GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:



The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.
Navigating to a Question :
7. To answer a question, do the following:
a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric
keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
d. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question
and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.
Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate
to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
the previous question.
You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.
Answering a Question :
8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:
a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question,
click on the bubble placed before the chosen option.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the bubble of the chosen option again
or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.
9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:
a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad.
b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0'
before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button
10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an
answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.
11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.
12. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after
answering will be considered for evaluation.

Choosing a Section :
13. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you
are currently viewing will be highlighted.
14. A checkbox is displayed for every optional Section, if any, in the Question Paper. To
select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will
only be able to see questions in this Section, but you will not be able to answer
questions in the Section.
16. After clicking the Save & Next button for the last question in a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next Section in sequence.
17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.

Changing the Optional Section :
18. After answering the chosen optional Section, partially or completely, you can change
the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
attempt. A warning message will appear along with a table showing the number of
questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
you want to reset and then click on the RESET button. Note that RESETTING a Section
will DELETE all the answers for questions in that Section. Hence, if you think that you
may want to select this Section again later, you will have to note down your answers
for questions in that Section. If you do not want to reset the Section and want to
continue answering the previously chosen optional Section, then click on the BACK
button.
19. If you deselect the checkbox for an optional Section in the top bar, the following
warning message will appear: "Deselecting the checkbox will DELETE all the answers
for questions in this Section. Do you want to deselect this Section? If you want to
deselect, click on the RESET button. If you do not want to deselect, click on the BACK
button.
20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.

GATE 2014 Examination
EC: Electronics & Communications Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.

5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble () placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition.

GATE 2014 SET- 4 General Aptitude -GA
GA 1/2
Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

Communication and interpersonal skills are important in their own ways.
(A) each (B) both (C) all (D) either

Q.2 Which of the options given below best completes the following sentence?

She will feel much better if she ________________.
(A) will get some rest (B) gets some rest
(C) will be getting some rest (D) is getting some rest

Q.3 Choose the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

She could not _____ the thought of _________ the election to her bitter rival.
(A) bear, loosing (B) bare, loosing (C) bear, losing (D) bare, losing

Q.4 A regular die has six sides with numbers 1 to 6 marked on its sides. If a very large number of
throws show the following frequencies of occurrence: 1 0.167; 2 0.167; 3 0.152; 4
0.166; 5 0.168; 6 0.180. We call this die
(A) irregular (B) biased (C) Gaussian (D) insufficient

Q.5 Fill in the missing number in the series.

2 3 6 15 157.5 630


Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.


Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group

Q,W,Z,B B,H,K,M W,C,G,J M,S,V,X
(A) Q,W,Z,B (B) B,H,K,M (C) W,C,G,J (D) M,S,V,X

Q.7 Lights of four colors (red, blue, green, yellow) are hung on a ladder. On every step of the ladder
there are two lights. If one of the lights is red, the other light on that step will always be blue. If one
of the lights on a step is green, the other light on that step will always be yellow. Which of the
following statements is not necessarily correct?
(A) The number of red lights is equal to the number of blue lights
(B) The number of green lights is equal to the number of yellow lights
(C) The sum of the red and green lights is equal to the sum of the yellow and blue lights
(D) The sum of the red and blue lights is equal to the sum of the green and yellow lights

Q.8 The sum of eight consecutive odd numbers is 656. The average of four consecutive even numbers is
87. What is the sum of the smallest odd number and second largest even number?
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GATE 2014 SET- 4 General Aptitude -GA
GA 2/2
Q.9 The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two charts shown
below. The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item exported as a percentage of the
total quantity of exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue
generated through export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 500 thousand
tonnes and the total revenues are 250 crore rupees. Which item among the following has generated
the maximum revenue per kg?



(A) Item 2 (B) Item 3 (C) Item 6 (D) Item 5

Q.10 It takes 30 minutes to empty a half-full tank by draining it at a constant rate. It is decided to
simultaneously pump water into the half-full tank while draining it. What is the rate at which water
has to be pumped in so that it gets fully filled in 10 minutes?
(A) 4 times the draining rate (B) 3 times the draining rate
(C) 2.5 times the draining rate (D) 2 times the draining rate


END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Item 1
11%
Item 2
20%
Item 3
19%
Item 4
22%
Item 5
12%
Item 6
16%
Exports
Item 1
12%
Item 2
20%
Item 3
23%
Item 4
6%
Item 5
20%
Item 6
19%
Revenues
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GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING EC
Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q.1 The determinant of matrix is 5 and the determinant of matrix is 40. The determinant of matrix
is ________.

Q.2 Let X be a random variable which is uniformly chosen from the set of positive odd numbers less
than 100. The expectation, [], is __________.
Q.3 For 0 < , the maximum value of the function () =

2
2
occurs at
(A) = log

4 (B) = log

2 (C) = 0 (D) = log

8

Q.4 The value of
lim

1 +
1

is

(A) 2 (B) 1.0 (C) (D)


Q.5 If the characteristic equation of the differential equation

2
+2

+ = 0

has two equal roots, then the values of are

(A) 1 (B) 0,0 (C) j (D) 1/2

Q.6 Nortons theorem states that a complex network connected to a load can be replaced with an
equivalent impedance
(A) in series with a current source
(B) in parallel with a voltage source
(C) in series with a voltage source
(D) in parallel with a current source

Q.7 In the figure shown, the ideal switch has been open for a long time. If it is closed at = 0, then the
magnitude of the current (in mA) through the 4 k resistor at = 0
+
is _______.



Q.8 A silicon bar is doped with donor impurities N
D
=2.25 x 10
15
atoms / cm
3
. Given the intrinsic
carrier concentration of silicon at T =300 K is n
i
=1.5 x 10
10
cm
-3
. Assuming complete impurity
ionization, the equilibrium electron and hole concentrations are
(A) n
0
=1.5 x 10
16
cm
-3
, p
0
=1.5 x 10
5
cm
-3

(B) n
0
=1.5 x 10
10
cm
-3
, p
0
=1.5 x 10
15
cm
-3

(C) n
0
=2.25 x 10
15
cm
-3
, p
0
=1.5 x 10
10
cm
-3

(D) n
0
=2.25 x 10
15
cm
-3
, p
0
=1 x 10
5
cm
-3

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GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING EC

Q.9 An increase in the base recombination of a BJ T will increase
(A) the common emitter dc current gain
(B) the breakdown voltage BV
CEO

(C) the unity-gain cut-off frequency f
T

(D) the transconductance g
m


Q.10 In CMOS technology, shallow P-well or N-well regions can be formed using
(A) low pressure chemical vapour deposition
(B) low energy sputtering
(C) low temperature dry oxidation
(D) low energy ion-implantation

Q.11 The feedback topology in the amplifier circuit ( the base bias circuit is not shown for simplicity) in
the figure is



(A) Voltage shunt feedback
(B) Current series feedback
(C) Current shunt feedback
(D) Voltage series feedback



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GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING EC
Q.12 In the differential amplifier shown in the figure, the magnitudes of the common-mode and
differential-mode gains are

and

, respectively. If the resistance R

E
is increased, then


(A)

increases (B) common-mode rejection ratio increases

(C)

increases (D) common-mode rejection ratio decreases

Q.13 A cascade connection of two voltage amplifiers A1 and A2 is shown in the figure. The open-loop
gain A
v0
, input resistance R
in
, and output resistance R
o
for A1 and A2 are as follows:

A1: A
v0
= 10, R
in
= 10 k, R
o
= 1 k.
A2: A
v0
= 5, R
in
= 5 k, R
o
= 200 .

The approximate overall voltage gain v
out
/v
in
is __________.



Q.14 For an n-variable Boolean function, the maximum number of prime implicants is
(A) 2(n-1) (B) n/2 (C) 2
n
(D) 2
(n-1)


Q.15 The number of bytes required to represent the decimal number 1856357 in packed BCD (Binary
Coded Decimal) form is __________ .

Q.16 In a half-subtractor circuit with X and Y as inputs, the Borrow (M) and Difference (N = X - Y) are
given by
(A) = , =
(B) = , =
(C) =

, =
(D) =

, =

Q.17 An FIR system is described by the system function

() = 1 +
7
2
z
1
+
3
2
z
2

The system is
(A) maximum phase (B) minimum phase (C) mixed phase (D) zero phase


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GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING EC
Q.18 Let [] = []. Let () be the -transform of []. If 0.5 + 0.25 is a zero of (), which
one of the following must also be a zero of ().
(A) 0.5 0.25 (B) 1/(0.5 + 0.25) (C) 1/(0.5 0.25) (D) 2+ 4


Q.19 Consider the periodic square wave in the figure shown.



The ratio of the power in the 7
th
harmonic to the power in the 5
th
harmonic for this waveform is
closest in value to _______.

Q.20 The natural frequency of an undamped second-order system is 40 rad/s. If the system is
damped with a damping ratio 0.3, the damped natural frequency in rad/s is ________.

Q.21 For the following system,











when
1
() = 0, the transfer function
()

2
()
is
(A)
+1

2
(B)
1
+1
(C)
+2
(+1)
(D)
+1
(+2)


Q.22 The capacity of a band-limited additive white Gaussian noise (AWGN) channel is given by
= log
2
1 +

2

bits per second (bps), where is the channel bandwidth, is the
average power received and
2
is the one-sided power spectral density of the AWGN.

For a fixed

2
=1000, the channel capacity (in kbps) with infinite bandwidth ( ) is
approximately
(A) 1.44 (B) 1.08 (C) 0.72 (D) 0.36

Q.23 Consider sinusoidal modulation in an AM system. Assuming no overmodulation, the modulation
index () when the maximum and minimum values of the envelope, respectively, are 3 V and 1 V,
is ________.

Y(s)
X
1
(s) s
s+1

1
s

+
+

-
+

X
2
(s)
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GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING EC
Q.24 To maximize power transfer, a lossless transmission line is to be matched to a resistive load
impedance via a /4 transformer as shown.




The characteristic impedance (in ) of the /4 transformer is _________.

Q.25 Which one of the following field patterns represents a TEM wave travelling in the positive
direction?
(A) = +8, = 4 (B) = 2, = 3
(C) = +2 , = +2 (D) = 3, = +4

Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The system of linear equations

2 1 3
3 0 1
1 2 5

=
5
4
14
has

(A) a unique solution
(B) infinitely many solutions
(C) no solution
(D) exactly two solutions

Q.27 The real part of an analytic function () where = + is given by

cos(). The imaginary

part of () is
(A)

cos() (B)

sin() (C)

sin() (D)

sin()

Q.28 The maximum value of the determinant among all 2 2 real symmetric matrices with trace14 is
________.
Q.29
If

x y z
r xa ya za = + +

and , r r =

then div
2
(ln) = ______ .


Q.30 A series LCR circuit is operated at a frequency different from its resonant frequency. The operating
frequency is such that the current leads the supply voltage. The magnitude of current is half the
value at resonance. If the values of L, C and R are 1 H, 1 F and 1 , respectively, the operating
angular frequency (in rad/s) is ________.
Z
L
=100
/4 transformer
Z
in
=50
lossless transmission line
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GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING EC
Q.31 In the h-parameter model of the 2-port network given in the figure shown, the value of
22
(in S) is
______ .

3
3 3
2
2 2
1 2
1' 2'


Q.32 In the figure shown, the capacitor is initially uncharged. Which one of the following expressions
describes the current I(t) (in mA) for > 0?


(A) I() =
5
3
1
/
, =
2
3
msec (B) I() =
5
2
1
/
, =
2
3
msec
(C) I() =
5
3
1
/
, = 3 msec (D) I() =
5
2
1
/
, = 3 msec

Q.33 In the magnetically coupled circuit shown in the figure, 56 % of the total flux emanating from one
coil links the other coil. The value of the mutual inductance (in H) is ______ .

V
M
(1/16) F
5 H 4 H
10
0
60cos(4 30 ) + t

Q.34 Assume electronic charge q = 1.610
-19
C, kT/q =25 mV and electron mobility
n
=1000 cm
2
/V-s.
If the concentration gradient of electrons injected into a P-type silicon sample is 110
21
/cm
4
, the
magnitude of electron diffusion current density (in A/cm
2
) is _________.
Q.35 Consider an abrupt PN junction (at T =300 K) shown in the figure. The depletion region width X
n

on the N-side of the junction is 0.2 m and the permittivity of silicon (
si
) is 1.04410
-12
F/cm. At
the junction, the approximate value of the peak electric field (in kV/cm) is _________.



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GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING EC

Q.36 When a silicon diode having a doping concentration of N
A
=9 10
16
cm
-3
on p-side and
N
D
=1 10
16
cm
-3
on n-side is reverse biased, the total depletion width is found to be 3 m.
Given that the permittivity of silicon is 1.04 10
12
F/cm, the depletion width on the p-side and
the maximum electric field in the depletion region, respectively, are
(A) 2.7 m and 2.3 10
5
V/cm
(B) 0.3 m and 4.15 10
5
V/cm
(C) 0.3 m and 0.42 10
5
V/cm
(D) 2.1 m and 0.42 10
5
V/cm


Q.37 The diode in the circuit shown has V
on
=0.7 Volts but is ideal otherwise.
If V
i
=5sin()Volts, the minimum and maximum values of V
o
(in Volts) are, respectively,


(A) 5 and 2.7 (B) 2.7 and 5
(C) 5 and 3.85 (D) 1.3 and 5

Q.38 For the n-channel MOS transistor shown in the figure, the threshold voltage V
Th
is 0.8 V. Neglect
channel length modulation effects. When the drain voltage V
D
= 1.6 V, the drain current I
D
was
found to be 0.5 mA. If V
D
is adjusted to be 2 V by changing the values of R and V
DD
, the new value
of I
D
(in mA) is


(A) 0.625 (B) 0.75 (C) 1.125 (D) 1.5

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GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING EC
Q.39 For the MOSFETs shown in the figure, the threshold voltage |V
t
| =2 V and
1
2
ox
W
K C
L

=


=0.1 mA/V
2
. The value of I
D
(in mA) is _______ .



V
DD
=+12 V
R
1

10 k
R
2

10 k
V
SS
=5 V
I
D



Q.40 In the circuit shown, choose the correct timing diagram of the output (y) from the given waveforms
W1, W2, W3 and W4.

(A) W1 (B) W2 (C) W3 (D) W4
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GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING EC


Q.41 The outputs of the two flip-flops Q1, Q2 in the figure shown are initialized to 0, 0. The sequence
generated at Q1 upon application of clock signal is




(A) 01110
(B) 01010
(C) 00110
(D) 01100

Q.42 For the 8085 microprocessor, the interfacing circuit to input 8-bit digital data (DI
0
DI
7
) from an
external device is shown in the figure. The instruction for correct data transfer is


A
0
A
1
A
2
IO/M
RD
A
6
A
5
A
4
A
7
Data Bus
(D
0
D
7
)
Digital
Inputs
I/O Device
1
DS DS
2
DI
0
DI
7
DO
0
DO
7
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
2B
G
2A
G G
1
A
B
C
3-to-8
Decoder
A
3
A
11
A
10
A
9
A
8
A
12
A
13
A
14
A
15

(A) MVI A, F8H (B) IN F8H (C) OUT F8H (D) LDA F8F8H

Q.43 Consider a discrete-time signal

[] =
for 0 10
0 otherwise
.

If [] is the convolution of [] with itself, the value of [4] is _________.

Q.44 The input-output relationship of a causal stable LTI system is given as

[] = [ 1] + []

If the impulse response [] of this system satisfies the condition []

=0
= 2, the relationship
between and is
(A) = 1 /2 (B) = 1 +/2 (C) = 2 (D) = 2
CLK
J 1 Q1
Q1 K1
J 2 Q2
Q2
K2
Q1
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GATE 2014 SET2 ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING EC

Q.45
The value of the integral sinc
2
(5)

is ________.

Q.46 An unforced linear time invariant (LTI) system is represented by

2
=
1 0
0 2

2


If the initial conditions are
1
(0) = 1 and
2
(0) = 1, the solution of the state equation is
(A)
1
() = 1,
2
() = 2
(B)
1
() =

,
2
() = 2

(C)
1
() =

,
2
() =
2

(D)
1
() =

,
2
() = 2

Q.47 The Bode asymptotic magnitude plot of a minimum phase system is shown in the figure.



If the system is connected in a unity negative feedback configuration, the steady state error of the
closed loop system, to a unit ramp input, is_________.

Q.48 Consider the state space system expressed by the signal flow diagram shown in the figure.



The corresponding system is

(A) always controllable (B) always observable
(C) always stable (D) always unstable





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Q.49 The input to a 1-bit quantizer is a random variable with pdf

() = 2
2
for 0 and

() = 0 for < 0. For outputs to be of equal probability, the quantizer threshold should be
_____.


Q.50 Coherent orthogonal binary FSK modulation is used to transmit two equiprobable symbol
waveforms
1
() = cos 2
1
and
2
() = cos 2
2
, where = 4 mV. Assume an AWGN
channel with two-sided noise power spectral density

0
2
= 0.5 10
12
W/Hz. Using an optimal
receiver and the relation () =
1
2

2
2

, the bit error probability for a data rate of

500 kbps is
(A) (2) (B) 22 (C) (4) (D) 42


Q.51 The power spectral density of a real stationary random process () is given by

() =
1

, | |
0, || >
.

The value of the expectation ()
1
4
is_________.

Q.52 In the figure, () is the Fourier transform of the message signal () where A =100 Hz and
B =40 Hz. Given () = cos (2

) and () = cos (2(

+)), where

> . The cutoff

frequencies of both the filters are

.

m(t)
High Pass
Filter
v(t) w(t)
Low Pass
Filter
s(t)
1
-A -B B A
M(f)
f


The bandwidth of the signal at the output of the modulator (in Hz) is _____.


Q.53 If the electric field of a plane wave is

(, ) = 3cos( +30) 4sin( +45) (mV/m),

the polarization state of the plane wave is
(A) left elliptical
(B) left circular
(C) right elliptical
(D) right circular


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Q.54 In the transmission line shown, the impedance Z
in
(in ohms) between node A and the ground is
_________.





Q.55 For a rectangular waveguide of internal dimensions ( > ), the cut-off frequency for the
11
TE

mode is the arithmetic mean of the cut-off frequencies for
10
TE

mode and
20
TE

mode. If
= 5 cm, the value of (in cm) is _____.





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