generator
D battery
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Which of the following is type of rotor

A propeller
B savonius type
C multiple blade
D all are correct
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Horizontal axis wind mill may be of

A propeller type
B multibladed type
C may be propeller or multi blade
D none of these
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The variation of total wind power with change in

A rotor diameter and wind speed
B rotor radius and wind speed
C rotor length and wind speed
D rotor weight and wind speed
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The maximum theoretical efficiency is N max is

A 58.26%
B 59.28%
C 58.56%
D 58.29%
Answer B
Marks 1

Question wind power can be use to run which application

A water pump
B charging batteries
C electric generator
D all
Answer D
Marks 1

Id
Question The first use of wind power was made by………………….
A Egyptians
B British colonies
C American colonists
D Holland
Answer A
Marks 1

Question If the wind speed doubles, the power output of a wind turbine increases……………
A four fold
B eight fold
C two fold
D nine fold
Answer B
Marks 1

Question As the power output of a wind turbine increases , its size……………….

A decreases
B increases
C remain fixed
D does not depend on power output
Answer B
Marks 1
Question The only restriction on the size of a wind turbine is the…………………
A strength of the turbine material
B velocity of the wind
C nature of land
D hot climate
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The rotor efficiency is independent of ………………

A density of air
B swept air
C velocity of wind
D height of wind mill
Answer D
Marks 1

Question The power output of a wind turbine………………..

A is constant
B is variable
C depends on tower height
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Wind mills are as efficient as…………..

A Thermal power plants
B Nuclear power plants
C Hydro power plants
D diesel power plants
Answer A
Marks 1
Question Wind mills convert about ............................. of wind’s kinetic energy into electricity.
A 20 %
B 30 %
C 50 %
D 60 %
Answer B
Marks 1

Question A wind plant is ........................ to construct than a conventional energy plant.

A less expensive
B more expensive
C equally costly
D uneconomical
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Windmill towers are generally more productive if they are……………….

A higher, to minimize turbulence and maximize wind speed
B lower, to minimize turbulence and maximize wind speed
C lower, to increase heat convection from the ground
D higher, to minimize the number of birds that interfere with blade turning
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Offshore wind farms are being seriously considered because………..

A they are more aesthetically pleasing
B wind speeds are higher and turbulence is lower
C development of land for human use is pushing wind farms to open water
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The maximum power is extracted from the wind at that speed ratio, when………….
A the downstream wind speed equals one-third of the upstream speed
B the upstream wind speed equals one-third of the downstream speed
C the downstream wind speed equals two-third of the upstream speed
D the downstream wind speed equals the upstream speed
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The wind speed is measured with an instrument called

A Odometer
B Strain gauge
C anemometer,
D Rotameter
Answer C
Marks 1
Question The wind direction is measured with an instrument called the ………………
A anemometer
B Rotameter
C Pyrometer
D weather vane.
Answer D
Marks 1

Question “Measure, Correlate and Predict (MCP)”technique is used to …………

A Study wind speed distribution
B select wind mill site
C design a wind turbine
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The wind pattern generally repeats over the period of ……………………
A six months
B nine months
C one year
D every four months
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The yaw control continuously ………………

A orients the rotor in the direction of the wind
B orients the rotor against the direction of the wind
C controls the speed of turbine
D controls the electrical output of the turbine
Answer A
Marks 1

Question In………… the pitch of the blade is changed with the changing wind speed to regulate the
rotor speed.
A yaw control
B pitch control
C stall control
D tilt control
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The rotor speed must be controlled……………….

A to capture more energy
B to protect the rotor, the generator and the power electronic equipment from overloading at
high wind
C to prevent the rotor speed may run away when the generator is disconnected accidentally
or for a scheduled event
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question The exact nature and magnitude of Electromagnetic Interference due to wind mills depend
on…………..
A the location of the wind turbine tower relative to the radio or TV tower
B physical and electrical properties of the rotor blades
C the signal frequency modulation scheme
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question The environmental impacts of wind mills are………………

A noise
B Electromagnetic Interference
C disturbance in the breeding and feeding patterns of the birds
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Operating the wind turbine at the constant tip-speed ratio corresponding to the peak power
point means ………..
A low rotor speed in gusty winds
B high rotor speed in gusty winds
C constant rotor speed in gusty winds
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The wind between the equator and about 30° north and south latitudes move …………….
A east to west
B west to east
C north to south
D south to north
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The most critical data needed to appraise the power potential of a site for a wind mill
is……………..
A wind speed
B land terrain
C cost of land
D none of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Question Savonius type wind turbine is type and Darrieus type wind turbine is type
A Vertical, horizontal
B Horizontal, vertical
C Horizontal, horizontal
D Vertical, vertical
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Savonius type wind turbine is type and Propeller type wind turbine is type
A Vertical, horizontal
B Horizontal, vertical
C Horizontal, horizontal
D Vertical, vertical
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Which statements are correct?

1) Vertical axis wind mills generate the power for any direction of wind
2) Cut in speed of Vertical axis wind mills is as low as 8 kmph
3) Cut in speed of Horizontal axis wind mills is as low as 16 kmph
4) Horizontal axis wind mills require guiding vans for direction of wind to produce power
A 1) and 2)
B 3) and 4)
C 1) and 3)
D All are correct
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Which statements are correct?

1) Vertical axis wind mills generate the power for any direction of wind
2) Cut in speed of Horizontal axis wind mills is as low as 8 kmph
3) Cut in speed of Vertical axis wind mills is as low as 16 kmph
4) Horizontal axis wind mills require guiding vans for direction of wind to produce power
A 1) and 2)
B 2) and 3)
C 3) and 4)
D 1) and 4)
Answer D
Marks 2
Question Which statements are not correct?
1) Vertical axis wind mills generate the power for any direction of wind
2) Cut in speed of Horizontal axis wind mills is as low as 8 kmph
3) Cut in speed of Vertical axis wind mills is as low as 16 kmph
4) Horizontal axis wind mills require guiding vans for direction of wind to produce power
A 1) and 2)
B 2) and 3)
C 3) and 4)
D 1) and 3)
Answer B
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

Type of Rotor Tip Speed Ratio
a) Propeller i) 1
b) Multiblade ii) 4-16
c) Darrieus iii) 5-6
A a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iii)
B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)
C a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)
D a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii)
Answer B
Marks 2

Question Pick incorrect statement/s

1) Wind power is clean and non-polluting
2) Wind power requires less capital cost
3) Wind power is freely available and inexhaustible
4) Wind power can installed any where
A 1) and 2)
B 2) and 3)
C 2) and 4)
D 1) and 4)
Answer C
Marks 2

Question Pick correct statement/s

1) Wind power is clean and non-polluting
2) Wind power requires less capital cost
3) Wind power is freely available and inexhaustible
4) Wind power can installed any where
A 1) and 3)
B 2) and 3)
C 2) and 4)
D 1) and 4)
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

Type of Rotor No of blades
a) Propeller i) 12-20
b) Multiblade ii) 1-3
c) Darrieus iii) 2-3
A a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iii)
B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)
C a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)
D a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii)
Answer B
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

Type of Rotor Blade diameter
a) Propeller i) 2m-25m
b) Multiblade ii) 2m-5m
c) Horizontal axis iii) 25m-40m
A a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iii)
B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)
C a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)
D a)-iii), b)-ii), c)-i)
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Pick correct statement/s

1) Wind power is sound polluting
2) Wind power requires high capital cost
3) Wind power is stable in nature
4) Wind power mills design is simple
A 1) and 3)
B 2) and 3)
C 2) and 4)
D 1) and 2)
Answer D
Marks 2
Question Pick incorrect statement/s
1) Wind power is sound polluting
2) Wind power requires high capital cost
3) Wind power is stable in nature
4) Wind power mills design is simple
A 1) and 3)
B 2) and 3)
C 3) and 4)
D 1) and 2)
Answer C
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

Wind Energy System Range
a) Standalone i) 5-250kW
b) WTG ii) Upto 10MW
c) Grid connected WTG iii) 5-700kW
A a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iii)
B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)
C a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)
D a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii)
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

Wind Energy System Range
a) Standalone i) 5-250kW
b) WTG ii) 5kW to 2MW
c) Hybrid WTG with diesel iii) 5-700kW
A a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iii)
B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)
C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii)
D a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)
Answer C
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

Wind Energy System Energy storage Device
a) Standalone i) Storage Batteries
b) WTG ii) Grid
c) Grid connected WTG iii) Not necessary
A a)-i), b)-iii), c)-ii)
B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)
C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii)
D a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

Wind Energy System Application
a) Standalone i) To feed power in grid
b) WTG ii) To supply energy in remote area
c) Grid connected WTG iii) Pumping of water or heating
A a)-i), b)-iii), c)-ii)
B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)
C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii)
D a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

Wind Generators Applicable when
a) DC generators i) Speed variation is ±10%
b) Synchronous generator ii) No speed variation
c) Induction generator iii) Speed variation is ±1%
A a)-i), b)-iii), c)-ii)
B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)
C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii)
D a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Wind power is _ and .

A Clean, polluting
B Exhaustible, non-polluting
C Inexhaustible, non-polluting
D Exhaustible, polluting
Answer C
Marks 2
Question Based on orientation of axis, wind mills are classified as
A Vertical, horizontal
B Propeller, Multiblade
C Multiblade,Savonius
D Savonius, Darrieus
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Based on orientation of axis, wind mills are classified as

A Vertical, horizontal
B Propeller, Vertical
C Horizontal, Savonius
D Savonius, Darrieus
Answer D
Marks 2

Question type turbines requires Yaw control mechanism and type does not require
it.
A Propeller, horizontal
B Vertical, horizontal
C Horizontal, vertical
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2

Question type turbine consists of two convex blades with aerofoil cross-section and
type turbine consists a hollow elliptical cylinder sliced in two pieces
A Horizontal, vertical
B Vertical, horizontal
C Savonius, Darrieus
D Darrieus, Savonius
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

Turbine Construction
a) Multiblade i) two convex blades with aerofoil blade cross-section
b) Darrieus ii) Curved shape of metal sheet blades
c) Savonius iii) a hollow elliptical cylinder sliced in two pieces
A a)-i), b)-iii), c)-ii)
B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)
C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii)
D a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)
Answer B
Marks 2

Question Determine total power density of wind turbine having air density of 1.1892 kg/m3and
speed of wind is 12 m/sec.
A 1027 W/m2
B 10.27 W/m2
C 1.027 W/m2
D 10270 W/m2
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Determine total power density of wind turbine having air density of 2 kg/m3and speed of
wind is 20 m/sec.
A 8 W/m2
B 80 W/m2
C 800 W/m2
D 8000 W/m2
Answer D
Marks 2

Question Determine maximum power density of wind turbine having air density of 1.1892 kg/m3and
speed of wind is 12 m/sec.
A 609 W/m2
B 60.9 W/m2
C 6.9 W/m2
D 6090 W/m2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit 10

Question Determine maximum power density of wind turbine having air density of 2 kg/m3and
speed of wind is 20 m/sec.
A 4.740 W/m2
B 47.40 W/m2
C 474.0 W/m2
D 4740 W/m2
Answer D
Marks 2
Question Determine speed of wind turbine having air density of 2 kg/m3and maximum power
density is 4740 W/m2
A 2 m/sec
B 20 m/sec
C 0.2 m/sec
D 200 m/sec
Answer B
Marks 2

Question Determine speed of wind turbine having air density of 1.1892 kg/m3and maximum power
density is 609 W/m2
A 12 m/sec
B 1.2 m/sec
C 120 m/sec
D 0.12 m/sec
Answer A
Marks 2

Question Match the pair

Turbine Solidity
a) Propeller i) 0.1-0.2
b) Darrieus ii) 0.01-1
c) Savonius iii) 1
A a)-i), b)-iii), c)-ii)
B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iii)
C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii)
D a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-i)
Answer B
Marks 2

Question Solidity in wind turbine is given by where n=number of blades, R=radius of rotor
blades and C=mean chord length
A
B
C
D
Answer A
Marks 2
Question Development of wind energy in India comes under the Ministry of
A New and Renewable Energy
B Power
C Finance
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Questio Diesel engine power plants are more efficient as compared to
n
A Steam power plant
B Gas power plant
C Both gas and steam power plant
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Generation cost of diesel power plant compared to steam, hydro and gas power plant is
A Low
B High
C equal
D Cannot say
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Diesel power plants are generally used as

A Base load power plants
B Peak load power plants
C Intermediate power plants
D Standby power plants
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Diesel plants used in combination with thermal and hydro power plants due to their
inherent advantage of quick start and stop are called
A Base load power plants
B Peak load power plants
C Intermediate power plants
D Standby power plants
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Use of diesel power plants alone in capacity of 5MW to 50MW are generally called as
A Central power stations
B Peak load plants
C Standby plants
D Nursery plants
Answer A
Marks 1

Question A cooling system of diesel power plant mainly consists of

A Filter and silencer
B Hear exchanger and Surge tank
C Water pump and filter
D Filter and heat exchanger
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The rate of energy available to push the piston of diesel engine is called
A IP
B BP
C FP
D HP
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The rate of energy available out of the energy supplied to diesel engine at output shaft is
called
A IP
B BP
C FP
D HP
Answer B
Marks 1

Question In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition is known as
period.
A Pre-ignition
B Delay
C Ignition
D Burning
Answer B
Marks 1

Question In diesel engine, the heat lost to the cooling water is about
A 15.00%
B 50.00%
C 30.00%
D 20.00%
Answer C
Marks 1

Question In ideal diesel cycle the working substance is

A air
B diesel
C Mixture of air and diesel
D Any combustible gas
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Air standard efficiency of a diesel engine depends on

A Expansion ratio
B Compression ratio
C Fuel used
D Gas used
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Small capacity DG sets usually work on

A Two stroke cycle
B Three stroke cycle
C Four stroke cycle
D Either two or four stroke cycle
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Two stroke engine compared to four stroke engine has .

A High capital cost
B Low specific fuel consumption
C Low weight to power ratio
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1

Question An air filter is used in

A nuclear power plants
B steam power plants
C diesel engine power plants
D hydro-power plants.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Which of the following is not a part of diesel engine power plant ?
A Cooling tower
B Penstock
C Oil pump
D Strainer
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Of the total heat supplied to a diesel engine plant, which one has the highest proportion ?
A Useful output
B Heat lost to cooling water
C Heat lost in exhaust gases
D Heat loss in friction radiation
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Supercharging of a diesel engine means

A overloading the engine for peak load
B operating the engine with age
C operating engine at higher altitudes
D supplying pressurized air during suction.
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Which power plant cannot have single units of 100 MW capacity?
A Steam power plant
B Nuclear power plant
C Hydroelectric power plant
D Diesel engine power plant
Answer D
Marks 1

Question The internal combustion engines never work on

A Diesel cycle
B Rankine cycle
C Otto cycle
D Dual combustion cycle
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The compression ratio for diesel engines is generally in the range
A 5 to 10
B 14 to 22
C 10 to 14
D 22 to 30.
Answer C
Marks 1
Question In diesel engines, the injection pressure is of the order of
A 2 kg/cm2
B 20 kg/cm2
C 100 kg/cm2
D 400 kg/cm2
Answer C
Marks 1

Question In diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

A Spark plug
B Injected fuel
C Ignitor
D Heat resulting from compressing air
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Scavenging air in diesel engine means

A Air used for combustion sent under pressure
B Forced air for cooling cylinder
C Air fuel mixture
D Air used for forcing burnt gases out of engine's cylinder during the exhaust period
Answer D
Marks 1

Question The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycle efficiency
is called
A Net efficiency
B Efficiency ratio
C Relative efficiency
D Overall efficiency
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of

A 5-10 kg/cm2
B 20-25 kg/cm2
C 60-80 kg/cm2
D 90-130 kg/cm2
Answer D
Marks 1

Question For the same compression ratio

A Otto cycle is more efficient than diesel cycle
B Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
C Both Otto and diesel cycle are equal efficient
D Cannot say
Answer A
Marks 1

Question In diesel engine, the compression ratio in comparison with expansion ratio is
A same
B more
C less
D variable
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Diesel engine as compared to petrol engine is

A More efficient
B Less efficient
C Equally efficient
D Can not compare
Answer A
Marks 1

Question In case of diesel power plant is part of exhaust system

A Surge tank
B Compressor
C Silencer
D Generator
Answer C
Marks 1
Question In diesel power plant use of lubricating system is to
A Increase noise
B Reduce friction
C Compress the air
D Start the engine
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The superchargers are provided in diesel power plant is to

A Reduce friction
B Increase pressure of intake air
C Start the engine
D To ignite the fuel
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Pick wrong statement in concerned with diesel power plant

A The bearing capacity of soil should be high where diesel power plant is to be installed
B It creates less noise
C Plant should be near to load centres
D Lubrication is essential to reduce friction
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Pick correct statement in concerned with diesel power plant

A The bearing capacity of soil should be low where diesel power plant is to be installed
B It creates large noise
C Plant should be away from load centres
D Lubrication is essential to reduce cooling
Answer B
Marks 1

Question In a four stroke engine, the four operations (suction, compression, expansion and exhaust)
are completed in revolution(s) of crankshaft.
A eight
B four
C two
D one
Answer C
Marks 1

Question In a two stroke engine, the four operations (suction, compression, expansion and exhaust)
are completed in revolution(s) of crankshaft.
A one
B two
C four
D eight
Answer A
Marks 1

Question For supercharging of diesel engines, the air is supplied through

A injector
B reciprocating compressor
C centrifugal blower
D any of the above.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question For larger output diesel electric power plants the engines used are
A horizontal type.
B vertical type, multi-cylinder and supercharged.
C air cooled
D low rpm.
Answer B
Marks 1

Question A two stroke engine may be identified by

A cooling system
B lubrication system
C absence of valves
D any of these.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Diesel engine is the main component to develop .......... which is used to run a generator.
A Mechanical energy
B chemical energy
C electrical energy
D none of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit 4

Question The temperature of cooling water leaving the diesel engine should not exceed .
A 200C
B 400C
C 700C
D 900C
Answer C
Marks 1

Question High output diesel engines are started by

A self starter
B compressed air.
C battery
D cranking.
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Compared to steam engines, the internal combustion engines have

A much higher thermal efficiency.
B almost same thermal efficiency as that of steam engines.
C much lower thermal efficiency.
D can have lower or higher thermal efficiency.
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The lubrication cost in a diesel power plant is

A high
B moderate
C low
D Can not predict
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Which of the following statements is True?

A Diesel power plants employ only four stroke engines.
B Space requirement for diesel power plants in more than that for a conventional steam
power plant
C A two stroke engine develops more power for the same speed and piston displacement
D The specific fuel consumption of a diesel power plant decreases with the decrease in load
Answer C
Marks 1

Question In case of diesel engines, the thermal efficiency is in the range of

A 10-20 percent
B 20-30percent
C 30-40 percent
D 40-50 percent
Answer C
Marks 1

Question A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic
processes is known as
A Carnot cycle
B Stirling cycle
C Otto cycle
D Diesel cycle
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit 4
Question Gas turbine power plant use for
A Base load
B Peak load
C Transportation
D Base load and Peak load
Answer D
Marks 1

Question In closed cycle gas turbine plant

A Heat exchanger called Source
B Heat exchanger called Sink before supplied to the compressor
C Both the source and sink operate at constant pressure
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Gas turbine power plant_

A Started and stop quickly
B Installed quickly
C Having efficiency about 37%
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1

Question In gas turbine power plant expansion of greases can be carried out
A Up to atmospheric pressure
B At high pressure
C Up to low pressure
D None of these

Answer A
Marks 1

Question Gas turbines mechanical efficiency is high due to the

A Large number of reciprocating parts
B Absence of reciprocating part
C Free from smoke
D Load efficiency is high
Answer B
Marks 1

Question In gas turbine power plant, the basic requirement of system to supply the
metered quantity of fuel flow
A Filter
B Muffler
C Fuel injector
D Lubricating oil pump
Answer A
Marks 1

Question In gas power plant, the high velocity of air from compressor is reduced in
A Swirl vanes
B Fuel nozzle
C Diffuser
D Primary zone
Answer C
Marks 1

Question In comparison to diesel engines the-gas turbines have combustion pressure

A less
B same
C more
D unpredictable
Answer A
Marks 1

Question In case of gas turbine , multi-stage compressor with inter-cooler in between the stage are
used to reduces the work of compression and increase the
A Thermal efficiency
B Volumetric efficiency
C Mechanical efficiency
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine improves because of

A reheating of gas after partial expansion.
B removing the heat from compressed air between the stages of compression.
C utilizing the heat of exhaust gases to heat the compressed air before it is sent to combustion
chamber.
D all of these
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Overall efficiency of gas turbine is

A less than that of diesel-cycle.
B more than that of diesel cycle
C more than that of Otto cycle
D equal to that of Rankine or Carnot cycle
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The combined cycle power plants are more appropriate for
A base loads
B peak loads.
C intermediate loads.
D for both base and peak loads.
Answer D
Marks 1

Question The combined cycle power plant are more suitable for capacity factors of
A less than 20%
B 20 to 50 %.
C 50 to 70%
D 100%.
Answer B
Marks 1
Question Gas turbine is widely used in
A pumping stations
B aircraft
C locomotives
D auto mobiles
Answer B
Marks 1

Question In aircraft using gas turbine, the cycle used is

A Simple
B Regeneration
C Reheating
D Reheating with regeneration.
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Maximum efficiency of an open cycle gas turbine is nearly

A 30%
B 40%
C 50%
D 60%.
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Compressor used in gas turbines is

A reciprocating compressor
B plunger type compressor
C screw compressor
D multistage axial flow compressor.
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Which auxiliary of gas turbine consumes most of the power?

A Burner
B Combustion chamber
C Compressor
D Fuel pump
Answer C
Marks 1

Question In closed cooling system of gas power plant

A hot water is recirculated after cooling
B water does not flow
C air and water cooling is simultaneously used
D constant supply of fresh water for cooling is required.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question A gas turbine works on

A Carnot cycle
B Brayton cycle
C Dual cycle
D Rankine cycle.
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Gas turbine requires

A Less floor area and lighter foundation
B Less floor area and heavy foundation
C Large floor area and heavy foundation
D Large floor area and lighter foundation
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Gas turbine

A Does not require elaborate cooling arrangement
B require elaborate cooling arrangement
C Are not flexible
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Question In a two stage gas turbine plant reheating after first stage
A improves thermal efficiency but reduces the work ratio.
B increases work ratio but reduces thermal efficiency.
C reduces both of the work ratio and thermal efficiency.

D increases both of the work ratio and thermal efficiency.

Answer B
Marks 1

Question The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are
A low

B moderate

C Very low

D high

Answer C
Marks 1

Question Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?
A Gasoline

B Kerosene

C Fuel oil

D Diesel

Answer A
Marks 1
5

Question In a two stage gas turbine power plant intercooling and reheating
A improves the work ratio but reduces the thermal efficiency.
B reduces the work ratio but improves the thermal efficiency.
C improves both of the work ratio and thermal efficiency.
D reduces both of the work ratio 'and thermal efficiency.

Answer A
Marks 1
Question A jet air craft is powered by
A petrol engine.
B diesel engine.
C gas turbine.
D solar cells.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question In a closed cycle operation of gas turbines

A load variation is affected by controlling the absolute pressure and the mass flow of the
circulating air.
B high efficiency is maintained over the complete range of operating loads.
C maximum unit capacity is increased.
D all of the above.
Answer D
Marks 1

Question The gas turbine power plant can be used in combination-with steam power plants by
A using exhaust gases from gas turbine power plant in heating of feed water coming from the
steam turbine condenser.
B using exhaust gases from gas turbine power plant as combustion air in steam boiler.
C using gas from a supercharged boiler for expansion in gas turbine
D any of the above.
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Air will not be the working substance in a

A Diesel engine
B Petrol engine
C Open cycle gas turbine
D Closed cycle gas turbine.
Answer D
Marks 1

Question A regenerator in a gas turbine…………..

A reduces heat loss in exhaust
B permits use of higher compression ratio
C improves thermal efficiency
D permits use of fuels of inferior quality.
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle improves as a result of all of the following
EXCEPT…………..
A heating of air before compression
B inter-cooling of air
C reheating of gas
D multistage expansion
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Essential components of simple gas turbine power plants working on open cycle has
A Compressor, combustor and gas turbine

B Compressor, combustor, gas turbine and alternator

C Compressor, combustor, gas turbine and other auxiliaries

D None of the above

Answer C
Marks 1

Question A device used to heat the compressed air with the help of exhaust gases of a gas turbine is
called
A Heat pump

B Reheater

C Regenerator

D Auxiliary combustor

Answer C
Marks 1

Question Closed cycle is preferred over open cycle for gas turbine power plants because
A Can use any type of fuel
B Can use gas of high specific heat

C System can be pressurized to reduce rise of componenet

D None of these

Answer D
Marks 1

Question Fuel for large gas turbine power plants is

A Natural gas

B Diesel oil

C High grade gasoline

D Natural gas or grade gasoline

Answer D
Marks 1

Question The chemical reaction of fuel and compressed air is performed in

A inter-coolers

B combustor

C regenerators

D compressors

Answer B
Marks 1

Question In heat transfer takes place in between exhaust gas and cool air
A inter-coolers

B combustor

C regenerators

D compressors

Answer C
Marks 1
Question Atoms having different number of neutrons than number of protons are known as
A Isotopes

B Electrons

C Mass Number

D Atomic number

Answer A
Marks 1

Question The phenomenon of spontaneous emission of powerful radiations exhibited by heavy

elements is called
A photoacitivity

B radioactivity

C isotopes

D None of these

Answer B
Marks 1

Question Some nuclear materials are not fissionable by themselves and they can be converted into
fissionable materials, these are known as _ materials
A Fission

B Neutrons

C Isotopes

D Fertile

Answer D
Marks 1

Question Which elements are fertile materials?

A U238 and Th232

B Pu239 and U233

C U235 and Pu239

D None of these

Answer A
Marks 1

Question Pick out fissionable material

A U238

B Th232

C U235

D None

Answer C
Marks 1

Question Pick out fertile material:

A U235
B U233
C Pu239
D U238
Answer D
Marks 1

Question The process of combining or fusing two lighter nuclei into a stable and heavier nuclide is
called
A fertilization

B fusion

C fission

D None of these

Answer B
Marks 1

Question In type nuclear power plant reactor coolant is used as working fluid.
A direct cycle

B indirect cycle
C indirect cycle with intermediate loop

D None of these

Answer A
Marks 1

Question In type nuclear power plant reactor coolant transfers heat to separate working fluid.
A direct cycle

B indirect cycle

C indirect cycle with intermediate loop

D None of these

Answer B
Marks 1

Question In type nuclear power plant reactor coolant transfers heat to working fluid through
intermediate loop.
A direct cycle

B indirect cycle

C indirect cycle with intermediate loop

D None of these

Answer C
Marks 1

Question The apparatus in which nuclear fission is produced in the form of a controlled self
sustaining chain reaction is called
A fission

B moderator

C coolant

D nuclear reactor

Answer D
Marks 1

Question Half-life means:

A Life of nuclear reactor
B Life or radioactive material
C Time required disintegrating the nuclei to one-half of its original value
D None
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The moderator used in first breeder reactor is:

A Heavy water
B Graphite
C Ordinary water
D Any of the above
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Commonly used coolant is:

A Hydrogen
B CO2
C Sodium
D Helium
Answer C
Marks 1

Question The moderator used in fast breeder reactor is:

A Heavy water (D2O)
B Carbon
C Boron
D All of these

Answer D
Marks 1

Question The material used for control rod is:

A Heavy water (D2O)
B Cadmium
C Boron
D Cadmium and Boron both

Answer D
Marks 1

Question Which of the following material is not used as moderator?

A Graphite
B Boron
C Sodium potassium liquid
D Plutonium
Answer D
Marks 1

Question The purpose of control rods in nuclear reactor:

A Slowing down fast neutrons
B Absorbing neutrons
C To reflect neutrons
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1

Question The energy released per neutron in fusion process:

A Greater than fission
B Equal to fission
C Less than fission
D No comparison possible
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Natural uranium contains:

A 0.7% U235
B 50% U235
C 99.3% U235
D 100% U235
Answer A
Marks 1
Question If natural uranium is used as the fuel, the moderator to be used is:
A Heavy water
B Graphite
C Ordinary water
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1

Question It is desirable to use reactor core as:

A Cubical or cylinder
B Cubical or spherical
C Cylindrical or spherical
D Spherical
Answer A
Marks 1

Question The pressurized water reactors employ:

A Light water and natural uranium
B Heavy water and enriched uranium
C Light water and enriched uranium
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1

Question Large size steam plants and nuclear plants are suitable for:
A Base loads
B Intermittent loads
C Peak loads
D Both base and peak load

Answer A
Marks 1

Question A Nuclear power plant should preferably be located:

A Near a coal field
B Near a reservoir
C Away from coal field and reservoir dam
D Near load center
Answer D
Marks 1

Question A moderator material should have:

A Low atomic mass
B Large atomic mass
C Moderate atomic mass
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 1

Question A breeder reactor is one which:

A Produces heat without any recovery of fertile material
B Converts fertile material into fissile material
C Produces heat and consumers fissile material
D Produces heat and converts fertile material into fissile material
Answer D
Marks 1

Question The energy equivalent of mass defect is called:

A Recombining energy
B Mass energy
C Fission energy
D Binding energy
Answer D
Marks 1

Question Heavy water is:

A H2O
B HO2
C D2O
D B2O
Answer C
Marks 1
Question The function of reflector in a nuclear reactor is to:
A Bounce back most of the neutrons that escape from the fuel core
B Reduce the speed of the neutrons
C Stop the chain reaction
D All of the above
Answer A
Marks 1

Question Reflectors of a nuclear are made of:

A Cast iron
B Beryllium
C Steel
D Boron
Answer B
Marks 1

Question Energy produced by fission reaction of uranium having mass of atom m and velocity of j
of light c is:
A mc
B (1/2) (mc2)
C mc2
D (m2c)
Answer B
Marks 1

Question The presence of reflector in nuclear power plants results in

A Increased production of neutrons

B Complete absorption of neutron

C Controlled production of neutrons

D Decreased leakage of neutrons

Answer D
Marks 1

Question In boiler water reactor, moderator is

A Coolant itself

B Ferrite rod

C Graphite rod

D Liquid sodium metal

Answer A
Marks 1

Question The coolant used boiling water reactor is

A CO2

B Pressurized water

C Mixture of water and steam

D Liquid metal

Answer C
Marks 1

Question Pressurized water reactor is designed

A For boiling water in the core

B To use liquid sodium metal as coolant

C To use intermediate coolant

D To prevent the water coolant from boiling in the core

Answer D
Marks 1

Question A fast breeder reactor

A Uses graphite rods as moderator

B Has powerful moderator

C Has no moderator

D Use ferrite material as moderator

Answer C
Marks 1
Question A boiling water reactor uses following as fuel
A Enriched uranium

B plutonium

C thorium

D Natural uranium

Answer A
Marks 1

Question A fast breeder reactor uses following as fuel

A Enriched uranium

B plutonium

C thorium

D U235

Answer D
Marks 1

Question Superheated steam is generated in following reactor

A Boiling water

B Gas cooled

C Pressurized water

D All of these

Answer B
Marks 1

Question For economical operation of a nuclear plant

A Used fuel should be reprocessed

B Moderator should be used

C Coolant should be employed

D Reflector should be used

Answer A
Marks 1

Question The function of control rods in nuclear plants is to

A Control temperature

B Control radioactive pollution

C Control absorption of neutron

D Control fuel consumption

Answer C
Marks 1

Question Which of the following can be used as a coolant in nuclear plant

A Light or heavy water

B Molten lead

C Carbon dioxide

D Freon

Answer A
Marks 1

Question A pressurized water reactor employs pressurizer for the following applications
A To maintain constant pressure in primary circuit under varying load

B To supply high pressure steam

C To increase pressure of water in primary circuit

D To provide sub-cooled water at high pressure

Answer A
Marks 1

Question Pick up the wrong statement : Fast breeder reactor

A Operate at extremely high power densities

B Are liquid metal cooled

C Produce more fuel than they consume

D Use water as coolant

Answer D
Marks 1

Question The turbine risk of radioactive hazard is greatest in the with following reactor
A Pressurized water

B Boiling water

C Gas cooled

D Liquid metal cooled

Answer B
Marks 1

Question Boiling water reactor uses the following as moderator, coolant and working fluid
A Ordinary water

B Heavy water

C Molten lead

D Hydrogen gas

Answer A
Marks 1

Question The first nuclear power plant in India is located at

A Kota

B Kalapakkam

C Tarapur

D Baraeily

Answer C
Marks 1

Question Tarapur atomic power station is

A CANDU type reactor

B Pressurized water reactor

C Gas cooled reactor

D Boiling water reactor

Answer D
Marks 1

Question Gas cooled reactor uses following materials as moderator and coolant
A Graphite, air

B Graphite, CO2

C Heavy water, CO2

D Lead, H2

Answer B
Marks 1

Question The commonly used material for shielding is

A Lead or concrete

B Lead and tin

C Graphite and cadmium

D Thick galvanised sheet

Answer A
Marks 1

Question Which of the following reactor does not need a neat exchanger for generation of steam
A Gas cooled

B Liquid metal cooled

C Pressurized water

D Boiling water

Answer D
Marks 1

Question Fast breeder reactor uses

A Boiler

B Direct cycle of coolant system

C Double circuit system of coolant cycle

D Single circuit system

Answer C
Marks 1

Question Nuclear energy is measured as

A MeV

B Curie

C Farads

D MW

Answer A
Marks 1

Question The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is

A Heavy water

B Graphite

C Deuterium

D Concrete

Answer B
Marks 1

Question Which of the following particles is the lightest

A Nucleus

B Electrons

C Protons

D Neutrons

Answer B
Marks 1

Question Which of the following particles is the heaviest

A Nucleus
B Electrons

C Atom

D Neutrons

Answer C
Marks 1

Question In nuclear fission each neutron that causes fission release

A No new neutron

B At least one new neutron

C More than one neutron

D One new neutron

Answer C
Marks 1

Question The process by which a heavy nucleus is splitted into two light nuclei as
A Splitting

B Fission

C Fusion

D Chain reaction

Answer B
Marks 1

Question Hydrogen is preferred as better coolant in comparison to CO2 because

A Hydrogen has high specific heat

B Hydrogen is lighter

C Hydrogen is good conductor

D None of these

Answer A
Marks 1
Question Isotopes are and at certain rate.
A Stable, integrate

B Stable, disintegrate

C Unstable, disintegrate

D Unstable, integrate

Answer C
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

a) Neutrons i) Electromagnetic radiation
b) Gamma rays ii) Uncharged particles
c) Beta particles iii) Positive charge
d) Alpha particles iv) Negative charge
A a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-iii)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-i), d)-ii)

D a)-iv), b)-i), c)-ii), d)-iii)

Answer A
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

a) Shielding i) To transfer heat from reactor to utilize
b) Coolant ii) To reduce leakage of neutrons
c) Moderator iii) To protect operative personnel from radiation
d) Reflector iv) To slow down neutrons
A a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-iii)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-ii)

D a)-iv), b)-i), c)-ii), d)-iii)

Answer C
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

 a) Shielding i) Heavy water
b) Coolant ii) Cadmium strips
c) Moderator iii) Helium
d) Control rods iv) Concrete
A a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-iii)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-ii)

D a)-iv), b)-iii), c)-i), d)-ii)

Answer D
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Type of reactor Coolant
a) Pressurized Water Reactor i) Helium or carbon dioxide
b) Boiling water reactor ii) Water
c) CANDU reactor iii) Water with steam
d) Gas cooled reactor iv) Heavy water
A a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-iv), d)-i)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-ii)

D a)-iv), b)-iii), c)-i), d)-ii)

Answer A
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Type of reactor Moderator
a) Pressurized Water Reactor i) Graphite
b) Boiling water reactor ii) Water
c) CANDU reactor iii) Water with steam
d) Gas cooled reactor iv) Heavy water
A a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-iv), d)-i)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-ii)

D a)-iv), b)-iii), c)-i), d)-ii)

Answer A
Marks 2

Question Pick the correct statements

1) The moderator is used to slow down neutrons but not absorb them.
2) The moderator is used to absorb neutrons but not slow down them.
3) The control rod is used to shut down reactor in normal or emergency condition
4) The coolant is used to cool down the reactor
A 1) and 2)

B 2) and 3)

C 3) and 4)

D 1) and 3)

Answer D
Marks 2

Question Which statements are correct?

1) The disposal of fission products of nuclear power plant is always a problem.
2) Nuclear power plants are well suited to meet large power demands.
3) The capital cost of nuclear power plant is very high.
4) Skilled workers and engineers are required to operate nuclear power plant.
A 1) and 2)

B 3) and 4)

C 2) and 3)

D All are correct

Answer D
Marks 2

Question In gas cooled reactor is used as moderator and as coolant

A Helium, glass

B Helium, H2O

C Helium, Oil

D Graphite, CO2

Answer D
Marks 2
Question In boiled water reactor is used as moderator and in CANDU reactors is used as
moderator
A Light water, heavy water

B Heavy water, light water

C Graphite, CO2

D Inert gas, light water

Answer A
Marks 2

Question Pick the incorrect from following in concerned with nuclear power plant
A Shielding protects walls of the reactor vessels from radiation damage

B Shielding protects operating personal from exposer to radiations

C Shielding is made up of graphite.

D Shielding can be done using lead material

Answer C
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

REACTOR COOLANT
a) Liquid metal cooled reactor i) Helium
b) Gas cooled reactor ii) Water
c) Boiling water reactor iii) Sodium
d) CANDU reactor iv) Heavy water
A a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-iii)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-ii), d)-iv)

D a)-iv), b)-i), c)-ii), d)-iii)

Answer C
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Material Use
a) Heavy water i) Moderator
b) Graphite ii) Shielding
c) Uranium iii) coolant
 d) Lead iv) Fuel
A a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-iii)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-ii)

D a)-iv), b)-i), c)-ii), d)-iii)

Answer C
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Location Plant
a) Parali i) Gas power plant
b) Koyan ii) Thermal power plant
c) Tarapur iii) Hydro power plant
d) Dabhol iv) Nuclear power plant
A a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-iv), d)-i)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-ii)

D a)-iv), b)-i), c)-ii), d)-iii)

Answer A
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Part Material
a) Control rods i) Beryllium
b) Reflectors ii) Thorium
c) Fuel iii) Stainless steel
d) Structural iv) Cadmium
A a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-iv), d)-i)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-ii)

D a)-iv), b)-i), c)-ii), d)-iii)

Answer D
Marks 2

Question stroke engines compared stroke engine have low weight to power ratio.
A Two, Four

B Four. Two

C Three, Four

D Two, Three

Answer A
Marks 2

Question stroke engines compared stroke engine have high capital cost.
A Two, Four

B Four. Two

C Three, Four

D Two, Three

Answer B
Marks 2

Question stroke engines compared stroke engine have high specific fuel
consumption.
A Two, Four

B Four. Two

C Three, Four

D Two, Three

Answer A
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

System Part
a) Engine air intake system i) Fuel injection pump
b) Exhaust system ii) Superchargers
c) Cooling system iii) Silencer
d) Engine fuel system iv) Heat exchanger
A a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-iv), d)-i)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-ii)

D a)-iv), b)-iii), c)-i), d)-ii)

Answer A
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Part Working
a) Fuel injection pump i) To provide cooling
b) Superchargers ii) To inject fuel
c) Silencer iii) To increase compression of air
d) Heat exchanger iv) To reduce the noise
A a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-iv), d)-i)

B a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-ii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-iii)

D a)-iv), b)-iii), c)-i), d)-ii)

Answer A
Marks 2

Question Pick up incorrect statements in association with diesel power plants

1) The generation cost of diesel power plant is low
2) It is less noisy in operation
3) Cooling water required is low
4) They can start and stop quickly
A 1) and 3)

B 2) and 3)

C 3) and 4)

D 1) and 2)

Answer D
Marks 2

Question Pick up correct statements in concerned with diesel power plant

1) It is noisy in operation
2) They cannot start and stop quickly
3) Generation cost per unit is high
4) It is having limited capacity as compared to steam and hydro power plant
A 1) and 2)

B 2) and 3)
C 1), 3) and 4)

D 2) and 4)

Answer C
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Plant Equipment
a) Nuclear power plant i) Heat exchangers
b) Gas power plant ii) penstock
c) Diesel power plant iii) Reactor
d) Hydro-power plant iv) Inter-coolers
A a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-iv), d)-i)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-i), d)-ii)

D a)-iii), b)-i), c)-iv), d)-ii)

Answer C
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Equipment Plant
a) Surge tank i) Nuclear power plant
b) Coolant ii) Gas power plant
c) Heat exchangers iii) Diesel power plant
d) Compressor iv) Hydro-power plant
A a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-iv), d)-i)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-i), d)-ii)

D a)-iv), b)-i), c)-iii), d)-ii)

Answer D
Marks 2

Question Pick the correct statements

1) Efficiency of thermal power plant is high as compared to diesel power plant
2) The cost of electricity is high in diesel power plant as compared to hydro-power plant
3) The diesel power plant can be installed easily
4) The diesel power plant are environmental friendly
A 1) and 4)

B 1) and 2)

C 3) and 4)

D 2) and 3)

Answer D
Marks 2

Question The four operations (suction, compression, expansion and exhaust) are completed in
and revolution(s) of crankshaft in two and four stroke diesel engine receptively.
A One, two
B Two, three
C Two, four
D Four, eight
Answer A
Marks 2

Question The four operations (suction, compression, expansion and exhaust) are completed in two
revolutions of crankshaft in stroke diesel engine and in one revolution in
stroke diesel engine.
A One, two
B Two, three
C Four, two
D Two, Four
Answer C
Marks 2

Question A four stroke diesel engines consumes fuel (20/3600) kg/sec with calorific value 45000
kJ/kg. If engines develops output power of 80kW. Determine indicated thermal efficiency
A 32%

B 8%

C 10%

D 80%

Answer A
Marks 2
Question A four stroke diesel engines develops 80kW at full load having mechanical efficiency
80%. Find I.P. and F.P.
A 100 kW, 20kW

B 20kW, 100kW

C 80kW, 120kW

D 120kW, 40kW

Answer A
Marks 2

Question A four stroke diesel engines have indicated thermal efficiency as 32%. If the output of
diesel engine is 80kW and calorific value of diesel is 45000 kJ/kg, the fuel consumption is
.
A 10 kg/hr

B 20 kg/hr

C 30 kg/hr

D 40 kg/hr

Answer B
Marks 2

Question Match the pairs

Equipment Function
a) Regenerators i) Improve work ratio
b) Combustor ii) Increase pressure of working fluid
c) Inter-coolers iii) Provide chemical reaction between fuel and air
d) Compressors iv) Heat transfer between exhaust gas and cool air
A a)-ii), b)-iii), c)-iv), d)-i)

B a)-i), b)-ii), c)-iv), d)-iii)

C a)-iii), b)-iv), c)-i), d)-ii)

D a)-iv), b)-iii), c)-i), d)-ii)

Answer D
Marks 2

Question Pick incorrect statements

1) Gas turbine power plant are self starting
 2) Gas turbine has low efficiency
3) Gas turbine power plants can be used in air-crafts
4) Gas turbine power plants requires large space
A 1) and 4)

B 2) and 3)

C 3) and 4)

D 1) and 2)

Answer A
Marks 2

Question Which are correct statement/s in concerned with gas power plants
1) Gas turbine power plant are not self starting
2) Gas turbine power plants requires less space
3) Gas turbine power plant has no ash handling problem
4) Storage of fuel is much smaller and easy
A 1)

B 1) and 2)

C 1), 2) and 3)

D All are correct

Answer D
Marks 2

Question Which are correct statement/s in concerned with gas turbines

1) capital and running cost is less as compared to steam power plant
2) it is less risky as compared to nuclear power plant
3) Starting is more easy and quick
4) Weight per HP is less
A 1) and 2)

B 3) and 4)

C 1) and 4)

D All are correct

Answer D
Marks 2
 Gokhale Education Society’s
[Link] College of Engineering, Management Studies & Research Nashik
DEPARTMENT OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

MCQ ON UNIT -1
Thermal Power Plant
1. Which part of thermal power plant causes maximum energy losses?
a) Boiler
b) Alternator
c) Condenser
d) Ash and unburnt carbon

Answer: c
Explanation: About 54% of energy losses occurs in condenser. Losses in boiler and alternator are about 1%
and 16% because of such high losses overall efficiency of thermal power plant reduces to 29% for normal
old thermal power plant and 50% for modern super critical pressure steam power plant which employs many
heat saving devices.
2. What is the effect of increasing steam pressure on efficiency of steam power plant?
a) Increases linearly
b) Increases nonlinearly
c) Decreases linearly
d) Does not changes

Answer: b
Explanation: The thermal efficiency of steam power plant depends upon the steam pressure. The efficiency
increases with increasing steam pressure nonlinearly up to a level. After that level increase in efficiency
becomes very low with respect to increasing pressure.
3. What is the effect of increasing steam temperature of thermal power plant on its thermal efficiency?
a) Increases linearly
b) Decreases
c) It does not depend on temperature
d) Increases nonlinearly

Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal efficiency of steam power plant increases with increase in steam temperature linearly.
Increase in temperature of steam also causes its effect on cost. So temperature of steam is increased only
upto a level at which it is economical.
4. Overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to ___________
a) Thermal efficiency
b) Generation efficiency
c) Multiplication of thermal and generation efficiency
d) Ratio of thermal and generation efficiency

Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal efficiency of steam power plant is the ratio of the heat equivalent of mechanical
energy transmitted to the turbine shaft and the heat of the combustion. Thermal efficiency is generally quite
low about 30%. Efficiency of generator is called generation efficiency.
5. In supercritical pressure steam power plant temperature of steam is __________
a) 480°C
b) 240°C
c) 600°C
d) 150°C

Answer: c
Explanation: At a temperature about 600°C water enters in supercritical phase and has property between
those of liquid and gas. advantage of such plant are that low grade fossil fuel (lignite) can be used.
Efficiency of such plants may be reached up to 50%.
6. For increasing the thermal efficiency of thermal power plant pressure in condenser should be:
a) Reduced upto 0.04 kg/cm3
b) Kept above 2.45 kg/cm3
c) As high as boiler pressure
d) Same as atmospheric pressure

Answer: a
Explanation: The thermal efficiency can be effectively increased by decreasing the pressure in the
condenser. Pressure in condenser is kept very low usually 0.04 kg/cm2 .
7. Economisers are necessary to use for pressure of 70 kg/cm2 or more.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: High cost of fuel consumption, high load factor and high pressure and temperature conditions,
all justify the use of economiser. Installation of economiser involves extra cost of installation, maintenance
and regular cleaning and additional requirement of space. By considering above points it has been found that
use of economiser becomes necessary for pressure above 70 kg/cm2.
8. Supercritical pressure boiler scan produce steam at the rate of _________
a) less than 1,500 kg/hr
b) less than 340,000 kg/hr
c) less than 80,000 kg/hr
d) upto 1,000,000 kg/hr

Answer: d
Explanation: Modern supercritical pressure boiler with pressures as high as 350 atm temperature 600°C and
capacity 1,000,000 kg/hour are available now days. Fire tube boiler can produce steam at the rate of 15,000
kg/hr. Water tube boiler can produce 340,000 kg of steam per hour.
Steam Turbines
1. Which of the following is not a type of steam turbine?
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
c) Pelton wheel turbine
d) Axial flow type turbine

Answer: c
Explanation: Pelton wheel turbine is a water turbine. Impulse and reaction turbines are the steam turbines
characterized by the action of steam on moving blades. Axial and radial flow turbine and steam turbines are
characterized by type of flow of steam over blades.
2. Which statement about impulse turbine is true?
a) Steam expands over blades
b) Steam expends completely in stationary nozzels
c) Steam expends partially over nozzle and turbine blades
d) Steam expends over blades incompletely
Answer: b
Explanation: In an impulse turbine the steam expands completely in the stationary nozzles. No pressure drop
occurs over the moving Blade Runner. During expansion steam attains a high velocity and impinges against
the blades fixed on the rotor Periphery resulting in the impulsive force on the moving blades which sets the
rotor rotating.
3. Which statement about reaction turbine is false?
a) Steam does not expand in nozzle
b) Blades acts like nozzles
c) Steam expands as flows over the rotor blades
d) Steam continuously losses its heat as flows over the rotor blades

Answer: d
Explanation: The expansion of steam in reaction turbine totally occurs when it flows over the turbine blades.
The expansion of steam as it flows over the blades is adiabatic any friction losses between the steam and the
blades are converted into heat which in turn will reheat the steam.
4. Reaction turbines are characterized by ___________
a) relatively low RPM and steam expension over nozzle
b) relatively high RPM and steam expension over nozzle
c) relatively low RPM and steam expension over rotor blades
d) relatively high RPM and steam expansion over rotor blades

Answer: c
Explanation: In reaction turbine steam does not expand in nozzle but expands as flows over the rotor blades.
Reaction turbines are characterized by relatively low RPM. As steam expands over the turbine blades,
causes the reaction force over the turbine which rotates the turbine.
5. In condensing turbine what is the back pressure of the turbine?
a) Very high
b) Above atmospheric pressure
c) Equal to atmospheric pressure
d) Below atmospheric pressure

Answer: d
Explanation: According to the back pressure steam turbines are classified into condensing and non
condensing turbines. Where there is no use of exhaust steam, turbine is built as a pure condensing type
turbine. In condensing turbine steam is reduced in pressure down to a vacuum pressure which is in
accordance with the cooling water temperature.

6. The turbine in which steam enters the blade tip nearest the axis of the wheel and flows towards the
circumference is called _____________
a) axial flow turbine
b) radial flow turbine
c) impulse turbine
d) non-condensing turbine

Answer: b
Explanation: According to type of flow of steam the steam turbines used are of two types namely axial flow
turbine and radial flow turbine. In axial flow turbine steam flows over the blades in a direction parallel to the
axis of wheel. In radial flow turbine steam enters from blade tip near the axis of wheel and flows towards the
circumference.
7. Majority of the turbines are axial flow type.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: In axial flow type turbines the steam flows over the blades in a direction parallel to the axis of
the wheel. In radial flow turbines the blades are arranged radially so that the steam enters at the blade tip
nearest the axis of the wheel and flows towards the circumference.
8. Which turbines are employed for driving alternator at synchronous speed?
a) Central Station turbine
b) Reheating turbine
c) Extraction turbine
d) Extraction induction turbine

Answer: a
Explanation: Central turbines are for driving the alternator at synchronous speed. In Reheating turbine steam
is returned back to the boiler after partial expansion for superheating and then allowed to expand to back
pressure. In extraction turbines steam leaves the turbine casing before the exhaust, for feed water heating.
9. Read the statements below.
I. The built up rotor is cheaper and easier to manufacture.
II. The high pressure and intermediate pressure rotors are always of integral type.
a) Only statement I is correct
b) Only statement II is correct
c) I and II are correct
d) I and II are wrong

Answer: c
Explanation: A built-up rotor consists of a forged steel shaft on which separate forged steel discs are shrunk
and keyed. In an integral rotor the wheels and shaft are formed from the solid forging. The built-up rotor is
cheaper and easier to manufacture.
10. In velocity compounding the steam is expanded from the boiler pressure to condenser pressure in one set
of stationary blades on nozzle.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: In compounding a number of rotors in series, keyed on the same shaft, are employed and the
steam pressure or the jet velocity is absorbed in steps as it was over the moving blades. Compounding is
necessary for obtaining reasonable blade tip speed in turbines.
Fuel Combustion and Combustion Equipment’s

1. Which of the following is not an advantage of stoker firing?

a) Zero capital investment
b) Greater combustion capacity
c) Uniform feeding of coal into furnance
d) Saving in labour cost

Answer: a
Explanation: Stokers are the mechanical arrangement which is used to feed coals into the furnace. Due to the
mechanical equipment combustion capacity increases with uniform feeding of coal of into furnace, also
labour cost is reduced. Stoker firing requires installation of mechanical stoker hence, capital investment
requires.
2. In case of underfeed stokers fuel is supplied in the furnace _________
a) below the point of air admission
b) above the point of air admission
c) beside the point of air admission
d) by shovels

Answer: a
Explanation: Mechanical stokers are of two types namely underfeed stokers and overfeed stokers. The two
differ in manner of feeding of coal below or above the level at which primary air is admitted in the furnace.
In case of underfeed stokers fuel is supplied into the furnace below the point of air admission.
3. Which of the following is most advantageous and most widely method of solid fuel firing?
a) Stoker firing
b) Underfeed firing
c) Spreader stoker firing
d) Pulverised fuel firing

Answer: d
Explanation: The advantages of using pulverised fuel outweigh the disadvantages and all the modern power
plants uses pulverised fuel firing method. In pulverised fuel firing better combustion is achieved.
Pulverization is a means of exposing a large surface area to the action of oxygen and consequently helping
the combustion.
4. What is the main disadvantage of spreader stoker?
a) Poor control
b) Difficult operation
c) More unwanted fly ash
d) Dangerous operation

Answer: c
Explanation: In spreader stoker the coal is not fed into the furnace by means of grate. Coal is fed by means
of hopper, and function of grade is only to collect and remove the ash out of furnace. Spreader stokers can
burn any type of coal from lignite to samianthracite, whether they are free burning or cocking. Their
disadvantage is that fly ash is more.
5. Which do you mean by pulverization?
a) Burning of crushed coal
b) Burning of uncrushed coal
c) Crushing of coal into small partials
d) Breaking coal into small particsl

Answer: c
Explanation: Pulverization is crushing of coal into fine particles. This exposes large surface area to the
action of oxygen and consequently helps the combustion. Solids fuels can be used in a powderd and burn
like oil and gas.
6. What is the amount of air required to burn the pulverised coal?
a) Less than air required to burn lumped coal
b) More than air required to burn lumped coal
c) More than air required to burn lumped coal
d) No air required to burn the lapped coal

Answer: a
Explanation: The surface area of pulverised coal is increased in almost the ratio of 400:1, therefore high
rates of combustion are possible. Moreover a smaller quantity of air is required than when the fuel is burnt in
lumped form.
7. Capital cost of pulverised fuel firing is less than hand firing.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Hand firing does not require any capital investment. For pulverised fuel firing separate coal
preparation plant is required which makes the installation expensive.
8. What is the main requirement of good coal burner?
a) Minimum operating and maintenance cost
b) Production of uniform flame with complete combustion
c) The burner should be easy to handle and control
d) Attainment of proper designed

Answer: b
Explanation: Main requirement of good coal burner is complete combustion with production of uniform
flame. Minimum operating and maintenance cost, simplicity in operation, attainment of proper design all are
requirements of complete combustion.
9. Coal burners are employed to fire the pulverised coal along with primary air in the furnace.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Coal burner’s fire pulverised coal with stream of primary air into the furnace. Secondary air is
then admitted separately below the burner, around the burner or elsewhere.
10. Spread stockers can be employed for boiler capacitors of _________
a) 1000 kg/hr – 14000 kg/hr
b) 586 kg/hr – 1086 kg/hr
c) 1500 kg/hr – 40000 kg/hr
d) 70,000 kg/hr – 140,000kg/hr

Answer: d
Explanation: In spreader stoker coal is fed from the coal hopper into the path of the rotor by means of a
conveyor and rotor throws the coal into the furnace. Grate collects the ash and moves it out of the furnace.
UNIT 2
A. Nuclear Power Plant

1. The best capable alternative source which can meet the future energy demand is _____________
a) thermal power plant
b) nuclear power plant
c) hydroelectric power plant
d) geothermal power plant

Answer: b
Explanation: Demand of electrical energy is increasing at fast rate owing to booming increase in the
population and industrial growth. The reserves of fossil fuel i.e., coal, oil and gas are fast depleting. There
are many alternative sources of energy but they are not enough to supply such huge demand, only nuclear
power plants are capable of doing that.
2. How much coal is required to generate energy equivalent to the energy generated by 1 kg of uranium?
a) 30000 tonnes of high grade coal
b) 300 tonnes of high grade coal
c) 10000 tonnes of high grade coal
d) 3000 tonnes of high grade coal
Answer: d
Explanation: One of the main attention for nuclear fuel is the huge amount of energy that can be released
from a small quantity of active nuclear fuel. The energy obtainable by completely using 1 kg of Uranium
would give energy equivalent 3000 tons of high grade coal i.e. Uranium has three millions times the energy
of coal.
3. Nuclear fuel in reactor lasts for ________________
a) more than 5 months
b) few weeks
c) few days
d) more than 5 years

Answer: d
Explanation: Very small amount of nuclear fuel can produce very high amount of energy. Nuclear fuel may
remain in a reactor for more than 5 years.
4. Cost of nuclear fuel in nuclear power plant economics is considered as __________
a) running cost
b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
d) development cost

Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear fuel in a nuclear reactor may remain for more than 5 years. So the cost of fuel injected
initially is taken as capital cost and may be a few crore rupees.
5. In economics of nuclear power plant taxes and insurance charges are taken as _______
a) operating cost
b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
d) fixed cost

Answer: d
Explanation: The life of reactor plant may be taken as between 15 to 20 years. For the other parts of the
plant equipment the life may be taken as 30 years. The fixed cost would be interest, depreciation, taxes and
insurance charges.
6. Which of the following are not taken as operation and maintenance cost in economics of nuclear power
plant?
a) Taxes and insurance
b) Salaries and wages of staff
c) Cost of waste disposal
d) Cost of processing materials

Answer: a
Explanation: Taxes and insurance are taken as fixed costs. Salaries and wages of operation and maintenance
staff, cost of waste disposal and cost of processing materials are the operation and maintenance cost.
7. What is the overall efficiency of nuclear power plant?
a) 20 to 25%
b) 25 to 30%
c) 30 to 40 %
d) 50 to 70 %

Answer: c
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a nuclear power plant is around 30 to 40%. Efficiency is higher at
high road factors. Therefore, a nuclear power plant is always operated as a base load plant.
8. The land area required for installation of nuclear power plant is ________
a) more than thermal power plant
b) less than thermal power plant
c) equel to thermal power plant
d) depends on type of construction

Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear power plants need less area as compared to any other plant of same generation
capacity. A 2000MW nuclear power plant needs about 80 acres whereas the coal fired steam power plant of
same generation capacity needs 250 acres of land.
9. All of the nuclear fuel reserve will be ended in about 400 years.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: There are larger deposits of nuclear fuel available all over the world. Therefore, such plants can
ensure continued supply of electrical energy for thousands of years.
10. With respect to the load centre which location is suitable for establishment of nuclear power plant?
a) Load centre
b) Near load centre but at reasonable distance
c) Far away from load centre
d) Near chemical industries

Answer: b
Explanation: These plants can be located near the load centre because of the negligible cost of transportation
of fuel. But there should be a reasonable distance between the nuclear power plant and the nearest populated
areas from point of view of safety against danger of radioactivity. It is highly undesirable to choose a site
adjacent to chemical industries oil refineries PWD works hospitals and schools.
11. Operating cost of nuclear power plant is less than thermal power plant.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Cost of fuel in nuclear power plant is taken as the capital cost. The the total operating cost
involves wages and the salaries of operating and maintenance staff only, cost of disposal of waste etc.. The
cost of transport and handling of coal for conventional thermal power plant is much higher than the cost of
nuclear fuel.
Nuclear Reaction
1. In nuclear power stations which nuclear reaction is performed?
a) Nuclear fission
b) Nuclear fusion
c) 90% fission and 10% fusion
d) 90% fusion and 10% fission

Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear fission is the process in which heavy nucleus is split when it is bombarded by certain
partials. Huge amount of energy is released during nuclfclear fission in form of heat and radiation.
2. Which particle is bombarded on heavy nucleus of nuclear fuel?
a) Electron
b) Proton
c) Neutron
d) Photon

Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear fission involvs bombardment of certain particles on heavy nucleus causing it to split.
All modern fission reactors uses neutron particles for this purpose because they are neutral in charge and so,
they can make their way through the shells of electrons and then through the nucleus at low energy.
3. The critical mass for U235 fission reaction is about _____________
a) 100Kg
b) 200 Kg
C) 50 kg
d) 10 kg

Answer: d
Explanation: For a chain reaction to occur the sample of the fissionable material should be large enough to
capture the neutron internally. The minimum mass of fissionable material required to sustain a chain
reaction is called the Critical Mass”. The critical mass varies for each reaction, for U235 fission reaction it is
about 10 Kg.
4. The fuel mainly used in nuclear fission reactors are:
a) U235
b) U239
c) U233
d) U238

Answer: a
Explanation: The materials U235,U233 and Pu239 are called fissionable materials. From all the above
mentioned fuels only U235 will fission in chain reaction.
5. Which fissionable nuclear fuel occur in nature?
a) Plutonium
b) Thorium
c) Uranium
d) 94239 Pu

Answer: c
Explanation: The only natural fissionable fuel occurring in our nature is Uranium, of which 99.3% is U238
and 0.7% is U235 and U234 is only a trace. Out of these isotopes only U235 will fission in chain reaction.
6. Which of the following has high fission percentage?
a) Pu239
b) U233
c) U235
d) U234

Answer: c
Explanation: U235 has higher fission percentage in comparison to others. U235 is only fissionable nuclear
fuel found in nature, Pu239 and U233 are produced artificially. They are fissionable.
7. Reactors used for converting fertile materials to fissile materials are called _____
a) research and development reactor
b) production reactor
c) power reactors
d) slow reactors

Answer: b
Explanation: Research and development reactors are used for testing new reactor designs and research.
Production reactors are used for converting fertile materials into fissile materials and Power reactors are
used for generation of electrical energy.
8. Which statement about fast reactor is true?
a) These reactors are big in size so not easier to shield
b) Fast reactors can convert fertile materials to fissile materials
c) Fast reactors are easy to control
d) Heat transfer and cooling is very easy and simple

Answer: b
Explanation: Fast reactors can convert more fertile material to fissile materials with the result that the net
fuel consumption for such reactors is much less. These reactors are small and compact and so easier to
shield. Heat transfer and cooling problems in the core are accomplished due to high power density.
Nuclear Reactor Main Parts and their Functions
1. In which part of nuclear power plant steam is produced?
a) Boiler
b) Heat exchanger
c) Chamber across the reactor
d) Air preheater

Answer: b
Explanation: There is no boiler in nuclear power plant. The heat energy released in the reactor during
nuclear fission is utilised to heat the coolant. This coolant is circulated through the heat exchanger to
produce steam.
2. What is the main function of moderator?
a) It absorb the extra neutrons
b) It divert extra neutrons
c) It slow down the speed of fast neutrons
d) It absorb the heat energy caused by nuclear reaction

Answer: d
Explanation: Neutrons rejected during the fission process at a very high velocity of about 1.5 × 107 m/s. For
more effective use in nuclear reactor it is desirable to slow down the fast neutrons to speed corresponding to
the speed of molecules of gas at normal temperature and pressure. This is accomplished with the help of
moderator.
3. Which of the following material is not used as moderator?
a) Oxygen
b) Ordinary water
c) Heavy water
d) Graphite

Answer: a
Explanation: At present the common moderator materials used are graphite, ordinary water and heavy water.
Oxygen is not suitable to use due to its low density and the consequent small number of collision.
4. Which of the following part of nuclear reactor is used to control the rate of reaction.
a) Moderator
b) Control rods
c) Reflector
d) Coolant

Answer: b
Explanation: In a reactor the chain reaction is to be maintained at steady value during the operation of
reactor. Also the reactor must be able to shutdown automatically under emergency conditions. All these
requires control rods for control of reactor so as to prevent the melting of fuel rods, disintegration of coolant
and destruction of reactor as the amount of energy released is enormous.
5. Which of the following is the most essential requirement of control rod material?
a) It must be light weight
b) It must be cheap
c) It must have high absorption capacity for neutrons
d) It must be very reflective to neutrons

Answer: c
Explanation: The function of control rod is to control the rate of nuclear reaction by absorption extra release
neutrons. Chain reaction is controlled either by removing or inserting neutron absorbing materials. The
materials used for control rods must have very high absorption capacity for entrance.
6. Which of the following can be used as both as coolant and moderator ?
a) Helium
b) Molten sodium
c) Lithium
d) Ordinary water

Answer: d
Explanation: A good coolant should not absorb neutrons, should be non-oxidizing, non-toxic, non corrosive,
should have high chemical and radiation stability and good heat transfer ability. Ordinary water is used as
both as coolant and moderator in boiling water reactor and pressurized water is used as both as coolant and
moderator in pressurized water reactor.
7. In thermal reactors control is very easy in comparison to other reactors.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: In thermal reactor control his very easy because of relatively low power densities and longer in
neutron lifetime.
8. The main body of reactor is called ____________
a) Thermal shielding
b) Reactor vessel
c) Reflector
d) Biological shielding

Answer: b
Explanation: The reactor core, reflector and thermal shielding are all enclosed in the main body of reactor
and is called reactor vessel or tank. It is strong walled container and provides the entrance and exit for the
coolant. It also provides the passage for flow of coolant through and around the reactor core.
Classification of Nuclear Reactors
1. Reactors used for electricity generation are called ______________
a) Research and development reactors
b) Production reactors
c) Power reactors
d) Electron reactors

Answer: c
Explanation: Power reactors are used for electrical power generation purpose. Research and development
reactors are used for testing new reactor design ans research. Production reactors are used for converting
fertile material into fissile materials.
2. What is the difference in size of thermal reactor and fast reactor?
a) Size of thermal reactor is slightly more than size of fast reactor
b) Size of thermal reactor is slightly less than size of fast reactor
c) Size of thermal reactor is very much larger than size of fast reactor
d) Both are of same size

Answer: c
Explanation: The moderator to fuel volume ratio for thermal reactor lies between 20 to 80. Same ratio for
fast reactor is very less that’s why the size of thermal reactor is very much greater than size of fast reactors.
3. Which of the following reactors does not need moderator?
a) Thermal reactor
b) Fast reactor
c) Intermediate reactor
d) Power reactor

Answer: b
Explanation: In fast reactors fission is caused by fast neutrons, so there is no need of moderator to slow
down the neutrons. While in other reactors fission is needed to be from slow or intermediate speed neutrons,
so moderator is required to slow down the fast neutrons.
4. Heat energy generated in per unit volume of reactor core in thermal reactor is ___________
a) less than that in fast reactors
b) more than that in fast reactors
c) equal to that and fast reactors
d) unpredictable

Answer: a
Explanation: In fast reactors fission occurs due to fast moving neutrons. Hence, the rate of fission reaction is
high and the heat energy generated is also very high. In thermal reactor moderator is used to slow down the
neutrons and to make the fission in much more controlled way. So, heat generated in thermal reactor is
comparatively less.
5. In which of the following reactors material converted into fissile materials is more than fissile material
consumed?
a) Burner reactor
b) Slow reactors
c) Converter reactor
d) Breeder reactor

Answer: d
Explanation: Burner reactor or thermal reactor is designed only to consume fissile materials and to give heat
energy. Converter reactor converts fertile material into fissile material but the rate of conversion is slower
than rate of conception. Only breeder reactor from above options is such a reactor which converts fertile
materials into fissile materials faster than consumption of fissile materials.
6. Which of the following reactors uses its fuel as coolant?
a) Direct reactor
b) Indirect reactor
c) Both direct and indirect reactor
d) Solid fuel reactor

Answer: a
Explanation: On the basis of cooling system employed reactors are of two types. One is Direct and another
is indirect reactor. Direct reactor used as fuel in liquid form and it acts as coolant. It is circulated through the
heat exchanger in which heat is transferred to water to produce steam.
7. Which of the following statement is true?
I. In homogeneous reactors the nuclear fuel and the moderator represents a uniform mixture in the fluid
form.
II. In heterogeneous reactors separate fuel sludge or roads are inserted in the moderator
III. Most of the nuclear reactors used these days are of homogeneous type
a) Only statement I and II are true
b) Only statement I and III are true
c) Only statement II and III are true
d) Only statement III is true

Answer: a
Explanation: The statement I and II are true but statement III is wrong, because most of the reactors are of
heterogeneous type. [Link] is used in them are separate mostly in form of road fuel rod.
8. In which of the following reactor it is possible to add remove and process the reactor fuel during reactor
operation?
a) Homogeneous reactor
b) Heterogeneous reactor
c) Solid fuel reactor
d) Both homogeneous and heterogeneous reactors

Answer: a
Explanation: In homogeneous reactor nuclear fuel and the moderator represent a uniform mixture, in the
fluid form including gases liquids and slurries. Due to fluid form of fuel it is possible in homogeneous
reactor that reactor fuel can be added removed and reprocessed during reactor operation without shutting in
town.
9. In which of the following reactors fissile and fertile materials are kept separate?
a) In one region reactor
b) In two region reactor
c) In one and two region reactor
d) It is impossible to separate them

Answer: b
Explanation: As per arrangement of fertile and fissile materials the reactors are classified into categories. In
first category of reactors fertile and fissile fuels are mixed and are called One Region Reactor. In second
category of reactors a fertile and fissile material are separate and is called to Region Reactor.
10. Any leakage or component failure in primary nuclear fission reactor coolant system is dangerous.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Above statement is true because these failures are very much difficult to repair. It is because of
the presence of fission products in the coolant which can cause contamination.
B. Gas Turbine Power Plants
1. The installation time for a gas turbine power plant is ______________
a) Comparatively less than thermal power plant
b) Comparatively more than thermal power plant
c) Equal to thermal power plant
d) Very much longer than thermal power plant

Answer: a
Explanation: Gas turbine power plant is comparatively simpler in construction than thermal power plant. So,
its installation time is less than a thermal power plant for same capacity.
2. Which of the following is not used in gas turbine power plant?
a) Compressor
b) Turbine
c) Combustion chamber
d) Condenser

Answer: d
Explanation: Natural gas itself or mixture of natural gas and air is used as working medium in gas turbine
power plant. Condenser is a device or arrangement used to condense low pressure steam already used by
turbine. There is no steam in gas turbine power plant so no condenser is required.
3. Which component of gas turbine power plant is main cause of its low efficiency?
a) Gas turbine
b) Combustion chamber
c) Compressor
d) Starting motor

Answer: c
Explanation: The overall efficiency of gas turbine is low, because a greater part of power developed by the
turbine (about 65%) is used in driving the compressor.
4. What is intercooling in gas turbine power plant?
a) Removal of heat from combustion gas between stages of turbine
b) Removal of heat from compressor between stages of compressor
c) Removal of heat from intake air
d) Removal of heat from exhaust air

Answer: b
Explanation: Intercooling means removal of heat from compressed air between low pressure and high
pressure compressor. Cooling the low pressure compressed air reduces the air volume and improves the
thermal efficiency, air rate and work ratio.
5. What is the function of regenerator?
a) Eatery compresses the exhaust gases
b) It heats the compressed air
c) It regenerates the combustible gas from exhaust gas
d) It regenerates the combustible oil from exhaust gas

Answer: b
Explanation: Regenerator is usually of shell and tube construction. Regenerator uses the heat of exhaust gas
to heat compressed air before it is sent to combustion chamber. This reduces the fuel consumption and
improves the cycle thermal efficiency.
6. Fuel other than natural gas i.e. solid and liquid fuels can be used in _______
a) open cycle gas turbine power plant
b) closed cycle gas turbine power plant
c) open and closed cycle gas turbine power plant
d) only natural gas is used in gas turbine power plant

Answer: b
Explanation: In closed cycle gas turbine power plant the working medium is heated externally and the fuel is
not mixed with working fluid. This ensures the use of any fuel such as inferior type or solid type fuel.
7. Which of the following gas turbine power plant can use working medium of required property?
a) Closed cycle gas turbine power plant
b) Open cycle gas turbine power plant
c) Open and closed cycle gas turbine power plant
d) No gas turbine power plant can use working medium of required property.

Answer: a
Explanation: A working medium with physical properties superior to those of air such as helium and
hydrogen can be used in closed cycle gas turbine power plant. This is because of airtight construction of this
plant.
8. What is the tariff in case of power system?
a) The taxes which a power plant pay to Indian government
b) The taxes which a power plant pay to state government
c) The taxes which a Power Grid pay to Indian government
d) The schedule of rates are charged of supply of electricity for consumers

Answer: d
Explanation: Tariff means the schedule of rates are charges tariff. In case of electric supply means the
schedule of rates framed for supply of electrical energy to different classes of consumer.
9. An electricity supplier is charging for the electricity as per the total load connected, fixed number of
hours. This type of tariff will be a ___________
a) Simple tariff
b) Flat demand tariff
c) Flat rate tariff
d) Block rate tariff

Answer: b
Explanation: When the use of Electricity was mainly restricted to very few applications such as for lamps it
is ee and the number of hours of use of lamp were fixed they were charged on the basis of total load
connected in Kilowatt and the fixed number of hours of use district is known as flat demand tariff.
10. Which statement about simple tariff is true?
a) Charges are made as per the total load connected and of fixed duration of use
b) Charges are made on the basis of units consumed in a certain period
c) Different types of consumers are charged differently
d) Charges per kilowatt decreases with increase in unit consumed

Answer: b
Explanation: In simple tariff cost of energy is charged on the basis of unit consumed cost per KWh is given
by summing annual fixed cost and annual operating cost and dividing it by total number of units applied to
the consumer per annum.
11. Identify the type of tariff the consumer is charged Rs 4 per unit if the consumer does not exceed 50
KWh, Rs 3.50 per unit if the consumer does not exceed 50 KWh but less than 200 kilowatt hour, and Rs 3
per KWh if consumer exceeds 200 kilowatt hour.
a) Flat demand tariff
b) Simple tariff
c) Flat rate tariff
d) Step rate tariff

Answer: d
Explanation: Step rate tariff is a group of flat rate tariff of decreasing unit charges for higher range of
conception. Charges per KWh are reduced for increas in power consumption above different predefined step
levels. This type of tariff takes into account the fact of lower generation cost going to higher energy
consumption consequent to improvement of load factor.
12. What is demand factor of commercial consumers?
a) Low
b) Low
c) High
d) More than 1

Answer: c
Explanation: Demand factor is the ratio of maximum demand to connected load. As we know maximum
demand cannot be greater than connected load so demand factor is always less than one. Commercial
consumer generally used as most of disconnected loads so their demand factor is high.
UNIT 3
Hydroelectric Power Plant
1. Which of the following is the correct equation for the electrical power generated by the hydroelectric
power plant?
a) 75×0.736 wQHη Watt
b) (7.5/0.736) × wQHη Watt
c) 0.845 ×wQHη Watt
d) 9.81 ×wQHη

Answer: c
Explanation: Rating of any power plant is expressed by its maximum output power. These are large
quantities so rating is given in mega [Link] electrical power generated by this plant is proportional to
specific weight of water(w), water head(H), generation efficiency(η), flow rate of water(Q) and acceleration
due to gravity.
2. Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant?
a) Availability of water
b) Large catchment area
c) Rocky land
d) Sedimentation

Answer: d
Explanation: Sedimentation may reduce the water storage capacity of reservoir and may also cause damage
to the turbine blades. Availability of water, large catchment area and rocky land are primary requirements
for site selection of hydroelectric power plant.
3. The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric power plant depends upon
___________
a) Head of water
b) Quantity of water
c) Specific weight of water
d) Efficiency of Alternator

Answer: b
Explanation: Potential energy of large quantity of stored water is used by hydroelectric power plant to
generate electrical energy. Head of water is important to get kinetic energy from that potential energy.
Efficiency of alternator represents that what percentage of input mechanical power it can convert into
electrical power.
4. Potential energy of water is used to drive the turbine.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: When water falls, potential energy of water is converted into kinetic energy. This kinetic
energy is used to drive the turbine.
5. Hydroelectric power plant is __________
a) Non-renewable source of energy
b) Conventional source of energy
c) Non-conventional source of energy
d) Continuous source of energy

Answer: b
Explanation: Hydroelectric power plants are conventional source of energy. About 16.6% of total electricity
and about 70% of total renewable energy of world is provided by hydroelectric power plants. They are not
Non-renewable because water is inexhaustible. It is not continuous source of energy because its output
fluctuates with change in flow rate of water with season.
6. Hydroelectric power plant is generally located near load centre.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Hydroelectric power plants are generally constructed in hilly areas. These power plants are
quite away from the load centre.
7. Hydroelectric power plant is mainly located in ____________
a) Flat areas
b) Deserts
c) Hilly areas
d) Deltas

Answer: c
Explanation: In order to get sufficient head, hydroelectric power plants are constructed in hilly areas. In
desert and flat areas sufficient water head cannot be obtained. Deltas are not suitable for this because of high
sedimentation.
8. Which statement about hydroelectric power plant is wrong?
a) Efficiency of hydroelectric power plant does not reduce with age
b) Its construction coast is very high and takes a long time for erection.
c) It is very neat and clean plant because no smoke or ash is produced.
d) Meeting rapidly changing load demands is not possible in hydroelectric power plant.

Answer: d
Explanation: Fluctuating load demands can be met just by controlling the flow of water using valves and
gates. Due to its robust construction, its efficiency does not fall with time. Statement ‘b’ is correct because
construction of dam, installation of alternator and turbines are very costly.
9. Which of the following is not an advantage of hydroelectric power plant?
a) no fuel requirement
b) low running cost
c) continuous power source
d) no standby losses

Answer: c
Explanation: Output of such plants is never constant. This is because of their dependency over flow rate of
water in river which is seasonal. No fuel requirement low running cost and no standby losses are advantages
of hydroelectric power plants.
10. Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant?
a) Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
b) Due to non-uniform flow of water frequency control in such plants is very difficult.
c) Hydroelectric power plant has high running cost
d) Water is used as fuel in hydroelectric power plant
Answer: a
Explanation: It is because in addition to generation of electricity they are also used for irrigation, flood
control etc. Frequency control in such plants is done easily just by controlling flow of water to the turbine
through valves and gates. Due to low maintenance cost and no fuel requirement running cost of a plant is
very low. Water is not fuel.
Water Turbines
1. Kaplan turbine is _____________
a) axial flow turbine
b) inward flow turbine
c) tangential flow turbine
d) mixed flow turbine

Answer: a
Explanation: In Kaplan turbine water strikes the turbine blades axially. That’s why Kaplan turbine is an
axial flow turbine. Kaplan turbines are special type of turbines for low head applications.
2. Pelton turbines are used for __________________
a) medium head applications
b) low head applications
c) in steam power plants
d) for high head applications

Answer: d
Explanation: Pelton turbines are impulse turbines and are suitable for high head low flow plants. Pelton
turbines consist of elliptical shaped buckets along its Periphery. Water is released from nozzle to the buckets
of turbine.
3. Francis turbines are the type of _____________
a) reaction turbines
b) radial flow turbine
c) impulse turbine
d) axial flow turbine

Answer: a
Explanation: Francis turbines are inward mixed flow type reaction turbines. Such turbines develop power
partly due to velocity of water and partly due to difference in pressure acting on the front and back of the
runner blades.
4. Operating head of Francis turbine is __________
a) less than 30
b) less than 70 m
c) 30 to 200 m
d) more than 200 m

Answer: c
Explanation: Francis turbines are medium head(30 to 200 m) and medium flow turbines. Using it for low or
high head will cause inefficient operation. Their life is about decades so maintenance cost is low.
5. Which of the following is not a reaction turbine?
a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Pelton wheel turbine
d) Propeller turbine

Answer: c
Explanation: When the entire pressure of water is converted into kinetic energy in a nozzle and the jet thus
formed drives the wheel then the turbine is called impulse turbine. Pelton turbine works in similar way, so it
is an impulse turbine. Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines are reaction turbines.
6. Inside pressure of which of the following turbine is equal to atmospheric pressure?
a) Fixed vane propeller turbine
b) Movable vane propeller turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Pelton wheel turbine

Answer: d
Explanation: Francis and propeller turbines are totally submerged in water, the turbine casing is full of
water. As the water flows through the turbine blades, its pressure changes. Also the discharging water
creates negative pressure below the turbine blades. Pelton turbines are fitted in open air and water Jet is
forced into its blades by nozzel so it’s inside pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure.
7. Francis turbine is suitable for medium head hydroelectric power plant.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Francis turbines are medium head and medium flow turbines. Kaplan turbines are low head
high flow turbines. Pelton turbines are high head and low flow turbines.
8. Which turbine has highest speed?
a) Pelton wheel turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Impulse turbine
d) Kaplan turbine

Answer: d
Explanation: Francis turbine has a specific speed of 60 to 300 rpm. Specific speed of Pelton turbine is
lowest. Speed of Kaplan turbine is 2 to 3 times more than that of Francis turbine.
9. Governing mechanism used in case of Pelton wheel turbine is ________
a) guide vane
b) nozzle needle
c) control valve
d) dam gates

Answer:b
Explanation: During load variation it is necessary to maintain the speed of the alternator constant. This is
achieved by controlling the flow of water entering the turbine by the help of automatic adjustment of guide
vanes for reaction turbine and the nozzle needle is in case of impulse turbine. Such an operation of speed
regulation called governing and the system used to do this is called governor.
10. Guide vanes are used as governor in Kaplan turbine.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Guide vanes are used as governor in Francis and Kaplan turbines. These guide vanes controls
the flow of water to the turbine and hence governs the speed of rotation of turbine. Under different loading
conditions the speed of rotation of turbine is needed to be controlled for constant frequency output.
Hydroelectric Power Plant
1. Which element of hydroelectric power plant prevents the penstock from water hammer phenomenon?
a) Valves and Gates
b) Draft tubes
c) Spillway
d) Surge Tank

Answer: d
Explanation: Sudden increase in water pressure in penstock due to closing of gates is called water hammer.
Surge tank is a tank at sufficient height , connected to penstock through riser pipe. It takes the rejected water
and relives the penstock from excessive water hammer pressure.
2. Dam having very wide base as compared to its height is called _________
a) buttress dam
b) arch dam
c) earth dam
d) solid gravity dam

Answer: c
Explanation: Buttress dams are the concrete dams supported on downstream side by buttresses. Arc dams
are concrete dams curved from upstream side. Earth dam is a type of embankment dam and have rock filled
inside the structure.
3. Spillway discharges the overflow water to the downstream side when the reservoir is full.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: A condition may arise during flood periods when water level increases beyond the capacity of
reservoir. In such conditions spillway acts as safety valve.
4. Trash racks are built for ___________
a) discharging the water freely from the turbine exit to tailrace
b) preventing the turbine from ingress of floating and other materials
c) creating artificial head to store sufficient potential energy of water
d) controlling the opening of valves

Answer: b
Explanation: Heavy solid materials flowing with water can damage the turbine blades if not stopped. Trash
racks are closely spaced flat bars which provides narrow path from which such unwanted materials cannot
pass.
5. Penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is _____________
a) a pipe connected to runner outlet
b) nozzle that release high pressure water on turbine blades
c) a conduit connecting forebay to scroll case of turbine
d) a pipe connecting surge tank to dam

Answer: c
Explanation: Penstocks are the conduit built of steel or reinforced concrete. Penstock connects forebay or
surge tank to scroll case of turbine. Their main function is to carry water from dam to the turbine.
6. The pressure at the inlet or exit of the draft tube should not be _________
a) less than one third of atmospheric pressure
b) greater than one third of atmospheric pressure
c) less than one atmospheric pressure
d) greater than one atmospheric pressure

Answer: a
Explanation: Decrease in pressure in any portion of turbine below one third of atmospheric pressure may
cause vapour bubbles or cavities to form. This phenomenon is called cavitation. Also to maintain continuity
of flow without vaporisation the pressure should not fall below vapour pressure of water.
7. Draft tube increases the operating head on the turbine.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tubes are the pipes of suitable diameter attached to the runner outlet. Draft tube converts
the pressure developed by water leaving from turbine into kinetic energy. This in turn increases the
operating head on turbine.
8. Which statement about surge tank is wrong?
a) Ideal location of surge tank is at the turbine inlet
b) A decrease in load demands cause a rise in water level in surge tank
c) Surge tanks are totally closed to avoid entry of unwanted objects to penstock
d) Surge tanks are installed to reduce harm effects of water hammer phenomenon

Answer: c
Explanation: Function of surge tank is to relieve the penstock from excessive water hammer pressure. It
does so by receiving rejected flow of water into the tank. A totally closed tank can not release pressure so
usually surge tanks are left open at the top.
9. Trash racks are located _____________
a) near tailrace
b) at the entrance of turbine
c) inside penstock
d) intake

Answer: d
Explanation: Intake includes headworks at the entrance of conduit. Those headworks include different
structures, trash racks are one of them. Trash racks are fitted directly at the intake to prevent the floating and
other materials from going into the conduit.
10. What is the function of booms?
a) It supports the dam
b) It supports the penstock
c) It divert the Icebergs from flowing into the penstock
d) To hold the turbine structure

Answer: a
Explanation: Booms are the one of those structures made at the intake. They are constructed to prevent
unwanted solid materials from flowing into the penstock. Solid materials like icebergs, wood logs or other
heavy materials which may cause damage to the turbine blades if reached there.
UNIT 4
Wind Energy
1. What are wind energy conversion systems designed for?
a) To convert wind energy to mechanical energy
b) To convert wind energy to potential energy
c) To convert wind energy to electrical energy
d) To convert mechanical energy to wind energy

Answer: a
Explanation: Wind energy conversion systems (WECS) are designed to convert wind energy to mechanical
energy. The kinetic energy of the wind is used to turn the blades of a wind turbine which in turn rotates a
rotor connected to it. This mechanical energy is further converted to electrical energy for various
applications.
2. Which of the following is a part of a general wind energy conversion system?
a) Server
b) Wind turbine
c) Cloud User
d) Service Provider

Answer: b
Explanation: Wind turbine is a crucial part of a wind energy conversion system (WECS). It converts the
kinetic energy of the incoming air stream into mechanical energy which is then converted to electrical
energy. Server, cloud user and service provider are components of a wireless communication system.
3. What are the two types of gear boxes used in wind turbine?
a) VAWT and HAWT
b) Differential
c) Parallel shaft and planetary shaft
d) Manual transmission

Answer: c
Explanation: Parallel shaft and planetary gearboxes are used in wind turbine. Differential and manual
transmission are used in automobiles. VAWT and HAWT are the two most commonly used wind turbines.
4. What are parallel shaft gears?
a) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on perpendicular planes
b) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on skewed planes
c) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on diagonal planes
d) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on parallel planes

Answer: d
Explanation: Parallel shaft gear motors are a type of gear motor which uses gears to accomplish speed
control. The motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on parallel planes. Hence, the name parallel shaft
gears.
5. What is a planetary shaft gearbox?
a) Input shaft and output shaft are aligned
b) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on perpendicular planes
c) Motor shaft and the speed controller shaft are on parallel planes
d) Input shaft and output shaft are parallel

Answer: a
Explanation: When the input and output shaft of a gearbox are aligned, it is called planetary gearbox. It is
used to transfer the largest torque compactly. Motor shaft and speed controller shaft in parallel shaft.
6. Parallel shaft gearbox is used in small turbines.
a) False
b) True

Answer: b
Explanation: Parallel shaft gearbox is used in small turbines. They have a simple design and are easy to
maintain. Also, they are made up high mass material.
7. Planetary shaft gearbox is not used in large turbines.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
Explanation: Planetary shaft gearbox is used in large turbines. When compared with parallel shaft gearbox,
it has a complex design and is made up of low mass material.
8. Power generation contains ________
a) mechanical systems
b) kinetic systems
c) electromagnetic and electrical subsystems
d) nuclear systems

Answer: c
Explanation: Power generation contains electromagnetic and electrical subsystems. To ensure voltage
compatibility with grid, it generally contains an electrical transformer apart from the electrical generator and
power electronics converter.
9. What is a fixed speed WECS?
a) WECS operating at differential speeds
b) WECS operating at non-differential speeds
c) WECS operating at variable speeds
d) WECS operating at constant speed

Answer: d
Explanation: A fixed speed WECS operates at a constant speed. The wind turbine rotor speed is determined
by the grid frequency regardless of the wind speed. A fixed speed WECS does not operate at
differential/variable speeds.
10. Fixed speed WECS are equipped ________ generators.
a) squirrel-cage induction
b) squirrel induction
c) induction squirrel
d) doubly-fed induction

Answer: a
Explanation: Squirrel-cage induction generation (SCIG) are used in fixed WECS. SCIG are preferred
because they are mechanically simple. They also have high efficiency and low maintenance cost.
Origin of Winds
1. Which of the following provides energy for winds to blow naturally?
a) Sun
b) Water
c) Man
d) Food

Answer: a
Explanation: The energy that drives winds originates from the sun’s heat received along with sunlight. The
heat creates areas of low pressure and high pressure, thereby causing winds to blow. Wind is abiotic and
does not need food. Any wind blowing due to man is artificial. Water aids in magnifying a low or high
pressure area but does not cause winds.
2. Wind flows from _______ pressure area to ________ pressure area.
a) high, high
b) high, low
c) low, high
d) low, low

Answer: b
Explanation: Wind always flows from a high pressure area to a low pressure area. The difference in
pressures causes wind to flow from in a direction. Winds originate from the heat received by sun which
heat’s the earth’s surface unevenly resulting in a pressure difference.
3. What is a gust?
a) No change in wind speed
b) A brief decrease in wind speed for a very long period of time
c) A brief increase in wind speed for a very short period of time
d) A brief increase in wind speed for a very long period of time

Answer: c
Explanation: A gust or a wind gust is a brief increase in wind speed for a very short period of time, typically
less than 20 seconds and has a transient characteristic unlike a squall.
4. What is a squall?
a) A sudden, sharp increase in wind speed lasting for a few hours
b) A sudden, sharp decrease in wind speed lasting for a few minutes
c) A sudden, sharp decrease in wind speed lasting for a few hours
d) A sudden, sharp increase in wind speed lasting for a few minutes

Answer: d
Explanation: A squall is a sudden, sharp increase in wind speed lasting for a few minutes. Squalls occur
during rain showers, thunderstorms or heavy snow fall.
5. A windstorm _______
a) is strong enough to cause property damage
b) is not stronger than gust
c) does not exist
d) is not strong enough to cause property damage

Answer: a
Explanation: A windstorm consists of winds strong enough to cause property damage like uprooting of trees
and damaging erected buildings. Wind speed in a typical windstorm exceeds 55km/s and can be extremely
detrimental.

6. What are planetary or prevailing winds?

a) Winds not blowing from one latitude to another
b) Winds blowing from one latitude to another
c) Gusts
d) Winds that do not cover large areas of earth

Answer: b
Explanation: Planetary winds are winds that blow from one latitude to another throughout the year due to
latitudinal differences in air pressure. They cover large areas of earth.
7. Which of the following are the two most important planetary winds?
a) Hosting
b) Trades and economics
c) Trade winds and westerly winds
d) Deployment

Answer: c
Explanation: Trade winds and westerly winds are the two most important planetary or prevailing winds.
Other options – trade and economics, hosting and deployment are not related to winds.
8. What are trade winds?
a) Winds blowing from equatorial low pressure areas to sub-tropical high pressure areas
b) Winds that trade with each other
c) Winds blowing from equatorial high pressure areas to sub-tropical low pressure areas
d) Winds blowing from sub-tropical high pressure areas to equatorial low pressure areas

Answer: d
Explanation: Trade winds are extremely steady winds blowing from sub-tropical high pressure areas to
equatorial low pressure areas. They maintain a constant direction throughout their course.
9. How does Coriolis effect trade winds in Northern Hemisphere?
a) Coriolis effect deflects trade winds to the right
b) Coriolis effect deflects trade winds to the left
c) Coriolis effect does not affect the trade winds in Northern Hemisphere
d) Coriolis effect only affects the trade winds in Southern Hemisphere

Answer: a
Explanation: Coriolis effect and Ferrel’s law disrupt the flow of trade winds from north to south and deflect
them towards right in the Northern Hemisphere. Thus, they blow in a north east direction in the Northern
Hemisphere.
10. How does Coriolis effect trade winds in Southern Hemisphere?
a) Coriolis effect deflects trade winds to the right
b) Coriolis effect deflects trade winds to the left
c) Coriolis effect does not affect the trade winds in Southern Hemisphere
d) Coriolis effect only affects the trade winds in Northern Hemisphere

Answer: b
Explanation: Coriolis effect and Ferrel’s law disrupt the flow of trade winds flowing from north to south and
deflect them towards left in the Southern Hemisphere. Thus, they blow in a south east direction in the
Southern Hemisphere.
11. Trade winds ______
a) do not maintain a constant direction but blow steadily
b) maintain a constant direction but do not blow steadily
c) maintain a constant direction and blow steadily
d) shrinking technique

Answer: c
Explanation: Trade winds are also called as tropical easterlies. They maintain the same direction and blow
steadily in that direction. Shrinking technique is not related to winds.
Wind Turbine Siting
1. When looking for a wind site, assessors start by _______
a) determining the direction of prevailing wind at the site
b) looking for a good source of water
c) looking for a location with good sunlight
d) determining all the directions of the local wind

Answer: a
Explanation: To install a wind turbine, wind assessors look for locations with strong and smooth winds.
They start by assessing the direction of the prevailing wind at the site. Generally, winds blowing in a
particular direction are strong and smooth.
2. Which of the following is required for the installation of a wind turbine system?
a) A weak wind flow
b) A consistent and strong wind flow
c) Still air
d) A consistent wind flow with obstructions

Answer: b
Explanation: For a wind turbine system to run effectively, it requires a good wind site. A good wind site is
one with a consistent and strong wind flow in a direction.
3. Which of the following is preferred in a good wind site?
a) Still air
b) A higher altitude terrain with objects obstructing the wind flow
c) A higher altitude terrain with no or minimum objects obstructing the wind flow
d) A lower altitude terrain with no or minimum objects obstructing the wind flow

Answer: c
Explanation: Terrain is known to affect wind speeds which in turn affect the efficiency of a wind turbine
system. A higher altitude terrain with no or minimum objects obstructing the wind flow is always preferred.
4. What is the minimum height above which the rotor of the wind turbine system is installed in a good wind
site?
a) 100 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 5-foot radius
b) 5 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 500-foot radius
c) 10 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 5000-foot radius
d) 30 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 500-foot radius

Answer: d
Explanation: A wind turbine can be located anywhere in a good wind site provided the rotor is installed
slightly on a higher terrain. The rotor is typically mounted 30 feet above the tallest obstacle within a 500-
foot radius.
5. Which of following are considered during wind siting?
a) Safety impact, community impact, environmental impact
b) Radiation
c) Sunlight
d) Water

Answer: a
Explanation: Before selecting and deciding on a good site, various impacts of installing a wind turbine are
considered. The engineers ensure that the wind site does not harm any living creature. They also ensure that
the site is far away from the nearest village to prevent any noise pollution.

6. Which of the following impacts a community/village/society due to installation of wind turbine system?
a) Private and Public cloud
b) Noise from the turbine, flicker
c) Private, Public and Hybrid cloud
d) Public and Hybrid cloud

Answer: b
Explanation: Noise, flicker and signal interference impacts the nearest community/society/village. The other
options are not related to wind siting.
7. Does the wind turbine harm birds?
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: The wind turbine system harms the birds and may even kill them. Thus, it is imperative to
select a site with minimum or no living creatures.
8. Which of the following factors affect wind speed near the turbine system?
a) Birds flying
b) Sunlight
c) Time of the day, temperature, season
d) A village far away from the wind site

Answer: c
Explanation: Time of the day, temperature and season are a few factors affecting the wind speed. While the
sun’s heat affects the wind speed by creating a pressure difference, sunlight in itself doesn’t. Affect of a far
away village from the wind site and birds flying on wind speed is minimum.
9. Do wind sites need an access to transmission lines?
a) False
b) True

Answer: b
Explanation: Potential wind sites turning into wind farms need access to transmission lines. Transmission
lines are used to transport the electrical energy generated from the wind turbine system to the grid.
10. Which of the following can make a good wind site?
a) A national sanctuary with wildlife
b) A city
c) A village
d) A barren land with wind speed of 6 on beaufort scale

Answer: d
Explanation: A barren land with a wind speed of 6 on beaufort scale is a potential wind site. A city, village
or national sanctuary are poor choices for wind sites as they obstruct wind flow. Also, it is not safe to install
a wind turbine in such places.
Nature of Winds
1. What is the definition of wind?
a) Air in net motion
b) Air in motion
c) Gas molecules in random motion
d) Stationary gas molecules

Answer: a
Explanation: Wind is better defined as air in net motion. On a microscopic level, gas molecules are always
in a random motion and are not visible to the naked eye. In fact, motion of individual gas molecules cannot
be sensed by our senses. Thus, gas molecules are never stationary.
2. Which of the following involves studying the physics of wind flow?
a) Microbial fuel cells
b) Fluid dynamics
c) Combustion
d) Polymer science

Answer: b
Explanation: Fluid dynamics involves the studies of wind motion and its underlying physics. Fluids consists
of both, liquids and gases. Hence, wind is also a fluid because it consists of gas molecules.
3. Which of the following best describes the motion of air on earth?
a) A two-dimensional vector
b) A one-dimensional vector
c) A three-dimensional vector
d) A four-dimensional vector

Answer: c
Explanation: The motion of air on earth is best described as a three-dimensional vector. It is also important
to note that air motion is typically described and studied relative to earth’s rotation.
4. Which of the following are the three individual components/dimensions best used to describe air motion
on earth?
a) A meridional component pointing south-to-north, a zonal component pointing north-to-east, a vertical
upward component pointing from ground to sky
b) A zonal component pointing south-to-north, a meridional component pointing west-to-east and downward
component pointing from sky to ground
c) A meridional component pointing north-to-south, a zonal component pointing east-to-south, a vertical
upward component pointing from ground to sky
d) A meridional component pointing south-to-north, a zonal component pointing west-to-east, a vertical
upward component pointing from ground to sky

Answer: d
Explanation: The three individual components that correspond to the three dimensions are – a meridional
component pointing south-to-north, a zonal component pointing west-to-east and a vertical upward
component pointing from ground to sky.
5. Which of the following devices indicate wind direction?
a) Weather vanes, windsocks
b) Multimeter, oscilloscope
c) Accelerometer
d) Wind’s direction cannot be measured

Answer: a
Explanation: The direction of wind is generally indicated by weather vanes, windsocks and balloons.
Multimeters and oscilloscopes are electronic instruments used to measure voltage and current.
Accelerometer is a device that measures a body’s acceleration.

6. What is geostrophic wind?

a) Wind generated due to disbalance between wind forces and Coriolis force
b) Wind generated due to balance between pressure gradient force and Coriolis force
c) A special wind generated from geothermal energy
d) Wind flowing in stratosphere

Answer: b
Explanation: Geostrophic wind is the wind generated due to balance between pressure gradient force and
Coriolis force. It occurs above the atmospheric boundary layer (ABL).
7. What are eddies in wind?
a) Areas where the global wind blows opposite to that of the net direction of wind-motion
b) Areas where the local wind blows in the same direction as the net direction of wind-motion
c) Areas where the local wind blows opposite to that of the net direction of wind-motion
d) Areas where the local wind blows randomly to that of the net direction of wind-motion

Answer: c
Explanation: Eddies are small areas where the local wind blows opposite to that of the net direction of wind-
motion for a short period of time. Eddies are always local in nature and do not occur globally.
8. The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in Northern Hemisphere until ______
a) equilibrium of forces is not achieved
b) gas molecules stop moving
c) water vapour evaporates
d) equilibrium of forces is achieved

Answer: d
Explanation: The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in Northern Hemisphere until an equilibrium is
achieved. The equilibrium is between the pressure gradient of the wind and the Coriolis force.
9. Wind speed is measure by ______
a) anemometers
b) odometers
c) ammeter
d) weather vanes

Answer: a
Explanation: Anemometers are used to measure wind speeds. They are commonly used in weather stations.
Odometers measure distance of a wheeled vehicle. Ammeters measure current and weather vanes are used to
indicate the direction of wind.
10. What is wind speed?
a) Net molecular flux along the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number density
b) Molecular flux along the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number density
c) Net molecular flux along the wind axis divided by molecular number density
d) Molecular flux opposite the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number density

Answer: a
Explanation: Wind speed is defined as the net molecular flux along the wind axis divided by the mean
molecular number density. Flux is the number of molecules crossing a unit area (square meter) in a unit time
(second). Mean molecular number density is the number of molecules per cubic meter.
Major Applications of Wind Power
1. Which of the following is not an application of wind energy?
a) Electricity
b) Steam engine
c) Agriculture
d) Energy storage for emergencies

Answer: b
Explanation: Steam engine is not an application of wind energy because coal was used to generate the steam
powering the engine. Wind is used to generate electricity with the help of wind turbines. This energy can
either be stored for emergencies or can be used in agriculture, viz. pumping water.
2. Which of the following sports use wind energy?
a) Wind surfing
b) Chess
c) Carroms
d) Kho-Kho

Answer: a
Explanation: Wind surfing is a surface water sport that combines elements of surfing and sailing. Chess and
carroms are board games. Kho-Kho is a running sport. All three of them do not use wind energy.
3. Does the team sport cricket, use wind?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Cricket is a team sport that uses wind energy in a unique manner. Wind energy is used to swing
the ball into (or away from) the batsman. This phenomenon is demonstrated by Magnus effect.
4. How is wind energy used in flourmills?
a) To beat corn grains into paste
b) To beat wheat grains into paste
c) To grind wheat and corn grains into flour
d) Wind energy is not used in flourmills

Answer: c
Explanation: Wind energy is used in flourmills to grind wheat and corn grains into their respective flour.
Wind mill blades are connected to a drive shaft which is in turn connected to gears and millstones. When the
grains are poured into the revolving millstone, the motion grinds it into flour.
5. Which of the following wind turbine is mostly used to extract wind energy?
a) DC generator
b) Vertical-axis wind turbines
c) Sailing boat
d) Horizontal-axis wind turbines

Answer: d
Explanation: Horizontal-axis wind turbines are mostly used to extract wind energy. They are made up of
several blades that are aerodynamically shaped like airplane wings and are based on ancestral winds. Sailing
boats use wind energy and do not extract energy from wind. DC generator generates DC current.

6. Wind energy is not used to pump water to a higher level.

a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Wind energy is used to pump water from a lower level to a higher level. A horizontal-axis
wind mill with multiple blades is typically used to pump the water.
7. _______ light is used to denote dangers of birds, bats or/and airplanes.
a) Red
b) Blue
c) Yellow
d) Green

Answer: a
Explanation: The red light is used to indicate any danger like birds or bats. It is fitted on the wind mill to
identify itself with the airplanes.
8. Which of the following is a mechanical application of wind energy?
a) Lighting
b) Electricity
c) Pumping water
d) Wind surfing

Answer: c
Explanation: Pumping water is a mechanical application of wind energy. Generating and transporting
electricity to the grid as well as lighting are electrical applications. Wind surfing is a sport that uses wind
energy.
9. Which of the following is a potential application of wind energy?
a) Converting heat to wind energy
b) Converting electrical energy to wind energy
c) Transportation of electrical energy
d) Converting the wind flow due to speeding cars into electricity on highways

Answer: d
Explanation: Wind blowing due to speeding cars on highways or trains can be used to power street lamps
and is a potential application of wind energy. Converting other forms of energy to wind energy is not an
application of wind energy. Transportation of electrical energy is an existing practice.
10. Does flying a kite use wind energy?
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Flying a kite and maintaining it in air requires two things – consistent wind flow and proper
kite control by the user. For the kite to remain stable in the air, it requires a constant wind flowing across its
sides.
Wind Turbine Types and their Construction
1. Wind turbines convert wind energy to ________
a) mechanical energy
b) electrical energy
c) heat energy
d) solar energy

Answer: a
Explanation: Wind turbines convert wind energy to mechanical energy. This mechanical energy is then
converted to electrical energy using an electric generator. They neither convert wind energy to heat energy
nor to solar energy.
2. Which of the following components of a wind turbine system is arranged in the order in which energy is
being converted?
a) Blades – rotor – electric generator – shaft
b) Blades – rotor – shaft – electric generator
c) Shaft – blades – rotor – electric generator
d) Electric generator – blades – rotor — shaft

Answer: b
Explanation: A wind turbine system first converts wind energy to mechanical energy and then to electrical
energy using an electric generator. The correct order is blades – rotor – shaft – electric generator.
3. Which of the following are commonly used commercial wind turbines?
a) Vertical and DFIG
b) Horizontal and SCIG
c) Horizontal and vertical
d) DFIG and SCIG

Answer: c
Explanation: Horizontal axis wind turbines (HAWT) or horizontal and vertical axis wind turbines (VAWT)
or vertical are commonly used commercial wind turbines. DFIG, SCIG and PMSG are commercially used
power generators for wind energy.
4. What are horizontal wind turbines?
a) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis perpendicular to the plane of ground
b) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis diagonal to the plane of ground
c) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis 30 degrees to the plane of ground
d) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis parallel to the plane of wind streamlines

Answer: d
Explanation: Horizontal wind turbines are made up of blades that rotate about an axis parallel to the plane of
wind streamlines. Hence, they are also called as Horizontal Axis Wind Turbines (HAWT). They are the
most popularly used wind turbines for commercial wind energy harvesting applications.
5. Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontal axis wind turbine?
a) Blades are to the side of turbine’s center of gravity
b) Blades are parallel to the vertical axis passing through the turbine’s center of gravity
c) Blades are parallel to the horizontal axis passing through the turbine’s center of gravity
d) Blades are positioned perpendicular to the plane of the ground

Answer: a
Explanation: In a horizontal axis wind turbine (HAWT), the blades are positioned to the side of the turbine’s
center of gravity. This provides stability to the entire setup. Blades rotate to an axis parallel to the plane of
ground.

6. What is an upwind turbine?

a) Rotor of the turbine is behind the unit
b) Rotor of the turbine is in front of the unit
c) Rotor is positioned at the bottom of the tower
d) Rotor is positioned at the center of the tower

Answer: b
Explanation: An upwind turbine is a type of wind turbine where the rotor is positioned in front of the unit.
The position is similar to that of propellers used in airplanes. Most of the wind turbines used commercially
are upwind turbines.
7. What is the main advantage of an upwind turbine?
a) Increased tower shadow effect
b) Reduced tower shadow effect
c) No tower shadow effect
d) Manufacturing

Answer: b
Explanation: Tower shadow effect occurs when the tower acts as an obstruction between the blades and the
wind. In an upwind turbine, both rotor and blades are attached in front of tower. Thus, the tower shadow
effect reduces considerably.
8. What is the main disadvantage of an upwind turbine?
a) Increased tower shadow effect
b) Reduced tower shadow effect
c) A rotor that needs to be placed at some distance from the tower
d) An inflexible rotor that needs to be placed close to the tower

Answer: c
Explanation: The main disadvantage of any upwind turbine is the requirement of placing the rotor at some
distance from the tower. This setup prevents problems with a blade strike. They also require a yaw
mechanism to ensure that the rotor faces the wind continuously.
9. What is a downwind turbine?
a) Rotor is positioned at the three-quarters of the height of the tower
b) Rotor of the turbine is in front of the unit
c) Rotor is positioned at the bottom of the tower
d) Rotor of the turbine is behind the unit

Answer: d
Explanation: A downwind turbine is a type of wind turbine where the rotor is positioned behind the tower.
The nacelle used is typically designed to seek the wind.
10. What is the main advantage of any downwind turbine?
a) Inflexible rotor blades
b) Flexible rotor blades
c) Position of the rotor
d) Reduced tower shadow effect

Answer: b
Explanation: The main advantage of a downward turbine is that the rotor blades can be made flexible. This
reduces the cost of manufacturing and relieves stress on the tower at high wind speeds.
11. What is the main disadvantage of a downward wind turbine?
a) Increased tower shadow effect
b) Flexible rotor blades
c) Inflexible rotor blades
d) Bending of blades at high wind speeds

Answer: b
Explanation: Since the rotor of a downward wind turbine is placed behind the tower, it experiences an
increased tower shadow effect. Flexible rotor blades enable bending at high wind speeds. This is its main
advantage.
12. What is a vertical wind turbine?
a) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis perpendicular to the plane of wind streamlines
b) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis diagonal to the plane of ground
c) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis 30 degrees to the plane of ground
d) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis parallel to the plane of ground

Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical wind turbines are made up of blades that rotate about an axis perpendicular to the
plane of wind streamlines. Hence, they are also called as Vertical Axis Wind Turbines (HAWT). Most of its
main components is near the ground unlike a HAWT.
13. What are the types of VAWT?
a) Lift, horizontal
b) Horizontal, vertical
c) Drag, lift
d) Urban wind turbines

Answer: c
Explanation: There are two types of VAWT – drag and lift. Horizontal and vertical wind turbines are
classified based on their axis of rotation. Urban wind turbines are specially designed turbines to harvest
wind energy in cities and other urban areas.
14. What is the main advantage of a vertical axis wind turbine?
a) Directional and sensitive to wind turbulence
b) Not directional and sensitive to wind turbulence
c) Directional and insensitive to wind turbulence
d) Not directional and insensitive to wind turbulence

Answer: d
Explanation: VAWTs are made up of blades that rotate about an axis perpendicular to the plane of
streamlines. Hence, their main advantage is that they are insensitive to wind turbulences and are not
directional.
15. What is the main disadvantage of a vertical axis wind turbine?
a) Not directional and insensitive to wind turbulence
b) More drag than HAWTs
c) Less drag than HAWTs
d) High starting torque

Answer: b
Explanation: Vertical wind axis turbines cause more drag than HAWTs as their blades are constantly
spinning back into the wind. Their main advantage is that they are not directional and insensitive to wind
turbulence. Also, they have a low starting torque and may require an external source to start turning.
UNIT 5
Solar Energy
Sun, Earth Radiation Spectrums –
1. What is solar radiation?
a) Energy radiated from the sun in all directions
b) Energy radiated from earth in all directions
c) Radiation travelling in space
d) Energy radiated from sun that travels in ether

Answer: a
Explanation: Solar radiation is the energy radiated from sun in all directions. Energy radiated from earth is
not solar radiation. Any random radiation traveling in space is called cosmic rays.
2. What are three relevant bands of solar radiation?
a) UV, infrared and far infrared
b) UV, visible and infrared
c) Ultrasonic, infrared and visible
d) UV, ultrasonic and near infrared

Answer: b
Explanation: The three relevant bands of solar radiation are ultraviolet (UV), infrared and visible bands. Far
infrared and near infrared are components of infrared. Ultrasonic is related to sound waves.
3. Which two bands of solar radiation are majority in the total solar radiation reaching earth?
a) UV and visible
b) Visible and ultrasonic
c) Visible and infrared
d) Infrared and UV

Answer: c
Explanation: Infrared and UV are the major components of the total solar radiation reaching earth. Infrared
radiation makes up 49.4% and visible light makes up 42.3%. Only 8% of the total radiation is in the UV
band.
4. Which of the following affects the amount of solar radiation received by a location or water body?
a) Shape of the water body
b) Time at night
c) Rotational speed of earth
d) Altitude and latitude

Answer: d
Explanation: A variety of factors affect the amount of solar radiation received by a location or water body.
Some of them are altitude and latitude of the location, cloud cover over the location and the time of day. No
solar radiation is received at night. Rotational speed of earth is constant and doesn’t affect the amount of
solar radiation received.
5. What is direct solar radiation?
a) Solar radiation directly received by earth’s surface from sun
b) Cosmic radiation directly received by earth’s surface
c) Solar radiation received by earth’s surface after reflection
d) Cosmic radiation received by earth’s surface after reflection

Answer: a
Explanation: Direct solar radiation is solar radiation directly received by earth’s surface from sun. It is called
direct because no scattering or reflection occurs. Cosmic radiation is not same solar radiation.

6. What is indirect solar radiation?

a) Solar radiation directly received by earth’s surface from sun
b) Solar radiation received by earth’s surface after scattering
c) Cosmic radiation directly received by earth’s surface
d) Cosmic radiation received by earth’s surface after reflection

Answer: b
Explanation: Indirect solar radiation is solar radiation received by earth’s surface after scattering or
reflection. It is called indirect because the incident radiation is not directly received by earth’s surface. Every
cosmic radiation need be radiation from sun.
7. What type of radiation does earth emit?
a) UV
b) Visible
c) Infrared
d) Longitudinal

Answer: c
Explanation: Earth emits infrared radiation. This is typically called as outgoing long-wave radiation (OLR)
of wavelength between 3 and 100um. They are also called as thermal radiation.
8. What is the electromagnetic spectrum?
a) Radiation spectrum consisting only of UV and visible rays
b) All rays falling in the category of infrared and UV rays
c) All rays falling in the category of gamma and x-rays
d) Radiation spectrum encompassing all types of radiation

Answer: d
Explanation: As the name suggests, electromagnetic spectrum is a term used to define all types of existing
radiation. It ranges from gamma rays to radio waves. Solar radiation received by earth is just a small part of
the spectrum.
9. Which of the following type of UV radiation inhibits photosynthetic reaction in phytoplankton?
a) UV-A
b) UV-C
c) Infrared
d) Gamma rays

Answer: a
Explanation: UV-A and UV-B radiation inhibit photosynthetic reaction in phytoplankton. Infrared and
gamma rays are not the types of UV radiation.
10. Which of the following is responsible for thermal energy?
a) UV
b) Infrared
c) Gamma
d) UV-A

Answer: b
Explanation: Infrared radiation is responsible for thermal and heat energy. They lie on the opposite side of
the spectrum from ultraviolet light. This radiation has a wavelength greater than 700nm.
11. How do infrared radiation cause heat?
a) By exciting neutrons of the substance that absorb them
b) By de-exciting electrons of the substance that absorb them
c) By exciting electrons of the substance that absorb them
d) By exciting protons of the substance that absorb them

Answer: c
Explanation: Infrared radiation cause heat by exciting electrons. When they are absorbed by substances, they
interact and excite electrons by transferring energy. This leads to heat as the atom (or electron) is said to be
in excited state.
12. Why are surfaces of water bodies warmer than the depths?
a) Because water does not absorb UV radiation
b) Because water does not absorb thermal radiation
c) Because water absorbs visible radiation
d) Because water absorbs thermal radiation

Answer: d
Explanation: Surfaces of water bodies are warmer than the depths. This is because most of the infrared
radiation is absorbed in the first meter of the water’s surface. Hence, they don’t make it to the depths.
13. What is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)?
a) Radiation best suited for photosynthesis
b) All radiation in which photosynthesis occurs
c) Radiation in which photosynthesis does not occur
d) Radiation which deactivates the ongoing photosynthesis

Answer: a
Explanation: Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is the radiation best suited for photosynthesis. It is
basically wavelength range in which photosynthesis occurs with ease. This range is between 400nm and
700nm – visible range.
14. UV-A, UV-B and UV-C are three wavelength ranges of ultraviolet radiation.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: UV-A, UV-B and UV-C are three wavelength ranges of ultraviolet radiation. These
wavelengths can directly affect the DNA of water inhabitants as well as harmful photochemicals.
15. Energy of the wavelength increases with frequency and decreases with the size of wavelength.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Energy of the wavelength increases with frequency and decreases with the size of wavelength.
The more energy a wavelength has, the easier it is to disrupt the molecule that absorbs it.
Measurements of Solar Radiation – 1
1. What are the two basic ways to measure solar radiation?
a) Ground-based instrumentation and satellite measurement
b) Telephonic measurement and mobile tower measurement
c) Anemometer and voltmeter
d) Ammeter and voltmeter

Answer: a
Explanation: Thee two basic ways to measure solar radiation are via ground-based instruments and satellite
measurements. Anemometer is an instrument used to measure wind speed. Voltmeter is an instrument used
to measure potential difference between two points conducting electric (DC) current. Ammeter is an
instrument used to measure the electric (DC) current flowing across two points.
2. What is does an actinometer measure?
a) Wind speed
b) Intensity of radiation
c) Wind direction
d) Direction of radiation

Answer: b
Explanation: Actinometer is used to measure the intensity of an incident radiation. Wind speed and wind
direction are measured by anemometer and wind vane respectively.
3. Actinometer is primarily used to measure ______ and ______
a) infrared and ultraviolet
b) visible and infrared
c) visible and ultraviolet
d) infrared and UV-A

Answer: c
Explanation: Actinometer is primarily used to measure visible and ultraviolet range. It does this by
measuring the heating power of the radiation.
4. How does actinometer work?
a) By determining the number of electrons in a beam integrally
b) By determining the number of protons in a beam differentially
c) By determining the direction of photons
d) By determining the number of photons integrally

Answer: d
Explanation: Actinometer works by determining the number of photons integrally or per unit time. It is
commonly applied to devices used in UV and visible range.
5. As a system, actinometer is a _____ or _______
a) chemical system or physical device
b) chemical system or thermal device
c) thermal device or mechanical device
d) thermo-mechanical system or physical device

Answer: a
Explanation: As a system, actinometer is a chemical system or physical device. Solutions Iron (III) oxalate is
a commonly used example and is a chemical actinometer. Bolometers can be used as physical devices.

6. Which of the following categories does a pyranometer belong to?

a) Voltmeters
b) Actinometers
c) Hall sensors
d) Amplifiers

Answer: b
Explanation: A pyranometer belongs to the category of actinometer because it is used for measuring solar
irradiance. Voltmeters are used to measure potential difference between two electrically conducting points.
Hall sensors are used to measure current via magnetic fields. Amplifiers are used to “amplify” currents or
voltages.
7. Global and diffuse solar radiation can be measured by ________
a) thermal actinometer
b) heat pumps
c) thermoelectric pyranometers
d) oscilloscopes

Answer: c
Explanation: Global and diffuse solar radiation can be measured by thermoelectric pyranometers. Heat
pumps are used in thermal systems to pump heat from a cooler region to a hotter region. Oscilloscopes are
used to observe sinusoidal outputs.
8. To perform irradiance measurement, which of the following is necessary?
a) Beam response varies with sine of the angle of incidence
b) Beam response varies linearly with angle of incidence
c) Beam response is constant with varying angle of incidence
d) Beam response varies with cosine of the angle of incidence

Answer: d
Explanation: To perform irradiance measurement, it is necessary that the beam response varies with cosine
of the angle of incidence. If the beam response is constant with varying angle of incidence then no
measurement is performed.
9. Why should the beam response vary with cosine of the angle of incidence?
a) To account for perpendicular and parallel rays
b) Because cosine is the simplest mathematical function
c) To account for inclination of earth’s axis
d) Because of non-uniform dispersion of solar radiation

Answer: a
Explanation: The beam response should vary with cosine of the angle of the incidence. This is to account for
perpendicular and parallel rays. Angle of incidence is 0 degrees (i.e. full response) when the solar radiation
hits the sensor normally and 90 degrees (i.e. zero response) for parallel rays from the sun when it is at the
horizon.
10. Which of the following best describes the working of thermoelectric pyranometer?
a) Solar radiation → thermal e.m.f measured → thin black surface → rise in temperature until equilibrium
b) Solar radiation → thin black surface → rise in temperature until equilibrium → thermal e.m.f measured
c) Thin black surface → solar radiation → rise in temperature until equilibrium → thermal e.m.f measured
d) Solar radiation → rise in temperature until equilibrium → thin black surface → thermal e.m.f measured

Answer: b
Explanation: A pyranometer consists of a thin-blackened surface on which the solar radiation falls. As the
radiation hits the surface, the temperature rises until an equilibrium is attained. This rise in temperature sets
a thermal e.m.f which is then measured.
11. Which of the following is generally used to measure direct solar radiation?
a) Pyranometer
b) Actinometer
c) Pyrheliometer
d) IC tester

Answer: c
Explanation: Generally, a pyrheliometer is used to measure direct solar radiation. Actinometer are a class of
devices/systems that measure intensity of radiation. IC tester is used to test ICs.
12. What technologies are used in pyranometers?
a) Silicon semiconductor technology and routing technology
b) Thermopile technology and doping
c) Doping and routing technology
d) Silicon semiconductor technology and thermopile technology

Answer: d
Explanation: Thermopile technology and silicon semiconductor technology are used in pyranometers.
Doping is a technique to increase the conductivity of intrinsic semiconductors. Routing is a technique used
to navigate packets through an interconnected network of computers.
13. __________ is a physical device that can be correlated to the number of photons detected.
a) Photodiode
b) LEDs
c) CFLs
d) CFCs

Answer: a
Explanation: Photodiode is a physical device that can be correlated to the number of photons detected. LEDs
and CFLs are devices that emit light (radiation). CFCs are a type of gas that harm the ozone layer.
14. Light sensitivity is known as spectral response.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Light sensitivity is known as spectral response. It talks about how sensitive the photosensor is
to optical radiation of various wavelengths. It depends on the type of pyranometer. It is an intensity vs
wavelength plot.
15. Pyranometer has a non-directional response.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Pyranometer has a directional response. Since the beam response is required to vary with the
cosine of angle of incidence, pyranometer has a directional or cosine response.
Solar Collectors – 1
1. What is a solar collector?
a) A system to collect heat by absorbing sunlight
b) A system to collect rainwater using sunlight
c) A system to collect electricity by using sunlight
d) A device to reflect sunlight back

Answer: a
Explanation: A solar collector is a system to collect heat by absorbing sunlight and use it for various
applications. It is neither a system to collect rainwater nor electricity. However, it could be used to perform
such processes.
2. What is aperture area in a solar collector?
a) Area of the system
b) Area in the receiver that receives the solar radiation
c) Area occupied by the system after installation
d) Cross-sectional area of the receiver

Answer: b
Explanation: Aperture area of a receiver is that area which receives the solar radiation. It need not be same
as the entire size of the receiver. It is not same as the area occupied by the system after installation.
3. Aperture area of a solar collector is roughly equal to _______
a) Coolant area
b) Generator area
c) Absorber area
d) System area

Answer: c
Explanation: In a solar collector, the aperture area is approximately equal to absorber area. This enables
absorption of (almost) all the sunlight that is incident on the aperture area.
4. What are the components of a flat plate collector?
a) Flat box, a plate with reflective coating and fluid circulation passageways, an opaque cover, a circulating
fluid
b) Flat box, a dark coloured plate with fluid circulation passageways, an opaque, a circulating fluid
c) Flat box, a dark coloured plate with fluid circulation passageways, a transparent cover
d) Flat box, a dark coloured plate fluid circulation passageways, a transparent cover, a circulating fluid

Answer: d
Explanation: A flat plate solar collector consists of various components. Firstly, it consists of a flat box or an
enclosure to hold the entire setup. A dark coloured plate is fitted with fluid circulation passageways and
transparent cover. Finally, a circulating fluid which flows through the entire setup.
5. Why is a transparent cover used in a flat plate collector?
a) To maximize transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
b) To minimize transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
c) To entirely reflect the incident sunlight back
d) To ensure partial transmission of the incident sunlight into the box

Answer: a
Explanation: A transparent cover is used in a flat plate collector. This is because it maximizes the
transmission of the incident sunlight into the box thereby collecting maximum sunlight for thermal energy.

6. Which of the following is generally used as circulating fluid in tropical and sub-tropical climates?
a) A mixture of ethylene glycol and water
b) Water
c) A mixture of propylene glycol and water
d) Glycerol

Answer: b
Explanation: Water is used as circulating fluid in tropical and sub-tropical climates. This is because it has
good properties as a coolant. A mixture of water with ethylene glycol or glycerol or propylene glycol is not
used as coolant in tropical and sub-tropical climates.
7. Which of the following is generally used as circulating fluid in freezing climates?
a) Liquid carbon dioxide
b) Water
c) A mixture of propylene glycol and water
d) Liquid nitrogen

Answer: c
Explanation: In freezing climates, antifreeze solution like a mixture of water with propylene glycol or
ethylene glycol or glycerol is used as coolants. Liquid carbon dioxide, water and liquid nitrogen are not used
as coolants in freezing climates.
8. Why are antifreeze solutions (antifreeze agents with water) used as coolants in freezing climates?
a) To increase boiling point of water
b) To decrease boiling point of water
c) To increase freezing point of water
d) To decrease freezing point water

Answer: d
Explanation: Antifreeze solution is used as coolants in freezing climates. This is because they decrease the
freezing point of water thereby preventing it from solidifying into ice.
9. Adding antifreeze agents to water _________
a) increases its durability as coolant
b) decreases its durability as coolant
c) turns water into a coolant
d) prevents water from acting as a coolant

Answer: a
Explanation: Adding antifreeze agents to water increases its durability as coolant. This is because it
depresses the freezing point of water and prevents it from becoming ice.
10. Which of the following is a circulating fluid in evacuated flat-plate solar collectors?
a) Water
b) Steam
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen

Answer: b
Explanation: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a more recent technology. It uses steam as its
circulating fluid. Nitrogen and hydrogen are not used as circulating fluid. Water is mainly used in flat-plat
collectors.
11. Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a type of _______
a) concentrating collectors
b) photovoltaic technology
c) non-concentrating collectors
d) solar stills

Answer: c
Explanation: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors are a type of non-concentrating collectors. Solar stills and
photovoltaic technology are not solar collectors.
12. Which of the following are used as absorbers in evacuated-tube solar collectors?
a) Carbon tubes
b) Wooden or metallic tubes
c) Plastic or glass tubes
d) Metallic or glass tubes

Answer: d
Explanation: Metallic or glass tubes are used as absorbers in evacuated-tube solar collectors. Wood and
plastic are thermal insulators and hence, cannot be used to create passageways for the heat carrying
circulating fluid.
13. What is a heat pipe?
a) A heat-transfer device
b) A pipe made of heat
c) A pipe that consists of heat
d) A heat pumping device

Answer: a
Explanation: A heat pipe is a heat-transfer device. It combines the principles of thermal conductivity and
phase transition to effectively transfer heat between two solid interfaces.
14. For better efficiency, solar collectors do not coat their transparent cover with an anti-reflective coating.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: For better efficiency, solar collectors coat their transparent cover with an anti-reflective
coating. The anti-reflective coating reduces the amount of reflection dramatically. Thus, the amount of
sunlight collected is increased.
15. Evacuated tube solar collectors use a glass tube to surround absorber with high vacuum.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Evacuated tube solar collectors use a glass tube to surround absorber with high vacuum. This is
used to effectively resist atmospheric pressure and reduce conductive and convective losses.
Solar Collectors – 2
1. Which of the following is used to make a glass-glass evacuated tubes?
a) Borosilicate glass
b) Carbon
c) Wood
d) Plastic coating

Answer: a
Explanation: As the name suggests, glass-glass evacuated tubes is a type of evacuated-tube solar collector. It
is made up of two borosilicate glass tubes fused together at one or both ends.
2. Which of the following is a problem with evacuated tubes?
a) Underheating
b) Overheating
c) Poor absorption of sunlight
d) Poor reception of sunlight

Answer: b
Explanation: Overheating is a common problem with evacuated-tube solar collector. This is because of the
high temperatures of the circulating fluid caused by collection of large amount of sunlight.
3. Why does flat plate collector perceived to have higher efficiency than evacuated tube solar collector in
terms of area?
a) Because flat plate collector has a large installation area
b) Because evacuated tube collector is compact
c) Because of the vacuum gap in evacuated tube collectors
d) Because of the vacuum gap in flat plate collectors
Answer: c
Explanation: In terms of area, flat plate solar collectors are generally perceived to have a higher efficiency
than evacuated-tube solar collectors. This is because of the vacuum gap in evacuated tube collectors which
increases their net occupied area.
4. _______ lose more heat to the environment than evacuated-tube solar collectors.
a) Photovoltaics
b) Solar stills
c) Solar air conditioners
d) Flat-plate collectors

Answer: d
Explanation: Flat-plate collectors lose more heat to the environment than evacuated-tube solar collectors.
Photovoltaics, solar stills and solar air conditioners are not solar collectors.
5. Which of the following are combined to form an evacuated flat plate solar collector?
a) Flat plate solar collectors and evacuated-tube solar collectors
b) Flat plate solar collectors and bowl collectors
c) Bowl collectors and evacuated-tube solar collectors
d) Polymer collectors and bowl collectors

Answer: a
Explanation: Evacuated flat plate collectors combine the technologies of both, flat plate solar collectors and
evacuated-tube solar collectors. There are not a combination of bowl and polymer type collectors.

6. Which of the following provides highest energy conversion efficiency in non-concentrating solar
collectors?
a) Flat plate collectors
b) Evacuated flat plate collectors
c) Evacuated-tube collectors
d) Parabolic collectors

Answer: b
Explanation: Evacuated flat plate collectors provide the highest energy conversion efficiency in non-
concentrating solar collectors. Parabolic collector is not a non-concentrating collector.
7. What is the metal sheet absorber surrounded with in an evacuated flat plate collector?
a) Low volume inside flat envelope
b) Low vacuum inside curved envelope
c) High vacuum inside flat envelope
d) Low vacuum inside thick curved envelope

Answer: c
Explanation: In an evacuated flat-plate solar collector, the metal sheet absorber is surrounded with a high
vacuum. This is then placed inside a flat envelope made of glass and metal.
8. Which of the following organisations developed first high vacuum insulation?
a) NASA
b) IIT
c) Stanford
d) CERN

Answer: d
Explanation: CERN developed the first collector making use of high vacuum insulation. However, the first
company to commercialise the technology was TVP SOLAR SA of Switzerland.
9. Why does an evacuated flat plate collector require a glass-metal seal?
a) To join the glass plate to the rest of metal envelope
b) To join the glass plate to a part of metal envelope
c) To disconnect the glass plate to the rest of plastic envelope
d) To disconnect the glass plate to the rest of metal envelope

Answer: a
Explanation: An evacuated flat plate collector requires a glass-metal seal. This is to join the glass plate to the
rest of metal envelope. It also requires an internal structure to support such a plate against atmospheric
pressure.
10. Which of the following pumps is used in an evacuated-tube solar collector?
a) Non-evaporable getter
b) Flash getter pump
c) Heat pump
d) Water pump

Answer: b
Explanation: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors use a barium flash getter pump. This pump is used to keep
the internal pressure stable throughout the operation. They do not use non-evaporable getter pumps.
11. Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors use _______ pumps.
a) Heat pump
b) Flash getter pump
c) Non-evaporable getter
d) Internal combustion

Answer: c
Explanation: Evacuated flat-plate solar collectors use non-evaporable getter (NEG) pumps to keep the
internal pressure stable throughout the operation. This pump enables some regeneration in-situ by exposure
to sunlight.
12. What advantage does polymer collector have over metal collector?
a) Better sales as they are produced in Europe
b) Poor sales as they are produced in Europe
c) They cannot be used in cold climate
d) They can be used in cold climate

Answer: d
Explanation: The primary advantage of a polymer collector over a metal collector is that they can be used in
cold regions with low temperatures. This is because they are freeze-tolerant. Whether they are manufactured
in Europe or not does is neither an advantage nor a disadvantage.
13. Bowl collectors operate similarly to _______
a) parabolic dish
b) flat plate collector
c) evacuated-tube collector
d) evacuated flat tube collector

Answer: a
Explanation: Bowl collectors operate similarly to a parabolic dish. However, they have a fixed receiver
unlike a parabolic dish. This reduces efficiency but is much cheaper to build and operate.
14. Polymer flat plate collectors can use plain water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Polymer flat plate collectors can use plain water. This is because they are freeze-tolerant and
do not require antifreeze agents to prevent water from solidifying.
15. Bowl collectors use a fixed curved receiver.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Bowl collectors use a fixed curved receiver. They have a fixed spherical mirror with a tracking
receiver.
UNIT 6
Biomass Energy
Photosynthesis Process
1. What is photosynthesis?
a) Plants generating carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water and sunlight using chlorophyll
b) Algae generating carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water and sunlight using chlorophyll
c) Cyanobacteria generating carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water and sunlight using
chlorophyll
d) Photoautotroph generating carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon dioxide, water and sunlight

Answer: d
Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process by which photoautotrophs generate food for themselves. They
use carbon dioxide, water and sunlight to generate carbohydrates and oxygen. Photo means light.
2. What is the primary product of photosynthesis?
a) Glucose
b) Oxygen
c) Water
d) Carbon dioxide

Answer: a
Explanation: The primary product of photosynthesis is glucose. Oxygen is the by product. Water and carbon
dioxide are the reactants.
3. Which of the following best indicates photosynthesis?
a) Carbon dioxide + water → oxygen + glucose
b) 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 (in the presence of sunlight)
c) Carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen (in the presence of sunlight)
d) Oxygen + glucose → carbon dioxide + water

Answer: b
Explanation: Photosynthesis occurs in the presence of sunlight. The balanced reaction of photosynthesis best
describes the process of photosynthesis. The option with oxygen and glucose as reactants is not
photosynthesis.
4. Which of the following organisms can perform photosynthesis?
a) Autotrophs
b) Algae
c) Photoautotrophs
d) Plants

Answer: c
Explanation: Photoautotrophs are organisms that perform photosynthesis to produce food for themselves.
Algae and plants come under the category of photoautotrophs. All autotrophs are not necessarily
photoautotrophs.
5. Which of the following are photoautotrophs?
a) Cyanobacteria, algae, plants
b) Archaebacteria
c) Deer
d) Tiger

Answer: a
Explanation: Cyanobacteria, algae and plants are photoautotrophs. Archaebacteria are chemoautotrophs.
Deer and tiger are not autotrophs as they do not create their own food.

6. Conversion of usable sunlight energy into chemical energy is associated with _______
a) Red pigmentation
b) Green pigmentation
c) Orange pigmentation
d) Fruits

Answer: b
Explanation: Conversion of usable sunlight energy into chemical energy is associated with green
pigmentation. This green pigmentation is called chlorophyll. Plants and algae consist of chlorophyll which is
a key ingredient for photosynthesis.
7. Cyanobacteria have chloroplasts.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Though cyanobacteria are photoautotrophs, they do not have chloroplasts. Instead, the
chlorophyll is stored in thylakoids in their cytoplasm.
8. _______ and _______ is present in all chlorophylls.
a) A hydrophilic tail, a lipid soluble head
b) A hydrophobic tail, a lipid soluble head
c) A hydrophilic tail, a lipid insoluble head
d) A lipid soluble tail, a hydrophilic head

Answer: d
Explanation: A lipid soluble tail and a hydrophilic head is present in all chlorophylls. The tail is a lipid
soluble hydrocarbon and the hydrophilic head consists of magnesium ion at its centre.
9. What type of chemical reactions are involved in photosynthesis?
a) Condensation reactions and redox reactions
b) Combustion
c) Double displacement
d) Single displacement

Answer: a
Explanation: The chemical reactions involved in photosynthesis are condensation reactions and redox
reactions respectively. Combustion, single and double displacement reactions do not occur in
photosynthesis.
10. What is the condensation reaction responsible for in the process of photosynthesis?
a) Electron transfer
b) Splitting out water molecules
c) Splitting out water molecules and phosphorylation
d) Electron transfer and phosphorylation
Answer: c
Explanation: Condensation reaction is responsible for splitting out water molecules and phosphorylation.
Phosphorylation is the addition of a phosphate group to an organic compound. Electron transfer occurs in a
redox reaction.
11. Where does the light-dependent reactions in the process of photosynthesis occur?
a) Stroma of chloroplasts
b) Thylakoid of chloroplasts
c) Inner membranes
d) Grana of chloroplasts

Answer: d
Explanation: The light-dependent reactions in the process of photosynthesis occur in the grana of
chloroplasts. These reactions require the light energy to make energy-carrier molecules that are used further.
12. Where does the light-independent reactions in the process of photosynthesis occur?
a) Stroma of chloroplasts
b) Thylakoid of chloroplasts
c) Outer membranes
d) Grana of chloroplasts

Answer: a
Explanation: The light-independent reactions in the process of photosynthesis occur in the stroma of
chloroplasts. The products of light reaction are used to make carbohydrates from carbon dioxide.
13. What is photoionisation? Assume presence of sunlight.
a) Freeing of electron from the molecule to form a negatively charged chlorophyll ion
b) Freeing of photoexcited electron from the molecule to form a positively charged chlorophyll ion
c) Absorbing of electron from the molecule to form a negatively charged chlorophyll ion
d) Absorbing of electron from the molecule to form a positively charged chlorophyll ion

Answer: b
Explanation: Electrons of chlorophyll molecule gain energy and move to higher energy level when light is
absorbed. On gaining sufficiently high energy, the electron leaves the molecule thereby forming a positively
charged chlorophyll ion. This process is called photoionisation.
14. Where does the energy to drive the electron transfer system come from?
a) Photosystem 1
b) Photosystem 3 and photosystem 2
c) Photosystem 1 and photosystem 2
d) Photosystem 1 and photosystem 3

Answer: c
Explanation: An electron transfer system (basically, a series of chemical reactions) carries two electrons to
and fro across the thylakoid membrane. The energy for the system comes from photosystem 1 and
photosystem 2.
15. Which of the following are products of light-dependent reactions?
a) ATP and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
b) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and NADPH
c) Carbohydrates
d) ATP and NADPH

Answer: c
Explanation: The light-dependent reactions require direct energy of sunlight. They are a series of chemical
reactions forming ATP and NADPH. These products are further used by light-independent reactions to
produce carbohydrates.
Geothermal Energy
1. How is the heat inside earth restored?
a) Radioactive decay of elements
b) Sun restores the heat
c) Hot steam is pumped into earth
d) Cosmic rays

Answer: a
Explanation: Earth’s heat is generated and restored by the radioactive decay of radioactive elements. These
elements are found in the mantle and core. Pumping hot steam, sun’s heat and cosmic rays do not contribute
to restoration of earth’s heat.
2. What is the increase in temperature per kilometer starting from the crust?
a) 15 degree Celsius
b) 17 – 30 degree Celsius
c) 100 degree Celsius
d) 50 – 87 degree Celsius

Answer: b
Explanation: The normal temperature gradient with respect to depth – increase in the temperature per
kilometer is 17 – 30 degree Celsius. It is 50 – 87 in degree F.
3. What is the earth’s core made up of?
a) Gamma rays
b) Nitrogen
c) Iron
d) Gold

Answer: c
Explanation: Earth’s core lies 4000 miles below the surface and consists of two layers. The core is made up
of solid iron and is surrounded by molted iron.
4. Which of the following surrounds the earth’s core?
a) Mt. Everest
b) Crust
c) Hydrogen
d) Mantle

Answer: d
Explanation: The earth’s core is surrounded by mantle. It consists of rocks and magma. It is about 1800
miles thick starting from the core.
5. What is continental drift?
a) Tectonic plates pushing against each other
b) Continents being pulled due to gravitational force
c) Continents being pulled due to nuclear force
d) Tectonic plates expanding

Answer: a
Explanation: The earth’s crust is not a uniform layer like the shell of an egg. It is made up of tectonic plates.
These plates push against each other at the rate of 1 inch per year in a process called continental drift.

6. Who initiated electricity generation from geothermal energy?

a) Indians
b) Italians
c) Americans
d) Africans

Answer: b
Explanation: Hot springs were used for recreational and healing purposes in the ancient times. However, the
converting geothermal energy to electricity is a relatively new concept. It was initiated by Italians in 1904.
7. Why did the first Geysers project in California fail?
a) Did not find geothermal site
b) Insufficient steam
c) Corrosion of equipment
d) Availability of pure steam

Answer: c
Explanation: The first Geysers project in California failed because of impurities in the steam at the
geothermal site. These impurities corroded and abraded the pipes and turbines of the day.
8. Which of the following countries hosts the largest geothermal field?
a) Iran
b) Italy
c) Australia
d) United States

Answer: d
Explanation: Geothermal energy is now used in more than 20 countries across the globe. The largest
geothermal field is hosted by United States. It is known as “The Geysers” and is located in California. It is
spread over 117 km2 and consists of 22 power plants with a capacity of 1.5GW.
9. Which of the following is used to locate a geothermal site?
a) Drilling wells
b) Reflection
c) Seismograph
d) SONAR

Answer: a
Explanation: Drilling wells to measure underground temperature is a well known method to locate
geothermal sites. Reflection, seismograph and SONAR are not used to locate geothermal site. In fact,
seismograph detects earthquakes.
10. Which of the following is the most probably location of geothermal site?
a) Grasslands
b) Volcanoes
c) Coasts
d) River beds

Answer: b
Explanation: Most active geothermal sites are located along major plate boundaries where earthquakes and
volcanoes are concentrated. Coasts, grasslands and river beds hardly experience any volcanoes so they are
not the most probable location.
11. Most of the geothermal activity occurs at ______
a) Ring of water
b) Mt. Everest
c) Ring of fire
d) Amsterdam

Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the geothermal activity occurs in an area called “Ring of Fire”. It rims the Pacific
Ocean and is bounded by Japan, the Philippines, the Aleutian Islands, North America, Central America and
South America.
12. Which of the following is the major drawback of geothermal energy?
a) Low initial cost
b) Low carbon dioxide production
c) High carbon dioxide production
d) Extremely location specific

Answer: d
Explanation: The major drawback of geothermal energy is its dependence on the geothermal site. In fact, it
is probably the most location specific energy source. Also, the power plants are accused of causing mini
tremors in the surrounding areas.
13. Geothermal energy has high initial cost.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Geothermal has a high initial cost because of the costs required to locate the geothermal site.
The cost of admission also includes construction of the power plant at the site.
14. Which of the following gases is released by a geothermal site and power plant?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Sulphur
c) Iron
d) Steel

Answer: b
Explanation: Geothermal sites and power plants are accused of releasing sulphur and hydrogen sulfide. It
has low carbon dioxide emissions. Iron and steel are not gases.
15. Lord Kelvin invented the heat pump.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Lord Kelvin invented the heat pump in 1853. Heinrich Zoelly had patented the idea to draw
heat from ground in 192. The heat pump was practically implemented in the late 1940s.
Ocean Energy
1. What is ocean thermal energy conversion?
a) Harnessing the temperature differences between surface waters and deep ocean waters
b) Harnessing the temperature differences between the coastal waters and deep ocean waters
c) Harnessing the heat energy from the underwater volcanoes
d) Harnessing the heat energy between surface water vapour and atmospheric gases

Answer: a
Explanation: The process of generating energy by using temperature difference (or gradient) varying with
depth of seawater is called Ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC). A temperature gradient exists
between the surface waters and deep sea waters due to various physical phenomenon.
2. What is the temperature difference used in ocean thermal energy conversion? Note that F denotes
Fahrenheit
a) 10 degree F
b) A minimum of 77 degree F
c) Between 50 and 60 degree F
d) A minimum of 100 degree F

Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature difference is at least 77 degree F (or 25 degree C). Ocean thermal energy
conversion systems use this temperature difference between the surface and the bed (or deep sea waters) to
generate electricity.
3. What is thermohaline circulation?
a) Circulation of halogens throughout the ocean
b) Circulation of halogens due to temperature differences throughout the ocean
c) Large scale ocean circulation driven by global density gradients
d) Large scale halogens circulation due to global density gradients

Answer: c
Explanation: Thermohaline circulation is a constituent of large scale ocean water movement and circulation
caused due to global density gradients. The cause for this gradient is heat of the surface and freshwater
fluxes. Halogens are group 17 elements in the periodic table and are not related to thermohaline circulation.
4. What is the maximum estimated potential of ocean thermal energy conversion per year?
a) 80 GWh
b) 900 MWh
c) 10000 TWh
d) 88000 TWh

Answer: d
Explanation: Ocean thermal energy conversion is one of the continuously available renewable energy
resource. The maximum estimated potential is 880000 TWh per year. In fact, it is strongly believed that this
resource could contribute to base-load power supply.
5. How does the cold and denser water masses sink to the depths of ocean?
a) Thermohaline circulation
b) Temperature gradient
c) Density gradient
d) Freshwater fluxes

Answer: a
Explanation: The cold and denser water masses formed by surface water sink to the depths of the ocean by
thermohaline circulation. It is circulation of ocean water due to density gradient.

6. Why is ocean thermal energy conversion a renewable resource?

a) Because the temperature gradient lasts for a short period of time
b) Because the upwelling of cold water from the deep ocean is replaced by downwelling of surface waters
c) Because ocean water is available in plenty
d) Because of sun’s heat

Answer: b
Explanation: Ocean thermal energy conversion is a renewable resource because the temperature gradient is
continuously restored. This occurs because the upwelling of cold water from the deep ocean is replaced by
downwelling of surface waters.
7. Which of the following are types of systems used in ocean thermal energy conversion?
a) Horizontal and vertical
b) Vertical and open cycle
c) Open cycle and closed cycle
d) Horizontal and closed cycle
Answer: c
Explanation: The types of systems used in ocean thermal energy conversion are closed cycle and open cycle
systems. Horizontal and vertical are related to turbines used in harnessing tidal and wind energy.
8. Which of the following is used as working fluid in closed cycle oceanic thermal energy conversion
systems?
a) Thermohaline circulation
b) Temperature gradient
c) Greenhouse gases
d) Refrigerants

Answer: d
Explanation: Closed cycle oceanic thermal energy conversion systems use refrigerants like ammonia as
working fluids. These fluids have low boiling points and are suitable to power the generator thereby
producing electricity.
9. Rankine Cycle is the most commonly used heat cycle for ocean thermal energy conversion.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Rankine Cycle is the most commonly used heat cycle for ocean thermal energy conversion. It
is a model used to predict the performance of a steam turbine and was also used to study reciprocating steam
engines.
10. _______ turbine is used in closed cycle ocean thermal energy conversion.
a) Horizontal
b) Low-pressure
c) High-pressure
d) Vertical

Answer: b
Explanation: Low-pressure turbines are used in closed cycle ocean thermal energy conversion. These
systems use the Rankine heat cycle to generate electricity.
11. Open cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use _____ as the working fluid.
a) vapour from rivers
b) water from rivers
c) vapour from seawater
d) seawater

Answer: c
Explanation: Open cycle ocean thermal energy conversion systems use vapour from seawater as the working
fluid. Unlike the closed cycle ocean thermal conversion systems, the working fluids are not thought as
refrigerants.
12. What is the byproduct of an ocean thermal energy conversion system?
a) Electricity
b) Clean water
c) Water vapour
d) Cold water

Answer: d
Explanation: Ocean thermal energy conversion systems supply cold water as their by-product. These can be
used for air conditioning and refrigeration. Electricity is the primary product.
13. Where is the world’s only operating ocean thermal energy conversion plant located?
a) Japan
b) United States
c) China
d) Korea

Answer: a
Explanation: Ocean thermal energy conversion was first developed in the 1880s. The world’s only operating
ocean thermal energy conversion plant is located in Japan. The plant is overseen by Saga University.
14. Which of the following best describes the working of an ocean thermal energy conversion plant?
a) Oceanic water → evaporator → turbine/generator → electricity
b) Warm surface oceanic water → evaporator containing working fluid → turbine/generator → electricity
c) Cold surface oceanic water → electricity → evaporator containing working fluid → turbine/generator
d) Cold deep oceanic water → electricity → evaporator containing working fluid → turbine/generator

Answer: b
Explanation: Warm surface oceanic water is passed through an evaporator containing the working fluid. The
vapourized fluid drives the turbine/generator thereby generating electricity. Deep oceanic water is not used
as it’s cold.
15. The vapourized fluid in an ocean thermal energy conversion system is converted back into working
liquid.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: The vapourized fluid in an ocean thermal energy conversion system is converted back into
working liquid by passing it through a condenser. By using the deep oceanic cold water, the temperature of
the condenser is maintained so as to cool the vapourized fluid.
Tidal Energy – 1
1. What is tidal power?
a) Energy from tides
b) Energy from water
c) Energy from moon
d) Energy from sun

Answer: a
Explanation: Tidal power converts the energy from tides to usable forms. Though tides are water, it is not
the same as the energy harnessed from a flowing river. Tides are caused due to moon.
2. Which of the following categories does tidal power fall into?
a) Hydrothermal
b) Hydropower
c) Solar
d) Wind

Answer: b
Explanation: Tidal power comes under the category of hydropower. Hydrothermal is basically energy
harnessed from hot water/steam found in geothermal sites. Solar and wind are not related to water.
3. What is/are the cause(s) of tides?
a) Gravitational pull of moon
b) Gravitational pull of moon and sun
c) Gravitational pull of sun and moon and rotation of earth
d) Gravitational pull of sun
Answer: c
Explanation: Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of moon, sun and the rotation of earth. It is the
cumulative effect of all the three factors. No single factor individually dominates the other.
4. What is the minimum height of tides required for harnessing tidal energy economically?
a) 1 foot
b) 5 feet
c) 8 feet
d) 10 feet

Answer: d
Explanation: To harness tidal energy economically, the minimum height of the tides should be 10 feet. Most
of the plants harness the tidal energy to generate electricity which is either used in remote locations or sent
to the grid.
5. In terms of predictability, tidal energy _____ solar and wind.
a) is more predictable than
b) is less predictable than
c) has similar predictability like
d) cannot be predicted unlike

Answer: a
Explanation: In terms of predictability, tidal energy is more predictable than solar and wind. This because of
its origins – gravitational forces and earth’s rotation. Intensity of sunlight and wind speeds vary greatly
within a day unlike the tides.

6. Tidal barrage is similar to ______

a) wind plant
b) dam
c) wind turbines
d) coal plant

Answer: b
Explanation: Tidal barrage is similar to a dam. As the name suggests, a barrage (barrier) is constructed
across an inlet of an ocean bay to harness the energy.
7. Which of the following best describes the working of a tidal barrage for an incoming tide?
a) Incoming tides → generator → barrage → basin
b) Incoming tides → basin → generator → barrage
c) Incoming tides → barrage → basin → generator
d) Generator → barrage → basin → incoming tides

Answer: c
Explanation: The incoming tides flow through the barrage into the basin. Once the basin is filled, the water
is emptied by allowing it to pass through an electric generator thereby generating electricity.
8. Which of the following best describes the working of tidal barrage for outgoing tides?
a) Generator → basin → ocean → outgoing tide
b) Generator → ocean → basin → outgoing tide
c) Ocean → generator → basin → outgoing tide
d) Outgoing tide → generator → basin → ocean

Answer: d
Explanation: The outgoing tides flow through the generator which converts the kinetic energy into electrical
energy. The water is then emptied into the ocean via a separate basin.
9. Tidal barrages are a two-way tidal power system.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Tidal barrages are a two-way power system. This is because they use both, the incoming and
the outgoing tides to generate electricity. The water flow is controlled by sluice gates.
10. Which of the following is a potential problem of a tidal barrage?
a) Impacts on deep sea/ocean marine life
b) Impacts on estuaries of the tidal basin
c) A two-way tidal power system
d) Decrease in turbidity

Answer: b
Explanation: One of the main problems that a tidal barrage can cause is the destruction of estuaries of the
tidal basin. Tidal barrages also increase the turbidity of the water near the basin. They don’t affect the deep
sea marine life.
11. Which of the following tidal barrages has the largest capacity to generate electricity?
a) La Rance
b) Annapolis Royal
c) The Sihwa Lake Tidal Power Station
d) Russian tidal plants

Answer: c
Explanation: The Sihwa Lake Tidal Power Station in South Korea has the largest capacity to generate
electricity. The tidal plant in La Rance, France is the oldest and has the second largest capacity. Next comes
the tidal power plant in Annapolis Royal in Nova Scotia.
12. What are the three ways to harness tidal energy?
a) Tidal streams, tidal barrages and wind
b) Tidal barrages, wind and sun
c) Tidal lagoons, river streams and geothermal reservoirs
d) Tidal lagoons, tidal streams and tidal barrages

Answer: d
Explanation: The three different ways to harness tidal energy are tidal streams, tidal barrages and tidal
lagoons. Geothermal reservoirs, wind and sun are not tidal resources.
13. The United States has an economical tidal power plant.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: At the very best, the United States does not have an economical tidal power. China, France,
England, Canada and Russia are some of the popular countries known to harness tidal energy.
14. What is a tidal stream?
a) A river streams
b) A fast-flowing body of water due to tides
c) A fast-flowing body of water deposited into ocean
d) A fast-flowing body of water due to winds

Answer: b
Explanation: A tidal stream is a fast-flowing body of water created by tides. It is not the same as a river
stream. When compared to a river stream it has a much higher kinetic energy.
15. Tidal generators produce steady and reliable stream of electricity.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Tidal generators produce steady and reliable stream of electricity. This is because unlike sun’s
intensity and wind speeds which vary over short duration of time, tides are predictable and stable.
FUEL CELL
1. Which of the following supplies maximum amount of hydrogen gas?
a) Natural gas
b) Anaerobic Digestion
c) Wastewater treatment
d) Electrolysis

Answer: a
Explanation: All the four options produce hydrogen gas. However, fossil fuels, specifically natural gas is the
major producer of hydrogen gas. Biomass and biogas are the also commonly used to produce hydrogen gas.
2. In terms of green house gas emissions, how good or bad is hydrogen fuel?
a) Major contributor of greenhouse gas emissions
b) Zero-emission fuel
c) Lowest contributor of greenhouse gas emissions
d) Hydrogen cannot be used as fuel

Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrogen fuel is a clean source of energy. It is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen and is
used in different applications to generate electricity. Among all sources of energy, burning fossil fuels
produces maximum amount of greenhouse gases.
3. Which of the following use hydrogen as fuel?
a) Fossil fuels
b) Anerobic digestion
c) Fuel cells
d) Cooking

Answer: c
Explanation: Fuel cells and internal combustion engines used hydrogen as fuel cells. Anaerobic digestion
requires biomass in the form of waste water to generate electricity. Though fossil fuels contain hydrogen
atoms, they do not require external supply of hydrogen as fuels. Cooking does not require hydrogen as fuel.
4. Which of the following is the most popular application of hydrogen fuel cell?
a) Fuel cell vehicles
b) Fuel cell energy power plants
c) Fuel cells stand-alone power supplies
d) Fuel cells spacecraft

Answer: d
Explanation: Spacecraft propulsion uses hydrogen as fuel with the help of fuel cells. It is one of the most
established techniques to deploy spacecrafts into outer-space. Though fuel cell vehicles are becoming
popular, they are not well established yet.
5. How is hydrogen gas produced from fossil fuels?
a) Partial oxidation of methane
b) Electrolysis
c) Evaporation
d) Biomass gasification

Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen gas is produced from fossil fuels by different techniques like partial oxidation of
methane, steam reforming and coal gasification. Biomass gasification and electrolysis produce hydrogen gas
in small quantities.

6. What is the major drawback of steam-methane reforming technique to produce hydrogen?

a) Capital intensive
b) Releases greenhouse gases into atmosphere
c) A niche technology
d) Poor efficiency

Answer: b
Explanation: The steam-methane reforming technique is the current leading technology to produce
hydrogen. However, the main drawback of steam-methane reforming technique is that it releases greenhouse
gases, carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide into the atmosphere.
7. How does electrolysis produce hydrogen?
a) By running electricity to combine hydrogen and water
b) By separating water into hydrogen and oxygen and generating electricity
c) By passing electricity into water to separate it into hydrogen and oxygen
d) By passing electricity into water to evaporate it into hydrogen

Answer: c
Explanation: Electrolysis is one of the cleanest techniques to produce hydrogen. Electricity is passed
through water to separate it into oxygen and hydrogen. In electrolysis, electricity is not generated and
instead is used to perform a chemical reaction
8. Why is hydrogen hazardous as fuel?
a) Because of high ignition and low combustion energy
b) Because of high ignition and high combustion energy
c) Because low ignition and low combustion energy
d) Because of low ignition and high combustion energy

Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrogen is extremely dangerous as fuel. This is because hydrogen has a low ignition
temperature and releases large amounts of energy during burning – high combustion energy. Also, it is hard
to store as it tends leak easily from storage tanks.
9. Traditionally, why is steam methane reforming preferred over electrolysis?
a) Because electrolysis requires electricity
b) Because electrolysis has lower production efficiency
c) Because steam methane reforming produces greenhouse gases
d) Because electrolysis produces greenhouse gases

Answer: a
Explanation: Traditionally, steam methane reforming preferred over electrolysis. This is simply because
electrolysis requires electricity. Currently, producing electricity is expensive. As the cost of producing a unit
of electricity becomes cheaper, electrolysis will be favoured over steam methane reforming because it does
not release greenhouse gases.
10. What is the main problem in using hydrogen as fuel for vehicles?
a) Capital intensive
b) Storage
c) Fuel cell technology is not well established
d) Cars will become heavy

Answer: b
Explanation: The main problem in using hydrogen as fuel for vehicles is storage of hydrogen. Hydrogen is
difficult to store because it leaks easily. Moreover, it is extremely hazardous as fuel due to its low ignition
temperature and high combustion energy.
11. What is a fuel cell?
a) Converts heat energy to chemical energy
b) Converts heat energy to electrical energy
c) Converts chemical energy to electrical energy
d) Converts kinetic energy to heat energy

Answer: c
Explanation: A fuel cell works just like a battery. It converts chemical energy to electrical energy. The
chemical energy from a redox reaction occurring within the cell is converted to electrical energy due to the
flow of electrons.
12. How does hydrogen fuel cell work?
a) Membrane → hydrogen ions → electric current and recombination with oxygen
b) Electric current and recombination with oxygen → hydrogen ions → membrane
c) Hydrogen ions → membrane → electric current and recombination with oxygen
d) Recombination with oxygen → electric current → membrane → hydrogen ions

Answer: d
Explanation: The hydrogen ions in one chamber of the cell flow into the other chamber through a membrane
to recombine with oxygen. Since this is a redox reaction, electric current is generated due to flow of
electrons.
13. What does hydrogen fuel cell emit?
a) Water
b) Steam
c) Greenhouse gas
d) Methane

Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen fuel cell produces water – its only emission. It does not release any greenhouse
gases or carbon compounds like methane because the reaction occurs with two substances, hydrogen and
oxygen.
14. Fuel cell vehicle is sourced by a battery.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: A fuel cell vehicle (FEV) or a fuel cell electric vehicle (FCEV) is sourced by a fuel cell. It may
work in combination with a battery to supply sufficient power to run the systems. But the source of the
energy is a fuel cell.
15. High pressure containers are used to store hydrogen.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen is stored in a variety of ways to prevent hazards. One of them is by using high
pressure containers. Another commonly used technique is cryogenics – low temperatures.