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Address: 17A, 30
th
Cross, Tilak Nagar, Jayanagar 4
th
`T Block, Bangalore - 560 041.
Ph: 080 - 51310203.
Centres:
Mumbai
GATE FORUM
110, Shopper's Point
1st Floor , S. V. Road
Opp. Andheri Railway Station.
Andheri (W) Mumbai.
Tel: (022) 2623 7471 / 72
Kolkata
GATE FORUM
4A, ELGIN Road
Next to Bhavanipur College
Kolkata-700020
Tel: (033) 30947075, 30947160
Jaipur
GATE FORUM
C-16 , Greater Kailash Colony,
Behind New Vidhan Sabha, Lal
Kothi, Jaipur, Rajasthan.
PIN : 302001,Tel:(0141) 5103580

Trivandrum
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TC 14/ 1679 , Behind Sanskrit
College, Palayam, Trivandrum
Kerala PIN : 695034.
Tel : (471) 2322914,
Nagpur
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3rd Floor, Samarth Chambers
W.H.C Road, Opp. Chauhan
Traders,
Nagpur - 440 010,
Maharashtra
Dhanbad
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Flat NO: 3 B, HEM Tower,
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Dhanbad 826001
Tel: (0326) 3108848

Durgapur
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Opposite Bank of India,
Benachity.
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opp. Hotel Surya
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Hubli /
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d
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Duration: 3 Hours Maximum Marks:150


Read the following instructions carefully:

1. This question paper contains 90 objective questions. Q.1 to Q.30 carry One mark each
and Q.31 to Q.90 carry Two marks each.
2. Answer all the questions.
3. Questions must be answered on special machine gradable Objective Response Sheet
(ORS) by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) against the question
number on the left hand side of the ORS, using HB pencil. Each question has only one
correct answer. In case you wish to change an answer, erase the old answer completely
using a good soft eraser.
4. There will be NEGATIVE marking. In Q.1 to Q.30, 0.25 mark will be deducted for each
wrong answer and in Q.31 to Q.90, 0.5 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response
and will be negatively marked.
5. Write your registration number, name and name of the Centre at the specified locations on
the right half of the ORS.
6. Using HB pencil, darken the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration
number and the letters corresponding to your paper code.
7. No charts or tables are provided in the examination hall.
8. Use the blank pages given at the end of the question paper for rough work.
9. Choose the closest numerical answer among the choice given.
10. Please check all pages and report, if there is any discrepancy.














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Q.1 - Q.30 Carry One Mark Each
1. In a population of N families, 50% of the families have three children, 30% of the
families have two children and the remaining families have one child. What is the
probability that a randomly picked child belongs to a family with two children?
(A)
3
23
(B)
6
23
(C)
3
10
(D)
3
5


2. In a class of 200 students, 125 students have taken Programming Language
course, 85 students have taken Data Structures course, 65 students have taken
Computer Organization course; 50 students have taken both Programming
Language and Data Structures, 35 students have taken both Data Structures and
Computer Organization; 30 students have taken both Data Structures and
Computer Organizational, 15 students have taken all the three course.
How many students have not taken any of the three courses?
(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 35

3. Let ( ) ( ) ( ) , , , and , a x y b x y c x y be three statements with variables x and y chosen
from some universe. Consider the following statement:
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) , , , x y a x y b x y c x y (


Which one of the following is its equivalent?
(A) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) , , , x y a x y b x y c x y (


(B) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) , , , x y a x y b x y c x y (


(C) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) , , , x y a x y b x y c x y (


(D) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) , , , x y a x y b x y c x y (



4. Let
1
R be a relation from { } { }
2
1,3,5,7 to 2, 4, 6, 8 and A B R = = be another relation
from B to { } 1,2,3, 4 C = as defined below:
(i) An element x in A is related to an element y in B (under
1
R ) if x+y is
divisible by 3.
(ii) An element x in B is related to an element y in C (under
2
R ) if x+y is even
but not divisible by 3.
Which is the composite relation
1 2
R R from A to C?
(A) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) { }
1 2
1,2 , 1, 4 , 3,3 , 5, 4 , 7,3 R R =
(B) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) { }
1 2
1,2 , 1,3 , 3,2 , 5,2 , 7,3 R R =
(C) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) { }
1 2
1,2 , 3,2 , 3, 4 , 5, 4 , 7,2 R R =
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(D) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) { }
1 2
3,2 , 3, 4 , 5,1 , 5,3 , 7,1 R R =

5. What is the maximum number of edges in an acyclic undirected graph with n
vertices?

(A) n - 1 (B) n (C) n + 1 (D) 2n - 1

6. What values of x, y and z satisfy the following system of linear equations?

1 2 3 6
1 3 4 8
2 2 3 12
x
y
z
( ( (
( ( (
=
( ( (
( ( (


(A) 6, 3, 2 x y z = = = (B) 12, 3, 4 x y z = = =
(C) 6, 6, 4 x y z = = = (D) 12, 3, 0 x y z = = =

7. Which one of the following regular expressions is NOT equivalent to the regular
expression ( ) *? a b c + +
(A) ( ) * * * * a b c + + (B) ( ) * * * * a b c
(C) ( ) ( )
* * * ab c + (D) ( ) * * * * a b c +

8. What is the minimum number of NAND gates required to implement a 2-input
EXCLUSIVE-OR function without using any other logic gate?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

9. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) There exist context free languages such that all the context free grammars
generating them age ambiguous.
(B) An unambiguous context free grammar always has a unique parse tree for
each string of the language generated by it.
(C) Both deterministic and non-deterministic pushdown automata always accept
the same set of languages
(D) A finite set of string from one alphabet is always a regular language.

10. What is the minimum size of ROM required to store the complete truth table of an
8-bit 8-bit multiplier?
(A) 32 K 16 bits (B) 64 K 16 bits (C) 16 K 32 bits (D) 64 K 32 bits

11. What is the bit rate of a video terminal unit with 80 characters/line, 8
bits/character and horizontal sweep time of 100s (including 20 s of retrace
time)?
(A) 8 Mbps (B) 6.4 Mbps (C) 0.8 Mbps (D) 0.64 Mbps
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12. Consider a system with 2 level caches. Access times of Level 1 cache, Level 2
cache and main memory are 1 ns, 10ns, and 500 ns, respectively. The hit rates
of Level 1 and Level 2 caches are 0.8 and 0.9, respectively. What is the average
access time of the system ignoring the search time within the cache?
(A) 13.0 ns (B) 12.8 ns (C) 12.6 ns (D) 12.4 ns

13. Let P be a singly linked list. Let Q be the pointer to an intermediate node x in the
list. What is the worst-case time complexity of the best known algorithm to
delete the node x from the list?
(A) O(n) (B)
( )
2
log O n (C) ( ) log O n (D) O(1)

14. Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process?
(A) Stack (B) Address Space
(C) File Descriptor Table (D) Message Queue

15. Let x be an integer which can take a value of 0 or 1. The statement
if ( ) 0 x == 1; x = else x = 0; is equivalent to which one of the following?
(A) 1 ; x x = + (B) 1 ; x x = (C) 1; x x = (D) 1% ; x x =

16. Which of the following commands or sequences of commands will rename a file x
to file y in a Unix system?
I. mv y, x II. mv x, y III. cp y, x (rm x) IV. cp x, y (rm x)
(A) II and III (B) II and IV (C) I and III (D) II only

17. In a software project, COCOMO (Constructive Cost Model) is used to estimate
(A) effort and duration based on the size of the software
(B) size and duration based on the effort of the software
(C) effort and cost based on the duration of the software
(D) size, effort and duration based on the cost of the software

18. The diagram that helps in understanding and representing user requirements for
a software project using UML (Unified Modeling Language) is:
(A) Entity Relationship Diagram (B) Deployment Diagram
(C) Data Flow Diagram (D) Use Case Diagram

19. A software organization has been assessed at SEI CMM Level 4. Which of the
following does the organization need to practice beside Process Change
Management and Technology Change Management in order to achieve Level 5?
(A) Defect Detection (B) Defect Prevention
(C) Defect Isolation (D) Defect Propagation
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20. A software configuration management tool helps in
(A) keeping track of the schedule based on the milestones reached
(B) maintaining different versions of the configurable items
(C) managing manpower distribution by changing the project structure
(D) all of the above

21. Which level of locking provides the highest degree of concurrency in a relational
database?
(A) Page (B) Table (C) Row
(D) Page, table and row level locking allow the same degree of concurrency

22. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) Packet switching leads to better utilization of bandwidth resources than
circuit switching.
(B) Packet switching results in less variation in delay than circuit switching.
(C) Packet switching requires more per packet processing than circuit switching.
(D) Packet switching can lead to reordering unlike in circuit switching.

23. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) TCP guarantees a minimum communication rate
(B) TCP ensures in-order delivery
(C) TCP reacts to congestion by reducing sender window size
(D) TCP employs retransmission to compensate for packet loss

24. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) HTTP runs over TCP
(B) HTTP describes the structure of web pages
(C) HTTP allows information to be stored in a URL
(D) HTTP can be used to test the validity of a hypertext link

25. A sender is employing public key cryptography to send a secret message to a
receiver. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) Sender encrypts using receivers public key
(B) Sender encrypts using his own public key
(C) Receiver decrypts using senders public key
(D) Receiver decrypts using his own public key

26. A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the
maximum number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?
(A) 14 (B) 30 (C) 62 (D) 126
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27. A host is connected to a Department network which is part of a University
network. The University network, in turn, is part of the Internet. The largest
network in which the Ethernet address of the host is unique is:
(A) the subnet to which the host belongs (B) the Department network
(C) the University network (D) the Internet

28. In TCP, a unique sequence number is assigned to each
(A) byte (B) word (C) segment (D) message

29. Which of the following objects can be used in expressions and scriplets in JSP
(Java Server Pages) without explicitly declaring them?
(A) session and request only (B) request and response only
(C) response and session only (D) session, request and response

30. Consider the following statements:
I. telnet, ftp and http are application layer protocols.
II. EJB (Enterprise Java Beans) components can be deployed in a J2EE (Java2
Enterprise Edition) application server.
III. If two languages conform to the Common Language Specification (CLS) of
the Microsoft.NET framework, then a class defined in any one of them may
be inherited in the other.
Which statements are true?
(A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III

Q.31 - 90 Carry Two Marks Each

31. Let p, q. r and s be four primitive statements. Consider the following arguments:

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
:
:
:
:
P p q r s p r s q
Q p q q p r r
R q r P q p r
S p p r q r q
(

(

( (

(


Which of the above arguments are valid?
(A) P and Q only (B) P and R only
(C) P and S only (D) P, Q, R and S





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32. Let A be an n n matrix of the following form.

3 1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 3 1 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 3 1 0 0 0 0
0 0 1 3 1 0 0 0
0 0 0 0 0 1 3 1
0 0 0 0 0 0 1 3
n n
A

(
(
(
(
(
(
=
(
(
(
(
(
(

What is the value of the determinant of A?
(A)
1 1
5 3 5 3 7 5 3 5 3 7
2 2
2 3 2 3
n n
| | | | | | | |
+ +
+ | | | |
| | | |
\ . \ . \ . \ .

(B)
1 1
7 5 7 5 3 7 5 7 5 3
2 2
2 5 2 5
n n
| | | | | | | |
+ +
+ | | | |
| | | |
\ . \ . \ . \ .

(C)
1 1
3 7 7 5 5 3 7 3 7 5
2 2
2 7 2 7
n n
| | | | | | | |
+ +
+ | | | |
| | | |
\ . \ . \ . \ .

(D)
1 1
3 5 3 5 7 3 5 3 5 7
2 2
2 5 2 5
n n
| | | | | | | |
+ +
+ | | | |
| | | |
\ . \ . \ . \ .


33. Let X and Y be two exponentially distributed and independent random variables
with mean and , respectively. If Z = min(X,Y), then the mean of Z is given by
(A)
1
+
(B) ( ) min , (C)

+
(D) +
34. Let
1 2 3
, , , H H H be harmonic numbers. Then, for
1
,
n
j
j
n Z H
+
=

can be expressed as
(A) ( )
1
1
n
nH n
+
+ (B) ( ) 1
n
n H n +
(C)
n
nH n (D) ( ) ( )
1
1 1
n
n H n
+
+ +

35. In how many ways can we distribute 5 distinct balls,
1 2 5
, , , B B B in 5 distinct
cells,
1 2 5
, , , C C C such that Ball
i
B is not in cell , 1,2, ,5
i
C i = and each cell
contains exactly one ball?
(A) 44 (B) 96 (C) 120 (D) 3125



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36. If matrix
2
2
1
and 0
1 1
a
X X X I
a a a
(
= + =
(
+

(I is the identity matrix and O
is the zero matrix), then the inverse of X is:
(A)
2
1 1 a
a a
(
(

(B)
2
1 1
1
a
a a a
(
(
+


(C)
2
1
1 1
a
a a a
(
(
+

(D)
2
1
1 1
a a a
a
( +
(

37. What is the number of vertices in an undirected connected graph with 27 edges,
6 vertices of degree 2, 3 vertices of degree 4 and remaining of degree 3?
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 18 (D) 19

38. If ( ) ( ) ( ) 1 2, 2 4 and 4 16, f f f = = = what is the value of ( ) 3 f using Lagranges
interpolation formula?
(A) 8 (B)
1
8
3
(C)
2
8
3
(D) 9

39. Consider the following iterative root finding methods and convergence properties:

Iterative root finding
methods
Convergence properties
(Q) False Position (I) Order of convergence = 1.62
(R) Newton Raphson (II) Order of convergence = 2
(S) Secant (III) Order of convergence = 1 with guarantee of
convergence
(T) Successive Approximation (IV) Order of convergence = 1 with no guarantee of
convergence

(A) Q - II R - IV S - III T - I
(B) Q - III R - II S - I T - IV
(C) Q - II R - I S - IV T - III
(D) Q - I R - IV S - II T - III






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40. Let ( ) , , , , , M K s F = be a pushdown automaton, where
{ } { } { } , , , , , K s f F f a b = = = = { } a and

( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) { }
, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , s a s a s b s a s a f f a a f f b a f =
Which one of the following strings is not a member of ( ) ? L M
(A) aaa (B) aabab (C) baaba (D) bab

41. Let ( ) , , , , M K s F = be a finite state automaton, where

{ } { } { }
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
, , , , , ,
, , , , , and ,
K A B a b s A F B
A a A A b B B a B B b A
= = = =
= = = =

A grammar to generate the language accepted by M can be specified as
( ) , , , , G V R S = where , V K = and S = A.
Which one of the following set of rules will make ( ) ( ) ? L G L M =
(A) { } , , , , A aB A bA B bA B aA B
(B) { } , , , , A aA A bB B aB B bA B
(C) { } , , , , A bB A aB B aA B bA B
(D) { } , , , , A aA A bA B aB B bA A

42. Using a 4-bit 2s complement arithmetic, which of the following additions will
result in an overflow?
(i) 1100 + 1100 (ii) 0011 + 0111 (iii) 1111 + 0111
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only
(C) (iii) only (D) (i) and (iii) only

43. The number ( )
8
123456 is equivalent to
(A) ( ) ( )
16 4
72 and 22130232 A E (B) ( ) ( )
16 4
72 and 22131122 A E
(C) ( ) ( )
16 4
73 and 22130232 A E (D) ( ) ( )
16 4
62 and 22120232 A E

44. The function AB C A BC ABC A B C AB C + + + + is equivalent to
(A) AC AB A C + + (B) AB AC A C + +
(C) A B AC AB + + (D) A B AC AB + +



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45. A serial transmission T1 uses 8 information bits, 2 start bits, 1 stop bit and 1
parity bit for each character. A synchronous transmission T2 uses 3 eight bit sync
characters followed by 30 eight bit information characters. If the bit rate is 1200
bits/second in both cases, what are the transfer rates of T1 and T2?
(A) 100 characters/sec, 153 characters/sec
(B) 80 characters/sec, 136 characters/sec
(C) 100 characters/sec, 136 characters/sec
(D) 80 characters/sec, 153 characters/sec

46. If we use internal data forwarding to speed up the performance of a CPU (R1, R2
and R3 are registers and M[100] is a memory reference), then the sequence of
operations

1 100
100 2
100 3
R M
M R
M R
(

(

(


Can be replaced by
(A) (B)

1 3
2 100
R R
R M

(


100 2
1 2
1 3
M R
R R
R R
(

(C) (D)

1 100
2 3
R M
R R
(

1 2
1 3
1 100
R R
R R
R M

(



47. Consider a pipeline processor with 4 stages S1 to S4. We want to execute the
following loop: ( ) { } for 1; 1000; 1, 2, 3, 4 i i i I I I I = <= + + where the time taken (in ns)
by instructions 1 to 4 I I for stages S1 to S4 are given below:

S1 S2 S3 S4
I1: 1 2 1 2
I2: 2 1 2 1
I3: 1 1 2 1
I4: 2 1 2 1

The output of I1 for 2 i = will be available after
(A) 11 ns (B) 12 ns (C) 13 ns (D) 28 ns

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48. Consider a fully associative cache with 8 cache blocks (numbered 0-7) and the
following sequence of memory block requests:
4, 3, 25, 8, 19, 6, 25, 8, 16, 35, 45, 22, 8, 3, 16, 25, 7
If LRU replacement policy is used, which cache block will have memory block 7?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

49. A CPU has only three instructions I1, I2 and I3, which use the following signals in
time steps T1-T5:
I1: T1:Ain, Bout, Cin
T2:PCout, Bin
T3:Zout, Ain
T4:PCin, Bout
T5:End
I2: T1:Cin, Bout, Din
T2:Aout, Bin
T3:Zout, Ain
T4:Bin, Cout
T5:End
I3: T1:Din, Aout
T2:Din, Bout
T3:Zout, Ain
T4:Dout, Ain
T5:End
Which of the following logic functions will generate the hardwired control for the
signal Ain?
(A) T1.I1 + T2.I3 + T4.I3 + T3
(B) (T1 + T2 + T3). I3 + T1.I1
(C) (T1 + T2). I1 + (T2 + T4). I3 + T3
(D) (T1 + T2). I2 + (T1 + T3). I1 + T3

50. In an enhancement of a design of a CPU, the speed of a floating point until has
been increased by 20% and the speed of a fixed point unit has been increased by
10%. What is the overall speedup achieved if the ratio of the number of floating
point operations to the number of fixed point operations is 2:3 and the floating
point operation used to take twice the time taken by the fixed point operation in
the original design?
(A) 1.155 (B) 1.185 (C) 1.255 (D) 1.285



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51. The storage area of a disk has innermost diameter of 10 cm and outermost
diameter of 20 cm. The maximum storage density of the disk is 1400 bits/cm.
The disk rotates at a speed of 4200 RPM. The main memory of a computer has
64-bit word length and 1s cycle time. If cycle stealing is used for data transfer
from the disk, the percentage of memory cycles stolen for transferring one word
is:
(A) 0.5% (B) 1% (C) 5% (D) 10%

52. A program attempts to generate as many permutations as possible of the string
`abcd by pushing the characters a, b, c, d in the same order onto a stack, but it
may pop off the top character at any time. Which one of the following strings
CANNOT be generated using this program?
(A) abcd (B) dcba (C) cbad (D) cabd

53. An array of integers of size n can be converted into a heap by adjusting the
heaps rooted at each internal node of the complete binary tree starting at the
node ( ) 1 2 , n (

and doing this adjustment up to the root node (root node is at
index 0) in ther order ( ) ( ) 1 2 , 3 2 , , 0. n n ( (

The time required to construct
a heap in this manner is
(A) ( ) log O n (B) ( ) O n (C) ( ) log log O n n (D) ( ) log O n n

54. Which one of the following binary trees has its in-order and preorder traversals
as BCAD and ABCD, respectively?
(A) (B)





(C) (D)






55. Let ( ) ( ) ( ) , and f n g n h n be functions defined for positive integers such that
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
, , , and . f n O g n g n O f n g n O h n h n O g n = = = Which one
of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ) ( )
f n g n O h n h n + = + (B) ( ) ( ) ( )
f n O h n =
A
B
C
D
A
C
B
D
A
C
B
D
A
B
C
D
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(C) ( ) ( ) ( )
h n O f n (D) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
f n h n O g n h n

56. Consider the undirected graph below:








Using Prims algorithm to construct a minimum spanning tree starting with node
A, which one of the following sequences of edges represents a possible order in
which the edges would be added to construct the minimum spanning tree?
(A) (E, G), (C, F), (F, G), (A, D), (A, B), (A, C)
(B) (A, D), (A, B), (A, C), (C, F), (G, E), (F, G)
(C) (A, B), (A, D), (D, F), (F, G), (G, E), (F, C)
(D) (A, D), (A, B), (D, F), (F, C), (F, G), (G, E)

57. Consider a list of recursive algorithms and a list of recurrence relations as shown
below. Each recurrence relation corresponds to exactly one algorithm and is used
to derive the time complexity of the algorithm.

Recursive Algorithm Recurrence Relation
(P) Binary search (I) ( ) ( ) ( ) T n T n k T k cn = + +
(Q) Merge sort (II) ( ) ( ) 2 1 1 T n T n = +
(R) Quick sort (III) ( ) ( ) 2 2 T n T n cn = +
(S) Tower of Hanoi (IV) ( ) ( ) 2 1 T n T n = +
Which of the following is the correct match between the algorithms and their
recurrence relations?
(A) P - II Q - III R - IV S - I
(B) P - IV Q - III R - I S - II
(C) P - III Q - II R - IV S - I
(D) P - IV Q - II R - I S - III


A
B
E
C
D
F
G
2
49
10
26
22
10
30
4
7
22
5
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58. Consider the following C program which is supposed to compute the transpose of
a given 4 4 matrix M. Note that, there is an X in the program which indicates
some missing statements. Choose the correct option to replace X in the program.
#include <stdio.h>
#define ROW 4
#define COL 4
int M[ROW][COL] ={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16};
main()
{
int i,j,t;
for (i=0;i<4;++i)
{
X
}
for(i=0;i<4;++i)
for(j=0;j<4;++j)
printf("%d, M[i][j]);
}
(A) for(j=0;j<4;++j){
t= M[i][j];
M[i][j]= M[j][i];
M[j][i]=t;
}
(B) for(j=0;j<4;++j){
M[i][j]=t;
t= M[j][i];
M[j][i]= M[i][j];
}
(C) for(j=i;j<4;++j){
t= M[j][i];
M[i][j]= M[j][i];
M[j][i]=t;
}
(D) for(j=i;j<4;++j){
M[i][j]=t;
t= M[j][i];
M[j][i]= M[i][j];
}

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59. What is the output of the following program?
#include <stdio.h>

int funcf(int x);
int funcg(int y);
main ()
{
int x = 5, y = 10, count;
for (count = 1; count <=2; ++count){
y+=funcf(x) + funcg(x);
printf("%d,y);
}
}
funcf (int x) {
int y;
y=funcg(g);
return(y);
}
funcg (int x) {
static int y = 10;
y+=1;
return (y+x);
}

(A) 43 80 (B) 42 74 (C) 33 37 (D) 32 32

60. Choose the correct option to fill the ?1 and ?2 so that the program prints an input
string in reverse order. Assume that the input string is terminated by a new line
character.
#include <stdio.h>
void wrt_it (void);
int main (void)
{
printf("Etner Text);
printf("/n);
wrt_it();
printf("/n);
return 0;
}
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void wrt_it(void)
{
int c;
if (?1)
wrt_it();
?2
}
(A) ?1 is getchar() !=/n
?2 is getchar(c);
(B) ?1 is (c=getchar() !=/n
?2 is getchar(c);
(C) ?1 is c !=/n
?2 is putchar(c);
(D) ?1 is (c=getchar()) !=/n
?2 is putchar(c);

61. Consider the following C program:
#include <stdio.h>
typedef struct {
char *a;
char *b;
} t;
void f1 (t s);
void f2 (t *p);
main()
{
static t s = {"A, "B};
printf("%s %s \n, s.a, s.b);
f1(s);
printf("%s %s \n, s.a, s.b);
f1(&s);
}
void f1 (t s)
{
s.a = "U;
s.b = "V,
printf("%s %s \n, s.a, s.b);
return;
}
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void f2 (t *p)
p a = "V;
p b = "W;
printf("%s %s \n, p a,p b);
return;
}
What is the output generated by the program?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

AB
UV
VW
VW

AB
UV
AB
VW

AB
UV
UV
VW

AB
UV
VW
UV


62. A disk has 200 tracks (numbered 0 through 199). At a given time, it was
servicing the request of reading data from track 120, and at the previous
request, service was for track 90. the pending requests (in order of their arrival)
are for track numbers.
30 70 115 130 110 80 20 25.
How many times will the head change its direction for the disk scheduling policies
SSTF (Shortest Seek Time First) and FCFS (First Come First Serve)?
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 4 and 4

63. In a certain operating system, deadlock prevention is attempted using the
following scheme. Each process is assigned a unique timestamp, and is restarted
with the same timestamp if killed. Let
h
P be the process holding a resource R,
r
P be a process requesting for the same resource R, and ( ) ( )
` and Pr
h
T P T be their
timestamps respectively. The decision to wait or preempt one of the processes is
based on the following algorithm.

( ) ( ) if then
kill
else
wait
r h
r
T P T P
P
<

Which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) The scheme is deadlock free, but not starvation free
(B) The scheme is not deadlock free, but starvation free
(C) The scheme is neither deadlock free nor starvation free
(D) The scheme is both deadlock free and starvation free




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64. A process executes the following segment of code:
for(i=1;i<=n;i++)
fork():
The number of new processes created is:
(A) n (B)
( ) 1
2
n n +
(C) 2 1
n
(D) 3 1
n


65. The semaphore variables full, empty and mutex are initialized to 0, n and 1,
respectively. Process
1
P repeatedly adds one item at a time to a buffer of size n,
and process
2
P repeatedly removes one item at a time from the same buffer
suing the programs given below. In the program, K, L, M and N are unspecified
statements.
P1: while (1) {
K; P(mutex);
Add an item to the buffer;
V(mutex);L;
}
P2: while (1) {
M; P(mutex);
Remove an item from the buffer;
V(mutex);N;
}
The statements K, L, M and N are respectively
(A) P(full), V(empty), P(full), V(empty)
(B) P(full), V(empty), P(empty), V(full)
(C) P(empty), V(full), P(empty), V(full)
(D) P(empty), V(full), P(full), V(empty)

66. In a virtual memory system, size of virtual address is 32bit, size of physical
address is 30 bit, page size is 4 Kbyte and size of each page table entry is 32-bit.
The main memory is byte addressable. Which one of the following is the
maximum number of bits that can be used for storing protection and other
information in each page table entry?
(A) 2 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14

67. In a particular Unix Os, each data block is of size 1024 bytes, each node has 10
direct data block addresses and three additional addresses: one for single indirect
block, one for double indirect block and one for triple indirect block. Also, each
block can contain addresses for 128 blocks. Which one of the following is
approximately the maximum size of a file in the file system?
(A) 512 MB (B) 2 GB (C) 8 GB (D) 16 GB
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68. A software project involves execution of 5 tasks T1, T2, T3, T4 and T5 of duration
10, 15, 18, 30 and 40 days, respectively. T2 and T4 can start only after T1
completes. T3 can start after T2 completes. T5 can start only after both T3 and
T4 complete. What is the slack time of the task T3 in days?
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 18 (D) 30

69. Consider the following program module:
int module1 (int x, int y)
while (x!=y) {
if (x>y)
x=x-y;
else y = y - x;
}
return x;
}
What is Cyclomatic complexity of the above module?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

70. Assume that the delivered liens of code L of a software is related to the effort E in
person months and duration t in calendar months by the relation
( )
1 3
4 3
* * , LP E B t where P and B are two constants for the software process and
skills factor. For a software project, the effort was estimated to be 20 person
months and the duration was estimated to be 8 months. However, the customer
asked the project team to complete the software project in 4 months. What
would be the required effort in person months?
(A) 10 (B) 40 (C) 160 (D) 320

71. A software was tested using the error seeding strategy in which 20 errors were
seeded in the code. When the code was tested using the complete test suite, 16
of the seeded errors were detected. The same test suite also detected 200 non-
seeded errors. What is the estimated number of undetected errors in the code
after this testing?
(A) 4 (B) 50 (C) 200 (D) 250

72. What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures?
Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) = 25 days
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 6 hours
(A) 1% (B) 24% (C) 99% (D) 99.009%



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73. Consider the following entity relationship diagram (ERD), where two entities E1
and E2 have a relation R of cardinality 1:m.



The attributes of E1 are A11, A12 and A13 where A11 is the key attribute. The
attributes of E2 are A21, A22 and A23 where A21 is the key attribute and A23 is
a multi-valued attribute. Relation R does not have any attribute. A relational
database containing minimum number of tables with each table satisfying the
requirements of the third normal form (3NF) is designed from the above ERD.
The number of tables in the database is:
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4

74. A relational database contains two table student and department in which student
table has columns roll_no, name and dept_id and department table has columns
dept_id and detp_name. the following insert statements were executed
successfully to populate the empty tables:

Insert into department values (1, `Mathematics)
Insert into department values (2, `Physics)

Insert into student values (1, `Navin,1)
Insert into student values (2, `Mukesh,2)
Insert into student values (3, `Gita,1)
How many rows and columns will be retrieved by the following SQL statement?
Select * from student, department
(A) 0 row and 4 columns (B) 3 rows and 4 columns
(C) 3 rows and 5 columns (D) 6 rows and 5 columns

75. A relation Empdtl is defined with attributes empcode (unique), name, street, city,
state and pincode. For any pincode, there is only one city and state. Also, for any
given street, city and state, thereis just one pincode. In normalization terms,
Empdtl is a relation in
(A) 1 NF only
(B) 2 NF and hence also in 1 NF
(C) 3 NF and hence also in 2 NF and 1 NF
(D) BCNF and hence also in 3 NF, 2NF and 1NF





E1
l
m
R E2
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76. A table T1 in a relational database has the following rows and columns:







The following sequence of SQL statements was successfully executed on table T1.
Update T1 set marks = marks + 5
Select avg(marks) from T1
What is the output of the select statement?
(A) 18.75 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) Null

77. Consider the following schedule S of transactions T1 and T2:
T1 T2
Read (A)
A = A - 10
Read (A)
Temp = 0.2*A
Write (A)
Read(B)
Write(A)
Read(B)
B=B+10
Write(B)
B=B+Temp
Write(B)

Which of the following is TRUE about the schedule S?
(A) S is serializable only as T1, T2
(B) S is serializable only as T2, T1
(C) S is serializable both as T1, T2 and T2, T1
(D) S is serializable either as T1 or as T2



Roll no Marks
1 10
2 20
3 30
4 Null
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78. Consider two tables in a relational database with columns and rows as follows:
Table: Student

Roll_no Name Dept_id
1 ABC 1
2 DEF 1
3 GHI 2
4 JKL 3
Table: Department
Dept_id Dept_Name
1 A
2 B
3 C
Roll_no is the primary key of the Student table, Dept_id is the primary key of the
Department table and Studetn.Dept_id is a foreign key from
Department.Dept_id.
What will happen if we try to execute the following two SQL statements?
(i) update Student set Dept_id = Null where Roll_no =1
(ii) update Department set Dept_id = Null where Dept_id =1
(A) Both (i) and (ii) will fail (B) (i) will fail but (ii) will succeed
(C) (i) will succeed but (ii) will fail (D) Both (i) and (ii) will succeed

79. Consider a table T in a relational database with a key field K. A B-tree of order p
is used as an access structure on K, where p denotes the maximum number of
tree pointers in a B-tree index node. Assume that K is 10 bytes long; disk block
size is 512 bytes; each data pointer
D
P is 8 bytes long and each block pointer
B
P is 5 bytes long. In order for each B-tree node to fit in a single disk block, the
maximum value of p is:
(A) 20 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) 32

80. In a data link protocol, the frame delimiter flag is given by 0111. Assuming that
bit stuffing is employed, the transmitter sends the data sequence 01110110 as
(A) 01101011 (B) 011010110 (C) 011101100 (D) 0110101100

81. In a sliding window ARQ scheme, the transmitters window size is N and the
receivers window size is M. The minimum number of distinct sequence numbers
required to ensure correct operation of the ARQ scheme is:
(A) min (M, N) (B) max (M, N) (C) M + N (D) MN

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82. Consider a 10 Mbps token ring LAN with a ring latency of 400s. A host that
needs to transmit seizes the token. Then it sends a frame of 1000 bytes,
removes the frame after it has circulated all around the ring, and finally releases
the token. This process is repeated for every frame. Assuming that only a single
host wishes to transmit, the effective data rate is:
(A) 1 Mbps (B) 2 Mbps (C) 5 Mbps (D) 6 Mbps

83. A 25 Kbps satellite link has a propagation delay of 400 ms. The transmitter
employs the "go back n ARQ scheme with n set to 10. Assuming that each frame
is 100 bytes long, what is the maximum data rate possible?
(A) 5 Kbps (B) 10 Kbps (C) 15 Kbps (D) 20 Kbps

84. Consider a parity check code with three data bits and four parity check bits.
Three of the code words are 0101011, 1001101 and 1110001. Which of the
following are also code words?
I. 0010111 II. 0110110 III. 1011010 IV. 0111010
(A) I and III (B) I, II and III
(C) II and IV (D) I, II, III and IV

85. Consider a simplified time slotted MAC protocol, where each host always has data
to send and transmits with probability p=0.2 in every slot. There is no back off
and one frame can be transmitted in one slot. If more than one host transmits in
the same slot, then the transmissions are unsuccessful due to collision. What is
the maximum number of hosts which this protocol can support, if each host has
to be provided a minimum throughput of 0.16 frames per time slot?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

86. In the TCP/IP protocol suite, which one of the following is NOT part of the IP
header?
(A) Fragment offset (B) Source IP address
(C) Destination IP address (D) Destination port number

87. A TCP message consisting of 2100 bytes is passed to IP for delivery across two
networks. the first network can carry a maximum payload of 1200 bytes per
frame and the second network can carry a maximum payload of 400 bytes per
frame, excluding network overhead. Assume that IP overhead per packet is 20
bytes. What is the total IP overhead in the second network for this transmission?
(A) 40 bytes (B) 80 bytes (C) 120 bytes (D) 160 bytes

88. Suppose that the maximum transmit window size for a TCP connection is 12000
bytes. Each packet consists of 2000 bytes. At some point of time, the connection
is is slow-start phase with a current transmit window of 4000 bytes.
Subsequently, the transmitter receives two acknowledgements. Assume that no
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packets are lost and there are no time-outs. What is the maximum possible value
of the current transmit window?
(A) 4000 bytes (B) 8000 bytes (C) 10000 bytes (D) 12000 bytes

89. Consider an XML file called intro.xml and a document type definition (DTD) file
intro.dtd as follows:
intro.xml
<?xml version = "1.0?>
<!DOCTYPE myMessage SYSTEM "intro.dtd>
<myMessage>
<message?Welcome to XML</message>
</myMessage>
intro.dtd
<!ELEMENTmyMessage (message)>
<!ELEMENT message (#PCDATA)>
A validating parser will classify intro.xml as
(A) Well formed and validated (B) Well formed but not validated
(C) Validated but not well formed (D) Neither validated not well formed

90. Given below are several usages of the anchor tag in HTML.
I. <A HREF=http://www.gate.ac.in/HTML/BASIC/testpage.html>TestMe</A>
II. <A HREF =/BASIC/testpage.html>Test Me</A>
III. <A HREF=testpage.html>Test ME</A>
IV. <A HREF =testpage.html#test>Test Me</A>
Which of the above are valid?
(A) I and II only (B) I and III only
(C) I, II and III only (D) I, II, III and IV