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Vendor: CompTIA

Exam Code: SY0-601

Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ 2022

Q&As: 820 (There are 9 parts in the dump, 820 questions in total. )
Exam A

QUESTION 1
Which of the following will MOST likely adversely impact the operations of unpatched traditional
programmable-logic controllers, running a back-end LAMP server and OT systems with human-
management interfaces that are accessible over the Internet via a web interface? (Choose two.)

A. Cross-site scripting
B. Data exfiltration
C. Poor system logging
D. Weak encryption
E. SQL injection
F. Server-side request forgery

Correct Answer: DF
Explanation

QUESTION 2
A small business just recovered from a ransomware attack against its file servers by purchasing the
decryption keys from the attackers. The issue was triggered by a phishing email and the IT administrator
wants to ensure it does not happen again. Which of the following should the IT administrator do FIRST
after recovery?

A. Scan the NAS for residual or dormant malware and take new daily backups that are tested on a
frequent basis
B. Restrict administrative privileges and patch ail systems and applications.
C. Rebuild all workstations and install new antivirus software
D. Implement application whitelisting and perform user application hardening

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
An attacked is attempting to exploit users by creating a fake website with the URL [Link].
The attacker's intent is to imitate the look and feel of a legitimate website to obtain personal information
from unsuspecting users.
Which of the following social-engineering attacks does this describe?

A. Information elicitation
B. Typo squatting
C. Impersonation
D. Watering-hole attack

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a team of people dedicated testing the effectiveness of organizational security
programs by emulating the techniques of potential attackers?

A. Red team
B. While team
C. Blue team
D. Purple team

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Red team--performs the offensive role to try to infiltrate the target.

QUESTION 5
To reduce costs and overhead, an organization wants to move from an on-premises email solution to a
cloud-based email solution. At this time, no other services will be moving. Which of the following cloud
models would BEST meet the needs of the organization?

A. MaaS
B. laaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 6
A security engineer at an offline government facility is concerned about the validity of an SSL certificate.
The engineer wants to perform the fastest check with the least delay to determine if the certificate has
been revoked. Which of the following would BEST these requirement?

A. RA
B. OCSP
C. CRL
D. CSR

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A CRL can still be preferred over the use of OCSP if a server has issued many certificates to be validated
within a single revocation period. It may be more efficient for the organization to download a CRL at the
beginning of the revocation period than to utilize the OCSP standard, necessitating an OCSP response
every time a certificate requires validation.

QUESTION 7
A security analyst needs to complete an assessment. The analyst is logged into a server and must use
native tools to map services running on it to the server's listening ports. Which of the following tools can
BEST accomplish this talk?

A. Netcat
B. Netstat
C. Nmap
D. Nessus

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
On which of the following is the live acquisition of data for forensic analysis MOST dependent? (Choose
two.)

A. Data accessibility
B. Legal hold
C. Cryptographic or hash algorithm
D. Data retention legislation
E. Value and volatility of data
F. Right-to-audit clauses

Correct Answer: EF
Explanation

QUESTION 9
An organization's Chief Security Officer (CSO) wants to validate the business's involvement in the incident
response plan to ensure its validity and thoroughness. Which of the following will the CSO MOST likely
use?

A. An external security assessment

B. A bug bounty program
C. A tabletop exercise
D. A red-team engagement

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 10
During a routine scan of a wireless segment at a retail company, a security administrator discovers several
devices are connected to the network that do not match the company's naming convention and are not in
the asset Inventory. WiFi access Is protected with 255- Wt encryption via WPA2. Physical access to the
company's facility requires two-factor authentication using a badge and a passcode Which of the following
should the administrator implement to find and remediate the Issue? (Select TWO).

A. Check the SIEM for failed logins to the LDAP directory.

B. Enable MAC filtering on the switches that support the wireless network.
C. Run a vulnerability scan on all the devices in the wireless network
D. Deploy multifactor authentication for access to the wireless network
E. Scan the wireless network for rogue access points.
F. Deploy a honeypot on the network

Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
security is pretty good already up to a point, clearly Rogue AP bypass is in the picture MAC filtering on the
switch the AP's hang from will ensure the only AP's allowed to touch the core network are approved known
AP's and ze "bad guys" will find themselves trapped on an AP island with nowhere to go!

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is MOST likely to outline the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and data
processors?

A. SSAE SOC 2
B. PCI DSS
C. GDPR
D. ISO 31000

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
An organization routes all of its traffic through a VPN Most users are remote and connect into a corporate
datacenter that houses confidential information There is a firewall at the Internet border followed by a DIP
appliance, the VPN server and the datacenter itself. Which of the following is the WEAKEST design
element?

A. The DLP appliance should be integrated into a NGFW.

B. Split-tunnel connections can negatively impact the DLP appliance's performance
C. Encrypted VPN traffic will not be inspected when entering or leaving the network
D. Adding two hops in the VPN tunnel may slow down remote connections

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Joe, an employee, receives an email stating he won the lottery. The email includes a link that requests a
name, mobile phone number, address, and date of birth be provided to confirm Joe's identity before
sending him the prize. Which of the following BEST describes this type of email?

A. Spear phishing
B. Whaling
C. Phishing
D. Vishing

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 14
A company recently experienced a data breach and the source was determined to be an executive who
was charging a phone in a public area. Which of the following would MOST likely have prevented this
breach?

A. A firewall
B. A device pin
C. A USB data blocker
D. Biometrics

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A security analyst discovers several .jpg photos from a cellular phone during a forensics investigation
involving a compromised system. The analyst runs a forensics tool to gather file metadata. Which of the
following would be part of the images if all the metadata is still intact?

A. The GPS location

B. When the file was deleted
C. The total number of print jobs
D. The number of copies made

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
A security analyst discovers that a company username and password database was posted on an internet
forum. The username and passwords are stored in plan text. Which of the following would mitigate the
damage done by this type of data exfiltration in the future?

A. Create DLP controls that prevent documents from leaving the network
B. Implement salting and hashing
C. Configure the web content filter to block access to the forum.
D. Increase password complexity requirements

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Which of the following would be BEST to establish between organizations that have agreed cooperate and
are engaged in early discussion to define the responsibilities of each party, but do not want to establish a
contractually binding agreement?

A. An SLA
B. AnNDA
C. ABPA
D. AnMOU

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Most SLA include a monetary penalty if the vendor is unable to meet the agreed-upon expectations

QUESTION 18
A RAT that was used to compromise an organization's banking credentials was found on a user's
computer. The RAT evaded antivirus detection. It was installed by a user who has local administrator rights
to the system as part of a remote management tool set. Which of the following recommendations would
BEST prevent this from reoccurring?

A. Create a new acceptable use policy.

B. Segment the network into trusted and untrusted zones.
C. Enforce application whitelisting.
D. Implement DLP at the network boundary.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Users have been issued smart cards that provide physical access to a building. The cards also contain
tokens that can be used to access information systems. Users can log m to any thin client located
throughout the building and see the same desktop each time. Which of the following technologies are
being utilized to provide these capabilities? (Select TWO)

A. COPE
B. VDI
C. GPS
D. TOTP
E. RFID
F. BYOD

Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 20
A malicious actor recently penetration a company's network and moved laterally to the datacenter. Upon
investigation, a forensics firm wants to know was in the memory on the compromised server. Which of the
following files should be given to the forensics firm?

A. Security
B. Application
C. Dump
D. Syslog

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Dump files are a special type of files that store information about your computer, the software on it, and the
data loaded in the memory when something bad happens. They are usually automatically generated by
Windows or by the apps that crash, but you can also manually generate them [Link]
view-contents- dump-file/

QUESTION 21
A security administrator currently spends a large amount of time on common security tasks, such aa report
generation, phishing investigations, and user provisioning and deprovisioning This prevents the
administrator from spending time on other security projects. The business does not have the budget to add
more staff members. Which of the following should the administrator implement?

A. DAC
B. ABAC
C. SCAP
D. SOAR

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 22
A security analyst needs to be proactive in understand the types of attacks that could potentially target the
company's execute. Which of the following intelligence sources should to security analyst review?

A. Vulnerability feeds
B. Trusted automated exchange of indicator information
C. Structured threat information expression
D. Industry information-sharing and collaboration groups

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which of the following organizational policies are MOST likely to detect fraud that is being conducted by
existing employees? (Select TWO).

A. Offboarding
B. Mandatory vacation
C. Job rotation
D. Background checks
E. Separation of duties
F. Acceptable use
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 24
A user enters a password to log in to a workstation and is then prompted to enter an authentication code.
Which of the following MFA factors or attributes are being utilized in the authentication process? (Select
TWO).

A. Something you know

B. Something you have
C. Somewhere you are
D. Someone you are
E. Something you are
F. Something you can do

Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 25
A network engineer has been asked to investigate why several wireless barcode scanners and wireless
computers in a warehouse have intermittent connectivity to the shipping server. The barcode scanners and
computers are all on forklift trucks and move around the warehouse during their regular use. Which of the
following should the engineer do to determine the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Perform a site survey

B. Deploy an FTK Imager
C. Create a heat map
D. Scan for rogue access points
E. Upgrade the security protocols
F. Install a captive portal

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
heat map and site survey will provide the wifi strength and identify the weakness areas..this will give the
opportunity if we need to increase WiFI strength or give suggestion to the forklift drivers about the
movement

QUESTION 26
Which of the following technical controls is BEST suited for the detection and prevention of buffer
overflows on hosts?

A. DLP
B. HIDS
C. EDR
D. NIPS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 27
A user recently attended an exposition and received some digital promotional materials The user later
noticed blue boxes popping up and disappearing on the computer, and reported receiving several spam
emails, which the user did not open Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the reported issue?
A. There was a drive-by download of malware
B. The user installed a cryptominer
C. The OS was corrupted
D. There was malicious code on the USB drive

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 28
A company is upgrading its wireless infrastructure to WPA2-Enterprise using EAP-TLS. Which of the
following must be part of the security architecture to achieve AAA? (Select TWO)

A. DNSSEC
B. Reverse proxy
C. VPN concentrator
D. PKI
E. Active Directory
F. RADIUS

Correct Answer: EF
Explanation

QUESTION 29
A company recently experienced an attack in which a malicious actor was able to exfiltrate data by
cracking stolen passwords, using a rainbow table the sensitive data. Which of the following should a
security engineer do to prevent such an attack in the future?

A. Use password hashing.

B. Enforce password complexity.
C. Implement password salting.
D. Disable password reuse.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 30
A vulnerability assessment report will include the CVSS score of the discovered vulnerabilities because the
score allows the organization to better.

A. validate the vulnerability exists in the organization's network through penetration testing
B. research the appropriate mitigation techniques in a vulnerability database
C. find the software patches that are required to mitigate a vulnerability
D. prioritize remediation of vulnerabilities based on the possible impact.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a free and open industry standard for assessing the
severity of computer system security vulnerabilities. CVSS attempts to assign severity scores to
vulnerabilities, allowing responders to prioritize responses and resources according to threat
[Link]

QUESTION 31
A company's Chief Information Office (CIO) is meeting with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to
plan some activities to enhance the skill levels of the company's developers. Which of the following would
be MOST suitable for training the developers'?

A. A capture-the-flag competition
B. A phishing simulation
C. Physical security training
D. Baste awareness training

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 32
A database administrator needs to ensure all passwords are stored in a secure manner, so the
administrate adds randomly generated data to each password before string. Which of the following
techniques BEST explains this action?

A. Predictability
B. Key stretching
C. Salting
D. Hashing

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 33
A pharmaceutical sales representative logs on to a laptop and connects to the public WiFi to check emails
and update reports. Which of the following would be BEST to prevent other devices on the network from
directly accessing the laptop? (Choose two.)

A. Trusted Platform Module

B. A host-based firewall
C. A DLP solution
D. Full disk encryption
E. A VPN
F. Antivirus software

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 34
Which of the following control sets should a well-written BCP include? (Select THREE)

A. Preventive
B. Detective
C. Deterrent
D. Corrective
E. Compensating
F. Physical
G. Recovery

Correct Answer: ADG

Explanation

QUESTION 35
A smart switch has the ability to monitor electrical levels and shut off power to a building in the event of
power surge or other fault situation. The switch was installed on a wired network in a hospital and is
monitored by the facilities department via a cloud application. The security administrator isolated the switch
on a separate VLAN and set up a patch routine. Which of the following steps should also be taken to
harden the smart switch?

A. Set up an air gap for the switch.

B. Change the default password for the switch.
C. Place the switch In a Faraday cage.
D. Install a cable lock on the switch

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 36
A company recently moved sensitive videos between on-premises. Company-owned websites. The
company then learned the videos had been uploaded and shared to the internet. Which of the following
would MOST likely allow the company to find the cause?

A. Checksums
B. Watermarks
C. Oder of volatility
D. A log analysis
E. A right-to-audit clause

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

"While companies can operate private clouds, forensics in a public cloud are complicated by the right to
audit permitted to you by your service level agreement (SLA) with the cloud provider."

QUESTION 37
In which of the following common use cases would steganography be employed?

A. Obfuscation
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Blockchain

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
An end user reports a computer has been acting slower than normal for a few weeks. During an
investigation, an analyst determines the system is sending the user's email address and a ten-digit number
to an IP address once a day. The only recent log entry regarding the user's computer is the following:
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The end user purchased and installed a PUP from a web browser
B. A bot on the computer is brute forcing passwords against a website
C. A hacker is attempting to exfiltrate sensitive data
D. Ransomware is communicating with a command-and-control server.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 39
A cybersecurity department purchased o new PAM solution. The team is planning to randomize the service
account credentials of the Windows server first. Which of the following would be the BEST method to
increase the security on the Linux server?

A. Randomize the shared credentials

B. Use only guest accounts to connect.
C. Use SSH keys and remove generic passwords
D. Remove all user accounts.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 40
Phishing and spear-phishing attacks have been occurring more frequently against a company's staff.
Which of the following would MOST likely help mitigate this issue?

A. DNSSEC and DMARC

B. DNS query logging
C. Exact mail exchanger records in the DNS
D. The addition of DNS conditional forwarders

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 41
An organization wants to implement a third factor to an existing multifactor authentication. The organization
already uses a smart card and password. Which of the following would meet the organization's needs for a
third factor?

A. Date of birth
B. Fingerprints
C. PIN
D. TPM

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Which of the following will MOST likely cause machine learning and Al-enabled systems to operate with
unintended consequences?

A. Stored procedures
B. Buffer overflows
C. Data bias
D. Code reuse

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]
[Link]

QUESTION 43
A manufacturer creates designs for very high security products that are required to be protected and
controlled by the government regulations. These designs are not accessible by corporate networks or the
Internet. Which of the following is the BEST solution to protect these designs?

A. An air gap
B. A Faraday cage
C. A shielded cable
D. A demilitarized zone

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 44
A security auditor is reviewing vulnerability scan data provided by an internal security team. Which of the
following BEST indicates that valid credentials were used?

A. The scan results show open ports, protocols, and services exposed on the target host
B. The scan enumerated software versions of installed programs
C. The scan produced a list of vulnerabilities on the target host
D. The scan identified expired SSL certificates

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 45
After a ransomware attack a forensics company needs to review a cryptocurrency transaction between the
victim and the attacker. Which of the following will the company MOST likely review to trace this
transaction?

A. The public ledger

B. The NetFlow data
C. A checksum
D. The event log

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 46
A Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned about the amount of PII that is stored locally on each
salesperson's laptop. The sales department has a higher-than-average rate of lost equipment. Which of
the following recommendations would BEST address the CSO's concern?

A. Deploy an MDM solution.

B. Implement managed FDE.
C. Replace all hard drives with SEDs.
D. Install DLP agents on each laptop.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 47
A company has decided to move its operations to the cloud. It wants to utilize technology that will prevent
users from downloading company applications for personal use, restrict data that is uploaded, and have
visibility into which applications are being used across the company. Which of the following solutions will
BEST meet these requirements?

A. An NGFW
B. A CASB
C. Application whitelisting
D. An NG-SWG

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The Official CompTIA Security+ Student Guide (Exam SY0-601) | 426-427 CASBs provide you with
visibility into how clients and other network nodes are using cloud services. Some of the functions of a
CASB are: ?Enable single sign-on authentication and enforce access controls and authorizations from the
enterprise network to the cloud provider. ?Scan for malware and rogue or non-compliant device access. ?
Monitor and audit user and resource activity. ?Mitigate data exfiltration by preventing access to
unauthorized cloud services from managed devices

QUESTION 48
A security analyst is reviewing the output of a web server log and notices a particular account is attempting
to transfer large amounts of money:

Which of the following types of attack is MOST likely being conducted?

A. SQLi
B. CSRF
C. Session replay
D. API

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 49
A network technician is installing a guest wireless network at a coffee shop. When a customer purchases
an Item, the password for the wireless network is printed on the recent so the customer can log in. Which
of the following will the technician MOST likely configure to provide the highest level of security with the
least amount of overhead?

A. WPA-EAP
B. WEP-TKIP
C. WPA-PSK
D. WPS-PIN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 50
When used at the design stage, which of the following improves the efficiency, accuracy, and speed of a
database?

A. Tokenization
B. Data masking
C. Normalization
D. Obfuscation

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 51
Employees are having issues accessing the company's website. Some employees report very slow
performance, while others cannot the website at all. The web and security administrators search the logs
and find millions of half-open connections to port 443 on the web server. Further analysis reveals
thousands of different source IPs initiating this traffic. Which of the following attacks is MOST likely
occurring?

A. DDoS
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. MAC flooding
D. Domain hijacking

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 52
A company has determined that if its computer-based manufacturing is not functioning for 12 consecutive
hours, it will lose more money that it costs to maintain the equipment. Which of the following must be less
than 12 hours to maintain a positive total cost of ownership?

A. MTBF
B. RPO
C. RTO
D. MTTR

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 53
Which of the following environments minimizes end-user disruption and is MOST likely to be used to
assess the impacts of any database migrations or major system changes by using the final version of the
code?

A. Staging
B. Test
C. Production
D. Development

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 54
Which of the following ISO standards is certified for privacy?

A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 27002
C. ISO 27701
D. ISO 31000

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
ISO 27701 also abbreviated as PIMS (Privacy Information Management System) outlines a framework for
Personally Identifiable Information (PII) Controllers and PII Processors to manage data privacy. Privacy
information management systems are sometimes referred to as personal information management
systems.

[Link]

QUESTION 55
A network administrator needs to build out a new datacenter, with a focus on resiliency and uptime. Which
of the following would BEST meet this objective? (Choose two.)

A. Dual power supply

B. Off-site backups
C. Automatic OS upgrades
D. NIC teaming
E. Scheduled penetration testing
F. Network-attached storage

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 56
An organization has implemented a policy requiring the use of conductive metal lockboxes for personal
electronic devices outside of a secure research lab. Which of the following did the organization determine
to be the GREATEST risk to intellectual property when creating this policy?

A. The theft of portable electronic devices

B. Geotagging in the metadata of images
C. Bluesnarfing of mobile devices
D. Data exfiltration over a mobile hotspot

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 57
A company recently transitioned to a strictly BYOD culture due to the cost of replacing lost or damaged
corporate-owned mobile devices. Which of the following technologies would be BEST to balance the
BYOD culture while also protecting the company's data?

A. Containerization
B. Geofencing
C. Full-disk encryption
D. Remote wipe

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link] important-for-your-business/

QUESTION 58
Several employees return to work the day after attending an industry trade show. That same day, the
security manager notices several malware alerts coming from each of the employee's workstations. The
security manager investigates but finds no signs of an attack on the perimeter firewall or the NIDS.

Which of the following is MOST likely causing the malware alerts?

A. A worm that has propagated itself across the intranet, which was initiated by presentation media
B. A fileless virus that is contained on a vCard that is attempting to execute an attack
C. A Trojan that has passed through and executed malicious code on the hosts
D. A USB flash drive that is trying to run malicious code but is being blocked by the host firewall

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
The IT department's on-site developer has been with the team for many years. Each time an application is
released, the security team is able to identify multiple vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST
help the team ensure the application is ready to be released to production?

A. Limit the use of third-party libraries.

B. Prevent data exposure queries.
C. Obfuscate the source code.
D. Submit the application to QA before releasing it.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 60
A security analyst needs to implement an MDM solution for BYOD users that will allow the company to
retain control over company emails residing on the devices and limit data exfiltration that might occur if the
devices are lost or stolen.
Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements? (Select TWO).

A. Full-device encryption
B. Network usage rules
C. Geofencing
D. Containerization
E. Application whitelisting
F. Remote control

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 61
A recently discovered zero-day exploit utilizes an unknown vulnerability in the SMB network protocol to
rapidly infect computers. Once infected, computers are encrypted and held for ransom. Which of the
following would BEST prevent this attack from reoccurring?

A. Configure the perimeter firewall to deny inbound external connections to SMB ports.
B. Ensure endpoint detection and response systems are alerting on suspicious SMB connections.
C. Deny unauthenticated users access to shared network folders.
D. Verify computers are set to install monthly operating system, updates automatically.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 62
A system administrator needs to implement an access control scheme that will allow an object's access
policy be determined by its owner. Which of the following access control schemes BEST fits the
requirements?

A. Role-based access control

B. Discretionary access control
C. Mandatory access control
D. Attribute-based access control

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 63
An information security incident recently occurred at an organization, and the organization was required to
report the incident to authorities and notify the affected parties. When the organization's customers
became of aware of the incident, some reduced their orders or stopped placing orders entirely. Which of
the following is the organization experiencing?

A. Reputation damage
B. Identity theft
C. Anonymlzation
D. Interrupted supply chain

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 64
A security engineer needs to implement an MDM solution that complies with the corporate mobile device
policy. The policy states that in order for mobile users to access corporate resources on their devices the
following requirements must be met:

1. Mobile device OSs must be patched up to the latest release

2. A screen lock must be enabled (passcode or biometric)
3. Corporate data must be removed if the device is reported lost or stolen

Which of the following controls should the security engineer configure? (Select TWO)

A. Containerization
B. Storage segmentation
C. Posture checking
D. Remote wipe
E. Full-device encryption
F. Geofencing
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 65
The IT department at a university is concerned about professors placing servers on the university network
in an attempt to bypass security controls. Which of the following BEST represents this type of threat?

A. A script kiddie
B. Shadow IT
C. Hacktivism
D. White-hat

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Shadow IT solutions increase risks with organizational requirements for control, documentation, security,
reliability, etc - [Link]

QUESTION 66
An organization is concerned that its hosted web servers are not running the most updated version of the
software. Which of the following would work BEST to help identify potential vulnerabilities?

A. hping3 -S [Link] -p 80
B. nc --1 --v [Link] -p 80
C. nmap [Link] -p 80 --sV
D. nslookup -port=80 [Link]

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 67
An attacker is trying to gain access by installing malware on a website that is known to be visited by the
target victims. Which of the following is the attacker MOST likely attempting?

A. A spear-phishing attack
B. A watering-hole attack
C. Typo squatting
D. A phishing attack

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 68
A critical file server is being upgraded and the systems administrator must determine which RAID level the
new server will need to achieve parity and handle two simultaneous disk failures. Which of the following
RAID levels meets this requirements?

A. RAID 0+1
B. RAID 2
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 69
Following a prolonged datacenter outage that affected web-based sales, a company has decided to move
its operations to a private cloud solution. The security team has received the following requirements:

1. There must be visibility into how teams are using cloud-based services.
2. The company must be able to identify when data related to payment cards is being sent to the cloud.
3. Data must be available regardless of the end user's geographic location
4. Administrators need a single pane-of-glass view into traffic and trends.

Which of the following should the security analyst recommend?

A. Create firewall rules to restrict traffic to other cloud service providers.

B. Install a DLP solution to monitor data in transit.
C. Implement a CASB solution.
D. Configure a web-based content filter.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 70
Which of the following would MOST likely support the integrity of a voting machine?

A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Blockchain
C. Transport Layer Security
D. Perfect forward secrecy

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
"Blockchain technology has a variety of potential applications. It can ensure the integrity and transparency
of financial transactions, online voting systems, identity management systems, notarization, data storage,
and more. "

QUESTION 71
An auditor is performing an assessment of a security appliance with an embedded OS that was vulnerable
during the last two assessments. Which of the following BEST explains the appliance's vulnerable state?

A. The system was configured with weak default security settings.

B. The device uses weak encryption ciphers.
C. The vendor has not supplied a patch for the appliance.
D. The appliance requires administrative credentials for the assessment.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 72
A company wants to deploy PKI on its Internet-facing website. The applications that are currently deployed
are:

[Link] (main website)

[Link] (for locating a nearby location) [Link] (for requesting a price
quote)

The company wants to purchase one SSL certificate that will work for all the existing applications and any
future applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as [Link]. Which of the
following certificate types would BEST meet the requirements?

A. SAN
B. Wildcard
C. Extended validation
D. Self-signed

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 73
A cybersecurity analyst reviews the log files from a web server and sees a series of files that indicates a
directory-traversal attack has occurred. Which of the following is the analyst MOST likely seeing?

A. [Link]
B. [Link]
C. [Link]
D. [Link]

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 74
A security analyst needs to determine how an attacker was able to use User3 to gain a foothold within a
company’s network. The company’s lockout policy requires that an account be locked out for a minimum of
15 minutes after three unsuccessful attempts. While reviewing the log files, the analyst discovers the
following:

Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred?

A. Dictionary
B. Credential-stuffing
C. Password-spraying
D. Brute-force

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
"Brute force attack in which stolen user account names and passwords are tested against multiple
websites." CompTIA SY0-601 Official Study Guide Page 690 This is a poorly worded question and while
credential stuffing is a type of brute force attack, the information given does not indicate multiple websites.
At best, this looks like a password spraying attack, but it is more likely a brute-force attack. Also note the
output reads "unsername" and not "username" - perhaps irrelevant but the little things can and do matter

QUESTION 75
A security analyst is logged into a Windows file server and needs to see who is accessing files and from
which computers Which of the following tools should the analyst use?

A. netstat
B. net share
C. netcat
D. nbtstat
E. net session

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 76
A Chief Security Office's (CSO's) key priorities are to improve preparation, response, and recovery
practices to minimize system downtime and enhance organizational resilience to ransomware attacks.
Which of the following would BEST meet the CSO's objectives?

A. Use email-filtering software and centralized account management, patch high-risk systems, and restrict
administration privileges on fileshares.
B. Purchase cyber insurance from a reputable provider to reduce expenses during an incident.
C. Invest in end-user awareness training to change the long-term culture and behavior of staff and
executives, reducing the organization's susceptibility to phishing attacks.
D. Implement application whitelisting and centralized event-log management, and perform regular testing
and validation of full backups.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 77
A security manager for a retailer needs to reduce the scope of a project to comply with PCI DSS. The PCI
data is located in different offices than where credit cards are accepted. All the offices are connected via
MPLS back to the primary datacenter. Which of the following should the security manager implement to
achieve the objective?

A. Segmentation
B. Containment
C. Geofencing
D. Isolation

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 78
Which of the following describes the BEST approach for deploying application patches?
A. Apply the patches to systems in a testing environment then to systems in a staging environment, and
finally to production systems.
B. Test the patches in a staging environment, develop against them in the development environment, and
then apply them to the production systems
C. Test the patches m a test environment apply them to the production systems and then apply them to a
staging environment
D. Apply the patches to the production systems apply them in a staging environment, and then test all of
them in a testing environment

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 79
A small company that does not have security staff wants to improve its security posture. Which of the
following would BEST assist the company?

A. MSSP
B. SOAR
C. IaaS
D. PaaS

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 80
Which of the following BEST explains the difference between a data owner and a data custodian?

A. The data owner is responsible for adhering to the rules for using the data, while the data custodian is
responsible for determining the corporate governance regarding the data
B. The data owner is responsible for determining how the data may be used, while the data custodian is
responsible for implementing the protection to the data
C. The data owner is responsible for controlling the data, while the data custodian is responsible for
maintaining the chain of custody when handling the data
D. The data owner grants the technical permissions for data access, while the data custodian maintains
the database access controls to the data

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Data Owner - the administrator/CEO/board/president of a company Data custodian - the ones taking care
of the actual data - like IT staff (generally) or HR staff (for HR-related data)
[Link]
custodian-and-system-owner
[Link]
custodians

QUESTION 81
Which of the following provides the BEST protection for sensitive information and data stored in cloud-
based services but still allows for full functionality and searchability of data within the cloud-based
services?

A. Data encryption
B. Data masking
C. Anonymization
D. Tokenization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 82
Which of the following incident response steps involves actions to protect critical systems while maintaining
business operations?

A. Investigation
B. Containment
C. Recovery
D. Lessons learned

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 83
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned about the organization's ability to continue
business operation in the event of a prolonged DDoS attack on its local datacenter that consumes
database resources. Which of the following will the CISO MOST likely recommend to mitigate this risk?

A. Upgrade the bandwidth available into the datacenter

B. Implement a hot-site failover location
C. Switch to a complete SaaS offering to customers
D. Implement a challenge response test on all end-user queries

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
creating a whole new hot sire just because of DDoS seems extremely expensive. Instead, deploying a
countermeasure like challenge response would mitigate the DDoS. [Link]
ddos-knowledge-center/ddospedia/http- challenge
[Link] ?
t=1487581897757

QUESTION 84
A company is implementing MFA for all applications that store sensitive data. The IT manager wants MFA
to be non-disruptive and user friendly. Which of the following technologies should the IT manager use
when implementing MFA?

A. One-time passwords
B. Email tokens
C. Push notifications
D. Hardware authentication

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 85
Which of the following BEST explains the reason why a server administrator would place a document
named [Link] on the desktop of an administrator account on a server?

A. The document is a honeyfile and is meant to attract the attention of a cyberintruder.

B. The document is a backup file if the system needs to be recovered.
C. The document is a standard file that the OS needs to verify the login credentials.
D. The document is a keylogger that stores all keystrokes should the account be compromised.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 86
A security analyst receives a SIEM alert that someone logged in to the appadmin test account, which is
only used for the early detection of attacks. The security analyst then reviews the following application log:

Which of the following can the security analyst conclude?

A. A replay attack is being conducted against the application.

B. An injection attack is being conducted against a user authentication system.
C. A service account password may have been changed, resulting in continuous failed logins within the
application.
D. A credentialed vulnerability scanner attack is testing several CVEs against the application.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 87
A security assessment determines DES and 3DES at still being used on recently deployed production
servers. Which of the following did the assessment identify?

A. Unsecme protocols
B. Default settings
C. Open permissions
D. Weak encryption

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 88
The Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of an insurance company received an email from Ann, the company's
Chief Executive Officer (CEO), requesting a transfer of $10,000 to an account. The email states Ann is on
vacation and has lost her purse, containing cash and credit cards. Which of the following social-
engineering techniques is the attacker using?

A. Phishing
B. Whaling
C. Typo squatting
D. Pharming

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 89
A security analyst needs to perform periodic vulnerability scans on production systems. Which of the
following scan Types would produce the BEST vulnerability scan report?

A. Port
B. Intrusive
C. Host discovery
D. Credentialed

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 90
A security modern may have occurred on the desktop PC of an organization's Chief Executive Officer
(CEO) A duplicate copy of the CEO's hard drive must be stored securely to ensure appropriate forensic
processes and the chain of custody are followed. Which of the following should be performed to
accomplish this task?

A. Install a new hard drive in the CEO's PC, and then remove the old hard drive and place it in a tamper-
evident bag
B. Connect a write blocker to the hard drive Then leveraging a forensic workstation, utilize the dd
command m a live Linux environment to create a duplicate copy
C. Remove the CEO's hard drive from the PC, connect to the forensic workstation, and copy all the
contents onto a remote fileshare while the CEO watches
D. Refrain from completing a forensic analysts of the CEO's hard drive until after the incident is confirmed,
duplicating the hard drive at this stage could destroy evidence

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
"To obtain a forensically sound image from nonvolatile storage, you need to ensure that nothing you do
alters data or metadata (properties) on the source disk or file system. A write blocker assures this process
by preventing any data on the disk or volume from being changed by filtering write commands at the driver
and OS level. Data acquisition would normally proceed by attaching the target device to a forensics
workstation or field capture device equipped with a write blocker." For purposes of knowing, https://
[Link]/tableau/hardware/details/t8u write blockers like this are the most popular hardware
blockers

QUESTION 91
A security analyst is looking for a solution to help communicate to the leadership team the seventy levels of
the organization's vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST meet this need?

A. CVE
B. SIEM
C. SOAR
D. CVSS

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a system widely used in vulnerability management
programs. CVSS indicates the severity of an information security vulnerability, and is an integral
component of many vulnerability scanning tools.

QUESTION 92
An organization has been experiencing outages during holiday sales and needs to ensure availability of its
point-of-sale systems The IT administrator has been asked to improve both server-data fault tolerance and
site availability under high consumer load Which of the following are the BEST options to accomplish this
objective'? (Select TWO)

A. Load balancing
B. Incremental backups
C. UPS
D. RAID
E. Dual power supply
F. NIC teaming

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 93
An organization is concerned that is hosted web servers are not running the most updated version of the
software. Which of the following would work BEST to help identify potential vulnerabilities?

A. Hping3 -s comptia, org -p 80

B. Nc -1 -v comptia, org -p 80
C. nmp comptia, org -p 80 -aV
D. nslookup -port=80 [Link]

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Nmap is used to discover hosts and services on a computer network by sending packets and analyzing the
responses. Nmap provides a number of features for probing computer networks, including host discovery
and service and operating system detection.

QUESTION 94
A security analyst is investigating an incident that was first reported as an issue connecting to network
shares and the Internet. While reviewing logs and tool output, the analyst sees the following:

Which of the following attacks has occurred?

A. IP conflict
B. Pass-the-hash
C. MAC flooding
D. Directory traversal
E. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: E
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link] poisoning

QUESTION 95
The CSIRT is reviewing the lessons learned from a recent incident. A worm was able to spread unhindered
throughout the network and infect a large number of computers and servers. Which of the following
recommendations would be BEST to mitigate the impacts of a similar incident in the future?

A. Install a NIDS device at the boundary.

B. Segment the network with firewalls.
C. Update all antivirus signatures daily.
D. Implement application blacklisting.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 96
A security administrator suspects there may be unnecessary services running on a server. Which of the
following tools will the administrator MOST likely use to confirm the suspicions?

A. Nmap
B. Wireshark
C. Autopsy
D. DNSEnum

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

NMAP scans running services and can tell you what services are running

QUESTION 97
A recent audit uncovered a key finding regarding the use of a specific encryption standard in a web
application that is used to communicate with business customers. Due to the technical limitations of its
customers the company is unable to upgrade the encryption standard. Which of the following types of
controls should be used to reduce the risk created by this scenario?

A. Physical
B. Detective
C. Preventive
D. Compensating

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 98
A retail executive recently accepted a job with a major competitor. The following week, a security analyst
reviews the security logs and identifies successful logon attempts to access the departed executive's
accounts. Which of the following security practices would have addressed the issue?

A. A non-disclosure agreement
B. Least privilege
C. An acceptable use policy
D. Ofboarding

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 99
Which of the following job roles would sponsor data quality and data entry initiatives that ensure business
and regulatory requirements are met?

A. The data owner

B. The data processor
C. The data steward
D. The data privacy officer.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 100
Which of the following types of controls is a turnstile?

A. Physical
B. Detective
C. Corrective
D. Technical

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 101
After consulting with the Chief Risk Officer (CRO). a manager decides to acquire cybersecurity insurance
for the company Which of the following risk management strategies is the manager adopting?

A. Risk acceptance
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk transference
D. Risk mitigation

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 102
A nuclear plant was the victim of a recent attack, and all the networks were air gapped. A subsequent
investigation revealed a worm as the source of the issue. Which of the following BEST explains what
happened?

A. A malicious USB was introduced by an unsuspecting employee.

B. The ICS firmware was outdated
C. A local machine has a RAT installed.
D. The HVAC was connected to the maintenance vendor.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 103
After entering a username and password, and administrator must gesture on a touch screen. Which of the
following demonstrates what the administrator is providing?

A. Multifactor authentication
B. Something you can do
C. Biometric
D. Two-factor authentication

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 104
An organization has hired a security analyst to perform a penetration test. The analyst captures 1Gb worth
of inbound network traffic to the server and transfer the pcap back to the machine for analysis. Which of
the following tools should the analyst use to further review the pcap?

A. Nmap
B. cURL
C. Netcat
D. Wireshark

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link] guide/#:~:text=Packet%20Capture%20or%20PCAP%20
(also,packet%20data%20from%20 a%20network.

QUESTION 105
A security administrator checks the table of a network switch, which shows the following output:

Which of the following is happening to this switch?

A. MAC Flooding
B. DNS poisoning
C. MAC cloning
D. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 106
The process of passively gathering information poor to launching a cyberattack is called:

A. tailgating
B. reconnaissance
C. pharming
D. prepending

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 107
A company is launching a new internet platform for its clients. The company does not want to implement its
own authorization solution but instead wants to rely on the authorization provided by another platform.
Which of the following is the BEST approach to implement the desired solution?

A. OAuth
B. TACACS+
C. SAML
D. RADIUS

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 108
A user recent an SMS on a mobile phone that asked for bank delays. Which of the following social-
engineering techniques was used in this case?

A. SPIM
B. Vishing
C. Spear phishing
D. Smishing

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 109
Which of the following algorithms has the SMALLEST key size?

A. DES
B. Twofish
C. RSA
D. AES

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 110
An attacker has successfully exfiltrated several non-salted password hashes from an online system. Given
the logs below:

Which of the following BEST describes the type of password attack the attacker is performing?
A. Dictionary
B. Pass-the-hash
C. Brute-force
D. Password spraying

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 111
A security engineer needs to Implement the following requirements:

1. All Layer 2 switches should leverage Active Directory tor authentication.

2. All Layer 2 switches should use local fallback authentication If Active Directory Is offline.
3. All Layer 2 switches are not the same and are manufactured by several vendors.

Which of the following actions should the engineer take to meet these requirements? (Select TWO).

A. Implement RADIUS.
B. Configure AAA on the switch with local login as secondary.
C. Configure port security on the switch with the secondary login method.
D. Implement TACACS+
E. Enable the local firewall on the Active Directory server.
F. Implement a DHCP server.

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 112
A startup company is using multiple SaaS and IaaS platforms to stand up a corporate infrastructure and
build out a customer-facing web application. Which of the following solutions would be BEST to provide
security, manageability, and visibility into the platforms?

A. SIEM
B. DLP
C. CASB
D. SWG

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A cloud access security broker is on-premises or cloud based software that sits between cloud service
users and cloud applications, and monitors all activity and enforces security policies

QUESTION 113
A user is concerned that a web application will not be able to handle unexpected or random input without
crashing. Which of the following BEST describes the type of testing the user should perform?

A. Code signing
B. Fuzzing
C. Manual code review
D. Dynamic code analysis

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 114
A company recently set up an e-commerce portal to sell its product online. The company wants to start
accepting credit cards for payment, which requires compliance with a security standard. Which of the
following standards must the company comply with before accepting credit cards on its e-commerce
platform?

A. PCI DSS
B. ISO 22301
C. ISO 27001
D. NIST CSF

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 115
A security administrator needs to create a RAIS configuration that is focused on high read speeds and fault
tolerance. It is unlikely that multiple drivers will fail simultaneously. Which of the following RAID
configurations should the administration use?

A. RA1D 0
B. RAID1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 116
A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users'
passwords. Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?

A. OAuth
B. SSO
C. SAML
D. PAP

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 117
Which of the following allows for functional test data to be used in new systems for testing and training
purposes to protect the read data?

A. Data encryption
B. Data masking
C. Data deduplication
D. Data minimization

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]
%20a,partial%2 0data%20based%20on%20the%20user%E2%80%99s%20security%20permissions.
The main reason for applying masking to a data field is to protect data that is classified as personally
identifiable information, sensitive personal data, or commercially sensitive data. However, the data must
remain usable for the purposes of undertaking valid test cycles. It must also look real and appear
consistent. It is more common to have masking applied to data that is represented outside of a corporate
production system. In other words, where data is needed for the purpose of application development,
building program extensions and conducting various test cycles

[Link]

QUESTION 118
Which of the following cloud models provides clients with servers, storage, and networks but nothing else?

A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. DaaS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 119
A smart retail business has a local store and a newly established and growing online storefront. A recent
storm caused a power outage to the business and the local ISP, resulting in several hours of lost sales and
delayed order processing.
The business owner now needs to ensure two things:

1. Protection from power outages

2. Always-available connectivity In case of an outage

The owner has decided to implement battery backups for the computer equipment Which of the following
would BEST fulfill the owner's second need?

A. Lease a point-to-point circuit to provide dedicated access.

B. Connect the business router to its own dedicated UPS.
C. Purchase services from a cloud provider for high availability
D. Replace the business's wired network with a wireless network.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 120
An organization needs to implement more stringent controls over administrator/root credentials and service
accounts. Requirements for the project include:

1. Check-in/checkout of credentials
2. The ability to use but not know the password
3. Automated password changes
4. Logging of access to credentials

Which of the following solutions would meet the requirements?

A. OAuth 2.0
B. Secure Enclave
C. A privileged access management system
D. An OpenID Connect authentication system

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 121
A security analyst Is hardening a Linux workstation and must ensure It has public keys forwarded to
remote systems for secure login Which of the following steps should the analyst perform to meet these
requirements? (Select TWO).

A. Forward the keys using ssh-copy-id.

B. Forward the keys using scp.
C. Forward the keys using ash -i.
D. Forward the keys using openssl -s.
E. Forward the keys using ssh-keyger.

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 122
Which of the following will provide the BEST physical security countermeasures to stop intruders? (Select
TWO.)

A. Alarms
B. Signage
C. Lighting
D. Mantraps
E. Fencing
F. Sensors

Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 123
The manager who is responsible for a data set has asked a security engineer to apply encryption to the
data on a hard disk. The security engineer is an example of a:

A. data controller.
B. data owner
C. data custodian.
D. data processor

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 124
An organization's help desk is flooded with phone calls from users stating they can no longer access
certain websites. The help desk escalates the issue to the security team, as these websites were
accessible the previous day. The security analysts run the following command: ipconfig /flushdns, but the
issue persists. Finally, an analyst changes the DNS server for an impacted machine, and the issue goes
away. Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred on the original DNS server?

A. DNS cache poisoning

B. Domain hijacking
C. Distributed denial-of-service
D. DNS tunneling
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 125
An attacker is attempting to exploit users by creating a fake website with the URL users. Which of the
following social-engineering attacks does this describe?

A. Information elicitation
B. Typo squatting
C. Impersonation
D. Watering-hole attack

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 126
A well-known organization has been experiencing attacks from APIs. The organization is concerned that
custom malware is being created and emailed into the company or installed on USB sticks that are
dropped in parking lots. Which of the following is the BEST defense against this scenario?

A. Configuring signature-based antivirus io update every 30 minutes

B. Enforcing S/MIME for email and automatically encrypting USB drives upon insertion.
C. Implementing application execution in a sandbox for unknown software.
D. Fuzzing new files for vulnerabilities if they are not digitally signed

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 127
After reading a security bulletin, a network security manager is concerned that a malicious actor may have
breached the network using the same software flaw. The exploit code is publicly available and has been
reported as being used against other industries in the same vertical. Which of the following should the
network security manager consult FIRST to determine a priority list for forensic review?

A. The vulnerability scan output

B. The IDS logs
C. The full packet capture data
D. The SIEM alerts

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 128
A security analyst receives the configuration of a current VPN profile and notices the authentication is only
applied to the IP datagram portion of the packet. Which of the following should the analyst implement to
authenticate the entire packet?

A. AH
B. ESP
C. SRTP
D. LDAP

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 129
The facilities supervisor for a government agency is concerned about unauthorized access to
environmental systems in the event the staff WiFi network is breached. Which of the blowing would BEST
address this security concern?

A. install a smart meter on the staff WiFi.

B. Place the environmental systems in the same DHCP scope as the staff WiFi.
C. Implement Zigbee on the staff WiFi access points.
D. Segment the staff WiFi network from the environmental systems network.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 130
A startup company is using multiple SaaS and IaaS platform to stand up a corporate infrastructure and
build out a customer-facing web application. Which of the following solutions would be BEST to provide
security, manageability, and visibility into the platforms?

A. SIEM
B. DLP
C. CASB
D. SWG

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Exam B

QUESTION 1
A security analyst needs to make a recommendation for restricting access to certain segments of the
network using only data-link layer security. Which of the following controls will the analyst MOST likely
recommend?

A. MAC
B. ACL
C. BPDU
D. ARP

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
MAC operates at layer 2 which is the data link layer.

QUESTION 2
A network administrator would like to configure a site-to-site VPN utilizing iPSec. The administrator wants
the tunnel to be established with data integrity encryption, authentication and anti- replay functions Which
of the following should the administrator use when configuring the VPN?

A. AH
B. EDR
C. ESP
D. DNSSEC

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is a member of the Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) set of
protocols that encrypt and authenticate the packets of data between computers using a Virtual Private
Network (VPN). The focus and layer on which ESP operates makes it possible for VPNs to function
securely.

QUESTION 3
A network engineer is troubleshooting wireless network connectivity issues that were reported by users.
The issues are occurring only in the section of the building that is closest to the parking lot. Users are
intermittently experiencing slow speeds when accessing websites and are unable to connect to network
drives. The issues appear to increase when laptop users return desks after using their devices in other
areas of the building. There have also been reports of users being required to enter their credentials on
web pages in order to gain access to them. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. An external access point is engaging in an evil-twin attack.

B. The signal on the WAP needs to be increased in that section of the building.
C. The certificates have expired on the devices and need to be reinstalled.
D. The users in that section of the building are on a VLAN that is being blocked by the firewall.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Joe, a user at a company, clicked an email link led to a website that infected his workstation. Joe, was
connected to the network, and the virus spread to the network shares. The protective measures failed to
stop this virus, and It has continues to evade detection. Which of the following should administrator
implement to protect the environment from this malware?

A. Install a definition-based antivirus.

B. Implement an IDS/IPS
C. Implement a heuristic behavior-detection solution.
D. Implement CASB to protect the network shares.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Heuristic analysis is also one of the few methods capable of combating polymorphic viruses -- the term for
malicious code that constantly changes and adapts. Heuristic analysis is incorporated into advanced
security solutions offered by companies like Kaspersky Labs to detect new threats before they cause
harm, without the need for a specific signature. [Link]
heuristic-analysis

QUESTION 5
The following is an administrative control that would be MOST effective to reduce the occurrence of
malware execution?

A. Security awareness training

B. Frequency of NIDS updates
C. Change control procedures
D. EDR reporting cycle

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 6
A cybersecurity manager has scheduled biannual meetings with the IT team and department leaders to
discuss how they would respond to hypothetical cyberattacks. During these meetings, the manager
presents a scenario and injects additional information throughout the session to replicate what might occur
in a dynamic cybersecurity event involving the company, its facilities, its data, and its staff. Which of the
following describes what the manager is doing?

A. Developing an incident response plan

B. Building a disaster recovery plan
C. Conducting a tabletop exercise
D. Running a simulation exercise

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]
to-know

QUESTION 7
A financial organization has adopted a new secure, encrypted document-sharing application to help with its
customer loan process. Some important PII needs to be shared across this new platform, but it is getting
blocked by the DLP systems. Which of the following actions will BEST allow the PII to be shared with the
secure application without compromising the organization's security posture?

A. Configure the DLP policies to allow all PII

B. Configure the firewall to allow all ports that are used by this application
C. Configure the antivirus software to allow the application
D. Configure the DLP policies to whitelist this application with the specific PII
E. Configure the application to encrypt the PII

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 8
An analyst needs to identify the applications a user was running and the files that were open before the
user's computer was shut off by holding down the power button. Which of the following would MOST likely
contain that information?

A. NGFW
B. Pagefile
C. NetFlow
D. RAM

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
A security analyst is configuring a large number of new company-issued laptops. The analyst received the
following requirements:

1. The devices will be used internationally by staff who travel extensively.

2. Occasional personal use is acceptable due to the travel requirements.
3. Users must be able to install and configure sanctioned programs and productivity suites.
4. The devices must be encrypted
5. The devices must be capable of operating in low-bandwidth environments.
Which of the following would provide the GREATEST benefit to the security posture of the devices?

A. Configuring an always-on VPN

B. Implementing application whitelisting
C. Requiring web traffic to pass through the on-premises content filter
D. Setting the antivirus DAT update schedule to weekly

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]
vpn-technology-overview

QUESTION 10
A user recently entered a username and password into a recruiting application website that had been
forged to look like the legitimate site Upon investigation, a security analyst the identifies the following:

1. The legitimate websites IP address is [Link] and eRecruit local resolves to the IP
2. The forged website's IP address appears to be [Link]. based on NetFtow records
3. AH three at the organization's DNS servers show the website correctly resolves to the legitimate IP
4. DNS query logs show one of the three DNS servers returned a result of [Link] (cached) at the
approximate time of the suspected compromise.

Which of the following MOST likely occurred?

A. A reverse proxy was used to redirect network traffic

B. An SSL strip MITM attack was performed
C. An attacker temporarily pawned a name server
D. An ARP poisoning attack was successfully executed

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 11
While checking logs, a security engineer notices a number of end users suddenly downloading files with
the .[Link] extension. Closer examination of the files reveals they are PE32 files. The end users state they
did not initiate any of the downloads. Further investigation reveals the end users all clicked on an external
email containing an infected MHT file with an href link a week prior. Which of the following is MOST likely
occurring?

A. A RAT was installed and is transferring additional exploit tools.

B. The workstations are beaconing to a command-and-control server.
C. A logic bomb was executed and is responsible for the data transfers.
D. A fireless virus is spreading in the local network environment.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 12
A company uses wireless tor all laptops and keeps a very detailed record of its assets, along with a
comprehensive list of devices that are authorized to be on the wireless network. The Chief Information
Officer (CIO) is concerned about a script kiddie potentially using an unauthorized device to brute force the
wireless PSK and obtain access to the internal network. Which of the following should the company
implement to BEST prevent this from occurring?

A. A BPDU guard
B. WPA-EAP
C. IP filtering
D. A WIDS

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
"EAP is in wide use. For example, in IEEE 802.11 (WiFi) the WPA and WPA2 standards have adopted
IEEE 802.1X (with various EAP types) as the canonical authentication mechanism."
[Link]

QUESTION 13
A security engineer has enabled two-factor authentication on all workstations. Which of the following
approaches are the MOST secure? (Select TWO).

A. Password and security question

B. Password and CAPTCHA
C. Password and smart card
D. Password and fingerprint
E. Password and one-time token
F. Password and voice

Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 14
A Chief Executive Officer's (CEO) personal information was stolen in a social engineering attack. Which of
the following sources would reveal if the CEO's personal information is for sale?

A. Automated information sharing

B. Open-source intelligence
C. The dark web
D. Vulnerability databases

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 15
An organization has a growing workforce that is mostly driven by additions to the sales department. Each
newly hired salesperson relies on a mobile device to conduct business. The Chief Information Officer (CIO)
is wondering it the organization may need to scale down just as quickly as it scaled up. The ClO is also
concerned about the organization's security and customer privacy. Which of the following would be BEST
to address the ClO's concerns?

A. Disallow new hires from using mobile devices for six months
B. Select four devices for the sales department to use in a CYOD model
C. Implement BYOD for the sates department while leveraging the MDM
D. Deploy mobile devices using the COPE methodology

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
A workwide manufacturing company has been experiencing email account compromised. In one incident,
a user logged in from the corporate office in France, but then seconds later, the same user account
attempted a login from Brazil.
Which of the following account policies would BEST prevent this type of attack?

A. Network location
B. Impossible travel time
C. Geolocation
D. Geofencing

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 17
A financial analyst is expecting an email containing sensitive information from a client. When the email
arrives, the analyst receives an error and is unable to open the encrypted message. Which of the following
is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The S/MME plug-in is not enabled.

B. The SLL certificate has expired.
C. Secure IMAP was not implemented
D. POP3S is not supported.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
An organization suffered an outage and a critical system took 90 minutes to come back online. Though
there was no data loss during the outage, the expectation was that the critical system would be available
again within 60 minutes Which of the following is the 60- minute expectation an example of:

A. MTBF
B. RPO
C. MTTR
D. RTO

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 19
A security audit has revealed that a process control terminal is vulnerable to malicious users installing and
executing software on the system. The terminal is beyond end-of-life support and cannot be upgraded, so
it is placed on a projected network segment. Which of the following would be MOST effective to implement
to further mitigate the reported vulnerability?

A. DNS sinkholding
B. DLP rules on the terminal
C. An IP blacklist
D. Application whitelisting

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A researcher has been analyzing large data sets for the last ten months. The researcher works with
colleagues from other institutions and typically connects via SSH to retrieve additional data. Historically,
this setup has worked without issue, but the researcher recently started getting the following message:

Which of the following network attacks is the researcher MOST likely experiencing?

A. MAC cloning
B. Evil twin
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
SSH, or Secure Shell, is a very common way to securely access remote machines, typically via the
command line. It aims at ensuring that your connection, and therefore all data passed, is free from
eavesdropping. Because of this, there are quite a few checks built-in to the popular SSH clients, like
OpenSSH, that ensure your connection can't be compromised.
An example of one of these checks is the following, which identifies when the fingerprint of a server has
changed:

$ ssh ec2-user@[Link]
@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
@ WARNING: REMOTE HOST IDENTIFICATION HAS CHANGED! @
@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
IT IS POSSIBLE THAT SOMEONE IS DOING SOMETHING NASTY! Someone could be eavesdropping
on you right now (man-in-the-middle attack)! It is also possible that a host key has just been changed. The
fingerprint for the ECDSA key sent by the remote host is SHA256:hotsxb/qVi1/ycUU2wXF6mfGH+
+Yk7WYZv0r+tIhg4I.
Please contact your system administrator.
Add correct host key in /Users/scott/.ssh/known_hosts to get rid of this message. Offending ECDSA key
in /Users/scott/.ssh/known_hosts:47 ECDSA host key for [Link]
has changed and you have requested strict checking.
Host key verification failed.

When you connect to a server via SSH, it gets a fingerprint for the ECDSA key, which it then saves to your
home directory under ~/.ssh/known_hosts. This is done after first connecting to the server, and will prompt
you with a message like this:

$ ssh ec2-user@[Link] The authenticity of host 'ec2-192-168-1-

[Link] ([Link])' can't be established.
ECDSA key fingerprint is SHA256:hotsxb/qVi1/ycUU2wXF6mfGH++Yk7WYZv0r+tIhg4I. Are you sure you
want to continue connecting (yes/no)?

If you enter 'yes', then the fingerprint is saved to the known_hosts file, which SSH then consults every time
you connect to that server.

But what happens if a server's ECDSA key has changed since you last connected to it? This is alarming
because it could actually mean that you're connecting to a different server without knowing it. If this new
server is malicious then it would be able to view all data sent to and from your connection, which could be
used by whoever set up the server. This is called a man-in-the-middle attack. This scenario is exactly what
the "WARNING: REMOTE HOST IDENTIFICATION HAS CHANGED!" message is trying to warn you
about.

Of course, this isn't always the case, and there are many reasons for the ECDSA key fingerprint to change
for a server. In my case, I had an elastic IP address on AWS and assigned it to a different server after
redeploying our application. The IP address and hostname I was connecting to were the same, but the
underlying server was different, which is what tripped the SSH client to issue this warning.

Fixing the Issue

If you are 100% sure that this was expected behavior and that there is no potential security issue, you'll
need to fix the issue before continuing. The easiest ways I've found to fix this problem is the following two
solutions.
Manually Resolve via known_hosts
In the warning message find the line that tells you where the offending ECDSA key is located in the
known_hosts file. In my example this line said "Offending ECDSA key in /Users/scott/.ssh/
known_hosts:47", which refers to line 47. Open the known_hosts file specified in the warning message
Delete the line specified in the warning message By deleting this line, your SSH client won't have an
ECDSA key fingerprint to compare to, and thus will ask you again to verify the authenticity of the server the
next time you connect. Once done, you'll have a new fingerprint in our known_hosts file for this server, and
the warning will be gone.
Resolve Using ssh-keygen
Another solution would be to use the ssh-keygen utility to delete the offending key from your known_hosts
file, which can be done with the following command:

$ ssh-keygen -R [hostname-or-IP]
So in my example I'd use it like this:

$ ssh-keygen -R [Link]

This method is good if you don't want to manually alter the known_hosts file yourself, and the utility is
easier to use if you have multiple hostnames and IP addresses to fix. It can also handle hashed hostnames
in a known_hosts.old file.

QUESTION 21
Which of the following scenarios would make a DNS sinkhole effective in thwarting an attack?

A. An attacker is sniffing traffic to port 53, and the server is managed using unencrypted usernames and
passwords.
B. An organization is experiencing excessive traffic on port 53 and suspects an attacker is trying to DoS
the domain name server.
C. Malware trying to resolve an unregistered domain name to determine if it is running in an isolated
sandbox
D. Routing tables have been compromised, and an attacker is rerouting traffic to malicious websites

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
An organization is developing a plan in the event of a complete loss of critical systems and data. Which of
the following plans is the organization MOST likely developing?

A. Incident response
B. Communications
C. Disaster recovery
D. Data retention

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 23
A security analyst is investigating an incident to determine what an attacker was able to do on a
compromised laptop. The analyst reviews the following SIEM log:
Which of the following describes the method that was used to compromise the laptop?

A. An attacker was able to move laterally from PC1 to PC2 using a pass-the-hash attack
B. An attacker was able to bypass application whitelisting by emailing a spreadsheet attachment with an
embedded PowerShell in the file
C. An attacker was able to install malware to the CAasdf234 folder and use it to gam administrator nights
and launch Outlook
D. An attacker was able to phish user credentials successfully from an Outlook user profile

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Local guidelines require that all information systems meet a minimum-security baseline to be compliant.
Which of the following can security administrators use to assess their system configurations against the
baseline?

A. SOAR playbook
B. Security control matrix
C. Risk management framework
D. Benchmarks

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 25
A company is designing the layout of a new datacenter so it will have an optimal environmental
temperature Which of the following must be included? (Select TWO)

A. An air gap
B. A cold aisle
C. Removable doors
D. A hot aisle
E. An loT thermostat
F. A humidity monitor

Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 26
A document that appears to be malicious has been discovered in an email that was sent to a company's
Chief Financial Officer (CFO). Which of the following would be BEST to allow a security analyst to gather
information and confirm it is a malicious document without executing any code it may contain?

A. Open the document on an air-gapped network

B. View the document's metadata for origin clues
C. Search for matching file hashes on malware websites
D. Detonate the document in an analysis sandbox

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 27
A recent malware outbreak across a subnet included successful rootkit installations on many PCs,
ensuring persistence by rendering remediation efforts ineffective. Which of the following would BEST
detect the presence of a rootkit in the future?

A. FDE
B. NIDS
C. EDR
D. DLP

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 28
A security analyst is reviewing information regarding recent vulnerabilities. Which of the following will the
analyst MOST likely consult to validate which platforms have been affected?

A. OSINT
B. SIEM
C. CVSS
D. CVE

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
CVE entries are brief. They don't include technical data, or information about risks, impacts, and fixes.
Those details appear in other databases, including the U.S. National Vulnerability Database (NVD), the
CERT/CC Vulnerability Notes Database, and various lists maintained by vendors and other organizations.
Across these different systems, CVE IDs give users a reliable way to tell one unique security flaw from
another.

QUESTION 29
A public relations team will be taking a group of guest on a tour through the facility of a large e-commerce
company. The day before the tour, the company sends out an email to employees to ensure all whiteboars
are cleaned and all desks are cleared. The company is MOST likely trying to protect against.

A. Loss of proprietary information

B. Damage to the company's reputation
C. Social engineering
D. Credential exposure

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
In the context of information security, social engineering is the psychological manipulation of people into
performing actions or divulging confidential information think phishing, spoofing. That is not being
demonstrated in this question. The company is protecting themselves from loss of proprietary information
by clearing it all out. so that if anyone in the tour is looking to take it they will be out of luck

QUESTION 30
A privileged user at a company stole several proprietary documents from a server. The user also went into
the log files and deleted all records of the incident. The systems administrator has Just informed
investigators that other log files are available for review. Which of the following did the administrator MOST
likely configure that will assist the investigators?

A. Memory dumps
B. The syslog server
C. The application logs
D. The log retention policy

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 31
An organization hired a consultant to assist with an active attack, and the consultant was able to identify
the compromised accounts and computers. Which of the following is the consultant MOST likely to
recommend to prepare for eradication?

A. Quarantining the compromised accounts and computers, only providing them with network access
B. Segmenting the compromised accounts and computers into a honeynet so as to not alert the attackers.
C. Isolating the compromised accounts and computers, cutting off all network and internet access.
D. Logging off and deleting the compromised accounts and computers to eliminate attacker access.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 32
In which of the following risk management strategies would cybersecurity insurance be used?

A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Acceptance
D. Mitigation

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Which of the following disaster recovery tests is The LEAST time-consuming for the disaster recovery
team?

A. Tabletop
B. Parallel
C. Full interruption
D. Simulation

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
A company is adopting a BYOD policy and is looking for a comprehensive solution to protect company
information on user devices. Which of the following solutions would BEST support the policy?

A. Mobile device management

B. Full-device encryption
C. Remote wipe
D. Biometrics

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 35
A symmetric encryption algorithm Is BEST suited for:

A. key-exchange scalability.
B. protecting large amounts of data.
C. providing hashing capabilities,
D. implementing non-repudiation.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 36
A company needs to centralize its logs to create a baseline and have visibility on its security events. Which
of the following technologies will accomplish this objective?

A. Security information and event management

B. A web application firewall
C. A vulnerability scanner
D. A next-generation firewall

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 37
Which of the following are requirements that must be configured for PCI DSS compliance? (Select TWO).

A. Testing security systems and processes regularly

B. Installing and maintaining a web proxy to protect cardholder data
C. Assigning a unique ID to each person with computer access
D. Encrypting transmission of cardholder data across private networks
E. Benchmarking security awareness training for contractors
F. Using vendor-supplied default passwords for system passwords

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 38
Which of the following policies would help an organization identify and mitigate potential single points of
failure in the company's IT/security operations?

A. Least privilege
B. Awareness training
C. Separation of duties
D. Mandatory vacation

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Separation of duties - is a means of establishing checks and balances against the possibility that critical
system or procedures can be compromised by insider threats. Duties and responsibilities should be
divided among individuals to prevent ethical conflicts or abuse of powers.

QUESTION 39
Which of the following describes the ability of code to target a hypervisor from inside

A. Fog computing
B. VM escape
C. Software-defined networking
D. Image forgery
E. Container breakout

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Virtual machine escape is an exploit in which the attacker runs code on a VM that allows an operating
system running within it to break out and interact directly with the hypervisor.

[Link]
20is%20an,VMs)%20running%20on%20t hat%20host.

QUESTION 40
Which of the following would be BEST to establish between organizations to define the responsibilities of
each party outline the key deliverables and include monetary penalties for breaches to manage third-party
risk?

A. An ARO
B. An MOU
C. An SLA
D. A BPA

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Most SLA include a monetary penalty if the vendor is unable to meet the agreed-upon expectations

QUESTION 41
An analyst visits an Internet forum looking for information about a tool. The analyst finds a thread that
appears to contain relevant information. One of the posts says the following:

Which of the following BEST describes the attack that was attempted against the forum readers?

A. SOU attack
B. DLL attack
C. XSS attack
D. API attack

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Cross-site scripting attacks may occur anywhere that possibly malicious users are allowed to post
unregulated material to a trusted website for the consumption of other valid users. The most common
example can be found in bulletin-board websites which provide web based mailing list-style functionality.

[Link]
[Link]

QUESTION 42
Which of the following should be put in place when negotiating with a new vendor about the timeliness of
the response to a significant outage or incident?

A. MOU
B. MTTR
C. SLA
D. NDA

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Service level agreement (SLA). An SLA is an agreement between a company and a vendor that stipulates
performance expectations, such as minimum uptime and maximum downtime levels.

QUESTION 43
An analyst has determined that a server was not patched and an external actor exfiltrated data on port
139. Which of the following sources should the analyst review to BEST ascertain how the Incident could
have been prevented?

A. The vulnerability scan output

B. The security logs
C. The baseline report
D. The correlation of events

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
A company processes highly sensitive data and senior management wants to protect the sensitive data by
utilizing classification labels. Which of the following access control schemes would be BEST for the
company to implement?

A. Discretionary
B. Rule-based
C. Role-based
D. Mandatory

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 45
A large industrial system's smart generator monitors the system status and sends alerts to third-party
maintenance personnel when critical failures occur. While reviewing the network logs the company's
security manager notices the generator's IP is sending packets to an internal file server's IP. Which of the
following mitigations would be BEST for the security manager to implement while maintaining alerting
capabilities?

A. Segmentation
B. Firewall whitelisting
C. Containment
D. isolation

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 46
The SOC is reviewing process and procedures after a recent incident. The review indicates it took more
than 30 minutes to determine that quarantining an infected host was the best course of action. The allowed
the malware to spread to additional hosts before it was contained. Which of the following would be BEST
to improve the incident response process?

A. Updating the playbooks with better decision points

B. Dividing the network into trusted and untrusted zones
C. Providing additional end-user training on acceptable use
D. Implementing manual quarantining of infected hosts

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 47
Which of the following BEST describes a security exploit for which a vendor patch is not readily available?

A. Integer overflow
B. Zero-day
C. End of life
D. Race condition

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 48
A consultant is configuring a vulnerability scanner for a large, global organization in multiple countries. The
consultant will be using a service account to scan systems with administrative privileges on a weekly basis,
but there is a concern that hackers could gain access to account to the account and pivot through the
global network. Which of the following would be BEST to help mitigate this concern?

A. Create consultant accounts for each region, each configured with push MFA notifications.
B. Create one global administrator account and enforce Kerberos authentication
C. Create different accounts for each region. limit their logon times, and alert on risky logins
D. Create a guest account for each region. remember the last ten passwords, and block password reuse

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 49
During an incident response, a security analyst observes the following log entry on the web server:

Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack the analyst is experiencing?

A. SQL injection
B. Cross-site scripting
C. Pass-the-hash
D. Directory traversal

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of an organization would like staff members to have the flexibility to
work from home anytime during business hours, incident during a pandemic or crisis, However, the CEO is
concerned that some staff members may take advantage of the of the flexibility and work from high-risk
countries while on holidays work to a third-party organization in another country. The Chief information
Officer (CIO) believes the company can implement some basic to mitigate the majority of the risk. Which of
the following would be BEST to mitigate CEO's concern? (Select TWO).

A. Geolocation
B. Time-of-day restrictions
C. Certificates
D. Tokens
E. Geotagging
F. Role-based access controls

Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 51
A host was infected with malware. During the incident response, Joe, a user, reported that he did not
receive any emails with links, but he had been browsing the Internet all day. Which of the following would
MOST likely show where the malware originated?

A. The DNS logs

B. The web server logs
C. The SIP traffic logs
D. The SNMP logs

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 52
An organization with a low tolerance for user inconvenience wants to protect laptop hard drives against
loss or data theft. Which of the following would be the MOST acceptable?

A. SED
B. HSM
C. DLP
D. TPM

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 53
A network engineer needs to build a solution that will allow guests at the company's headquarters to
access the Internet via WiFi. This solution should not allow access to the internal corporate network, but it
should require guests to sign off on the acceptable use policy before accessing the Internet. Which of the
following should the engineer employ to meet these requirements?

A. Implement open PSK on the APs

B. Deploy a WAF
C. Configure WIPS on the APs
D. Install a captive portal

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 54
Which of the following types of controls is a CCTV camera that is not being monitored?

A. Detective
B. Deterrent
C. Physical
D. Preventive

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 55
An engineer wants to access sensitive data from a corporate-owned mobile device. Personal data is not
allowed on the device. Which of the following MDM configurations must be considered when the engineer
travels for business?

A. Screen locks
B. Application management
C. Geofencing
D. Containerization

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56
A security analyst reviews the datacenter access logs for a fingerprint scanner and notices an abundance
of errors that correlate with users' reports of issues accessing the facility. Which of the following MOST
likely the cause of the cause of the access issues?

A. False rejection
B. Cross-over error rate
C. Efficacy rale
D. Attestation

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
where a legitimate user is not recognized. This is also referred to as a Type I error or false non-match rate
(FNMR). FRR is measured as a percentage.

QUESTION 57
A cybersecurity administrator has a reduced team and needs to operate an on-premises network and
security infrastructure efficiently. To help with the situation, the administrator decides to hire a service
provider. Which of the following should the administrator use?

A. SDP
B. AAA
C. IaaS
D. MSSP
E. Microservices

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 58
Under GDPR, which of the following is MOST responsible for the protection of privacy and website user
rights?

A. The data protection officer

B. The data processor
C. The data owner
D. The data controller

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 59
An organization just experienced a major cyberattack modem. The attack was well coordinated
sophisticated and highly skilled. Which of the following targeted the organization?

A. Shadow IT
B. An insider threat
C. A hacktivist
D. An advanced persistent threat

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]
glossary/term/advanced_persistent_threat

QUESTION 60
Given the following logs:

Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that is occurring?

A. Rainbow table
B. Dictionary
C. Password spraying
D. Pass-the-hash

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 61
In which of the following situations would it be BEST to use a detective control type for mitigation?

A. A company implemented a network load balancer to ensure 99.999% availability of its web application.
B. A company designed a backup solution to increase the chances of restoring services in case of a
natural disaster.
C. A company purchased an application-level firewall to isolate traffic between the accounting department
and the information technology department.
D. A company purchased an IPS system, but after reviewing the requirements, the appliance was
supposed to monitor, not block, any traffic.
E. A company purchased liability insurance for flood protection on all capital assets.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 62
A security administrator suspects an employee has been emailing proprietary information to a competitor.
Company policy requires the administrator to capture an exact copy of the employee's hard disk. Which of
the following should the administrator use?

A. dd
B. chmod
C. dnsenum
D. logger

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 63
Company engineers regularly participate in a public Internet forum with other engineers throughout the
industry. Which of the following tactics would an attacker MOST likely use in this scenario?

A. Watering-hole attack
B. Credential harvesting
C. Hybrid warfare
D. Pharming

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 64
Which of the following would be the BEST method for creating a detailed diagram of wireless access points
and hot-spots?

A. Footprinting
B. White-box testing
C. A drone/UAV
D. Pivoting

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 65
Which of the following is the purpose of a risk register?

A. To define the level or risk using probability and likelihood

B. To register the risk with the required regulatory agencies
C. To identify the risk, the risk owner, and the risk measures
D. To formally log the type of risk mitigation strategy the organization is using

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The Risk Register displays a list of all risks recorded and displays various risk details, including the
residual risk level, risk source, risk owner, risk stage, and the treatment status of the risk. https://
[Link]/security/110450

QUESTION 66
A university with remote campuses, which all use different service providers, loses Internet connectivity
across all locations. After a few minutes, Internet and VoIP services are restored, only to go offline again at
random intervals, typically within four minutes of services being restored. Outages continue throughout the
day, impacting all inbound and outbound connections and services. Services that are limited to the local
LAN or WiFi network are not impacted, but all WAN and VoIP services are affected.

Later that day, the edge-router manufacturer releases a CVE outlining the ability of an attacker to exploit
the SIP protocol handling on devices, leading to resource exhaustion and system reloads. Which of the
following BEST describe this type of attack? (Choose two.)

A. DoS
B. SSL stripping
C. Memory leak
D. Race condition
E. Shimming
F. Refactoring

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
"According to its self-reported version, the Cisco IOS software running on the remote device is affected by
a denial of service vulnerability in the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) gateway implementation due to
improper handling of malformed SIP messages. An unauthenticated, remote attacker can exploit this, via
crafted SIP messages, to cause memory leakage, resulting in an eventual reload of the affected device."

QUESTION 67
A security analyst is reviewing a new website that will soon be made publicly available. The analyst sees
the following in the URL:

[Link]

The analyst then sends an internal user a link to the new website for testing purposes, and when the user
clicks the link, the analyst is able to browse the website with the following URL:

[Link]

Which of the following application attacks is being tested?

A. Pass-the-hash
B. Session replay
C. Object deference
D. Cross-site request forgery

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 68
Which of the following refers to applications and systems that are used within an organization without
consent or approval?

A. Shadow IT
B. OSINT
C. Dark web
D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 69
A security analyst is performing a packet capture on a series of SOAP HTTP requests for a security
assessment. The analyst redirects the output to a file After the capture is complete, the analyst needs to
review the first transactions quickly and then search the entire series of requests for a particular string
Which of the following would be BEST to use to accomplish the task? (Select TWO).

A. head
B. Tcpdump
C. grep
D. rail
E. curl
F. openssi
G. dd

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A - "analyst needs to review the first transactions quickly" C - "search the entire series of requests for a
particular string"

QUESTION 70
Which of the following relets to applications and systems that are used within an organization without
consent or approval?

A. Shadow IT
B. OSINT
C. Dark web
D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 71
Which of the following would BEST identify and remediate a data-loss event in an enterprise using third-
party, web-based services and file-sharing platforms?

A. SIEM
B. CASB
C. UTM
D. DLP

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A Cloud access security broker, or CASB, is cloud-hosted software or on-premises software or hardware
that act as an intermediary between users and cloud service providers.

QUESTION 72
A company's Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently warned the security manager that the
company's Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is planning to publish a controversial option article in a national
newspaper, which may result in new cyberattacks Which of the following would be BEST for the security
manager to use in a threat mode?

A. Hacktivists
B. White-hat hackers
C. Script kiddies
D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Hacktivists - "a person who gains unauthorized access to computer files or networks in order to further
social or political ends."

QUESTION 73
A security analyst is reviewing the following attack log output:

Which of the following types of attacks does this MOST likely represent?

A. Rainbow table
B. Brute-force
C. Password-spraying
D. Dictionary

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Password spraying is a type of brute-force attack in which a malicious actor uses a single password
against targeted user accounts before moving on to attempt a second password, and so on. This
technique allows the actor to remain undetected by avoiding rapid or frequent account lockouts.

[Link]
attacks#:~:text=Password%20spraying%20is%20a%20type,rapid%20or%20frequent%20a ccount%
20lockouts.

QUESTION 74
A security analyst is preparing a threat for an upcoming internal penetration test. The analyst needs to
identify a method for determining the tactics, techniques, and procedures of a threat against the
organization's network. Which of the following will the analyst MOST likely use to accomplish the
objective?

A. A table exercise
B. NST CSF
C. MTRE ATT$CK
D. OWASP

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
A root cause analysis reveals that a web application outage was caused by one of the company's
developers uploading a newer version of the third-party libraries that were shared among several
applications. Which of the following implementations would be BEST to prevent the issue from
reoccurring?

A. CASB
B. SWG
C. Containerization
D. Automated failover

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Containerization is defined as a form of operating system virtualization, through which applications are run
in isolated user spaces called containers, all using the same shared operating system (OS).

QUESTION 76
A technician needs to prevent data loss in a laboratory. The laboratory is not connected to any external
networks. Which of the following methods would BEST prevent data? (Select TWO)

A. VPN
B. Drive encryption
C. Network firewall
D. File-level encryption
E. USB blocker
F. MFA

Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 77
A network engineer notices the VPN concentrator overloaded and crashes on days when there are a lot of
remote workers. Senior management has placed greater importance on the availability of VPN resources
for the remote workers than the security of the end users' traffic. Which of the following would be BEST to
solve this issue?

A. iPSec
B. Always On
C. Split tunneling
D. L2TP

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 78
The Chief Security Officer (CSO) at a major hospital wants to implement SSO to help improve in the
environment patient data, particularly at shared terminals. The Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is concerned that
training and guidance have been provided to frontline staff, and a risk analysis has not been performed.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the CRO's concerns?

A. SSO would simplify username and password management, making it easier for hackers to pass guess
accounts.
B. SSO would reduce password fatigue, but staff would still need to remember more complex passwords.
C. SSO would reduce the password complexity for frontline staff.
D. SSO would reduce the resilience and availability of system if the provider goes offline.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 79
An organization has decided to host its web application and database in the cloud Which of the following
BEST describes the security concerns for this decision?

A. Access to the organization's servers could be exposed to other cloud-provider clients

B. The cloud vendor is a new attack vector within the supply chain
C. Outsourcing the code development adds risk to the cloud provider
D. Vendor support will cease when the hosting platforms reach EOL.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Supply chain attacks piggyback legitimate processes to gain uninhibited access into a business's
ecosystem. This attack begins with infiltrating a vendor's security defences. This process is usually much
simpler than attacking a victim directly due to the unfortunate myopic cybersecurity practices of many
vendors.26 May 2021

[Link]
20and%20increasingly%20common,piece%20of%20sof tware%20or%20hardware.
[Link]

QUESTION 80
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) needs to create a policy set that meets international standards
for data privacy and sharing. Which of the following should the CISO read and understand before writing
the policies?

A. PCI DSS
B. GDPR
C. NIST
D. ISO 31000

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
GDPR is an international standard for data protection and privacy.

QUESTION 81
Which of the following are the MOST likely vectors for the unauthorized inclusion of vulnerable code in a
software company's final software releases? (Select TWO.)

A. Unsecure protocols
B. Use of penetration-testing utilities
C. Weak passwords
D. Included third-party libraries
E. Vendors/supply chain
F. Outdated anti-malware software

Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 82
A security analyst sees the following log output while reviewing web logs:

Which of the following mitigation strategies would be BEST to prevent this attack from being successful?

A. Secure cookies
B. Input validation
C. Code signing
D. Stored procedures

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 83
A security analyst has received an alert about being sent via email. The analyst's Chief information
Security Officer (CISO) has made it clear that PII must be handle with extreme care From which of the
following did the alert MOST likely originate?

A. S/MIME
B. DLP
C. IMAP
D. HIDS

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Network-based DLP monitors outgoing data looking for sensitive data. Network-based DLP systems
monitor outgoing email to detect and block unauthorized data transfers and monitor data stored in the
cloud.

QUESTION 84
A company's bank has reported that multiple corporate credit cards have been stolen over the past several
weeks. The bank has provided the names of the affected cardholders to the company's forensics team to
assist in the cyber-incident investigation.

An incident responder learns the following information:

The timeline of stolen card numbers corresponds closely with affected users making Internet-based
purchases from diverse websites via enterprise desktop PCs. All purchase connections were encrypted,
and the company uses an SSL inspection proxy for the inspection of encrypted traffic of the hardwired
network. Purchases made with corporate cards over the corporate guest WiFi network, where no SSL
inspection occurs, were unaffected.

Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause?

A. HTTPS sessions are being downgraded to insecure cipher suites

B. The SSL inspection proxy is feeding events to a compromised SIEM
C. The payment providers are insecurely processing credit card charges
D. The adversary has not yet established a presence on the guest WiFi network
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 85
A security analyst is performing a forensic investigation compromised account credentials. Using the Event
Viewer, the analyst able to detect the following message, `'Special privileges assigned to new login.''
Several of these messages did not have a valid logon associated with the user before these privileges
were assigned. Which of the following attacks is MOST likely being detected?

A. Pass-the-hash
B. Buffer overflow
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Session replay

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 86
An analyst needs to set up a method for securely transferring files between systems. One of the
requirements is to authenticate the IP header and the payload. Which of the following services would
BEST meet the criteria?

A. TLS
B. PFS
C. ESP
D. AH

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 87
A cybersecurity administrator is using iptables as an enterprise firewall. The administrator created some
rules, but the network now seems to be unresponsive All connections are being dropped by the firewall.
Which of the following would be the BEST option to remove the rules?

A. # iptables -t mangle -X
B. # iptables -F
C. # iptables -Z
D. # iptables -P INPUT -j DROP

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 88
An organization that is located in a flood zone is MOST likely to document the concerns associated with
the restoration of IT operation in a:

A. business continuity plan

B. communications plan.
C. disaster recovery plan.
D. continuity of operations plan
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 89
A network administrator has been asked to design a solution to improve a company's security posture The
administrator is given the following, requirements?

1. The solution must be inline in the network

2. The solution must be able to block known malicious traffic
3. The solution must be able to stop network-based attacks

Which of the following should the network administrator implement to BEST meet these requirements?

A. HIDS
B. NIDS
C. HIPS
D. NIPS

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 90
A forensics examiner is attempting to dump password cached in the physical memory of a live system but
keeps receiving an error message. Which of the following BEST describes the cause of the error?

A. The examiner does not have administrative privileges to the system

B. The system must be taken offline before a snapshot can be created
C. Checksum mismatches are invalidating the disk image
D. The swap file needs to be unlocked before it can be accessed

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 91
An organization blocks user access to command-line interpreters but hackers still managed to invoke the
interpreters using native administrative tools Which of the following should the security team do to prevent
this from Happening in the future?

A. Implement HIPS to block Inbound and outbound SMB ports 139 and 445.
B. Trigger a SIEM alert whenever the native OS tools are executed by the user
C. Disable the built-in OS utilities as long as they are not needed for functionality.
D. Configure the AV to quarantine the native OS tools whenever they are executed

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 92
A cybersecurity administrator needs to add disk redundancy for a critical server. The solution must have a
two- drive failure for better fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator
select?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 6

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 93
A security analyst needs to produce a document that details how a security incident occurred, the steps
that were taken for recovery, and how future incidents can be avoided. During which of the following
stages of the response process will this activity take place?

A. Recovery
B. Identification
C. Lessons learned
D. Preparation

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 94
An organization's RPO for a critical system is two hours. The system is used Monday through Friday, from
9:00 am to 5:00 pm. Currently, the organization performs a full backup every Saturday that takes four
hours to complete. Which of the following additional backup implementations would be the BEST way for
the analyst to meet the business requirements?

A. Incremental backups Monday through Friday at 6:00 p.m and differential backups hourly
B. Full backups Monday through Friday at 6:00 p.m and incremental backups hourly.
C. incremental backups Monday through Friday at 6:00 p.m and full backups hourly.
D. Full backups Monday through Friday at 6:00 p.m and differential backups hourly.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 95
A technician needs to prevent data loss in a laboratory. The laboratory is not connected to any external
networks. Which of the following methods would BEST prevent the exfiltration of data? (Select TWO).

A. VPN
B. Drive encryption
C. Network firewall
D. File level encryption
E. USB blocker
F. MFA

Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 96
A network engineer needs to create a plan for upgrading the wireless infrastructure in a large office Priority
must be given to areas that are currently experiencing latency and connection issues. Which of the
following would be the BEST resource for determining the order of priority?

A. Nmapn
B. Heat maps
C. Network diagrams
D. Wireshark

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
engineer needs to create a plan for upgrading the wireless infrastructure in a large office. Priority must be
given to areas that are currently. Site surveys and heat maps provide the following benefits: Identify trouble
areas to help eliminate slows speeds and poor performance

QUESTION 97
A user reports constant lag and performance issues with the wireless network when working at a local
coffee shop. A security analyst walks the user through an installation of Wireshark and get a five-minute
pcap to analyze. The analyst observes the following output:

Which of the following attacks does the analyst MOST likely see in this packet capture?

A. Session replay
B. Evil twin
C. Bluejacking
D. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

One of the main purposes of deauthentication used in the hacking community is to force clients to connect
to an evil twin access point which then can be used to capture network packets transferred between the
client and the access point.

QUESTION 98
Which of the following would be the BEST resource lor a software developer who is looking to improve
secure coding practices for web applications?

A. OWASP
B. Vulnerability scan results
C. NIST CSF
D. Third-party libraries

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 99
A security engineer is reviewing log files after a third discovered usernames and passwords for the
organization's accounts. The engineer sees there was a change in the IP address for a vendor website one
earlier. This change lasted eight hours. Which of the following attacks was MOST likely used?
A. Man-in- the middle
B. Spear-phishing
C. Evil twin
D. DNS poising

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
DNS spoofing, also referred to as DNS cache poisoning, is a form of computer security hacking in which
corrupt Domain Name System data is introduced into the DNS resolver's cache, causing the name server
to return an incorrect result record, e.g. an IP address. This results in traffic being diverted to the attacker's
computer (or any other computer).

[Link]

QUESTION 100
A security analyst has been asked to investigate a situation after the SOC started to receive alerts from the
SIEM. The analyst first looks at the domain controller and finds the following events:

To better understand what is going on, the analyst runs a command and receives the following output:

Based on the analyst's findings, which of the following attacks is being executed?

A. Credential harvesting
B. Keylogger
C. Brute-force
D. Spraying

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
If a user tries to authenticate with a wrong password, the domain controller who handles the authentication
request will increment an attribute called badPwdCount. As you can see in the image, the badpwdcount
attribute for the user states that many passwords were used to try to log in without success. Password
spraying is an attack that attempts to access a large number of accounts (usernames) with a few
commonly used passwords. [Link]
what-to-do-and-how-to-avoid-it
[Link]

QUESTION 101
An attacker is exploiting a vulnerability that does not have a patch available. Which of the following is the
attacker exploiting?

A. Zero-day
B. Default permissions
C. Weak encryption
D. Unsecure root accounts

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 102
A security analyst is using a recently released security advisory to review historical logs, looking for the
specific activity that was outlined in the advisory. Which of the following is the analyst doing?

A. A packet capture
B. A user behavior analysis
C. Threat hunting
D. Credentialed vulnerability scanning

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]
20professionals%20who%20proactively %20find,that%20might%20evade%20the%20security%
20operations%20center%20%28S OC%29.

QUESTION 103
A security analyst needs to generate a server certificate to be used for 802.1X and secure RDP
connections. The analyst is unsure what is required to perform the task and solicits help from a senior
colleague. Which of the following is the FIRST step the senior colleague will most likely tell the analyst to
perform to accomplish this task?

A. Create an OCSP
B. Generate a CSR
C. Create a CRL
D. Generate a .pfx file

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 104
A forensics investigator is examining a number of unauthorized payments that were reported on the
00mpany's website. Some unusual log entries show users received an email for an unwanted mailing list
and clicked on a link to attempt to unsubscribe. One of the users reported the email to the phishing team,
and the forwarded email revealed the link to be:
Which of the following will the forensics investigator MOST likely determine has occurred?

A. SQL injection
B. CSRF
C. XSS
D. XSRF

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 105
A security engineer needs to enhance MFA access to sensitive areas in a building. A key card and
fingerprint scan are already in use. Which of the following would add another factor of authentication?

A. Hard token
B. Retina scan
C. SMS text
D. Keypad PIN

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 106
A security analyst is reviewing logs on a server and observes the following output:

Which of the following is the security analyst observing?

A. A rainbow table attack

B. A password-spraying attack
C. A dictionary attack
D. A keylogger attack

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 107
An employee has been charged with fraud and is suspected of using corporate assets. As authorities
collect evidence, and to preserve the admissibility of the evidence, which of the following forensic
techniques should be used?

A. Order of volatility
B. Data recovery
C. Chain of custody
D. Non-repudiation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 108
A website developer is working on a new e-commerce website and has asked an information security
expert for the most appropriate way to store credit card numbers to create an easy reordering process.
Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this goal?

A. Salting the magnetic strip information

B. Encrypting the credit card information in transit.
C. Hashing the credit card numbers upon entry.
D. Tokenizing the credit cards in the database

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 109
An enterprise has hired an outside security firm to conduct penetration testing on its network and
applications. The firm has only been given the documentation available to the customers of the
applications. Which of the following BEST represents the type of testing that will occur?

A. Bug bounty
B. Black-box
C. Gray-box
D. White-box
E. Red-team

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
White box penetration testing, sometimes referred to as crystal or oblique box pen testing, involves sharing
full network and system information with the tester, including network maps and credentials. This helps to
save time and reduce the overall cost of an engagement

[Link] black-box-and-everything-in-
between/#:~:text=White%20box%20penetration%20testing%2C%20sometimes,including% 20network%
20maps%20and%20credentials.

QUESTION 110
Users at organization have been installing programs from the internet on their workstations without first
proper authorization. The organization maintains a portal from which users can install standardized
programs. However, some users have administrative access on their workstations to enable legacy
programs to function property. Which of the following should the security administrator consider
implementing to address this issue?

A. Application code signing

B. Application whitellsting
C. Data loss prevention
D. Web application firewalls

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Application whitelisting is the practice of specifying an index of approved software applications or
executable files that are permitted to be present and active on a computer system. The goal of whitelisting
is to protect computers and networks from potentially harmful applications. In general, a whitelist is an
index of approved entities. In information security (infosec), whitelisting works best in centrally managed
environments, where systems are subject to a consistent workload. [Link]
definition/application-whitelisting

QUESTION 111
To secure an application after a large data breach, an e-commerce site will be resetting all users'
credentials. Which of the following will BEST ensure the site's users are not compromised after the reset?

A. A password reuse policy

B. Account lockout after three failed attempts
C. Encrypted credentials in transit
D. A geofencing policy based on login history

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 112
A large enterprise has moved all Hs data to the cloud behind strong authentication and encryption A sales
director recently had a laptop stolen and later, enterprise data was round to have been compromised
database. Which of the following was the MOST likely cause?

A. Shadow IT
B. Credential stuffing
C. SQL injection
D. Man-in-the-browser
E. Bluejacking

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 113
An incident response technician collected a mobile device during an investigation. Which of the following
should the technician do to maintain chain of custody?

A. Document the collection and require a sign-off when possession changes.

B. Lock the device in a safe or other secure location to prevent theft or alteration.
C. Place the device in a Faraday cage to prevent corruption of the data.
D. Record the collection in a blockchain-protected public ledger.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 114
The website [Link] requires users to provide personal Information, Including security
question responses, for registration. Which of the following would MOST likely cause a data breach?

A. Lack of input validation

B. Open permissions
C. Unsecure protocol
D. Missing patches

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
A company has drafted an insider-threat policy that prohibits the use of external storage devices. Which of
the following would BEST protect the company from data exfiltration via removable media?

A. Monitoring large data transfer transactions in the firewall logs

B. Developing mandatory training to educate employees about the removable media policy
C. Implementing a group policy to block user access to system files
D. Blocking removable-media devices and write capabilities using a host-based security tool

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 116
A company has limited storage available and online presence that cannot for more than four hours. Which
of the following backup methodologies should the company implement to allow for the FASTEST database
restore time In the event of a failure, which being maindful of the limited available storage space?

A. Implement fulltape backup every Sunday at 8:00 p.m and perform nightly tape rotations.
B. Implement different backups every Sunday at 8:00 and nightly incremental backups at 8:00 p.m
C. Implement nightly full backups every Sunday at 8:00 p.m
D. Implement full backups every Sunday at 8:00 p.m and nightly differential backups at 8:00

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 117
A company was recently breached Part of the company's new cybersecurity strategy is to centralize the
logs from all security devices Which of the following components forwards the logs to a central source?

A. Log enrichment
B. Log aggregation
C. Log parser
D. Log collector

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 118
Which of the following scenarios BEST describes a risk reduction technique?

A. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company purchases
insurance and is no longer concerned about losses from data breaches.
B. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company implements a
policy to train users on a more secure method of operation.
C. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company changes as
method of operation
D. A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the Chief Information Officer
(CIO) decides to sign off on the risk.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 119
A network administrator is setting up wireless access points in all the conference rooms and wants to
authenticate device using PKI. Which of the following should the administrator configure?

A. A captive portal
B. PSK
C. 802.1X
D. WPS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 120
A remote user recently took a two-week vacation abroad and brought along a corporate- owned laptop.
Upon returning to work, the user has been unable to connect the laptop to the VPN. Which of the following
is the MOST likely reason for the user's inability to connect the laptop to the VPN?(Select TWO).

A. Due to foreign travel, the user's laptop was isolated from the network.
B. The user's laptop was quarantined because it missed the latest path update.
C. The VPN client was blacklisted.
D. The user's account was put on a legal hold.
E. The laptop is still configured to connect to an international mobile network operator.
F. The user in unable to authenticate because they are outside of the organization's mobile geofencing
configuration.

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 121
When selecting a technical solution for identity management, an architect chooses to go from an in-house
to a third-party SaaS provider. Which of the following risk management strategies is this an example of?

A. Acceptance
B. Mitigation
C. Avoidance
D. Transference

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Risk Transference refers to the shifting of the burden of loss for a risk to another party through legislation,
contract, insurance or other means.
[Link]

QUESTION 122
A commercial cyber-threat intelligence organization observes IoCs across a variety of unrelated
customers. Prior to releasing specific threat intelligence to other paid subscribers, the organization is
MOST likely obligated by contracts to:

A. perform attribution to specific APTs and nation-state actors.

B. anonymize any PII that is observed within the IoC data.
C. add metadata to track the utilization of threat intelligence reports.
D. assist companies with impact assessments based on the observed data.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 123
A global pandemic is forcing a private organization to close some business units and reduce staffing at
others. Which of the following would be BEST to help the organization's executives determine the next
course of action?

A. An incident response plan

B. A communications plan
C. A disaster recovery plan
D. A business continuity plan

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Business continuity may be defined as "the capability of an organization to continue the delivery of
products or services at pre-defined acceptable levels following a disruptive incident",[1] and business
continuity planning [2][3] (or business continuity and resiliency planning) is the process of creating systems
of prevention and recovery to deal with potential threats to a company.[4] In addition to prevention, the goal
is to enable ongoing operations before and during execution of disaster recovery.[5] Business continuity is
the intended outcome of proper execution of both business continuity planning and disaster recovery.

QUESTION 124
Some laptops recently went missing from a locked storage area that is protected by keyless RFID-enabled
locks. There is no obvious damage to the physical space. The security manager identifies who unlocked
the door, however, human resources confirms the employee was on vacation at the time of the incident.
Which of the following describes what MOST likely occurred?

A. The employee's physical access card was cloned.

B. The employee is colluding with human resources
C. The employee's biometrics were harvested
D. A criminal used lock picking tools to open the door.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 125
A user contacts the help desk to report the following:

Two days ago, a pop-up browser window prompted the user for a name and password after connecting to
the corporate wireless SSID. This had never happened before, but the user entered the information as
requested. The user was able to access the Internet but had trouble accessing the department share until
the next day.
The user is now getting notifications from the bank about unauthorized transactions.

Which of the following attack vectors was MOST likely used in this scenario?

A. Rogue access point

B. Evil twin
C. DNS poisoning
D. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 126
A network administrator has been alerted that web pages are experiencing long load times. After
determining it is not a routing or DNS issue, the administrator logs in to the router, runs a command, and
receives the following output:

Which of the following is the router experiencing?

A. DDoS attack
B. Memory leak
C. Buffer overflow
D. Resource exhaustion

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 127
A network administrator has been asked to install an IDS to improve the security posture of an
organization. Which of the following control types is an IDS?

A. Corrective
B. Physical
C. Detective
D. Administrative

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
IDS = Intrusion Detection System. It is passive and only notifies instead of blocking anything.

QUESTION 128
A company provides mobile devices to its users to permit access to email and enterprise applications. The
company recently started allowing users to select from several different vendors and device models. When
configuring the MDM, which of the following is a key security implication of this heterogeneous device
approach?

A. The most common set of MDM configurations will become the effective set of enterprise mobile security
controls.
B. All devices will need to support SCEP-based enrollment; therefore, the heterogeneity of the chosen
architecture may unnecessarily expose private keys to adversaries.
C. Certain devices are inherently less secure than others, so compensatory controls will be needed to
address the delta between device vendors.
D. MDMs typically will not support heterogeneous deployment environments, so multiple MDMs will need
to be installed and configured.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 129
In the middle of a cybersecurity, a security engineer removes the infected devices from the network and
lock down all compromised accounts. In which of the following incident response phases is the security
engineer currently operating?
A. Identification
B. Preparation
C. Eradiction
D. Recovery
E. Containment

Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 130
A development team employs a practice of bringing all the code changes from multiple team members into
the same development project through automation. A tool is utilized to validate the code and track source
code through version control. Which of the following BEST describes this process?

A. Continuous delivery
B. Continuous integration
C. Continuous validation
D. Continuous monitoring

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 131
An organization is developing an authentication service for use at the entry and exit ports of country
borders. The service will use data feeds obtained from passport systems, passenger manifests, and high-
definition video feeds from CCTV systems that are located at the ports. The service will incorporate
machine-learning techniques to eliminate biometric enrollment processes while still allowing authorities to
identify passengers with increasing accuracy over time. The more frequently passengers travel, the more
accurately the service will identify them. Which of the following biometrics will MOST likely be used, without
the need for enrollment? (Choose two.)

A. Voice
B. Gait
C. Vein
D. Facial
E. Retina
F. Fingerprint

Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 132
A software developer needs to perform code-execution testing, black-box testing, and non- functional
testing on a new product before its general release. Which of the following BEST describes the tasks the
developer is conducting?

A. Verification
B. Validation
C. Normalization
D. Staging

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 133
A local coffee shop runs a small WiFi hotspot for its customers that utilizes WPA2-PSK. The coffee shop
would like to stay current with security trends and wants to implement WPA3 to make its WiFi even more
secure. Which of the following technologies will the coffee shop MOST likely use in place of PSK?

A. WEP
B. MSCHAP
C. WPS
D. SAE

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
In January 2018, the Wi-Fi Alliance announced WPA3 as a replacement to WPA2.[3][4] The new standard
uses 128-bit encryption in WPA3-Personal mode (192-bit in WPA3-Enterprise)[5] and forward secrecy.[6]
The WPA3 standard also replaces the pre- shared key (PSK) exchange with Simultaneous Authentication
of Equals as defined in IEEE 802.11-2016 resulting in a more secure initial key exchange in personal
mode
[Link] raphy%2C%
20Simultaneous%20Authentication%20of,password%2Dauthenticated%20key %20agreement%
20method.

QUESTION 134
The process of passively gathering information prior to launching a cyberattack is called:

A. tailgating
B. reconnaissance
C. pharming
D. prepending

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 135
An organization has various applications that contain sensitive data hosted in the cloud. The company’s
leaders are concerned about lateral movement across applications of different trust levels. Which of the
following solutions should the organization implement to address the concern?

A. ISFW
B. UTM
C. SWG
D. CASB

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Once the full extent of cloud usage is revealed, the CASB then determines the risk level associated with
each by determining what the application is, what sort of data is within the app, and how it is being shared.

A cloud access security broker (CASB) (sometimes pronounced cas-bee) is on-premises or cloud based
software that sits between cloud service users and cloud applications, and monitors all activity and
enforces security policies.[1] A CASB can offer a variety of services such as monitoring user activity,
warning administrators about potentially hazardous actions, enforcing security policy compliance, and
automatically preventing malware.
[Link] au/security-awareness/cloud/[Link]
[Link]
Exam C

QUESTION 1
A manufacturing company has several one-off legacy information systems that cannot be migrated to a
newer OS due to software compatibility issues. The Oss are still supported by the vendor, but the industrial
software is no longer supported. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has created a resiliency
plan for these systems that will allow OS patches to be installed in a non-production environment, while
also creating backups of the systems for recovery.

Which of the following resiliency techniques will provide these capabilities?

A. Redundancy
B. RAID 1+5
C. Virtual machines
D. Full backups

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
A security administrator has noticed unusual activity occurring between different global instances and
workloads and needs to identify the source of the unusual traffic.

Which of the following log sources would be BEST to show the source of the unusual traffic?

A. HIDS
B. UEBA
C. CASB
D. VPC

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 3
A network manager is concerned that business may be negatively impacted if the firewall in its datacenter
goes offline. The manager would like to Implement a high availability pair to:

A. decrease the mean ne between failures

B. remove the single point of failure
C. cut down the mean tine to repair
D. reduce the recovery time objective

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Accompany deployed a WiFi access point in a public area and wants to harden the configuration to make it
more secure. After performing an assessment, an analyst identifies that the access point is configured to
use WPA3, AES, WPS, and RADIUS.

Which of the following should the analyst disable to enhance the access point security?

A. WPA3
B. AES
C. RADIUS
D. WPS
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 5
The following are the logs of a successful attack.

Which of the following controls would be BEST to use to prevent such a breach in the future?

A. Password history
B. Account expiration
C. Password complexity
D. Account lockout

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 6
An organization's corporate offices were destroyed due to a natural disaster, so the organization is now
setting up offices in a temporary work space.

Which of the following will the organization MOST likely consult?

A. The business continuity plan

B. The disaster recovery plan
C. The communications plan
D. The incident response plan

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
The spread of misinformation surrounding the outbreak of a novel virus on election day ted to eligible
voters choosing not to take the risk of going to the polls This is an example of:

A. prepending.
B. an influence campaign
C. a watering-hole attack
D. intimidation
E. information elicitation

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
A security analyst needs to find real-time data on the latest malware and locs.

Which of the following best describe the solution the analyst should persue?

A. ADVISORIES AND BULLETINS

B. THREAT FEEDS
C. SECURITY NEWS ARTICLES
D. PEER-REVIEWED CONTENT

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which of the following would cause a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) the MOST concern
regarding newly installed Internet-accessible 4K surveillance cameras?

A. An inability to monitor 100%, of every facility could expose the company to unnecessary risk.
B. The cameras could be compromised if not patched in a timely manner.
C. Physical security at the facility may not protect the cameras from theft.
D. Exported videos may take up excessive space on the file servers.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
An information security officer at a credit card transaction company is conducting a framework-mapping
exercise with the internal controls. The company recently established a new office in Europe.

To which of the following frameworks should the security officer map the existing controls? (Select TWO).

A. ISO
B. PCI DSS
C. SOC
D. GDPR
E. CSA
F. NIST

Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 11
A global company is experiencing unauthorized logging due to credential theft and account lockouts
caused by brute-force attacks. The company is considering implementing a third- party identity provider to
help mitigate these attacks.

Which of the following would be the BEST control for the company to require from prospective vendors'?

A. IP restrictions
B. Multifactor authentication
C. A banned password list
D. A complex password policy

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
While reviewing the wireless router, the systems administrator of a small business determines someone is
spoofing the MAC address of an authorized device. Given the table below:

Which of the following should be the administrator's NEXT step to detect if there is a rogue system without
impacting availability?

A. Conduct a ping sweep.

B. Physically check each system,
C. Deny Internet access to the "UNKNOWN" hostname.
D. Apply MAC filtering,

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Ann, a forensic analyst, needs to prove that the data she originally acquired has remained unchanged
while in her custody.

Which of the following should Ann use?

A. Chain of custody
B. Checksums
C. Non-repudiation
D. Legal hold

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 14
A company has discovered unauthorized devices are using its WiFi network, and it wants to harden the
access point to improve security.

Which of the following configuration should an analyst enable to improve security? (Select Two)

A. RADIUS
B. PEAP
C. WPS
D. WEP-TKIP
E. SSL
F. WPA2-PSK

Correct Answer: AF
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
To mitigate the impact of a single VM being compromised by another VM on the same hypervisor, an
administrator would like to utilize a technical control to further segregate the traffic.

Which of the following solutions would BEST accomplish this objective?

A. Install a hypervisor firewall to filter east-west traffic.

B. Add more VLANs to the hypervisor network switches.
C. Move exposed or vulnerable VMs to the DMZ.
D. Implement a zero-trust policy and physically segregate the hypervisor servers.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
A security analyst is investigating a vulnerability in which a default file permission was set incorrectly. The
company uses non-credentialed scanning for vulnerability management.

Which of the following tools can the analyst use to verify the permissions?

A. ssh
B. chmod
C. 1s
D. setuid
E. nessus
F. nc

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: [Link]
options/

QUESTION 17
A company just implemented a new telework policy that allows employees to use personal devices for
official email and file sharing while working from home. Some of the requirements are:

1. Employees must provide an alternate work location (i.e., a home address)

2. Employees must install software on the device that will prevent the loss of proprietary data but will not
restrict any other software from being installed.

Which of the following BEST describes the MDM options the company is using?

A. Geofencing, content management, remote wipe, containerization, and storage segmentation

B. Content management, remote wipe, geolocation, context-aware authentication, and containerization
C. Application management, remote wipe, geofencing, context-aware authentication, and containerization
D. Remote wipe, geolocation, screen locks, storage segmentation, and full-device encryption

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 18
A multinational organization that offers web-based services has datacenters that are located only in the
United States; however, a large number of its customers are in Australia, Europe, and China. Payments for
services are managed by a third party in the United Kingdom that specializes in payment gateways. The
management team is concerned the organization is not compliant with privacy laws that cover some of its
customers.

Which of the following frameworks should the management team follow?

A. Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard

B. Cloud Security Alliance Best Practices
C. ISO/IEC 27032 Cybersecurity Guidelines
D. General Data Protection Regulation

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
An organization regularly scans its infrastructure for missing security patches but is concerned about
hackers gaining access to the scanner's account. Which of the following would be BEST to minimize this
risk?

A. Require a complex, eight-character password that is updated every 90 days.

B. Perform only non-intrusive scans of workstations.
C. Use non-credentialed scans against high-risk servers.
D. Log and alert on unusual scanner account logon times.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 20
The concept of connecting a user account across the systems of multiple enterprises is BEST known as:

A. federation.
B. a remote access policy.
C. multifactor authentication.
D. single sign-on.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 21
A Chief Security Officer (CSO) was notified that a customer was able to access confidential internal
company files on a commonly used file-sharing service. The file-sharing service is the same one used by
company staff as one of its approved third- party applications. After further investigation, the security team
determines the sharing of confidential files was accidental and not malicious. However, the CSO wants to
implement changes to minimize this type of incident from reoccurring but does not want to impact existing
business processes.

Which of the following would BEST meet the CSO's objectives?

A. DLP
B. SWG
C. CASB
D. Virtual network segmentation
E. Container security

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Joe. a security analyst, recently performed a network discovery to fully understand his organization's
electronic footprint from a "public" perspective. Joe ran a set of commands and received the following
output:

Which of the following can be determined about the organization's public presence and security posture?
(Select TWO).

A. Joe used Who is to produce this output.

B. Joe used cURL to produce this output.
C. Joe used Wireshark to produce this output
D. The organization has adequate information available in public registration.
E. The organization has too much information available in public registration.
F. The organization has too little information available in public registration

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 23
A security administrator is trying to determine whether a server is vulnerable to a range of attacks. After
using a tool, the administrator obtains the following output:
Which of the following attacks was successfully implemented based on the output?

A. Memory leak
B. Race conditions
C. SQL injection
D. Directory traversal

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 24
After installing a Windows server, a cybersecurity administrator needs to harden it, following security best
practices.

Which of the following will achieve the administrator's goal? (Select TWO).

A. Disabling guest accounts

B. Disabling service accounts
C. Enabling network sharing
D. Disabling NetBIOS over TCP/IP
E. Storing LAN manager hash values
F. Enabling NTLM

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 25
A SOC is implementing an in sider-threat-detection program. The primary concern is that users may be
accessing confidential data without authorization.

Which of the following should be deployed to detect a potential insider threat?

A. A honeyfile
B. ADMZ
C. DLP
D. File integrity monitoring

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
A security analyst is reviewing a penetration-testing report from a third-party contractor. The penetration
testers used the organization's new API to bypass a driver to perform privilege escalation on the
organization's web servers. Upon looking at the API, the security analyst realizes the particular API call
was to a legacy system running an outdated OS.
Which of the following is the MOST likely attack type?

A. Request forgery
B. Session replay
C. DLL injection
D. Shimming

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which of the following BEST describes the MFA attribute that requires a callback on a predefined landline?

A. Something you exhibit

B. Something you can do
C. Someone you know
D. Somewhere you are

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
A security an alyst needs to implement security features across smartphones. laptops, and tablets

Which of the following would be the MOST effective across heterogeneous platforms?

A. Enforcing encryption
B. Deploying GPOs
C. Removing administrative permissions
D. Applying MDM software

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is the correct order of volatility from MOST to LEAST volatile?

A. Memory, temporary filesystems, routing tables, disk, network storage

B. Cache, memory, temporary filesystems, disk, archival media
C. Memory, disk, temporary filesystems, cache, archival media
D. Cache, disk, temporary filesystems, network storage, archival media

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
A recent security assessment revealed that an actor exploited a vulnerable workstation within an
organization and has persisted on the network for several months. The organization realizes the need to
reassess Its security.

Strategy for mitigating risks within the perimeter

Which of the following solutions would BEST support the organization's strategy?

A. FIM
B. DLP
C. EDR
D. UTM

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
A user must introduce a password and a USB key to authenticate against a secure computer, and
authentication is limited to the state in which the company resides.

Which of the following authentication concepts are in use?

A. Something you know, something you have, and somewhere you are
B. Something you know, something you can do, and somewhere you are
C. Something you are, something you know, and something you can exhibit
D. Something you have, somewhere you are, and someone you know

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 32
A security analyst b concerned about traffic initiated to the dark web from the corporate LAN.

Which of the following networks should he analyst monitor?

A. SFTP
B. AS
C. Tor
D. IoC

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 33
A major political party experienced a server breach. The hacker then publicly posted stolen internal
communications concerning campaign strategies to give the opposition party an advantage.

Which of the following BEST describes these threat actors?

A. Semi-authorized hackers
B. State actors
C. Script kiddies
D. Advanced persistent threats

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 34
During a security assessment, a security finds a file with overly permissive permissions.

Which of the following tools will allow the analyst to reduce the permission for the existing users and
groups and remove the set-user-ID from the file?

A. 1a
B. chflags
C. chmod
D. leof
E. setuid

Correct Answer: E
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
[Link] ds%20for%
20set,certain%20programs%20with%20escalated%20privileges

QUESTION 35
An end user reports a computer has been acting slower than normal for a few weeks, During an
investigation, an analyst determines the system 3 sending the users email address and a ten-digit number
ta an IP address once a day. The only resent log entry regarding the user's computer is the following:

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The end user purchased and installed 2 PUP from a web browser.
B. 4 bot on the computer is rule forcing passwords against a website.
C. A hacker Is attempting to exfilltrated sensitive data.
D. Ransomwere is communicating with a command-and-control server.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
A company just developed a new web application for a government agency. The application must be
assessed and authorized prior to being deployed.

Which of the following is required to assess the vulnerabilities resident in the application?

A. Repository transaction logs

B. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
C. Static code analysis
D. Non-credentialed scans

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Static Code Analysis commonly refers to the running of Static Code Analysis tools that attempt to highlight
possible vulnerabilities within `static' (non-running) source code by using techniques such as Taint
Analysis and Data Flow Analysis.

QUESTION 37
An organization has implemented a two-step verification process to protect user access to data that 6
stored in the could Each employee now uses an email address of mobile number a code to access the
data.

Which of the following authentication methods did the organization implement?

A. Token key
B. Static code
C. Push notification
D. HOTP

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
An.. that has a large number of mobile devices is exploring enhanced security controls to manage
unauthorized access if a device is lost or stolen. Specifically, if mobile devices are more than 3mi (4 8km)
from the building, the management team would like to have the security team alerted and server resources
restricted on those devices.

Which of the following controls should the organization implement?

A. Geofencing
B. Lockout
C. Near-field communication
D. GPS tagging

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 39
An organization's finance department is implementing a policy to protect against collusion.

Which of the following control types and corresponding procedures should the organization implement to
fulfill this policy's requirement? (Select TWO).

A. Corrective
B. Deterrent
C. Preventive
D. Mandatory vacations
E. Job rotation
F. Separation of duties

Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 40
An incident, which is affecting dozens of systems, involves malware that reaches out to an Internet service
for rules and updates. The IP addresses for the Internet host appear to be different in each case. The
organization would like to determine a common IoC to support response and recovery actions.
Which of the following sources of information would BEST support this solution?

A. Web log files

B. Browser cache
C. DNS query logs
D. Antivirus

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 41
A Chief Executive Officer (CEO) is dissatisfied with the level of service from the company's new service
provider. The service provider is preventing the [Link] sending email from a work account to a
personal account.

Which of the following types of service providers is being used?

A. Telecommunications service provider

B. Cloud service provider
C. Master managed service provider
D. Managed security service provider

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Which of the following often operates in a client-server architecture to act as a service repository. providing
enterprise consumers access to structured threat intelligence data?

A. STIX
B. CIRT
C. OSINT
D. TAXII

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Which of the following would be BEST for a technician to review to determine the total risk an organization
can bear when assessing a "cloud-first" adoption strategy?

A. Risk matrix
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk register
D. Risk appetite

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 44
The lessons-learned analysis from a recent incident reveals that an administrative office worker received a
call from someone claiming to be from technical support. The caller convinced the office worker to visit a
website, and then download and install a program masquerading as an antivirus package. The program
was actually a backdoor that an attacker could later use to remote control the worker's PC.

Which of the following would be BEST to help prevent this type of attack in the future?

A. Data loss prevention

B. Segmentation
C. Application whitelisting
D. Quarantine

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 45
The human resources department of a large online retailer has received multiple customer complaints
about the rudeness of the automated chatbots It uses to interface and assist online shoppers. The system,
which continuously learns and adapts, was working fine when it was installed a few months ago.

Which of the following BEST describes the method being used to exploit the system?

A. Baseline modification
B. A fileless virus
C. Tainted training data
D. Cryptographic manipulation

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 46
Which of the following utilize a subset of real data and are MOST likely to be used to assess the features
and functions of a system and how it interacts or performs from an end user's perspective against defined
test cases? (Select TWO).

A. Production
B. Test
C. Research and development
D. PoC
E. UAT
F. SDLC

Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 47
A web server administrator has redundant servers and needs to ensure failover to the secondary server
when the primary server goes down.

Which of the following should the administrator implement to avoid disruption?

A. NIC teaming
B. High availability
C. Dual power supply
D. laaS

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 48
Several large orders of merchandise were recently purchased on an e-commerce company's website. The
totals for each of the transactions were negative values, resulting in credits on the customers' accounts.

Which of the following should be implemented to prevent similar situations in the future?

A. Ensure input validation is in place to prevent the use of invalid characters and values.
B. Calculate all possible values to be added together and ensure the use of the proper integer in the code.
C. Configure the web application firewall to look for and block session replay attacks.
D. Make sure transactions that are submitted within very short time periods are prevented from being
processed.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
A security administrator needs to inspect in-transit files on the enterprise network to search for Pll, credit
card data, and classification words.

Which of the following would be the BEST to use?

A. IDS solution
B. EDR solution
C. HIPS software solution
D. Network DLP solution

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 50
A security engineer is installing a WAF to protect the company's website from malicious web requests over
SSL.

Which of the following is needed to meet the objective?

A. A reverse proxy
B. A decryption certificate
C. A split-tunnel VPN
D. Load-balanced servers

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
An organization recently recovered from a data breach. During the root cause analysis, the organization
determined the source of the breach to be a personal cell phone that had been reported lost.

Which of the following solutions should the organization implement to reduce the likelihood of future data
breaches?

A. MDM
B. MAM
C. VDI
D. DLP

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
Which of the following is a reason why an organization would define an AUP?

A. To define the lowest level of privileges needed for access and use of the organization's resources
B. To define the set of rules and behaviors for users of the organization's IT systems
C. To define the intended partnership between two organizations
D. To define the availability and reliability characteristics between an IT provider and consumer

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 53
A security analyst must determine if either SSH or Telnet is being used to log in to servers.

Which of the following should the analyst use?

A. logger
B. Metasploit
C. tcpdump
D. netstat

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 54
A Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned about the volume and integrity of sensitive information that is
exchanged between the organization and a third party through email. The CSO is particularly concerned
about an unauthorized party who is intercepting information that is in transit between the two organizations.

Which of the following would address the CSO's concerns?

A. SPF
B. DMARC
C. SSL
D. DKIM
E. TLS

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: [Link] identified-mail/

QUESTION 55
A company's help desk received several AV alerts indicating Mimikatz attempted to run on the remote
systems. Several users also reported that the new company flash drives they picked up in the break room
only have 512KB of storage.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A. The GPO prevents the use of flash drives, which triggers a false positive AV indication and restricts the
drives to only 512KB of storage.
B. The new flash drives need a driver that is being blocked by the AV software because the flash drives
are not on the application's allow list, temporarily restricting the drives to 512KB of storage.
C. The new flash drives are incorrectly partitioned, and the systems are automatically trying to use an
unapproved application to repartition the drives.
D. The GPO blocking the flash drives is being bypassed by a malicious flash drive that is attempting to
harvest plaintext credentials from memory.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 56
The cost of 'ovable media and the security risks of transporting data have become too great for a
laboratory. The laboratory has decided to interconnect with partner laboratones to make data transfers
easier and more secure. The Chief Security Officer <CSO) has several concerns about proprietary data
being exposed once the interconnections are established.

Which of the following security features should the network administrator implement lo prevent unwanted
data exposure to users in partner laboratories?

A. VLAN zoning with a file-transfer server in an external-facing zone

B. DLP running on hosts to prevent file transfers between networks
C. NAC that permits only data-transfer agents to move data between networks
D. VPN with full tunneling and NAS authenticating through the Active Directory

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 57
A security analyst is reviewing the following command-line output:

Which of the following Is the analyst observing?

A. IGMP spoofing
B. URL redirection
C. MAC address cloning
D. DNS poisoning

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 58
Which of the following represents a biometric FRR?

A. Authorized users being denied access

B. Users failing to enter the correct PIN
C. The denied and authorized numbers being equal
D. The number of unauthorized users being granted access

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
A security analyst is reviewing the following output from a system:

Which of the following is MOST likely being observed?

A. ARP palsoning
B. Man in the middle
C. Denial of service
D. DNS poisoning

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 60
To further secure a company's email system, an administrator is adding public keys to DNS records in the
company's domain

Which of the following is being used?

A. PFS
B. SPF
C. DMARC
D. DNSSEC

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 61
A external forensics investigator has been hired to investigate a data breach at a large enterprise with
numerous assets. It is known that the breach started in the DMZ and moved to the sensitive information,
generating multiple logs as the attacker traversed through the network.

Which of the following will BEST assist with this investigation?

A. Perform a vulnerability scan to identity the weak spots.

B. Use a packet analyzer to Investigate the NetFlow traffic.
C. Check the SIEM to review the correlated logs.
D. Require access to the routers to view current sessions.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 62
Organization plans to transition the intrusion detection and prevention techniques on a critical subnet to an
anomaly-based system.

Which of the following does the organization need to determine for this to be successful?

A. The baseline
B. The endpoint configurations
C. The adversary behavior profiles
D. The IPS signatures

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 63
An organization recently acquired an ISO 27001 certification.

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered a benefit of this certification?

A. It allows for the sharing of digital forensics data across organizations

B. It provides insurance in case of a data breach
C. It provides complimentary training and certification resources to IT security staff.
D. It certifies the organization can work with foreign entities that require a security clearance
E. It assures customers that the organization meets security standards

Correct Answer: E
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
According to the ISO [Link] ISO/IEC 27001:2013 specifies the
requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining and continually improving an information security
management system within the context of the organization. It also includes requirements for the
assessment and treatment of information security risks tailored to the needs of the organization. The
requirements set out in ISO/IEC 27001:2013 are generic and are intended to be applicable to all
organizations, regardless of type, size or nature.

QUESTION 64
An enterprise needs to keep cryptographic keys in a safe manner.

Which of the following network appliances can achieve this goal?

A. HSM
B. CASB
C. TPM
D. DLP

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A hardware security module (HSM) is a security device you can add to a system to manage, generate, and
securely store cryptographic keys. High performance HSMs are external devices connected to a network
using TCP/IP. Smaller HSMs come as expansion cards you install within a server, or as devices you plug
into computer ports.

QUESTION 65
An organization relies on third-party video conferencing to conduct daily business. Recent security
changes now require all remote workers to utilize a VPN to corporate resources.

Which of the following would BEST maintain high-quality video conferencing while minimizing latency when
connected to the VPN?

A. Using geographic diversity to have VPN terminators closer to end users

B. Utilizing split tunneling so only traffic for corporate resources is encrypted
C. Purchasing higher-bandwidth connections to meet the increased demand
D. Configuring QoS properly on the VPN accelerators

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 66
A security researcher is attempting to gather data on the widespread use of a Zero-day exploit.
Which of the following will the researcher MOST likely use to capture this data?

A. A DNS sinkhole
B. A honeypot
C. A vulnerability scan
D. cvss

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 67
The new Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a large company has announced a partnership with a vendor
that will provide multiple collaboration applications t make remote work easier. The company has a
geographically dispersed staff located in numerous remote offices in different countries. The company's IT
administrators are concerned about network traffic and load if all users simultaneously download the
application.

Which of the following would work BEST to allow each geographic region to download the software without
negatively impacting the corporate network?

A. Update the host IDS rules.

B. Enable application whitelisting.
C. Modify the corporate firewall rules.
D. Deploy all applications simultaneously.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 68
An organization has expanded its operations by opening a remote office. The new office is fully furnished
with office resources to support up to 50 employees working on any given day.

Which of the following VPN solutions would BEST support the new office?

A. Always On
B. Remote access
C. Site-to-site
D. Full tunnel

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 69
A customer called a company's security team to report that all invoices the customer has received over the
last five days from the company appear to have fraudulent banking details. An investigation into the matter
reveals the following:

1. The manager of the accounts payable department is using the same password across multiple external
websites and the corporate account.
2. One of the websites the manager used recently experienced a data breach.
3. The manager's corporate email account was successfully accessed in the last five days by an IP
address located in a foreign country

Which of the following attacks has MOST likely been used to compromise the manager's corporate
account?

A. Remote access Trojan

B. Brute-force
C. Dictionary
D. Credential stuffing
E. Password spraying

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 70
A financial institution would like to stare is customer data a could but still allow the data ta he accessed and
manipulated while encrypted. Doing se would prevent the cloud service provider from being able to
decipher the data due to its sensitivity. The financial institution is not concern about computational
overheads and slow speeds,
Which of the following cryptographic techniques would BEST meet the requirement?

A. Asymmatric
B. Symmetric
C. Homeomorphic
D. Ephemeral

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
"In a nutshell, homomorphic encryption is a method of encryption that allows any data to remain encrypted
while it's being processed and manipulated. It enables you or a third party (such as a cloud provider) to
apply functions on encrypted data without needing to reveal the values of the data."

[Link]
[Link]

QUESTION 71
A small business office is setting up a wireless infrastructure with primary requirements centered around
protecting customer information and preventing unauthorized access to the business network.

Which of the following would BEST support the office's business needs? (Select TWO)

A. Installing WAPs with strategic placement

B. Configuring access using WPA3
C. Installing a WIDS
D. Enabling MAC filtering
E. Changing the WiFi password every 30 days
F. Reducing WiFi transmit power throughout the office

Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 72
A systems administrator needs to install the same X.509 certificate on multiple servers.

Which of the following should the administrator use?

A. Key escrow
B. A self-signed certificate
C. Certificate chaining
D. An extended validation certificate

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 73
A security analyst notices several attacks are being blocked by the NIPS but does not see anything on the
boundary firewall logs. The attack seems to have been thwarted

Which of the following resiliency techniques was applied to the network to prevent this attack?

A. NIC Teaming
B. Port mirroring
C. Defense in depth
D. High availability
E. Geographic dispersal

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 74
A bank detects fraudulent activity on user's account. The user confirms transactions completed yesterday
on the bank's website at [Link] A security analyst then examines the user's Internet
usage logs and observes the following output:

date; username; url;destinationport; responsecode

2020-03-01; userann; http: //[Link]/;80;302

2020-03-01; userann: http: //[Link]/secure_login/;80;200

2020-03-01; userann:http: //[Link]/dashboard/;80;200

Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?

A. Replay attack
B. SQL injection
C. SSL stripping
D. Race conditions

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 75
A desktop support technician recently installed a new document-scanning software program on a computer
However, when the end user tried to launch the program, it did not respond.

Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A. A new firewall rule is needed to access the application.

B. The system was quarantined for missing software updates
C. The software was not added to the application whitelist.
D. The system was isolated from the network due to infected software.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 76
A company has been experiencing very brief power outages from its utility company over the last few
months. These outages only last for one second each time. The utility company is aware of the issue and
is working to replace a faulty transformer.

Which of the following BEST describes what the company should purchase to ensure its critical servers
and network devices stay online?

A. Dual power supplies

B. A UPS
C. A generator
D. APDU

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 77
A network administrator is concerned about users being exposed to malicious content when accessing
company cloud applications. The administrator wants to be able to block access to sites based on the
AUP. The users must also be protected because many of them work from home or at remote locations,
providing on-site customer support.

Which of the following should the administrator employ to meet these criteria meet these criteria?

A. Implement NAC.
B. Implement an SWG.
C. Implement a URL filter.
D. Implement an MDM.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 78
Which of the following distributes data among nodes, making it more difficult to manipulate the data while
also minimizing downtime?

A. MSSP
B. Public cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Fog computing

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 79
After a phishing scam for a user's credentials, the red team was able to craft a payload to deploy on a
server. The attack allowed the installation of malicious software that initiates a new remote session. Which
of the following types of attacks has occurred?

A. Privilege escalation
B. Session replay
C. Application programming interface
D. Directory traversal

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
In session attack the hacker take over the session of a user by hacking its session id

QUESTION 80
A company is setting up a web server on the Internet that will utilize both encrypted and unencrypted web-
browsing protocols. A security engineer runs a port scan against the server from the Internet and sees the
following output:
Which of the following steps would be best for the security engineer to take NEXT?

A. Allow DNS access from the internet.

B. Block SMTP access from the Internet
C. Block HTTPS access from the Internet
D. Block SSH access from the Internet.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 81
Which of the following is MOST likely to contain ranked and ordered information on the likelihood and
potential impact of catastrophic events that may affect business processes and systems, while also
highlighting the residual risks that need to be managed after mitigating controls have been implemented?

A. An RTO report
B. A risk register
C. A business impact analysis
D. An asset value register
E. A disaster recovery plan

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 82
Which of the following is the BEST reason to maintain a functional and effective asset management policy
that aids in ensuring the security of an organization?

A. To provide data to quantity risk based on the organization's systems.

B. To keep all software and hardware fully patched for known vulnerabilities
C. To only allow approved, organization-owned devices onto the business network
D. To standardize by selecting one laptop model for all users in the organization

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Without effective asset management, an organization's cybersecurity plan is missing a crucial component.
The reasons why should be clear when you stop and think about it. How can you keep your IT resources
secure if you don't know precisely what those systems contain? Outdated hardware and software quickly
become vulnerable to attacks. Asset tracking enables an organization to keep these updated on a regular
schedule to ensure nothing falls through the cracks.

QUESTION 83
An analyst is trying to identify insecure services that are running on the internal network After performing a
port scan the analyst identifies that a server has some insecure services enabled on default ports Which of
the following BEST describes the services that are currently running and the secure alternatives for
replacing them' (Select THREE)
A. SFTP FTPS
B. SNMPv2 SNMPv3
C. HTTP, HTTPS
D. TFTP FTP
E. SNMPv1, SNMPv2
F. Telnet SSH
G. TLS, SSL
H. POP, IMAP
I. Login, rlogin

Correct Answer: BCF

Explanation

QUESTION 84
A systems analyst is responsible for generating a new digital forensics chain-of-custody form Which of the
following should the analyst Include in this documentation? (Select TWO).

A. The order of volatility

B. A checksum
C. The location of the artifacts
D. The vendor's name
E. The date and time
F. A warning banner

Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 85
An attacker was easily able to log in to a company's security camera by performing a baste online search
for a setup guide for that particular camera brand and model. Which of the following BEST describes the
configurations the attacker exploited?

A. Weak encryption
B. Unsecure protocols
C. Default settings
D. Open permissions

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 86
A security architect at a large, multinational organization is concerned about the complexities and
overhead of managing multiple encryption keys securely in a multicloud provider environment. The security
architect is looking for a solution with reduced latency to allow the incorporation of the organization's
existing keys and to maintain consistent, centralized control and management regardless of the data
location.

Which of the following would BEST meet the architect's objectives?

A. Trusted Platform Module

B. laaS
C. HSMaaS
D. PaaS
E. Key Management Service
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 87
An attacker was easily able to log in to a company's security camera by performing a basic online search
for a setup guide for that particular camera brand and model Which of the following BEST describes the
configurations the attacker exploited?

A. Weak encryption
B. Unsecure protocols
C. Default settings
D. Open permissions

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 88
A cloud administrator is configuring five compute instances under the same subnet in a VPC Three
instances are required to communicate with one another, and the other two must he logically isolated from
all other instances in the VPC.
Which of the following must the administrator configure to meet this requirement?

A. One security group

B. Two security groups
C. Three security groups
D. Five security groups

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 89
A university is opening a facility in a location where there is an elevated risk of theft The university wants to
protect the desktops in its classrooms and labs Which of the following should the university use to BEST
protect these assets deployed in the facility?

A. Visitor logs
B. Cable locks
C. Guards
D. Disk encryption
E. Motion detection

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 90
A client sent several inquiries to a project manager about the delinquent delivery status of some critical
reports. The project manager darned the reports were previously sent via email but then quickly generated
and backdated the reports before submitting them via a new email message

Which of the following actions MOST likely supports an investigation for fraudulent submission?

A. Establish chain of custody

B. Inspect the file metadata
C. Reference the data retention policy
D. Review the email event logs

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 91
A security analyst is running a vulnerability scan to check for missing patches during a suspected security
rodent During which of the following phases of the response process is this activity MOST likely occurring?

A. Containment
B. Identification
C. Recovery
D. Preparation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 92
A security operations analyst is using the company's SIEM solution to correlate alerts. Which of the
following stages of the incident response process is this an example of?

A. Eradication
B. Recovery
C. Identification
D. Preparation

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 93
A company uses specially configured workstations tor any work that requires administrator privileges to its
Tier 0 and Tier 1 systems. The company follows a strict process to harden systems immediately upon
delivery. Even with these strict security measures in place, an incident occurred from one of the
workstations. The root cause appears to be that the SoC was tampered with or replaced.

Which of the following MOST likely occurred?

A. Fileless malware
B. A downgrade attack
C. A supply-chain attack
D. A logic bomb
E. Misconfigured BIOS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 94
A local coffee shop runs a small WiFi hot-spot for its customers that utilizes WPA2-PSK. The coffee shop
would like to stay current with security trends and wants to implement WPA3 to make its WiFi even more
secure.

Which of the following technologies will the coffee shop MOST likely use in place of PSK?

A. WEP
B. MSCHAP
C. WPS
D. SAE

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 95
A hospital's administration is concerned about a potential loss of patient data that is stored on tablets. A
security administrator needs to implement controls to alert the SOC any time the devices are near exits.
Which of the following would BEST achieve this objective?

A. Geotargeting
B. Geolocation
C. Geotagging
D. Geofencing

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 96
Entering a secure area requires passing through two doors, both of which require someone who is already
inside to initiate access. Which of the following types of physical security controls does this describe?

A. Cameras
B. Faraday cage
C. Access control vestibule
D. Sensors
E. Guards

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 97
Which of the following should a data owner require all personnel to sign to legally protect intellectual
property?

A. An NDA
B. An AUP
C. An ISA
D. An MOU

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 98
A network administrator at a large organization Is reviewing methods to improve the security of the wired
LAN Any security improvement must be centrally managed and allow corporate-owned devices to have
access to the intranet but limit others to Internet access only.

Which of the following should the administrator recommend?

A. 802.1X utilizing the current PKI infrastructure

B. SSO to authenticate corporate users
C. MAC address filtering with ACLs on the router
D. PAM for user account management

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 99
A company Is concerned about is security after a red-team exercise. The report shows the team was able
to reach the critical servers due to the SMB being exposed to the Internet and running NTLMV1.

Which of the following BEST explains the findings?

A. Default settings on the servers

B. Unsecured administrator accounts
C. Open ports and services
D. Weak Data encryption

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 100
An engineer is setting up a VDI environment for a factory location, and the business wants to deploy a low-
cost solution to enable users on the shop floor to log in to the VDI environment directly.

Which of the following should the engineer select to meet these requirements?

A. Laptops
B. Containers
C. Thin clients
D. Workstations

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 101
A nationwide company is experiencing unauthorized logins at all hours of the day. The logins appear to
originate from countries in which the company has no employees.
Which of the following controls should the company consider using as part of its IAM strategy? (Select
TWO).

A. A complex password policy

B. Geolocation
C. An impossible travel policy
D. Self-service password reset
E. Geofencing
F. Time-based logins

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 102
A security engineer obtained the following output from a threat intelligence source that recently performed
an attack on the company's server:

Which of the following BEST describes this kind of attack?

A. Directory traversal
B. SQL injection
C. API
D. Request forgery

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 103
An attacker is attempting, to harvest user credentials on a client's website. A security analyst notices
multiple attempts of random usernames and passwords. When the analyst types in a random username
and password. the logon screen displays the following message:

Which of the following should the analyst recommend be enabled?

A. Input validation
B. Obfuscation
C. Error handling
D. Username lockout

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 104
A security administrator is analyzing the corporate wireless network The network only has two access
points running on channels 1 and 11. While using airodump-ng. the administrator notices other access
points are running with the same corporate ESSID on all available channels and with the same BSSID of
one of the legitimate access ports.

Which erf the following attacks in happening on the corporate network?

A. Man in the middle

B. Evil twin
C. Jamming
D. Rogue access point
E. Disassociation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 105
An organization is having difficulty correlating events from its individual AV. EDR. DLP. SWG. WAF. MOM.
HIPS, and CASB systems.

Which of the following is the BEST way to improve the situation?

A. Remove expensive systems that generate few alerts.

B. Modify the systems to alert only on critical issues.
C. Utilize a SIEM to centralize togs and dashboards.
D. Implement a new syslog/NetFlow appliance.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 106
Which of the following would a European company interested in implementing a technical, hands-on set of
security standards MOST likely choose?

A. GOPR
B. CIS controls
C. ISO 27001
D. ISO 37000

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 107
A security analyst has been reading about a newly discovered cyber attack from a known threat actor.

Which of the following would BEST support the analyst's review of the tactics, techniques, and protocols
the threat actor was observed using in previous campaigns?

A. Security research publications

B. The MITRE ATT&CK framework
C. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
D. The Cyber Kill Chain
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 108
A500 is implementing an insider threat detection program, The primary concern is that users may be
accessing confidential data without authorization. Which of the following should be deployed to detect a
potential insider threat?

A. A honeyfile
B. A DMZ
C. ULF
D. File integrity monitoring

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 109
Which of the following terms should be included in a contract to help a company monitor the ongoing
security maturity of a new vendor?

A. A right-to-audit clause allowing for annual security audits

B. Requirements for event logs to be kept for a minimum of 30 days
C. Integration of threat intelligence in the company's AV
D. A data-breach clause requiring disclosure of significant data loss

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 110
A security administrator is setting up a SIEM to help monitor for notable events across the enterprise.
Which of the following control types does this BEST represent?

A. Preventive
B. Compensating
C. Corrective
D. Detective

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 111
Which of the following is a risk that is specifically associated with hosting applications in the public cloud?

A. Unsecured root accounts

B. Zero day
C. Shared tenancy
D. Insider threat
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 112
When implementing automation with loT devices, which of the following should be considered FIRST to
keep the network secure?

A. 2-Wave compatibility
B. Network range
C. Zigbee configuration
D. Communication protocols

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 113
Which of the following is the MOST secure but LEAST expensive data destruction method for data that is
stored on hard drives?

A. Pulverizing
B. Shredding
C. Incinerating
D. Degaussing

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Another form of physical destruction, shredding may be the most secure and cost-effective way to destroy
electronic data in any media that contain hard drives or solid state drives and have reached their end-of-
life. It's also very effective for optical drives, smartphones, tablets, motherboards, thumb drives and credit
card swipe devices, to name a few.
Shredding is a great way to destroy data if you have a large data enterprise center or a large stockpile of
old hard drives and media that you want to destroy. It's very secure, fast and efficient. Shredding reduces
electronic devices to pieces no larger than 2 millimeters. If you work in a high-security environment with
high-security data, shredding should be your number one choice as it guarantees that all data is
obliterated.

[Link] should-you-
use/

QUESTION 114
A new vulnerability in the SMB protocol on the Windows systems was recently discovered, but no patches
are currently available to resolve the issue. The security administrator is concerned tf servers in the
company's DMZ will be vulnerable to external attack; however, the administrator cannot disable the service
on the servers, as SMB is used by a number of internal systems and applications on the LAN.

Which of the following TCP ports should be blocked for all external inbound connections to the DMZ as a
workaround to protect the servers? (Select TWO).

A. 135
B. 139
C. 143
D. 161
E. 443
F. 445

Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 115
Which of the following BEST describes a social-engineering attack that relies on an executive at a small
business visiting a fake banking website where credit card and account details are harvested?

A. Whaling
B. Spam
C. Invoice scam
D. Pharming

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 116
A company wants to modify its current backup strategy to minimize the number of backups that would
need to be restored in case of data loss. Which of the following would be the BEST backup strategy to
implement?

A. Incremental backups followed by differential backups

B. Full backups followed by incremental backups
C. Delta backups followed by differential backups
D. Incremental backups followed by delta backups
E. Full backups followed by differential backups

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 117
A company is required to continue using legacy software to support a critical service. Which of the
following BEST explains a risk of this practice?

A. Default system configuration

B. Unsecure protocols
C. Lack of vendor support
D. Weak encryption

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 118
Which of the following types of attacks is specific to the individual it targets?

A. Whaling
B. Pharming
C. Smishing
D. Credential harvesting

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 119
A large financial services firm recently released information regarding a security bfeach within its corporate
network that began several years before. During the time frame in which the breach occurred, indicators
show an attacker gained administrative access to the network through a file download from a social media
site and subsequently installed it without the user's knowledge. Since the compromise, the attacker was
able to take command and control of the computer systems anonymously while obtaining sensitive
corporate and personal employee information.

Which of the following methods did the attacker MOST likely use to gam access?

A. A bot
B. A fileless virus
C. A logic bomb
D. A RAT

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A remote access Trojan (RAT) is a type of malware that allows attackers to take control of systems from
remote locations. It is often delivered via drive-by downloads. ... Some RATs automatically collect and log
keystrokes, usernames and passwords, incoming and outgoing email, chat sessions, and browser history
as well as take screenshots. The RAT can then automatically send the data to the attackers at
predetermined times. ... It's common for attackers to exploit this one infected system and quickly infect the
entire network with additional malware, including installing RATs on other systems. (Darril Gibson's Get
Certified Get Ahead p. 442)

QUESTION 120
Joe, an employee, is transferring departments and is providing copies of his files to a network share folder
for his previous team to access. Joe is granting read-write-execute permissions to his manager but giving
read-only access to the rest of the team. Which of the following access controls is Joe using?

A. FACL
B. DAC
C. ABAC
D. MAC

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 121
Which of the following cryptographic concepts would a security engineer utilize while implementing non-
repudiation? (Select TWO)

A. Block cipher
B. Hashing
C. Private key
D. Perfect forward secrecy
E. Salting
F. Symmetric keys

Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 122
A security researcher has alerted an organization that its sensitive user data was found for sale on a
website. Which of the following should the organization use to inform the affected parties?

A. An incident response plan

B. A communications plan
C. A business continuity plan
D. A disaster recovery plan

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 123
A security analyst is investigating multiple hosts that are communicating to external IP addresses during
the hours of 2:00 a.m - 4:00 am. The malware has evaded detection by traditional antivirus software.
Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely infecting the hosts?

A. A RAT
B. Ransomware
C. Polymophic
D. A worm

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 124
A financial analyst has been accused of violating the company's AUP and there is forensic evidence to
substantiate the allegation. Which of the following would dispute the analyst's claim of innocence?

A. Legal hold
B. Order of volatility
C. Non-repudiation
D. Chain of custody

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 125
A major clothing company recently lost a large amount of proprietary information The security officer must
find a solution to ensure this never happens again Which of the following is the BEST technical
implementation to prevent this from happening again?

A. Configure DLP solutions

B. Disable peer-to-peer sharing.
C. Enable role-based access controls
D. Mandate job rotation.
E. Implement content filters

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Exam D

QUESTION 1
Which of the following would satisfy three-factor authentication?

A. Password, retina scanner, and NFC card

B. Password, fingerprint scanner, and retina scanner
C. Password, hard token, and NFC card
D. Fingerprint scanner, hard token, and retina scanner

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
A company recently experienced an attack during which its main website was directed to the attacker's
web server, allowing the attacker to harvest credentials from unsuspecting customers. Which of the
following should the company implement to prevent this type of attack occurring in the future?

A. IPSec
B. SSL/TLS
C. DNSSEC
D. S/MIME

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
A retail company that is launching a new website to showcase the company's product line and other
information for online shoppers registered the following URLs:

Which of the following should the company use to secure its website rf the company is concerned with
convenience and cost?

A. A self-signed certificate
B. A root certificate
C. A code-signing certificate
D. A wildcard certificate
E. An extended validation certificate

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 4
A security analyst is hardening a network infrastructure. The analyst is given the following requirements;

1. Preserve the use of public IP addresses assigned to equipment on the core router.
2. Enable "in transport encryption protection to the web server with the strongest ciphers.

Which of the following should the analyst implement to meet these requirements? (Select TWO).
A. Configure VLANs on the core router
B. Configure NAT on the core router
C. Configure BGP on the core router
D. Configure AES encryption on the web server
E. Enable 3DES encryption on the web server
F. Enable TLSv2 encryption on the web server

Correct Answer: BF
Explanation

QUESTION 5
After segmenting the network, the network manager wants to control the traffic between the segments.
Which of the following should the manager use to control the network traffic?

A. A DMZ
B. A VPN
C. A VLAN
D. An ACL

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 6
While investigating a data leakage incident, a security analyst reviews access control to cloud-hosted data.
The following information was presented in a security posture report.

Based on the report, which of the following was the MOST likely attack vector used against the company?

A. Spyware
B. Logic bomb
C. Potentially unwanted programs
D. Supply chain

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which of the following describes a maintenance metric that measures the average time required to
troubleshoot and restore failed equipment?

A. RTO
B. MTBF
C. MTTR
D. RPO

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Mean time to repair (MTTR) is a measure of the maintainability of a repairable item, which tells the average
time required to repair a specific item or component and return it to working status. It is a basic measure of
the maintainability of equipment and parts. This includes the notification time, diagnosis and the time spent
on actual repair as well as other activities required before the equipment can be used again. Mean time to
repair is also known as mean repair time.
[Link]

QUESTION 8
A network analyst is setting up a wireless access point for a home office in a remote, rural location. The
requirement is that users need to connect to the access point securely but do not want to have to
remember passwords Which of the following should the network analyst enable to meet the requirement?

A. MAC address filtering

B. 802.1X
C. Captive portal
D. WPS

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Ann, a customer, received a notification from her mortgage company stating her PII may be shared with
partners, affiliates, and associates to maintain day-to-day business operations.

Which of the following documents did Ann receive?

A. An annual privacy notice

B. A non-disclosure agreement
C. A privileged-user agreement
D. A memorandum of understanding

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 10
A developer is building a new portal to deliver single-pane-of-glass management capabilities to customers
with multiple firewalls. To Improve the user experience, the developer wants to implement an
authentication and authorization standard that uses security tokens that contain assertions to pass user
Information between nodes.

Which of the following roles should the developer configure to meet these requirements? (Select TWO).

A. Identity processor
B. Service requestor
C. Identity provider
D. Service provider
E. Tokenized resource
F. Notarized referral

Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 11
An organization is concerned about hackers potentially entering a facility and plugging in a remotely
accessible Kali Linux box.
Which of the following should be the first lines of defense against such an attack? (Select TWO).

A. MAC filtering
B. Zero Trust segmentation
C. Network access control
D. Access control vestibules
E. Guards
F. Bollards

Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 12
An organization is building backup sever moms in geographically diverse locations. The Chief information
Security Officer implemented a requirement on the project that states the new hardware cannot be
susceptible to the same vulnerabilities in the existing sewer room.

Which of the following should the systems engineer consider'?

A. Purchasing hardware from different vendors

B. Migrating workloads to public cloud infrastructure
C. Implementing a robust patch management solution
D. Designing new detective security controls

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which of the following corporate policies is used to help prevent employee fraud and to detect system log
modifications or other malicious activity based on tenure?

A. Background checks
B. Mandatory vacation
C. Social media analysis
D. Separation of duties

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
After a hardware incident, an unplanned emergency maintenance activity was conducted to rectify the
issue. Multiple alerts were generated on the SIEM during this period of time.

Which of the following BEST explains what happened?

A. The unexpected traffic correlated against multiple rules, generating multiple alerts.
B. Multiple alerts were generated due to an attack occurring at the same time.
C. An error in the correlation rules triggered multiple alerts.
D. The SIEM was unable to correlate the rules, triggering the alerts.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 15
A security analyst wants to verify that a client-server (non-web) application is sending encrypted traffic.
Which of the following should the analyst use?

A. openssl
B. hping
C. netcat
D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
A user downloaded an extension for a browser, and the uses device later became infected. The analyst
who is investigating the incident saw various logs where the attacker was hiding activity by deleting data
The following was observed running:

Which of the following is the malware using to execute the attack?

A. PowerShell
B. Python
C. Bash
D. Macros

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 17
A security assessment found that several embedded systems are running unsecure protocols. These
Systems were purchased two years ago and the company that developed them is no longer in business
Which of the following constraints BEST describes the reason the findings cannot be remediated?

A. inability to authenticate
B. Implied trust
C. Lack of computing power
D. Unavailable patch

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Developers are writing code and merging it into shared repositories several times a day, where it is tested
automatically. Which of the following concepts does this BEST represent?

A. Functional testing
B. Stored procedures
C. Elasticity
D. Continuous integration

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
[Link]
%20(CI)%20is%20a,automated%20build%20 and%20automated%20tests.

Continuous Integration (CI) is a development practice where developers integrate code into a shared
repository frequently, preferably several times a day. Each integration can then be verified by an
automated build and automated tests.

QUESTION 19
An organization would like to remediate the risk associated with its cloud service provider not meeting its
advertised 99.999% availability metrics. Which of the following should the organization consult for the
exact requirements for the cloud provider?

A. SLA
B. BPA
C. NDA
D. MOU

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A security analyst has received several reports of an issue on an internal web application. Users stale they
are having to provide their credential twice lo log in. The analyst checks with the application team and
notes this is not an expected behavior. After looking at several loos the analyst decades to run some
commands on the gateway and obtains the following output Internet address

Which of the following BEST describes the attack the company is experiencing?

A. MAC flooding
B. URL redirection
C. ARP poisoning
D. DNS hijacking

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 21
A Chief Security Officer (CSO) has asked a technician to devise a solution that can detect unauthorized
execution privileges from the OS in both executable and data files, and can work in conjunction with
proxies or UTM.

Which of the following would BEST meet the CSO's requirements?

A. Fuzzing
B. Sandboxing
C. Static code analysis
D. Code review

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 22
The security team received a report of copyright infringement from the IP space of lire corporate network.
The report provided a precise time stamp for the incident as well as the name of the copyrighted le. The
analyst has been tasked with determining the infringing source machine and instructed to implement
measures to prevent such incidents from occurring again.

Which of the following is MOST capable of accomplishing both tasks?

A. HIDS
B. Allow list
C. TPM
D. NGFW

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
While reviewing pcap data, a network security analyst is able to locate plaintext usernames and passwords
being sent from workstations to network witches.

Which of the following is the security analyst MOST likely observing?

A. SNMP traps
B. A Telnet session
C. An SSH connection
D. SFTP traffic

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 24
A security researching is tracking an adversary by noting its attack and techniques based on its
capabilities, infrastructure, and victims.

Which of the following is the researcher MOST likely using?

A. The Diamond Model of intrusion Analysis

B. The Cyber Kill Chain\
C. The MITRE CVE database
D. The incident response process

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: [Link]
intrusion-analysis-5f02
QUESTION 25
A security analyst was deploying a new website and found a connection attempting to authenticate on the
site's portal. While Investigating The incident, the analyst identified the following Input in the username
field:

Which of the following BEST explains this type of attack?

A. DLL injection to hijack administrator services

B. SQLi on the field to bypass authentication
C. Execution of a stored XSS on the website
D. Code to execute a race condition on the server

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 26
A security engineer needs to create a network segment that can be used for servers that require
connections from untrusted networks.

When of the following should the engineer implement?

A. An air gap
B. A hot site
C. AVLAN
D. A screened subnet

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 27
A cyberthreat intelligence analyst is gathering data about a specific adversary using OSINT techniques.
Which of the following should the analyst use?

A. Internal log files

B. Government press releases
C. Confidential reports
D. Proprietary databases

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 28
When planning to build a virtual environment, an administrator need to achieve the following,

1. Establish polices in Limit who can create new VMs

2. Allocate resources according to actual utilization`
3. Require justication for requests outside of the standard requirements.
4. Create standardized categories based on size and resource requirements

Which of the following is the administrator MOST likely trying to do?

A. Implement IaaS replication
B. Product against VM escape
C. Deploy a PaaS
D. Avoid VM sprawl

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Which of the following uses six initial steps that provide basic control over system security by including
hardware and software inventory, vulnerability management, and continuous monitoring to minimize risk in
all network environments?

A. ISO 27701
B. The Center for Internet Security
C. SSAE SOC 2
D. NIST Risk Management Framework

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 30
Which of the following function as preventive, detective, and deterrent controls to reduce the risk of
physical theft? (Select TWO).

A. Mantraps
B. Security guards
C. Video surveillance
D. Fences
E. Bollards
F. Antivirus

Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which of the following environments would MOST likely be used to assess the execution of component
parts of a system at both the hardware and software levels and to measure performance characteristics?

A. Test
B. Staging
C. Development
D. Production

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 32
A systems administrator is looking for a solution that will help prevent OAuth applications from being
leveraged by hackers to trick users into authorizing the use of their corporate credentials. Which of the
following BEST describes this solution?

A. CASB
B. UEM
C. WAF
D. VPC

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Which of the following is a difference between a DRP and a BCP?

A. A BCP keeps operations running during a disaster while a DRP does not.
B. A BCP prepares for any operational interruption while a DRP prepares for natural disasters
C. A BCP is a technical response to disasters while a DRP is operational.
D. A BCP Is formally written and approved while a DRP is not.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 34
Which of the following environments utilizes dummy data and is MOST likely to be installed locally on a
system that allows code to be assessed directly and modified easily with each build?

A. Production
B. Test
C. Staging
D. Development

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Remote workers in an organization use company-provided laptops with locally installed applications and
locally stored data Users can store data on a remote server using an encrypted connection. The
organization discovered data stored on a laptop had been made available to the public.

Which of the following security solutions would mitigate the risk of future data disclosures?

A. FDE
B. TPM
C. HIDS
D. VPN

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 36
The SIEM at an organization has detected suspicious traffic coming a workstation in its internal network.
An analyst in the SOC the workstation and discovers malware that is associated with a botnet is installed
on the device A review of the logs on the workstation reveals that the privileges of the local account were
escalated to a local administrator.

To which of the following groups should the analyst report this real-world event?

A. The NOC team

B. The vulnerability management team
C. The CIRT
D. The read team

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 37
An engineer needs to deploy a security measure to identify and prevent data tampering within the
enterprise. Which of the following will accomplish this goal?

A. Antivirus
B. IPS
C. FTP
D. FIM

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Data tampering prevention can include simple security measures such as the encryption of data, and can
include lengths such as using file integrity monitoring (FIM) systems for better security.
[Link]

QUESTION 38
Which of the following holds staff accountable while escorting unauthorized personnel?

A. Locks
B. Badges
C. Cameras
D. Visitor logs

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Security analyst must enforce policies to harden an MOM infrastructure. The requirements are as follows:

1. Ensure mobile devices can be traded and wiped.

2. Conrm mobile devices are encrypted.
Which of the following should the analyst enable on all the devices to meet these requirements?

A. Geofencing
B. Biometric authentication
C. Geolocation
D. Geotagging

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 40
Which of the following is an example of risk avoidance?

A. Installing security updates directly in production to expedite vulnerability fixes

B. Buying insurance to prepare for financial loss associated with exploits
C. Not installing new software to prevent compatibility errors
D. Not taking preventive measures to stop the theft of equipment
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 41
An analyst Is generating a security report for the management team. Security guidelines recommend
disabling all listening unencrypted services. Given this output from Nmap:

Which of the following should the analyst recommend to disable?

A. 21/tcp
B. 22/tcp
C. 23/tcp
D. 443/tcp

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 42
A grocery store is expressing security and reliability concerns regarding the on-site backup strategy
currently being performed by locally attached disks. The main concerns are the physical security of the
backup media and the durability of the data stored on these devices.

Which of the following is a cost-effective approach to address these concerns?

A. Enhance resiliency by adding a hardware RAID.

B. Move data to a tape library and store the tapes off site
C. Install a local network-attached storage.
D. Migrate to a cloud backup solution

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 43
During an investigation, a security manager receives notification from local authorities mat company
proprietary data was found on a former employees home computer, The former employee's corporate
workstation has since been repurposed, and the data on the hard drive has been overwritten

Which of the following would BEST provide the security manager with enough details to determine when
the data was removed from the company network?

A. Properly congured hosts with security logging

B. Properly congured endpoint security tool with darting
C. Properly congured SIEM with retention policies
D. Properly congured USB blocker with encryption

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 44
A Chief Information Officer receives an email stating a database will be encrypted within 24 hours unless a
payment of $20,000 is credited to the account mentioned In the email. This BEST describes a scenario
related to:

A. whaling.
B. smishing.
C. spear phishing
D. vishing

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 45
An attack relies on an end user visiting a website the end user would typically visit, however, the site is
compromised and uses vulnerabilities in the end users browser to deploy malicious software. Which of the
blowing types of attack does this describe?

A. Smishing
B. Whaling
C. Watering hole
D. Phishing

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 46
A company is implementing a new SIEM to log and send alerts whenever malicious activity is blocked by
its antivirus and web content filters. Which of the following is the primary use case for this scenario?

A. Implementation of preventive controls

B. Implementation of detective controls
C. Implementation of deterrent controls
D. Implementation of corrective controls

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 47
A developer is concerned about people downloading fake malware-infected replicas of a popular game.
Which of the following should the developer do to help verify legitimate versions of the game for users?

A. Digitally sign the relevant game files.

B. Embed a watermark using steganography.
C. Implement TLS on the license activation server.
D. Fuzz the application for unknown vulnerabilities.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link] 018#:~:text=A%20digital%20signature%E2%80%94a%20type,%
2C%20or%20a%20digital%20document).
[Link]
QUESTION 48
If a current private key is compromised, which of the following would ensure it cannot be used to decrypt all
historical data?

A. Perfect forward secrecy

B. Elliptic-curve cryptography
C. Key stretching
D. Homomorphic encryption

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 49
The Chief Information Security Officer wants to pilot a new adaptive, user-based authentication method.
The concept Includes granting logical access based on physical location and proximity. Which of the
following Is the BEST solution for the pilot?

A. Geofencing
B. Self-sovereign identification
C. PKl certificates
D. SSO

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 50
Which two features are available only in next-generation firewalls? (Choose two )

A. deep packet inspection

B. packet filtering
C. application awareness
D. stateful inspection
E. virtual private network

Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 51
A security analyst is Investigating a malware incident at a company. The malware Is accessing a
command-and-control website at [Link]. All outbound Internet traffic is logged to a syslog
server and stored in /logfiles/messages.

Which of the following commands would be BEST for the analyst to use on the syslog server to search for
recent traffic to the command-and-control website?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 52
During an incident, a company's CIRT determines it is necessary to observe the continued network-based
transactions between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC. Which of the
following techniques would be BEST to enable this activity while reducing the risk of lateral spread and the
risk that the adversary would notice any changes?

A. Physically move the PC to a separate Internet point of presence.

B. Create and apply microsegmentation rules.
C. Emulate the malware in a heavily monitored DMZ segment.
D. Apply network blacklisting rules for the adversary domain.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 53
A company has three technicians who share the same credentials for troubleshooting system. Every time
credentials are changed, the new ones are sent by email to all three technicians. The security
administrator has become aware of this situation and wants to implement a solution to mitigate the risk.
Which of the following is the BEST solution for company to implement?

A. SSO authentication
B. SSH keys
C. OAuth authentication
D. Password vaults

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: [Link]

QUESTION 54
A company has determined that if its computer-based manufacturing machinery is not functioning for 12
consecutive hours, it will lose more money than it costs to maintain the equipment. Which of the following
must be less than 12 hours maintain a positive total cost of ownership?

A. MTBF
B. RPO
C. RTO
D. MTTR

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: [Link]

QUESTION 55
An enterprise has hired an outside security firm to facilitate penetration testing on its network and
applications. The firm has agreed to pay for each vulnerability that is discovered. Which of the following
BEST represents the type of testing that is being used?

A. White-box
B. Red-team
C. Bug bounty
D. Gray-box
E. Black-box

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: [Link]

QUESTION 56
Which of the following BEST describes the method a security analyst would use to confirm a file that is
downloaded from a trusted security website is not altered in transit or corrupted using a verified
checksum?

A. Hashing
B. Salting
C. Integrity
D. Digital signature

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 57
An organization that has a large number of mobile devices is exploring enhanced security controls to
manage unauthorized access if a device is lost or stolen. Specifically, if mobile devices are more than 3mi
(4.8km) from the building, the management team would like to have the security team alerted and server
resources restricted on those devices. Which of the following controls should the organization implement?

A. Geofencing
B. Lockout
C. Near-field communication
D. GPS tagging

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: [Link]
#:~:text=Geo%2Dtagging%3A%20The%20method%20consists,for%20a%20promotion%20or%20coupon.

QUESTION 58
Which of the following should a technician consider when selecting an encryption method for data that
needs to remain confidential for a specific length of time?

A. The key length of the encryption algorithm

B. The encryption algorithm's longevity
C. A method of introducing entropy into key calculations
D. The computational overhead of calculating the encryption key

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 59
During an incident, an EDR system detects an increase in the number of encrypted outbound connections
from multiple hosts. A firewall is also reporting an increase in outbound connections that use random high
ports. An analyst plans to review the correlated logs to find the source of the incident. Which of the
following tools will BEST assist the analyst?

A. A vulnerability scanner
B. A NGFW
C. The Windows Event Viewer
D. A SIEM

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 60
Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely to be motivated by ideology?

A. Business competitor
B. Hacktivist
C. Criminal syndicate
D. Script kiddie
E. Disgruntled employee

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: [Link]

QUESTION 61
A systems administrator is considering different backup solutions for the IT infrastructure. The company is
looking for a solution that offers the fastest recovery time while also saving the most amount of storage
used to maintain the backups.
Which of the following recovery solutions would be the BEST option to meet these requirements?

A. Snapshot
B. Differential
C. Full
D. Tape

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
There are mainly three types of backup: full, differential, and incremental.

Let's dive in to know more about the types of backup, the difference between them and which one would
be the best fit for your business.
A basic graphic displaying the difference between full backup, differential backup, and incremental backup.
Full Backup
A full backup is the most complete type of backup where you clone all the selected data. This includes
files, folders, SaaS applications, hard drives and more. The highlight of a full backup is the minimal time it
requires to restore data. However, since as everything is backed up in one go, it takes longer to backup
compared to other types of backup. The other common issue with running full backups is that it overloads
storage space. That's why most businesses tend to run a full backup and occasionally follow it up with
differential or incremental backup. This reduces the burden on the storage space, increasing backup
speed.
Differential Backup
A differential backup straddles the line between a full and an incremental backup. This type of backup
involves backing up data that was created or changed since the last full backup. To put it simply, a full
backup is done initially, and then subsequent backups are run to include all the changes made to the files
and folders. It lets you restore data faster than full backup since it requires only two backup components:
an initial full backup and the latest differential backup.
Let's see how a differential backup works:
Day 1 ?Schedule a full backup
Day 2 ?Schedule a differential backup. It will cover all the changes that took place between Day 1 and Day
2
Day 3 ?Schedule a differential backup. It will make a copy of all the data that has changed from Day 2 (this
includes the full backup on Day 1 + differential backup) and Day 3.
Incremental Backup
The first backup in an incremental backup is a full backup. The succeeding backups will only store
changes that were made to the previous backup. Businesses have more flexibility in spinning these types
of backups as often as they want, with only the most recent changes stored.
Incremental backup requires space to store only the changes (increments), which allows for lightning-fast
backups.
Difference Between Full, Differential and Incremental Backups

Full
Differential
Incremental
Storage Space
High
Medium to High
Low
Backup Speed
Slowest
Fast
Fastest
Restoration Speed
Fastest
Fast
Slowest
Media Required for Recovery
Most recent backup only
Most recent full backup & most recent differential backup Most recent full backup & all incremental
backups since full backup Duplication Stores a lot of duplicate files
Stores duplicate files
No duplicate files

QUESTION 62
A company was compromised, and a security analyst discovered the attacker was able to get access to a
service account. The following logs were discovered during the investigation:

Which of the following MOST likely would have prevented the attacker from learning the service account
name?

A. Race condition testing

B. Proper error handling
C. Forward web server logs to a SIEM
D. Input sanitization

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 63
An organization recently discovered that a purchasing officer approved an invoice for an amount that was
different than the original purchase order. After further investigation a security analyst determines that the
digital signature for the fraudulent invoice is exactly the same as the digital signature for the correct invoice
that had been approved.
Which of the following attacks MOST likely explains the behavior?

A. Birthday
B. Rainbow table
C. Impersonation
D. Whaling

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 64
During an asset inventory, several assets, supplies, and miscellaneous items were noted as missing. The
security manager has been asked to find an automated solution to detect any future theft of equipment.
Which of the following would be BEST to implement?

A. Badges
B. Fencing
C. Access control vestibule
D. Lighting
E. Cameras

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 65
A company wants to deploy systems alongside production systems in order to entice threat actors and to
learn more about attackers. Which of the following BEST describe these systems?

A. DNS sinkholes
B. Honepots
C. Virtual machines
D. Neural network

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 66
A user's PC was recently infected by malware. The user has a legacy printer without vendor support, and
the user's OS is fully patched. The user downloaded a driver package from the internet. No threats were
found on the downloaded file, but during file installation, a malicious runtime threat was detected. Which of
the following is MOST likely cause of the infection?

A. The driver has malware installed and was refactored upon download to avoid detection.
B. The user's computer has a rootkit installed that has avoided detection until the new driver overwrote
key files.
C. The user's antivirus software definition were out of date and were damaged by the installation of the
driver
D. The user's computer has been infected with a logic bomb set to run when new driver was installed.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 67
A SOC is currently being outsourced. Which of the following is being used?

A. Microservices
B. SaaS
C. MSSP
D. PaaS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 68
A security analyst is investigating a phishing email that contains a malicious document directed to the
company's Chief Executive Officer (CEO). Which of the following should the analyst perform to understand
the threat and retrieve possible IoCs?

A. Run a vulnerability scan against the CEOs computer to find possible vulnerabilities
B. Install a sandbox to run the malicious payload in a safe environment
C. Perform a traceroute to identify the communication path
D. Use netstat to check whether communication has been made with a remote host

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 69
A new security engineer has started hardening systems. One of the hardening techniques the engineer is
using involves disabling remote logins to the NAS. Users are now reporting the inability to use SCP to
transfer files to the NAS, even though the data is still viewable from the users PCs.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. TFTP was disabled on the local hosts

B. SSH was turned off instead of modifying the configuration file
C. Remote login was disabled in the [Link] instead of using the [Link]
D. Network services are no longer running on the NAS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 70
A company is considering transitioning to the cloud. The company employs individuals from various
locations around the world The company does not want to increase its on-premises infrastructure blueprint
and only wants to pay for additional compute power required. Which of the following solutions would BEST
meet the needs of the company?

A. Private cloud
B. Hybrid environment
C. Managed security service provider
D. Hot backup site

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 71
A company is implementing a DLP solution on the file server. The file server has PII, financial information,
and health information stored on it. Depending on what type of data that is hosted on the file server, the
company wants different DLP rules assigned to the data. Which of the following should the company do to
help to accomplish this goal?

A. Classify the data

B. Mask the data
C. Assign the application owner
D. Perform a risk analysis

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 72
A network analyst is investigating compromised corporate information. The analyst leads to a theory that
network traffic was intercepted before being transmitted to the internet. The following output was captured
on an internal host:

Based on the IoCS, which of the following was the MOST likely attack used to compromise the network
communication?

A. Denial of service
B. ARP poisoning
C. Command injection
D. MAC flooding

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 73
A company's cybersecurity department is looking for a new solution to maintain high availability. Which of
the following can be utilized to build a solution? (Select Two)

A. A stateful inspection
B. IP hashes
C. A round robin
D. A VLAN
E. A DMZ

Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 74
A company installed several crosscut shredders as part of increased information security practices
targeting data leakage risks. Which of the following will this practice reduce?

A. Dumpster diving
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Information elicitation
D. Credential harvesting

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 75
A company would like to provide flexibility for employees on device preference. However, the company is
concerned about supporting too many different types of hardware. Which of the following deployment
models will provide the needed flexibility with the GREATEST amount of control and security over
company data and infrastructure?

A. BYOD
B. VDI
C. COPE
D. CYOD

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 76
Users reported several suspicious activities within the last two weeks that resulted in several unauthorized
transactions. Upon investigation, the security analyst found the following:

Multiple reports of breached credentials within that time period Traffic being redirected in certain parts of
the network Fraudulent emails being sent by various internal users without their consent

Which of the following types of attacks was MOST likely used?

A. Replay attack
B. Race condition
C. Cross site scripting
D. Request forgeries

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 77
Several employees have noticed other bystanders can clearly observe a terminal where passcodes are
being entered. Which of the following can be eliminated with the use of a privacy screen?

A. Shoulder surfing
B. Spear phishing
C. Impersonation attack
D. Card cloning

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 78
A user's account is constantly being locked out. Upon further review, a security analyst found the following
in the SIEM
Which of the following describes what is occurring?

A. An attacker is utilizing a password-spraying attack against the account.

B. An attacker is utilizing a dictionary attack against the account.
C. An attacker is utilizing a brute-force attack against the account.
D. An attacker is utilizing a rainbow table attack against the account.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 79
A bad actor tries to persuade someone to provide financial information over the phone in order to gain
access to funds. Which of the following types of attacks does this scenario describe?

A. Vishing
B. Phishing
C. Spear phishing
D. Whaling

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: [Link]

QUESTION 80
Which of the following environments typically hosts the current version configurations and code, compares
user-story responses and workflow, and uses a modified version of actual data for testing?

A. Development
B. Staging
C. Production
D. Test

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 81
Which of the following controls would BEST identify and report malicious insider activities?

A. An intrusion detection system

B. A proxy
C. Audit trails
D. Strong authentication

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
An intrusion detection system (IDS; also intrusion protection system or IPS) is a device or software
application that monitors a network or systems for malicious activity or policy violations.[1] Any intrusion
activity or violation is typically reported either to an administrator or collected centrally using a security
information and event management (SIEM) system. A SIEM system combines outputs from multiple
sources and uses alarm filtering techniques to distinguish malicious activity from false alarms.

QUESTION 82
A security analyst reports a company policy violation in a case in which a large amount of sensitive data is
being downloaded after hours from various mobile devices to an external site. Upon further investigation,
the analyst notices that successful login attempts are being conducted with impossible travel times during
the same time periods when the unauthorized downloads are occurring. The analyst also discovers a
couple of WAPs are using the same SSID, but they have non-standard DHCP configurations and an
overlapping channel. Which of the following attacks is being conducted?

A. Evil twin
B. Jamming
C. DNS poisoning
D. Bluesnarfing
E. DDoS

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 83
A new plug-and-play storage device was installed on a PC in the corporate environment. Which of the
following safeguards will BEST help to protect the PC from malicious files on the storage device?

A. Change the default settings on the PC.

B. Define the PC firewall rules to limit access.
C. Encrypt the disk on the storage device.
D. Plug the storage device in to the UPS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 84
Customers reported their antivirus software flagged one of the company's primary software products as
suspicious. The company's Chief Information Security Officer has tasked the developer with determining a
method to create a trust model between the software and the customer's antivirus software. Which of the
following would be the BEST solution?

A. Code signing
B. Domain validation
C. Extended validation
D. Self-signing

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 85
A security analyst is concerned about traffic initiated to the dark web form the corporate LAN. Which of the
following networks should the analyst monitor?

A. SFTP
B. AIS
C. Tor
D. IoC

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 86
A financial institution would like to store its customer data in a cloud but still allow the data to be accessed
and manipulated while encrypted. Doing so would prevent the cloud service provider from being able to
decipher the data due to its sensitivity. The financial institution is not concerned about computational
overheads and slow speeds. Which of the following cryptographic techniques would BEST meet the
requirement?

A. Asymmetric
B. Symmetric
C. Homomorphic
D. Ephemeral

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 87
Several employees have noticed other bystanders can clearly observe a terminal where passcodes are
being entered. Which of the following can be eliminated with the use of a privacy screen?

A. Shoulder surfing
B. Spear phishing
C. Impersonation attack
D. Card cloning

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 88
A company was compromised, and a security analyst discovered the attacker was able to get access to a
service account. The following logs were discovered during the investigation:

Which of the following MOST likely would have prevented the attacker from learning the service account
name?

A. Race condition testing

B. Proper error handling
C. Forward web server logs to a SIEM
D. Input sanitization

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 89
A bad actor tries to persuade someone to provide financial information over the phone in order to gain
access to funds.

Which of the following types of attacks does this scenario describe?

A. Vishing
B. Phishing
C. Spear phishing
D. Whaling

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 90
A security analyst needs to implement security features across smartphones, laptops, and tablets. Which
of the following be the MOST effective across heterogeneous platforms?

A. Enforcing encryption
B. Deploying GPOs
C. Removing administrative permissions
D. Applying MDM software

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Exam I

QUESTION 91
A company is implementing a DLP solution on the file server. The file server has PII, financial information,
and health information stored on it. Depending on what type of data that is hosted on the file server, the
company wants different DLP rules assigned to the data. Which of the following should the company do to
help to accomplish this goal?

A. Classify the data

B. Mask the data
C. Assign the application owner
D. Perform a risk analysis

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 92
An external forensics investigator has been hired to investigate a data breach at a large enterprise with
numerous assets. It is known that the breach started in the DMZ and moved to the sensitive information,
generating multiple logs as the attacker traversed through the network? Which of the following will BEST
assist with this investigation?

A. Perform a vulnerability scan to identify the weak spots

B. Use a packet analyzer to investigate the NetFlow traffic
C. Check the SIEM to review the correlated logs
D. Require access to the routers to view current sessions

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 93
A security analyst reports a company policy violation in a case in which a large amount of sensitive data is
being downloaded after hours from various mobile devices to an external site. Upon further investigation,
the analyst notices that successful login attempts are being conducted with impossible travel times during
the same time periods when the unauthorized downloads are occurring. The analyst also discovers a
couple of WAPs are using the same SSID, but they have non-standard DHCP configurations and an
overlapping channel.

Which of the following attacks is being conducted?

A. Evil twin
B. Jamming
C. DNS poisoning
D. Bluesnarfing
E. DDoS

Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 94
A new plug-and-play storage device was installed on a PC in the corporate environment. Which of the
following safeguards will BEST help to protect the PC from malicious files on the storage device?

A. Change the default settings on the PC

B. Define the PC firewall rules to limit access
C. Encrypt the disk on the storage device
D. Plug the storage device in to the UPS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 95
As part of a company's ongoing SOC maturation process, the company wants to implement a method to
share cyberthreat intelligence data with outside security partners. Which of the following will the company
MOST likely implement?

A. TLP
B. TTP
C. STIX

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
TTPs Within Cyber Threat Intelligence Tactics, techniques and procedures (TTPs) are the "patterns of
activities or methods associated with a specific threat actor or group of threat actors." Analysis of TTPs
aids in counterintelligence and security operations by describing how threat actors perform attacks.
Top threats facing an organization should be given priority for TTP maturation. Smaller organizations may
benefit strategically by outsourcing research and response. One acronym everyone working on a
cybersecurity team should be familiar with is TTPs ?tactics, techniques and procedures ?but not everyone
understands how to use them properly within a cyber threat intelligence solution. TTPs describe how threat
actors (the bad guys) orchestrate, execute and manage their operations attacks. ("Tactics" is also
sometimes called "tools" in the acronym.) Specifically, TTPs are defined as the "patterns of activities or
methods associated with a specific threat actor or group of threat actors," according to the Definitive Guide
to Cyber Threat Intelligence.

QUESTION 96
Which of the following authentication methods sends out a unique password to be used within a specific
number of seconds?

A. TOTP
B. Biometrics
C. Kerberos
D. LDAP

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 97
Which of the following would be used to find the MOST common web-application vulnerabilities?

A. OWASP
B. MITRE ATTACK
C. Cyber Kill Chain
D. SDLC

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 98
A network engineer at a company with a web server is building a new web environment with the following
requirements:

Only one web server at a time can service requests. If the primary web server fails, a failover needs to
occur to ensure the secondary web server becomes the primary.

Which of the following load-balancing options BEST fits the requirements?

A. Cookie-based
B. Active-passive
C. Persistence
D. Round robin

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 99
The board of doctors at a company contracted with an insurance firm to limit the organization's liability.
Which of the following risk management practices does the BEST describe?

A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Mitigation
D. Acknowledgement

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 100
During an investigation, the incident response team discovers that multiple administrator accounts were
suspected of being compromised. The host audit logs indicate a repeated brute-force attack on a single
administrator account followed by suspicious logins from unfamiliar geographic locations. Which of the
following data sources would be BEST to use to assess the accounts impacted by this attack?

A. User behavior analytics

B. Dump files
C. Bandwidth monitors
D. Protocol analyzer output

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
User behavior analytics is a cybersecurity process about detection of insider threats, targeted attacks, and
financial fraud that tracks a system's users. UBA looks at patterns of human behavior, and then analyzes
them to detect anomalies that indicate potential threats.

QUESTION 101
A system that requires an operation availability of 99.99% and has an annual maintenance window
available to patching and fixes will require the HIGHEST:

A. MTBF
B. MTTR
C. RPO
D. RTO

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 102
A website developer who is concerned about theft cf the company's user database warns to protect weak
passwords from offline brute-force attacks. Which of the following be the BEST solution?

A. Lock accounts after five failed logons

B. Precompute passwords with rainbow tables
C. Use a key-stretching technique
D. Hash passwords with the MD5 algorithm

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 103
Hackers recently attacked a company's network and obtained several unfavorable pictures from the Chief
Executive Officer's workstation. The hackers are threatening to send the images to the press if a ransom is
not paid. Which of the following is impacted the MOST?

A. Identify theft
B. Data loss
C. Data exfiltration
D. Reputation

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Data exfiltration occurs when malware and/or a malicious actor carries out an unauthorized data transfer
from a computer. It is also commonly called data extrusion or data exportation. Data exfiltration is also
considered a form of data theft.
QUESTION 104
Which of the following would be MOST effective to contain a rapidly attack that is affecting a large number
of organizations?

A. Machine learning
B. DNS sinkhole
C. Blocklist
D. Honeypot

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 105
Which of the following is a detective and deterrent control against physical intrusions?

A. An alarm
B. A fence
C. A sign

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Physical security is the protection of personnel, data, hardware, etc., from physical threats that could harm,
damage, or disrupt business operations or impact the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of systems
and/or data. Deterrent access control solutions are used to exact consequences in the event of
noncompliance. Examples include security badges, mantraps, security cameras, trespass or intrusion
alarms, auditing, and firewalls.

QUESTION 106
A security analyst generated a file named [Link] and shared it with a team member who is going to
use it for further incident analysis. Which of the following tools will the other team member MOST likely use
to open this file?

A. Autopsy
B. Memdump
C. FTK imager
D. Wireshark

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Some common applications that can open .pcap files are Wireshark, WinDump, tcpdump, Packet Square -
Capedit and Ethereal.

QUESTION 107
An information security policy stales that separation of duties is required for all highly sensitive database
changes that involve customers' financial data. Which of the following will this be BEST to prevent?

A. Least privilege
B. An insider threat
C. A data breach
D. A change control violation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Separation of duties - is a means of establishing checks and balances against the possibility that critical
system or procedures can be compromised by insider threats. Duties and responsibilities should be
divided among individuals to prevent ethical conflicts or abuse of powers.

QUESTION 108
A security analyst is concerned about critical vulnerabilities that have been detected on some applications
running inside containers. Which of the following is the BEST remediation strategy?

A. Include the containers in the regular patching schedule for servers

B. Patch each running container individually and test the application
C. Update the host in which the containers are running
D. Update the base container image and redeploy the environment

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A container image vulnerability is a security risk that is embedded inside a container image. While
vulnerable images themselves don't pose an active threat, if containers are created based on a vulnerable
image, the containers will introduce the vulnerability to a live environment.

QUESTION 109
Which of the following would produce the closet experience of responding to an actual incident response
scenario?

A. Lessons learned
B. Simulation
C. Walk-through
D. Tabletop

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 110
A dynamic application vulnerability scan identified code injection could be performed using a web form.
Which of the following will be BEST remediation to prevent this vulnerability?

A. Implement input validations

B. Deploy MFA
C. Utilize a WAF
D. Configure HIPS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 111
A penetration tester successfully gained access to a company's network The investigating analyst
determines malicious traffic connected through the WAP despite filtering rules being in place. Logging in to
the connected switch, the analyst sees the following m the ARP table:
Which of the following did Ihe penetration tester MOST likely use?

A. ARP poisoning
B. MAC cloning
C. Man in the middle
D. Evil twin

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 112
A user reports trouble using a corporate laptop. The laptop freezes and responds slowly when writing
documents and the mouse pointer occasional disappears.

The task list shows the following results

Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?

A. RAT
B. PUP
C. Spyware
D. Keylogger

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 113
A software company is analyzing a process that detects software vulnerabilities at the earliest stage
possible. The goal is to scan the source looking for unsecure practices and weaknesses before the
application is deployed in a runtime environment. Which of the following would BEST assist the company
with this objective?

A. Use fuzzing testing

B. Use a web vulnerability scanner
C. Use static code analysis
D. Use a penetration-testing OS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Fuzzing
Fuzzing or fuzz testing is an automated software testing technique that involves providing invalid,
unexpected, or random data as inputs to a computer program. The program is then monitored for
exceptions such as crashes, failing built-in code assertions, or potential memory leaks.
Static program analysis
Static program analysis is the analysis of computer software performed without executing any programs, in
contrast with dynamic analysis, which is performed on programs during their execution. What is static code
analysis? Static code analysis is a method of debugging by examining source code before a program is
run. It's done by analyzing a set of code against a set (or multiple sets) of coding rules. ... This type of
analysis addresses weaknesses in source code that might lead to vulnerabilities.

Penetration test
A penetration test, colloquially known as a pen test or ethical hacking, is an authorized simulated
cyberattack on a computer system, performed to evaluate the security of the system; this is not to be
confused with a vulnerability assessment.

QUESTION 114
A company recently suffered a breach in which an attacker was able to access the internal mail servers
and directly access several user inboxes. A large number of email messages were later posted online.
Which of the following would BEST prevent email contents from being released should another breach
occur?

A. Enable full disk encryption on the mail servers.

B. Use digital certificates when accessing email via the web
C. Configure web traffic to only use TLS-enabled channels

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 115
A security analyst receives an alert from the company's SIEM that anomalous activity is coming from a
local source IP address of [Link]. The Chief Information Security Officer asks the analyst to block
the originating source. Several days later another employee opens an internal ticket stating that
vulnerability scans are no longer being performed properly. The IP address the employee provides is
[Link]. Which of the following describes this type of alert?

A. True positive
B. True negative
C. False positive
D. False negative

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Traditional SIEM Log Analysis
Traditionally, the SIEM used two techniques to generate alerts from log data: correlation rules, specifying a
sequence of events that indicates an anomaly, which could represent a security threat, vulnerability or
active security incident; and vulnerabilities and risk assessment, which involves scanning networks for
known attack patterns and vulnerabilities. The drawback of these older techniques is that they generate a
lot of false positives, and are not successful at detecting new and unexpected event types

QUESTION 116
As part of the lessons-learned phase, the SOC is tasked with building methods to detect if a previous
incident is happening again. Which of the following would allow the security analyst to alert the SOC if an
event is reoccurring?

A. Creating a playbook within the SOAR

B. Implementing rules in the NGFW
C. Updating the DLP hash database
D. Publishing a new CRL with revoked certificates

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 117
Which of the following BEST helps to demonstrate integrity during a forensic investigation?

A. Encryption
B. Hashing
C. Snapshots

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Digital evidence integrity is ensured by calculating MD5 and SHA1 hashes of the extracted content and
storing it in a report along with other details related to the drive. It also offers an encryption feature to
ensure the confidentiality of the digital evidence.

QUESTION 118
A company reduced the area utilized in its datacenter by creating virtual networking through automation
and by creating provisioning routes and rules through scripting. Which of the following does this example
describe?

A. laC
B. MSSP
C. Containers
D. SaaS

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Infrastructure as code is the process of managing and provisioning computer data centers through
machine-readable definition files, rather than physical hardware configuration or interactive configuration
tools.

QUESTION 119
Security analysts are conducting an investigation of an attack that occurred inside the organization's
network. An attacker was able to connect network traffic between workstation throughout the network. The
analysts review the following logs:

The layer 2 address table has hundred of entries similar to the ones above. Which of the following attacks
has MOST likely occurred?

A. SQL injection
B. DNS spoofing
C. MAC flooding
D. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 120
The chief compliance officer from a bank has approved a background check policy for all new hires. Which
of the following is the policy MOST likely protecting against?

A. Preventing any current employees' siblings from working at the bank to prevent nepotism
B. Hiring an employee who has been convicted of theft to adhere to industry compliance
C. Filtering applicants who have added false information to resumes so they appear better qualified
D. Ensuring no new hires have worked at other banks that may be trying to steal customer information

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 121
Which of the following control types would be BEST to use to identify violations and incidents?

A. Detective
B. Compensating
C. Deterrent
D. Corrective
E. Recovery
F. Preventive

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 122
Which of the following provides a catalog of security and privacy controls related to the United States
federal information systems?

A. GDPR
B. PCI DSS
C. ISO 27000
D. NIST 800-53

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
NIST Special Publication 800-53 provides a catalog of security and privacy controls for all U.S. federal
information systems except those related to national security. It is published by the National Institute of
Standards and Technology, which is a non- regulatory agency of the United States Department of
Commerce.

QUESTION 123
A penetration tester was able to compromise an internal server and is now trying to pivot the current
session in a network lateral movement. Which of the following tools, if available on the server, will provide
the MOST useful information for the next assessment step?

A. Autopsy
B. Cuckoo
C. Memdump
D. Nmap

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Memdump
A display or printout of all or selected contents of RAM. After a program abends (crashes), a memory
dump is taken in order to analyze the status of the program. The programmer looks into the memory
buffers to see which data items were being worked on at the time of failure.

Nmap
Nmap is a network scanner created by Gordon Lyon. Nmap is used to discover hosts and services on a
computer network by sending packets and analyzing the responses. Nmap provides a number of features
for probing computer networks, including host discovery and service and operating system detection.

QUESTION 124
A news article states that a popular web browser deployed on all corporate PCs is vulnerable a zero-day
attack. Which of the following MOST concern the Chief Information Security Officer about the information
in the new article?

A. Insider threats have compromised this network

B. Web browsing is not functional for the entire network
C. Antivirus signatures are required to be updated immediately
D. No patches are available for the web browser

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 125
A systems analyst determines the source of a high number of connections to a web server that were
initiated by ten different IP addresses that belong to a network block in a specific country. Which of the
following techniques will the systems analyst MOST likely implement to address this issue?

A. SIEM
B. SIEM
C. Firewall rules
D. DLP

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 126
A penetration tester gains access to the network by exploiting a vulnerability on a public- facing web
server. Which of the following techniques will the tester most likely perform NEXT?

A. Gather more information about the target through passive reconnaissance

B. Establish rules of engagement before proceeding
C. Create a user account to maintain persistence
D. Move laterally throughout the network to search for sensitive information

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 127
An organization is concerned about intellectual property theft by employee who leave the organization.
Which of the following will be organization MOST likely implement?

A. CBT
B. NDA
C. MOU
D. AUP

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 128
An organization wants seamless authentication to its applications. Which of the following should the
organization employ to meet this requirement?

A. SOAP
B. SAML
C. SSO
D. Kerberos

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 129
A company is providing security awareness training regarding the importance of not forwarding social
media messages from unverified sources. Which of the following risks would this training help to prevent?

A. Hoaxes
B. SPIMs
C. Identity fraud
D. Credential harvesting

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Hoax
A hoax is a falsehood deliberately fabricated to masquerade as the truth. It is distinguishable from errors in
observation or judgment, rumors, urban legends, pseudo sciences, and April Fools' Day events that are
passed along in good faith by believers or as jokes.

Identity theft
Identity theft occurs when someone uses another person's personal identifying information, like their name,
identifying number, or credit card number, without their permission, to commit fraud or other crimes. The
term identity theft was coined in 1964. Identity fraud (also known as identity theft or crime) involves
someone using another individual's personal information without consent, often to obtain a benefit.

Credential Harvesting
Credential Harvesting (or Account Harvesting) is the use of MITM attacks, DNS poisoning, phishing, and
other vectors to amass large numbers of credentials (username / password combinations) for reuse.

QUESTION 130
After a WiFi scan of a local office was conducted, an unknown wireless signal was identified Upon
investigation, an unknown Raspberry Pi device was found connected to an Ethernet port using a single
connection. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this device?

A. Evil twin
B. Rogue access point
C. On-path attack

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 131
A recent security audit revealed that a popular website with IP address [Link] also has an FTP service
that employees were using to store sensitive corporate data. The organization's outbound firewall
processes rules top-down. Which of the following would permit HTTP and HTTPS, while denying all other
services for this host?

A. access-rule permit tcp destination [Link] port 80 access-rule permit tcp destination 172.16-1-5 port
443 access-rule deny ip destination [Link]
B. access-rule permit tcp destination [Link] port 22 access-rule permit tcp destination [Link] port
443 access-rule deny tcp destination [Link] port 80
C. access-rule permit tcp destination [Link] port 21 access-rule permit tcp destination [Link] port
80 access-rule deny ip destination [Link]
D. access-rule permit tcp destination [Link] port 80 access-rule permit tcp destination [Link] port
443 access-rule deny tcp destination [Link] port 21

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 132
A company currently uses passwords for logging in to company-owned devices and wants to add a second
authentication factor. Per corporate policy, users are not allowed to have smartphones at their desks.
Which of the following would meet these requirements?

A. Smart card
B. PIN code
C. Knowledge-based question
D. Secret key

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 133
A backdoor was detected on the containerized application environment. The investigation detected that a
zero-day vulnerability was introduced when the latest container image version was downloaded from a
public registry. Which of the following is the BEST solution to prevent this type of incident from occurring
again?

A. Deploy an IPS solution capable of detecting signatures of attacks targeting containers

B. Define a vulnerability scan to assess container images before being introduced on the environment
C. Create a dedicated VPC for the containerized environment

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 134
A security manager runs Nessus scans of the network after every maintenance window. Which of the
following is the security manger MOST likely trying to accomplish?

A. Verifying that system patching has effectively removed knows vulnerabilities

B. Identifying assets on the network that may not exist on the network asset inventory
C. Validating the hosts do not have vulnerable ports exposed to the internet
D. Checking the status of the automated malware analysis that is being performed

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 135
An analyst just discovered an ongoing attack on a host that is on the network. The analyst observes the
below taking place:

1. The computer performance is slow

2. Ads are appearing from various pop-up windows
3. Operating system files are modified
4. The computer is receiving AV alerts for execution of malicious processes

Which of the following steps should the analyst consider FIRST?

A. Check to make sure the DLP solution is in the active state

B. Patch the host to prevent exploitation
C. Put the machine in containment
D. Update the AV solution on the host to stop the attack

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 136
Name: [Link]

Address: [Link]

Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred on the user's internal network?

A. DNS poisoning
B. URL redirection
C. ARP poisoning
D. /etc/hosts poisoning

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 137
An organization maintains several environments in which patches are developed and tested before
deployed to an operation status. Which of the following is the environment in which patches will be
deployed just prior to being put into an operational status?

A. Development
B. Test
C. Production
D. Staging

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 138
A recent audit cited a risk involving numerous low-criticality vulnerabilities created by a web application
using a third-party library. The development staff state there are still customers using the application even
though it is end of life and it would be a substantial burden to update the application for compatibility with
more secure libraries. Which of the following would be the MOST prudent course of action?

A. Accept the risk if there is a clear road map for timely decommission
B. Deny the risk due to the end-of-life status of the application.
C. Use containerization to segment the application from other applications to eliminate the risk
D. Outsource the application to a third-party developer group

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 139
The website [Link] requires users to provide personal information including security
responses, for registration. which of the following would MOST likely cause a date breach?

A. LACK OF INPUT VALIDATION

B. OPEN PERMISSIONS
C. UNSCECURE PROTOCOL
D. MISSING PATCHES

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 140
Administrators have allowed employee to access their company email from personal computers. However,
the administrators are concerned that these computes are another attach surface and can result in user
accounts being breached by foreign actors. Which of the following actions would provide the MOST secure
solution?

A. Enable an option in the administration center so accounts can be locked if they are accessed from
different geographical areas
B. Implement a 16-character minimum length and 30-day expiration password policy
C. Set up a global mail rule to disallow the forwarding of any company email to email addresses outside
the organization
D. Enforce a policy that allows employees to be able to access their email only while they are connected
to the internet via VPN

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 141
A cybersecurity administrator needs to allow mobile BYOD devices to access network resources. As the
devices are not enrolled to the domain and do not have policies applied to them, which of the following are
best practices for authentication and infrastructure security? (Select TWO).

A. Create a new network for the mobile devices and block the communication to the internal network and
servers
B. Use a captive portal for user authentication.
C. Authenticate users using OAuth for more resiliency
D. Implement SSO and allow communication to the internal network
E. Use the existing network and allow communication to the internal network and servers.
F. Use a new and updated RADIUS server to maintain the best solution

Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 142
A security analyst wants to fingerprint a web server. Which of the following tools will the security analyst
MOST likely use to accomplish this task?
A. nmap -p1-65535 [Link]
B. dig [Link]
C. curl --head [Link]
D. ping [Link]

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
curl -- Identify remote web server
Type the command as follows:$ curl -I [Link] curl -I [Link]
HTTP/1.1 200 OK
Content-type: text/html
Content-Length: 0
Date: Mon, 28 Jan 2008 [Link] GMT
Server: lighttpd

QUESTION 143
A company wants to restrict emailing of PHI documents. The company is implementing a DLP solution. In
order to restrict PHI documents, which of the following should be performed FIRST?

A. Governance
B. Classification
C. Change management

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
In these cases, secure PHI retention is absolutely necessary. The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid
Services (CMS) requires that hospitals keep their records for five years at a minimum, with a six year PHI
retention requirement for critical access hospitals.

QUESTION 144
Law enforcement officials sent a company a notification that states electronically stored information and
paper documents cannot be destroyed. Which of the following explains this process?

A. Accountability
B. Legal hold
C. Chain of custody

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 145
A security analyst is investigating multiple hosts that are communicating to external IP addresses during
the hours of 2:00 a.m - 4:00 am. The malware has evaded detection by traditional antivirus software.
Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely infecting the hosts?

A. A RAT
B. Ransomware
C. Logic bomb
D. A worm

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 146
DDoS attacks are causing an overload on the cluster of cloud servers. A security architect is researching
alternatives to make the cloud environment respond to load fluctuation in a cost-effective way. Which of the
following options BEST fulfils the architect's requirements?

A. An orchestration solution that can adjust scalability of cloud assets

B. Use of multipath by adding more connections to cloud storage
C. Cloud assets replicated on geographically distributed regions
D. An on-site backup that is deployed and only used when the load increases

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 147
An organization wants to integrate its incident response processes into a workflow with automated decision
points and actions based on predefined playbooks. Which of the following should the organization
implement?

A. SIEM
B. SOAR
C. C. EDR
D. CASB

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Why is SOAR used? To synchronize tools, accelerate response times, reduce alert fatigue, and
compensate for the skill shortage gap. To collaborate with other analysts during investigations. To analyze
workload, organize an analyst's tasks, and allow teams to respond using their own processes.

EDR
The Endpoint Detection and Response Solutions (EDR) market is defined as solutions that record and
store endpoint-system-level behaviors, use various data analytics techniques to detect suspicious system
behavior, provide contextual information, block malicious activity, and provide remediation suggestions to
restore ...

QUESTION 148
Which biometric error would allow an unauthorized user to access a system?

A. False acceptance
B. False entrance
C. False rejection
D. False denial

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Biometric security uses False Acceptance Rate (FAR) for the proportion of times a system grants access
to an unauthorized person. In statistical terms, FAR is Type II error. Also known as False Match Rate
(FRM).

QUESTION 149
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has decided to reorganize security staff to concentrate on
incident response and to outsource outbound Internet URL categorization and filtering to an outside
company. Additionally, the CISO would like this solution to provide the same protections even when a
company laptop or mobile device is away from a home office. Which of the following should the CISO
choose?
A. CASB
B. Next-generation SWG
C. NGFW
D. Web-application firewall

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
CASBA Next Generation Secure Web Gateway (SWG) is a new cloud- native solution for protecting
enterprises from the growing volume of sophisticated cloud enabled threats and data risks. It is the logical
evolution of the traditional secure web gateway, also known as a web proxy or web filter.
Next-Generation SWG
A Next Generation Secure Web Gateway (SWG) is a new cloud-native solution for protecting enterprises
from the growing volume of sophisticated cloud enabled threats and data risks. It is the logical evolution of
the traditional secure web gateway, also known as a web proxy or web filter.

NGFW
A Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) is a cyber security solution to protect network fronts with capabilities
that extend beyond traditional firewalls.

Web-application firewall
A WAF protects your web apps by filtering, monitoring, and blocking any malicious HTTP/S traffic traveling
to the web application, and prevents any unauthorized data from leaving the app. It does this by adhering
to a set of policies that help determine what traffic is malicious and what traffic is safe.

QUESTION 150
Which of the following must be in place before implementing a BCP?

A. SLA
B. AUP
C. NDA
D. BIA

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
To create an effective business continuity plan, a firm should take these five steps:
Step 1: Risk Assessment
This phase includes:
Evaluation of the company's risks and exposures
Assessment of the potential impact of various business disruption scenarios Determination of the most
likely threat scenarios Assessment of telecommunication recovery options and communication plans
Prioritization of findings and development of a roadmap Step 2: Business Impact Analysis (BIA) During this
phase we collect information on:
Recovery assumptions, including Recovery Point Objectives (RPO) and Recovery Time Objectives (RTO)
Critical business processes and workflows as well as the supporting production applications
Interdependencies, both internal and external
Critical staff including backups, skill sets, primary and secondary contacts Future endeavors that may
impact recovery
Special circumstances
Pro tip: Compiling your BIA into a master list can be helpful from a wholistic standpoint, as well as helpful
in identifying pain points throughout the organization.
Step 3: Business Continuity Plan Development
This phase includes:
Obtaining executive sign-off of Business Impact Analysis Synthesizing the Risk Assessment and BIA
findings to create an actionable and thorough plan Developing department, division and site level plans
Reviewing plan with key stakeholders to finalize and distribute Step 4: Strategy and Plan Development
Validate that the recovery times that you have stated in your plan are obtainable and meet the objectives
that are stated in the BIA. They should easily be available and readily accessible to staff, especially if and
when a disaster were to happen. In the development phase, it's important to incorporate many
perspectives from various staff and all departments to help map the overall company feel and
organizational focus. Once the plan is developed, we recommend that you have an executive or
management team review and sign off on the overall plan.
Step 5: Plan Testing & Maintenance
The final critical element of a business continuity plan is to ensure that it is tested and maintained on a
regular basis. This includes:
Conducting periodic table top and simulation exercises to ensure key stakeholders are comfortable with
the plan steps
Executing bi-annual plan reviews
Performing annual Business Impact Assessments

QUESTION 151
Several universities are participating in a collaborative research project and need to share compute and
storage resources. Which of the following cloud deployment strategies would BEST meet this need?

A. Community
B. Private
C. Public
D. Hybrid

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Community cloud storage is a variation of the private cloud storage model, which offers cloud solutions for
specific businesses or communities. In this model, cloud storage providers offer their cloud architecture,
software and other development tools to meet the requirements of the community. A community cloud in
computing is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a
specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed
internally or by a third-party and hosted internally or externally.

QUESTION 152
An organization's Chief Information Security Officer is creating a position that will be responsible for
implementing technical controls to protect data, including ensuring backups are properly maintained.
Which of the following roles would MOST likely include these responsibilities?

A. Data protection officer

B. Data owner
C. Backup administrator
D. Data custodian
E. Internal auditor

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 153
A security engineer needs to build a solution to satisfy regulatory requirements that state certain critical
servers must be accessed using MFA. However, the critical servers are older and are unable to support
the addition of MFA. Which of the following will the engineer MOST likely use to achieve this objective?

A. A forward proxy
B. A stateful firewall
C. A jump server
D. A port tap

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 154
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is evaluating the dangers involved in deploying a new ERP
system for the company. The CISO categorizes the system, selects the controls that apply to the system,
implements the controls, and then assesses the success of the controls before authorizing the system.
Which of the following is the CISO using to evaluate the environment for this new ERP system?

A. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis

B. CIS Critical Security Controls
C. NIST Risk Management Framework
D. ISO 27002

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
ISO/IEC 27002 is an information security standard published by the International Organization for
Standardization and by the International Electrotechnical Commission, titled Information technology ?
Security techniques ?Code of practice for information security controls.

QUESTION 155
A security analyst is responding to an alert from the SIEM. The alert states that malware was discovered
on a host and was not automatically deleted. Which of the following would be BEST for the analyst to
perform?

A. Add a deny-all rule to that host in the network ACL

B. Implement a network-wide scan for other instances of the malware.
C. Quarantine the host from other parts of the network
D. Revoke the client's network access certificates

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
What is Malware?
Malware, short for "malicious software," refers to any intrusive software developed by cybercriminals (often
called "hackers") to steal data and damage or destroy computers and computer systems. Examples of
common malware include viruses, worms, Trojan viruses, spyware, adware, and ransomware. Recent
malware attacks have exfiltrated data in mass amounts.
How do I protect my network against malware?
Typically, businesses focus on preventative tools to stop breaches. By securing the perimeter, businesses
assume they are safe. Some advanced malware, however, will eventually make their way into your
network. As a result, it is crucial to deploy technologies that continually monitor and detect malware that
has evaded perimeter defenses. Sufficient advanced malware protection requires multiple layers of
safeguards along with high-level network visibility and intelligence.
How do I detect and respond to malware?
Malware will inevitably penetrate your network. You must have defenses that provide significant visibility
and breach detection. In order to remove malware, you must be able to identify malicious actors quickly.
This requires constant network scanning. Once the threat is identified, you must remove the malware from
your network. Today's antivirus products are not enough to protect against advanced cyber threats. Learn
how to update your antivirus strategy.
Exam E

QUESTION 1
Due to unexpected circumstances, an IT company must vacate its main office, forcing all operations to
alternate, off-site locations. Which of the following will the company MOST likely reference for guidance
during this change?

A. The business continuity plan

B. The retention policy
C. The disaster recovery plan
D. The incident response plan

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would detect intrusions at the perimeter of an airport?

A. Signage
B. Fencing
C. Motion sensors
D. Lighting
E. Bollards

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Fibre optic cable is designed to detect and pinpoint the location of intrusion anywhere on the airport
perimeter fence, providing real-time reporting of intrusion.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following in a forensic investigation should be priorities based on the order of volatility?
(Select TWO).

A. Page files
B. Event logs
C. RAM
D. Cache
E. Stored files
F. HDD

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 4
An amusement park is implementing a biometric system that validates customers' fingerprints to ensure
they are not sharing tickets The park's owner values customers above all and would prefer customers'
convenience over security. For this reason, which of the following features should the security team
prioritize FIRST?

A. Low FAR
B. Low efficacy
C. Low FRR
D. Low CER
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
Which of the following components can be used to consolidate and forward inbound Interne! traffic to
multiple cloud environments though a single firewall?

A. Transit gateway
B. Cloud hot site
C. Edge computing
D. DNS sinkhole

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which of the following types of attacks is being attempted and how can it be mitigated?

A. XSS; implement a SIEM

B. CSRF; implement an IPS
C. Directory traversal: implement a WAF
D. SQL injection: implement an IDS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are common VoIP-associated vulnerabilities? (Select TWO).

A. SPIM
B. vising
C. Hopping
D. Phishing
E. Credential harvesting
F. Tailgating

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 8
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) requested a report on potential areas of improvement
following a security incident. Which of the following incident response processes is the CISO requesting?

A. Lessons learned
B. Preparation
C. Detection
D. Containment
E. Root cause analysis

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
A customer service representative reported an unusual text message that was sent to the help desk. The
message contained an unrecognized invoice number with a large balance due and a link to click for more
details. Which of the following BEST describes this technique?

A. Vishing
B. Whaling
C. Phishing
D. Smishing

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 10
A company Is planning to install a guest wireless network so visitors will be able to access the Internet.
The stakeholders want the network to be easy to connect to so time is not wasted during meetings. The
WAPs are configured so that power levels and antennas cover only the conference rooms where visitors
will attend meetings. Which of the following would BEST protect the company's Internal wireless network
against visitors accessing company resources?

A. Configure the guest wireless network to be on a separate VLAN from the company's internal wireless
network
B. Change the password for the guest wireless network every month.
C. Decrease the power levels of the access points for the guest wireless network.
D. Enable WPA2 using 802.1X for logging on to the guest wireless network.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
A security analyst has been tasked with creating a new WiFi network for the company. The requirements
received by the analyst are as follows:

Must be able to differentiate between users connected to WiFi The encryption keys need to change
routinely without interrupting the users or forcing reauthentication Must be able to integrate with RADIUS
Must not have any open SSIDs

Which of the following options BEST accommodates these requirements?

A. WPA2-Enterprise
B. WPA3-PSK
C. 802.11n
D. WPS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Certain users are reporting their accounts are being used to send unauthorized emails and conduct
suspicious activities. After further investigation, a security analyst notices the following:

1. All users share workstations throughout the day.

2. Endpoint protection was disabled on several workstations throughout the network.
3. Travel times on logins from the affected users are impossible.
4. Sensitive data is being uploaded to external sites.
5. All user account passwords were forced to be reset and the issue continued.

Which of the following attacks is being used to compromise the user accounts?

A. Brute-force
B. Keylogger
C. Dictionary
D. Rainbow

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for securing an air-gapped laboratory HVAC system?

A. To avoid data leakage

B. To protect surveillance logs
C. To ensure availability
D. To restrict remote access

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which of the following should be monitored by threat intelligence researchers who search for leaked
credentials?

A. Common Weakness Enumeration

B. OSINT
C. Dark web
D. Vulnerability databases

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A security proposal was set up to track requests for remote access by creating a baseline of the users'
common sign-in properties. When a baseline deviation is detected, an Iv1FA challenge will be triggered.
Which of the following should be configured in order to deploy the proposal?

A. Context-aware authentication
B. Simultaneous authentication of equals
C. Extensive authentication protocol
D. Agentless network access control

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
A cybersecurity administrator needs to implement a Layer 7 security control on a network and block
potential attacks. Which of the following can block an attack at Layer 7? (Select TWO).

A. HIDS
B. NIPS
C. HSM
D. WAF
E. NAC
F. NIDS
G. Stateless firewall

Correct Answer: DG
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 17
A company suspects that some corporate accounts were compromised. The number of suspicious logins
from locations not recognized by the users is increasing. Employees who travel need their accounts
protected without the risk of blocking legitimate login requests that may be made over new sign-in
properties. Which of the following security controls can be implemented?

A. Enforce MFA when an account request reaches a risk threshold.

B. implement geofenoing to only allow access from headquarters
C. Enforce time-based login requests trial align with business hours
D. Shift the access control scheme to a discretionary access control

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 18
A cloud service provider has created an environment where customers can connect existing local networks
to the cloud lor additional computing resources and block internal HR applications from reaching the cloud.
Which of the following cloud models is being used?

A. Public
B. Community
C. Hybrid
D. Private

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 19
After a recent security breach, a security analyst reports that several administrative usernames and
passwords are being sent via cleartext across the network to access network devices over port 23. Which
of the following should be implemented so all credentials sent over the network are encrypted when
remotely accessing and configuring network devices?

A. SSH
B. SNMPv3
C. SFTP
D. Telnet
E. FTP

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A customer has reported that an organization's website displayed an image of a smiley (ace rather than
the expected web page for a short time two days earlier. A security analyst reviews log tries and sees the
following around the lime of the incident:

Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?

A. Invalid trust chain

B. Domain hijacking
C. DNS poisoning
D. URL redirection

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Which of the following will Increase cryptographic security?

A. High data entropy

B. Algorithms that require less computing power
C. Longer key longevity
D. Hashing

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
An attacker was eavesdropping on a user who was shopping online. The attacker was able to spoof the IP
address associated with the shopping site. Later, the user received an email regarding the credit card
statement with unusual purchases. Which of the following attacks took place?

A. On-path attack
B. Protocol poisoning
C. Domain hijacking
D. Bluejacking

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 23
While reviewing an alert that shows a malicious request on one web application, a cybersecurity analyst is
alerted to a subsequent token reuse moments later on a different service using the same single sign-on
method. Which of the following would BEST detect a malicious actor?

A. Utilizing SIEM correlation engines

B. Deploying Netflow at the network border
C. Disabling session tokens for all sites
D. Deploying a WAF for the web server
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 24
A recent security breach exploited software vulnerabilities in the firewall and within the network
management solution. Which of the following will MOST likely be used to identify when the breach
occurred through each device?

A. SIEM correlation dashboards

B. Firewall syslog event logs
C. Network management solution login audit logs
D. Bandwidth monitors and interface sensors

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which of the following employee roles is responsible for protecting an organization's collected personal
information?

A. CTO
B. DPO
C. CEO
D. DBA

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Many companies also have a data protection officer or DPO. This is a higher-level manager who is
responsible for the organization's overall data privacy policies.

[Link]
#:~:text=Many%20companies%20also%20have%20a,organization's%20overall%20data%20privacy%
20policies.

QUESTION 26
A systems administrator reports degraded performance on a virtual server. The administrator increases the
virtual memory allocation, which improves conditions, but performance degrades again after a few days
The administrator runs an analysis tool and sees the following output:

The administrator terminates the [Link], observes system performance over the next few days
and notices that the system performance does not degrade.
Which of the following issues is MOST likely occurring?

A. DLL injection
B. API attack
C. Buffer overflow
D. Memory leak

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 27
A security manager needs to assess the security posture of one of the organization's vendors. The
contract with the vendor does not allow for auditing of the vendor's security controls. Which of (he following
should the manager request to complete the assessment?

A. A service-level agreement
B. A business partnership agreement
C. A SOC 2 Type 2 report
D. A memorandum of understanding

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 28
After multiple on premises security solutions were migrated to the cloud, the incident response time
increased. The analyst are spending a long time to trace information on different cloud consoles and
correlating data in different formats.
Which of the following can be used to optimize the incident response time?

A. CASB
B. VPC
C. SWG
D. CMS

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 29
A company needs to validate its updated incident response plan using a real-world scenario that will test
decision points and relevant incident response actions without interrupting daily operations. Which of the
following would BEST meet the company's requirements?

A. Red-team exercise
B. Capture-the-flag exercise
C. Tabletop exercise
D. Phishing exercise

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 30
An organization is moving away from the use of client-side and server-side certificates for EAR The
company would like for the new EAP solution to have the ability to detect rogue access points. Which of
the following would accomplish these requirements?

A. PEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-TTLS

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 31
A company is receiving emails with links to phishing sites that look very similar to the company's own
website address and content. Which of the following is the BEST way for the company to mitigate this
attack?

A. Create a honeynet to trap attackers who access the VPN with credentials obtained by phishing.
B. Generate a list of domains similar to the company's own and implement a DNS sinkhole for each.
C. Disable POP and IMAP on all Internet-facing email servers and implement SMTPS.
D. Use an automated tool to flood the phishing websites with fake usernames and passwords.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 32
A systems administrator is troubleshooting a server's connection to an internal web server. The
administrator needs to determine the correct ports to use. Which of the following tools BEST shows which
ports on the web server are in a listening state?

A. Ipconfig
B. ssh
C. Ping
D. Netstat

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 33
Per company security policy, IT staff members are required to have separate credentials to perform
administrative functions using just-in-time permissions. Which of the following solutions is the company
Implementing?

A. Privileged access management

B. SSO
C. RADIUS
D. Attribute-based access control

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 34
The Chief Technology Officer of a local college would like visitors to utilize the school's WiFi but must be
able to associate potential malicious activity to a specific person. Which of the following would BEST allow
this objective to be met?

A. Requiring all new, on-site visitors to configure their devices to use WPS
B. Implementing a new SSID for every event hosted by the college that has visitors
C. Creating a unique PSK for every visitor when they arrive at the reception area
D. Deploying a captive portal to capture visitors' MAC addresses and names

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 35
A malware attack has corrupted 30TB of company data across all file servers A systems administrator
Identifies the malware and contains the Issue, but the data Is unrecoverable. The administrator Is not
concerned about the data loss because the company has a system in place that will allow users to access
the data that was backed up last night. Which of the following resiliency techniques did the administrator
MOST likely use to prevent impacts to business operations after an attack?

A. Tape backups
B. Replication
C. RAID
D. Cloud storage

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 36
As part of a security compliance assessment, an auditor performs automated vulnerability scans. In
addition, which of the following should the auditor do to complete the assessment?

A. User behavior analysis

B. Packet captures
C. Configuration reviews
D. Log analysis

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 37
A security analyst is investigating some users who are being redirected to a fake website that resembles
[Link]. The following output was found on the naming server of the organization:

Which of the following attacks has taken place?

A. Domain reputation
B. Domain hijacking
C. Disassociation
D. DNS poisoning

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
Which of the following is the MOST relevant security check to be performed before embedding third-parry
libraries in developed code?

A. Check to see if the third party has resources to create dedicated development and staging
environments.
B. Verify the number of companies that downloaded the third-party code and the number of contributions
on the code repository.
C. Assess existing vulnerabilities affecting the third-parry code and the remediation efficiency of the
libraries' developers.
D. Read multiple penetration-testing reports for environments running software that reused the library.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 39
During a recent penetration test, the tester discovers large amounts of data were exfiltrated over the
course of 12 months via the Internet. The penetration tester stops the test to inform the client of the
findings. Which of the following should be the client's NEXT step to mitigate the issue?

A. Conduct a full vulnerability scan to identify possible vulnerabilities.

B. Perform containment on the critical servers and resources
C. Review the firewall and identify the source of the active connection.
D. Disconnect the entire infrastructure from the Internet

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
Which of the following describes the continuous delivery software development methodology?

A. Waterfall
B. Spiral
C. V-shaped
D. Agile

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
Developers are about to release a financial application, but the number of fields on the forms that could be
abused by an attacker is troubling. Which of the following techniques should be used to address this
vulnerability?

A. Implement input validation

B. Encrypt data Before submission
C. Perform a manual review
D. Conduct a peer review session

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 42
A security administrator has discovered that workstations on the LAN are becoming infected with malware.
The cause of the infections appears to be users receiving phishing emails that are bypassing the current
email-filtering technology. As a result, users are being tricked into clicking on malicious URLs, as no
internal controls currently exist in the environment to evaluate their safety. Which of the following would be
BEST to implement to address the issue?

A. Forward proxy
B. HIDS
C. Awareness training
D. A jump server
E. IPS

Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 43
A security analyst has identified malware spreading through the corporate network and has activated the
CSIRT.
Which of the following should the analyst do NEXT?

A. Review how the malware was introduced to the network.

B. Attempt to quarantine all infected hosts to limit further spread.
C. Create help desk tickets to get infected systems reimaged.
D. Update all endpoint antivirus solutions with the latest updates.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
A junior security analyst is conducting an analysis after passwords were changed on multiple accounts
without users' interaction. The SIEM have multiple login entries with the following text:

Which of the following is the MOST likely attack conducted on the environment?

A. Malicious script
B. Privilege escalation
C. Domain hijacking
D. DNS poisoning

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 45
A security forensics analyst is examining a virtual server. The analyst wants to preserve the present state
of the virtual server, including memory contents. Which of the following backup types should be used?

A. Snapshot
B. Differential
C. Cloud
D. Full
E. Incremental

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 46
A user's login credentials were recently compromised During the investigation, the security analyst
determined the user input credentials into a pop-up window when prompted to confirm the username and
password. However the trusted website does not use a pop-up for entering user credentials. Which of the
following attacks occurred?

A. Cross-site scripting
B. SQL injection
C. DNS poisoning
D. Certificate forgery

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 47
A security analyst was called to Investigate a file received directly from a hardware manufacturer. The
analyst is trying to determine whether the file was modified in transit before installation on the user's
computer. Which of the following can be used to safely assess the file?

A. Check the hash of the installation file

B. Match the file names
C. Verify the URL download location
D. Verify the code-signing certificate

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 48
Which of the following BEST reduces the security risks introduced when running systems that have expired
vendor support and lack an immediate replacement?

A. Implement proper network access restrictions

B. Initiate a bug bounty program
C. Classify the system as shadow IT.
D. Increase the frequency of vulnerability scans

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 49
Which of the following control types is focused primarily on reducing risk before an incident occurs?

A. Preventive
B. Deterrent
C. Corrective
D. Detective

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A preventive control is designed to be implemented prior to a threat event and reduce and/or avoid the
likelihood and potential impact of a successful threat event.

QUESTION 50
Which of the following policies establishes rules to measure third-party work tasks and ensure deliverables
are provided within a specific time line?

A. SLA
B. MOU
C. AUP
D. NDA

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 51
Two organizations plan to collaborate on the evaluation of new SIEM solutions for their respective
companies. A combined effort from both organizations' SOC teams would speed up the effort. Which of the
following can be written to document this agreement?

A. MOU
B. ISA
C. SLA
D. NDA

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 52
All security analysts workstations at a company have network access to a critical server VLAN. The
information security manager wants to further enhance the controls by requiring that all access to the
secure VLAN be authorized only from a given single location. Which of the following will the information
security manager MOST likely implement?

A. A forward proxy server

B. A jump server
C. A reverse proxy server
D. A stateful firewall server

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 53
An organization is planning to open other datacenters to sustain operations in the event of a natural
disaster. Which of the following considerations would BEST support the organization's resiliency?

A. Geographic dispersal
B. Generator power
C. Fire suppression
D. Facility automation

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
During an incident response, an analyst applied rules to all inbound traffic on the border firewall and
implemented ACLs on each critical server. Following an investigation, the company realizes it is still
vulnerable because outbound traffic is not restricted, and the adversary is able to maintain a presence in
the network. In which of the following stages of the Cyber Kill Chain is the adversary currently operating?

A. Reconnaissance
B. Command and control
C. Actions on objective
D. Exploitation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 55
After returning from a conference, a user's laptop has been operating slower than normal and overheating,
and the fans have been running constantly. During the diagnosis process, an unknown piece of hardware
is found connected to the laptop's motherboard.

Which of the following attack vectors was exploited to install the hardware?

A. Removable media
B. Spear phishing
C. Supply chain
D. Direct access

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56
Which of the following would MOST likely be identified by a credentialed scan but would be missed by an
uncredentialed scan?

A. Vulnerabilities with a CVSS score greater than 6.9.

B. Critical infrastructure vulnerabilities on non-IP protocols.
C. CVEs related to non-Microsoft systems such as printers and switches.
D. Missing patches for third-party software on Windows workstations and servers.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link] 1sec91/
credentialed-versus-non-credentialed-scans A non-credentialed scan will monitor the network and see any
vulnerabilities that an attacker would easily find; we should fix the vulnerabilities found with a non-
credentialed scan first, as this is what the hacker will see when they enter your network. For example, an
administrator runs a non-credentialed scan on the network and finds that there are three missing patches.
The scan does not provide many details on these missing patches. The administrator installs the missing
patches to keep the systems up to date as they can only operate on the information produced for them.

QUESTION 57
A database administrator wants to grant access to an application that will be reading and writing data to a
database. The database is shared by other applications also used by the finance department. Which of the
following account types Is MOST appropriate for this purpose?

A. Service
B. Shared
C. Generic
D. Admin

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 58
An administrator is experiencing issues when trying to upload a support file to a vendor. A pop-up
message reveals that a payment card number was found in the file, and the file upload was blocked. Which
of the following controls is most likely causing this issue and should be checked FIRST?

A. DLP
B. Firewall rule
C. Content filter
D. MDM
E. Application whitelist

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
Multiple business accounts were compromised a few days after a public website had its credentials
database leaked on the Internet. No business emails were identified in the breach, but the security team
thinks that the list of passwords exposed was later used to compromise business accounts. Which of the
following would mitigate the issue?

A. Complexity requirements
B. Password history
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Shared accounts

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 60
The Chief Information Security Officer warns lo prevent exfiltration of sensitive information from employee
cell phones when using public USB power charging stations. Which of the following would be the BEST
solution to Implement?

A. DLP
B. USB data blocker
C. USB OTG
D. Disabling USB ports

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
After gaining access to a dual-homed (i.e.. wired and wireless) multifunction device by exploiting a
vulnerability in the device's firmware, a penetration tester then gains shell access on another networked
asset.
This technique is an example of:

A. privilege escalation
B. footprinting
C. persistence
D. pivoting.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 62
An application developer accidentally uploaded a company's code-signing certificate private key to a public
web server. The company is concerned about malicious use of its certificate. Which of the following should
the company do FIRST?

A. Delete the private key from the repository-.

B. Verify the public key is not exposed as well.
C. Update the DLP solution to check for private keys.
D. Revoke the code-signing certificate.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 63
A company is looking to migrate some servers to the cloud to minimize its technology footprint. The
company has 100 databases that are on premises. Which of the following solutions will require the LEAST
management and support from the company?

A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. PaaS
D. SDN

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 64
A security monitoring company offers a service that alerts ifs customers if their credit cards have been
stolen. Which of the following is the MOST likely source of this information?

A. STIX
B. The dark web
C. TAXII
D. Social media
E. PCI

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 65
A company recently experienced a significant data loss when proprietary Information was leaked to a
competitor. The company took special precautions by using proper labels; however, email filter logs do not
have any record of the incident. An Investigation confirmed the corporate network was not breached, but
documents were downloaded from an employee's COPE tablet and passed to the competitor via cloud
storage. Which of the following is the BEST remediation for this data leak?

A. User training
B. CASB
C. MDM
D. DLP

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 66
A security analyst has been asked by the Chief Information Security Officer to:

1. develop a secure method of providing centralized management of infrastructure

2. reduce the need to constantly replace aging end user machines
3. provide a consistent user desktop experience

Which of the following BEST meets these requirements?

A. BYOD
B. Mobile device management
C. VDI
D. Containerization

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 67
An application owner reports suspicious activity on an internal financial application from various internal
users within the past 14 days. A security analyst notices the following:

Financial transactions were occurring during irregular time frames and outside of business hours by
unauthorized users.
Internal users in question were changing their passwords frequently during that time period. A jump box
that several domain administrator users use to connect to remote devices was recently compromised.
The authentication method used in the environment is NTLM.

Which of the following types of attacks is MOST likely being used to gain unauthorized access?

A. Pass-the-hash
B. Brute-force
C. Directory traversal
D. Replay

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 68
A routine audit of medical billing claims revealed that several claims were submitted without the
subscriber's knowledge. A review of the audit logs for the medical billing company's system indicated a
company employee downloaded customer records and adjusted the direct deposit information to a
personal bank account. Which of the following does this action describe?

A. Insider threat
B. Social engineering
C. Third-party risk
D. Data breach

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 69
A company wants to improve end users experiences when they tog in to a trusted partner website The
company does not want the users to be issued separate credentials for the partner website Which of the
following should be implemented to allow users to authenticate using their own credentials to log in to the
trusted partner's website?

A. Directory service
B. AAA server
C. Federation
D. Multifactor authentication

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 70
Which of the following statements BEST describes zero-day exploits'?

A. When a zero-day exploit is discovered, the system cannot be protected by any means
B. Zero-day exploits have their own scoring category in CVSS
C. A zero-day exploit is initially undetectable and no patch for it exists
D. Discovering zero-day exploits is always performed via bug bounty programs

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 71
Server administrators want to configure a cloud solution so that computing memory and processor usage
is maximized most efficiently across a number or virtual servers. They also need to avoid potential dental-
of-service situations caused by availability.

Which of the following should administrators configure to maximize system availability while efficiently
utilizing available computing power?

A. Dynamic resource allocation

B. High availably
C. Segmentation
D. Container security

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 72
Which of the following would BEST provide a systems administrator with the ability to more efficiently
identify systems and manage permissions and policies based on location, role, and service level?
A. Standard naming conventions
B. Domain services
C. Baseline configurations
D. Diagrams

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 73
An organization has activated an incident response plan due to a malware outbreak on its network The
organization has brought in a forensics team that has identified an internet- facing Windows server as the
likely point of initial compromise The malware family that was detected is known to be distributed by
manually logging on to servers and running the malicious code

Which of the following actions would be BEST to prevent reinfection from the initial infection vector?

A. Prevent connections over TFTP from the internal network

B. Create a firewall rule that blocks port 22 from the internet to the server
C. Disable file shanng over port 445 to the server
D. Block port 3389 inbound from untrusted networks

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 74
Which of the following is a known security nsk associated with data archives that contain financial
information?

A. Data can become a liability if archived longer than required by regulatory guidance
B. Data must be archived off-site to avoid breaches and meet business requirements
C. Companies are prohibited from providing archived data to e-discovery requests
D. Unencrypted archives should be preserved as long as possible and encrypted

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 75
An organization would like to give remote workers the ability to use applications hosted inside the
corporate network Users will be allowed to use their personal computers or they will be provided
organization assets Either way no data or applications will be installed locally on any user systems

Which of the following mobile solutions would accomplish these goals?

A. VDI
B. MDM
C. COPE
D. UTM

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
Server administrator want to configure a cloud solution so that computing memory and processor usage is
maximized most efficiently acress a number of virtual servers. They also need to avoid potential denial-of-
service situations caused by availiability. Which of the following should administrator configure to maximize
system availability while efficiently utilizing available computing power?

A. Dynamic resource allocation

B. High availability
C. Segmentation
D. Container security

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 77
During a security incident investigation, an analyst consults the company's SIEM and sees an event
concerning high traffic to a known, malicious command-and-control server. The analyst would like to
determine the number of company workstations that may be impacted by this issue. Which of the following
can provide the information?

A. WAF logs
B. DNS logs
C. System logs
D. Application logs

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 78
A forensic analyst needs to prove that data has not been tampered with since it was collected

Which of the following methods will the analyst MOST likely use?

A. Look for tampenng on the evidence collection bag

B. Encrypt the collected data using asymmetric encryption
C. Ensure proper procedures for chain of custody are being followed
D. Calculate the checksum using a hashing algorithm

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 79
An organization has developed an application that needs a patch to fix a critical vulnerability In which of the
following environments should the patch be deployed LAST?

A. Test
B. Staging
C. Development
D. Production

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
A company labeled some documents with the public sensitivity classification This means the documents
can be accessed by:

A. employees of other companies and the press

B. all members of the department that created the documents
C. only the company's employees and those listed in the document
D. only the individuate listed in the documents

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 81
A company is implementing BYOD and wants to ensure all users have access to the same cloud-based
services. Which of the following would BEST allow the company to meet this requirement?

A. laaS
B. PasS
C. MaaS
D. SaaS

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 82
An organization wants to participate in threat intelligence information sharing with peer groups. Which of
the following would MOST likely meet the organizations requirement?

A. Perform OSINT investigations

B. Subscribe to threat intelligence feeds
C. Submit RFCs
D. Implement a TAXII server

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 83
A systems administrator reports degraded performance on a virtual server. The administrator increases the
virtual memory allocation which improves conditions, but performance degrades again after a few days.
The administrator runs an anarysis tool and sees the following output:

The administrator terminates the [Link] observes system performance over the next few days,
and notices that the system performance does not degrade

Which of the following issues is MOST likely occurring?

A. DLL injection
B. API attack
C. Buffer oveiflow
D. Memory leak

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 84
A security engineer was assigned to implement a solution to prevent attackers from gaining access by
pretending to be authorized users. Which of the following technologies meets the requirement?

A. SSO
B. IDS
C. MFA
D. TPM

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 85
A security manager has tasked the security operations center with locating all web servers that respond to
an unsecure protocol. Which of the following commands could an analyst run to find requested servers?

A. nslookup [Link]
B. nmap -p 80 [Link]/24
C. pathping [Link] -p 80
D. no -1 -p 80

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 86
A report delivered to the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) shows that some user credentials could
be exfilltrated. The report also indicates that users tend to choose the same credentials on different
systems and applications.

Which of the following policies should the CISO use to prevent someone from using the exfilltrated
credentials?

A. MFA
B. Lockout
C. Time-based logins
D. Password history

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 87
During an incident response, an analyst applied rules to all inbound traffic on the border firewall and
implemented ACLs on each critical server Following an investigation, the company realizes it is still
vulnerable because outbound traffic is not restncted and the adversary is able lo maintain a presence in
the network. In which of the following stages of the Cyber Kill Chain is the adversary currently operating?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Command and control
C. Actions on objective
D. Exploitation

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 88
Which of the following risk management strategies would an organization use to maintain a legacy system
with known risks for operational purposes?

A. Acceptance
B. Transference
C. Avoidance
D. Mitigation

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 89
Which of the following terms describes a broad range of information that is sensitive to a specific
organization?

A. Public
B. Top secret
C. Proprietary
D. Open-source

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 90
An organization has hired a ted team to simulate attacks on its security posture Which of the following will
the blue team do after detecting an loC?

A. Reimage the impacted workstations

B. Activate runbooks for incident response
C. Conduct forensics on the compromised system
D. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 91
Which of the following is an example of transference of risk?

A. Purchasing insurance
B. Patching vulnerable servers
C. Retiring outdated applications
D. Application owner risk sign-off

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 92
Which of the following is a benefit of including a risk management framework into an organization's
security approach?

A. It defines expected service levels from participating supply chain partners to ensure system outages
are remediated in a timely manner
B. It identifies specific vendor products that have been tested and approved for use in a secure
environment.
C. It provides legal assurances and remedies in the event a data breach occurs
D. It incorporates control, development, policy, and management activities into IT operations.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 93
A large bank with two geographically dispersed data centers is concerned about major power disruptions
at both locations Every day each location expenences very bnef outages that last for a few seconds
However dunng the summer a high risk of intentional brownouts that last up to an hour exists particularly at
one of the locations near an jndustnal smelter. Which of the following is the BEST solution to reduce the
risk of data loss?

A. Dual supply
B. Generator
C. UPS
D. PDU
E. Daily backups

Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 94
A DBA reports that several production server hard drives were wiped over the weekend. The DBA also
reports that several Linux servers were unavailable due to system files being deleted unexpectedly. A
security analyst verified that software was configured to delete data deliberately from those servers. No
backdoors to any servers were found. Which of the following attacks was MOST likely used to cause the
data toss?

A. Logic bomb
B. Ransomware
C. Fileless virus
D. Remote access Trojans
E. Rootkit

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 95
A Chief Information Security Officer has defined resiliency requirements for a new data center architecture
The requirements are as follows:

1. Critical fileshares will remain accessible during and after a natural disaster
2. Frve percent of hard disks can fail at any given time without impacting the data.
3. Systems will be forced to shut down gracefully when battery levels are below 20%

Which of the following are required to BEST meet these objectives? (Select THREE)

A. Fiber switching
B. laC
C. NAS
D. RAID
E. UPS
F. Redundant power supplies
G. Geographic dispersal
H. Snapshots
I. Load balancing

Correct Answer: ACG

Explanation

QUESTION 96
A company wants to restrict emailing of PHI documents. The company is implementing a DLP solution In
order to reslnct PHI documents which of the following should be performed FIRST?

A. Retention
B. Governance
C. Classification
D. Change management

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 97
An audit Identified Pll being utilized In the development environment of a critical application. The Chief
Privacy Officer (CPO) Is adamant that this data must be removed; however, the developers are concerned
that without real data they cannot perform functionality tests and search for specific data. Which of the
following should a security professional implement to BEST satisfy both the CPO's and the development
team's requirements?

A. Data anonymlzallon
B. Data encryption
C. Data masking
D. Data tokenization

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 98
A company is implementing a DLP solution on the file server. The file server has Pll. financial information,
and health information stored on it Depending on what type of data that is hosted on the file server, the
company wants different DLP rules assigned to the data
Which of the following should the company do to help accomplish this goal?

A. Classify the data

B. Mask the data
C. Assign an application owner
D. Perform a risk analysis

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 99
To reduce and limit software and infrastructure costs, the Chief Information Officer has requested to move
email services to the cloud. The cloud provider and the organization must have security controls to protect
sensitive data. Which of the following cloud services would BEST accommodate the request?

A. laas
B. Paas
C. Daas
D. SaaS

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 100
Digital signatures use asymmetric encryption. This means the message is encrypted with:

A. the sender's private key and decrypted with the sender's public key
B. the sender's public key and decrypted with the sender's private key
C. the sender's private key and decrypted with the recipient's public key.
D. the sender's public key and decrypted with the recipient's private key

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 101
Which of the following documents provides expectations at a technical level for quality, availability, and
responsibilities?

A. EOL
B. SLA
C. MOU
D. EOSL

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 102
An engineer wants to inspect traffic to a cluster of web servers in a cloud environment. Which of the
following solutions should the engineer implement?

A. Proxy server
B. WAF
C. Load balancer
D. VPN

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 103
A software company adopted the following processes before releasing software to production:

1. Peer review
2. Static code scanning
3. Signing

A considerable number of vulnerabilities are still being detected when code is executed on production

Which of the following security tools can improve vulnerability detection on this environment?

A. File integrity monitonng for the source code

B. Dynamic code analysis tool
C. Encrypted code repository
D. Endpoint detection and response solution

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 104
A SOC operator is analyzing a log file that contains the following entries:

A. SQL injection and improper input-handling attempts

B. Cross-site scripting and resource exhaustion attempts
C. Command injection and directory traversal attempts
D. Error handling and privilege escalation attempts

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 105
A security incident has been resolved Which of the following BEST describes the importance of the final
phase of the incident response plan?

A. It examines and documents how well the team responded discovers what caused the incident, and
determines how the incident can be avoided in the future
B. It returns the affected systems back into production once systems have been fully patched, data
restored and vulnerabilities addressed
C. It identifies the incident and the scope of the breach how it affects the production environment, and the
ingress point
D. It contains the affected systems and disconnects them from the network, preventing further spread of
the attack or breach

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 106
A business operations manager is concerned that a PC that is critical to business operations will have a
costly hardware failure soon. The manager is looking for options to continue business operations without
incurring large costs. Which of the following would mitigate the manager's concerns?

A. Implement a full system upgrade

B. Perform a physical-to-virtual migration
C. Install uninterruptible power supplies
D. Purchase cybersecurity insurance

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 107
Field workers in an organization are issued mobile phones on a daily basis All the work is performed within
one city and the mobile phones are not used for any purpose other than work The organization does not
want these pnones used for personal purposes. The organization would like to issue the phones to
workers as permanent devices so the pnones do not need to be reissued every day Qven the conditions
described, which of the following technologies would BEST meet these requirements?

A. Geofencing
B. Mobile device management
C. Containenzation
D. Remote wiping

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 108
Which of the following describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restncted
areas?

A. Persistence
B. Buffer overflow
C. Privilege escalation
D. Pharming

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link] the%
20act,from%20an%20application%20or%20user

QUESTION 109
Which of the following would be indicative of a hidden audio file found inside of a piece of source code?

A. Steganography
B. Homomotphic encryption
C. Cipher surte
D. Blockchain
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Steganography is the technique of hiding secret data within an ordinary, non- secret, file or message in
order to avoid detection; the secret data is then extracted at its destination. The use of steganography can
be combined with encryption as an extra step for hiding or protecting data. The word steganography is
derived from the Greek words steganos (meaning hidden or covered) and the Greek root graph (meaning
to write).

QUESTION 110
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has requested that a third-party vendor provide supporting
documents that show proper controls are in place to protect customer data. Which of the following would
be BEST for the third-party vendor to provide to the CISO?

A. GDPR compliance attestation

B. Cloud Security Alliance materials
C. SOC 2 Type 2 report
D. NIST RMF workbooks

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 111
Which of the following would BEST provide detective and corrective controls for thermal regulation?

A. A smoke detector
B. A fire alarm
C. An HVAC system
D. A fire suppression system
E. Guards

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 112
A company is auditing the manner in which its European customers' personal information is handled

Which of the following should the company consult?

A. GDPR
B. ISO
C. NIST
D. PCI DSS

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 113
A junior security analyst iss conducting an analysis after passwords were changed on multiple accounts
without users' interaction. The SIEM have multiple logtn entnes with the following text:
Which of Ihe following is the MOST likely attack conducted on the environment?

A. Malicious script
B. Privilege escalation
C. Doman hijacking
D. DNS poisoning

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 114
A security engineer is deploying a new wireless for a company. The company shares office space with
multiple tenants. Which of the following should the engineer configured on the wireless network to ensure
that confidential data is not exposed to unauthorized users?

A. EAP
B. TLS
C. HTTPS
D. AES

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 115
An employee received a word processing file that was delivered as an email attachment The subject line
and email content enticed the employee to open the attachment. Which of the following attack vectors
BEST matches this malware?

A. Embedded Python code

B. Macro-enabled file
C. Bash scripting
D. Credential-harvesting website

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 116
The database administration team is requesting guidance for a secure solution that will ensure
confidentiality of cardholder data at rest only in certain fields in the database schema. The requirement is
to substitute a sensitive data field with a non-sensitive field that is rendered useless if a data breach occurs

Which of the following is the BEST solution to meet the requirement?

A. Tokenization
B. Masking
C. Full disk encryption
D. Mirroring

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 117
A security analyst needs to be able to search and correlate logs from multiple sources in a single tool

Which of the following would BEST allow a security analyst to have this ability?

A. SOAR
B. SIEM
C. Log collectors
D. Network-attached storage

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 118
Business partners are working on a secunty mechanism lo validate transactions securely. The requirement
is for one company to be responsible for deploying a trusted solution that will register and issue artifacts
used to sign encrypt, and decrypt transaction files. Which of the following is the BEST solution to adopt?

A. PKI
B. Blockchain
C. SAML
D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 119
An organization implemented a process that compares the settings currently configured on systems
against secure configuration guidelines in order to identify any gaps

Which of the following control types has the organization implemented?

A. Compensating
B. Corrective
C. Preventive
D. Detective

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 120
A security analyst is evaluating solutions to deploy an additional layer of protection for a web application
The goal is to allow only encrypted communications without relying on network devices

Which of the following can be implemented?

A. HTTP security header

B. DNSSEC implementation
C. SRTP
D. S/MIME

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 121
The SOC for a large MSSP is meeting to discuss the lessons learned from a recent incident that took much
too long to resolve This type of incident has become more common in recent weeks and is consuming
large amounts of the analysts' time due to manual tasks being performed

Which of the following solutions should the SOC consider to BEST improve its response time?

A. Configure a NIDS appliance using a Switched Port Analyzer

B. Collect OSINT and catalog the artifacts in a central repository
C. Implement a SOAR with customizable playbooks
D. Install a SIEM with community-driven threat intelligence

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 122
Which of the following is the MOST effective control against zero-day vulnerabilities?

A. Network segmentation
B. Patch management
C. Intrusion prevention system
D. Multiple vulnerability scanners

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 123
Which of the following tools is effective in preventing a user from accessing unauthorized removable
media?

A. USB data blocker

B. Faraday cage
C. Proximity reader
D. Cable lock

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 124
A security analyst is receiving numerous alerts reporting that the response time of an internet-facing
application has been degraded However, the internal network performance was not degraded. Which of
the following MOST likely explains this behavior?

A. DNS poisoning
B. MAC flooding
C. DDoS attack
D. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 125
A company wants the ability to restrict web access and monitor the websites that employees visit. Which of
the following would BEST meet these requirements?

A. internet proxy
B. VPN
C. WAF
D. Firewall

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 126
A Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned that cloud-based services are not adequately protected from
advanced threats and malware The CSO believes there is a high risk that a data breach could occur in the
near future due to the lack of detective and preventive controls
Which of the following should be implemented to BEST address the CSO's concerns? {Select TWO)

A. AWAF
B. ACASB
C. An NG-SWG
D. Segmentation
E. Encryption
F. Containerization

Correct Answer: BF
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 127
An administrator needs to protect user passwords and has been advised to hash the passwords. Which of
the following BEST describes what the administrator is being advised to do?

A. Perform a mathematical operation on the passwords that will convert them into umgue stnngs
B. Add extra data to the passwords so their length is increased, making them harder to brute force
C. Store all passwords in the system in a rainbow table that has a centralized location
D. Enforce the use of one-time passwords that are changed for every login session.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 128
An ofgantzation has decided to purchase an insurance policy because a risk assessment determined that
the cost to remediate the risk is greater than the five-year cost of the insurance policy. The organization is
enabling risk

A. avoidance
B. acceptance
C. mitigation
D. transference

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 129
During an incident response process involving a laptop, a host was identified as the entry point for
malware. The management team would like to have the laptop restored and given back to the user. The
cybersecurity analyst would like to continue investigating the intrusion on the host. Which of the following
would allow the analyst to continue the investigation and also return the laptop to the user as soon as
possible?

A. dd
B. memdump
C. tcpdump
D. head

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 130
A help desk technician receives a phone call from someone claiming to be a part of the organization's
cybersecurity modem response team The caller asks the technician to verify the network's internal firewall
IP address

Which of the following 15 the technician's BEST course of action?

A. Direct the caller to stop by the help desk in person and hang up declining any further requests from the
caller
B. Ask for the callers name, verify the persons identity in the email directory and provide the requested
information over the phone
C. Write down the phone number of the carter if possible, the name of the person requesting the
information hang up. and notify the organization's cybersecurity officer
D. Request the caller send an email for identity verification and provide the requested information via
email to the caller

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 131
Which of the following is the BEST example of a cost-effective physical control to enforce a USB
removable media restriction policy?

A. Putting security/antitamper tape over USB ports logging the port numbers and regularly inspecting the
ports
B. Implementing a GPO that will restrict access to authorized USB removable media and regularly
verifying that it is enforced
C. Placing systems into locked key-controlled containers with no access to the USB ports
D. Installing an endpoint agent to detect connectivity of USB and removable media

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 132
A security analyst was asked to evaluate a potential attack that occurred on a publicly accessible section of
the company's website The malicious actor posted an entry in an attempt to trick users into cltckmg the
following:
Which of the following was MOST likely observed?

A. DLL injection
B. Session replay
C. SOLI
D. XSS

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 133
A new company wants to avoid channel interference when building a WLAN. The company needs to know
the radio frequency behavior, identify dead zones, and determine the best place for access points. Which
of the following should be done FIRST?

A. Configure heat maps.

B. Utilize captive portals.
C. Conduct a site survey.
D. Install Wi-Fi analyzers.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 134
An organization is migrating several SaaS applications that support SSO. The security manager wants to
ensure the migration is completed securely. Which of the following should the organization consider before
implementation? (Select TWO).

A. The back-end directory source

B. The identity federation protocol
C. The hashing method
D. The encryption method
E. The registration authority
F. The certificate authority

Correct Answer: CF
Explanation

QUESTION 135
During a trial, a judge determined evidence gathered from a hard drive was not admissible. Which of the
following BEST explains this reasoning?

A. The forensic investigator forgot to run a checksum on the disk image after creation
B. The chain of custody form did not note time zone offsets between transportation regions
C. The computer was turned off. and a RAM image could not be taken at the same time
D. The hard drive was not properly kept in an antistatic bag when rt was moved

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 136
A security analyst is working on a project to implement a solution that monitors network communications
and provides alerts when abnormal behavior is detected

Which of the following is the security analyst MOST likely implementing?

A. Vulnerability scans
B. User behavior analysis
C. Security orchestration, automation, and response
D. Threat hunting

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 137
An IT manager is estimating the mobile device budget for the upcoming year Over the last five years, the
number of devices that were replaced due to loss damage or theft steadily increased by 10%. Which of the
following would BEST describe the estimated number of devices to be replaced next year?

A. ALE
B. ARO
C. RPO
D. SLE

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 138
The Chief Information Security Officer directed a nsk reduction in shadow IT and created a policy requiring
all unsanctioned high-nsk SaaS applications to be blocked from user access

Which of the following is the BEST security solution to reduce this risk?

A. CASB
B. VPN concentrator
C. MFA
D. VPC endpoint

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 139
Which of the following is assured when a user signs an email using a private key?

A. Non-repudiation
B. Confidentiality
C. Availably
D. Authentication

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 140
Which of the following actions would be recommended to improve an incident response process?
A. Train the team to identify the difference between events and incidents
B. Modify access so the IT team has full access to the compromised assets
C. Contact the authorities if a cybercrime is suspected
D. Restrict communication surrounding the response to the IT team

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 141
Data exftitration analysis indicates that an attacker managed to download system configuration notes from
a web server. The web-server logs have been deleted, but analysts have determined that the system
configuration notes were stored in the database administrator's folder on the web server

Which of the following attacks explains what occurred? (Select TWO)

A. Pass-the- hash
B. Directory traversal
C. SQL injection
D. Privilege escalation
E. Cross-site scnpting
F. Request forgery

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 142
Which of the following is the GREATEST security concern when outsourcing code development to third-
party contractors for an internet-facing application?

A. Intellectual property theft

B. Elevated privileges
C. Unknown backdoor
D. Quality assurance

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 143
Which of the following provides a calculated value for known vulnerabilities so organizations can prioritize
mitigation steps?

A. CVSS
B. SIEM
C. SOAR
D. CVE

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 144
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to ensure the organization is validating and checking the
Integrity of zone transfers. Which of the following solutions should be implemented?
A. DNSSEC
B. LOAPS
C. NGFW
D. DLP

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 145
A technician enables full disk encryption on a laptop that will be taken on a business tnp. Which of the
following does this process BEST protect?

A. Data in transit
B. Data in processing
C. Data at rest
D. Data tokenization

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 146
Which of the following would be the BEST way to analyze diskless malware that has infected a VDI?

A. Shut down the VDI and copy off the event logs.
B. Take a memory snapshot of the running system.
C. Use NetFlow to identify command-and-control IPs.
D. Run a full on-demand scan of the root volume.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 147
A security policy states that common words should not be used as passwords. A security auditor was able
to perform a dictionary attack against corporate credentials

Which of the following controls was being violated?

A. Password complexity
B. Password history
C. Password reuse
D. Password length

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 148
Which of the following control Types would be BEST to use in an accounting department to reduce losses
from fraudulent transactions?

A. Recovery
B. Deterrent
C. Corrective
D. Detective
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 149
An organization discovered files with proprietary financial data have been deleted. The files have been
recovered from backup but every time the Chief Financial Officer logs in to the file server, the same files
are deleted again No other users are experiencing this issue. Which of the following types of malware is
MOST likely causing this behavior?

A. Logic bomb
B. Crypto malware
C. Spyware
D. Remote access Trojan

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 150
After a recent security incident, a security analyst discovered that unnecessary ports were open on a
firewall policy for a web server. Which of the following firewall policies would be MOST secure for a web
server?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 151
A user is attempting to navigate to a website from inside the company network using a desktop. When the
user types in the URL. [Link] the user is presented with a certificate mismatch warning from
the browser. The user does not receive a warning when visiting [Link] Which of the
following describes this attack?

A. On-path
B. Domain hijacking
C. DNS poisoning
D. Evil twin

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 152
A security analyst is designing the appropnate controls to limit unauthorized access to a physical site The
analyst has a directive to utilize the lowest possible budget

Which of the following would BEST meet the requirements?

A. Preventive controls
B. Compensating controls
C. Deterrent controls
D. Detective controls

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 153
An organization is planning lo open other data centers to sustain operations in the event of a natural
disaster. Which of the following considerations would BEST support the organization's resiliency?

A. Geographic dispersal
B. Generator power
C. Fire suppression
D. Facility automation

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 154
A user enters a username and a password at the login screen for a web portal. A few seconds later the
following message appears on the screen: Please use a combination of numbers, special characters, and
letters in the password field.
Which of the following concepts does this message describe?

A. Password complexity
B. Password reuse
C. Password history
D. Password age

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 155
Several users have opened tickets with the help desk. The help desk has reassigned the tickets to a
secunty analyst for further review The security analyst reviews the following metrics:

Which of the following is MOST likely the result of the security analyst's review?

A. The ISP is dropping outbound connections

B. The user of the Sales-PC fell for a phishing attack
C. Corporate PCs have been turned into a botnet
D. An on-path attack is taking place between PCs and the router

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 156
During a recent incident an external attacker was able to exploit an SMB vulnerability over the internet.
Which of the following action items should a security analyst perform FIRST to prevent this from occurring
again?

A. Check for any recent SMB CVEs

B. Install AV on the affected server
C. Block unneeded TCP 445 connections
D. Deploy a NIDS in the affected subnet

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 157
A security analyst is investigating suspicious traffic on the web server located at IP address [Link]. A
search of the WAF logs reveals the following output:

Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?

A. XSS attack
B. SOLi attack
C. Replay attack
D. XSRF attack

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 158
A social media company based in North Amenca is looking to expand into new global markets and needs
to maintain compliance with international standards With which of the following is the company's data
protection officer MOST likely concerned'?

A. NIST Framework
B. ISO 27001
C. GDPR
D. PCI-DSS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 159
An engineer recently deployed a group of 100 web servers in a cloud environment. Per the security policy,
all web-server ports except 443 should be disabled. Which of the following can be used to accomplish this
task?

A. Application allow list

B. SWG
C. Host-based firewall
D. VPN

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 160
An organization wants to implement a biometric system with the highest likelihood that an unauthorized
user will be denied access. Which of the following should the organization use to compare biometric
solutions?

A. FRR
B. Difficulty of use
C. Cost
D. FAR
E. CER

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 161
Which of the following organizations sets frameworks and controls for optimal security configuration on
systems?

A. ISO
B. GDPR
C. PCI DSS
D. NIST

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 162
A tax organization is working on a solution to validate the online submission of documents The solution
should be earned on a portable USB device that should be inserted on any computer that is transmitting a
transaction securely. Which of the following is the BEST certificate for these requirements?

A. User certificate
B. Self-signed certificate
C. Computer certificate
D. Root certificate

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 163
Which of the following are the BEST ways to implement remote home access to a company's intranet
systems if establishing an always-on VPN is not an option? (Select Two)

A. Install VPN concentrations at home offices

B. Create NAT on the firewall for intranet systems
C. Establish SSH access to a jump server
D. Implement a SSO solution
E. Enable MFA for intranet systems
F. Configure SNMPv3 server and clients.

Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 164
A security analyst is tasked with defining the "something you are" factor of the company's MFA settings.
Which of the following is BEST to use to complete the configuration?

A. Gait analysis
B. Vein
C. Soft token
D. HMAC-based, one-time password

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 165
A company has a flat network in the cloud. The company needs to implement a solution to segment its
production and non-production servers without migrating servers to a new network. Which of the following
solutions should the company implement?

A. internet
B. Screened Subnet
C. VLAN segmentation
D. Zero Trust

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 166
A security analyst in a SOC has been tasked with onboarding a new network into the SIEM. Which of the
following BEST describes the information that should feed into a SIEM solution in order to adequately
support an investigation?

A. Logs from each device type and security layer to provide correlation of events
B. Only firewall logs since that is where attackers will most likely try to breach the network
C. Email and web-browsing logs because user behavior is often the cause of security breaches
D. NetFlow because it is much more reliable to analyze than syslog and will be exportable from every
device

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 167
An attacker replaces a digitally signed document with another version that foes unnoticed. Upon reviewing
the document's contents, the author notices some additional verbaige that was not originally in the
document but can't validate an integrity issue. Which of the following attacks was used?

A. Cryptomalware
B. Prepending
C. Collision
D. Phising

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 168
Which of the following typically uses a combination of human and artificial intelligence to analyze event
data and take action without intervention?

A. TTP
B. OSINT
C. SOAR
D. SIEM

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 169
A security analyst is receiving several alerts per user and is trying to determine If various logins are
malicious. The security analyst would like to create a baseline of normal operations and reduce noise.
Which of the following actions should the security analyst perform?

A. Adjust the data flow from authentication sources to the SIEM.

B. Disable email alerting and review the SIEM directly.
C. Adjust the sensitivity levels of the SIEM correlation engine.
D. Utilize behavioral analysis to enable the SIEM's learning mode.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 170
Which of the following techniques eliminates the use of rainbow tables for password cracking?

A. Hashing
B. Tokenization
C. Asymmetric encryption
D. Salting

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Rainbow table attacks can easily be prevented by using salt techniques, which is a random data that is
passed into the hash function along with the plain text.

QUESTION 171
A news article states hackers have been selling access to IoT camera feeds. Which of the following is the
Most likely reason for this issue?

A. Outdated software
B. Weak credentials
C. Lack of encryption
D. Backdoors

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 172
Which of the following prevents an employee from seeing a colleague who is visting an inappropriate
website?

A. Job roration policy

B. NDA
C. AUP
D. Separation of duties policy

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 173
Which of the following is a policy that provides a greater depth of knowldge across an organization?

A. Asset manahement policy

B. Separation of duties policy
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Job Rotation policy

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 174
While preparing a software Inventory report, a security analyst discovers an unauthorized program
installed on most of the company's servers. The program utilizes the same code signing certificate as an
application deployed to only the accounting team.

Which of the following mitigations would BEST secure the server environment?

A. Revoke the code signing certificate used by both programs.

B. Block all unapproved file hashes from installation.
C. Add the accounting application file hash to the allowed list.
D. Update the code signing certificate for the approved application.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 175
A security engineer is building a file transfer solution to send files to a business partner. The users would
like to drop off the files in a specific directory and have the server send to the business partner. The
connection to the business partner is over the internet and needs to be secure. Which of the following can
be used?

A. S/MIME
B. LDAPS
C. SSH
D. SRTP

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 176
A network engineer created two subnets that will be used for production and development servers. Per
security policy, production and development servers must each have a dedicated network that cannot
communicate with one another directly. Which of the following should be deployed so that server
administrators can access these devices?

A. VLANS
B. Internet proxy servers
C. NIDS
D. Jump servers

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 177
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of a bank recently updated the incident response policy. The
CISO is concerned that members of the incident response team do not understand their roles. The bank
wants to test the policy but with the least amount of resources or impact.

Which of the following BEST meets the requirements?

A. Warm site failover

B. Tabletop walk-through
C. Parallel path testing
D. Full outage simulation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 178
Two hospitals merged into a single organization. The privacy officer requested a review of all records to
ensure encryption was used during record storage, in compliance with regulations. During the review, the
officer discovered thai medical diagnosis codes and patient names were left unsecured. Which of the
following types of data does this combination BEST represent?

A. Personal health information

B. Personally Identifiable Information
C. ToKenized data
D. Proprietary data

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Exam F

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP

A security engineer is setting up passwordless authentication for the first time.

INSTRUCTIONS

Use the minimum set of commands to set this up and verify that it works. Commands cannot be reused.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset
All button.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP

A security administrator is given the security and availability profiles for servers that are being deployed.
Match each RAID type with the correct configuration and MINIMUM number of drives.
Review the server profiles and match them with the appropriate RAID type based on integrity, availability, I/
O, storage requirements. Instructions:

1. All drive definitions can be dragged as many times as necessary

2. Not all placeholders may be filled in the RAID configuration boxes
3. If parity is required, please select the appropriate number of parity checkboxes
4. Server profiles may be dragged only once

Instructions: If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the
Reset button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the
simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
RAID-0 is known as striping. It is not a fault tolerant solution but does improve disk performance for read/
write operations. Striping requires a minimum of two disks and does not use parity. RAID-0 can be used
where performance is required over fault tolerance, such as a media streaming server.
RAID-1 is known as mirroring because the same data is written to two disks so that the two disks have
identical data. This is a fault tolerant solution that halves the storage space. A minimum of two disks are
used in mirroring and does not use parity. RAID-1 can be used where fault tolerance is required over
performance, such as on an authentication server.
RAID-5 is a fault tolerant solution that uses parity and striping. A minimum of three disks are required for
RAID-5 with one disk’s worth of space being used for parity information.
However, the parity information is distributed across all the disks. RAID-5 can recover from a sing disk
failure.
RAID-6 is a fault tolerant solution that uses dual parity and striping. A minimum of four disks are required
for RAID-6. Dual parity allows RAID-6 to recover from the simultaneous failure of up to two disks. Critical
data should be stored on a RAID-6 system.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis,
2014, pp. 34-36, 234-235

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list. Determine the types of
Attacks from right to specific action.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A. Phishing.
B. Whaling.
C. Vishing.
D. Spim.
E. Social engineering.

A: Phishing is the act of sending an email to a user falsely claiming to be an established legitimate
enterprise in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity
theft.
Phishing email will direct the user to visit a website where they are asked to update personal information,
such as a password, credit card, social security, or bank account numbers, that the legitimate organization
already has. The website, however, is bogus and set up only to steal the information the user enters on the
page.

B: Whaling is a specific kind of malicious hacking within the more general category of phishing, which
involves hunting for data that can be used by the hacker. In general, phishing efforts are focused on
collecting personal data about users. In whaling, the targets are high-ranking bankers, executives or others
in powerful positions or job titles.
Hackers who engage in whaling often describe these efforts as "reeling in a big fish,"applying a familiar
metaphor to the process of scouring technologies for loopholes and opportunities for data theft. Those who
are engaged in whaling may, for example, hack into specific networks where these powerful individuals
work or store sensitive data. They may also set up keylogging or other malware on a work station
associated with one of these executives. There are many ways that hackers can pursue whaling, leading
C-level or toplevel executives in business and government to stay vigilant about the possibility of cyber
threats.

C: Vishing is the act of using the telephone in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private
information that will be used for identity theft. The scammer usually pretends to be a legitimate business,
and fools the victim into thinking he or she will profit.

D: SPIM is a term sometimes used to refer to spam over IM (Instant Messaging). It’s also called just spam,
instant spam, or IM marketing. No matter what the name, it consists of unwanted messages transmitted
through some form of instant messaging service, which can include Short Message Service (SMS).

E: Social engineering is a non-technical method of intrusion hackers use that relies heavily on human
interaction and often involves tricking people into breaking normal security procedures. It is one of the
greatest threats that organizations today encounter.
A social engineer runs what used to be called a "con game." For example, a person using social
engineering to break into a computer network might try to gain the confidence of an authorized user and
get them to reveal information that compromises the network's security. Social engineers often rely on the
natural helpfulness of people as well as on their weaknesses. They might, for example, call the authorized
employee with some kind of urgent problem that requires immediate network access. Appealing to vanity,
appealing to authority, appealing to greed, and old-fashioned eavesdropping are other typical social
engineering techniques.
References:
[Link]
[Link]
[Link]
[Link]

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP

A Security administrator wants to implement strong security on the company smart phones and terminal
servers located in the data center. Drag and Drop the applicable controls to each asset type.
Instructions: Controls can be used multiple times and not all placeholders needs to be filled. When you
have completed the simulation, Please select Done to submit.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Cable locks are used as a hardware lock mechanism – thus best used on a Data Center Terminal Server.
Network monitors are also known as sniffers – thus best used on a Data Center Terminal Server.
Install antivirus software. Antivirus software should be installed and definitions kept current on all hosts.
Antivirus software should run on the server as well as on every workstation. In addition to active monitoring
of incoming fi les, scans should be conducted regularly to catch any infections that have slipped through-
thus best used on a Data Center Terminal Server.
Proximity readers are used as part of physical barriers which makes it more appropriate to use on a
center’s entrance to protect the terminal server.
Mentor app is an Apple application used for personal development and is best used on a mobile device
such as a smart phone.
Remote wipe is an application that can be used on devices that are stolen to keep data safe. It is basically
a command to a phone that will remotely clear the data on that phone.
This process is known as a remote wipe, and it is intended to be used if the phone is stolen or going to
another user.
Should a device be stolen, GPS (Global Positioning System) tracking can be used to identify its location
and allow authorities to find it - thus best used on a smart phone.
Screen Lock is where the display should be configured to time out after a short period of inactivity and the
screen locked with a password. To be able to access the system again, the user must provide the
password. After a certain number of attempts, the user should not be allowed to attempt any additional
logons; this is called lockout – thus best used on a smart phone.
Strong Password since passwords are always important, but even more so when you consider that the
device could be stolen and in the possession of someone who has unlimited access and time to try various
values – thus best use strong passwords on a smartphone as it can be stolen more easily than a terminal
server in a data center.
Device Encryption- Data should be encrypted on the device so that if it does fall into the wrong hands, it
cannot be accessed in a usable form without the correct passwords. It is recommended to you use Trusted
Platform Module (TPM) for all mobile devices where possible.
Use pop-up blockers. Not only are pop-ups irritating, but they are also a security threat.
Pop-ups (including pop-unders) represent unwanted programs running on the system, and they can
jeopardize the system’s well-being. This will be more effective on a mobile device rather than a terminal
server.
Use host-based firewalls. A firewall is the first line of defense against attackers and malware. Almost every
current operating system includes a firewall, and most are turned on by Default- thus best used on a Data
Center Terminal Server.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis,
2014, pp. 221, 222, 369, 418
[Link]

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP

A forensic analyst is asked to respond to an ongoing network attack on a server. Place the items in the list
below in the correct order in which the forensic analyst should preserve them.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
When dealing with multiple issues, address them in order of volatility (OOV); always deal with the most
volatile first. Volatility can be thought of as the amount of time that you have to collect certain data before a
window of opportunity is gone. Naturally, in an investigation you want to collect everything, but some data
will exist longer than others, and you cannot possibly collect all of it once. As an example, the OOV in an
investigation may be RAM, hard drive data, CDs/DVDs, and printouts.
Order of volatility: Capture system images as a snapshot of what exists, look at network traffic and logs,
capture any relevant video/screenshots/hashes, record time offset on the systems, talk to witnesses, and
track total man-hours and expenses associated with the investigation.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis,
2014, p. 453

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP

You have been tasked with designing a security plan for your company. Drag and drop the appropriate
security controls on the floor plan-Instructions: All objects must be used and all place holders must be
filled. Order does not matter. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to
submit.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Cable locks - Adding a cable lock between a laptop and a desk prevents someone from picking it up and
walking away
Proximity badge + reader
Safe is a hardware/physical security measure
Mantrap can be used to control access to sensitive areas.
CCTV can be used as video surveillance.
Biometric reader can be used to control and prevent unauthorized access.
Locking cabinets can be used to protect backup media, documentation and other physical artefacts.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis,
2014, p. 369

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP

Drag the items on the left to show the different types of security for the shown devices. Not all fields need
to be filled. Not all items need to be used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
For mobile devices, at bare minimum you should have the following security measures in place: Screen
lock, Strong password, Device encryption, Remote wipe/Sanitation, voice encryption, GPS tracking,
Application control, Storage segmentation, Asset tracking as well as Device Access control.
For servers in a data center your security should include: Fire extinguishers such as FM200 as part of fire
suppression; Biometric, proximity badges, mantraps, HVAC, cable locks;
these can all be physical security measures to control access to the server.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis,
2014, p. 418

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the correct protocol to its default port.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
FTP uses TCP port 21.
Telnet uses port 23.
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin,
also use TCP port 22. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure filetransfer facility based on SSH and
Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). Secure FTP (SFTP) is a secured alternative to standard File Transfer
Protocol (FTP).
SMTP uses TCP port 25.
Port 69 is used by TFTP.
SNMP makes use of UDP ports 161 and 162.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp. 42, 45, 51
[Link]

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP

A forensic analyst is asked to respond to an ongoing network attack on a server. Place the items in the list
below in the correct order in which the forensic analyst should preserve them.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
When dealing with multiple issues, address them in order of volatility (OOV); always deal with the most
volatile first. Volatility can be thought of as the amount of time that you have to collect certain data before a
window of opportunity is gone. Naturally, in an investigation you want to collect everything, but some data
will exist longer than others, and you cannot possibly collect all of it once. As an example, the OOV in an
investigation may be RAM, hard drive data, CDs/DVDs, and printouts.
Order of volatility: Capture system images as a snapshot of what exists, look at network traffic and logs,
capture any relevant video/screenshots/hashes, record time offset on the systems, talk to witnesses, and
track total man-hours and expenses associated with the investigation.

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP

An attack has occurred against a company.

INSTRUCTIONS
You have been tasked to do the following:
Identify the type of attack that is occurring on the network by clicking on the attacker's tablet and reviewing
the output. (Answer Area 1)
Identify which compensating controls should be implemented on the assets, in order to reduce the
effectiveness of future attacks by dragging them to the correct server. (Answer area 2) All objects will be
used, but not all placeholders may be filled. Objects may only be used once. If at any time you would like
to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP

A security administrator has been tasked with implementing controls that meet management goals. Drag
and drop the appropriate control used to accomplish the account management goal. Options may be used
once or not at all.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT

Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack
with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial
state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Implement a host-based IDS --> Implement a host-based IPS

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP

Leveraging the information supplied below, complete the CSR for the server to set up TLS (HTTPS)

1. Hostname: ws01
2. Domain: [Link]
3. IPv4: [Link]
4. IPV4: [Link]
5. Root: [Link]
6. DNS CNAME:homesite.

Instructions:
Drag the various data points to the correct locations within the CSR. Extension criteria belong in the let
hand column and values belong in the corresponding row in the right hand column.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Exam G

QUESTION 1
SIMULATION

A company recently added a DR site and is redesigning the network. Users at the DR site are having
issues browsing websites.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on each firewall to do the following:

1. Deny cleartext web traffic.

2. Ensure secure management protocols are used.
3. Resolve issues at the DR site.

The ruleset order cannot be modified due to outside constraints.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All
button.

Firewall 1
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
In Firewall 1, HTTP inbound Action should be DENY. As shown below
Firewall 1:
DNS Rule: ANY ->; ANY ->; DNS ->; PERMIT
HTTPS Outbound: [Link]/24 ->; ANY ->; HTTPS ->; PERMIT
Management: ANY ->; ANY ->; SSH ->; PERMIT
HTTPS Inbound: ANY ->; ANY ->; HTTPS ->; PERMIT
HTTP Inbound: ANY ->; ANY ->; HTTP ->; DENY

QUESTION 2
SIMULATION

A company recently added a DR site and is redesigning the network. Users at the DR site are having
issues browsing websites.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on each firewall to do the following:

1. Deny cleartext web traffic.

2. Ensure secure management protocols are used.
3. Resolve issues at the DR site.

The ruleset order cannot be modified due to outside constraints.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All
button.

Firewall 2
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Firewall 2: No changes should be made to this firewall
QUESTION 3
SIMULATION

A company recently added a DR site and is redesigning the network. Users at the DR site are having
issues browsing websites.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on each firewall to do the following:

1. Deny cleartext web traffic.

2. Ensure secure management protocols are used.
3. Resolve issues at the DR site.

The ruleset order cannot be modified due to outside constraints.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All
button.
Firewall 3
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Firewall 3:
DNS Rule: ANY ->; ANY ->; DNS ->; PERMIT
HTTPS Outbound: [Link]/24 ->; ANY ->; HTTPS ->; PERMIT
Management: ANY ->; ANY ->; SSH ->; PERMIT
HTTPS Inbound: ANY ->; ANY ->; HTTPS ->; PERMIT
HTTP Inbound: ANY ->; ANY ->; HTTP ->; DENY

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT

Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack
with its remediation.

INSTRUCTIONS

Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All
button.

Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT

Select the appropriate attack from each drop down list to label the corresponding illustrated attack
Instructions: Attacks may only be used once, and will disappear from drop down list if selected.
When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
1: Spear phishing is an e-mail spoofing fraud attempt that targets a specific organization,seeking
unauthorized access to confidential data. As with the e-mail messages used in regular phishing
expeditions, spear phishing messages appear to come from a trusted source. Phishing messages usually
appear to come from a large and well-known company or Web site with a broad membership base, such
as eBay or PayPal. In the case of spear phishing, however, the apparent source of the e-mail is likely to be
an individual within the recipient's own company and generally someone in a position of authority.
2: The Hoax in this question is designed to make people believe that the fake AV (antivirus) software is
genuine.
3: Vishing is the act of using the telephone in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private
information that will be used for identity theft. The scammer usually pretends to be a legitimate business,
and fools the victim into thinking he or she will profit.
4: Phishing is the act of sending an email to a user falsely claiming to be an established legitimate
enterprise in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity
theft.
Phishing email will direct the user to visit a website where they are asked to update personal information,
such as a password, credit card, social security, or bank account numbers, that the legitimate organization
already has. The website, however, is bogus and set up only to steal the information the user enters on the
page.
5: Similar in nature to e-mail phishing, pharming seeks to obtain personal or private (usually financial
related) information through domain spoofing. Rather than being spammed with malicious and
mischievous e-mail requests for you to visit spoof Web sites which appear legitimate, pharming 'poisons' a
DNS server by infusing false information into the DNS server, resulting in a user's request being redirected
elsewhere. Your browser, however will show you are at the correct Web site, which makes pharming a bit
more serious and more difficult to detect. Phishing attempts to scam people one at a time with an e-mail
while pharming allows the scammers to target large groups of people at one time through domain spoofing.
References:
[Link]
[Link]
[Link]
[Link]

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT

The security administrator has installed a new firewall which implements an implicit DENY policy by
default. Click on the firewall and configure it to allow ONLY the following communication.
1. The Accounting workstation can ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default
HTTPS port. The accounting workstation should not access other networks.
2. The HR workstation should be restricted to communicate with the Financial server ONLY, over the
default SCP port
3. The Admin workstation should ONLY be able to access the servers on the secure network over the
default TFTP port.
Instructions: The firewall will process the rules in a top-down manner in order as a first match The port
number must be typed in and only one port number can be entered per rule Type ANY for all ports. The
original firewall configuration can be reset at any time by pressing the reset button. Once you have met the
simulation requirements, click save and then Done to submit.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges
for a resource, you’re denied access by default.

Rule #1 allows the Accounting workstation to ONLY access the web server on the public network over the
default HTTPS port, which is TCP port 443.
Rule #2 allows the HR workstation to ONLY communicate with the Financial server over the default SCP
port, which is TCP Port 22
Rule #3 & Rule #4 allow the Admin workstation to ONLY access the Financial and Purchasing servers
located on the secure network over the default TFTP port, which is Port 69.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp.26, 44
[Link]

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT

For each of the given items, select the appropriate authentication category from the dropdown choices.
Instructions: When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.

Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Something you are includes fingerprints, retina scans, or voice recognition.
Something you have includes smart cards, token devices, or keys.
Something you know includes a passwords, codes, PINs, combinations, or secret phrases.
Somewhere you are includes a physical location s or logical addresses, such as domain name, an IP
address, or a MAC address.
Something you do includes your typing rhythm, a secret handshake, or a private knock.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p. 285

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT

For each of the given items, select the appropriate authentication category from the drop down choices.
Select the appropriate authentication type for the following items:

Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Biometrics refers to a collection of physical attributes of the human body that can be used as identification
or an authentication factor. Fingerprints and retinas are physical attributes of the human body.
Two types of tokens exist, Time-based one-time password (TOTP) tokens and HMACbased one-time
password (HOTP). TOTP tokens generate passwords at fixed time intervals, whereas HOTP tokens
generate passwords not based on fixed time intervals but instead based on a non-repeating one-way
function, such as a hash or HMAC operation.
Smart cards can have Multi-factor and proximity authentication embedded into it.
PAP allows for two entities to share a password in advance and use the password as the basis of
authentication. The same goes for PIN numbers.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp. 282, 285
[Link]
[Link]

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT

A newly purchased corporate WAP needs to be configured in the MOST secure manner possible.

INSTRUCTIONS
Please click on the below items on the network diagram and configure them accordingly:
1. WAP
2. DHCP Server
3. AAA Server
4. Wireless Controller
5. LDAP Server

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All
button.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Wireless Access Point:
1. Network Mode - G only
2. Wireless Channel - 11
3. Wireless SSID Broadcast - disable
4. Security settings - WPA2 Personal

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP

A security auditor is reviewing the following output from file integrity monitoring software installed on a very
busy server at a large service provider. The server has not been updates since it was installed. Drag and
drop the log entry that identifies the first instance of server compromise.

Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Exam H

QUESTION 1
A security administrator discovers that an attack has been completed against a node on the corporate
network. All available logs were collected and stored.
You must review all network logs to discover the scope of the attack, check the box of the node(s) that
have been compromised and drag and drop the appropriate actions to complete the incident response on
the network. The environment is a critical production environment; perform the LEAST disruptive actions
on the network, while still performing the appropriate incident responses.
Instructions: The web server, database server, IDS, and User PC are clickable. Check the box of the node
(s) that have been compromised and drag and drop the appropriate actions to complete the incident
response on the network. Not all actions may be used, and order is not important. If at anytime you would
like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you have
completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted,
please select the Next button to continue.

Correct Answer: Explanation

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Database server was attacked; actions should be to capture network traffic and Chain of Custody.
(The database server logs shows the Audit Failure and Audit Success attempts)It is only logical that all the
logs will be stored on the database server and the least disruption action on the network to take as a
response to the incident would be to check the logs (since these are already collected and stored) and
maintain a chain of custody of those logs.
IDS Server Log:
Web Server Log:
Database Server Log:
Users PC Log:
QUESTION 2
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:

Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2
Correct Answer: Explanation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Use the following answer for this simulation task.
Below table has all the answers required for this question.
Firewall rules act like ACLs, and they are used to dictate what traffic can pass between the firewall and the
internal network. Three possible actions can be taken based on the rule's criteria:
Block the connection Allow the connection
Allow the connection only if it is secured
TCP is responsible for providing a reliable, one-to-one, connection-oriented session. TCP establishes a
connection and ensures that the other end receives any packets sent. Two hosts communicate packet
results with each other. TCP also ensures that packets are decoded and sequenced properly. This
connection is persistent during the session.
When the session ends, the connection is torn down.
UDP provides an unreliable connectionless communication method between hosts. UDP is considered a
best-effort protocol, but it's considerably faster than TCP. The sessions don't establish a synchronized
session like the kind used in TCP, and UDP doesn't guarantee error-free communications.
The primary purpose of UDP is to send small packets of information. The application is responsible for
acknowledging the correct reception of the dat a. Port 22 is used by both SSH and SCP with UDP. Port
443 is used for secure web connections? HTTPS and is a TCP port. Thus to make sure only the
Accounting computer has HTTPS access to the Administrative server you should use TCP port 443 and
set the rule to allow communication between [Link]/24 (Accounting) and [Link]
(Administrative server1) Thus to make sure that only the HR computer has access to Server2 over SCP
you need use of TCP port 22 and set the rule to allow communication between [Link]/23 (HR) and
[Link] (server2) Thus to make sure that the IT computer can access both the Administrative servers
you need to use a port and accompanying port number and set the rule to allow communication between:
[Link].25 (IT computer) and [Link] (Administrative server1) [Link].25 (IT computer) and
[Link] (Administrative server2)

QUESTION 3
You have just received some room and WiFi access control recommendations from a security consulting
company. Click on each building to bring up available security controls. Please implement the following
requirements:

The Chief Executive Officer's (CEO) office had multiple redundant security measures installed on the door
to the office. Remove unnecessary redundancies to deploy three-factor authentication, while retaining the
expensive iris render.

The Public Cafe has wireless available to customers. You need to secure the WAP with WPA and place a
passphrase on the customer receipts.

In the Data Center you need to include authentication from the "something you know" category and take
advantage of the existing smartcard reader on the door.

In the Help Desk Office, you need to require single factor authentication through the use of physical tokens
given to guests by the receptionist.

The PII Office has redundant security measures in place. You need to eliminate the redundancy while
maintaining three-factor authentication and retaining the more expensive controls.
Instructions: The original security controls for each office can be reset at any time by selecting the Reset
button. Once you have met the above requirements for each office, select the Save button. When you have
completed the entire simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted,
please select the Next button to continue.
Correct Answer: Explanation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
See the solution below.
QUESTION 4
CORRECT TEXT

A systems administrator needs to install a new wireless network for authenticated guest access. The
wireless network should support 802. IX using the most secure encryption and protocol available.

Perform the following slops:

1. Configure the RADIUS server.

2. Configure the WiFi controller.
3. Preconfigure the client for an incoming guest. The guest AD credentials are:

User: guest01
Password: guestpass
Correct Answer: Explanation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
See the answer below.
Use the same settings as describe in below images.
QUESTION 5
CORRECT TEXT

An incident has occurred in the production environment.

Analyze the command outputs and identify the type of compromise.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All
button.
Correct Answer: Explanation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Answer as SQL injection
Exam I

QUESTION 1
A security analyst is reviewing application logs to determine the source of a breach and locates the
following log:

Which Of the following has been observed?

A. DLL Injection
B. API attack
C. SQLI
D. XSS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
A security architect is required to deploy to conference rooms some workstations that will allow sensitive
data to be displayed on large screens. Due to the nature of the data, it cannot be stored in the conference
rooms. The fiieshare is located in a local data center. Which of the following should the security architect
recommend to BEST meet the requirement?

A. Fog computing and KVMs

B. VDI and thin clients
C. Private cloud and DLP
D. Full drive encryption and thick clients

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
An attacker browses a company's online job board attempting to find any relevant information regarding
the technologies the company uses. Which of the following BEST describes this social engineering
technique?

A. Hoax
B. Reconnaissance
C. Impersonation
D. pretexting

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
An annual information security assessment has revealed that several OS-level configurations are not in
compliance due to outdated hardening standards the company is using. Which of the following would be
BEST to use to update and reconfigure the OS-level security configurations?
A. CIS benchmarks
B. GDPR guidance
C. Regional regulations
D. ISO 27001 standards

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: [Link]

QUESTION 5
A company's security team received notice of a critical vulnerability affecting a high-profile device within the
web infrastructure. The vendor patch was just made available online but has not yet been regression
tested in development environments. In the interim, firewall rules were implemented to reduce the access
to the interface affected by the vulnerability. Which of the following controls does this scenario describe?

A. Deterrent
B. Compensating
C. Detective
D. Preventive

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which of the following describes a social engineering technique that seeks to exploit a person's sense of
urgency?

A. A phishing email stating a cash settlement has been awarded but will expire soon
B. A smishing message stating a package is scheduled for pickup
C. A vishing call that requests a donation be made to a local charity
D. A SPIM notification claiming to be undercover law enforcement investigating a cybercrime

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Phishing
As one of the most popular social engineering attack types, phishing scams are email and text message
campaigns aimed at creating a sense of urgency, curiosity or fear in victims. It then prods them into
revealing sensitive information, clicking on links to malicious websites, or opening attachments that contain
malware.

[Link] attack/#:~:text=Phishing,curiosity%
20or%20fear%20in%20victims.

QUESTION 7
The Chief information Security Officer wants to prevent exfilitration of sensitive information from employee
cell phones when using public USB power charging stations. Which of the following would be the Best
solution to implement?

A. DLP
B. USB data blocker
C. USB OTG
D. Disabling USB ports
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
An organization is planning to roll out a new mobile device policy and issue each employee a new laptop,
These laptops would access the users' corporate operating system remotely and allow them to use the
laptops for purposes outside of their job roles. Which of the following deployment models is being utilized?

A. MDM and application management

B. BYOO and containers
C. COPE and VDI
D. CYOD and VMs

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
A Chief Security Officer is looking for a solution that can provide increased scalability and flexibility for
back-end infrastructure, allowing it to be updated and modified without disruption to services. The security
architect would like the solution selected to reduce the back-end server resources and has highlighted that
session persistence is not important for the applications running on the back-end servers. Which of the
following would BEST meet the requirements?

A. Reverse proxy
B. Automated patch management
C. Snapshots
D. NIC teaming

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A reverse proxy would be the best solution for increased scalability and flexibility for back- end
infrastructure.

QUESTION 10
An analyst receives multiple alerts for beaconing activity for a host on the network, After analyzing the
activity, the analyst observes the following activity:

A user enters [Link] into a web browser.

The website that appears is not the [Link] site.
The website is a malicious site from the attacker.
Users in a different office are not having this issue.

Which of the following types of attacks was observed?

A. On-path attack
B. DNS poisoning
C. Locator (URL) redirection
D. Domain hijacking

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Which of the following can work as an authentication method and as an alerting mechanism for
unauthorized access attempts?

A. Smart card
B. push notifications
C. Attestation service
D. HMAC-based, one-time password

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is an effective tool to stop or prevent the exfiltration of data from a network?

A. DLP
B. NIDS
C. TPM
D. FDE

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Data loss prevention (DLP) makes sure that users do not send sensitive or critical information
outside the corporate network

QUESTION 13
An IT security manager requests a report on company information that is publicly available. The manager's
concern is that malicious actors will be able to access the data without engaging in active reconnaissance.
Which of the following is the MOST efficient approach to perform the analysis?

A. Provide a domain parameter to tool.

B. Check public DNS entries using dnsenum.
C. Perform a vulnerability scan targeting a public company's IR
D. Execute nmap using the options: scan all ports and sneaky mode.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
A SOC operator is receiving continuous alerts from multiple Linux systems indicating that unsuccessful
SSH attempts to a functional user ID have been attempted on each one of them in a short period of time.
Which of the following BEST explains this behavior?

A. Rainbow table attack

B. Password spraying
C. Logic bomb
D. Malware bot
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Password Spraying is a variant of what is known as a brute force attack. In a traditional brute force attack,
the perpetrator attempts to gain unauthorized access to a single account by guessing the password
"repeatedly" in a very short period of time.

QUESTION 15
Users are presented with a banner upon each login to a workstation. The banner mentions that users are
not entitled to any reasonable expectation of privacy and access is for authorized personnel only.

In order to proceed past that banner. users must click the OK button. Which of the following is this an
example of?

A. AUP
B. NDA
C. SLA
D. MOU

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
An administrator is configuring a firewall rule set for a subnet to only access DHCP, web pages, and SFTP,
and to specifically block FTP. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
Which of the following explains why RTO is included in a BIA?

A. It identifies the amount of allowable downtime for an application or system,

B. It prioritizes risks so the organization can allocate resources appropriately,
C. It monetizes the loss of an asset and determines a break-even point for risk mitigation.
D. It informs the backup approach so that the organization can recover data to a known time.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
A security analyst is tasked with classifying data to be stored on company servers. Which of the following
should be classified as proprietary?

A. Customers' dates of birth

B. Customers' email addresses
C. Marketing strategies
D. Employee salaries

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
Which of the following uses SAML for authentication?

A. TOTP
B. Federation
C. Kerberos
D. HOTP

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Which of the following supplies non-repudiation during a forensics investigation?

A. Dumping volatile memory contents first

B. Duplicating a drive with dd
C. Using a SHA-2 signature of a drive image
D. Logging everyone in contact with evidence
E. Encrypting sensitive data

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
An analyst is reviewing logs associated with an attack. The logs indicate an attacker downloaded a
malicious file that was quarantined by the AV solution. The attacker utilized a local non-administrative
account to restore the malicious file to a new location. The file was then used by another process to
execute a payload. Which of the following attacks did the analyst observe?
A. Privilege escalation
B. Request forgeries
C. Injection
D. Replay attack

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Cross-site request forgery, also known as one-click attack or session riding and abbreviated as CSRF
(sometimes pronounced sea-surf[1]) or XSRF, is a type of malicious exploit of a website where
unauthorized commands are submitted from a user that the web application trusts.[2] There are many
ways in which a malicious website can transmit such commands; specially-crafted image tags, hidden
forms, and JavaScript XMLHttpRequests, for example, can all work without the user's interaction or even
knowledge. Unlike cross-site scripting (XSS), which exploits the trust a user has for a particular site, CSRF
exploits the trust that a site has in a user's browser.[3] In a CSRF attack, an innocent end user is tricked by
an attacker into submitting a web request that they did not intend. This may cause actions to be performed
on the website that can include inadvertent client or server data leakage, change of session state, or
manipulation of an end user's account.

QUESTION 22
Which of the following BEST describes when an organization utilizes a ready-to-use application from a
cloud provider?

A. laaS
B. SaaS
C. Paas
D. XaaS

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
SaaS, or software as a service, is on-demand access to ready-to-use, cloud- hosted application software.

[Link]

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a security best practice that ensures the integrity of aggregated log files within a
SIEM?

A. Set up hashing on the source log file servers that complies with local regulatory requirements,
B. Back up the aggregated log files at least two times a day or as stated by local regulatory requirements.
C. Write protect the aggregated log files and move them to an isolated server with limited access.
D. Back up the source log files and archive them for at least six years or in accordance with local
regulatory requirements.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
A company discovered that terabytes of data have been exfiltrated over the past year after an employee
clicked on an email link. The threat continued to evolve and remain undetected until a security analyst
noticed an abnormal amount of external connections when the employee was not working. Which of the
following is the MOST likely threat actor?

A. Shadow IT
B. Script kiddies
C. APT
D. Insider threat

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
An APT attack is characterized by using toolkits to achieve a presence on a target network and then,
instead of just moving to steal information, focusing on the long game by maintaining a persistent presence
on the target network. The tactics, tools, and procedures of APTs are focused on maintaining
administrative access to the target network and avoiding detection. Then, over the long haul, the attacker
can remove intellectual property and more from the organization, typically undetected.

QUESTION 25
A technician was dispatched to complete repairs on a server in a data center. While locating the server, the
technician entered a restricted area without authorization. Which of the following security controls would
BEST prevent this in the future?

A. Use appropriate signage to mark all areas.

B. Utilize cameras monitored by guards.
C. Implement access control vestibules.
D. Enforce escorts to monitor all visitors.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
Which of the following should an organization consider implementing In the event executives need to
speak to the media after a publicized data breach?

A. Incident response plan

B. Business continuity plan
C. Communication plan
D. Disaster recovery plan

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
A recent phishing campaign resulted in several compromised user accounts. The security incident
response team has been tasked with reducing the manual labor of filtering through all the phishing emails
as they arrive and blocking the sender's email address, along with other time-consuming mitigation
actions. Which of the following can be configured to streamline those tasks?

A. SOAR playbook
B. MOM policy
C. Firewall rules
D. URL filter
E. SIEM data collection

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
An untrusted SSL certificate was discovered during the most recent vulnerability scan. A security analyst
determines the certificate is signed properly and is a valid wildcard. This same certificate is installed on
other company servers without issue. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this finding?

A. The required intermediate certificate is not loaded as part of the certificate chain.
B. The certificate is on the CRL and is no longer valid.
C. The corporate CA has expired on every server, causing the certificate to fail verification.
D. The scanner is incorrectly configured to not trust this certificate when detected on the server.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
The new Chief Information Security Officer at a company has asked the security team to implement
stronger user account policies. The new policies require:

Users to choose a password unique to their last ten passwords

Users to not log in from certain high-risk countries

Which of the following should the security team implement? (Select TWO).

A. Password complexity
B. Password history
C. Geolocation
D. Geofencing
E. Geotagging
F. Password reuse

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
The president of a regional bank likes to frequently provide SOC tours to potential investors. Which of the
following policies BEST reduces the risk of malicious activity occurring after a tour?

A. Password complexity
B. Acceptable use
C. Access control
D. Clean desk

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
Several attempts have been made lo pick the door lock of a secure facility As a result the security engineer
has been assigned to implement a stronger preventative access control.
Which of the following would BEST complete the engineer's assignment?

A. Replacing the traditional key with an RFID key

B. Installing and monitoring a camera facing the door
C. Setting motion-sensing lights to illuminate the door on activity
D. Surrounding the property with fencing and gates

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
A user wanted to catch up on some work over the weekend but had issues logging in to the corporate
network using a VPN. On Monday, the user opened a ticket for this issue but was able to log in
successfully. Which of the following BEST describes the policy that is being implemented?

A. Time-based logins
B. Geofencing
C. Network location
D. Password history

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
Which of the following secure coding techniques makes compromised code more difficult for hackers to
use?

A. Obfuscation
B. Normalization
C. Execution
D. Reuse

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
[Link]

QUESTION 34
A company is under investigation for possible fraud. As part of the investigation. the authorities need to
review all emails and ensure data is not deleted.

Which of the following should the company implement to assist in the investigation?

A. Legal hold
B. Chain of custody
C. Data loss prevention
D. Content filter

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
A research company discovered that an unauthorized piece of software has been detected on a small
number of machines in its lab. The researchers collaborate with other machines using port 445 and on the
Internet using port 443. The unauthorized software is starting to be seen on additional machines outside of
the lab and is making outbound communications using HTTPS and SMB. The security team has been
instructed to resolve the problem as quickly as possible causing minimal disruption to the researchers.
Which of the following contains the BEST course of action in this scenario?

A. Update the host firewalls to block outbound SMB.

B. Place the machines with the unapproved software in containment.
C. Place the unauthorized application in a blocklist.
D. Implement a content filter to block the unauthorized software communication.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
A penetration tester is fuzzing an application to identify where the EIP of the stack is located on memory.
Which of the following attacks is the penetration tester planning to execute?

A. Race-condition
B. Pass-the-hash
C. Buffer overflow
D. XSS

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
Which of the following is the BEST action to foster a consistent and auditable incident response process?

A. Incent new hires to constantly update the document with external knowledge.
B. Publish the document in a central repository that is easily accessible to the organization.
C. Restrict eligibility to comment on the process to subject matter experts of each IT silo.
D. Rotate CIRT members to foster a shared responsibility model in the organization.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
Which of the following control types fixes a previously identified issue and mitigates a risk?

A. Detective
B. Corrective
C. Preventative
D. Finalized
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
During a recent security assessment, a vulnerability was found in a common OS, The OS vendor was
unaware of the issue and promised to release a patch within next quarter.

Which of the following BEST describes this type of vulnerability?

A. Legacy operating system

B. Weak configuration
C. Zero day
D. Supply chain

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
A user forwarded a suspicious email to the security team, Upon investigation, a malicious URL was
discovered. Which of the following should be done FIRST to prevent other users from accessing the
malicious URL?

A. Configure the web content filter for the web address.

B. Report the website to threat intelligence partners
C. Set me SIEM to alert for any activity to the web address.
D. Send out a corporate communication to warn all users Of the malicious email.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
During a recent security incident at a multinational corporation a security analyst found the following logs
for an account called user:

Which Of the following account policies would BEST prevent attackers from logging in as user?

A. Impossible travel time

B. Geofencing
C. Time-based logins
D. Geolocation

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
A company recently experienced an inside attack using a corporate machine that resulted in data
compromise. Analysis indicated an unauthorized change to the software circumvented technological
protection measures, The analyst was tasked with determining the best method to ensure the integrity of
the systems remains intact and local and remote boot attestation can take place. Which of the following
would provide the BEST solution?

A. HIPS
B. Fly
C. TPM
D. DLP

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: [Link] boot-host-
attestation

QUESTION 43
A cyber-security administrator is using an enterprise firewall. The administrator created some rules, but
now Seems to be unresponsive. All connections being dropped by the firewall. Which of the following
would be the BEST option to remove the rules?

A. # iptables -t mangle -x
B. # iptables -f
C. # iptables -z
D. # iptables -p input -j drop

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
Which of the following is the FIRST environment in which proper, secure coding should be practiced?

A. Stage
B. Development
C. Production
D. Test

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The developer has to start writing secure code from beginning itself. Which will then be
tested, staged and finally production
QUESTION 45
Security analysts notice a server login from a user who has been on vacation for two weeks The analysts
confirm that the user did not log in to the system while on vacation After reviewing packet capture logs, the
analysts notice the following:

Which of the following occurred?

A. A buffer overflow was exploited to gain unauthorized access

B. The user's account was compromised, and an attacker changed the login credentials
C. An attacker used a pass-the-hash attack to gain access
D. An insider threat with username smithJA logged in to the account

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
In a phishing attack, the perpetrator is pretending to be someone in a position of power in an effort to
influence the target to click or follow the desired response. Which of the following principles is being used?

A. Authority
B. Intimidation
C. Consensus
D. Scarcity

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
Which of the following is a targeted attack aimed at compromising users within a specific industry or
group?

A. Watering hole
B. Typosquatting
C. Hoax
D. Impersonation

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
A targeted attack refers to a type of threat in which threat actors actively pursue and compromise a target
entity's infrastructure while maintaining anonymity. These attackers have a certain level of expertise and
have sufficient resources to conduct their schemes over a long-term period. They can adapt, adjust, or
improve their attacks to counter their victim's [Link] attacks often employ similar
methods found in traditional online threats such as malicious emails, compromised or malicious sites,
exploits, and malware. Targeted attacks differ from traditional online threats in many ways:?Targeted
attacks are typically conducted as campaigns. APTs are often conducted in campaigns--a series of failed
and successful attempts over time to get deeper and deeper into a target's network--and are thus not
isolated incidents.?They usually target specific industries such as businesses, government agencies, or
political groups. Attackers often have long-term goals in mind, with motives that include, but are not limited
to, political gain, monetary profit, or business data [Link] often customize, modify and improve
their methods depending on the nature of their target sector and to circumvent any security measures
[Link] of a Targeted Attack?Intelligence gathering. Threat actors identify and gather publicly
available information about their target to customize their attacks. This initial phase aims to gain strategic
information not only on the intended target's IT environment but also on its organizational structure. The
information gathered can range from the business applications and software an enterprise utilizes to the
roles and relationships that exist within it. This phase also utilizes social engineering techniques that
leverage recent events, work-related issues or concerns, and other areas of interest for the intended
target.?Point of entry. Threat actors may use varied methods to infiltrate a target's infrastructure. Common
methods include customized spearphishing email, zero- day or software exploits, and watering hole
techniques. Attackers also utilize instant- messaging and social networking platforms to entice targets to
click a link or download malware. Eventually, establishing a connection with the target is acquired.?
Command- and-control (C&C) communication. After security has been breached, threat actors constantly
communicate to the malware to either execute malicious routines or gather information within the company
network. Threat actors use techniques to hide this communication and keep their movements under the
radar.?Lateral movement. Once inside the network, threat actors move laterally throughout the network to
seek key information or infect other valuable systems.?Asset/Data Discovery. Notable assets or data are
determined and isolated for future data exfiltration. Threat actors have access to "territories" that contain
valuable information and noteworthy assets. These data are then identified and transferred through tools
like remote access Trojans (RATs) and customized and legitimate tools. A possible technique used in this
stage may be sending back file lists in different directories so attackers can identify what are valuable.?
Data Exfiltration. This is the main goal of targeted attacks. An attack's objective is to gather key information
and transfer this to a location that the attackers control. Transferring such data can be conducted quickly
or gradually. Targeted attacks strive to remain undetected in the network in order to gain access to the
company's crown jewels or valuable data. These valuable data include intellectual property, trade secrets,
and customer information. Inaddition, threat actors may also seek other sensitive data such as top-secret
documents from government or military institutions.
Once a targeted attack is successful and has reached as far as the data exfiltration stage, it is not difficult
for attackers to draw out the data. Although targeted attacks are not known to specifically target
consumers, their data are also at risk once target business sectors have been infiltrated. As a result, such
attacks (if successful) may damage a company's reputation.
[Link] attacks#:~:text=A%20targeted%20attack
%20refers%20to,over%20a%20long%2Dterm%20 period.

QUESTION 48
A company wants to build a new website to sell products online. The website will host a storefront
application that will allow visitors to add products to a shopping cart and pay for the products using a credit
card. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure to implement?

A. SSL
B. FTP
C. SNMP
D. TLS

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
A security analyst is reviewing web-application logs and finds the following log:

Which of the following attacks is being observed?

A. Directory traversal
B. XSS
C. CSRF
D. On-path attack

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
Which of the following controls is used to make an organization initially aware of a data compromise?

A. Protective
B. Preventative
C. Corrective
D. Detective

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: [Link]

QUESTION 51
An organization just implemented a new security system. Local laws state that citizens must be notified
prior to encountering the detection mechanism to deter malicious activities.
Which of the following is being implemented?

A. Proximity cards with guards

B. Fence with electricity
C. Drones with alarms
D. Motion sensors with signage

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
A vulnerability has been discovered and a known patch to address the vulnerability does not exist. Which
of the following controls works BEST until a proper fix is released?

A. Detective
B. Compensating
C. Deterrent
D. Corrective

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 53
Which of the following documents provides guidance regarding the recommended deployment of network
security systems from the manufacturer?

A. Cloud control matrix

B. Reference architecture
C. NIST RMF
D. CIS Top 20

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
Which of the following concepts BEST describes tracking and documenting changes to software and
managing access to files and systems?

A. Version control
B. Continuous monitoring
C. Stored procedures
D. Automation

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Version control, also known as source control, is the process of tracking and managing
changes to files over time. VCS -- version control systems -- are software tools designed to help teams
work in parallel.
[Link]

QUESTION 55
After a recent external audit, the compliance team provided a list of several non-compliant, in-scope hosts
that were not encrypting cardholder data at rest.

Which of the following compliance frameworks would address the compliance team's GREATEST
concern?

A. PCI DSS
B. GDPR
C. ISO 27001
D. NIST CSF

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56
A company is moving its retail website to a public cloud provider. The company wants to tokenize credit
card data but not allow the cloud provider to see the stored credit card information. Which of the following
would BEST meet these objectives?

A. WAF
B. CASB
C. VPN
D. TLS

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
Which of the following can be used by a monitoring tool to compare values and detect password leaks
without providing the actual credentials?

A. Hashing
B. Tokenization
C. Masking
D. Encryption

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: [Link] tools/

QUESTION 58
A security analyst is evaluating the risks of authorizing multiple security solutions to collect data from the
company's cloud environment.

Which of the following is an immediate consequence of these integrations?

A. Non-compliance with data sovereignty rules

B. Loss of the vendor's interoperability support
C. Mandatory deployment of a SIEM solution
D. Increase in the attack surface

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to detect security flaws present on third- party libraries
embedded on software before it is released into production?

A. Employ different techniques for server- and client-side validations.

B. Use a different version control system for third-party libraries.
C. Implement a vulnerability scan to assess dependencies earlier on SDLC.
D. Increase the number of penetration tests before software release.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60
Which of the following is used to ensure that evidence is admissible in legal proceedings when it is
collected and provided to the authorities?

A. Chain of custody
B. Legal hold
C. Event log
D. Artifacts
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 61
A user reports falling for a phishing email to an analyst. Which of the following system logs would the
analyst check FIRST?

A. DNS
B. Message gateway
C. Network
D. Authentication

Correct Answer: C
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 62
Which of the following is a reason to publish files' hashes?

A. To validate the integrity of the files

B. To verify if the software was digitally signed
C. To use the hash as a software activation key
D. To use the hash as a decryption passphrase

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 63
A company wants to simplify the certificate management process. The company has a single domain with
several dozen subdomains, all of which are publicly accessible on the internet. Which of the following
BEST describes the type of certificate the company should implement?

A. Subject alternative name

B. Wildcard
C. Self-signed
D. Domain validation

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Wildcard SSL certificates are for a single domain and all its subdomains. A subdomain is under the
umbrella of the main domain. Usually subdomains will have an address that begins with something other
than 'www.'
For example, [Link] has a number of subdomains, including [Link],
[Link], and [Link]. Each is a subdomain under the main
[Link] domain.
Wildcard SSL Certificate
A single Wildcard SSL certificate can apply to all of these subdomains. Any subdomain will be listed in the
SSL certificate. Users can see a list of subdomains covered by a particular certificate by clicking on the
padlock in the URL bar of their browser, then clicking on "Certificate" (in Chrome) to view the certificate's
details. [Link]
QUESTION 64
An attacker has determined the best way to impact operations is to infiltrate third-party software vendors.
Which of the following vectors is being exploited?

A. Social media
B. Cloud
C. Supply chain
D. Social engineering

Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 65
A security analyst has been tasked with finding the maximum amount of data loss that can occur before
ongoing business operations would be impacted. Which of the following terms BEST defines this metric?

A. MTTR
B. RTO
C. RPO
D. MTBF

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 66
A Chief Security Officer is looking for a solution that can reduce the occurrence of customers receiving
errors from back-end infrastructure when systems go offline unexpectedly. The security architect would like
the solution to help maintain session persistence. Which of the following would BEST meet the
requirements?

A. Reverse proxy
B. NIC teaming
C. Load balancer
D. Forward proxy

Correct Answer: B
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 67
Which of the following in the incident response process is the BEST approach to improve the speed of the
identification phase?

A. Activate verbose logging in all critical assets.

B. Tune monitoring in order to reduce false positive rates.
C. Redirect all events to multiple syslog servers.
D. Increase the number of sensors present on the environment.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 68
A security engineer is concerned about using an agent on devices that relies completely on defined
known-bad signatures. The security engineer wants to implement a tool with multiple components
including the ability to track, analyze, and monitor devices without reliance on definitions alone. Which of
the following solutions BEST fits this use case?

A. EDR
B. DLP
C. NGFW
D. HIPS

Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The acronym EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response and is also known as EDTR. It is an
endpoint security solution that is responsible for continuous monitoring of endpoints. This permanent
monitoring enables the technology to detect and respond to cyber threats such as malware or ransomware
at an early stage. The basis for this is always the analysis of context-related information, which can be
used to make corrective proposals for recovery.

QUESTION 69
A web server has been compromised due to a ransomware attack. Further investigation reveals the
ransomware has been in the server for the past 72 hours. The systems administrator needs to get the
services back up as soon as possible. Which of the following should the administrator use to restore
services to a secure state?

A. The last incremental backup that was conducted 72 hours ago Most Voted
B. The last known-good configuration Most Voted
C. The last full backup that was conducted seven days ago
D. The baseline OS configuration

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
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