“FPD bcqs lumhs”

1. Which of the following crown preparation finish lines should be

avoided?

A. Sharply defined proximal line angles

B. Uniform occlusal reduction that follows the occlusal planes

C. Functional cusp bevel in line with central fossa of opposing tooth

D. Adequate height of the prepared tooth

2. The optimum crown to root ratio of the tooth to be used as an abutment

is:

A. 2:3

B. 1:1

C. 1:2

D. 3:1

3. What is the best possible way to build the tooth for long term prognosis for
an endodontically treated mandibular 1st molar that lost 2 axial walls and
needs crowning?

A. Stainless steel post in mesio-lingual canal

B. Orthodontic Crown lengthening

C. Fiber reinforced post in mesio-buccal canal

D. Stainless steel post in distal canal

E. Post is not indicated

4. In a patient with missing right maxillary lateral incisor, on examination

adjacent abutments were found healthy and strong, the suitable bridge
design & conservative is:

A. Fixed partial denture

B. Spring cantilever fixed partial denture

C. Fixed movable partial denture

D. Andrew’s bridge system

E. Cantilever fixed partial denture

5. Tooth structure of tooth being prepared is best conserved by:

A. Use of partial-coverage restorations
B. Preparation of the flat occlusal surface damaging occlusal
morphology
C. Preparation of teeth with the maximum taper
D. Use of complete-coverage restorations
E. Selection of a non-conservative margin design

6. A 36 yr Old Patient Wants fixed replacement option for his Right

mandibular 1st molar. Dentist Classification, 2 patient having sound
health intact premolars present on Mandibular Right Quadrant. Patients
rejected Implant option what would be the best treatment option:
A. Fixed Acrylic Denture replacing molars
B. None of the above
C. FDP from Right mandibular 1st and 2nd premolar having distal
cantilever molar
D. FDP From Mandibular Right 2nd premolar having distal cantilever
molar
E. Fixed movable partial denture

7. A 25 year old woman came to the dental clinic for replacement of her
mandibular premolar. After history and examination the dentist
suggested a 3 unit fixed bridge. The patient is suffering from
hypersalivation and you decided to use hydrophilic impression material
considering patients condition. The most suitable impression material
for this patient would be?
A. polyether
B. polysulphide
C. addition silicon
D. Alginate
 E. condensation silicon

8. Fixed partial dentures are generally contraindicated in the missing

teeth replaced with removable partial denture in patient less than:

A. 13 years

B. 46 years

C. 30 years

D. 10 years

E. 17 years

9. Minimum acceptable height for abutment preparation is:

A. About 3-5mm
B. Which remains enamel deep
C. Which does not allow tooth structure to interfere with arc of rotation
D. Which allows tooth structure to interfere with arc of rotation
E. Which provides suitable clearance with the opposing teeth

10. Advantage of a Porcelain-fused-to metal restoration is:

A. It is strong enough to withstand the forces and resist fracturing
B. It combines aesthetics with strength
C. It is a non-conservative restoration
D. It requires minimal tooth reduction
E. Porcelain has little potential for abrasion

11. For Metal Ceramic Crown the recommended margin design:

A. Facial bevel and lingual chamfer
B. Facial chamfer and lingual shoulder
C. Facial shoulder and lingual chamfer D. Facial chamfer and
lingual chamfer

12. A patient came in Dental OPD for replacement of missing right

maxillary central incisor, on examination diastema was found between
 all anterior teeth, to maintain the existing diastema in planned fixed
prosthesis, the type of connector used is:
A. Loop connectors
B. Split pontic connectors
C. Rigid connector
D. Cross pin and wing connectors
E. Tenon-Mortise connectors

13. Indications of Provisional Prosthesis all are true except:

A. Maintain Occlusion
B. Maintenance of function
C. Prevent gingival inflammation
D. Temporary replacement of esthetic
E. Protect tooth from fracture

14. During tooth preparation for extracoronal restoration fabrication,

It is generally advisable to make point angles rounded. What is the
most suitable reason for following this design principle?
A. Increase in resistance and retention form
B. Avoidance of accidental pulp exposure
C. Uniform distribution of cementation material
D. Prevent fracture of tooth structure
E. Allows adequate inter occlusal clearance

15. To gain more resistance and retention form, following

modifications can be made in preparation of tooth for full veneer crown
except:
A. Offset
B. Buccal grooves
C. Proximal Grooves
D. Box
E. Pinholes

16. All are indications of Resin bonded bridge except:

A. For replacement of permanent lateral incisor
B. Deep bite cases
 C. All of the above
D. For replacement of permanent canine
E. For Conservative treatment

17. A ceramo-metal posterior fixed partial denture pontic should be

constructed to have an occlusal surface one quarter the width of the
A. tooth it replaces.
B. Provide adequate gingival spaces
C. Be constructed to have an occlusal surface wider than the width of
the tooth
D. Provide adequate embrasure spaces.
E. Cover as much mucosa as possible.

18. A patient came in Dental OPD for crowning of right maxillary 1st
premolar; on examination the buccal wall is intact & well supported by
sound tooth structure. Which type of crown will you choose?
A. Partial coverage metal ceramic crown
B. Complete coverage All acrylic crown
C. Complete coverage Metal ceramic crown
D. Complete coverage All ceramic crown
E. Partial coverage All metal crown

19. Fixed Prosthesis is not indicated in case:

A. RCT treated tooth
B. Short Span
C. Patient preference
D. Single tooth replacement
E. Periodontally Compromised teeth

20. Patient with severe discoloration because of fluorosis, She wants

improve her esthetics, Best conservative Fixed Prosthesis option for
upper six anterior teeth:
A. Bleaching
B. Metal Ceramic Crown
C. All Ceramic Crown
D. None of the above
 E. Ceramic Labial Veneer

21. Contraindications for Fiber Reinforced Composite FDPs are as

follows except:
A. Long Span
B. Need for excellent appearance
C. When fluid control is not possible
D. Patient with Parafunctional habits
E. Patients with opposing unglazed porcelain teeth

22. Advantages of Woven Fiber Post includes following except:

A. Excellent biocompatibility
B. Low strength
C. Enhanced aesthetics
D. Easy to use and remove
E. Firm retention - adhesive cementation

23. The bridge design suitable for replacing right maxillary central
incisor in patient with diastema is:
A. Fixed movable partial denture B. Spring cantilever fixed partial
denture
C. Cantilever fixed partial denture
D. Fixed fixed partial denture
E. Andrew's bridge system

24. Regarding cantilever bridge design

A. Best example is replacing 1st

B. Pontic preferred to be mesial

C. Can be extended for more than 2 teeth missing

D. Pontic preferred to be distal E. Preferred in posterior non

esthetic region

25. To replace a missing canine, the best pontic design is

 A. Ridge lap
B. Sanitary
C. Saddle
D. Conical
E. Modified ridge lap

26. Which of the following pontic designs is most likely to cause

difficulty in maintaining optimal oral hygiene?
A. Hygienic.
B. Conical.
C. Modified ridge lap.
D. Saddle.
E. Ovate.

27. In fixed bridge construction, where the vertical dimension has to

be increased, the most important consideration is whether
A. There is sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for crown
retention.
B. An unfavorable crown-root ratio may develop.
C. The inter-occlusal distance will be physiologically
acceptable.
D. The aesthetic appearance of the patient will be improved.

28. Choose the option which best completes the following sentence.
A retainer is
A. a part of the bridge that replaces the missing tooth
B. a pontic
C. a pier
D. a part of the bridge that is luted to the abutment teeth
E. an abutment tooth

29. Maintenance of Periodontal health is one of the principles of

tooth preparation. Which of the following gingival margin will help
maintain that principal
A. Equigingival
 B. Supragingival whenever possible (atleast 0.5mm from free
gingival margin)
C. Subgingivally reaching to attachment
D. Subgingival 0.5 mm
E. Within the sulcus atleast 1.0mm and away from free gingival margin

30. The primary requirement of cast or die material is:

A. Smooth finish
B. Abrasion resistant
C. Fracture resistant
D. Accuracy and dimensional stability
E. Minimum cost

31. Spruing is:

A. Carried out for casting
B. Channel for molten metal
C. Carried out for polymer denture
D. Done in casting ring
E. Only required for Gold

32. Pulp of tooth being prepared for complete coverage is damaged

by:
A. Feather light touch of bur
B. Excessive pressure of cutting instruments (Bur)
C. Copious water spray
D. Dentine bonding agent
E. Cavity varnish

33. Following are advantages of fixed partial denture design except:

A. Unwanted stresses and lever forces are directly transferred
to the abutments
B. Easy to fabricate
C. Economical design
D. Strong
E. Easy to maintain
34. Following is not type of Resin-bonded fixed partial denture:
A. Rochette bridge
B. Maryland bridge
C. Andrew's bridge
D. Cast bridge
E. Virginia bridge

35. To gain more resistance and retention form, following

modification can be made in preparation of tooth for full veneer crown
except:
A. Box
B. Pinholes
C. Proximal Grooves
D. Buccal grooves
E. Offset

36. In which type of resin Bonded Bridge, Macro-Mechanical

Retention is obtained:
A. Maryland
B. Rochette
C. Virginia
D. Adhesive
E. None of the above

37. Which of the following temporary crowns has got the natural
appearance:
A. Polycarbonates
B. Cellulose Acetates
C. Aluminium
D. Tin-Silver
E. Nickel chromium

38. Which is not provisional restoration:

A. Polycarbonate
 B. Metal ceramic
C. Acrylic

39. The margin of all ceramic restorations:

A. Shoulder
B. Shoulder with bevel
C. Chamfer

40. Retention is:

A. Resistance against vertical forces
B. Resistance towards vertical forces

41. All indications of subgingival margin, except:

A. Esthetics
B. Retention
C. Perio disease

42. Restoration of premolar with intact buccal wall:

A. Complete metal coverage
B. Partial metal coverage
C. Partial MC coverage
D. Complete ceramic coverage

43. Esthetics is increased, except in:

A. Proper preparation
B. Proper bevel
C. Inc. taper

44. Advantages of resin-bonded FPD are all except:

A. Esthetics
B. Outstanding
C. Supragingival margin
D. Min. pulp trauma
E. Non-invasive to dentine
45. In a patient who requires metal-free, non-porcelain prosthesis
A. Resin bonded bridges
B. Implant
C. Fiber reinforced bridges
D. Acrylic removable partial denture.

46. Method not used for managing tilted abutment in fixed dental
prosthesis is:
A. Extraction
B. Modified partial veneer crown
C. Non-rigid connector
D. Mesial resection
E. Telescopic crown

47. Following are advantages of fixed movable partial denture design

except:
A. Acts like stress breakers
B. Abutment is pressurized only during occlusal loading
C. Movable parts tends to wear out under constant usage
D. Parts of prosthesis can be cemented separately
E. Used for pier abutment

48. Subgingival margin is indicated in following situation except:

A. Dental caries, cervical erosion, or restorations extend subgingivally
B. Proximal contact area extends to the gingival crest
C. Additional retention is needed
D. Esthetic reasons
E. Presence of periodontal disease

49. Following luting materials could be used for cementation of

crown except:
A. Zinc phosphate cement
B. Zinc polycarboxylate cement C. Calcium hydroxide cement
D. Glass ionomer cement
 E. Resin cement

50. Most successful and ideal core buildup material for posterior
damaged teeth:
A. Amalgam cores
B. Composite cores
C. GIC cores
D. Zinc Oxide Eugenol
E. Zinc phosphate

51. The recommended convergence (taper) between opposing walls

of tooth being prepared is:
A. 4 degrees
B. 6 degrees
C. 8 degrees
D. 10 degrees
E. 20 degrees

52. Apical seal that must be retained for post and core restoration
must be at least:
A. 3 mm
B. 7 mm
C. 5 mm
D. 1 mm

53. Following is not true for Resin-bonded fixed partial dentures:

A. Non-invasive
B. Conservative
C. Economical
D. Decreased tissue irritation
E. Ideal for replacing more than one tooth

54. Esthetics in full veneer crowns can be enhanced by following

methods except:
A. Sufficient tooth reduction
B. Increasing the taper of preparation
C. Sub-gingival finish margins
D. Making labial margins of crown in porcelain
 E. Two-plane reduction on the facial surface

55. Collarless crowns have:

A. Facial margins in porcelain
B. Facial margins metal
C. Lingual margins in porcelain D. Lingual margins in metal
E. Proximal margins in porcelain

56. Alginates are rarely used for crown and bridge work because: A.
They have low viscosity
B. Alginate material adjacent to the oral tissues acts more rapidly
C. Alginate material adjacent to the cooler tray wall sets more slowly
D. Their tear resistance is poor
E. They are muco-static impression material

57. Elastomers are generally used for crown and bridge work
because:
A. They have good dimensional stability
B. They are non-matrix and non irritant
C. They have good tear resistance
D. They are easy to manipulates E. They have good mechanical
properties

[Link] thickness of the luting cement in fixed restoration should

generally be:
A. 2-5 μm
B. 25-40 μm
C. 0.5-1.0 mm
D. 100-160 μm
E. 200-300 μm

59. External surface form is recorded

A. After preparation of tooth
B. Before preparation of tooth C. Tells tissue surface of
prosthesis
D. It is not necessary step in fabrication of provisional crowns

60. While considering the principles of preservation and tissue

management the finish line of the fixed restoration is located?
A. Infragingivally
 B. At the gingival level
C. Supragingivally
D. 1 mm below the gums margin
E. 0.5 mm below the gums margin

61. When along span FPD is fabricated the:

A. Pontics and connectors made as bulky as possible
B. Pontics should be made thin and the connectors thick
C. Pontics should be made thick and the connectors thin D. Pontics
and connectors made as thin as possible
E. None of the above

62. When using a mesially tilted mandibular 2nd molar as an

abutment for FPD, the best way to compensate the tilt is:
A. Use non rigid connector design
B. Orthodontic uprighting
C. Prepare the mesial half of the abutment only
D. Use telescopic sleeve
E. None of the above

63. The minimum acceptable crown: root ratio for fixed bridge
abutment is?
A. 3:2
B. 1:1
C. 2:3
D. 2:1
E. 2:2

64. How much tooth reduction is required over functional cusps for
cast metal crown?
A. 1.0 mm
B. 2.0 mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 0.5 mm
E. 0.3 mm

65. Type of Pontic without mucosal contact is:

A. Ovate pontic
B. Ridge lap pontic
C. Modified ridge lap pontic
 D. hygienic pontic
E. Sanitary pontic

66. What is the ideal margin preparation for a full veneer gold
crown?
A. Chamfer
B. No preparation is needed
C. Knife edge margin
D. Shoulder
E. Bevelled shoulder

67. The occlusal clearance required for all-metal crown is

A. 2.5mm
B. 3mm
C. 2mm
D. 1 to 1.5mm
E. 0.5mm

68. Regarding favorable criteria for abutment selection is?

A. Root with mesio distal width
B. Root with regular curvature

69. Which of the following are used to strengthen ceramic except?

A. Zirconia
B. Alumina
C. Leucite
D. Feldspar

70. Least preferred mode of management of tilted abutment?

A. orthodontic uprighting
B. Modified PVC
C. non-rigid connector
D. Extraction

71. Restoration used to build up a damaged tooth to ideal anatomic

form prior to prep for crown?
A. Core
B. PVC
C. FWC
D. Inlay
72. While a tooth is being reduced to receive a FVC, adjacent tooth
can best be prevented by?
A. using metal matrix
B. leaving thin fin of enamel
C. single sided cutting disc
D. using thick tapered diamond bur

73. During tooth prep temperature may rise due to?

A. Excessive pressure
B. high rotational speed
C. Condition of cutting instruments
D. All of the above

74. Correct comparison of metal ceramic and porcelain jacket crown

A. The facial tooth reduction is more in metal ceramic
B. The incisal reduction is the same for both
C. There is more lingual reduction in metal ceramic
D. There is less lingual reduction in metal ceramic

75. Biologically and mechanically acceptable solder joint of FPD is:

A. It is thin occlusogingivally and wide facio lingually
B. It extends to the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
C. It is circular in form and occupies the region of contact area
D. It extends into the facial margin of the retainer

76. The amount of reduction required for a tooth for all metal crown
restoration is:
A. So that there is proper clearance between the teeth
B. So that the tooth architecture interfere with the arc of rotation
C. So that the tooth architecture doesn’t interferes with the
arc of rotation
D. At least 2 mm on all the surfaces

77. Splinting of several teeth together as abutments for a fixed

prosthesis is done to:
A. Distribute occlusal load
B. Facilitate plaque removal
C. Improve retention of the prosthesis
D. Preserve remaining alveolar support
78. Three weeks after insertion of a fixed bridge, marked discomfort
to heat and cold but not to sweets occurs.
A. Gingival recession
B. Unseating of the bridge
C. Defective occlusal contact
D. Torsional force on one abutment tooth

79. How long prior to taking an impression should the retraction cord
be left in place: A. 1 min
B. 2 min
C. 5 min
D. 8 min

80. A sprue in a wax pattern should be placed:

A. At right angle
B. At acute angle
C. At obtuse angle
D. It depend on type of wax pattern

81. Which of the following gingival retraction cord is used in

hypertensive patients?
A. Plain retraction cord
B. Retraction cord with 2% racemic epinephrine
C. Retraction cord with 8% aluminium chloride
D. None of the above

82. In post hole preparation which of the following acts as best

antirotational?
A. Antirotational notch
B. A linear groove in the thickest wall of root
C. An oval cross section of dowel
D. A conical cross section of dowel

83. The so called resin retained FPDs or Maryland Bridges depend

upon?
A. Mechanical Retention
B. Chemical Retention
C. Indirect Retention
D. Micromechanical Retention
84. For porcelain fused to metal crown, the porcelain should have?
A. High fusion expansion
B. High fusion temperature
C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than that of
metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion more than that of metal

85. Which of the following is case contraindication for FPD?

A. Short span bridge
B. Where esthetic requirement is high.
C. Patients with high caries index.
D. Abutment teeth are edodontically treated.

86. The success of removable die system depends upon the? A.

Abrasion resistance of the die material.
B. Length of the dowel pin protruding out of the master cast.
C. Time involved in die construction.
D. Precise relocation of the die in the working cast.

87. All other factors being equal, an FPD with a span of 2 pontics
compared to an FPD with a span of one pontic, will flex?
A. 2 Times
B. 4 times
C. 6 Times
D. 8 Times

88. The tooth preparation for Laminates extends to?

A. Labial to contact
B. Lingual to contact
C. At contact point
D. None

89. Lateral incisor cannot be used as an abutment due to:

A. Unaesthetic
B. Insufficient pericemental area
C. Arch of rotation might be interfered
D. None

90. Chamfer finish line is used in:

 A. Labial side of all ceramic crown
B. Lingual of All ceram
C. Lingual of PFM
D. Labial of PFM

91. The matrix retainer where in anatomical adaptation is possible

without wedges is:
A. Tofflemire
B. Steele’s siqveland
C. Ivory no. 1
D. Ivory no. 8

92. Functional Cusp Bevel is given for:

A. Marginal integrity
B. Structural durability
C. Retention and resistance form
D. To improve the geometry of tooth surface

93. Ovate pontics are used in:

A. Well rounded ridges
B. Knife edged ridges
C. Recently extracted tooth sockets
D. Flat ridges

94. Common indication for a hygienic pontic is in:

A. Maxillary anteriors
B. Mandibular anteriors
C. Mandibular posteriors
D. Maxillary premolars

95. In the concept of biological width, the value of biological width is:
A. 1 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 3 mm
D. 4 mm

96. The most suitable margin design for porcelain crown is: A.
Shoulder
B. Chamfer
C. Shoulder with bevel
 D. Depends upon operators choice

97. A removable bridge is:

A. A bridge which can be removed by the patient
B. A bridge which cannot be removed by the patient but can
be removed by the dentist
C. A fully tooth supported partial prosthesis
D. Such a term does not exist

98. Acceptable crown root ratio is (minimum):

A. 1:1.5
B. 1:1
C. 2:1
D. 1:2

99. Ante’s law states:

A. Combined periodontal ligament area of the abutment
tooth should equal or exceed that of the tooth or teeth to be
replaced
B. Combined periodontal ligament area should be less than the
tooth or teeth to be replaced
C. Combined periodontal ligament area of the abutment teeth
should be at least double that of the tooth or teeth to be replaced
D. Ante’s law has now been proved to be obsolete

100. Which tooth will provide more retention when the height and
taper are the same:
A. Large diameter molar
B. Small diameter molar
C. Small diameter premolar
D. Large diameter premolar

101. A finish line is:

A. The point where the acrylic ends and metal denture begins B.
The point at which a preparation terminates
C. The point at which the groove of the preparation should start
D. Imaginary line made before cutting of the tooth is begun

102. Which finish line is most preferred in fixed prosthodontics:

 A. Knife edge
B. Shoulder
C. Chamfer
D. Feather edge

103. How attrition can be minimized in teeth opposing porcelain

restorations?
A. By using high fusing porcelain
B. By finishing rather than glazing
C. By group function occlusion D. Impression waxes

104. Minimum occlusal clearance on centric cusp for cast metal is:
A. 0.5 mm
B. 1 mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 2 mm

105. Pontic design not indicated in anterior region:

A. Ovate pontic
B. Modified ridge lap pontic
C. Stein pontic
D. Spheroidal pontic

106. The posterior tooth that gives a better support is

A. With convergent roots
B. Divergent roots
C. Conical roots
D. Curved roots

107. Fixed partial denture is superior to pontic to avoid contacts in

A. Working side contacts
B. Balancing side contacts
C. Side to side contacts
D. Centric occlusion

108. A pier abutment is:

A. Periodontl weak abutment
B. With an edentulous spade on both side of the abutment
C. Edentulous space on one side of the abutment
D. Abutment adjacent to space
[Link] case, if maxillary canine is missing & we have to make tooth
supported FPD, abutments will be
A. Central incisor, lateral incisor & 1st pre-molar
B. Lateral incisor, lateral incisor & 1st pre-molar
C. Lateral incisor & 1st premolar D. It depends upon periodontal
status of remaining

110. Cavosurface margin angulation in chamfer finish line is:

A. Always 90°
B. 90° or less than 90°
C. 90° or more than 90°
D. 120°

111. Any tooth that support a fixed or removable prosthesis is

termed:
A. A pontic
B. A bridge
C. A retainer
D. An abutment
E. A clasp

112. Direction of mesial and distal walls in a class V amalgam

cavity is determined by:
A. Direction of enamel rods
B. Caries extent
C. Gingivo-axial and occlusal-axial
D. Retention only

113. A tooth which has not been in function and is now being
used as an abutment may become symptomatic. This most
likely results from: A. Overstress
B. Pulpal reaction
C. Localized osteoclastic activity
D. Reaction within periodontal ligament

114. Patient with missing right permanent lateral incisor

affecting its appearance she needs replacement option, Best
treatment option for her:
A. Fixed-Fixed bridge from right central incisor to right canine
 B. Cantilever Resin bonded bridge
C. Fixed movable bridge from right central incisor to right canine
D. Cantilever Conventional bridge
E. None of the above

115. What is the best cementation material for Fixed Prosthesis:

A. Light cure GIC
B. Adhesive Resin
C. Self cure GIC
D. Zinc Phosphate
E. Zinc Polycarboxylate

116. Reduction of Axial walls in Metal-Ceramic crown:

A. 0.8mm-1mm
B. 2mm
C. 1.2mm-1.5mm
D. 0.8mm
E. 1.7mm

117. For Metal Ceramic tooth preparation recommended

margins are:
A. Buccally- Shoulder, Lingually- Chamfer
B. Shoulder margin
C. Chamfer margin
D. Buccally- Chamfer, Lingually- Shoulder
E. Buccally- Bevel, Lingually- Chamfer

118. To maintain the existing diastema in planned fixed

prosthesis, the type of fixed partial denture used is:
A. Andrew’s bridge system
B. Cantilever fixed partial denture
C. Fixed fixed partial denture D. Fixed movable partial denture
E. Spring cantilever fixed partial denture

119. Pulp of tooth being prepared for complete coverage crown

is not damaged by:
A. feather light touch of bur
B. excessive pressure of cutting instrument (Bur)
C. no water spray
D. not applying dentine bonding agent after preparation
 E. use of old bur

120. Type of materials used for temporary crowns are following:

A. Polycarbonate crown
B. Metal ceramic crown
C. All ceramic crown
D. All metal crown
E. Zirconia crown

121. The ideal crown root ratio for bridge abutments is

A. 3:1
B. 2:1
C. 1:2
D. 1:1
E. 2:3

122. Which type of pontic design would you prefer to use in high
esthetic demand pt when preparing teeth numbers 9-11 for a
fixed partial denture
A. Saddle type
B. Modified ridge lap
C. Ovate
D. Conical
E. Heart shaped

123. Which of the following marginal design would be best

choice for cast gold restorations, allowing burnishing and
adaptation of the gold to the tooth
A. Shoulder
B. Shoulder with bevel
C. Chamfer
D. Bevel or feathered edge
E. Chamfer with bevel

124. In group function occlusion, the contact of teeth is usually

limited to
A. Canine to mesial surface of first molar
B. Canine to distal surface of last standing tooth
C. Canine only
D. Canine to distal surface of first molar
 E. Canine to canine only

125. Maintenance of Periodontal health is one of the principal of

tooth preparation. Which of the following gingival margin will
help maintain that principal
A. Within the sulcus atleast 1.0mm and away from free gingival
margin
B. Supragingival whenever possible ( atleast 0.5mm from
free gingival margin )
C. Equigingival
D. Subgingivally reaching to attchement
E. Subgingival o.5 mm ,

126. A 20 year young woman with high cosmetic index came in

Dental OPD for crowning of maxillary central & lateral incisors;
which type of crown will you chose?
A. In-ceram spinell all ceramic crown
B. In-ceram zirconia all ceramic crown
C. Aluminous Core Ceramics D. All metal crown
E. Metal ceramic crown

127. Disdvantages of resin bonded FPDs includes following

except:
A. Minimal removal of tooth structure
B. Reduced restoration longevity
C. Bulky contours may be intolerable in some patients D. Space
correction is difficult
E. Graying of incisal surfaces especially in thin teeth

128. Regarding cantilever bridge design

A. Pontic preferred to be mesial
B. Can be extended for more than 2 teeth misisng
C. Preferred in posterior non esthetic region
D. Pontic preferred to be distal
E. Best example is replacing 1st maxillary molar with 2 premolars

129. Advantages of Woven Fiber Post includes following except:

A. Enhanced aesthetics
B. Excellent biocompatibility C. Easy to use and remove
D. Firm retention – adhesive cementation
 E. Low strength

130. One of the following is true about a pier abutment:

A. Presence of edentulous space mesial to the abutment tooth.
B. Presence of edentulous space distal to the abutment tooth.
C. Presence of edentulous spaces on both sides of the
abutment tooth.
D. A periodontally weak abutment.

131. Group function occlusion in an existing dentition is

characterized by having
A. Balancing side contacts
B. Working side contacts from canine to third molar
C. Long centric from centric relation to centric occlusion
D. Canine rise in protrusion
E. Total balance in lateral excursion

132. A 50 – yr – old man reported to outpatient Prosthodontic

department for replacement of lost teeth in edentate mandible
with implant supported prosthesis. Patient lost his teeth 6 years
ago secondary to Periodontitis followed by extraction with no
history of previous prosthesis wearing. Examination shows
severely resorbed mandible. What would be your choice of
implants for this patient?
A. Root form
B. Mucosal inserts
C. Transosseous
D. Endodontic implants
E. Sub periosteal

133. Best radiographic analysis for implants is

A. CT Scan
B. Occlusal radiographs
C. MRI
D. OPG
E. Periapical radiograph

134. A potential problem of connecting natural teeth to implants

is
A. screw or abutment loosening
 B. failure of the natural tooth prosthesis
C. cement failure on the implant abutment
D. intrusion of the natural tooth
E. extrusion of natural tooth.

135. RP-5 in implantology is a: A. Removable prosthesis

(overdenture) completely supported by implants
B. Removable prosthesis (overdenture) combining
implant and soft tissue support
C. Fixed prosthesis that replaces only crowns
D. Fixed prosthesis that replaces crowns and portion of root
E. Fixed prosthesis that restores anatomic crowns, gingival color
and portion of the edentulous site

136. FP-3 in misch classification denotes:

A. overdenture completely supported by implant
B. fixed prosthesis that replaces crown,root along with
portion of edentulous ridge
C. fixed prosthesis that replaces crown only
D. fixed prosthesis that replaces crown &root both
E. overdenture supported by implant& soft tissues

137. Implants are contraindicated for:

A. Completely edentulous patient
B. Partially edentulous arches C. Single tooth replacement D.
Indifferent type of patients
E. Philosophical type of patients

138. In tapering shape pre-maxilla how many numbers of dental

implants are used to replace missing anterior six teeth:
A. Two implants
B. Three implants
C. Four implants
D. Five implants
E. Six implants

139. D4 (soft bone) type of bone is found at?

A. Pre-maxilla
B. Symphysis of mandible
C. Mandibular body
 D. Ramus
E. Posterior part of maxilla

140. To facilitate the osseointegration in D4 (soft bone) following

protocols are consider, Except:
A. Intra oprative compaction of bone
B. Use of hydroxyapatite coated implant body
C. Wider size diameter implant body
D. Immediate loading
E. 6 month healing time before loading

141. How far should implants be placed from one another? A.

3mm
B. 4mm
C. 5mm
D. 7mm
E. 10mm

142. Which of the following investigation help to evaluate bone

Quality & quantity?
A. OPG
B. Occlusal view
C. Periapical
D. CT Scan
E. MRI

143. Disadvantage of D4 bone for implant placement are

following except?
A. Has high amount of cortical bone
B. Greater diameter hydroxyapatite coated implants are needed
C. Offers limited mechanical advantage
D. Difficult to obtain rigid fixation

144. The ideal time to wait for osseointegration of an implant to

take place is:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
E. 02 years
145. 18 yrs old girl; as think for implant placement, we refuse
due to:
A. Uncontrolled DM type 1
B. Age
C. Gender
D. Poor hygiene

146. Best radiographic analysis for implants is

A. Ct scan
B. MRI
C. OPG
D. Occulusal radiograph
E. Periapical radiograph

147. FP-3 in Mish classification denotes:

A. fixed prosthesis that replaces crown only
B. overdenture completely supported by implant
C. fixed prosthesis that replaces crown &root both
D. overdenture supported by implant& soft tissues
E. fixed prosthesis that replaces crown,root along with
portion of edentulous ridge

148. The following is true for Osseo integration:

A. Interaction of the bone and implant
B. Needs a medium for bone interaction
C. Soft tissue intervenes between the bone and implant
D. Increase in cancellous bone
E. increase in compact bone

149. A 50 – yr – old man reported to outpatient Prosthodontic

department for replacement of lost teeth in edentate mandible
with implant supported prosthesis. Patient lost his teeth 6 years
ago secondary to Periodontitis followed by extraction with no
history of previous prosthesis wearing. Examination shows
severely resorbed mandible. What would be your choice of
implants for this patient?
A. Endodontic implants
B. Mucosal inserts
C. Root form
 D. Transosseous
E. Sub periosteal

150. Interim obturators are usually given after

A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. A month
D. Immediately
E. After complete healing has been achieved

151. Regarding obturators all are true. Except:

A. They are given to rehabilitate the developmental anomaly
B. They replace orofacial tissues
C. Contraindicated in infants
D. Indicated to obturate root canal
E. Replace the pathological loss of orofacial tissues

152. According to armanis classification of hard palate defect,

class 3 is
A. Midline resection
B. Anterior resection sparing post region
C. Posterior resection sparing ant palate
D. Central defect
E. Bilateral anterior with posterior defect

153. Regarding resection guidelines for maxillofacial defects,

which of the following is not a suitable statement
A. Preserve as much as possible
B. Smooth the roughen margins
C. Remove inferior turbinate D. Line of incision should be
mesial to socket area
E. Buccal pad of fat should be provided by surgeon

154. A 75 yrs old patient reported to department of

prosthodontics for fabrication of definitive maxillary
obturator. On examination you identified that patient is
having central palatal defect. Which of the following
Armani's classification would most likely suits with the
clinical presentation of this patient?
A. class 1
 B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4

155. Regarding obturators all are true. Except:

A. Indicated to obdurate root canal
B. They are given to rehabilitate the developmental
anomaly
C. Contraindicated in infants
D. Replace the pathological loss of orofacial tissues
E. They replace orofacial tissues

156. In a post irradiated edentulous jaws the prosthodontics

care include?
A. Metallic oxide pastes are used to take the impressions
B. CR record are made at slightly reduced vertical
height
C. Muco-compression is desired
D. New dentures are contemplated as early as possible
E. PMMA base material is preferred

157. Surgical obturators are fabricated?

A. Immediately after the lesion is excised
B. Within one week of surgery
C. Prior to resection of the lesion.
D. After the complete wound healing
E. 2-3 months of surgery

158. The Partial Maxillectomy Defect Classification was given

by?
A. Aramany
B. Butler
C. Jackson & Callon Forte
D. None

159. A black gutta percha is a thermo plastic impression

material
A. True
B. False
160. A teacher in the Department of Prosthodontics is explaining
advantages of the immediate / surgical obturator prosthesis.
He mistakenly gave the following list in which one of option
is not correct.
A. Restore the continuity of the hard palate
B. Facilitate the post operative speech & deglutition
C. Serve for 15 days to 1 month
D. Preclude the use nasogastric feeding tube
E. Supports the surgical packing placed in resected area

161. Storage of irreversible hydro colloids for a appreciable

length of time in a dry & hot weather results in measurable
distortion of impression. This is prevented by
A. immersing the impression in water
B. wrapping the wet paper around the impression
C. keeping the impression in humidor
D. pouring the cast within 12 minutes of impression removal
E. pouring the cast within 30 minutes of impression removal

162. The ideal material for making cast and die from
hydrocolloid impression materials is:
A. Epoxy resin
B. Plaster
C. Dental stones
D. Electro formed silver
E. Electro formed copper

163. The primary requirement of cast or die material is:

A. Smooth finish
B. Abrasion resistant
C. Fracture resistant
D. Accuracy and dimensional stability
E. Minimum cost

164. Which is an appropriate procedure for disinfection of

alginate impression?
A. Complete immersion in bleach in a plastic bag for 1 hour
B. Spraying for 30 seconds with an idophor and then wiping
dry
C. Placing in an autoclave on low temperature for 3 minutes
 D. Spraying with gluteraldehyde and sealing in a bag
for 10 minutes
E. Place under running water

165. Which of the following elastomeric impression materials

has the longest working and setting time?
A. Polyether
B. Polysulfide
C. Condensation silicones D. Addition silicone
E. soft acrylics

166. During partial denture service which of following sterilizing

protocol should not be used
A. Use mask
B. Use eye glasses
C. Use stock trays without cleaning
D. Use sterilize dental instruments
E. Use gloves

167. There is maximum biting force in:

A. Molar region
B. Protrusive occlusion
C. High vertical
D. Lateral excursions
E. Correct vertical relations

168. The chief ingredient in irreversible hydrocolloid impression

material is:
A. Borax
B. Calcium sulphate
C. Potassium oxalate
D. Sodium alginate
E. Zinc oxide

169. Contraction porosity in PMMA results from:

A. Inclusion of gases during packing of acrylic
B. Reduced monomer in mold
C. Insufficient application of cold mold seal
D. Increase monomer in mold
E. Sudden rise in temperature during polymerization
170. Which of the following muscle is primarily responsible for
the downward & forward movement of head of the condyles?
A. Medial pterygoid muscle B. Lateral pterygoid muscle
C. Temporalis
D. Masseter
E. Mylohyoid

171. Loss of water and salts by evaporation from the surface of

hydrocolloid gel is termed:
A. Diapedesis
B. Hysteresis
C. Imbibition
D. Memory
E. Syneresis

172. Portion of articular disc that is avascular is

A. Anterior part
B. Central part
C. Posterior part
D. Peripheral part
E. None of the above

173. In a diabetic patient to avoid any complications following

protocols must be administered?
A. Early morning appointment
B. Stress reduction protocols
C. Infection control measures
D. Intravenous glucose for length procedures
E. Prescribe steriods

174. Mouth temperature waxes are:

A. Modelling wax
B. Korecta wax
C. Iowa wax
D. Green stick compound