0% found this document useful (0 votes)

736 views227 pages

11th Chem Exemplar

exampler

Uploaded by

Anonymous RWJxlsW

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

0% found this document useful (0 votes)

736 views227 pages

11th Chem Exemplar

exampler

Uploaded by

Anonymous RWJxlsW

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

You are on page 1/ 227

tt

o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

E XEMPL
OBLEMS
XEMPLAR
PROBLEMS
XEMPLAR PR
CHEMIS
TRY
CHEMISTRY

Class XI

FOREWORD

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

The National Curriculum Framework (NCF) 2005 initiated a new phase of

development of syllabi and textbooks for all stages of school education. In this
phase, a conscious effort has been made to discourage rote learning and to enhance
comprehension. This is well in tune with the NPE-1986 and Learning Without
Burden-1993 that recommend child centred system of education. The textbooks
for Class XI were released in 2006 and for Class XII in 2007. Overall the books
have been well received by students and teachers.
NCF-2005 notes that treating the prescribed textbooks as the sole basis of
examination is one of the key reasons why other resources and sites of learning are
ignored. It further reiterates that the methods used for teaching and evaluation will
also determine how effective these textbooks prove for making childrens life at
school a happy experience, rather than source of stress or boredom. It calls for
reform in examination system currently prevailing in the country.
The position papers of the National Focus Groups on Teaching of Science,
Teaching of Mathematics and Examination Reforms envisage that the question
papers, set in annual examinations conducted by the various Boards do not really
assess genuine understanding of the subjects. The quality of question papers is
often not up to the mark. They usually seek mere information based on rote
memorisation, and fail to test higher-order skills like reasoning and analysis, let
alone lateral thinking, creativity, and judgment. Good unconventional questions,
challenging problems and experiment-based problems rarely find a place in question
papers. In order to address to the issue, and also to provide additional learning
material, the Department of Education in Science and Mathematics (DESM) has
made an attempt to develop resource book of exemplar problems in different subjects
at secondary and higher-secondary stages. Each resource book contains different
types of questions of varying difficulty level. Some questions would require the
students to apply simultaneously understanding of more than one concept. These
problems are not meant to serve merely as questions bank for examinations but
are primarily meant to improve the quality of teaching/learning process in schools.
It is expected that these problems would encourage teachers to design quality
questions on their own. Students and teachers should always keep in mind that
examination and assessment should test comprehension, information recall,
analytical thinking and problem-solving ability, creativity and speculative ability.
A team of experts and teachers with an understanding of the subject and a
proper role of examinations worked hard to accomplish this task. The material was
discussed, edited, and finally included in this resource book.
NCERT would welcome suggestions from students, teachers and parents which
would help us to further improve the quality of material in subsequent editions.

New Delhi
May, 2008

Prof. Yash Pal

Chairperson
National Steering Committee
National Council of Educational
Research and Training

PREFACE

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

The Department of Education in Science and Mathematics (DESM), National Council

of Educational Research and Training (NCERT), initiated the programme for the
development of Exemplar Problems in science and mathematics for secondary
and higher secondary stages based on the subject textbooks developed on the
bases of the NCF-2005. The present book is based on the contents of the Chemistry
Textbook for Class XI published by the Council in 2006.
The main objective of the book on Exemplar Problems in Chemistry is to provide
the teachers and students a large number of quality problems in various forms
and format with varying levels of difficulty to facilitate teaching-learning of concepts
in Chemistry that are presented through the Textbook for Class XI. It is envisaged
that the problems included in this book would help the teachers to design tasks to
assess effectiveness of their preparation of balanced question papers for unit and
terminal tests. The feedback based on the analysis of students responses may help
the teachers in further improving the quality of classroom instructions. In addition,
the problems given in this book are also expected to help the teachers to perceive
the basic characteristics of good quality questions and motivate them to frame
similar problems on their own. Students can benefit themselves by attempting the
problems given in the book for self assessment and also in mastering the basic
techniques of problem solving. Some of the problems given in the book are expected
to challenge the students understanding of Chemistry concepts and to apply them
in new situations. At number of places elaboration of answers may be required.
The problems included in this book were developed in workshop mode organised
by the DESM involving practicing teachers, subject experts from universities and
institutes of higher learning, and the members of the Chemistry group of the DESM
whose names appear separately. I gratefully acknowledge their efforts and thank
them for their valuable contribution in our endeavour to provide good quality
instructional material for the school system. I especially thank Professor Brahm
Parkash, Dr. Alka Mehrotra, Dr. Anjni Koul and Ms. Ruchi Verma of DESM for
editing and refining the problems and for making the manuscript pressworthy.
Thanks are also due to Professor Brahm Parkash of DESM for coordinating this
programme.

I also thank Shri Ishwar Singh, Sr. DTP Operator for typing the manuscript
and preparing a press-ready copy.
We look forward to feedback from students, teachers and parents for further
improvement of the contents of the book.

Dr. Hukum Singh

Professor and Head

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

DEVELOPMENT TEAM
MEMBERS
Alka Mehrotra, Reader, DESM, NCERT, New Delhi.
Anjni Koul, Sr. Lecturer, DESM, NCERT, New Delhi

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Azhar Aslam Khan, PGT (Chemistry), J. D. Tytlar School, R- Block, New Rajinder
Nagar, Delhi.
K. K. Arora, Reader, Department of Chemistry, Zakir Hussain College, New Delhi.

K. N. Upadhyay, Head (Retd.), Chemistry Department, Ramjas College, University

of Delhi, Delhi.
M. P. Mahajan, Professor, Department of Applied Chemistry, Guru Nanak Dev
University, Amritsar.

Neeti Mishra, Sr. Lecturer, Department of Chemistry, Acharya Narendra Dev College,
Delhi.
S. K. Gupta, Reader, School of Studies in Chemistry, Jiwaji University, Gwalior.
Shah Saddad Hussain, Madipur, New Delhi.

Ruchi Verma, Lecturer, DESM, NCERT, New Delhi.

Sunita Hooda, Reader, Department of Chemistry, Acharya Narendra Dev College,

Govindpuri, Kalkaji, New Delhi.
MEMBER-COORDINATORS

Brahm Prakash, Professor, DESM, NCERT, New Delhi.

ACKNOWLEDGEMENT

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

The National Council of Educational Research and Training acknowledges

the valuable contributions of the individuals and the organizations involved
in the development of Exemplar Problems in Chemistry for Classes XI. The
following academics contributed very effectively for the review of the
manuscript of this book : B.K. Puri, Professor (Retired), Department of
Chemistry, I.I.T. Delhi; Prof. B. L. Khandelwal, Director, Disha Institute of
Management and Technology, Raipur, Chhattisgarh; B. S. Kapoor, Professor
(Retd.), Department of Chemistry, Delhi University, Delhi; C. S. Pande,
Professor (Retired), Himachal University, Shimla; K. K. Arora, Reader, Zakir
Hussain College, Delhi University, Delhi; M. L. Agarwal, Principal (Retd.),
K. V. Jaipur, Mansarowar, Jaipur, Rajasthan; Nand Kishore, Professor,
Department of Chemistry, I.I.T. Bombay, Powai, Mumbai; Neeti Mishra,
Sr. Lecturer, Acharya Narendra Dev College, Delhi University, Delhi; Puran
Chand, Professor (Retd.), Joint Director, NCERT, New Delhi at present
Consultant NIOS; Sohan Mittal, PGT (Chemistry), Cambridge School, New
Delhi; Sulekh Chandra, Reader, Department of Chemistry, Zakir Hussain
College, New Delhi; Sunita Ramrakhiani, PGT Chemistry, Ahlcon Public School,
Delhi; Tripti Agarwal Jain, Professor and Head, Department of Chemistry,
Disha Institute of Management and Technology, Raipur, Chhattisgarh;

We also acknowledge the contribution of team working for Hindi translation

of the book specially Dr. Alok Chaturvedi, Sr. Lecturer, Department of
Chemistry, Govt. College, Ajmer and Dr. K. K. Sharma, Vice Principal (Retd.),
College of Education, Govt. of Rajasthan, Ajmer for helping us to improve the
English manuscript.

Special thanks are also due to Dr. Hukum Singh, Professor and Head,
DESM, NCERT for his administrative support. The Council also acknowledges
the support provided by the APC office of DESM; administraive staff of
DESM; Deepak Kapoor, Incharge, Computer Station, DESM, Ishwar Singh and
Surender Kumar DTP Operator and K. T. Chitralekha, Copy Editor. The efforts
of the Publication Department are also highly appreciated.

C ONTENTS
iii

PREFACE

INTRODUCTION

Unit 1

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Unit 2

Structure of Atom

Unit 3

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Unit 4

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Unit 5

States of Matter

Unit 6

Thermodynamics

Unit 7

Equilibrium

Unit 8

Redox Reactions

104

Unit 9

Hydrogen

113

Unit 10

The s-Block Elements

125

Unit 11

The p-Block Elements

134

Unit 12

Organic Chemistry

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

FOREWORD

Some Basic Principles and Techniques

144

Unit 13

Hydrocarbons

161

Unit 14

Environmental Chemistry

176

Model Question Paper

186

Appendices

200

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
Part IV A (Article 51 A)

Fundamental Duties

Fundamental Duties It shall be the duty of every citizen of India

(a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National
Flag and the National Anthem;

(b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for
freedom;
(c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;

(d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;

(e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people
of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to
renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
(f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;

(g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers,
wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures;
(h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
(i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;

(j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so
that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;

(k) who is a parent or guardian, to provide opportunities for education to his child or,
as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

I NTRODUCTION

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Assessment of students is an important part of the teaching-learning process. It

helps a teacher to evaluate (i) his/her own teaching and (ii) the achievement of
students in a particular subject. In other words, assessment provides the present
achievement and subsequent guidance to teching-learning. It is also an
instrument to assess the educational progress of learners.

According to Blooms taxonomy, there are three domains of educational

objectives (i) cognitive (ii) affective and (iii) psychomotor. Cognitive domain deals
with the educational products and processes.
In the present book, the problems pertaining to cognitive domain have been
included. These are categorised into different classes on the basis of the type of
their construction.
(i)

Multiple choice

(ii)

Matching type

(iii)

Short answer type

(iv)

Long answer type

(v)

Assertion and reason type

(i)

Multiple choice type : Multiple choice questions are widely used in

objective tests for different examinations. A multiple choice question
consists of a stem followed by 4-5 responses.

(a) Stem : The stem is that part in which the task which the students
have to undertake is set out. It may be a direct question or an
incomplete statement.

(b) Response : Below the stem of the question, there are a number of
options comprising of the correct answer(s) and distractors. These
should appear to closely resemble with one another. The distractors
distract students. The style of presentation i.e., length, precision etc.
of any response should not provide any clue of its being a correct
answer or a distractor. Correct responses should be arranged
randomly. A good multiple choice question can induce higher order
thinking among students. A number of multiple choice questions
relating to various aspects of the same theme presented as material,
picture or diagram, or a combination of more than one of these
enables the learners to develop multiple abilities.

(ii)

Matching Type : In this type, a premise is to be matched with single

correct response out of a number of responses. It is known as simple
matching. In compound matching, a premise has to be matched with
more than one correct response.

(iii)

Short answer type : This type of questions have a short answer either in
the form of a word or a few sentences or diagram or numerical value or a
combination of these. Good short answer questions involve the use of
action oriented and precise verbs such as, deduce, conclude, classify,
interpret, explain, extrapolate, translate etc. for precision. The words like,
briefly, short notes on etc. are avoided.

(iv)

Long answer type : These questions require long answers to be written

with or without diagram(s). Long answer questions involve the following
tasks to test higher order abilities.
contrast, distinguish, discriminate, and differentiate.

(b)

compare, list similarities/dissimilarities.

(c)

explain, show how and why and give explanatory reasons.

(d)

discuss, defend, refute, prove, disprove, justify.

(e)

judge evaluate.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(a)

Some Problem Solving questions have also been included in the book. Such
questions require the application of knowledge and procedures to a problem
situation. It is a form of discovery learning, bridging the gap between the learners
existing knowledge and the solution to the problem. In problem solving the learner
is required to construct some knowledge to find out the solution of the problem
or investigate a fact or a result.

For closed-ended problems, there will only be one answer. For open-ended
problems, there will be more than one answer.

xii

BLUE PRINT OF SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (CHEMISTRY)

CLASS XI

TOTAL

Environmental Chemistry

14.

Hydrogen

Hydrocarbons

Redox Reactions

13.

Equilibrium

Organic Chemistry - Some

Basic Principles and
Techniques

Thermodynamics

12.

States of Matter

The p-Block Elements

Chemical Bonding and

Molecular Structure

11.

Classification of Elements and

Periodicity in Properties

The s-Block Elements

Structure of Atom

10.

Some Basic Concepts of

Chemistry

Unit/Questions Type

12=2

11=1

12=2

2 mark

13=3

3 mark

Short Answer

11=1

1 mark

12=2

11=1

12=2

2 mark

MCQ

11=1

1 mark

12=2

15=5

Assertion Long
Reason Answer

Unitwise Weightage to Different Forms of Questions

Weightage
to Content
Unit (Marks)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

TIME : 3 HOURS

I. Design of the Sample Question Paper

Total Number of Questions

of Each Type

1
1

Distribution of Different Types of

Questions over the Units
LA
MCQ MCQ SA
SA
SA AR
1
2
1
2
3

MAX. MARKS : 70

II.

Expected Length of Answer and Time Required for Each Form

of Question shall be as Follows :
Expected Expected
Total Number Total Time
Length
Time for
of Questions Expected
Each Question

MCQ (I)

2 minutes

08 minutes

MCQ (II)

3 minutes

06 minutes

SA (I)

one line

3 minutes

12 minutes

6.
7.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Sl. Forms of
No. Questions

SA (II)

20-30
words

4 minutes

20 minutes

SA (III)

30-50
words

7 minutes

63 minutes

3 minutes

09 minutes

15 minutes

45 minutes

Assertion-Reason -

Long Answer Type 70-100

words

Revision

TOTAL

III.
Sl.
No.
1.
2.

180 minutes

Weightage to Difficulty Level of Questions

Estimated Difficulty Level of Questions

Percentage

Easy

Average

Difficult

17 minutes

MODEL QUESTION PAPER

CHEMISTRY
Class XI
Time : 3 Hours

Maximum Marks : 70

General Instructions :
All the questions are compulsory.
Questions 1 to 4, carry one mark each and questions 5 and 6, carry 2 marks.
Questions 7 to 10 are short answer questions carrying one mark each.
Questions 11 to 15 are also short answer questions carrying two marks each.
Questions 16 to 24 are also short answer questions carrying three marks each.
Questions 25 to 27 are assertion- reason questions carry two marks each.
Questions 28 to 30 are long answer questions and carry five marks each.
Use log tables for calculations if necessary.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)

Note : Choose one correct option for questions 1 to 4.

The pressure volume work for an ideal gas can be calculated by using the
expression;
V
f

w = p ex dV
V
i

The work can also be calculated from the pV plot by using the area under the
curve within the specified limit. When an ideal gas is compressed reversibly
or irreversibly from volume Vi to Vf , which of the following is correct?

(i)

wrev = w irrev

(ii)

wrev < w irrev

(iii)

wrev > w irrev

(iv)

wrev = wirrev + pex. dV

(1)

When hydrochloric acid is added to cobalt nitrate solution at room

temperature, the following reaction takes place :

[Co(H2O)6] +3 (aq) + 4Cl (aq) U [CoCl 4 ]2 (aq ) + 6H 2O (l )

blue

Pink

The solution is blue at room temperature. However, it turns pink when cooled
in a freezing mixture. Based upon this information, which of the following
expression is correct for the forward reaction?
(i)

H > 0

(ii)

H < 0

(iii)

H = 0

(iv)

The sign of H cannot be predicted

on the basis of this information.

(1)

Which of the following elements does not form hydride by direct heating with
dihydrogen?
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1)

4. Which of the following species should be aromatic in character?

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

Note : Choose two correct options for questions 5 and 6.

5. Identify the pairs which are of isotopes?
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

8
5

(2)

6. Electrophiles are electron seeking species. Which of the following sets consist
of electrophiles only.
(i)

BF 3, NH3 , H2O

(ii)

AlCl 3, SO 3 ,

(iii)

(iv)

, C2H5,

(2)

7. How many significant figures should be present in the answer of the following
calculations?

2.5 1.25 3.5

2.01

8. Complete the following reactions

(i)

O 2 + H2O

(ii)

O 2 + H2O

(1)
(1)

189 Model Question Paper

9. Give IUPAC name of the compound whose line formula is given below:

(1)

10. Green house effect leads to global warming. Which substances are responsible
for green house effect?
(1)
11. Using molecular orbital theory, compare the bond energy and magnetic
+

(2)
character of O 2 and O2 species.
(2)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

12. Consider the reaction given below :

CaCO3 (s) CaO (s) + CO2 (g)

Predict the effect of increase in temperature on the equilibrium constant of

this reaction.
V

Given that f H [CaO(s)] = 635.1 kJ mol

f HV [CO2(g)] = 393.5 kJ mol1

f H [CaCO 3(s)] = 1206.9 kJ mol

13. pH of 0.08 mol dm3 HOCl solution is 2.85. Calculate its ionization constant. (2)

14. Nitric acid is an oxidising agent and reacts with PbO but it does not react
with PbO2. Explain why?
(2)
15. Calculate the strength of 5 volume H 2O 2 solution.

(2)

16. According to de Broglie, matter should exhibit dual behaviour, that is both
particle and wave like properties. However, a cricket ball of 100g does not move
like a wave when it is thrown by a bowler at a speed of 100km/h. Calculate the
wavelength of the ball and explain why it does not show wave nature.
(3)
17. Explain why nitrogen has positive electron gain enthalpy whereas oxygen
has negative, although first ionisation enthalpy of oxygen is lower than that
of nitrogen. Justify your answer.
(3)

18. Write Lewis structure of the following compounds and show formal charge on
each atom.
(3)

HNO3, NO2, H2SO 4

19. Although heat is a path function, even then heat absorbed by the system
under certain conditions is independent of path. What are those conditions?
Explain.
(3)
11

20. The solubility product of Al (OH)3 is 2.7 10 . Calculate its solubility in g L1

and also find out pH of this solution. (Atomic mass of Al is 27 u).
(3)

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 190

21. Calculate the oxidation number of each sulphur atom in the following
compounds:
(a) Na2S2O3
22.

(b) Na2S4O 6

(3)

(i) Dihydrogen reacts with dioxygen to form water. Name the product and
write its formula when the isotope of hydrogen, which has one proton
and one neutron in its nuclus, is treated with dioxygen?
(1)
(ii) Will the reactivity of both the isotopes of hydrogen be the same towards
oxygen ? Justify your answer.
(2)
(i) Beryllium sulphate and magnesium sulphate are readily soluble in water
whereas the sulphates of barium, calcium and strontium are only
sparingly soluble. Explain.
(2)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

23.

(ii) Why is the temperature maintained around 393 K during the preparation
of plaster of paris?
(1)
24. Give the reactions involved in the preparation of propane from the following :
(3)
(i)

CH3CH = CH2

(ii)

CH3 CH2 CH2 Cl

A and R both are incorrect.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

28. (a) Liquids can be considered as very dense gases. When a liquid phase
changes to gas phase, the liquid and the gas phases are in equilibrium
and a surface separates the two phases. This surface is visible if both
phases are in equilibrium and are below critical tempertaure and pressure.
However, it is possible to interconvert liquid and gas wherein two phases
are never present together.
With the help of a well-labled diagram show that CO2 gas can be liquified
by changing the pressure and temperature without passing through the
situation when both gaseous and liquid CO2 are at equilibrium.
(3)

(b) Arrange the following liquids in increasing order of their viscosities. Give
reason for your answer.
(2)
Water, benzene, ethane-1,2-diol.

29.

(a)

(b)

Explain why :

(i)

BCl3 is a Lewis acid.

(ii)

Boric acid is a monobasic acid.

(2)

Compound A of boron reacts with excess NH3 to give a compound B.

Compound B on heating gives cyclic compound C. Compound C is
called inorganic benzene.

(i)

Identify compounds A, B and C

(ii)

Give the reactions involved in these processes.

(3)

30. (a) Write two important differences between inductive and resonance effects.
(2)

(b)

Give reasons to explain the following observations:

(i)

Carbon number 2 in CH3CH2Cl has more positive charge than that

in CH3CH2Br.

(ii)

CH3CH = CHCH = CH2 (I) is more stable than

CH3CH = CHCH2CH = CH 2 (II).

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 192

(3)

Guidelines for Evaluation (Marking Scheme)

(ii)

(1)

(i)

(1)

(i)

(1)

(iv)

(1)

5.
6.
7.
8.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

For questions 5 and 6 two marks for both correct answers, otherwise
zero mark

(i) and (ii)

(2)

(ii) and (iii)

(2)

Two

(1)

(i)

O22 + 2H2O 2OH + H2O 2

(ii)

2O2 + 2H2O 2OH + H2O2 + O2

(1)

( + )

4-Methylhept5en2one

(1)

10.

Trapping of heat by green house gases, namely carbon dioxide, methane,

nitrous oxide, ozone and chlorofluorocarbons.
(1)

11.

According to molecular orbital theory electronic configurations of O 2+ and

O 2 species are as follows :
O2 : (1s) (* 1s ) (2s) (* 2s ) (2pz) (2p2x , 2p 2y) (* 2px1 )
+

O2 : (1s) 2 (* 1s 2) (2s)2 (* 2s 2 ) (2pz) 2 (2p2x ,2p 2y ) (* 2px2 , * 2py1)

Bond order of O2 =

10 5
5
=
= 2.5
2
2

Bond order of O2 =

10 7 3
= = 1.5
2
2

( 2)

Higher bond order of O2 shows that its bond energy

is more than that of O2 hence it is more stable than O 2 .

( 2)

Both the species have unpaired electrons. So both

are paramagnetic in nature.

12.

Since reaction is endothermic, according to Le Chateliers principle,

increase of temperature will increase the value of K.
193 Model Question Paper

13.

Use of correct formula

()

Correct substitution of values

()

Correct value of

()

Correct interpretation

()

pH of HOCl = 2.85
+

But, pH = log [H ]
+
2.85 = log [H ]

3 .15 = log [H ]

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

[H+] = 1.413 103

For weak mono basic acid [H ] =

Ka C
+ 2

Ka =

3 2

[H ]
(1.413 10 )
=
C
0.08
6

= 24.957 10 = 2.4957 10

14.

Correct calculations of [H ]

(1)

Correct calculations of K a

(1)

PbO is basic oxide and simple acid base reaction takes place between
PbO and HNO3. On the other hand in PbO2 lead is in +4 oxidation state
and can not be oxidised further. Therefore no reaction takes place. Thus
PbO2 is passive, only PbO reacts with HNO3.
2PbO + 4HNO3 2Pb (NO3)2 + 2H2O
Correct reason

(1)

Chemical equation

5 volume H2O 2 solution means that hydrogen peroxide contained in

1 volume of this solution will decompose to give 5 volumes of oxygen at
STP i.e. if 1L of this solution is taken, then 5 L of oxygen can be produced
from this at STP. Chemical equation for the decomposition of H2O2 is
2H2O 2(l) O2(g) + H2O(l).

15.

()

It shows that 68 g H2O 2 gives 22.7 L of O2 at STP, so 5 L oxygen will be

obtained from :
68g 5L
22 .7L

3400
227

g H2O 2 = 14.9 g 15 g H2O2

i.e., 15 g H2O2 dissolved in 1 L solution will give 5 L oxygen or 1.5 g

H2O2/100 mL solution will give 500 mL oxygen. Thus 15 g/L or 1.5%
solution is known as 5V solution of H2O 2.
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 194

16.

Correct chemical equation

(1)

Correct Chemical formula

()

Correct value

()

h
mv
m = 100 g = 0.1 kg.

v = 100 km/h =

10 0 10 00 m 1000
1
=
ms
60 60 s
36

h = 6.626 1034 Js
34

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

6.626 10 Js
36
1
=
= 6.626 10 36 m = 238.5 1036m1
1000
0.1 kg
ms 1
36

Since the wavelength is very small, the wave nature cannot be detected.
Using correct formula

()

Putting correct values

Correct answer

()
()

Correct interpretation

(1)

17.

The outermost electronic configuration of nitrogen 2s 2 2p1x 2p1y 2p1z is very

stable due to half filled p-orbital. Addition of extra electron to any of the
2p orbital requires energy. Oxygen has 4 electrons in 2p orbitals and
acquires stable configuration 2p 3 after removing one electron.
(3)

18.

(i)

(ii)

(Oxygen attached
with double bond,
oxygen attached
with single bond
and hydrogen atom
have zero formal
charge)

(Oxygen attached to
nitrogen with double
bond has no formal
charge)

(formal charge on
each atom is zero)

Correct Lewis structure for each compound

(3)

Showing correct formal charge on atom(s) in each structure

(3)

no
19.

(iii)

At constant volume
By first law of thermodynamics:
q = U + (w)
V
but (w) = pV

qV = U + pV
195 Model Question Paper

V = 0, since volume is constant.

qV = U + 0
qV = U = change in internal energy
At constant pressure
q p = U + pV
But, U + pV = H

q p = H = change in enthalpy.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

So, at a constant volume and at constant pressure heat change is state

function because it is equal to change in internal energy and change in
enthalpy respectively which are state functions.

K sp= [Al3+ ] [OH ]3 = (S) (3S)3 = 27 S4

S4 =

K sp
27

2.7 10
27

27 10
27 10

= 1 1012

S = 1 10 mol L

(i)

Molar mass of Al (OH)3 is 78 g mol1. Therefore,

Solubility of Al (OH)3 in g L = (1 10

mol L ) (78 g L )

= 78 10 g L

= 7.8 102 g L1

Putting correct values in equation

Correct answer

(ii)

(1)
(1)

pH of the solution
3

S = 110 mol L

[OH ] = 3S = 31103 = 3 103 mol L1

pOH = 3 log 3
pH = 14 pOH = 11 + log 3 = 11.4771 11.5

Using correct formula

Correct answer
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 196

()
()

21.
22.

(a) +2
(i) Heavy water,

(b) +5, 0, 0, +5

(1+2)

(D2O)

[ 2]

(ii) No, the reactivity of both the isotopes will not be the same.

(1)

Justification: The reactivity depends upon enthalpy of bond

dissociation. Due to the difference in the enthalpy
of bond dissociation for two isotopes, the rate of
reaction will be different.
(i)

BeSO4 and MgSO4 are readily soluble in water because

greater hydration enthalpies of Be2+ and Mg2+ ions overcome
the lattice enthalpy factor.

(2)

If the temperature is raised above 393 K, plaster of paris

is further dehydrated to form anhydrous calcium sulphate.

(1)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

23.

(1)

(ii)

24.

Pt/Pd/Ni
CH3CH = CH2 + H2
CH3CH2CH3

(i)

Zn, H+
CH3CH2CH2Cl + H2
CH3CH2CH3 + HCl

(ii)

CuO
CH3CH2CH2COO Na+ + NaOH
CH3CH2CH3 + Na2CO3

(iii)

1 mark for each part for writing correct chemical

equation for the reaction

(13)

(iii)

(2)

26.

(iii)

(2)

27.

(ii)

(2)

28.

(a) Suppose gas is at point A on

isotherm T1. First increase the
temperature of the gas above
critical temperature (T c)
keeping the volume constant.
Suppose the gas reaches the
point F on isotherm T2 where
it is at volume V1 and pressure
p1. Now compress the gas upto
Volume V2. In this compression
the pressure and volume of the
gas will move along the curve
FG (Boyle law) at point G, let
the pressure at point G be p2.
Now start cooling the gas. As
soon as gas will reach the
point H located on isotherm
of critical temperature, it
will liquify without passing

25.

197 Model Question Paper

through equilibrium state. The gas will not pass through two phases
because volume (V 2) of the gas is less than critical volume i.e.
molecules are closer to each other. Gas is at a higher pressure than
critical pressure. Cooling slows down the molecular motion and
intermolecular forces can hold the molecules together.
Correct graph with proper labelling
Explanation
(b)

(1)
(2)

benzene < water < ethane-1, 2-diol

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Reason : Ethane-1, 2-diol has more hydogen bonding than water while
in benzene hydrogen bonding is absent.
Correct order
Correct reason

29.

(a)

(1)
(1)

(i) BCl3 is an electron deficient compound. In order to complete

its octet, boron has a tendency to accept a pair of electrons.
BCl3 + NH3 BCl3 : NH3

(1)

(ii) It is not an acid according to proton concept, However it accepts

(1)
one OH from water to form B(OH4) .

(b)

(i) A = B 2H 6; B = B2H6.2NH3; C=B3N3H6

(ii) Reactions :

B2H6 + 2NH3 B 2H 6.2NH3

(1)

3B 2H 6 . 6NH3
2.

30. (a)

+ 12H 2

Inductive effect

(1)

Resonance effect

Involves -electrons

(i)

(ii)

vanishes beyond third

carbon atom

(ii) present all along the length

if system is conjugated

(iii)

Exhibited by even
non-planar compounds

(iii) Exhibited by only planar

compounds

(i)

(Any two) (1 mark each)

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 198

involves - electrons or lone

pair of electrons

(2)

(b) Polarisation of CH3CH2Cl and CH3CH2Br can be shown as follows:

and

()

Chlorine is more electronegative than bromine. Therefore CCl bond

is more polar than CBr bond. Hence inductive effect is greater on
(1)
second carbon atom in CH2CH2Cl.
(c) Resonating structures of CH3CH=CHCH=CH3

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(1)
Due to resonance effect, I is more stable. There is no conjugation in
()

CH3CH = CH(CH2)2CH = CH2

199 Model Question Paper

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

SOME B
ASIC CONCEP
TS
BA
CONCEPTS
OF CHEMIS
TRY
CHEMISTRY

I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)

Two students performed the same experiment separately and each one of
them recorded two readings of mass which are given below. Correct reading
of mass is 3.0 g. On the basis of given data, mark the correct option out of the
following statements.
Student

Readings

(i)

(ii)

3.01

2.99

3.05

2.95

(i) Results of both the students are neither accurate nor precise.

(ii) Results of student A are both precise and accurate.

(iii) Results of student B are neither precise nor accurate.

(iv) Results of student B are both precise and accurate.

A measured temperature on Fahrenheit scale is 200 F. What will this reading

be on Celsius scale?
(i)

40 C

(ii)

94 C

(iii)

93.3 C

(iv)

30 C

What will be the molarity of a solution, which contains 5.85 g of NaCl(s) per
500 mL?
(i)

4 mol L 1

(ii)

20 mol L

0.2 mol L1

(iv)

2 mol L1

If 500 mL of a 5M solution is diluted to 1500 mL, what will be the molarity of

the solution obtained?
(i)

1.5 M

(ii)

1.66 M

(iii)

0.017 M

(iv)

1.59 M

The number of atoms present in one mole of an element is equal to Avogadro

number. Which of the following element contains the greatest number of
atoms?

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(iii)

(i)

4g He

(ii)

46g Na

(iii)

0.40g Ca

(iv)

12g He

If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood is 0.9 g L1, what will be the
molarity of glucose in blood?
(i)

(ii)

50 M

(iii)

0.005 M

(iv)

0.5 M

What will be the molality of the solution containing 18.25 g of HCl gas in
500 g of water?
(i)

0.1 m

(ii)

(iii)

0.5 m

(iv)

One mole of any substance contains 6.022 1023 atoms/molecules. Number

of molecules of H 2SO 4 present in 100 mL of 0.02M H2SO4 solution is ______.
20

12.044 10

(i)

molecules

(ii)

6.022 10 molecules

(iii)

1 1023 molecules

(iv)

12.044 10

molecules

What is the mass percent of carbon in carbon dioxide?

(i)

0.034%

(ii)

27.27%

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

(iii)

3.4%

(iv)

28.7%

10. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH2O and
180 g respectively. What will be the molecular formula of the compound?
(i)

C9H18O 9

(ii)

CH2O

(iii)

C6H12O 6

(iv)

C2H4O2

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

11. If the density of a solution is 3.12 g mL1, the mass of 1.5 mL solution in
significant figures is _______.
(i)

4.7g

(ii)

4680 103g

(iii)

4.680g

(iv)

46.80g

12. Which of the following statements about a compound is incorrect?

(i)

A molecule of a compound has atoms of different elements.

(ii)

A compound cannot be separated into its constituent elements by

physical methods of separation.

(iii)

A compound retains the physical properties of its constituent elements.

(iv)

The ratio of atoms of different elements in a compound is fixed.

13. Which of the following statements is correct about the reaction given below:
4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) 2Fe2O3(g)

Total mass of iron and oxygen in reactants = total mass of iron and
oxygen in product therefore it follows law of conservation of mass.

(ii)

Total mass of reactants = total mass of product; therefore, law of multiple

proportions is followed.

(iii)

Amount of Fe2O3 can be increased by taking any one of the reactants

(iron or oxygen) in excess.

(iv)

Amount of Fe2O3 produced will decrease if the amount of any one of the
reactants (iron or oxygen) is taken in excess.

(i)

14. Which of the following reactions is not correct according to the law of
conservation of mass.
(i)

2Mg(s) + O 2(g) 2MgO(s)

(ii)

C3H8(g) + O2(g) CO2(g) + H2O(g)

(iii)

P 4(s) + 5O2(g) P4O10(s)

(iv)

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O (g)

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

15. Which of the following statements indicates that law of multiple proportion is
being followed.
Sample of carbon dioxide taken from any source will always have carbon
and oxygen in the ratio 1:2.

(ii)

Carbon forms two oxides namely CO2 and CO, where masses of oxygen
which combine with fixed mass of carbon are in the simple ratio 2:1.

(iii)

When magnesium burns in oxygen, the amount of magnesium taken

for the reaction is equal to the amount of magnesium in magnesium
oxide formed.

(iv)

At constant temperature and pressure 200 mL of hydrogen will combine

with 100 mL oxygen to produce 200 mL of water vapour.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.
16. One mole of oxygen gas at STP is equal to _______.
(i)

6.022 1023 molecules of oxygen

(ii)

6.022 1023 atoms of oxygen

(iii)

16 g of oxygen

(iv)

32 g of oxygen

17. Sulphuric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide as follows :

H 2SO4 + 2NaOH Na2SO4 + 2H2O

When 1L of 0.1M sulphuric acid solution is allowed to react with 1L of 0.1M

sodium hydroxide solution, the amount of sodium sulphate formed and its
molarity in the solution obtained is
(i)

0.1 mol L1

(ii)

7.10 g

(iii)

0.025 mol L1

(iv)

3.55 g

18. Which of the following pairs have the same number of atoms?
16 g of O2(g) and 4 g of H2(g)

(ii)

16 g of O2 and 44 g of CO2

(iii)

28 g of N2 and 32 g of O 2

(iv)

12 g of C(s) and 23 g of Na(s)

(i)

19. Which of the following solutions have the same concentration?

(i)

20 g of NaOH in 200 mL of solution

(ii)

0.5 mol of KCl in 200 mL of solution

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

(iii)

40 g of NaOH in 100 mL of solution

(iv)

20 g of KOH in 200 mL of solution

20. 16 g of oxygen has same number of molecules as in

(i)

16 g of CO

(ii)

28 g of N2

(iii)

14 g of N2

(iv)

1.0 g of H2

21. Which of the following terms are unitless?

Molality

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)
(ii)

Molarity

(iii)

Mole fraction

(iv)

Mass percent

22. One of the statements of Daltons atomic theory is given below:

Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine in a fixed

ratio
Which of the following laws is not related to this statement?
(i)

Law of conservation of mass

(ii)

Law of definite proportions

(iii)

Law of multiple proportions

(iv)

Avogadro law

III. Short Answer Type

23. What will be the mass of one atom of C-12 in grams?

24. How many significant figures should be present in the answer of the following
calculations?
2.5 1.25 3.5
2.01

25. What is the symbol for SI unit of mole? How is the mole defined?

26. What is the difference between molality and molarity?

27. Calculate the mass percent of calcium, phosphorus and oxygen in calcium
phosphate Ca3(PO4)2.

28. 45.4 L of dinitrogen reacted with 22.7 L of dioxygen and 45.4 L of nitrous
oxide was formed. The reaction is given below:
2N2(g) +

O2(g)

2N2O(g)

Which law is being obeyed in this experiment? Write the statement of the law?
5

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

29. If two elements can combine to form more than one compound, the masses of
one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other element, are in whole
number ratio.
(a)

Is this statement true?

(b)

If yes, according to which law?

(c)

Give one example related to this law.

30. Calculate the average atomic mass of hydrogen using the following data :
% Natural abundance

Molar mass

99.985

0.015

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Isotope

31. Hydrogen gas is prepared in the laboratory by reacting dilute HCl with
granulated zinc. Following reaction takes place.
Zn + 2HCl ZnCl 2 + H2

Calculate the volume of hydrogen gas liberated at STP when 32.65 g of zinc
reacts with HCl. 1 mol of a gas occupies 22.7 L volume at STP; atomic mass of
Zn = 65.3 u.

32. The density of 3 molal solution of NaOH is 1.110 g mL1. Calculate the molarity
of the solution.
33. Volume of a solution changes with change in temperature, then, will the molality
of the solution be affected by temperature? Give reason for your answer.

34. If 4 g of NaOH dissolves in 36 g of H 2O, calculate the mole fraction of each

component in the solution. Also, determine the molarity of solution (specific
1
gravity of solution is 1g mL ).

35. The reactant which is entirely consumed in reaction is known as limiting reagent.
In the reaction 2A + 4B 3C + 4D, when 5 moles of A react with 6 moles of B,
then
(i)

which is the limiting reagent?

(ii)

calculate the amount of C formed?

IV. Matching Type

36. Match the following:
(i)

88 g of CO2

(a)

0.25 mol

(ii)

6.022 10 molecules of H2O

(b)

2 mol

(iii)

5.6 litres of O2 at STP

(c)

1 mol

(iv)

96 g of O2

(d)

6.022 1023 molecules

(v)

1 mol of any gas

(e)

3 mol

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

37. Match the following physical quantities with units

Physical quantity

Unit
1

Molarity

(a)

g mL

(ii)

Mole fraction

(b)

mol

(iii)

Mole

(c)

Pascal

(iv)

Molality

(d)

Unitless

(v)

Pressure

(e)

mol L1

(vi)

Luminous intensity

(f)

Candela

(vii)

Density

(g)

mol kg1

(viii)

Mass

(h)

Nm1

(i)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a

statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the
choices given below each question.
38. Assertion (A) : The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason (R) :

The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number

ratio of various atoms present in a compound.

(i)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

A is true but R is false.

(iii)

A is false but R is true.

(iv)

Both A and R are false.

39. Assertion (A) : One atomic mass unit is defined as one twelfth of the mass of
one carbon-12 atom.
Reason (R) :

Carbon-12 isotope is the most abundunt isotope of carbon

and has been chosen as standard.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Both A and R are false.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

VI. Long Answer Type

42. A vessel contains 1.6 g of dioxygen at STP (273.15K, 1 atm pressure). The
gas is now transferred to another vessel at constant temperature, where
pressure becomes half of the original pressure. Calculate
(i)

volume of the new vessel.

(ii)

number of molecules of dioxygen.

43. Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous HCl to give CaCl 2 and CO 2 according
to the reaction given below:
CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl (aq) CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

What mass of CaCl 2 will be formed when 250 mL of 0.76 M HCl reacts with
1000 g of CaCO 3? Name the limiting reagent. Calculate the number of moles
of CaCl 2 formed in the reaction.

44. Define the law of multiple proportions. Explain it with two examples. How
does this law point to the existance of atoms?

45. A box contains some identical red coloured balls, labelled as A, each weighing
2 grams. Another box contains identical blue coloured balls, labelled as B,
each weighing 5 grams. Consider the combinations AB, AB2, A2B and A2B3
and show that law of multiple proportions is applicable.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (ii)

2. (iii)

3. (iii)

4. (ii)

5. (iv)

6. (iii)

7. (iv)

8. (i)

9. (ii)

10. (iii)

11. (i)

12. (iii)

13. (i)

14. (ii)

15. (ii)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

16. (i), (iv)

17. (ii), (iii)

18. (iii), (iv)

19. (i), (ii)

20. (iii), (iv)

21. (iii), (iv)

22. (i), (iv)

III. Short Answer Type

23.

1.992648 1023 g 1.99 1023 g

24.

25.

Symbol for SI Unit of mole is mol.

One mole is defined as the amount of a substance that contains as many

particles or entities as there are atoms in exactly 12 g (0.012 kg) of the 12C
isotope.

26.

Molality is the number of moles of solute present in one kilogram of solvent

but molarity is the number of moles of solute dissolved in one litre of
solution.
Molality is independent of temperature whereas molarity depends on
temperature.
Mass percent of calcium =

27.

Mass percent of phosphorus =

3 (atomic mass of calcium)

100
molecular mass of Ca 3 (PO4 )2

120 u
100 = 38.71%
310 u

2 (atomic mass of phosphorus)

100
molecular mass of Ca3 (PO4 )2
2 31 u
100 = 20%
310 u

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

8 (Atomic mass of oxygen)

Mass percent of oxygen = molecular mass of Ca (PO ) 100
3
4 2
=

8 16 u
100 = 41.29%
310 u

28.

According to Gay Lussacs law of gaseous volumes, gases combine or are

produced in a chemical reaction in a simple ratio by volume, provided
that all gases are at the same temperature and pressure.

29.

(a)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Yes

(b)
(c)

According to the law of multiple proportions

(c)

H2O

16 g

18 g

H2O2

32 g

34 g

Here masses of oxygen, (i.e., 16 g in H2O and 32 g in H2O 2) which combine

with fixed mass of hydrogen (2 g) are in the simple ratio i.e., 16 : 32 or 1 : 2

30.

31.

{(Natural abundance of H molar mass) +

2
2
(Natural abundance of H molar mass of H)}
Average Atomic Mass =
100

99.985 1 + 0.015 2
100

99.985 + 0.030
1 0 0 .0 15
=
= 1.00015 u
100
100

From the equation, 63.5 g of zinc liberates 22.7 litre of hydrogen. So

32.65 g of zinc will liberate
22.7 L H2

65.3 g Zn

22.7
L = 11.35 L
2

32.65 g Zn

32.

3 molal solution of NaOH means that 3 mols of NaOH are dissolved in

1000 g of solvent.
Mass of Solution = Mass of Solvent + Mass of Solute
= 1000 g + (3 40 g) = 1120 g
Volume of Solution =

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

1120
mL = 1009.00 mL
1.110

(Since density of solution = 1.110g mL1)

Since 1009 mL solution contains 3 mols of NaOH
Molarity =
=

3 mol
1000 = 2.97 M
1009.00

No, Molality of solution does not change with temperature since mass
remains unaffected with temperature.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

33.

Number of moles of solute

Volume of solution in litre

34.

Mass of NaOH = 4 g

Number of moles of NaOH =

4 g
= 0.1 mol
40 g

Mass of H2O = 36 g

Number of moles of H2O =

Mole fraction of water =

Mole fraction of NaOH =

36 g
= 2 mol
18 g

Number of moles of H2O

No. of moles of water + No. of moles of NaOH

2
2
=
= 0.95
2 + 0.1 2.1

Number of moles of NaOH

No. of moles of Na OH + No. of moles of water

0.1
0.1
=
= 0.047
2 + 0.1 2.1

Mass of solution = mass of water + mass of NaOH = 36 g + 4 g = 40 g

Volume of solution = 40 1 = 40 mL

(Since specific gravity of solution is = 1 g mL )

Molarity of solution =

35.

Number of moles of solute

Volume of solution in litre

0.1 mol NaOH

= 2.5 M
0.04 L

2A + 4B 3C + 4D
According to the above equation, 2 mols of A require 4 mols of B for the
reaction.
11 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Hence, for 5 mols of A, the moles of B required = 5 mol of A

4 mol of B
2 mol of A

= 10 mol B
But we have only 6 mols of B, hence, B is the limiting reagent. So amount
of C formed is determined by amount of B.
Since 4 mols of B give 3 mols of C. Hence 6 mols of B will give
3 mol of C
= 4.5 mol of C
4 mol of B

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

6 mol of B

IV. Matching Type

36.

(i) (b)

(ii) (c)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (e)

(i) (e)

(ii) (d)

(iii) (b)

(iv) (g)

(v) (c), (h)

(vi) (f)

(vii) (a)

(viii) (i)

(v) (d)

37.

V. Assertion and Reason Type

38. (i)

39. (ii)

40. (iii)

41. (iii)

VI. Long Answer Type

42.

(i) p 1=1 atm,

T1=273 K,

V1=?

32 g of oxygen occupies 22.4 L of volume at STP*

Hence, 1.6 g of oxygen will occupy, 1.6 g oxygen

22.4 L
= 1.12 L
32 g oxygen

V 1=1.12 L

p2 =

1
= = 0.5 atm.
2 2

V 2=?

According to Boyles law :

p 1V1 = p2V2
V2 =

p1 V1
p2

1 atm. 1.12 L
= 2.24 L
0.5 atm.

Old STP conditions 273.15 K, 1 atm, volume occupied by 1 mol of gas = 22.4 L.
New STP conditions 273.15 K, 1 bar, volume occupied by a gas = 22.7 L.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

6.022 10
(ii) Number of molecules of oxygen in the vessel =
32

1.6

= 3.011 1022
43.

Number of moles of HCl = 250 mL

0.76 M
= 0.19 mol
1000

Mass of CaCO3 = 1000 g

Number of moles of CaCO 3 =

1000 g
= 10 mol
100 g

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

According to given equation 1 mol of CaCO 3 (s) requires 2 mol of HCl (aq).
Hence, for the reaction of 10 mol of CaCO3 (s) number of moles of HCl
required would be:
10 mol CaCO 3

2 mol HCl (a q)
1 mol CaCO 3 (s) = 20 mol HCl (aq)

But we have only 0.19 mol HCl (aq), hence, HCl (aq) is limiting reagent.

So amount of CaCl2 formed will depend on the amount of HCl available.

Since, 2 mol HCl (aq) forms 1 mol of CaCl2, therefore, 0.19 mol of HCl (aq)
would give:
0.19 mol HCl (aq)

2 mol HCl (aq)

= 0.095 mol

0.095 molar mass of CaCl2 = 0.095 111 = 10.54 g

(Hint : Show that the masses of B which combine with the fixed mass of
A in different combinations are related to each other by simple whole
numbers).

45.

1 mol CaCl2 (aq)

13 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

STRUC
TURE OF A
TOM
TRUCTURE
AT
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1.

(i)
(ii)

Most of the space in the atom is empty.

The radius of the atom is about 1010 m while that of nucleus is 10 15 m.

(iii)
(iv)

Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called orbits.

Electrons and the nucleus are held together by electrostatic forces of
attraction.

Which of the following options does not represent ground state electronic
configuration of an atom?
(i)
(ii)

1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s 2

1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9 4s 2

electrodes in cathode ray tube.

(iv)

Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of gas present

in the cathode ray tube.

Which of the following statements about the electron is incorrect?

(i)

10. Which of the following is responsible to rule out the existence of definite paths
or trajectories of electrons?
Paulis exclusion principle.

(ii)

Heisenbergs uncertainty principle.

(iii)

Hunds rule of maximum multiplicity.

(iv)

Aufbau principle.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

11. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be __________.
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

12. Orbital angular momentum depends on __________.

(i)

(ii)

n and l

(iii)

n and m

(iv)

m and s

13. Chlorine exists in two isotopic forms, Cl-37 and Cl-35 but its atomic mass is
35.5. This indicates the ratio of Cl-37 and Cl-35 is approximately
(i)

1:2

(ii)

1:1

(iii)

1:3

(iv)

3:1

14. The pair of ions having same electronic configuration is __________.

Cr3+, Fe3+

(ii)

Fe3+, Mn 2+

(iii)

Fe3+, Co3+

(iv)

Sc3+, Cr3+

(i)

15. For the electrons of oxygen atom, which of the following statements is correct?
(i)

Zeff for an electron in a 2s orbital is the same as Zeff for an electron in a 2p

orbital.

(ii)

An electron in the 2s orbital has the same energy as an electron in the

2p orbital.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

(iii)

Zeff for an electron in 1s orbital is the same as Zeff for an electron in a 2s

orbital.

(iv)

The two electrons present in the 2s orbital have spin quantum numbers
ms but of opposite sign.

16. If travelling at same speeds, which of the following matter waves have the
shortest wavelength?
Electron

(ii)

Alpha particle (He2+ )

(iii)

Neutron

(iv)

Proton

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.
17. Identify the pairs which are not of isotopes?
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

18. Out of the following pairs of electrons, identify the pairs of electrons present
in degenerate orbitals :
(i)

n = 3, l = 2,

ml = 2, ms =

1
2

(b)

n = 3, l = 2,

ml = 1, ms =

1
2

(a)

n = 3, l = 1,

ml = 1,

ms = +

1
2

(ii)

(a)

(iii)

(b)

n = 3, l = 2,

ml = 1,

ms = +

1
2

(a)

n = 4, l = 1,

ml = 1,

ms = +

1
2

(b)

n = 3, l = 2,

ml = 1,

ms = +

1
2
17 Structure of Atom

(iv)

(a)

n = 3, l = 2,

m l = +2, ms =

1
2

(b)

n = 3, l = 2,

m l = +2, ms = +

1
2

19. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are correct?

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

20. In which of the following pairs, the ions are iso-electronic?

(i)

Na+ , Mg2+

(ii)

Al3+ , O

(iii)

Na+ , O2

(iv)

N3, Cl

21. Which of the following statements concerning the quantum numbers are
correct?
(i)

Angular quantum number determines the three dimensional shape of

the orbital.

(ii)

The principal quantum number determines the orientation and energy

of the orbital.

(iii)

Magnetic quantum number determines the size of the orbital.

(iv)

Spin quantum number of an electron determines the orientation of the

spin of electron relative to the chosen axis.

III. Short Answer Type

22. Arrange s, p and d sub-shells of a shell in the increasing order of effective

nuclear charge (Zeff) experienced by the electron present in them.

23. Show the distribution of electrons in oxygen atom (atomic number 8) using
orbital diagram.
24. Nickel atom can lose two electrons to form Ni2+ ion. The atomic number of
nickel is 28. From which orbital will nickel lose two electrons.
25. Which of the following orbitals are degenerate?
3dxy ,4dx y 3d 2 ,3dyz ,4dyz ,4d
z

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

26. Calculate the total number of angular nodes and radial nodes present in 3p
orbital.
27. The arrangement of orbitals on the basis of energy is based upon their (n+l )
value. Lower the value of (n+l ), lower is the energy. For orbitals having same
values of (n+l ), the orbital with lower value of n will have lower energy.
I.

Based upon the above information, arrange the following orbitals in the
increasing order of energy.
(a) 1s, 2s, 3s, 2p
(b) 4s, 3s, 3p, 4d

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(c) 5p, 4d, 5d, 4f, 6s

(d) 5f, 6d, 7s, 7p

II. Based upon the above information, solve the questions given below :
(a)

Which of the following orbitals has the lowest energy?

4d, 4f, 5s, 5p

(b)

Which of the following orbitals has the highest energy?

5p, 5d, 5f, 6s, 6p

28. Which of the following will not show deflection from the path on passing
through an electric field?
Proton, cathode rays, electron, neutron.

29. An atom having atomic mass number 13 has 7 neutrons. What is the atomic
number of the atom?
30. Wavelengths of different radiations are given below :

(A) = 300 nm

(B) = 300 m

(D) = 30 A

Arrange these radiations in the increasing order of their energies.

31. The electronic configuration of valence shell of Cu is 3d104s1 and not 3d 94s 2.
How is this configuration explained?

32. The Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum corresponds to the transition
from n 1 = 2 to n 2 = 3,4,......... . This series lies in the visible region. Calculate

the wave number of line associated with the transition in Balmer series when
the electron moves to n = 4 orbit.
(RH = 109677 cm1)

33. According to de Broglie, matter should exhibit dual behaviour, that is both
particle and wave like properties. However, a cricket ball of mass 100 g does
not move like a wave when it is thrown by a bowler at a speed of 100 km/h.
Calculate the wavelength of the ball and explain why it does not show wave
nature.
19 Structure of Atom

34. What is the experimental evidence in support of the idea that electronic energies
in an atom are quantized?
35. Out of electron and proton which one will have, a higher velocity to produce
matter waves of the same wavelength? Explain it.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

36. A hypothetical electromagnetic wave is shown in Fig. 2.2. Find out the
wavelength of the radiation.

Fig. 2.2

37. Chlorophyll present in green leaves of plants absorbs light at 4.620 1014 Hz.
Calculate the wavelength of radiation in nanometer. Which part of the
electromagnetic spectrum does it belong to?
38. What is the difference between the terms orbit and orbital?

39. Table-tennis ball has a mass 10 g and a speed of 90 m/s. If speed can be
measured within an accuracy of 4% what will be the uncertainty in speed
and position?
40. The effect of uncertainty principle is significant only for motion of microscopic
particles and is negligible for the macroscopic particles. Justify the statement
with the help of a suitable example.

41. Hydrogen atom has only one electron, so mutual repulsion between electrons
is absent. However, in multielectron atoms mutual repulsion between the
electrons is significant. How does this affect the energy of an electron in the
orbitals of the same principal quantum number in multielectron atoms?

IV. Matching Type

In some of the following questions, one option of left column may be

correlated to more than one option in the right column.

42. Match the following species with their corresponding ground state electronic
configuration.
Atom / Ion

Electronic configuration

(i)

(a)

1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 3d10

(ii)

Cu2+

(b)

1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p 6 3d10 4s 2

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

(iii)

Zn2+

(c)

1s2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p6 3d10 4s1

(iv)

Cr3+

(d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 3d9

(e)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 3d3

43. Match the quantum numbers with the information provided by these.
Quantum number

Information provided

Principal quantum number

(a) orientation of the orbital

(ii)

Azimuthal quantum number

(b) energy and size of orbital

(iii)

Magnetic quantum number

(c) spin of electron

(iv)

Spin quantum number

(d) shape of the orbital

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

44. Match the following rules with their statements :

Statements

Rules

(i)

Hunds Rule

(ii)

Aufbau Principle

(iii)

Pauli Exclusion Principle

(iv)

Heisenbergs Uncertainty
Principle

(a)

No two electrons in an atom

can have the same set of four
quantum numbers.

(b)

Half-filled and completely filled

orbitals have extra stablity.

(c)

Pairing of electrons in the

orbitals belonging to the same
subshell does not take place
until each orbital is singly
occupied.

(d)

It is impossible to determine
the exact position and exact
momentum of a subatomic
particle simultaneously.

(e)

In the ground state of atoms,

orbitals are filled in the order
of their increasing energies.

45. Match the following

X-rays

(i)

(a) = 10 0 104 Hz

(ii)

(b) = 1010 Hz

(iii)

Long radio waves

(iv)

Microwave

(d) = 1018 Hz
21 Structure of Atom

46. Match the following

(i)

Photon

(a) Value is 4 for N shell

(ii)

Electron

(b) Probability density

(iii)

(c) Always positive value

(iv)

Principal quantum number n

(d) Exhibits both momentum and

wavelength

47. Match species given in Column I with the electronic configuration given in Column II.
Column II
(a) [Ar]3d84s 0

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Column I
(i)
Cr
(ii)

Fe2+

(b) [Ar]3d104s 1

(iii)

Ni2+

(c)

(iv)

(d) [Ar] 3d54s 1

(e)

[Ar]3d64s 0

[Ar]3d64s 2

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement

of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given
below each question.
48. Assertion (A) : All isotopes of a given element show the same type of chemical
behaviour.
Reason (R) :

The chemical properties of an atom are controlled by the

number of electrons in the atom.

(i)

(iv)

Both A and R are false.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

VI. Long Answer Type

51. What is photoelectric effect? State the result of photoelectric effect experiment
that could not be explained on the basis of laws of classical physics. Explain
this effect on the basis of quantum theory of electromagnetic radiations.

52. Threshold frequency, 0 is the minimum frequency which a photon must

possess to eject an electron from a metal. It is different for different metals.
When a photon of frequency 1.01015 s1 was allowed to hit a metal surface,
an electron having 1.988 1019 J of kinetic energy was emitted. Calculate
the threshold frequency of this metal. Show that an electron will not be emitted
if a photon with a wavelength equal to 600 nm hits the metal surface.
53. When an electric discharge is passed through hydrogen gas, the hydrogen
molecules dissociate to produce excited hydrogen atoms. These excited atoms
emit electromagnetic radiation of discrete frequencies which can be given by
the general formula
1
1

2
n 2f
n i

= 109677

What points of Bohrs model of an atom can be used to arrive at this formula?
Based on these points derive the above formula giving description of each
step and each term.
54. Calculate the energy and frequency of the radiation emitted when an electron
jumps from n = 3 to n = 2 in a hydrogen atom.

55. Why was a change in the Bohr Model of atom required? Due to which important
development (s), concept of movement of an electron in an orbit was replaced
by, the concept of probability of finding electron in an orbital? What is the
name given to the changed model of atom?

23 Structure of Atom

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (iii)

2. (ii)

3. (iv)

4. (iv)

5. (ii)

7. (iv)

8. (iv)

9. (iii)

10. (ii)

11. (iii)

13. (iii)

14. (ii)

15. (iv)

16. (ii)

6. (i)
12. (i)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

17. (iii), (iv)

18. (i), (iv)

20. (i), (iii)

21. (i), (iv)

19. (ii), (iii)

III. Short Answer Type

22. d < p < s
23.

24.

25.

3dxy, 3d 2 , 3dyz and 4dxy , 4dyz, 4d

26.

For 3p orbital n = 3, l = 1

Number of angular nodes = l = 1

Number of radial nodes = n l 1 = 311=1

27.

(a) Is < 2s < 2p < 3s

(b) 3s < 3p < 4s < 4d

(c) 4d < 5p < 6s < 4f < 5d

(d) 7s < 5f < 6d < 7p

neutron

28.

29.

A = 13, A Z = 7 Z = 6

atomic number = 6

30.

B<A<C=D
1

Hint : E

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

II. (a) 5s (b) 5f

31.

32.

Completely filled and half filled orbitals have extra stability. In 3d104s1, d
orbital is completely filled and s is half filled. So it is more stable
configuration.
1

1
1
2 cm
n i n f
For n i = 2 to nf = 4 transition in Balmer series.

= 109677

1
1
2 cm
4

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

1 1
1
= 109677
cm = 20564.44 cm1
4 16

33.

h
mv

m = 100 g = 0.1 kg.

v = 100 km/hr =

100 1000 m 1000

1
=
ms
60 60 s
36

h = 6.626 1034 Js

6.626 10 Js
= 6.626 10 36 36 m 1 = 238.5 1036m1
1000
1
0.1 kg
ms
36

Since the wavelength is very small, the wave nature cannot be detected.

35.

Being lighter particles, electrons will have higher velocity.

Hint : =

m v

36.

Wavelength is the distance between two successive peaks or two successive

troughs of a wave. So = 4 2.16 pm = 8.64 pm

3.0 10 ms
= 0.6494 10 6 m = 649.4 nm; Visible light.
14
4.620 10 Hz

37.

39.

Uncertainty in the speed of ball =

90 4 360
=
= 3.6 ms 1
100
100

h
Uncertainty in position = 4 m v
25 Structure of Atom

6.626 10

4 3.14 10 10 kg g 3.6 ms
3

= 1.46 1033 m
41.

The energy of electron is determined by the value of n in hydrogen atom

and by n + l in multielectron atom. So for a given principal quantum
number electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals have different energy.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

IV. Matching Type

42.

(i) (c)

(ii) (d)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (e)

43.

(i) (b)

(ii) (d)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (c)

44.

(i) (c)

(ii) (e)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (d)

45.

(i) (d)

(ii) (c)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (b)

46.

(i) (d)

(ii) (d)

(iii) (b), (c)

(iv) (a), (c)

47.

(i) (d)

(ii) (c)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (b)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

48. (i)

49. (ii)

50. (iii)

VI. Long Answer Type

2
Hint : h = h 0 + mv
2

54.

E = 3.052 1019 J, = 4.606 1016 Hz

52.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Classification ooff Element

Elementss
and PPeriodicit
eriodicit
y in PPrroper
ties
eriodicity
operties

I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)

(i)

F- < O

(ii)

(iii)

O 2 < F < Na+ < Mg2+

(iv)

< Mg < Na
+

< Na < F < O

< F < Mg < Na

Which of the following is not an actinoid?

(i)

Curium (Z = 96)

(ii)

Californium (Z = 98)

(iii)

Uranium (Z = 92)

(iv)

Terbium (Z = 65)

The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given

shell of an atom on its outer shell electrons is:
(i)

s >p > d>f

(ii)

f>d >p>s

(iii)

p<d < s >f

(iv)

f>p >s>d

Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+ , Mg , F and O . The correct order of

increasing length of their radii is _________.

The first ionisation enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order:
(i)

Na < Mg > Al < Si

(ii)

Na > Mg > Al > Si

Na < Mg < Al < Si

(iv)

Na > Mg > Al < Si

The electronic configuration of gadolinium (Atomic number 64) is

5d 5 6s 2

(i)

[Xe] 4f

(ii)

[Xe] 4f 5d 6s

(iii)

[Xe] 4f 7 5d1 6s 2

(iv)

[Xe] 4f 5d 6s

The statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements is:

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(iii)

lanthanoids

(iv)

halogens

(i)

10. Which of the following is the correct order of size of the given species:

(i)

I >I > I

(ii)

I+ > I > I

(iii)

I>I >I

(iv)

I > I > I +

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

11. The formation of the oxide ion, O2 (g), from oxygen atom requires first an
exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below:
V

O (g) + e O (g) ; H = 141 kJ mol

O (g) + e O 2 (g); HV = + 780 kJ mol1

Thus process of formation of O in gas phase is unfavourable even though

O 2 is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that,
oxygen is more electronegative.

(ii)

addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion.

(iii)

electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble

gas configuration.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

(iv)

O ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom.

12. Comprehension given below is followed by some multiple choice questions.

Each question has one correct option. Choose the correct option.

In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in order of increasing

atomic numbers which is related to the electronic configuration. Depending
upon the type of orbitals receiving the last electron, the elements in the periodic
table have been divided into four blocks, viz, s, p, d and f. The modern periodic
table consists of 7 periods and 18 groups. Each period begins with the filling
of a new energy shell. In accordance with the Arfbau principle, the seven
periods (1 to 7) have 2, 8, 8, 18, 18, 32 and 32 elements respectively. The
seventh period is still incomplete. To avoid the periodic table being too long,
the two series of f-block elements, called lanthanoids and actinoids are placed
at the bottom of the main body of the periodic table.
(a)

(i)

s-block

(ii)

p-block

(iii)

d-block

(iv)

f-block

The last element of the p-block in 6th period is represented by the

outermost electronic configuration.
(i)

7s 2 7p 6

(ii)

5f 14 6d 10 7s 2 7p 0

(iii)

4f 14 5d 10 6s 2 6p 6

(b)

The element with atomic number 57 belongs to

(iv)

(c)

4f 14 5d10 6s 2 6p 4

Which of the elements whose atomic numbers are given below, cannot
be accommodated in the present set up of the long form of the periodic
table?
(i)

107

(ii)

118
29

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

(d)

126

(iv)

102

The electronic configuration of the element which is just above the

element with atomic number 43 in the same group is ________.
(i)

1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 3d 5 4s2

(ii)

1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s 2 3p 6 3d 5 4s 3 4p6

(iii)

1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s 2 3p 6 3d 6 4s 2

(iv)

1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s 2 3p 6 3d 7 4s 2

The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53 and 85 are all ________.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(e)

(iii)

(i)

noble gases

(ii)

halogens

(iii)

heavy metals

(iv)

(iii)

(iv)

16. Which of the following sequences contain atomic numbers of only

representative elements?
(i)

3, 33, 53, 87

(ii)

2, 10, 22, 36

(iii)

7, 17, 25, 37, 48

(iv)

9, 35, 51, 88

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

17. Which of the following elements will gain one electron more readily in
comparison to other elements of their group?
(i)

S (g)

(ii)

Na (g)

(iii)

O (g)

(iv)

Cl (g)

18. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i)

Helium has the highest first ionisation enthalpy in the periodic table.

(ii)

Chlorine has less negative electron gain enthalpy than fluorine.

(iii)

Mercury and bromine are liquids at room temperature.

(iv)

In any period, atomic radius of alkali metal is the highest.

19. Which of the following sets contain only isoelectronic ions?

(i)

Zn2+, Ca2+ , Ga3+ , Al3+

(ii)

K +, Ca2+, Sc3+ , Cl

(iii)

P , S , Cl , K

(iv)

Ti 4+, Ar, Cr3+, V 5+

20. In which of the following options order of arrangement does not agree with
the variation of property indicated against it?
Al 3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F (increasing ionic size)

(ii)

B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)

(iii)

I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)

(iv)

Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)

(i)

21. Which of the following have no unit?

(i)

Electronegativity

(ii)

Electron gain enthalpy

(iii)

Ionisation enthalpy

(iv)

Metallic character
31

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

22. Ionic radii vary in

(i)

inverse proportion to the effective nuclear charge.

(ii)

inverse proportion to the square of effective nuclear charge.

(iii)

direct proportion to the screening effect.

(iv)

direct proportion to the square of screening effect.

23. An element belongs to 3 rd period and group-13 of the periodic table. Which of
the following properties will be shown by the element?
(i)

Liquid, metallic

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(ii)

Good conductor of electricity

(iii)

Solid, metallic

(iv)

Solid, non metallic

III. Short Answer Type

24. Explain why the electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative than that
of chlorine.
25. All transition elements are d-block elements, but all d-block elements are not
transition elements. Explain.
26. Identify the group and valency of the element having atomic number 119. Also
predict the outermost electronic configuration and write the general formula
of its oxide.
27. Ionisation enthalpies of elements of second period are given below :
Ionisation enthalpy/ k cal mol 1 :

520, 899, 801, 1086, 1402, 1314,

1681, 2080.

Match the correct enthalpy

with the elements and
complete the graph given in
Fig. 3.1. Also write symbols
of elements with their
atomic number.

28. Among the elements B, Al,

C and Si,

which element has

the highest first
ionisation enthalpy?

(ii)

which element has

the most metallic
character?

(i)

Justify your answer

in each case.
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

Fig. 3.1

29. Write four characteristic properties of p-block elements.

30. Choose the correct order of atomic radii of fluorine and neon (in pm) out of
the options given below and justify your answer.
(i) 72, 160
(ii)
(iii)

160, 160
72, 72

(iv)

160, 72

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

31. Illustrate by taking examples of transition elements and non-transition

elements that oxidation states of elements are largely based on electronic
configuration.
32. Nitrogen has positive electron gain enthalpy whereas oxygen has negative.
However, oxygen has lower ionisation enthalpy than nitrogen. Explain.
33. First member of each group of representative elements (i.e., s and p-block
elements) shows anomalous behaviour. Illustrate with two examples.

34. p-Block elements form acidic, basic and amphoteric oxides. Explain each
property by giving two examples and also write the reactions of these oxides
with water.

35. How would you explain the fact that first ionisation enthalpy of sodium is
lower than that of magnesium but its second ionisation enthalpy is higher
than that of magnesium?
36. What do you understand by exothermic reaction and endothermic reaction?
Give one example of each type.
37. Arrange the elements N, P,
O and S in the order of(i)

increasing first
ionisation enthalpy.

(ii)

increasing
non
metallic character.

Give reason for the

arrangement assigned.

38. Explain the deviation in

ionisation enthalpy of
some elements from the
general trend by using
Fig. 3.2.
Fig. 3.2
33

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

39. Explain the following:

(a) Electronegativity of elements increase on moving from left to right in the
periodic table.
(b) Ionisation enthalpy decrease in a group from top to bottom?
40. How does the metallic and non metallic character vary on moving from left to
right in a period?
41. The radius of Na+ cation is less than that of Na atom. Give reason.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

42. Among alkali metals which element do you expect to be least electronegative
and why?

IV. Matching Type

43. Match the correct atomic radius with the element.

Element

Atomic radius (pm)

111

44. Match the correct ionisation enthalpies and electron gain enthalpies of the
following elements.
Elements

eg H

(i) Most reactive non metal

(ii) Most reactive metal

A.
B.

419
1681

3051
3374

48
328

(iii) Least reactive element

(iv) Metal forming binary halide

C.
D.

738
2372

1451
5251

40
+ 48

45. Electronic configuration of some elements is given in Column I and their

electron gain enthalpies are given in Column II. Match the electronic
configuration with electron gain enthalpy.
Column (II)

Column (I)

Electronic configuration

Electron gain enthalpy/kJ mol 1

(i) 1s2 2s 2 sp6

(A)

(ii) 1s2 2s 2 2p6 3s1

(B)

328

(iii) 1s2 2s 2 2p 5

(C)

141

(iv) 1s2 2s 2 2p 4

(D)

+ 48

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement
of reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given
below each question.
46. Assertion (A) : Generally, ionisation enthalpy increases from left to right in a
period.
When successive electrons are added to the orbitals in the
same principal quantum level, the shielding effect of inner
core of electrons does not increase very much to compensate
for the increased attraction of the electron to the nucleus.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Reason (R) :

(i)

Assertion is correct statement and reason is wrong statement.

(ii)

Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation of assertion.

(iii)

Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.

(iv)

Assertion is wrong statement and reason is correct statement.

47. Assertion (A) : Boron has a smaller first ionisation enthalpy than beryllium.
Reason (R) :

The penetration of a 2s electron to the nucleus is more than

the 2p electron hence 2p electron is more shielded by the
inner core of electrons than the 2s electrons.

(i)

Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not
correct explanation for assertion.

(ii)

Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

(iii)

Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.

(iv)

Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.

48. Assertion (A) : Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we go down
a group.
Reason (R) :

Size of the atom increases on going down the group and the
added electron would be farther from the nucleus.

Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not
correct explanation for assertion.

(ii)

Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.

(i)

(iii)

Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.

(iv)

Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

VI. Long Answer Type

49. Discuss the factors affecting electron gain enthalpy and the trend in its
variation in the periodic table.
35

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

50. Define ionisation enthalpy. Discuss the factors affecting ionisation enthalpy
of the elements and its trends in the periodic table.
51. Justify the given statement with suitable examples the Properties of the
elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers.
52. Write down the outermost electronic configuration of alkali metals. How will
you justify their placement in group 1 of the periodic table?
53. Write the drawbacks in Mendeleevs periodic table that led to its modification.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

54. In what manner is the long form of periodic table better than Mendeleevs
periodic table? Explain with examples.

55. Discuss and compare the trend in ionisation enthalpy of the elements of
group1 with those of group17 elements.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (ii)

2. (iv)

3. (i)

4. (i)

5. (iii)

7. (iii)

8. (iii)

9. (iii)

10. (iv)

11. (iii)

12.(a) (iii), (b) (iii), (c) (iii), (d) (i), (e) (ii)

6. (iii)

13. (i)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

14. (ii), (iii)

15. (i), (iii)

16. (i), (iv)

17. (i), (iv)

18. (i), (iii), (iv)

19. (ii), (iii)

20. (ii), (iii)

21. (i), (iv)

22. (i), (iii)

23. (i), (iii)

III. Short Answer Type

24.

The added electron in fluorine goes to second quantum level. Due to small
size of fluorine it experiences repulsion from other electrons much more
in comparison to that in chlorine because in chlorine, the electron is added
to 3rd quantum level in which larger space is available for movement.

26.

Group : 1, Valency : 1

Outermost electronic configuration = 8s1

Formula of Oxide = M2O

27.

Compare your plot with the plot given in the textbook.

28.

(i) Carbon

(ii) Aluminium

(i)

32.

The outermost electronic configuraton of nitrogen (2s 2 2p 1x 2p 1y 2p 1z) is very

stable because p-orbital is half filled. Addition of extra electron to any of
the 2p orbital requires energy.

30.

Oxygen has 4 electrons in 2p orbitals and acquires stable configuration

i.e., 2p 3 configuration after removing one electron.

35.

After removing 1 electron from the sodium atom the ion formed acquires
the configuration of inert gas, neon. The second electron is removed from
one of the 2p-orbitals which are completely filled i.e., have a total of 6
electrons and are closer to the nucleus.
37

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

37.

(i) S < P < N < O

(ii) P < S < N < O

39.

(a) Decrease in size of atom and increase in nuclear charge.

(b) Increase in atomic size.
Metallic character decreases and non metallic character increases in moving
from left to right in a period. It is due to increase in ionisation enthalpy
and electron gain enthalpy.

41.

Decrease of one shell.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

40.

42.

Electronegativity decreases in a group from top to bottom. Thus, caesium

is the least electronegative element.

IV. Matching Type

43.

Be = 111, O = 66, C = 77, B = 88, N = 74.

44.

Most reactive non metal = B, Most reactive metal = A, Least reactive

element = D, Metal forming binary halide = C

45.

(i) (D);

(ii) (A)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

(ii)

47.

(iii)

48.

(iv)

46.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

(iii) (B)

(iv) (C)

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

CHEMIC
AL BONDING AND
CHEMICAL
AR SSTRUC
TRUC
TURE
MOLECUL
MOLECULAR
TRUCTURE

I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)

(i)

[NF3 and BF3]

(ii)

[BF4 and NH4 ]

(iii)

[BCl3 and BrCl3]

(iv)

[NH 3 and NO3 ]

Polarity in a molecule and hence the dipole moment depends primarily on

electronegativity of the constituent atoms and shape of a molecule. Which of
the following has the highest dipole moment?
(i)

CO2

(ii)

(iii)

H2O

(iv)

SO2

The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in NO2 , NO3 and NH4 respectively are
expected to be
(i)

sp, sp3 and sp2

(ii)

sp, sp2 and sp3

Isostructural species are those which have the same shape and hybridisation.
Among the given species identify the isostructural pairs.

(iii)

sp2, sp and sp3

(iv)

sp2, sp3 and sp

Hydrogen bonds are formed in many compounds e.g., H2O, HF, NH3 . The
boiling point of such compounds depends to a large extent on the strength
of hydrogen bond and the number of hydrogen bonds. The correct decreasing
order of the boiling points of above compounds is :
(i)

HF > H2O > NH3

(ii)

H2O > HF > NH3

(iii)

NH3 > HF > H2O

(iv)

NH3 > H 2O > HF

5. In PO 43 ion the formal charge on the oxygen atom of PO bond is

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

0.75

(iv)

+ 0.75

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

6. In NO 3 ion, the number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons on nitrogen
atom are
(i)

2, 2

(ii)

3, 1

(iii)

1, 3

(iv)

4, 0

7. Which of the following species has tetrahedral geometry?

(i)

BH4

(ii)

NH2

(iii)

CO3

(iv)

H3O+

8. Number of bonds and bonds in the following structure is

6, 19

(ii)

4, 20

(iii)

5, 19

(iv)

5, 20

(i)

Which molecule/ion out of the following does not contain unpaired electrons?
+

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

10. In which of the following molecule/ion all the bonds are not equal?
(i)

XeF4

(ii)

BF 4

(iii)

C2H4

(iv)

SiF4

11. In which of the following substances will hydrogen bond be strongest?

HCl

(ii)

H 2O

(iii)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

(iv)

H2S

12. If the electronic configuration of an element is 1s 2 2s2 2p6 3s 2 3p 6 3d2 4s2, the
four electrons involved in chemical bond formation will be_____.
(i)

3p6

(ii)

3p6, 4s 2

(iii)

3p6, 3d2

(iv)

3d2, 4s2

13. Which of the following angle corresponds to sp2 hybridisation?

(i)

(ii)

120

(iii)

180

(iv)

109

The electronic configurations of three elements, A, B and C are given below.

Answer the questions 14 to 17 on the basis of these configurations.
A

1s 2

2s 2

2p6

1s 2

2s 2

2p6

3s 2

3p3

1s 2

2s 2

2p6

3s 2

3p5

14. Stable form of A may be represented by the formula :

(2py ) < (2pz) < (2px) (2py )

(ii)

(2py ) > (2pz) > (2px) (2py )

(iii)

(2py ) < (2pz) > (2px) (2py )

(iv)

(2py ) > (2pz) < (2px) (2py )

19. Which of the following statement is not correct from the view point of molecular
orbital theory?
(i)

Be2 is not a stable molecule.

(ii)

He2 is not stable but He2 is expected to exist.

(iii)

Bond strength of N2 is maximum amongst the homonuclear diatomic

molecules belonging to the second period.

(iv)

The order of energies of molecular orbitals in N2 molecule is

2s < * 2s < 2p z < (2px = 2py ) < (* 2px = * 2py ) < *2p z

20. Which of the following options represents the correct bond order :
(i)

O2 > O2 > O+2

(ii)

O2 < O2 < O2

(iii)

O2 > O2 < O2+

(iv)

O2 < O2 > O2

21. The electronic configuration of the outer most shell of the most electronegative
element is
(i)

2s22p5

(ii)

3s23p5

(iii)

4s24p5

(iv)

5s25p5

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

22. Amongst the following elements whose electronic configurations are given
below, the one having the highest ionisation enthalpy is
(i)

[Ne]3s 23p1

(ii)

[Ne]3s 23p3

(iii)

[Ne]3s 23p2

(iv)

[Ar]3d 104s 24p 3

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.

23. Which of the following have identical bond order?

(i)

(ii)

NO+

(iii)

O 2

(iv)

24. Which of the following attain the linear structure:

(i)

BeCl 2

(ii)

NCO+

(iii)

NO2

(iv)

CS 2

25. CO is isoelectronic with

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

SnCl2

(iv)

NO2

26. Which of the following species have the same shape?

(i)

CO2

(ii)

CCl4

(iii)

(iv)

NO2

27. Which of the following statements are correct about CO32 ?

(i)

The hybridisation of central atom is sp3.

(ii)

Its resonance structure has one CO single bond and two C=O double
bonds.

(iii)

The average formal charge on each oxygen atom is 0.67 units.

(iv)

All CO bond lengths are equal.

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

28. Dimagnetic species are those which contain no unpaired electrons. Which
among the following are dimagnetic?
(i)

(ii)

N22

(iii)

(iv)

O22

29. Species having same bond order are :

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

30. Which of the following statements are not correct?

(i)

NaCl being an ionic compound is a good conductor of electricity in the

solid state.

(ii)

In canonical structures there is a difference in the arrangement of atoms.

(iii)

Hybrid orbitals form stronger bonds than pure orbitals.

(iv)

VSEPR Theory can explain the square planar geometry of XeF4.

III. Short Answer Type

31. Explain the non linear shape of H2S and non planar shape of PCl3 using valence
shell electron pair repulsion theory.
32. Using molecular orbital theory, compare the bond energy and magnetic
character of O +2 and O2 species.
33. Explain the shape of BrF 5.

34. Structures of molecules of two compounds are given below :

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

(a) Which of the two compounds will have intermolecular hydrogen bonding
and which compound is expected to show intramolecular hydrogen
bonding.
(b) The melting point of a compound depends on, among other things, the
extent of hydrogen bonding. On this basis explain which of the above
two compounds will show higher melting point.
(c) Solubility of compounds in water depends on power to form hydrogen
bonds with water. Which of the above compounds will form hydrogen
bond with water easily and be more soluble in it.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

35. Why does type of overlap given in the following figure not result in bond
formation?

36. Explain why PCl5 is trigonal bipyramidal whereas IF5 is square pyramidal.

37. In both water and dimethyl ether ( CH3 CH3 ), oxygen atom is central
atom, and has the same hybridisation, yet they have different bond angles.
Which one has greater bond angle? Give reason.
38. Write Lewis structure of the following compounds and show formal charge
on each atom.
HNO3, NO2, H2SO4

39. The energy of 2pz molecular orbital is greater than 2px and 2py molecular
orbitals in nitrogen molecule. Write the complete sequence of energy levels in
the increasing order of energy in the molecule. Compare the relative stability
and the magnetic behaviour of the following species :
+

N2, N2 , N2 , N2

40. What is the effect of the following processes on the bond order in N2 and O2?
N2 N2 + e

(i)

O2 O2 + e
+

(ii)

41. Give reasons for the following :

(i)

Covalent bonds are directional bonds while ionic bonds are nondirectional.

(ii)

Water molecule has bent structure whereas carbon dioxide molecule is

linear.

(iii)

Ethyne molecule is linear.

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

42. What is an ionic bond? With two suitable examples explain the difference
between an ionic and a covalent bond?
43. Arrange the following bonds in order of increasing ionic character giving
reason.
NH, FH, CH and OH
2

44. Explain why CO3 ion cannot be represented by a single Lewis structure. How
can it be best represented?

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

45. Predict the hybridisation of each carbon in the molecule of organic compound
given below. Also indicate the total number of sigma and pi bonds in this
molecule.

46. Group the following as linear and non-linear molecules :

H 2O, HOCl, BeCl2, Cl2O

47. Elements X, Y and Z have 4, 5 and 7 valence electrons respectively. (i) Write
the molecular formula of the compounds formed by these elements individually
with hydrogen. (ii) Which of these compounds will have the highest dipole
moment?
48. Draw the resonating structure of
(i) Ozone molecule

(ii) Nitrate ion

49. Predict the shapes of the following molecules on the basis of hybridisation.
BCl3, CH4, CO2, NH3

50. All the CO bonds in carbonate ion (CO3 ) are equal in length. Explain.

51. What is meant by the term average bond enthalpy? Why is there difference in
bond enthalpy of OH bond in ethanol (C 2H 5OH) and water?

IV. Matching Type

52. Match the species in Column I with the type of hybrid orbitals in Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i)

SF4

(a) sp3d2

(ii)

IF5

(b) d2sp3
+
2
+
4

(iii)

(iv)

(d) sp3
(e) sp

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

53. Match the species in Column I with the geometry/shape in Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i)

H3O

(a) Linear

(ii)

HC CH

(b) Angular

2
+
4

(iii)

ClO

(iv)

(d) Trigonal bipyramidal

(e) Pyramidal

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

54. Match the species in Column I with the bond order in Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i)

(a) 1.5

(ii)

(b) 2.0

(iii)

(iv)

(d) 3.0

55. Match the items given in Column I with examples given in Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i)

Hydrogen bond

(a) C

(ii)

Resonance

(b) LiF

(iii)

Ionic solid

(iv)

Covalent solid

(d) HF
(e) O3

56. Match the shape of molecules in Column I with the type of hybridisation in
Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i)

Tetrahedral

(a) sp2

(ii)

Trigonal

(b) sp

(iii)

Linear

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of

Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given below each
question.
57. Assertion (A) : Sodium chloride formed by the action of chlorine gas on
sodium metal is a stable compound.
Reason (R) :

This is because sodium and chloride ions acquire octet in

sodium chloride formation.
47

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

(i)

A and R both are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

A and R both are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

A and R both are false.

58. Assertion (A) : Though the central atom of both NH3 and H2O molecules are
sp3 hybridised, yet HNH bond angle is greater than that of
HOH.
Reason (R) :

This is because nitrogen atom has one lone pair and oxygen
atom has two lone pairs.

A and R both are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

A and R both are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

A and R both are false.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

59. Assertion (A): Among the two OH bonds in H2O molecule, the energy
required to break the first OH bond and the other OH bond
is the same.
Reason (R) :

This is because the electronic environment around oxygen is

the same even after breakage of one OH bond.

(i)

A and R both are correct, and R is correct explanation of A.

(ii)

A and R both are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

A and R both are false.

VI. Long Answer Type

60.

(i) Discuss the significance/ applications of dipole moment.

(ii) Represent diagrammatically the bond moments and the resultant dipole
moment in CO 2 , NF3 and CHCl3.

61. Use the molecular orbital energy level diagram to show that N2 would be
expected to have a triple bond, F2, a single bond and Ne2, no bond.

62. Briefly describe the valence bond theory of covalent bond formation by taking
an example of hydrogen. How can you interpret energy changes taking place
in the formation of dihydrogen?

63. Describe hybridisation in the case of PCl5 and SF6. The axial bonds are longer
as compared to equatorial bonds in PCl5 whereas in SF6 both axial bonds and
equatorial bonds have the same bond length. Explain.

64.

(i) Discuss the concept of hybridisation. What are its different types in a
carbon atom.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

(ii) What is the type of hybridisation of carbon atoms marked with star.

(a)
(b)

(c)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(d)
(e)

Comprehension given below is followed by some multiple choice questions.

Each question has one correct option. Choose the correct option.

Molecular orbitals are formed by the overlap of atomic orbitals. Two atomic orbitals
combine to form two molecular orbitals called bonding molecular orbital (BMO)
and anti bonding molecular orbital (ABMO). Energy of anti bonding orbital is raised
above the parent atomic orbitals that have combined and the energy of the bonding
orbital is lowered than the parent atomic orbitals. Energies of various molecular
orbitals for elements hydrogen to nitrogen increase in the order :
1s < * 1s < 2s < * 2s < ( 2 p x 2 py ) < 2 pz < ( * 2 px * 2 py ) < * 2 p z and
for oxygen and fluorine order of energy of molecular orbitals is given below :

1s < * 1s < 2s < * 2s < 2 pz < ( 2 px 2 py ) < ( * 2 px * 2 py ) < * 2 p z

Different atomic orbitals of one atom combine with those atomic orbitals of the
second atom which have comparable energies and proper orientation. Further, if
the overlapping is head on, the molecular orbital is called Sigma, () and if the
overlap is lateral, the molecular orbital is called pi, (). The molecular orbitals
are filled with electrons according to the same rules as followed for filling of atomic
orbitals. However, the order for filling is not the same for all molecules or their
ions. Bond order is one of the most important parameters to compare the strength
of bonds.
65. Which of the following statements is correct?

In the formation of dioxygen from oxygen atoms 10 molecular orbitals

will be formed.

(i)

(ii)

All the molecular orbitals in the dioxygen will be completely filled.

(iii)

Total number of bonding molecular orbitals will not be same as total

number of anti bonding orbitals in dioxygen.

(iv)

Number of filled bonding orbitals will be same as number of filled anti

bonding orbitals.

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

66. Which of the following molecular orbitals has maximum number of nodal
planes?
(i)

*1s

(ii)

*2p z

(iii)

2px

(iv)

*2py

67. Which of the following pair is expected to have the same bond order?
(i)

O2 , N2

(ii)

O2+ , N2
+

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(iii)

O2 , N2

(iv)

O2, N 2

68. In which of the following molecules, 2pz molecular orbital is filled after 2px
and 2py molecular orbitals?
O2

(ii)

Ne2

(iii)

(iv)

(i)

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (ii)

2. (iii)

3. (ii)

4. (ii)

5. (ii)

6. (iv)

7. (i)

8. (iii)

9. (iii)

10. (iii)

11. (ii)

12. (iv)

13. (ii)

14. (i)

15. (ii)

16. (iv)

17. (ii)

18. (i)

19. (iv)

20. (ii)

21. (i)

22. (ii)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

23. (i), (ii)

24. (i), (iv)

25. (i), (ii)

26. (iii), (iv)

27. (iii), (iv)

28. (i), (iv)

29. (iii), (iv)

30. (i), (ii)

III. Short Answer Type

32.

(i)

According to molecular orbital theory electronic configurations of

O2 and O 2 species are as follows :

O2 : (1s) (* 1s ) (2s) (* 2s ) (2p z) (2p2x , 2p 2y) (* 2px1 )
+

O2 : (1s)2 (* 1s2 ) (2s)2 (* 2s2 ) (2pz) 2 (2p2x , 2p2y ) (* 2px2 , *2py1)

Bond order of O+2 =

10 5
5
=
= 2.5
2
2

10 7 3
= = 1.5
2
2
Higher bond order of O2+ shows that it is more stable than O2 . Both the
species have unpaired electrons. So both are paramagnetic in nature.

Bond order of O2 =

(a)

Compound (I) will form intramolecular hydrogen bond because

NO 2 and OH group are close together in comparison to that in
compound (II).

34.

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Compound (II) will have higher melting point because it forms

intermolecular hydrogen bonds. Thus, more and more molecules
are joined together through hydrogen bond formation.

(c)

Due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding compound (I) will not be

able to form hydrogen bonds with water thus will be less soluble in
it while compound (II) can form hydrogen bond with water more
easily and will be soluble in water.

[Hint : Dimethyl ether will have larger bond angle. There will be more
repulsion between bond pairs of CH3 groups attached in ether than
between bond pairs of hydrogen atoms attached to oxygen in water. The
carbon of CH3 in ether is attached to three hydrogen atoms through
bonds and electron pairs of these bonds add to the electronic charge density
on carbon atom. Hence, repulsion between two CH3 groups will be more
than that between two hydrogen atoms.]

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

37.

(b)

IV. Matching Type

52.

(i) (c)

(ii) (a)

(iii) (e)

(iv) (d)

53.

(i) (e)

(ii) (a)

(iii) (b)

(iv) (c)

54.

(i) (c)

(ii) (d)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (b)

55.

(i) (d)

(ii) (e)

(iii) (b)

(iv) (a)

56.

(i) (c)

(ii) (a)

(iii) (b)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

58. (i)

59. (iv)

65. (i)

66. (ii)

67. (ii)

57. (i)

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

68. (iii)

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

STATE
S OF MA
TTER
TES
MAT
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1.

A person living in Shimla observed that cooking food without using pressure
cooker takes more time. The reason for this observation is that at high altitude:
(i)
(ii)

pressure increases
temperature decreases

(iii)
(iv)

pressure decreases
temperature increases

Which of the following property of water can be used to explain the spherical
shape of rain droplets?
(i)

(ii)
(iii)

surface tension
critical phenomena

(iv)

pressure

A plot of volume (V ) versus

temperature (T ) for a gas at
constant pressure is a
straight line passing
through the origin. The
plots at different values of
pressure are shown in
Fig. 5.1. Which of the
following order of pressure
is correct for this gas?

viscosity

(i)

p 1 > p2 > p3 > p4

(ii)

p 1 = p2 = p3 = p4

(iii)

p 1 < p2 < p3 < p4

(iv)

p 1 < p2 = p3 < p4

Fig. 5.1

(i)

charge of interacting particles

(ii)

mass of interacting particles

(iii)

polarisability of interacting particles

(iv)

strength of permanent dipoles in the particles.

Dipole-dipole forces act between the molecules possessing permanent dipole.

Ends of dipoles possess partial charges. The partial charge is
(i)

more than unit electronic charge

(ii)

equal to unit electronic charge

(iii)

less than unit electronic charge

(iv)

double the unit electronic charge

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

The interaction energy of London force is inversely proportional to sixth power

of the distance between two interacting particles but their magnitude depends
upon

The pressure of a 1:4 mixture of dihydrogen and dioxygen enclosed in a vessel

is one atmosphere. What would be the partial pressure of dioxygen?
(i)

0.8105 atm

(ii)

0.008 Nm2

(iii)

810 Nm

(iv)

0.25 atm

As the temperature increases, average kinetic energy of molecules increases.

What would be the effect of increase of temperature on pressure provided the
volume is constant?
(i)

increases

(ii)

decreases

(iii)

remains same

(iv)

becomes half

Gases possess characteristic critical temperature which depends upon the

magnitude of intermolecular forces between the particles. Following are the
critical temperatures of some gases.
Gases

33.2

5.3

154.3

126

Critical temperature

in Kelvin

From the above data what would be the order of liquefaction of these gases?
Start writing the order from the gas liquefying first
(i)

H2, He, O2, N 2

(ii)

He, O2, H2, N2

(iii)

N2, O2, He, H2

(iv)

O2, N2, H2, He

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

9. What is SI unit of viscosity coefficient ()?

(i)

Pascal

(ii)

Nsm2

(iii)

km 2 s

(iv)

N m2

10. Atmospheric pressures recorded in different cities are as follows:

Shimla

Bangalore

Delhi

Mumbai

p in N/m2

1.01105

1.2105

1.02105

1.21105

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Cities

Consider the above data and mark the place at which liquid will boil first.
(i)

Shimla

(ii)

Bangalore

(iii)

Delhi

(iv)

Mumbai

11. Which curve in Fig. 5.2

represents the curve of ideal
gas?
(i) B only
(ii)

C and D only

(iii)

E and F only

(iv)

A and B only

12. Increase in kinetic energy can

overcome intermolecular
forces of attraction. How will
the viscosity of liquid be
affected by the increase in
temperature?
Increase

(ii)

No effect

(iii)

Decrease

(iv)

No regular pattern will be followed

Fig. 5.2

(i)

13. How does the surface tension of a liquid vary with increase in temperature?
(i)

Remains same

(ii)

Decreases

(iii)

Increases

(iv)

No regular pattern is followed

States of Matter

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.
14. With regard to the gaseous state of matter which of the following statements
are correct?
Complete order of molecules

(ii)

Complete disorder of molecules

(iii)

Random motion of molecules

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

(iv)

Fixed position of molecules

15. Which of the following figures does not represent 1 mole of dioxygen gas at
STP?
(i)

16 grams of gas

(ii)

22.7 litres of gas

(iii)

6.022 10 dioxygen molecules

(iv)

11.2 litres of gas

16. Under which of the following two conditions applied together, a gas deviates
most from the ideal behaviour?
(i)

Low pressure

(ii)

High pressure

(iii)

Low temperature

(iv)

High temperature

17. Which of the following changes decrease the vapour pressure of water kept in
a sealed vessel?
Decreasing the quantity of water

(ii)

Adding salt to water

(iii)

Decreasing the volume of the vessel to one-half

(iv)

Decreasing the temperature of water

(i)

III. Short Answer Type

18. If 1 gram of each of the following gases are taken at STP, which of the gases
will occupy (a) greatest volume and (b) smallest volume?
CO,

H 2O,

CH4,

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

19. Physical properties of ice, water and steam are very different. What is the
chemical composition of water in all the three states.
20. The behaviour of matter in different states is governed by various physical
laws. According to you what are the factors that determine the state of matter?
Use the information and data given below to answer the questions (a) to (c):

Stronger intermolecular forces result in higher boiling point.

Strength of London forces increases with the number of electrons in the

molecule.

Boiling point of HF, HCl, HBr and HI are 293 K, 189 K, 206 K and
238 K respectively.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

21.

(a) Which type of intermolecular forces are present in the molecules

HF, HCl, HBr and HI?
(b) Looking at the trend of boiling points of HCl, HBr and HI, explain
out of dipole-dipole interaction and London interaction, which one
is predominant here.
(c)

Why is boiling point of hydrogen fluoride highest while that of

hydrogen chloride lowest?

22. What will be the molar volume of nitrogen and argon at 273.15K and 1 atm?
23. A gas that follows Boyles law, Charles law and Avogadros law is called an
ideal gas. Under what conditions a real gas would behave ideally?

24. Two different gases A and B are filled in separate containers of equal capacity
under the same conditions of temperature and pressure. On increasing the
pressure slightly the gas A liquefies but gas B does not liquify even on applying
high pressure until it is cooled. Explain this phenomenon.
25. Value of universal gas constant (R) is same for all gases. What is its physical
significance?

26. One of the assumptions of kinetic theory of gases states that there is no force
of attraction between the molecules of a gas. How far is this statement correct?
Is it possible to liquefy an ideal gas? Explain.

27. The magnitude of surface tension of liquid depends on the attractive forces
between the molecules. Arrange the following in increasing order of surface
tension :
water, alcohol (C2H5OH) and hexane [CH3(CH2)4CH3)].

28. Pressure exerted by saturated water vapour is called aqueous tension. What
correction term will you apply to the total pressure to obtain pressure of
dry gas?
29. Name the energy which arises due to motion of atoms or molecules in a body.
How is this energy affected when the temperature is increased?
57

States of Matter

30. Name two intermolecular forces that exist between HF molecules in liquid
state.
31. One of the assumptions of kinetic theory of gases is that there is no force of
attraction between the molecules of a gas.
State and explain the evidence that shows that the assumption is not applicable
for real gases.
32. Compressibility factor, Z, of a gas is given as Z =
What is the value of Z for an ideal gas?

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

pV
nRT

(ii)

For real gas what will be the effect on value of Z above Boyles temperature?

33. The critical temperature (Tc) and critical pressure ( pc ) of CO2 are 30.98C and
73 atm respectively. Can CO2 ( g) be liquefied at 32C and 80 atm pressure?

34. For real gases the relation between p, V and T is given by van der Waals
equation:
2

an
p + V 2 (V -n b) = n RT

where a and b are van der Waals constants, nb is approximately equal to

the total volume of the molecules of a gas.
a is the measure of magnitude of intermolecular attraction.
(i)

Arrange the following gases in the increasing order of b. Give reason.

O2, CO2, H2, He

(ii)

Arrange the following gases in the decreasing order of magnitude of a.

Give reason.
CH4, O2, H2

35. The relation between pressure exerted by an ideal gas (p ideal) and observed
pressure (preal) is given by the equation
an
V

p ideal

= p re al +

If pressure is taken in Nm 2, number of moles in mol and volume in m3,

Calculate the unit of a.
What will be the unit of a when pressure is in atmosphere and volume in
dm3?

36. Name two phenomena that can be explained on the basis of surface tension.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

37. Viscosity of a liquid arises due to strong intermolecular forces existing between
the molecules. Stronger the intermolecular forces, greater is the viscosity.
Name the intermolecular forces existing in the following liquids and arrange
them in the increasing order of their viscosities. Also give reason for the
assigned order in one line.
Water, hexane (CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3), glycerine (CH2OH CH(OH) CH2OH)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

38. Explain the effect of increasing the temperature of a liquid, on intermolecular

forces operating between its particles, what will happen to the viscosity of a
liquid if its temperature is increased?
39. The variation of pressure with
volume of the gas at different
temperatures
can
be
graphically represented as
shown in Fig. 5.3.
On the basis of this graph
answer the following questions.

How will the volume of a

gas change if its pressure
is increased at constant
temperature?

(ii)

At a constant pressure,
how will the volume of a
gas change if the
temperature is increased
from 200K to 400K?

Fig. 5.3

Pressure versus volume graph

for a real gas and an ideal gas
are shown in Fig. 5.4. Answer
the following questions on the
basis of this graph.
(i)

Interpret the behaviour

of real gas with respect to
ideal gas at low pressure.

(ii)

Interpret the behaviour

of real gas with respect
to ideal gas at high
pressure.

(iii)

Mark the pressure and

volume by drawing a
line at the point where
real gas behaves as an
ideal gas.

40.

(i)

Fig. 5.4
59

States of Matter

IV. Matching Type

41. Match the graphs between the following variables with their names :
Graphs

Names

(i)

Pressure vs temperature
graph at constant molar volume.

(a)

Isotherms

(ii)

Pressure vs volume graph

at constant temperature.

(b)

Constant temperature curve

Volume vs temperature graph

at constant pressure.

(c)

Isochores

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(iii)

(d) Isobars

42. Match the following gas laws with the equation representing them.
(i) Boyles law

(a) V n at constant T and p

(ii) Charles law

(b) p Total = p1 + p2 + p3+...... at constant T, V

(iii) Daltons law

(c)

(iv) Avogadro law

(d) V T at constant n and p

(e)

pV
= Constant
T

1
at constant n and T
V

43. Match the following graphs of ideal gas with their co-ordinates :
Graphical representation

x and y co-ordinates

(a)

pV vs. V

(ii)

(b)

p vs. V

(c)

p vs.

(i)

(iii)

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

1
V

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement
of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given
below each question.
44. Assertion (A): Three states of matter are the result of balance between
intermolecular forces and thermal energy of the molecules.
Reason (R):

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

Intermolecular forces tend to keep the molecules together but

thermal energy of molecules tends to keep them apart.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

A is false but R is true.

45. Assertion (A): At constant temperature, pV vs V plot for real gases is not a
straight line.
Reason (R) :

At high pressure all gases have Z > 1 but at intermediate

pressure most gases have Z < 1.

(i)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

A is false but R is true.

46. Assertion (A): The temperature at which vapour pressure of a liquid is equal
to the external pressure is called boiling temperature.
Reason (R) :

At high altitude atmospheric pressure is high.

(i)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

A is false but R is true.

47. Assertion (A): Gases do not liquefy above their critical temperature, even
on applying high pressure.

Reason (R) :

Above critical temperature, the molecular speed is high and

intermolecular attractions cannot hold the molecules together
because they escape because of high speed.

(i)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

A is false but R is true.

48. Assertion (A): At critical temperature liquid passes into gaseous state
imperceptibly and continuously.
61

States of Matter

Reason (R) :

The density of liquid and gaseous phase is equal to critical

temperature.

(i)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

A is false but R is true.

49. Assertion (A): Liquids tend to have maximum number of molecules at their
surface.
Small liquid drops have spherical shape.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Reason (R) :
(i)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

A is false but R is true.

VI. Long Answer Type

50. Isotherms of carbon dioxide
at various temperatures are
represented in Fig. 5.5.
Answer the following questions
based on this figure.

In which state will CO2

exist between the points
a and b at temperature
T 1?

(ii)

At what point will CO2

start liquefying when
temperature is T1?

(iii)

At what point will CO2 be

completely liquefied
when temperature is T 2.

(iv)

Will condensation take

place
when
the
temperature is T 3.

(i)

(v)

What portion of the

isotherm at T1 represent
liquid and gaseous CO 2
at equilibrium?

Fig. 5.5

51. The variation of vapour pressure of different liquids with temperature is shown
in Fig. 5.6.
(i)

Calculate graphically boiling points of liquids A and B.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

If we take liquid C in a closed vessel and heat it continuously. At what

temperature will it boil?

(iii)

At high altitude, atmospheric pressure is low (say 60 mm Hg). At what

temperature liquid D boils?

(iv)

Pressure cooker is used for cooking food at hill station. Explain in terms
of vapour pressure why is it so?

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(ii)

Fig. 5.6

52. Why does the boundary between liquid phase and gaseous phase disappear
on heating a liquid upto critical temperature in a closed vessel? In this situation
what will be the state of the substance?
53. Why does sharp glass edge become smooth on heating it upto its melting
point in a flame? Explain which property of liquids is responsible for this
phenomenon.
63

States of Matter

54. Explain the term laminar flow. Is the velocity of molecules same in all the
layers in laminar flow? Explain your answer.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

55. Isotherms of carbon dioxide gas are shown in Fig. 5.7. Mark a path for
changing gas into liquid such that only one phase (i.e., either a gas or a liquid)
exists at any time during the change. Explain how the temperature, volume
and pressure should be changed to carry out the change.

Fig. 5.7

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (iii)

2. (ii)

3. (iii)

4. (iii)

5. (iii)

6. (iii)

7. (i)

8. (iv)

9. (ii)

10. (i)

11. (i)

12. (iii)

13. (ii)
II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)
15. (i), (iv)

16. (ii), (iii)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

14. (ii), (iii)

17. (ii), (iv)

III. Short Answer Type

18.

a. CH4

b. NO

19.

Remains the same i.e., H2O.

20.

Pressure, temperature, mass and volume

21.

(a)

In HCl, HBr and HI, dipole-dipole and London forces because

molecules possess permanent dipole. In HF dipole-dipole, London
forces and hydrogen bonding.

(b)

Electronegativity of chlorine, bromine and iodine decreases in the

order :
Cl > Br > I

Therefore, dipole moment should decrease from HCl to HI. Thus,

dipole-dipole interaction should decrease from HCl to HI. But boiling
point increases on moving from HCl to HI. This means that London
forces are predominant. This is so because London forces increase
as the number of electrons in a molecule increases and in this case
number of electrons is increasing from HCl towards HI.

(c)

Hydrogen fluoride has highest dipole moment due to highest

electronegativity of fluorine and hydrogen bonding is also present in
it. Therefore, HF has highest boiling point.

22.4 litre

23.

Low pressure and high temperature

24.

Gas A is at or below its critical temperature and gas B is at a temperature

higher than critical temperature.

25.

Unit of R depends upon those units in which p, V and T are measured,

22.

pV
. If pressure is measured in Pascal, per mole volume is measured
nT
in m3 and temperature is measured in Kelven then. Units of R are
1
1
1
1
Pam3K mol or J mol K . Jule is the unit of work done so R is work
done per mole per kelvin.

States of Matter

26.

In the absence of intermolecular forces of attraction, it will not be possible

to liquefy ideal gas.

27.

hexane < alcohol < water

28.

PDry gas = PTotal aqueous tension

29.

Thermal energy. It is a measure of average kinetic energy of particles. It

increases with increase in temperature.

30.

(i)

Dipole - dipole interaction

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(ii) Hydrogen - bonding

31.

Real gases can be liquefied on cooling and compressing proving that forces
of attraction exist between the molecules.

32.

(i)

Z = 1 for ideal gas

(ii)

For a real gas Z > 1 above Boyles temperature.

33.

CO2 cannot be liquefied at 32C by applying a pressure of 80 atm. This is

because the temperature is greater than critical temperature of CO2.

34.

(i)

H 2 < He < O2 < CO2 because size increases in the same order.

(ii)

CH 4 > O2 > H 2 intermolecular attractions are the highest in CH4 and

lowest in H 2 because intermolecular forces increase with number of
electrons in a molecule.

35.

pideal = p re al +

We write the known units in the above equation.

Nm = Nm

a . mol
3 2

(m )

If two values with same units are added then the units of result are same
as added units.
2

-2

a .mol
m

a =

Nm .m

mol

a = Nm4 mol2

Similarly, when p is in atm and volume in dm3

3 2

a =

atm(dm )
2

mol

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

= atm dm6 mol2

36.
37.

(i)

Rise or fall of the liquid in a capillary - capillary action.

(ii)

Spherical shape of small liquid drops.

In water and glycerine Hydrogen bonding. Hexane Dispersion forces/

London forces. The order of viscosities of these liquids is hexane < water
< glycerine.
Hexane has weakest intermolecular forces and glycerine the strongest.
(three OH groups). Therefore, hexane has minimum viscosity and glycerine
has maximum viscosity.
The viscosity of a liquid decreases with the increase in temperature since
the kinetic energy of the molecules can overcome intermolecular forces.
So the liquid can flow more easily.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

38.

39.

(1)

The volume of a gas will decrease if the pressure on the gas is increased
keeping the temperature constant.

(2)

On increasing temperature, the volume of a gas will increase if the

pressure is kept constant.

IV. Matching Type

41.

(i) (c)

(ii) (a)

(iii) (d)

42.

(i) (e)

(ii) (d)

(iii) (b)

43.

(i) (b)

(ii) (c)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (a)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

44. (i)

45. (ii)

46. (iii)

47. (i)

48. (i)

49. (iv)

VI. Long Answer Type

50.

(i)

(iii)

(ii)

at point b

at point g

(iv)

No, since T 3 > Tc

(v)

between b and c.

(i)

Boiling point of A = approximately 315 K, B = approximately 345 K

(ii)

Will not boil

(iii)

approximately 313 K

(iv)

A liquid boils when vapour pressure becomes equal to the

atmospheric pressure. Water boils at low temperature on hills
because atmospheric pressure is low. Therefore even at low
temperature vapour pressure becomes equal to atmospheric
pressure.

51.

gaseous state

States of Matter

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

THERMODYNAMICS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1.

(i)

energy changes involved in a chemical reaction.

(ii)

the extent to which a chemical reaction proceeds.

(iii)

the rate at which a reaction proceeds.

(iv)

the feasibility of a chemical reaction.

Which of the following statements is correct?

(i)

The presence of reacting species in a covered beaker is an example of

open system.

(ii)

There is an exchange of energy as well as matter between the system

and the surroundings in a closed system.

(iii)

The presence of reactants in a closed vessel made up of copper is an

example of a closed system.

(iv)

The presence of reactants in a thermos flask or any other closed insulated

vessel is an example of a closed system.

The state of a gas can be described by quoting the relationship between___.

(i)

pressure, volume, temperature

(ii)

temperature, amount, pressure

Thermodynamics is not concerned about______.

(iii)

amount, volume, temperature

(iv)

pressure, volume, temperature, amount

The volume of gas is reduced to half from its original volume. The specific
heat will be ______.
(i)

reduce to half

(ii)

be doubled

remain constant

(iv)

increase four times

During complete combustion of one mole of butane, 2658 kJ of heat is released.

The thermochemical reaction for above change is
(i)

2C 4H 10(g) + 13O2(g) 8CO2(g) + 10H2O(l ) cH = 2658.0 kJ mol

(ii)

C4H10(g) +

13
O (g) 4CO2 (g) + 5H2O (g) cH = 1329.0 kJ mol1
2 2

(iii)

C4H10(g) +

13
1
O (g) 4CO2 (g) + 5H2O (l ) cH = 2658.0 kJ mol
2 2

(iv)

C4H10 (g) +

13
O (g) 4CO2 (g) + 5H2O (l ) cH = +2658.0 kJ mol1
2 2

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(iii)

f U of formation of CH4 (g) at certain temperature is 393 kJ mol1. The

value of f H V is
(i)

zero

(ii)

< f U V

(iii)

> f U V

(iv)

equal to f U

In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place between system and

surroundings. Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas
under adiabatic condition from the following.
(i)

q = 0, T 0, w = 0

(ii)

q 0, T = 0, w = 0

(iii)

q = 0, T = 0, w = 0

(iv)

q = 0, T < 0, w 0

The pressure-volume work for an ideal gas can be calculated by using the
Vf

expression w = pex dV . The work can also be calculated from the pV plot
Vi

by using the area under the curve within the specified limits. When an ideal
gas is compressed (a) reversibly or (b) irreversibly from volume Vi to Vf . choose
the correct option.
(i)

w (reversible) = w (irreversible)

(ii)

w (reversible) < w (irreversible)

(iii)

w (reversible) > w (irreversible)

(iv)

w (reversible) = w (irreversible) + pex.V

Thermodynamics

9. The entropy change can be calculated by using the expression S =

qrev

.
T
When water freezes in a glass beaker, choose the correct statement amongst
the following :
(i)

S (system) decreases but S (surroundings) remains the same.

(ii)

S (system) increases but S (surroundings) decreases.

(iii)

S (system) decreases but S (surroundings) increases.

(iv)

S (system) decreases and S (surroundings) also decreases.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

10. On the basis of thermochemical equations (a), (b) and (c), find out which of the
algebric relationships given in options (i) to (iv) is correct.
(a)

C (graphite) + O2 (g) CO2 (g) ; rH = x kJ mol1

(b)

C (graphite) +

(c)

CO (g) +

(i)

z=x+ y

(ii)

x=y z

(iii)

x= y +z

(iv)

y = 2z x

1
1
O (g) CO (g) ; r H = y kJ mol
2 2

1
O (g) CO2 (g) ; r H = z kJ mol 1
2 2

11. Consider the reactions given below. On the basis of these reactions find out
which of the algebric relations given in options (i) to (iv) is correct?
(a)

C (g) + 4 H (g) CH4 (g); r H = x kJ mol1

(b)

C (graphite,s) + 2H2 (g) CH4 (g); r H = y kJ mol1

(i)

x= y

(ii)

x = 2y

(iii)

x> y

(iv)

x< y

12. The enthalpies of elements in their standard states are taken as zero. The
enthalpy of formation of a compound
(i)

is always negative

(ii)

is always positive

(iii)

may be positive or negative

(iv)

is never negative

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

13. Enthalpy of sublimation of a substance is equal to

(i)

enthalpy of fusion + enthalpy of vapourisation

(ii)

enthalpy of fusion

(iii)

enthalpy of vapourisation

(iv)

twice the enthalpy of vapourisation

14. Which of the following is not correct?

(i)

G is zero for a reversible reaction

(ii)

G is positive for a spontaneous reaction

(iii)

G is negative for a spontaneous reaction

G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d
(iv)

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.
15. Thermodynamics mainly deals with
(i)

interrelation of various forms of energy and their transformation from

one form to another.

(ii)

energy changes in the processes which depend only on initial and final
states of the microscopic systems containing a few molecules.

(iii)

how and at what rate these energy transformations are carried out.

(iv)

the system in equilibrium state or moving from one equilibrium state to

another equilibrium state.

16. In an exothermic reaction, heat is evolved, and system loses heat to the
surrounding. For such system
(i)

qp will be negative

(ii)

rH will be negative

(iii)

qp will be positive

(iv)

rH will be positive

17. The spontaneity means, having the potential to proceed without the assistance
of external agency. The processes which occur spontaneously are
flow of heat from colder to warmer body.

(i)

(ii)

gas in a container contracting into one corner.

(iii)

gas expanding to fill the available volume.

(iv)

burning carbon in oxygen to give carbon dioxide.

18. For an ideal gas, the work of reversible expansion under isothermal condition
Vf
can be calculated by using the expression w = nRT ln V

Thermodynamics

A sample containing 1.0 mol of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally and

reversibly to ten times of its original volume, in two separate experiments.
The expansion is carried out at 300 K and at 600 K respectively. Choose the
correct option.
(i)

Work done at 600 K is 20 times the work done at 300 K.

(ii)

Work done at 300 K is twice the work done at 600 K.

(iii)

Work done at 600 K is twice the work done at 300 K.

(iv)

U = 0 in both cases.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

19. Consider the following reaction between zinc and oxygen and choose the correct
options out of the options given below :
2 Zn (s) + O2 (g) 2 ZnO (s) ;

H = 693.8 kJ mol1

(i)

The enthalpy of two moles of ZnO is less than the total enthalpy of two
moles of Zn and one mole of oxygen by 693.8 kJ.

(ii)

The enthalpy of two moles of ZnO is more than the total enthalpy of two
moles of Zn and one mole of oxygen by 693.8 kJ.

(iii)

693.8 kJ mol1 energy is evolved in the reaction.

(iv)

693.8 kJ mol1 energy is absorbed in the reaction.

III. Short Answer Type

20. 18.0 g of water completely vapourises at 100C and 1 bar pressure and the
1
enthalpy change in the process is 40.79 kJ mol . What will be the enthalpy
change for vapourising two moles of water under the same conditions? What
is the standard enthalphy of vapourisation for water?
21. One mole of acetone requires less heat to vapourise than 1 mol of water. Which
of the two liquids has higher enthalpy of vapourisation?
V

22. Standard molar enthalpy of formation, f H is just a special case of enthalpy

of reaction, r HV. Is the r H V for the following reaction same as f HV? Give
reason for your answer.
CaO(s) + CO2(g) CaCO3(s);

f H = 178.3 kJ mol

23. The value of f HV for NH3 is 91.8 kJ mol1. Calculate enthalpy change for the
following reaction :

2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g)

24. Enthalpy is an extensive property. In general, if enthalpy of an overall reaction

AB along one route is r H and r H 1, rH 2, r H3 ..... represent enthalpies of
intermediate reactions leading to product B. What will be the relation between
r H for overall reaction and r H1 , r H2 ..... etc. for intermediate reactions.

25. The enthalpy of atomisation for the reaction CH4(g) C(g) + 4H (g) is
1665 kJ mol1. What is the bond energy of CH bond?
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

26. Use the following data to calculate lattice HV for NaBr.

sub HV for sodium metal = 108.4 kJ mol1
1

Ionization enthalpy of sodium = 496 kJ mol

Electron gain enthalpy of bromine = 325 kJ mol1

Bond dissociation enthalpy of bromine = 192 kJ mol1
f HV for NaBr (s) = 360.1 kJ mol1
27. Given that H = 0 for mixing of two gases. Explain whether the diffusion of these
gases into each other in a closed container is a spontaneous process or not?

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

28. Heat has randomising influence on a system and temperature is the measure
of average chaotic motion of particles in the system. Write the mathematical
relation which relates these three parameters.
29. Increase in enthalpy of the surroundings is equal to decrease in enthalpy of
the system. Will the temperature of system and surroundings be the same
when they are in thermal equilibrium?
30. At 298 K. Kp for the reaction N2O4 (g) U 2NO2 (g) is 0.98. Predict whether the
reaction is spontaneous or not.

31. A sample of 1.0 mol of a monoatomic ideal gas is taken through a cyclic
process of expansion and compression as shown in Fig. 6.1. What will be the
value of H for the cycle as a whole?

Fig. : 6.1

32. The standard molar entropy of H2O (l ) is 70 J K 1 mol1. Will the standard
molar entropy of H 2O(s) be more, or less than 70 J K1 mol1?
33. Identify the state functions and path functions out of the following :
enthalpy, entropy, heat, temperature, work, free energy.

34. The molar enthalpy of vapourisation of acetone is less than that of water. Why?
35. Which quantity out of rG and rG V will be zero at equilibrium?
36. Predict the change in internal energy for an isolated system at constant volume.
73

Thermodynamics

37. Although heat is a path function but heat absorbed by the system under
certain specific conditions is independent of path. What are those conditions?
Explain.
38. Expansion of a gas in vacuum is called free expansion. Calculate the work
done and the change in internal energy when 1 litre of ideal gas expands
isothermally into vacuum until its total volume is 5 litre?
39. Heat capacity (Cp ) is an extensive property but specific heat (c) is an intensive
property. What will be the relation between C p and c for 1 mol of water?

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

40. The difference between CP and C V can be derived using the empirical relation
H = U + pV. Calculate the difference between CP and CV for 10 moles of an ideal gas.
41. If the combustion of 1g of graphite produces 20.7 kJ of heat, what will be
molar enthalpy change? Give the significance of sign also.
42. The net enthalpy change of a reaction is the amount of energy required to
break all the bonds in reactant molecules minus amount of energy required
to form all the bonds in the product molecules. What will be the enthalpy
change for the following reaction.
H 2(g) + Br2(g) 2HBr(g)

Given that Bond energy of H2, Br2 and HBr is 435 kJ mol , 192 kJ mol and
368 kJ mol 1 respectively.
1

43. The enthalpy of vapourisation of CCl 4 is 30.5 kJ mol . Calculate the heat
required for the vapourisation of 284 g of CCl 4 at constant pressure. (Molar
mass of CCl 4 = 154 g mol 1).
44. The enthalpy of reaction for the reaction :

2H2(g) + O 2(g) 2H2O(l) is r HV = 572 kJ mol1.

What will be standard enthalpy of formation of

H 2O (l ) ?

45. What will be the work done on an ideal gas enclosed

in a cylinder, when it is compressed by a constant
external pressure, p ext in a single step as shown in
Fig. 6.2. Explain graphically.
46. How will you calculate work done on an ideal gas
in a compression, when change in pressure is
carried out in infinite steps?

Fig. : 6.2

47. Represent the potential energy/enthalpy change in

the following processes graphically.
(a)

Throwing a stone from the ground to roof.

(b)

1
1
H (g) +
Cl (g) U HCl(g)
2 2
2 2

rH V= 92.32 kJ mol1

In which of the processes potential energy/enthalpy change is contributing

factor to the spontaneity?
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

48. Enthalpy diagram for a particular reaction is

given in Fig. 6.3. Is it possible to decide
spontaneity of a reaction from given diagram.
Explain.
49. 1 . 0 m o l o f a m o no a t o m i c i d e a l g a s i s
expanded from state (1) to state (2) as shown in
Fig. 6.4. Calculate the work done for the expansion
of gas from state (1) to state (2) at 298 K.
Fig. : 6.3

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

50. An ideal gas is allowed to expand against a

constant pressure of 2 bar from 10 L to 50 L in
one step. Calculate the amount of work done by
the gas. If the same expansion were carried out
reversibly, will the work done be higher or lower
than the earlier case?
(Given that 1 L bar = 100 J)

IV. Matching Type

Fig. : 6.4

In the following questions more than one correlation is possible between

options of both columns.
51. Match the following :
A

Adiabatic process

(a) Heat

(ii)

Isolated system

(b) At constant volume

(iii)

Isothermal change

(c) First law of thermodynamics

(iv)

Path function

(d) No exchange of energy and matter

(v)

State function

(e) No transfer of heat

(vi)

U = q

(f)

(vii)

Law of conservation of energy

(g) Internal energy

(viii)

Reversible process

(h) pext = 0

(ix)

Free expansion

(i)

At constant pressure

(x)

H = q

(j)

Infinitely slow process which

proceeds through a series of
equilibrium states.

(xi)

Intensive property

(k) Entropy

(xii)

Extensive property

(l)

(i)

Constant temperature

Pressure

(m) Specific heat

Thermodynamics

52. Match the following processes with entropy change:

Reaction

Entropy change

(i)

A liquid vapourises

(a) S = 0

(ii)

Reaction is non-spontaneous
at all temperatures and H
is positive

(b) S = positive

(iii)

Reversible expansion of an

ideal gas

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

53. Match the following parameters with description for spontaneity :

(Parameters)
r HV
r SV
r GV

(i)

(ii)

+ at high T

(iii)

Description

(a) Non-spontaneous at high

temperature.

(b) Spontaneous at all temperatures

54. Match the following :

(i) Entropy of vapourisation

(a)

decreases

(ii) K for spontaneous process

(b)

is always positive

(iii) Crystalline solid state

(c)

lowest entropy

(iv) U in adiabatic expansion

(d)

H vap
Tb

of ideal gas

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement

of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given
below each question.

55. Assertion (A): Combustion of all organic compounds is an exothermic

reaction.
Reason (R) :

The enthalpies of all elements in their standard state are zero.

(i)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

A is false but R is true.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

56. Assertion (A) : Spontaneous process is an irreversible process and may be

reversed by some external agency.
Reason (R) :

Decrease in enthalpy is a contributory factor for spontaneity.

(i)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

A is false but R is true.

57. Assertion (A) : A liquid crystallises into a solid and is accompanied by

decrease in entropy.
In crystals, molecules organise in an ordered manner.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Reason (R) :
(i)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

A is false but R is true.

VI. Long Answer Type

58. Derive the relationship between H and U for an ideal gas. Explain each
term involved in the equation.
59. Extensive properties depend on the quantity of matter but intensive properties
do not. Explain whether the following properties are extensive or intensive.

Mass, internal energy, pressure, heat capacity, molar heat capacity, density,
mole fraction, specific heat, temperature and molarity.

60. The lattice enthalpy of an ionic compound is the enthalpy when one mole of
an ionic compound present in its gaseous state, dissociates into its ions. It is
impossible to determine it directly by experiment. Suggest and explain an
indirect method to measure lattice enthalpy of NaCl(s).
61. G is net energy available to do useful work and is thus a measure of free
energy. Show mathematically that G is a measure of free energy. Find the
unit of G. If a reaction has positive enthalpy change and positive entropy
change, under what condition will the reaction be spontaneous?

62. Graphically show the total work done in an expansion when the state of an
ideal gas is changed reversibly and isothermally from (pi , Vi ) to (pf , Vf ). With
the help of a pV plot compare the work done in the above case with that
carried out against a constant external pressure pf .

Thermodynamics

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (iii)

2. (iii)

3. (iv)

4. (iii)

5. (iii)

6. (ii)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

7. (iii)
Justification : free expansion
w=0
adiabatic process q = 0
U = q + w = 0, this means that internal energy remains
constant. Therefore, T = 0.
In ideal gas there is no intermolecular attraction. Hence when such a gas
expands under adiabatic conditions into a vaccum no heat is absorbed or
evolved since no external work is done to separate the molecules.

8. (ii) w (reversible) < w (irreversible)

Justification : Area under the curve is always more in irreversible
compression as can be seen from Fig. 6.5 (a) and (b).

(a) Reversible compression

(b) Irreversible compression

Fig. : 6.5

9. (iii)

Justification : Freezing is exothermic process. The heat released increases

the entropy of surrounding.

10. (iii)

11. (iii)

Justification : Same bonds are formed in reaction (a) and (b) but bonds
between reactant molecules are broken only in reaction (b).

12. (iii)

13. (i)

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

14. (ii)

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

15. (i), (iv)

16. (i), (ii)

17. (iii), (iv)

18. (iii), (iv)

w 600K
Justification : w 300K

10
1 = 600 = 2
=
10
300
1 R 300 K ln
1
1 R 600 K ln

For isothermal expansion of ideal gases, U = 0

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

since temperature is constant this means there is no change in internal energy.

Therefore, U = 0

19. (i), (iii)

III. Short Answer Type

20.

+ 81.58 kJ, vapH = + 40.79 kJ mol

21.

Water

22.

No, since CaCO3 has been formed from other compounds and not from its
constituent elements.

23.

r H

24.

r H = r H 1+ r H2 + r H3 .....

25.

1665
1
1
kJ mol = 416.2 kJ mol
4

26.

+735.5 kJ mol 1

27.

It is spontaneous process. Although enthalpy change is zero but

randomness or disorder (i.e., S ) increases. Therefore, in equation
G = H TS, the term TS will be negative. Hence, G will be negative.

28.

S =

29.

Yes

30.

The reaction is spontaneous

= +91.8 kJ mol1

qrev
T

r G = RT ln K p

31.

H (cycle) = 0

32.

Less, because ice is more ordered than H 2O (l ).

33.

State Functions : Enthalpy, Entropy, Temperature, Free energy

Path Functions : Heat, Work
79

Thermodynamics

34.

Because of strong hydrogen bonding in water, its enthalpy of

vapourisation is more.

35.

r G will always be zero.

r G is zero for K = 1 because G = RT lnK, G will be non zero for

other values of K.
36.

For isolated system, there is no transfer of energy as heat or as work i.e.,

w=0 and q=0. According to the first law of thermodynamics.
U = q + w
= 0+0=0
U = 0

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

37.

At constant volume
By first law of thermodynamics:
q = U + (w)
(w) = pV

q = U + pV

V = 0, since volume is constant.

qV = U + 0
qV = U = change in internal energy

At constant pressure

qp = U + pV

But, U + pV = H

qp = H = change in enthalpy.

So, at a constant volume and at constant pressure heat change is a state

function because it is equal to change in internal energy and change in
enthalpy respectively which are state functions.

38.

(w) = pext (V2V 1) = 0 (5 1) = 0

For isothermal expansion q = 0

By first law of thermodynamics

q = U + (w)

0 = U + 0 so U = 0

For water, heat capacity = 18 specific heat

39.

Cp = 18 c
1

Specific heat = c = 4.18 Jg K

Heat capacity = Cp = 18 4.18 JK1 = 75.3 J K 1

40.

CP C V = nR
= 10 4.184 J

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

41.

Molar enthalpy
= enthalpy change for 1 g carbon molar mass of carbon
change of graphite
1

= 20.7 kJ g 12g mol

H = 2.48 10 2 kJ mol1
Negative value of H exothermic reaction.
42.

rH = Bond energy of H2 + Bond energy of Br2 2 Bond energy of HBr

= 435 + 192 (2 368) kJ mol

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

rHV = 109 kJ mol1

43.

qp = H = 30.5 kJ mol1

Heat required for vapourisation of 284 g of CCl4 =

284g

154g mol

30.5 kJ mol1

= 56.2 kJ

44.

According to the definition of standard enthalpy of formation, the enthalpy

change for the following reaction will be standard enthalpy of formation
of H 2O (l)
H 2(g) +

1
O (g) H2O(l ).
2 2

or the standard enthalpy of formation of H2O(l ) will be half of the enthalpy

V
of the given equation i.e., r H is also halved.
V

f H H O(l ) =
2

Work done on an ideal gas can be calculated from p-V graph shown in
Fig. 6.6. Work done is equal to the shaded area ABVIVII .

45.

1
1
572 kJ mol
V
r H =
= 286 kJ/mol.
2
2

Fig. : 6.6
81

Thermodynamics

The work done can be calculated with the help of pV plot. A pV plot of
the work of compression which is carried out by change in pressure in
infinite steps, is given in Fig. 6.7. Shaded area represents the work done
on the gas.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

46.

Fig. : 6.7

47.

Fig. : 6.8 Enthalpy change in processes (a) and (b)

48.

No.

Enthalpy is one of the contributory factors in deciding spontaneity but it

is not the only factor. One must look for contribution of another factor
i.e., entropy also, for getting the correct result.

It is clear from the figure that the process has been carried out in infinite
steps, hence it is isothermal reversible expansion.

49.

V2
w = 2.303nRT log V
1

But, p1V 1 = p2V2

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

V = p =
=2
1
1
2
82

p1
w = 2.303 nRT log p
2

= 2.303 1 mol 8.314 J mol1 K 1 298 K1 log 2

= 2.303 8.314 298 0.3010 J = 1717.46 J
50.

w = p ex (Vf Vi ) = 2 40 = 80 L bar = 8 kJ

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

The negative sign shows that work is done by the system on the
surrounding. Work done will be more in the reversible expansion because
internal pressure and exernal pressure are almost same at every step.
IV. Matching Type
(i) (e)

(ii) (d)

(iii) (f)

(iv) (a)

(v) (g), (k), (l)

(vi) (b)

(vii) (c)

(viii) (j)

(ix) (h)

(x) (i)

(xi) (a), (l), (m)

(xii) (g), (k)

52.

(i) (b)

(ii) (c)

(iii) (a)

53.

(i) (c)

(ii) (a)

(iii) (b)

54.

(i) (b), (d)

(ii) (b)

(iii) (c)

51.

(iv) (a)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

55. (ii)

56. (ii)

57. (i)

VI. Long Answer Type

59.

Hint : Ratio of two extensive properties is always intensive

Extensive
= Intensive .
Extensive

e.g., Mole fraction =

60.

Na (s) +

Moles
(Extensive)
=
Total number of moles
(Extensive)

1
Cl 2 (g) Na+ (g) + Cl(g) ;
2

latticeH

Thermodynamics

Bonn - Haber Cycle

Steps to measure lattice enthalpy from Bonn - Haber cycle
Sublimation of sodium metal
V

(1) Na(s) Na (g) ;

sub H

(2) Ionisation of sodium atoms

Na(g) Na+ (g) + e(g) ;

i.e., ionisation enthalpy

(3) Dissociation of chlorine molecule

HV
2 bond

i.e., One-half of bond dissociation

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

1
Cl (g) Cl(g) ;
2 2

enthalpy.

(4) Cl(g) + e(g) Cl(g) ;

eg HV

i.e., electron gain enthalpy.

Na (g) + Cl (g)

1
HV
2 bond
1
Na+(g) + Cl2(g)
2

egH

Na+ (g) + Cl(g)

iH V

Na(g) +

1
Cl (g)
2 2

latticeH

subHV

Na(s) +

1
Cl (g)
2 2

f H

NaCl(s)

STotal

= Ssys + Ssurr

STotal

-H sys
= Ssys + T

61.

T STotal = T Ssys Hsys

For spontaneous change, Stotal > 0

T Ssys Hsys > 0

(Hsys T Ssys ) > 0

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

But, Hsys T Ssys = Gsys

Gsys > 0

Gsys = H sys T Ssys < 0

Hsys= Enthalpy change of a reaction.
T Ssys = Energy which is not available to do useful work.
Gsys = Energy available for doing useful work.
Unit of G is Joule

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

The reaction will be spontaneous at high temperature.

62.

Fig. : 6.9

(i) Reversible Work is represented by the combined areas

and
(ii) Work against constant pressure, p f is represented by the area
Work (i) > Work (ii)

Thermodynamics

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

EQUILIBRIUM
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1.

We know that the relationship between Kc and Kp is

K p = Kc (RT)

What would be the value of n for the reaction

NH 4Cl (s) U NH3 (g) + HCl (g)

(ii)

0.5

(iii)

1.5

(iv)

For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) U 2HI (g), the standard free energy is G > 0.
The equilibrium constant (K ) would be __________.
(i)

K=0

(ii)

K>1

(iii)

K=1

(iv)

K<1

Which of the following is not a general characteristic of equilibria involving

physical processes?

(i)

Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature.

(ii)

All measurable properties of the system remain constant.

(iii)

All the physical processes stop at equilibrium.

(iv)

The opposing processes occur at the same rate and there is dynamic
but stable condition.

PCl5, PCl3 and Cl2 are at equilibrium at 500K in a closed container and their
concentrations are 0.8 103 mol L1, 1.2 10 3 mol L1 and 1.2 103 mol L1
respectively. The value of Kc for the reaction PCl5 (g) U PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
will be
3

1.8 10 mol L

(ii)

1.8 103

(iii)

1.8 10 L mol

(iv)

0.55 104

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(i)

In equilibrium mixture of ice and water kept in perfectly insulated flask

mass of ice and water does not change with time.

(ii)

The intensity of red colour increases when oxalic acid is added to a

solution containing iron (III) nitrate and potassium thiocyanate.

(iii)

On addition of catalyst the equilibrium constant value is not affected.

(iv)

Equilibrium constant for a reaction with negative H value decreases

as the temperature increases.

When hydrochloric acid is added to cobalt nitrate solution at room

temperature, the following reaction takes place and the reaction mixture
becomes blue. On cooling the mixture it becomes pink. On the basis of this
information mark the correct answer.
3+

[Co (H2O)6]
(pink)

(aq) + 4Cl (aq) U [CoCl4] (aq) + 6H2O (l )

(blue)

(i)

H > 0 for the reaction

(ii)

H < 0 for the reaction

(iii)

H = 0 for the reaction

(iv)

The sign of H cannot be predicted on the basis of this information.

The pH of neutral water at 25C is 7.0. As the temperature increases, ionisation

of water increases, however, the concentration of H+ ions and OH ions are
equal. What will be the pH of pure water at 60C?
(i)

Equal to 7.0

(ii)

Greater than 7.0

(iii)

Less than 7.0

(iv)

Equal to zero

(i)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

The ionisation constant of an acid, Ka , is the measure of strength of an acid.

The K a values of acetic acid, hypochlorous acid and formic acid are
1.74 105, 3.0 108 and 1.8 104 respectively. Which of the following
orders of pH of 0.1 mol dm3 solutions of these acids is correct?
(i)

acetic acid > hypochlorous acid > formic acid

(ii)

hypochlorous acid > acetic acid > formic acid

Equilibrium

(iii)

formic acid > hypochlorous acid > acetic acid

(iv)

formic acid > acetic acid > hypochlorous acid

K a , K a and K a are the respective ionisation constants for the following

1
2
3
reactions.
H2S U H+ + HS

HS U H + S

H2S U 2H+ + S2

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

The correct relationship between Ka1 , K a 2 and K a3 is

(i)

Ka = Ka Ka
3
1
2

(ii)

Ka = Ka + Ka
3
1
2

(iii)

K a = Ka K a
3
1
2

(iv)

Ka = Ka / Ka
3
1
2

10. Acidity of BF3 can be explained on the basis of which of the following concepts?
(i)

Arrhenius concept

(i)

(iii)

H2O

(iv)

Aqueous ammonia
5

13. What will be the value of pH of 0.01 mol dm3 CH3COOH (Ka = 1.74 10 )?
(i)

3.4

(ii)

3.6

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

(iii)

3.9

(iv)

3.0
5

14. K a for CH3COOH is 1.8 10

ammonium acetate will be
(i)

7.005

(ii)

4.75

(iii)

7.0

(iv)

Between 6 and 7

and K b for NH4OH is 1.8 10

. The pH of

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

15. Which of the following options will be correct for the stage of half completion
of the reaction A U B.
(i)

GV = 0

(ii)

G > 0

(iii)

GV < 0

(iv)

GV = RT ln2

16. On increasing the pressure, in which direction will the gas phase reaction
proceed to re-establish equilibrium, is predicted by applying the Le Chateliers
principle. Consider the reaction.
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) U 2NH3 (g)

Which of the following is correct, if the total pressure at which the equilibrium
is established, is increased without changing the temperature?
(i)

K will remain same

(ii)

K will decrease

(iii)

K will increase

(iv)

K will increase initially and decrease when pressure is very high

17. What will be the correct order of vapour pressure of water, acetone and ether
at 30C. Given that among these compounds, water has maximum boiling
point and ether has minimum boiling point?
Water < ether < acetone

(ii)

Water < acetone < ether

(iii)

Ether < acetone < water

(iv)

Acetone < ether < water

(i)

18. At 500 K, equilibrium constant, K c , for the following reaction is 5.

1
1
H2 (g) +
I (g) U HI (g)
2
2 2

What would be the equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction

2HI (g) U H 2 (g) + I2 (g)
89

Equilibrium

(i)

0.04

(ii)

0.4

(iii)

(iv)

2.5

19. In which of the following reactions, the equilibrium remains unaffected on

addition of small amount of argon at constant volume?
H 2 (g) + I2 (g) U 2HI (g)

(ii)

PCl 5 (g) U PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)

(iii)

N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) U 2NH3 (g)

(iv)

The equilibrium will remain unaffected in all the three cases.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.

20. For the reaction N2O4 (g) U 2NO2 (g), the value of K is 50 at 400 K and 1700
at 500 K. Which of the following options is correct?
(i)

The reaction is endothermic

(ii)

The reaction is exothermic

(iii)

If NO2 (g) and N2O4 (g) are mixed at 400 K at partial pressures 20 bar
and 2 bar respectively, more N2O4 (g) will be formed.

(iv)

The entropy of the system increases.

21. At a particular temperature and atmospheric pressure, the solid and liquid
phases of a pure substance can exist in equilibrium. Which of the following
term defines this temperature?
(i)

Normal melting point

(ii)

Equilibrium temperature

(iii)

Boiling point

(iv)

Freezing point

III. Short Answer Type

22. The ionisation of hydrochloric in water is given below:

HCl(aq) + H2O (l ) U H3O (aq) + Cl (aq)

Label two conjugate acid-base pairs in this ionisation.

23. The aqueous solution of sugar does not conduct electricity. However, when
sodium chloride is added to water, it conducts electricity. How will you explain
this statement on the basis of ionisation and how is it affected by concentration
of sodium chloride?
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

24. BF3 does not have proton but still acts as an acid and reacts with NH3. Why is
it so? What type of bond is formed between the two?
25. Ionisation constant of a weak base MOH, is given by the expression
+

Kb =

[M ][OH ]
[MOH]

Values of ionisation constant of some weak bases at a particular temperature

are given below:
Dimethylamine

Urea

Pyridine

Ammonia

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Base
Kb

5.4 10

1.3 10

1.77 10

Arrange the bases in decreasing order of the extent of their ionisation at

equilibrium. Which of the above base is the strongest?
26. Conjugate acid of a weak base is always stronger. What will be the decreasing
order of basic strength of the following conjugate bases?

OH , RO , CH3COO , Cl

27. Arrange the following in increasing order of pH.

KNO3 (aq), CH3COONa (aq), NH4Cl (aq), C6H 5COONH4 (aq)

28. The value of K c for the reaction 2HI (g) U H2 (g) + I2 (g) is 1 104
At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is
5

[HI] = 2 10 mol,

[H2] = 1 10 mol and [I2] = 1 10 mol

In which direction will the reaction proceed?

29. On the basis of the equation pH = log [H ], the pH of 10 mol dm3 solution
of HCl should be 8. However, it is observed to be less than 7.0. Explain the
reason.
30. pH of a solution of a strong acid is 5.0. What will be the pH of the solution
obtained after diluting the given solution a 100 times?

31. A sparingly soluble salt gets precipitated only when the product of
concentration of its ions in the solution (Qsp) becomes greater than its solubility
product. If the solubility of BaSO4 in water is 8 104 mol dm3. Calculate its
solubility in 0.01 mol dm3 of H2SO4.
32. pH of 0.08 mol dm3 HOCl solution is 2.85. Calculate its ionisation constant.

33. Calculate the pH of a solution formed by mixing equal volumes of two solutions
A and B of a strong acid having pH = 6 and pH = 4 respectively.
34. The solubility product of Al (OH)3 is 2.7 10 11. Calculate its solubility in gL1
and also find out pH of this solution. (Atomic mass of Al = 27 u).
91

Equilibrium

35. Calculate the volume of water required to dissolve 0.1 g lead (II) chloride to
get a saturated solution. (Ksp of PbCl2 = 3.2 108 , atomic mass of Pb = 207 u).
36. A reaction between ammonia and boron trifluoride is given below:
: NH3 + BF3 H3N : BF 3
Identify the acid and base in this reaction. Which theory explains it? What is
the hybridisation of B and N in the reactants?
37. Following data is given for the reaction: CaCO3 (s) CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
V

f H [CaO(s)] = 635.1 kJ mol

f HV [CO2(g)] = 393.5 kJ mol1

f H [CaCO3(s)] = 1206.9 kJ mol

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Predict the effect of temperature on the equilibrium constant of the above

reaction.

IV. Matching Type

38. Match the following equilibria with the corresponding condition

(i) Liquid U Vapour

(a)

Saturated solution

(ii) Solid U Liquid

(b)

Boiling point

(iii) Solid U Vapour

(c)

Sublimation point

(iv) Solute (s) U Solute (solution)

(d)

Melting point

(e)

Unsaturated solution

39. For the reaction : N2 (g) + 3H2(g) U 2NH 3(g)

Equilibrium constant K c =

[NH 3 ]

[N 2 ][H 2 ]

Some reactions are written below in Column I and their equilibrium constants
in terms of Kc are written in Column II. Match the following reactions with the
corresponding equilibrium constant
Column I (Reaction)

2N2(g) + 6H2(g) U 4NH3(g)

(i)

Column II (Equilibrium constant)

(a)

2K c
1

(ii)

2NH3(g) U N2(g) + 3H2(g)

(b)

K c2

(iii)

1
3
N2(g) + H 2(g) U NH3(g)
2
2

(c)

1
Kc

(d)

Kc2

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

40. Match standard free energy of the reaction with the corresponding equilibrium
constant
V

(i)

G >0

(a)

K>1

(ii)

(b)

K=1

(c)

K=0

(d)

K<1

(iii)

G <0
V

G =0

41. Match the following species with the corresponding conjugate acid
Species

Conjugate acid
(a)

CO32

HCO3

(b)

NH4

(iii)

H2O

(c)

H3O

(iv)

HSO4

(d)

H2SO4

(e)

H2CO3

NH3

(ii)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

42. Match the following graphical variation with their description

(a) Variation in product concentration

with time

(ii)

(b) Reaction at equilibrium

(i)

(iii)

(c) Variation in reactant concentration

with time
93

Equilibrium

43. Match Column (I) with Column (II).

Column I

Column II

(i)

Equilibrium

(a)

G > 0, K < 1

(ii)

Spontaneous reaction

(b)

G = 0

(iii)

Non spontaneous reaction

(c)

G = 0

(d)

G < 0, K > 1

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement

of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given
below each question.

44. Assertion (A) : Increasing order of acidity of hydrogen halides is

HF < HCl < HBr < HI
Reason (R) :

While comparing acids formed by the elements belonging to

the same group of periodic table, HA bond strength is a more
important factor in determining acidity of an acid than the
polar nature of the bond.

(i)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

Both A and R are false.

45. Assertion (A) : A solution containing a mixture of acetic acid and sodium
acetate maintains a constant value of pH on addition of small
amounts of acid or alkali.
Reason (R) :

A solution containing a mixture of acetic acid and sodium

acetate acts as a buffer solution around pH 4.75.

Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

Both A and R are false.

(i)

46. Assertion (A): The ionisation of hydrogen sulphide in water is low in the
presence of hydrochloric acid.
Reason (R) :

Hydrogen sulphide is a weak acid.

(i)

Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

(iii)

A is true but R is false

(iv)

Both A and R are false

47. Assertion (A): For any chemical reaction at a particular temperature, the
equilibrium constant is fixed and is a characteristic property.
Reason (R) :

Equilibrium constant is independent of temperature.

Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

Both A and R are false.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

52. On the basis of Le Chatelier principle explain how temperature and pressure
can be adjusted to increase the yield of ammonia in the following reaction.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) U 2NH3(g)

H = 92.38 kJ mol1

What will be the effect of addition of argon to the above reaction mixture at constant
volume?
p+

53. A sparingly soluble salt having general formula A x B y and molar solubility

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

S is in equilibrium with its saturated solution. Derive a relationship between

the solubility and solubility product for such salt.

54. Write a relation between G and Q and define the meaning of each term and
answer the following :

(a) Why a reaction proceeds forward when Q < K and no net reaction occurs
when Q = K.

(b) Explain the effect of increase in pressure in terms of reaction quotient Q.

for the reaction : CO (g) + 3H2 (g) U CH4 (g) + H2O (g)

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (iv)

2. (iv)

3. (iii)

4. (ii)

5. (ii)

7. (iii)

8. (iv)

9. (i)

10. (iii)

11. (iii)

13. (i)

14. (iii)

15.

6. (i)
12. (iv)

(i) G = 0

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Justification : GV = RT lnK

At the stage of half completion of reaction [A] = [B], Therefore, K = 1.

Thus, GV = 0

16.

(i), Justification: According to Le-Chateliers principle, at constant

temperature, the equilibrium composition will change
but K will remain same.

17.

(ii)

18.

(i)

19.

(iv)

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

20.

(i), (iii) and (iv)

Justification : (i)

21.

K increases with increase in temperature.

(iii)

Q > K, Therefore, reaction proceeds in the backward

direction.

(iv)

n > 0, Therefore, S > 0.

(i) and (iv)

III. Short Answer Type

HCl

acid

conjugate base

H 2O

H3O

base

conjugate acid

22.

23.

Sugar does not ionise in water but NaCl ionises completely in water
and produces Na+ and Cl ions.

Conductance increases with increase in concentration of salt due to

release of more ions.
97

Equilibrium

24.

BF3 acts as a Lewis acid as it is electron deficient compound and coordinate

bond is formed as given below :
H3N : BF 3

25.

Order of extent of ionisation at equilibrium is as follows :

Dimethylamine > Ammonia > Pyridine > Urea
Since dimethylamine will ionise to the maximum extent it is the
strongest base out of the four given bases.

RO > OH > CH3COO > Cl

27.

NH4Cl < C6H5COONH4 < KNO3 < CH 3COONa

28.

At a given time the reaction quotient Q for the reaction will be given by the
expression.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

26.

Q =

[H 2 ][I 2 ]
2

[HI ]

1 10

(2 10 )

5 2

= 0.25 = 2.5 10

1
4

As the value of reaction quotient is greater than the value of Kc i.e. 1 104
the reaction will proceed in the reverse direction.

29.

Concentration of 108 mol dm3 indicates that the solution is very dilute.
Hence, the contribution of H3O + concentration from water is significant
and should also be included for the calculation of pH.

30.

(i) pH = 5
+

[H ] = 10 mol L

On 100 times dilution

[H+ ] = 107 mol L1

On calculating the pH using the equation pH = log [H ], value of pH

comes out to be 7. It is not possible. This indicates that solution is very
dilute. Hence,

Total hydrogen
ion concentration

[H +]

Contribution of
H O + ion
3
concentration
of acid

107 + 107.

Contribution of

H 3 O + ion

+
concentration

of water

pH = 2 10 7 = 7 log 2 = 7 0.3010 = 6.6990

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry

31.

BaSO4 (s)

U Ba2+ (aq) + SO4 (aq)

At t = 0

At equilibrium in water

At equilibrium in the presence

of sulphuric acid

(S+0.01)

K sp for BaSO4 in water = [Ba2+] [ SO24 ] = (S) (S) = S2

But S = 8 104 mol dm3
4 2
8
K sp = (810 ) = 64 10

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

... (1)

The expression for K sp in the presence of sulphuric acid will be as follows :

K sp = (S) (S + 0.01)

... (2)

Since value of Ksp will not change in the presence of sulphuric acid,
therefore from (1) and (2)
(S) (S + 0.01) = 64 108

S2 + 0.01 S = 64 108

S + 0.01 S 64 10 = 0

0.01 (0.01) + (4 64 10 )
2
2

0.01 10

+ (256 10 )
8

0.01 10
=
2

0.01 10 (1 + 256 10 )
2

0.01 10
2
10

1 + 0.256

1.256

+ (1.12 10 )
2

(1+1.12) 10
2

0.12
2
10
2

= 6 104 mol dm3

Equilibrium

32.

pH of HOCl = 2.85
But, pH = log [H+ ]
+
2.85 = log [H ]

3 .15 = log [H ]
+

[H ] = 1.413 103

For weak mono basic acid [H+ ] =

Ka C
+ 2

[H ]
(1.413 10 )
=
C
0.08

3 2

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Ka =

= 24.957 10 6 = 2.4957 105

33.

pH of Solution A = 6

Therefore, concentration of [H+] ion in solution A = 106 mol L1

pH of Solution B = 4

Therefore, Concentration of [H ] ion concentration of solution B = 10 mol L

On mixing one litre of each solution, total volume = 1L + 1L = 2L
+

Amount of H ions in 1L of Solution A= Concentration volume V

= 10 6 mol 1L

Amount of H+ ions in 1L of solution B = 104 mol 1L

Total amount of H ions in the solution formed by mixing solutions A

and B is (10 6 mol + 104 mol)

This amount is present in 2L solution.

Total [H+ ] =

10 (1 + 0.01) 1.01 10
1.01 10
1
=
mol L =
2
2
2
4

mol L

= 0.5 104 mol L1

= 5 10 5 mol L1

pH = log [H ] = log (5 105)

= [log 5 + ( 5 log 10)]

= log 5 + 5
= 5 log 5
= 5 0.6990
= 4.3010 = 4.3

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 100

34.

Let S be the solubility of Al(OH) 3.

Al (OH)3

Al3+ (aq) + 3OH (aq)

Concentration of
species at t = 0

Concentration of various
species at equilibrium

K sp = [Al ] [OH ] = (S) (3S) = 27 S

K sp

S =

= 1 10

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

27 10
27 10

S = 1 103 mol L1

(i)

Solubility of Al(OH)3

Molar mass of Al (OH)3 is 78 g. Therefore,

Solubility of Al (OH)3 in g L1 = 1 103 78 g L1 = 78 103 g L1

= 7.8 10 g L

(ii)

pH of the solution
S = 1103 mol L1

[OH ] = 3S = 3110 = 3 10
pOH = 3 log 3

pH = 14 pOH= 11 + log 3 = 11.4771

35.

K sp of PbCl2 = 3.2 108

Let S be the solubility of PbCl 2.

PbCl2 (s)

Pb2+ (aq) + 2Cl (aq)

Concentration of
species at t = 0

Concentration of various
species at equilibrium

K sp = [Pb2+] [Cl ]2 = (S) (2S) 2 = 4S 3

K sp = 4S3
K sp

S =
S=

4
3

3.2 10
4

8 10

= 2 10

mol L = 8 10 mol L
3

mol L 1 S = 2 10 3 mol L 1
101 Equilibrium

Molar mass of PbCl2 = 278

3
1
Solubility of PbCl2 in g L1 = 2 10 278 g L

= 556 10

= 0.556 g L1
To get saturated solution, 0.556 g of PbCl2 is dissolved in 1 L water.
0.1 g PbCl2 is dissolved in

0.1
L = 0.1798 L water.
0.556

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

To make a saturated solution, dissolution of 0.1 g PbCl2 in 0.1798 L 0.2 L of

water will be required.
V

r H = f H [CaO(s)] + f H [CO2(g)] f H [CaCO3(s)]

37.

1
r H = 178.3 kJ mol

The reaction is endothermic. Hence, according to Le-Chateliers principle,

reaction will proceed in forward direction on increasing temperature.

IV. Matching Type

38.

(i) (b)

(ii) (d)

(iii) (c)

39.

(i) (d)

(ii) (c)

(iii) (b)

40.

(i) (d)

(ii) (a)

(iii) (b)

41.

(i) (b)

(ii) (e)

(iii) (c)

42.

(i) (c)

(ii) (a)

(iii) (b)

43.

(i) (b) and (c) (ii) (d)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (a)

(iv) (d)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

44. (i)

45. (i)

46. (ii)

47.(iii)

48. (i)

49. (iii)

50. (iv)

VI. Long Answer Type

51.

(i)

Qc < Kc

(ii)

Qc > Kc

(iii)

Qc = Kc

where, Qc is reaction quotient in terms of concentration and K c is

equilibrium constant.
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 102

53.

[Hint : A x B y

U x A (aq) + y B (aq)

S moles of A xBy dissolve to give x S moles of A

54.

and y S moles of B .]

G = GV + RT lnQ
GV = Change in free energy as the reaction proceeds
G = Standard free energy change
Q = Reaction quotient

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

R = Gas constant

T = Absolute temperature
Since GV = RT lnK

G = RT lnK + RT lnQ = RT ln K

If Q < K, G will be negative. Reaction proceeds in the forward direction.

If Q = K, G = 0, no net reaction.

[Hint: Next relate Q with concentration of CO, H2, CH4 and H2O in view of
reduced volume (increased pressure). Show that Q < K and hence the
reaction proceeds in forward direction.]

103 Equilibrium

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

REDOX REAC
TIONS
REACTIONS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1.

Which of the following is not an example of redox reaction?

(i)

CuO + H2 Cu + H2O

(ii)

Fe2O3 + 3CO 2Fe + 3CO 2

(iii)

2K + F2 2KF

(iv)

BaCl2 + H2SO4 BaSO4 + 2HCl

The more positive the value of E , the greater is the tendency of the species to
get reduced. Using the standard electrode potential of redox couples given
below find out which of the following is the strongest oxidising agent.
V

E values: Fe3+ /Fe2+ = + 0.77; I2(s)/I = + 0.54;

Cu 2+/Cu = + 0.34; Ag+ /Ag = + 0.80V

Fe3+

(ii)

I2(s)

(iii)

Cu2+

(iv)

Ag+

E values of some redox couples are given below. On the basis of these values
choose the correct option.
V

(i)

E values : Br 2/Br = + 1.90; Ag + /Ag(s) = + 0.80

Cu 2+/Cu(s) = + 0.34; I2(s)/I = + 0.54

(i)

Cu will reduce Br

(ii)

Cu will reduce Ag

(iii)

Cu will reduce I

(iv)

Cu will reduce Br2

Using the standard electrode potential, find out the pair between which redox
reaction is not feasible.
V

E values : Fe /Fe = + 0.77; I2/I = + 0.54;

Cu2+/Cu = + 0.34; Ag /Ag = + 0.80 V

Fe 3+ and I

(ii)

Ag+ and Cu

(iii)

(iv)

Ag and Fe3+

and Cu

Thiosulphate reacts differently with iodine and bromine in the reactions given
below:

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

+ 2I
2S2O 32 + I2 S4O2
6

S2O3 + 2Br2 + 5H2O 2SO4 + 2Br + 10 H

Which of the following statements justifies the above dual behaviour of

thiosulphate?

Bromine is a stronger oxidant than iodine.

(ii)

Bromine is a weaker oxidant than iodine.

(iii)

Thiosulphate undergoes oxidation by bromine and reduction by iodine

in these reactions.

(iv)

Bromine undergoes oxidation and iodine undergoes reduction in these

reactions.

The oxidation number of an element in a compound is evaluated on the basis

of certain rules. Which of the following rules is not correct in this respect?
(i)

The oxidation number of hydrogen is always +1.

(ii)

The algebraic sum of all the oxidation numbers in a compound is zero.

(iii)

An element in the free or the uncombined state bears oxidation

number zero.

(iv)

In all its compounds, the oxidation number of fluorine is 1.

In which of the following compounds, an element exhibits two different

oxidation states.
(i)

NH2OH

(ii)

NH4NO3

(i)

(iii)

N2H4

(iv)

N3H

Which of the following arrangements represent increasing oxidation number

of the central atom?
2

(i)

CrO2 , ClO3

(ii)

ClO 3 , CrO 42 , MnO4 , CrO 2

, CrO4 , MnO4

105 Redox Reactions

(iii)

CrO2 , ClO3 , MnO4 , CrO42

(iv)

CrO42, MnO4 , CrO2 , ClO3

9. The largest oxidation number exhibited by an element depends on its outer

electronic configuration. With which of the following outer electronic
configurations the element will exhibit largest oxidation number?
(i)

3d14s 2

(ii)

3d 4s

(iii)

3d54s 1

(iv)

3d54s 2

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

10. Identify disproportionation reaction

(i)

CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O

(ii)

CH4 + 4Cl2 CCl4 + 4HCl

Oxygen is reduced

(iv)

None of the species are undergoing oxidation or reduction

(i)

13. Identify the correct statement (s) in relation to the following reaction:
Zn + 2HCl ZnCl2 + H 2

(i)

Zinc is acting as an oxidant

(ii)

Chlorine is acting as a reductant

(iii)

Hydrogen ion is acting as an oxidant

(iv)

Zinc is acting as a reductant

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 106

14. The exhibition of various oxidation states by an element is also related to the
outer orbital electronic configuration of its atom. Atom(s) having which of the
following outermost electronic configurations will exhibit more than one oxidation
state in its compounds.
1

(i)

(ii)

3d14s 2

(iii)

3d24s 2

(iv)

3s 3p

15. Identify the correct statements with reference to the given reaction

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

P 4 + 3OH + 3H2O PH3 + 3H2PO2

(i)

Phosphorus is undergoing reduction only.

(ii)

Phosphorus is undergoing oxidation only.

(iii)

Phosphorus is undergoing oxidation as well as reduction.

(iv)

Hydrogen is undergoing neither oxidation nor reduction.

16. Which of the following electrodes will act as anodes, when connected to
Standard Hydrogen Electrode?
V

(i)

Al/Al3+

(ii)

Fe/Fe

(iii)

Cu/Cu2+

E = + 0.34

(iv)

F2 (g)/2F (aq)

E = + 2.87

E = 1.66
V

E = 0.44
V
V

III. Short Answer Type

17. The reaction

Cl2 (g) + 2OH (aq) ClO (aq) + Cl (aq) + H2O (l )

represents the process of bleaching. Identify and name the species that
bleaches the substances due to its oxidising action.
18.

MnO 2
4 undergoes disproportionation reaction in acidic medium but MnO4
does not. Give reason.

19. PbO and PbO2 react with HCl according to following chemical equations :
2PbO + 4HCl 2PbCl2 + 2H2O

PbO2 + 4HCl PbCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O

Why do these compounds differ in their reactivity?

20. Nitric acid is an oxidising agent and reacts with PbO but it does not react
with PbO2. Explain why?
107 Redox Reactions

21. Write balanced chemical equation for the following reactions:

(i) Permanganate ion (MnO4 ) reacts with sulphur dioxide gas in acidic
medium to produce Mn 2+ and hydrogensulphate ion.
(Balance by ion electron method)

(ii) Reaction of liquid hydrazine (N2H4) with chlorate ion (ClO3 ) in basic
medium produces nitric oxide gas and chloride ion in gaseous state.
(Balance by oxidation number method)
(iii) Dichlorine heptaoxide (Cl2O7) in gaseous state combines with an aqueous
solution of hydrogen peroxide in acidic medium to give chlorite ion

(ClO2 ) and oxygen gas.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(Balance by ion electron method)

22. Calculate the oxidation number of phosphorus in the following species.

(a) HPO3 and

(b) PO 4

23. Calculate the oxidation number of each sulphur atom in the following
compounds:
(a) Na2S2O3

(b) Na2S4O 6

(d) Na2SO 4

24. Balance the following equations by the oxidation number method.

(i)

Fe2+ + H+ + Cr2 O 7 Cr

(ii)

I 2 + N O3 NO2 + I O3

(iii)

I 2 + S2 O3 I + S4 O6

(iv)

MnO2 + C2 O4 Mn

+ Fe + H2O

+ CO2

25. Identify the redox reactions out of the following reactions and identify the
oxidising and reducing agents in them.
(i)

3HCl(aq) + HNO3 (aq) Cl2 (g) + NOCl (g) + 2H2O (l )

(ii)

HgCl2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) HgI2 (s) + 2KCl (aq)

(iii)

Fe2O 3 (s) + 3CO (g)

2Fe (s) + 3CO2 (g)

(iv)

PCl3 (l) + 3H 2O (l) 3HCl (aq) + H3 PO3 (aq)

(v)

4NH3 + 3O2 (g) 2N2 (g) + 6H2O (g)

26. Balance the following ionic equations

(i)

+ H+ + I Cr3+ + I2 + H2O
Cr 2 O2
7

(ii)

Cr 2 O7 + Fe

(iii)

+ H+ Mn2+ + S O2
+ H2O
Mn O4 + S O2
3
4

(iv)

Mn O4 + H + Br Mn

+ H Cr
+

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 108

+ Fe + H2O

+ Br2 + H2O

IV. Matching Type

27. Match Column I with Column II for the oxidation states of the central atoms.
Column I
(i)

Cr 2O

(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

2
7

Column II
(a)

MnO
VO3

(b)
(c)

+4
+5

FeF63

(d)

(e)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

28. Match the items in Column I with relevant items in Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i)

Ions having positive charge

(a)

(ii)

The sum of oxidation number

(b)

(iii)

of all atoms in a neutral molecule

Oxidation number of hydrogen ion (H +)

+1
0

(iv)
(v)

Oxidation number of fluorine in NaF

Ions having negative charge

(e)
(f)

Cation
Anion

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) followed by a statement

of reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given
below each question.
29. Assertion (A) : Among halogens fluorine is the best oxidant.
Reason (R) :

Fluorine is the most electronegative atom.

(i)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A is true but R is false.

(iv)

Both A and R are false.

30. Assertion (A): In the reaction between potassium permanganate and

potassium iodide, permanganate ions act as oxidising agent.

Reason (R) :

Oxidation state of manganese changes from +2 to +7 during

VI. Long Answer Type

33. Explain redox reactions on the basis of electron transfer. Give suitable examples.
34. On the basis of standard electrode potential values, suggest which of the
V
following reactions would take place? (Consult the book for E value).
(i)

Cu + Zn2+ Cu2+ + Zn

(ii)

Mg + Fe

(iii)

Br2 + 2Cl Cl2 + 2Br

(iv)

Fe + Cd Cd + Fe

+ Fe

35. Why does fluorine not show disporportionation reaction?

36. Write redox couples involved in the reactions (i) to (iv) given in question 34.

37. Find out the oxidation number of chlorine in the following compounds and
arrange them in increasing order of oxidation number of chlorine.
NaClO4, NaClO3, NaClO, KClO2, Cl2O7, ClO3, Cl2O, NaCl, Cl2, ClO2.
Which oxidation state is not present in any of the above compounds?
38. Which method can be used to find out strength of reductant/oxidant in a
solution? Explain with an example.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 110

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (iv)
7. (ii)

2. (iv)
8. (i)

3. (iv)
9. (iv)

4. (iv)
10. (iv)

5. (i)
11. (iii)

6. (i)

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

13. (iii), (iv)
16. (i), (ii)

14. (iii), (iv)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

12. (i), (iv)

15. (iii), (iv)

III. Short Answer Type

17.

Hypochlorite ion

18.

In MnO4 , Mn is in the highest oxidation state i.e. +7. Therefore, it does

2
not undergo disproportionation. MnO4 undergoes disproportionation
as follows :
+ 4H+ 2MnO 4 + MnO2 + 2H2O
3MnO2
4

19.

2PbO + 4HCl 2PbCl 2 + 2H2O (Acid base reaction)

PbO2 + 4HCl PbCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O (Redox reaction)

(Hint : Note the oxidation number of lead in the oxides)

20.

PbO is a basic oxide and simple acid base reaction takes place between
PbO and HNO3. On the other hand in PbO2 lead is in + 4 oxidation state
and cannot be oxidised further. Therefore no reaction takes place. Thus,
PbO2 is passive, only PbO reacts with HNO3.
2PbO + 4HNO 3 2Pb (NO3)2 + 2H2O (Acid base reaction)

22.

(a) +3,

(b) +5

23.

(a) +2

(b) +5, 0, 0, +5

(d) +6

Justification :

Write Lewis structure of each ion then assign electron pair shared between
atoms of different electronegativity to more electronegative atom and distribute
the electron pair shared between atoms of same element equally. Now count
the number of electrons possessed by each atom. Find out the difference in
number of electrons possessed by neutral atom and that possessed by atom in
the compound. This difference is the oxidation number. If atom present in the
compound possesses more electrons than the neutral atom, the oxidation
111 Redox Reactions

number is negative. If it possesses less electrons then oxidation number is

positive.
2

(i) Lewis structure of S2O4 can be written as follows :

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Electron pair shared between sulphur and oxygen is assigned to oxygen

atoms because of more electronegativity of oxygen. Thus each sulphur atom
is deficient of two electrons with respect to neutral sulphur atom hence,
each sulphur atom is in +2 oxidation state. Each oxygen atom gets two
excess electrons hence, it is in 2 oxidation state. Lewis structure of S 4O 62
can be written as follows :

To find out oxidation state of each atom we distribute electrons of electron

pair shared between two sulphur atoms equally (i.e. one electron is assigned
to each sulphur atom). Both the electrons of electron pair shared between
sulphur and oxygen atom are assigned to oxygen as oxygen is more
electronegative. Thus we find that each of the central sulphur atoms obtain
six electrons. This number is same as that in the outer shell of neutral
sulphur atom hence oxidation state of central sulphur atoms is zero. Each
of the sulphur atoms attached to oxygen atoms obtain only one electron as
its share. This number is less by five electrons in comparison to the neutral
sulphur atom. So, outer sulphur atoms are in +5 oxidation state. Therefore
average oxidation state of sulphur atoms is :
5 + 0 + 0 + 5 10
=
= 2 .5
4
4

By using the formula we obtain average oxidation state of the particular

type of atoms. Real oxidation state can be obtained only by writing the
complete structural formula. Similarly we can see that each oxygen atom
is in 2 oxidation state.
2

In the same way one can find out the oxidation state of each atom in SO3
and SO42 ions. Oxidation state of metal atoms will be +1 as these will lose
one electron in each case.

IV. Matching Type

27.

(i) (d)

(ii) (e)

(iii) (c)

(iv)(a)

28.

(i) (e)

(ii) (d)

(iii) (c)

(iv) (b)

31. (i)

32. (ii)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

29. (ii)

30. (iii)

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 112

(v) (f)

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

HYDR
OGEN
YDROGEN
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1.

(i)

Its tendency to lose an electron to form a cation.

(ii)

Its tendency to gain a single electron in its valence shell to attain stable
electronic configuration.

(iii)

Its low negative electron gain enthalpy value.

(iv)

Its small size.

Why does H ion always get associated with other atoms or molecules?
(i)

Ionisation enthalpy of hydrogen resembles that of alkali metals.

(ii)

Its reactivity is similar to halogens.

(iii)

It resembles both alkali metals and halogens.

(iv)

Loss of an electron from hydrogen atom results in a nucleus of very

small size as compared to other atoms or ions. Due to smal size it cannot
exist free.

Metal hydrides are ionic, covalent or molecular in nature. Among LiH, NaH,
KH, RbH, CsH, the correct order of increasing ionic character is
(i)

LiH > NaH > CsH > KH>RbH

(ii)

LiH < NaH < KH < RbH < CsH

(iii)

RbH > CsH > NaH > KH > LiH

(iv)

NaH > CsH > RbH > LiH > KH

Hydrogen resembles halogens in many respects for which several factors are
responsible. Of the following factors which one is most important in this respect?

Which of the following hydrides is electron-precise hydride?

(i)

B2H6

(ii)

NH3

H2O

(iv)

CH4

Radioactive elements emit , and rays and are characterised by their halflives. The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is
(i)

Protium

(ii)

Deuterium

(iii)

Tritium

(iv)

Hydronium

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(iii)

Consider the reactions

(A) H2O2 + 2HI I2 + 2H2O

(B) HOCl + H2O2 H3O + Cl + O2

Which of the following statements is correct about H2O2 with reference to

these reactions? Hydrogen perioxide is ________.

an oxidising agent in both (A) and (B)

(ii)

an oxidising agent in (A) and reducing agent in (B)

(iii)

a reducing agent in (A) and oxidising agent in (B)

(iv)

a reducing agent in both (A) and (B)

The oxide that gives H2O2 on treatment with dilute H2SO4 is

(i)

PbO2

(ii)

BaO2 .8H2O + O2

(iii)

MnO2

(iv)

(iv)

PbS + 4H2O2 PbSO4 + 4H2O

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 114

10. Hydrogen peroxide is _________.

(i)

an oxidising agent

(ii)

a reducing agent

(iii)

both an oxidising and a reducing agent

(iv)

neither oxidising nor reducing agent

11. Which of the following reactions increases production of dihydrogen from

synthesis gas?
1270 K

CH4 (g) + H2O (g)

CO (g) + 3H2 (g)
Ni

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)
(ii)

1270 K
C (s) + H2O (g)
CO (g) + H2 (g)

(iii)

CO (g) + H2O (g)

CO2 (g) + H2 (g)
Catalyst

(iv)

2CO + 5H2
C2H6 + 2H2O
Ni

673 K

1270 K

12. When sodium peroxide is treated with dilute sulphuric acid, we get ______.
(i)

sodium sulphate and water

(ii)

sodium sulphate and oxygen

(iii)

sodium sulphate, hydrogen and oxygen

(iv)

sodium sulphate and hydrogen peroxide

(ii)

Na3PO4

(iii)

Na6P6O18

(iv)

Na2HPO4

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

17. Elements of which of the following group(s) of periodic table do not form
hydrides.
(i)

Groups 7, 8, 9

(ii)

Group 13

(iii)

Groups 15, 16, 17

(iv)

Group 14

18. Only one element of ________ forms hydride.

(i)

group 6

(ii)

group 7

(iii)

group 8

(iv)

group 9

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.
19. Which of the following statements are not true for hydrogen?
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

It exists as diatomic molecule.

It has one electron in the outermost shell.
It can lose an electron to form a cation which can freely exist
It forms a large number of ionic compounds by losing an electron.

20. Dihydrogen can be prepared on commercial scale by different methods. In

its preparation by the action of steam on hydrocarbons, a mixture of CO and
H2 gas is formed. It is known as ____________.
(i) Water gas
(ii) Syngas
(iii) Producer gas
(d) Industrial gas

21. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in the case of heavy water?
(i) Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactor.
(ii) Heavy water is more effective as solvent than ordinary water.
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 116

(iii)
(iv)

Heavy water is more associated than ordinary water.

Heavy water has lower boiling point than ordinary water.

22. Which of the following statements about hydrogen are correct?

(i) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which protium is the most common.
(ii) Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts.
+
(iii) Hydrogen ion, H , exists freely in solution.
(iv) Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

23. Some of the properties of water are described below. Which of them is/are
not correct?
(i) Water is known to be a universal solvent.
(ii) Hydrogen bonding is present to a large extent in liquid water.
(iii) There is no hydrogen bonding in the frozen state of water.
(iv) Frozen water is heavier than liquid water.

24. Hardness of water may be temporary or permanent. Permanent hardness is

due to the presence of
(i) Chlorides of Ca and Mg in water
(ii) Sulphates of Ca and Mg in water
(iii) Hydrogen carbonates of Ca and Mg in water
(iv) Carbonates of alkali metals in water
25. Which of the following statements is correct?
(i) Elements of group 15 form electron deficient hydrides.
(ii) All elements of group 14 form electron precise hydrides.
(iii) Electron precise hydrides have tetrahedral geometries.
(iv) Electron rich hydrides can act as Lewis acids.

26. Which of the following statements is correct?

(i) Hydrides of group 13 act as Lewis acids.
(ii) Hydrides of group 14 are electron deficient hydrides.
(iii) Hydrides of group 14 act as Lewis acids.
(iv) Hydrides of group 15 act as Lewis bases.

27. Which of the following statements is correct?

(i) Metallic hydrides are deficient of hydrogen.
(ii) Metallic hydrides conduct heat and electricity.
(iii) Ionic hydrides do not conduct electricity in solid state.
(iv) Ionic hydrides are very good conductors of electricity in solid state.

117 Hydrogen

III. Short Answer Type

28. How can production of hydrogen from water gas be increased by using water
gas shift reaction?
29. What are metallic/interstitial hydrides? How do they differ from molecular
hydrides?
30. Name the classes of hydrides to which H2O, B2H6 and NaH belong.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

31. If same mass of liquid water and a piece of ice is taken, then why is the density
of ice less than that of liquid water?
32. Complete the following equations:
(i)

PbS (s) + H2O2(aq)

(ii)

CO (g) + 2H2 (g)

Catalyst
Cobalt

33. Give reasons:

(i)

Lakes freeze from top towards bottom.

(ii)

Ice floats on water.

34. What do you understand by the term auto protolysis of water ? What is its
significance?
35. Discuss briefly de-mineralisation of water by ion exchange resin.

36. Molecular hydrides are classified as electron deficient, electron precise and
electron rich compounds. Explain each type with two examples.

37. How is heavy water prepared? Compare its physical properties with those of
ordinary water.
38. Write one chemical reaction for the preparation of D2O2.
39. Calculate the strength of 5 volume H2O2 solution.
40.

(i) Draw the gas phase and solid phase structure of H2O2.

(ii) H2O2 is a better oxidising agent than water. Explain.

41. Melting point, enthalpy of vapourisation and viscosity data of H2O and D2O is
given below :
H2O
D2O
Melting point / K

373.0

374.4

Enthalpy of vapourisation
1
at (373 K)/ kJ mol

40.66

41.61

Viscosity/centipoise

0.8903

1.107

On the basis of this data explain in which of these liquids intermolecular

forces are stronger?
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 118

42. Dihydrogen reacts with dioxygen (O2) to form water. Write the name and
formula of the product when the isotope of hydrogen which has one proton
and one neutron in its nucleus is treated with oxygen. Will the reactivity of
both the isotopes be the same towards oxygen? Justify your answer.
43. Explain why HCl is a gas and HF is a liquid.
44. When the first element of the periodic table is treated with dioxygen, it gives a
compound whose solid state floats on its liquid state. This compound has an
ability to act as an acid as well as a base. What products will be formed when
this compound undergoes autoionisation?

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

45. Rohan heard that instructions were given to the laboratory attendent to store
a particular chemical i.e., keep it in the dark room, add some urea in it, and
keep it away from dust. This chemical acts as an oxidising as well as a
reducing agent in both acidic and alkaline media. This chemical is important
for use in the pollution control treatment of domestic and industrial effluents.
(i) Write the name of this compound.

(ii) Explain why such precautions are taken for storing this chemical.
46. Give reasons why hydrogen resembles alkali metals?

47. Hydrogen generally forms covalent compounds. Give reason.

48. Why is the Ionisation enthalpy of hydrogen higher than that of sodium?

49. Basic principle of hydrogen economy is transportation and storage of energy

in the form of liquid or gaseous hydrogen. Which property of hydrogen may
be useful for this purpose? Support your answer with the chemical equation
if required.
50. What is the importance of heavy water?

51. Write the Lewis structure of hydrogen peroxide.

52. An acidic solution of hydrogen peroxide behaves as an oxidising as well as

reducing agent. Illustrate it with the help of a chemical equation.

53. With the help of suitable examples, explain the property of H2O2 that is
responsible for its bleaching action?

54. Why is water molecule polar?

55. Why does water show high boiling point as compared to hydrogen sulphide?
Give reasons for your answer.
56. Why can dilute solutions of hydrogen peroxide not be concentrated by
heating. How can a concentrated solution of hydrogen peroxide be obtained?
57. Why is hydrogen peroxide stored in wax lined bottles?

119 Hydrogen

58. Why does hard water not form lather with soap?
59. Phosphoric acid is preferred over sulphuric acid in preparing hydrogen
peroxide from peroxides. Why?
60. How will you account for 104.5 bond angle in water?
61. Write redox reaction between fluorine and water.
62. Write two reactions to explain amphoteric nature of water.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

IV. Matching Type

63. Correlate the items listed in Column I with those listed in Column II. Find
out as many correlations as you can.
Column I

Column II

(i)

Synthesis gas

(a) Na2 [Na4(PO3)6]

(ii)

Dihydrogen

(b) Oxidising agent

(iii)

Heavy water

(c) Softening of water

(iv)

Calgon

(d) Reducing agent

(v)

Hydrogen peroxide

(e) Stoichiometric compounds of

s-block elements

(vi)

Salt like hydrides

(f)

Prolonged electrolysis of water

(g) Zn + NaOH

(h) Zn + dil. H2SO4

(i)

Synthesis of methanol

(j)

Mixture of CO and H2

64. Match Column I with Column II for the given properties/applications

mentioned therein.

Column I

Column II

(i)

(a)

Used in the name of perhydrol.

(ii)

(b)

Can be reduced to dihydrogen by

NaH.

(iii)

H2O

(c)

Can be used in hydroformylation of

olefin.

(iv)

H2O 2

(d)

Can be used in cutting and welding.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 120

65. Match the terms in Column I with the relevant item in Column II.
Column I

Column II

Electrolysis of water produces

(a) atomic reactor

(ii)

Lithium aluminium hydride is used as

(b) polar molecule

(iii)

Hydrogen chloride is a

(c) recombines on metal

surface to generate high
temperature

(iv)

Heavy water is used in

(d) reducing agent

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

(v)

Atomic hydrogen

(e) hydrogen and oxygen

66. Match the items in Column I with the relevant item in Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i)

Hydrogen peroxide is used as a

(a)

zeolite

(ii)

Used in Calgon method

(b)

perhydrol

(iii)

Permanent hardness of hard

water is removed by

(c)

sodium
hexametaphosphate

(d)

propellant

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement

of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the options given
below each question.
67. Assertion (A) : Permanent hardness of water is removed by treatment with
washing soda.
Reason (R) :

Washing soda reacts with soluble magnesium and calcium

sulphate to form insoluble carbonates.

Statements A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

A is correct but R is not correct.

(i)

(iii)

A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iv)

A and R both are false.

68. Assertion (A) : Some metals like platinum and palladium, can be used as
storage media for hydrogen.
Reason (R) :

Platinum and palladium can absorb large volumes of

hydrogen.
121 Hydrogen

(i)

Statements A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

A is correct but R is not correct.

(iii)

A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iv)

A and R both are false.

VI. Long Answer Type

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

69. Atomic hydrogen combines with almost all elements but molecular hydrogen
does not. Explain.
70. How can D2O be prepared from water? Mention the physical properties in
which D2O differs from H2O. Give at least three reactions of D2O showing the
exchange of hydrogen with deuterium.
71. How will you concentrate H2O2? Show differences between structures of H2O2
and H2O by drawing their spatial structures. Also mention three important
uses of H2O2.
72.

(i)

Give a method for the manufacture of hydrogen peroxide and explain

the reactions involved therein.

(ii)

Illustrate oxidising, reducing and acidic properties of hydrogen peroxide

with equations.

73. What mass of hydrogen peroxide will be present in 2 litres of a 5 molar

solution? Calculate the mass of oxygen which will be liberated by the
decomposition of 200 mL of this solution.

74. A colourless liquid A contains H and O elements only. It decomposes slowly

on exposure to light. It is stabilised by mixing urea to store in the presence of
light.
(i)

Suggest possible structure of A.

(ii)

Write chemical equations for its decomposition reaction in light.

75. An ionic hydride of an alkali metal has significant covalent character and is
almost unreactive towards oxygen and chlorine. This is used in the synthesis
of other useful hydrides. Write the formula of this hydride. Write its reaction
with Al2Cl6.

76. Sodium forms a crystalline ionic solid with dihydrogen. The solid is nonvolatile and non- conducting in nature. It reacts violently with water to
produce dihydrogen gas. Write the formula of this compound and its reaction
with water. What will happen on electrolysis of the melt of this solid.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 122

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (ii)

2. (iv)

3. (ii)

4. (iv)

5. (iii)

6. (ii)

7. (ii)

8. (iii)

9. (ii)

10. (iii)

11. (iii)

12. (iv)

13. (ii)

14. (iv)

15. (i)

16. (iii)

17. (i)

18. (i)

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

20. (i), (ii)

21. (i), (iii)

22. (i), (ii)

23. (iii), (iv)

24. (i), (ii)

25. (ii), (iii)

26. (i), (iv)

27. (i), (ii), (iii)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

19. (iii), (iv)

III. Short Answer Type

39.

5 volume H2O2 solution means that hydrogen peroxide contained in

3400
227

g H2O2 = 14.9 g 15 g H2O2

i.e., 15 g H2O2 dissolved in 1 L solution will give 5 L oxygen or 1.5 g

H2O2/100 mL solution will give 500 mL oxygen. Thus 15 g/L or 1.5%
solution is known as 5V solution of H2O2.

42.

[Hint : Heavy water; Bond dissociation energy of dihydrogen is less than

dideuterium]

44.

[Hint : H2O + H2O H3O + OH]

45.

(i) H2O2

IV. Matching Type

63.

(i) (i), (j)

(ii) (d), (e), (g), (h), (i)

(iii) (f)

(iv) (a), (c)

(v) (b), (d)

(vi) (e)

123 Hydrogen

64.

(i) (d)

(ii) (c)

(iii) (b)

(iv) (a)

65.

(i) (e)

(ii) (d)

(iii) (b)

(iv) (a)

(ii) (c)

(iii) (a), (c)

(v) (c)
66.

(i) (b), (d)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

68. (i)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

67. (i)

VI. Long Answer Type

68 g, 3.2 g

73.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 124

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

THE s -BL
OCK ELEMENTS
-BLOCK
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Alkali metals react with water vigorously to form hydroxides and dihydrogen.
Which of the following alkali metals reacts with water least vigorously?
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

The reducing power of a metal depends on various factors. Suggest the factor
which makes Li, the strongest reducing agent in aqueous solution.
(i)

Sublimation enthalpy

(ii)

Ionisation enthalpy

(iii)

Hydration enthalpy

(iv)

Electron-gain enthalpy

The alkali metals are low melting. Which of the following alkali metal is expected
to melt if the room temperature rises to 30C?

Metal carbonates decompose on heating to give metal oxide and carbon

dioxide. Which of the metal carbonates is most stable thermally?
(i)

MgCO 3

(ii)

CaCO3

(iii)

SrCO3

(iv)

BaCO3

5. Which of the carbonates given below is unstable in air and is kept in CO2
atmosphere to avoid decomposition.
(i)

BeCO3

(ii)

MgCO3

(iii)

CaCO3

(iv)

BaCO3

6. Metals form basic hydroxides. Which of the following metal hydroxide is the
least basic?
Mg(OH)2

(ii)

Ca(OH)2

(iii)

Sr(OH)2

(iv)

Ba(OH)2

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

7. Some of the Group 2 metal halides are covalent and soluble in organic solvents.
Among the following metal halides, the one which is soluble in ethanol is
(i)

BeCl2

(ii)

MgCl2

(iii)

CaCl2

(iv)

SrCl2

8. The order of decreasing ionisation enthalpy in alkali metals is

(i)

Na > Li > K > Rb

(ii)

Rb < Na < K < Li

(iii)

Li > Na > K > Rb

(iv)

K < Li < Na < Rb

9. The solubility of metal halides depends on their nature, lattice enthalpy and
hydration enthalpy of the individual ions. Amongst fluorides of alkali metals,
the lowest solubility of LiF in water is due to
(i)

Ionic nature of lithium fluoride

(ii)

High lattice enthalpy

(iii)

High hydration enthalpy for lithium ion.

(iv)

Low ionisation enthalpy of lithium atom

10. Amphoteric hydroxides react with both alkalies and acids. Which of the
following Group 2 metal hydroxides is soluble in sodium hydroxide?
(i)

Be(OH)2

(ii)

Mg(OH)2

(iii)

Ca(OH)2

(iv)

Ba(OH)2

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 126

11. In the synthesis of sodium carbonate, the recovery of ammonia is done by

treating NH4Cl with Ca(OH) 2. The by-product obtained in this process is
(i)

CaCl2

(ii)

NaCl

(iii)

NaOH

(iv)

NaHCO3

12. When sodium is dissolved in liquid ammonia, a solution of deep blue colour
is obtained. The colour of the solution is due to
ammoniated electron

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)
(ii)

sodium ion

(iii)

sodium amide

(iv)

ammoniated sodium ion

13. By adding gypsum to cement

(i)

setting time of cement becomes less.

(ii)

setting time of cement increases.

(iii)

colour of cement becomes light.

(iv)

shining surface is obtained.

14. Dead burnt plaster is

(i)

CaSO4

(ii)

CaSO4.

(iii)

CaSO4.H2O

(iv)

CaSO4.2H2O

1
HO
2 2

15. Suspension of slaked lime in water is known as

lime water

(ii)

quick lime

(iii)

milk of lime

(iv)

aqueous solution of slaked lime

(i)

16. Which of the following elements does not form hydride by direct heating with
dihydrogen?
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Ba
127 The s-Block Elements

17. The formula of soda ash is

(i)

Na2CO3.10H2O

(ii)
(iii)

Na2CO3.2H2O
Na2CO3.H2O

(iv)

Na2CO3

18. A substance which gives brick red flame and breaks down on heating to give
oxygen and a brown gas is
Magnesium nitrate
Calcium nitrate

(iii)
(iv)

Barium nitrate
Strontium nitrate

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)
(ii)

19. Which of the following statements is true about Ca(OH)2?

(i)
(ii)

It is used in the preparation of bleaching powder

It is a light blue solid

(iii)
(iv)

It does not possess disinfectant property.

It is used in the manufacture of cement.

20. A chemical A is used for the preparation of washing soda to recover ammonia.
When CO2 is bubbled through an aqueous solution of A, the solution turns
milky. It is used in white washing due to disinfectant nature. What is the
chemical formula of A?
(i) Ca (HCO3)2
(ii)

CaO

(iii)
(iv)

Ca(OH)2
CaCO3

21. Dehydration of hydrates of halides of calcium, barium and strontium i.e.,

CaCl26H2O, BaCl2.2H2O, SrCl 2.2H 2O, can be achieved by heating. These
become wet on keeping in air. Which of the following statements is correct
about these halides?
(i) act as dehydrating agent
can absorb moisture from air
Tendency to form hydrate decreases from calcium to barium

(iv)

All of the above

(ii)
(iii)

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.
22. Metallic elements are described by their standard electrode potential, fusion
enthalpy, atomic size, etc. The alkali metals are characterised by which of the
following properties?

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 128

(i)

High boiling point

(ii)

High negative standard electrode potential

(iii)
(iv)

High density
Large atomic size

23. Several sodium compounds find use in industries. Which of the following
compounds are used for textile industry?
Na2CO3

(ii)
(iii)

NaHCO3
NaOH

(iv)

NaCl

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

24. Which of the following compounds are readily soluble in water?

(i)

BeSO4

(ii)
(iii)

MgSO4
BaSO4

(iv)

SrSO4

25. When Zeolite, which is hydrated sodium aluminium silicate is treated with
hard water, the sodium ions are exchanged with which of the following ion(s)?
+

(i)
(ii)

H ions
Mg2+ ions

(iii)

Ca ions

(iv)

SO24 ions

26. Identify the correct formula of halides of alkaline earth metals from the following.
(i)
(ii)

BaCl2.2H2O
BaCl2.4H2O

(iii)

CaCl2.6H2O

(iv)

SrCl2.4H2O

27. Choose the correct statements from the following.

Beryllium is not readily attacked by acids because of the presence of

an oxide film on the surface of the metal.

(ii)

(iii)

Beryllium sulphate is readily soluble in water as the greater hydration

2+
enthalpy of Be overcomes the lattice enthalpy factor.
Beryllium exhibits coordination number more than four.

(iv)

Beryllium oxide is purely acidic in nature.

(i)

28. Which of the following are the correct reasons for anomalous behaviour of lithium?
(i)

Exceptionally small size of its atom

(ii)

Its high polarising power

(iii)

It has high degree of hydration

(iv)

Exceptionally low ionisation enthalpy

129 The s-Block Elements

III. Short Answer Type

29. How do you account for the strong reducing power of lithium in aqueous
solution?
30. When heated in air, the alkali metals form various oxides. Mention the oxides
formed by Li, Na and K.
31. Complete the following reactions
(i)

+ H2O
O 2
2

O2 + H2O

(ii)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

32. Lithium resembles magnesium in some of its properties. Mention two such
properties and give reasons for this resemblance.

33. Name an element from Group 2 which forms an amphoteric oxide and a water
soluble sulphate.
34. Discuss the trend of the following:
(i)

Thermal stability of carbonates of Group 2 elements.

(ii)

The solubility and the nature of oxides of Group 2 elements.

35. Why are BeSO4 and MgSO4 readily soluble in water while CaSO4, SrSO4 and
BaSO4 are insoluble?
36. All compounds of alkali metals are easily soluble in water but lithium
compounds are more soluble in organic solvents. Explain.
37. In the Solvay process, can we obtain sodium carbonate directly by treating
the solution containing (NH4) 2CO 3 with sodium chloride? Explain.

38. Write Lewis strucure of O2 ion and find out oxidation state of each oxygen
atom? What is the average oxidation state of oxygen in this ion?
39. Why do beryllium and magnesium not impart colour to the flame in the flame test?
40. What is the structure of BeCl2 molecule in gaseous and solid state?

IV. Matching Type

In the following questions more than one option of column I and II may be
correlated.

41. Match the elements given in Column I with the properties mentioned in Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i)

(a) Insoluble sulphate

(ii)

(b) Strongest monoacidic base

(iii)

(c) Most negative E

metals.

(iv)

(d) Insoluble oxalate

value among alkali

(e) 6s2 outer electronic configuration

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 130

42.

Match the compounds given in Column I with their uses mentioned in Column II.
Column I
(i) CaCO3

(a)

Dentistry, ornamental work

(ii) Ca(OH)2

(b)

Manufacture of sodium carbonate from

caustic soda

(iii) CaO

(c)

Manufacture of high quality paper

(iv) CaSO4

(d)

Used in white washing

Match the elements given in Column I with the colour they impart to the
flame given in Column II.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

43.

Column II

Column I

Column II

(i) Cs

(a)

Apple green

(ii) Na

(b)

Violet

(iii) K

(c)

Brick red

(iv) Ca

(d)

Yellow

(v) Sr

(e)

Crimson red

(vi) Ba

(f)

Blue

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement

of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given
below each question.
44. Assertion (A): The carbonate of lithium decomposes easily on heating to
form lithium oxide and CO2.
Reason (R) :

Lithium being very small in size polarises large carbonate

ion leading to the formation of more stable Li2O and CO2.

(i)

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

45. Assertion (A): Beryllium carbonate is kept in the atmosphere of carbon

dioxide.
Reason (R) :

Beryllium carbonate is unstable and decomposes to give

beryllium oxide and carbon dioxide.

(i)

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct.

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

131 The s-Block Elements

VI. Long Answer Type

46. The s-block elements are characterised by their larger atomic sizes, lower
ionisation enthalpies, invariable +1 oxidation state and solubilities of their
oxosalts.In the light of these features describe the nature of their oxides,
halides and oxosalts.
47. Present a comparative account of the alkali and alkaline earth metals with
respect to the following characteristics:
Tendency to form ionic / covalent compounds

(ii)

Nature of oxides and their solubility in water

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)
(iii)

Formation of oxosalts

(iv)

Solubility of oxosalts

(v)

Thermal stability of oxosalts

48. When a metal of group 1 was dissolved in liquid ammonia, the following
observations were obtained:
(i)

Blue solution was obtained initially.

(ii)

On concentrating the solution, blue colour changed to bronze colour.

How do you account for the blue colour of the solution? Give the name of the
product formed on keeping the solution for some time.

49. The stability of peroxide and superoxide of alkali metals increase as we go

down the group. Explain giving reason.
50. When water is added to compound (A) of calcium, solution of compound (B)
is formed. When carbon dioxide is passed into the solution, it turns milky
due to the formation of compound (C). If excess of carbon dioxide is passed
into the solution milkiness disappears due to the formation of compound
(D). Identify the compounds A, B, C and D. Explain why the milkiness
disappears in the last step.

51. Lithium hydride can be used to prepare other useful hydrides. Beryllium
hydride is one of them. Suggest a route for the preparation of beryllium hydride
starting from lithium hydride. Write chemical equations involved in the process.

52. An element of group 2 forms covalent oxide which is amphoteric in nature

and dissolves in water to give an amphoteric hydroxide. Identify the element
and write chemical reactions of the hydroxide of the element with an alkali
and an acid.
53. Ions of an element of group 1 participate in the transmission of nerve signals
and transport of sugars and aminoacids into cells. This element imparts yellow
colour to the flame in flame test and forms an oxide and a peroxide with
oxygen. Identify the element and write chemical reaction to show the formation
of its peroxide. Why does the element impart colour to the flame?

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 132

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (iv)

2. (i)

3. (iii)

4. (iv)

5. (i)

6. (i)

7. (i)

8. (iii)

9. (ii)

10. (i)

11. (i)

12. (i)

13. (ii)

14. (i)

15. (iii)

16. (i)

17. (iv)

18. (ii)

19. (i)

20. (iii)

21. (iv)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

22. (ii), (iv)

23. (i), (iii)

24. (i), (ii)

26. (i), (iii)

27. (i), (ii)

28. (i), (ii)

25. (ii), (iii)

III. Short Answer Type

31.

(i)

O2
+ 2H2O 2OH + H2O2
2

(ii)

2O2 + 2H2O 2OH + H2O2 + O2

IV. Matching Type

41.

(i) (c),

(ii) (b),

(iii)(d),

(iv)(a), (e)

42.

(i) (c),

(ii) (d),

(iii) (b),

(iv) (a)

43.

(i) (f),

(ii) (d),

(iii) (b),

(iv) (c)

(v) (e),

(vi) (a)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

44. (i)

45. (i)

VI. Long Answer Type

50.

Compound : A : CaO;

B : Ca (OH)2 ; C : CaCO3 ; D : Ca(HCO3)2

Ca(HCO3)2 is soluble in water. Hence, milkiness of solution disappears on

passing excess carbon dioxide into the solution of compound B.

51.

8 LiH + Al2Cl6 2Li Al H4 + 6 LiCl

LiAl H4 + 2BeCl2 2BeH2 + LiCl + AlCl3

52.

The element is beryllium

53.

The element is sodium.

133 The s-Block Elements

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

THE p -BL
OCK ELEMENTS
-BLOCK
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1.

(i)
(ii)

B
Al

(iii)
(iv)

Ga
In

Which of the following is a Lewis acid ?

(i)
(ii)

AlCl3
MgCl2

(iii)
(iv)

CaCl2
BaCl2

The geometry of a complex species can be understood from the knowledge of

type of hybridisation of orbitals of central atom. The hybridisation of orbitals
of central atom in [Be(OH)4] and the geometry of the complex are respectively
(i)
(ii)

(ii)

gives up a proton

(iii)

accepts OH from water releasing proton

(iv)

combines with proton from water molecule

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Catenation i.e., linking of similar atoms depends on size and electronic

configuration of atoms. The tendency of catenation in Group 14 elements
follows the order:
(i)

C > Si > Ge > Sn

(ii)

C >> Si > Ge Sn

(iii)

Si > C > Sn > Ge

(iv)

Ge > Sn > Si > C

Silicon has a strong tendency to form polymers like silicones. The chain length
of silicone polymer can be controlled by adding
(i)

MeSiCl 3

(ii)

Me2SiCl2

(iii)

Me3SiCl

(iv)

Me4Si

Ionisation enthalpy (i H1 kJ mol1) for the elements of Group 13 follows the order.
(i)

B > Al > Ga > In > Tl

(ii)

B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

(iii)

B < Al > Ga < In > Tl

(iv)

B > Al < Ga > In < Tl

10. In the structure of diborane

(i)

(ii)

(iii)
(iv)

All hydrogen atoms lie in one plane and boron atoms lie in a plane
perpendicular to this plane.
2 boron atoms and 4 terminal hydrogen atoms lie in the same plane
and 2 bridging hydrogen atoms lie in the perpendicular plane.
4 bridging hydrogen atoms and boron atoms lie in one plane and two
terminal hydrogen atoms lie in a plane perpendicular to this plane.
All the atoms are in the same plane.
135 The p-Block Elements

11. A compound X, of boron reacts with NH3 on heating to give another compound
Y which is called inorganic benzene. The compound X can be prepared by
treating BF 3 with Lithium aluminium hydride. The compounds X and Y are
represented by the formulas.
(i)

B2H 6 , B3N3H6

(ii)

B2O 3, B3 N3 H6

(iii)

BF3, B3N3 H6

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.
16. The reason for small radius of Ga compared to Al is _______.
(i)

poor screening effect of d and f orbitals

(ii)

increase in nuclear charge

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 136

(iii)

presence of higher orbitals

(iv)

higher atomic number

17. The linear shape of CO2 is due to _________.

(i)

sp3 hybridisation of carbon

(ii)

sp hybridisation of carbon

(iii)

p p bonding between carbon and oxygen

(iv)

sp2 hybridisation of carbon

18. Me3SiCl is used during polymerisation of organo silicones because

the chain length of organo silicone polymers can be controlled by adding
Me3SiCl

(ii)

Me3SiCl blocks the end terminal of silicone polymer

(iii)

Me3SiCl improves the quality and yield of the polymer

(iv)

Me3SiCl acts as a catalyst during polymerisation

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

19. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i)

Fullerenes have dangling bonds

(ii)

Fullerenes are cage-like molecules

(iii)

Graphite is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon

(iv)

Graphite is slippery and hard and therefore used as a dry lubricant in

machines

20. Which of the following statements are correct. Answer on the basis of Fig.11.1.
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

Out of six B-H bonds four B-H

bonds can be described in
terms of 3 centre 2 electron
bonds;

Fig. 11.1

The four terminal B-H bonds

are two centre-two electron regular bonds.

(iv)

The two birdged hydrogen

atoms and the two boron atoms
lie in one plane;
Out of six BH bonds two
bonds can be described in
terms of 3 centre 2-electron
bonds.

21. Identify the correct resonance structures of carbon dioxide from the ones given
below :
(i)

O CO

(ii)

O=C=O
+
O CO

(iii)

(iv)

O C O+
137 The p-Block Elements

III. Short Answer Type

22. Draw the structures of BCl 3.NH3 and AlCl3 (dimer).
23. Explain the nature of boric acid as a Lewis acid in water.
24. Draw the structure of boric acid showing hydrogen bonding. Which species
is present in water? What is the hybridisation of boron in this species?
25. Explain why the following compounds behave as Lewis acids?
(i)

BCl3

(ii)

AlCl3

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

26. Give reasons for the following:

(i)

CCl4 is immiscible in water, whereas SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed.

(ii)

Carbon has a strong tendency for catenation compared to silicon.

27. Explain the following :

(i)

CO2 is a gas whereas SiO2 is a solid.

(ii)

Silicon forms SiF62 ion whereas corresponding fluoro compound of

carbon is not known.

28. The +1 oxidation state in group 13 and +2 oxidation state in group 14 becomes
more and more stable with increasing atomic number. Explain.
29. Carbon and silicon both belong to the group 14, but inspite of the
stoichiometric similarity, the dioxides, (i.e., carbon dioxide and silicon dioxide),
differ in their structures. Comment.
30. If a trivalent atom replaces a few silicon atoms in three dimensional network
of silicon dioxide, what would be the type of charge on overall structure?

31. When BCl3 is treated with water, it hydrolyses and forms [B[OH]4] only whereas
3+
AlCl3 in acidified aqueous solution forms [Al (H2O) 6] ion. Explain what is the
hybridisation of boron and aluminium in these species?

32. Aluminium dissolves in mineral acids and aqueous alkalies and thus shows
amphoteric character. A piece of aluminium foil is treated with dilute
hydrochloric acid or dilute sodium hydroxide solution in a test tube and on
bringing a burning matchstick near the mouth of the test tube, a pop sound
indicates the evolution of hydrogen gas. The same activity when performed
with concentrated nitric acid, reaction doesnt proceed. Explain the reason.

33. Explain the following :

(i)

Gallium has higher ionisation enthalpy than aluminium.

(ii)

Boron does not exist as B 3+ ion.

(iii)

Aluminium forms [AlF 6]3 ion but boron does not form [BF6]3 ion.

(iv)

PbX2 is more stable than PbX4.

(v)

Pb4+ acts as an oxidising agent but Sn2+ acts as a reducing agent.

(vi)

Electron gain enthalpy of chlorine is more negative as compared to fluorine.

(vii)

Tl (NO3)3 acts as an oxidising agent.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 138

(viii)

Carbon shows catenation property but lead does not.

(ix)

BF 3 does not hydrolyse.

(x)

Why does the element silicon, not form a graphite like structure whereas
carbon does.

34. Identify the compounds A, X and Z in the following reactions :

A + 2HCl + 5H2O 2NaCl + X

(i)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

HBO

X
Z
2
3 70K
>3 70K

35. Complete the following chemical equations :

Z + 3 LiAlH 4 X + 3 LiF + 3AlF3
X + 6H2O Y + 6H2

3X + 3O 2
B2O 3 + 3H2 O

IV. Matching Type

In the following questions more than one correlation is possible between

options of Column I and Column II. Make as many correlations as you can.

36. Match the species given in Column I with the properties mentioned in
Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i) BF 4

(a)

Oxidation state of central atom is +4

(ii) AlCl3

(b)

Strong oxidising agent

(iii) SnO

(c)

Lewis acid

(iv) PbO2

(d)

Can be further oxidised

(e)

Tetrahedral shape

37. Match the species given in Column I with properties given in Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i) Diborane

(a) Used as a flux for soldering metals

(ii) Galluim

(b) Crystalline form of silica

(iii) Borax

(c) Banana bonds

(iv) Aluminosilicate

(d) Low melting, high boiling, useful for

measuring high temperatures

(v) Quartz

(e) Used as catalyst in petrochemical

industries
139 The p-Block Elements

38. Match the species given in Column I with the hybridisation given in Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i)

Boron in [B(OH)4]

(a) sp2

(ii)

Aluminium in [Al(H2O)6]3+

(b) sp3

(iii)

Boron in B2H 6

(c)

(iv)

Carbon in Buckminsterfullerene

(v)

Silicon in SiO44

(vi)

Germanium in [GeCl6]

sp3d2

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement

of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given
below each question.

39. Assertion (A): If aluminium atoms replace a few silicon atoms in three
dimensional network of silicon dioxide, the overall structure
acquires a negative charge.
Reason (R) :

Aluminium is trivalent while silicon is tetravalent.

(i)

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

40. Assertion (A): Silicons are water repelling in nature.

Reason (R) :

Silicons are organosilicon polymers, which have (R 2SiO) as

repeating unit.

(i)

A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

A and R both are not true.

(iv)

A is not true but R is true.

VI. Long Answer Type

41. Describe the general trends in the following properties of the elements in
Groups 13 and 14.
(i)

Atomic size

(ii)

Ionisation enthalpy

(iii)

Metallic character

(iv)

Oxidation states

(v)

Nature of halides

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 140

42. Account for the following observations:

(i)

AlCl 3 is a Lewis acid

(ii)

Though fluorine is more electronegative than chlorine yet BF3 is a weaker

Lewis acid than BCl3

(iii)

PbO 2 is a stronger oxidising agent than SnO2

(iv)

The +1 oxidation state of thallium is more stable than its +3 state.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

43. When aqueous solution of borax is acidified with hydrochloric acid, a white
crystalline solid is formed which is soapy to touch. Is this solid acidic or basic
in nature? Explain.
44. Three pairs of compounds are given below. Identify that compound in each of
the pairs which has group 13 element in more stable oxidation state. Give
reason for your choice. State the nature of bonding also.
(i)

TlCl 3, TlCl

(ii)

AlCl 3 , AlCl

(iii)

InCl 3, InCl

45. BCl3 exists as monomer whereas AlCl3 is dimerised through halogen bridging.
Give reason. Explain the structure of the dimer of AlCl3 also.
46. Boron fluoride exists as BF3 but boron hydride doesnt exist as BH3. Give
reason. In which form does it exist? Explain its structure.
47. (i)

(ii)

What are silicones? State the uses of silicones.

What are boranes? Give chemical equation for the preparation of diborane.

48. A compound (A) of boron reacts with NMe3 to give an adduct (B) which on
hydrolysis gives a compound (C) and hydrogen gas. Compound (C) is an acid.
Identify the compounds A, B and C. Give the reactions involved.
49. A nonmetallic element of group 13, used in making bullet proof vests is
extremely hard solid of black colour. It can exist in many allotropic forms and
has unusually high melting point. Its trifluoride acts as Lewis acid towards
ammonia. The element exihibits maximum covalency of four. Identify the
element and write the reaction of its trifluoride with ammonia. Explain why
does the trifluoride act as a Lewis acid.

50. A tetravalent element forms monoxide and dioxide with oxygen. When air is
passed over heated element (1273 K), producer gas is obtained. Monoxide of
the element is a powerful reducing agent and reduces ferric oxide to iron.
Identify the element and write formulas of its monoxide and dioxide. Write
chemical equations for the formation of producer gas and reduction of ferric
oxide with the monoxide.

141 The p-Block Elements

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (iii)

2. (i)

3. (i)

4. (i)

5. (i)

6. (iii)

7. (ii)

8. (iii)

9. (iv)

10. (ii)

11. (i)

12. (ii)

13. (iv)

14. (iii)

15. (ii)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

16. (i), (ii)

17. (ii), (iii)

18. (i), (ii)

19. (ii), (iii)

20. (i), (ii), (iv)

21. (ii), (iv)

III. Short Answer Type

23.

Boric acid acts as Lewis acid in water by accepting a pair of electrons

from a hydroxyl ion :
B (OH) 3 + 2HOH [B(OH)4] + H3O +

24.

Species present in water is [B(OH)4] . Boron is sp3 hybridised.

25.

BCl3 and AlCl3 being electron deficient due to incomplete octet of central
metal atom behave as Lewis acids.

26.

CCl4 is a covalent compound. Hence, insoluble in water whereas SiCl4 is

soluble because Si atom in SiCl4 can accomodate the lone pair of electrons
obtained from oxygen atom of water molecule in d-orbitals.

27.

(i)

Very high Si-O bond enthalpy and ionic character of Si-O bond.

(ii)

Vacant 3d orbitals are available on Si atom to accomodate electrons

and expand coordination number upto 6.

[Hint : In CO 2 , carbon is sp hybridised and it is a linear molecule. In

SiO2, Si is tetrahedrally bonded to four oxygen atoms.]

30.

Negative

32.

[Hint : Conc. HNO3 renders aluminium passive by forming a protective

oxide layer on the surface.]

29.

34.

Na2B4O7 (Borax)

BF3

H3BO3

B2H6

B2O3

H3BO3

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 142

35.

IV. Matching Type

36.

(i) (e)

(ii) (c)

(iii) (d)

(iv) (a), (b)

37.

(i) (c)

(ii) (d)

(iii)(a)

(iv)(e)

(v)(b)

38.

(i) (b),

(ii) (c),

(iii) (b),

(iv) (a)

(v)(b)

(vi)(c)
V. Assertion and Reason Type
40. (ii)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

39. (i)

VI. Long Answer Type

45.

[Hint : Absence of d-orbitals in boron.]

48.

A = B 2H6,

C = B(OH)3 i.e. H3BO3.

B = BH3.NMe3,

143 The p-Block Elements

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

ORG
ANIC CHEMIS
TRY
ORGANIC
CHEMISTRY
SOME
BA
PRINCIPLES
SOME B
BA
ASIC
SIC PRINCIPLE
PRINCIPLESS
AND
SS
TECHNIQUES
AND TECHNIQUE
TECHNIQUE
TECHNIQUES

I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)

(i)

3-Ethyl-4, 4-dimethylheptane

(ii)

4,4-Dimethyl-3-ethylheptane

(iii)

5-Ethyl-4, 4-dimethylheptane

(iv)

4,4-Bis(methyl)-3-ethylheptane

The IUPAC name for

(i)

1-hydroxypentane-1,4-dione

(ii)

1,4-dioxopentanol

(iii)

1-carboxybutan-3-one

(iv)

4-oxopentanoic acid

The IUPAC name for

Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name?

is ________.

(ii)

1-Chloro-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene

(iii)

2-Chloro-1-nitro-5-methylbenzene

(iv)

m-Nitro-p-chlorotoluene

Electronegativity of carbon atoms depends upon their state of hybridisation.

In which of the following compounds, the carbon marked with asterisk is
most electronegative?
(i)

CH3 CH2 *CH2 CH3

(ii)

CH3 *CH = CH CH3

(iii)

CH3 CH2 C *CH

(iv)

CH3 CH2 CH = *CH2

In which of the following, functional group isomerism is not possible?

(i)

Alcohols

(ii)

Aldehydes

(iii)

Alkyl halides

(iv)

Cyanides

The fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of some steam volatile organic
compounds called essential oils. These are generally insoluble in water at
room temperature but are miscible with water vapour in vapour phase. A
suitable method for the extraction of these oils from the flowers is:
(i)

Distillation

(ii)

Crystallisation

(iii)

Distillation under reduced pressure

(iv)

Steam distillation

During hearing of a court case, the judge suspected that some changes in the
documents had been carried out. He asked the forensic department to check
the ink used at two different places. According to you which technique can
give the best results?
(i)

Column chromatography

(ii)

Solvent extraction

(iii)

Distillation

1-Chloro-2-nitro-4-methylbenzene

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

(iv)

Thin layer chromatography

The principle involved in paper chromatography is

(i)

Adsorption

(ii)

Partition

(iii)

Solubility

(iv)

Volatility
145 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques

9. What is the correct order of decreasing stability of the following cations.

I.
(i)

II > I > III

(ii)

II > III > I

(iii)

III > I > II

(iv)

I > II > III

II.

is ___________.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

10. Correct IUPAC name for

III.

(i)

2- ethyl-3-methylpentane

(ii)

3,4- dimethylhexane

(iii)

2-sec-butylbutane

(iv)

2, 3-dimethylbutane

11. In which of the following compounds the carbon marked with asterisk is
expected to have greatest positive charge?
(i)

*CH3CH2Cl

(ii)

*CH3CH2Mg+Cl

(iii)

*CH3CH2Br

(iv)

*CH3CH2CH3

12. Ionic species are stabilised by the dispersal of charge. Which of the
following carboxylate ion is the most stable?
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

13. Electrophilic addition reactions proceed in two steps. The first step
involves the addition of an electrophile. Name the type of intermediate
formed in the first step of the following addition reaction.
H3CHC = CH2 + H + ?

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 146

(i)

2 Carbanion

(ii)

1 Carbocation

(iii)

2 Carbocation

AlCl3, SO3 , NO+2

(iii)

NO2 , CH3 , CH 3

(iv)

C2H5 ,

, C2H5

Note : Consider the following four compounds for answering questions 19

and 20.

II.

III.

IV.

19. Which of the following pairs are position isomers?

(i)

I and II

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 148

(ii)

II and III

(iii)

II and IV

(iv)

III and IV

20. Which of the following pairs are not functional group isomers?
(i)

II and III

(ii)

II and IV

(iii)

I and IV

(iv)

I and II

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

21. Nucleophile is a species that should have

(i)

a pair of electrons to donate

(ii)

positive charge

(iii)

negative charge

(iv)

electron deficient species

22. Hyperconjugation involves delocalisation of ___________.

(i)

electrons of carbon-hydrogen bond of an alkyl group directly attached

to an atom of unsaturated system.

(ii)

electrons of carbon-hydrogen bond of alkyl group directly attached to

the positively charged carbon atom.

(iii)

-electrons of carbon-carbon bond

(iv)

lone pair of electrons

III. Short Answer Type

Note : Consider structures I to VII and answer the questions 2326.

CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

II.

III.

IV.

149 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques

CH3CH 2OCH2CH3

VI.

CH3OCH2CH2CH3

VII.

23. Which of the above compounds form pairs of metamers?

24. Identify the pairs of compounds which are functional group isomers.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

25. Identify the pairs of compounds that represents position isomerism.

26. Identify the pairs of compounds that represents chain isomerism.

27. For testing halogens in an organic compound with AgNO3 solution, sodium
extract (Lassaignes test) is acidified with dilute HNO3. What will happen if a
student acidifies the extract with dilute H2SO4 in place of dilute HNO 3?
28. What is the hybridisation of each carbon in H 2C = C = CH2.

29. Explain, how is the electronegativity of carbon atoms related to their state of
hybridisation in an organic compound?

30. Show the polarisation of carbon-magnesium bond in the following structure.

CH3CH2CH2CH2MgX

31. Compounds with same molecular formula but differing in their structures are
said to be structural isomers. What type of structural isomerism is shown by
CH 3SCH2CH2CH3 and

32. Which of the following selected chains is correct to name the given compound
according to IUPAC system.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 150

33. In DNA and RNA, nitrogen atom is present in the ring system. Can Kjeldahl
method be used for the estimation of nitrogen present in these? Give reasons.
34. If a liquid compound decomposes at its boiling point, which method (s) can
you choose for its purification. It is known that the compound is stable at low
pressure, steam volatile and insoluble in water.
Note : Answer the questions 35 to 38 on the basis of information given below:

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Stability of carbocations depends upon the electron releasing inductive effect

of groups adjacent to positively charged carbon atom involvement of
neighbouring groups in hyperconjugation and resonance.
and predict which
35. Draw the possible resonance structures for
of the structures is more stable. Give reason for your answer.

36. Which of the following ions is more stable? Use resonance to explain your
answer.

37. The structure of triphenylmethyl cation is given below. This is very stable and
some of its salts can be stored for months. Explain the cause of high stability
of this cation.

38. Write structures of various carbocations that can be obtained from

2-methylbutane. Arrange these carbocations in order of increasing stability.

39. Three students, Manish, Ramesh and Rajni were determining the extra
elements present in an organic compound given by their teacher. They
prepared the Lassaignes extract (L.E.) independently by the fusion of the
compound with sodium metal. Then they added solid FeSO4 and dilute
sulphuric acid to a part of Lassaignes extract. Manish and Rajni obtained
prussian blue colour but Ramesh got red colour. Ramesh repeated the test
with the same Lassaignes extract, but again got red colour only. They were
surprised and went to their teacher and told him about their observation.
Teacher asked them to think over the reason for this. Can you help them by
giving the reason for this observation. Also, write the chemical equations to
explain the formation of compounds of different colours.

151 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques

40. Name the compounds whose line formulae are given below :

(i)

(ii)

41. Write structural formulae for compounds named as(a) 1-Bromoheptane

(b) 5-Bromoheptanoic acid

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

42. Draw the resonance structures of the following compounds;

(i)

(ii)

CH2 = CHCH = CH2

(iii)

43. Identify the most stable species in the following set of ions giving reasons :
(i)

(ii)

44. Give three points of differences between inductive effect and resonance effect.
45. Which of the following compounds will not exist as resonance hybrid. Give
reason for your answer :
(i) CH 3OH

(ii) RCONH2

(iii) CH 3CH = CHCH2NH2

46. Why does SO 3 act as an electrophile?

47. Resonance structures of propenal are given below. Which of these resonating
structures is more stable? Give reason for your answer.

48. By mistake, an alcohol (boiling point 97C) was mixed with a hydrocarbon
(boiling point 68C). Suggest a suitable method to separate the two
compounds. Explain the reason for your choice.

49. Which of the two structures (A) and (B) given below is more stabilised by
resonance? Explain.
CH3COOH

and

(A)
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 152

(B)

IV. Matching Type

In the following questions more than one correlation is possible between
options of Column I and Column II. Make as many correlations as you can.
50. Match the type of mixture of compounds in Column I with the technique of
separation/purification given in Column II.
Column I

Column II
(a)

Steam distillation

(ii) Liquid that decomposes at its

boiling point

(b)

Fractional distillation

(iii) Steam volatile liquid

(c)

Simple distillation

(iv) Two liquids which have boiling

points close to each other

(d)

Distillation under reduced

pressure

(v) Two liquids with large difference in

boiling points.

(e)

Crystallisation

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i) Two solids which have different

solubilities in a solvent and which
do not undergo reaction when
dissolved in it.

51. Match the terms mentioned in Column I with the terms in Column II.
Column I

Column II

(a)

Cyclohexane and 1- hexene

(ii) Nucleophile

(b)

Conjugation of electrons of CH
bond with empty p-orbital present
at adjacent positively charged
carbon.

(iii) Hyperconjugation

(c)

sp2 hybridised carbon with empty

p-orbital

(iv) Isomers

(d)

Ethyne

(v) sp hybridisation

(e)

Species that can receive a pair of

electrons

(f)

Species that can supply a pair of

electrons

(i) Carbocation

(vi) Electrophile

52. Match Column I with Column II.

Column I
(i) Dumas method

Column II
(a) AgNO3
153 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques

(ii) Kjeldahls method

(b) Silica gel

(iii) Carius method

(c) Nitrogen gas

(iv) Chromatography

(d) Free radicals

(v) Homolysis

(e) Ammonium sulphate

53. Match the intermediates given in Column I with their probable structure in
Column II.
Column II

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Column I
(i) Free radical

(a) Trigonal planar

(ii) Carbocation

(b) Pyramidal

(iii) Carbanion

54. Match the ions given in Column I with their nature given in Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i)

(a) Stable due to resonance

(ii)

(b) Destabilised due to inductive effect

(iii)

(c) Stabilised by hyperconjugation

(iv)

(d) A secondary carbocation

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement

of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given
below each question.

55. Assertion (A) : Simple distillation can help in separating a mixture of

propan-1-ol (boiling point 97C) and propanone (boiling point
56C).
Reason (R) :

Liquids with a difference of more than 20C in their boiling

points can be separated by simple distillation.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 154

(i)

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct.

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

56. Assertion (A) : Energy of resonance hybrid is equal to the average of energies
of all canonical forms.
Reason (R) :

Resonance hybrid cannot be presented by a single structure.

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)
(iii)

Both A and R are not correct.

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

57. Assertion (A) : Pent- 1- ene and pent- 2- ene are position isomers.
Reason (R) :

Position isomers differ in the position of functional group or

a substituent.

(i)

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct.

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

58. Assertion (A) : All the carbon atoms in H2C = C = CH2 are sp2 hybridised
Reason (R) :

In this molecule all the carbon atoms are attached to each other
by double bonds.

(i)

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct.

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

59. Assertion (A) : Sulphur present in an organic compound can be estimated

quantitatively by Carius method.
Reason (R) :

Sulphur is separated easily from other atoms in the molecule

and gets precipitated as light yellow solid.

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct.

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

(i)

60. Assertion (A): Components of a mixture of red and blue inks can be
separated by distributing the components between stationary
and mobile phases in paper chromatography.
155 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Reason (R) :

The coloured components of inks migrate at different rates

because paper selectively retains different components
according to the difference in their partition between the two
phases.

(i)

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct.

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

VI. Long Answer Type

61. What is meant by hybridisation? Compound CH2 = C = CH2 contains sp or sp2

hybridised carbon atoms. Will it be a planar molecule?

62. Benzoic acid is a organic compound. Its crude sample can be purified by
crystallisation from hot water. What characteristic differences in the properties
of benzoic acid and the impurity make this process of purification suitable?
63. Two liquids (A) and (B) can be separated by the method of fractional distillation.
The boiling point of liquid (A) is less than boiling point of liquid (B). Which of
the liquids do you expect to come out first in the distillate? Explain.

64. You have a mixture of three liquids A, B and C. There is a large difference in
the boiling points of A and rest of the two liquids i.e., B and C. Boiling point of
liquids B and C are quite close. Liquid A boils at a higher temperature than B
and C and boiling point of B is lower than C. How will you separate the
components of the mixture. Draw a diagram showing set up of the apparatus
for the process.
65. Draw a diagram of bubble plate type fractionating column. When do we require
such type of a column for separating two liquids. Explain the principle involved
in the separation of components of a mixture of liquids by using fractionating
column. What industrial applications does this process have?

66. A liquid with high boiling point decomposes on simple distillation but it can
be steam distilled for its purification. Explain how is it possible?

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 156

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (ii)

2. (iv)

3. (ii)

4. (iii)

5. (iii)

6. (iv)

7. (iv)

8. (ii)

9. (i)

10. (ii)

11. (i)

12. (iv)

13. (iii)

14. (ii)

15. (ii)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

16. (i), (iv)

17. (i), (iii), (iv)

18. (ii), (iii)

19. (ii)

20. (i), (iii)

21. (i), (iii)

22. (i), (ii)

III. Short Answer Type

27.

White ppt. of Ag2SO4 will be formed.

29.

Electronegativity increases with increasing s character.

sp3 < sp2 < sp

. Since electronegativity of carbon is more

30.

than magnesium it will behave as

31.

Metamerism.

32.

The four carbon chain. Selected chain should have maximum number of
functional groups.

33.

DNA and RNA have nitrogen in the heterocyclic rings. Nitrogen present in
rings, azo groups and nitro groups cannot be removed as ammonia.

35.

II.

Structure II is more stable because every atom has complete octet.

Structure I is more stable due to resonance. (See resonance structure A

and B). No resonance is possible in structure II.

36.

157 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques

Stabilised due to nine possible canonical structures.

38.

Four possible carbocations are

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

37.

Order of increasing stability

39.

I < IV < II < III

In Lassaignes test SCN ions are formed due to the presence of sulphur
and nitrogen both. These give red colour with Fe3+ ions. This happens
when fusion is not carried out in the excess of sodium. With excess of
sodium the thiocyanate ion, if formed, is decomposed as follows:
NaSCN + 2Na NaCN + Na2S

40. (i) 3-Ethyl-4-methylheptan-5-en-2-one

(ii) 3-Nitrocyclohex-1-ene.

41. (a) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2Br

(b)

42. (i)

(ii)

(iii)
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 158

43.

(i)

, The replacement of hydrogen by bromine increases positive

charge on carbon atom and destabilises the species.

(ii)

is most stable because electronegativity of chlorine is more

than hydrogen. On replacing hydrogen by chlorine, negative charge
on carbon is reduced and species is stabilised.

44.

Inductive effect

Resonance effect

Use -electrons

(a)

Use - electrons or lone pair of

electrons

(ii)

Move up to 3-carbon atoms

(b)

All along the length of

conjugated system

(iii)

Slightly displaced electrons

(c)

Complete transfer of electrons

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

45.

CH3OH; Any possible contributing structure will have charge separation

and incomplete octet of electrons on atoms. So the structure will be unstable
due to high energy. e.g.,

46.

Three highly electronegative oxygen atoms are attached to sulphur atom.

It makes sulphur atom electron deficient. Due to resonance also, sulphur
acquires positive charge. Both these factors make SO 3 an electrophile.

47.

I > II

48.

Simple distillation can be used because the two compounds have a

difference of more than 20 in their boiling points and both the liquids
can be distilled without any decomposition.

49.

Resonating structures are as follows:

(A)

(B)

Structure B is more stabilised as it does not involve charge separation.

159 Organic Chemistry Some Basic Principles and Techniques

IV. Matching Type

50.

(i) (e)

(ii) (d)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (b)

(v) (c)

51.

(i) (c)

(ii) (f )

(iii) (b)

(iv) (a)

(v) (d)

(iv) (b)

(v) (d)

(iii) (b)

(iv) (c), (d)

(vi) (e)
52.

(i) (c)

(ii) (e)

(iii) (a)

53.

(i) (a),

(ii) (a)

(iii) (b)

54.

(i) (a), (b), (d)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(ii) (b)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

55. (i)

56. (iv)

57. (i)

58. (iv)

59. (iii)

60. (i)

VI. Long Answer Type

61.

No. It is not a planar molecule.

Central carbon atom is sp hybridised and its two unhybridised p-orbitals

are perpendicular to each other. The p-orbitals in one plane overlap with
one of the p-orbital of left terminal carbon atom and the p-orbital in other
plane overlaps with p-orbital of right side terminal carbon atom. This
fixes the position of two terminal carbon atoms and the hydrogen atoms
attached to them in planes perpendicular to each other. Due to this the
pair of hydrogen atoms attached to terminal carbon atoms are present in
different planes.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 160

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

HYDR
OC
ARBONS
YDROC
OCARBONS

I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)

(A) nbutane

(B) 2methylbutane

(D) 2,2dimethylpropane

(i)

A>B>C>D

(ii)

B>C>D>A

(iii)

D>C>B>A

(iv)

C>B>D>A

Arrange the halogens F2 , Cl 2 , Br2 , I2 , in order of their increasing reactivity

with alkanes.
(i)

I 2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2

(ii)

Br 2 < Cl2 < F2 < I2

(iii)

F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2

(iv)

Br 2 < I 2 < Cl2 < F2

Arrange the following in decreasing order of their boiling points.

The increasing order of reduction of alkyl halides with zinc and dilute HCl is
(i)

RCl < RI < RBr

ii)

RCl < RBr < RI

(iii)

RI < RBr < RCl

(iv)

RBr < RI < RCl

The correct IUPAC name of the following alkane is

(i)

3,6 Diethyl 2 methyloctane

(ii)

5 Isopropyl 3 ethyloctane

(iii)

3 Ethyl 5 isopropyloctane

(iv)

3 Isopropyl 6 ethyloctane

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

The addition of HBr to 1-butene gives a mixture of products A, B and C

(A)

(B)

(C)

The mixture consists of

(i)

A and B as major and C as minor products

(ii)

B as major, A and C as minor products

(iii)

B as minor, A and C as major products

(iv)

A and B as minor and C as major products

Which of the following will not show geometrical isomerism?

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 162

7. Arrange the following hydrogen halides in order of their decreasing reactivity

with propene.
(i)

HCl > HBr > HI

(ii)

HBr > HI > HCl

(iii)

HI > HBr > HCl

(iv)

HCl > HI > HBr

8. Arrange the following carbanions in order of their decreasing stability.

(A) H3C C C

(C)

A>B>C

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

(B) H C C

(ii)

B>A>C

(iii)

C>B>A

(iv)

C>A>B

9. Arrange the following alkyl halides in decreasing order of the rate of

elimination reaction with alcoholic KOH.

(B) CH3CH2Br

(A)

(i)

A>B>C

(ii)

C>B>A

(iii)

B>C>A

(iv)

A>C>B

10. Which of the following reactions of methane is incomplete combustion:

(i)

Cu/523 K/100 atm

2CH4 + O2
2CH3OH

(iii)

Mo2O3
CH4 + O 2
HCHO + H2O
CH4 + O2 C(s) + 2H2O (l)

(iv)

CH4 + 2O2 CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l)

(ii)

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.

11. Some oxidation reactions of methane are given below. Which of them is/are
controlled oxidation reactions?
(i)
(ii)

CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l)

CH4 (g) + O2 (g) C (s) + 2H2O (l)

(iii)

Mo2O3
CH4 (g) + O2 (g)
HCHO + H2O

163

Hydrocarbons

(iv)

Cu/523 /100 atm

2CH4 (g) + O2 (g)
2CH3OH

12. Which of the following alkenes on ozonolysis give a mixture of ketones only?
(i)

CH3CH

CHCH3

(ii)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(iii)

(iv)

13. Which are the correct IUPAC names of the following compound?

(i)
(ii)

5 Butyl 4 isopropyldecane
5 Ethyl 4 propyldecane

(iii)
(iv)

5 sec-Butyl 4 iso-propyldecane
4(1-methylethyl) 5 (1-methylpropyl)-decane

14. Which are the correct IUPAC names of the following compound?

5 (2, 2Dimethylpropyl)-decane

(ii)

4 Butyl 2,2 dimethylnonane

(i)

(iii)

2,2 Dimethyl 4 pentyloctane

(iv)

5 neo-Pentyldecane

15. For an electrophilic substitution reaction, the presence of a halogen atom in

the benzene ring _______.
(i)

deactivates the ring by inductive effect

(ii)

deactivates the ring by resonance

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 164

(iii)

increases the charge density at ortho and para position relative to meta
position by resonance

(iv)

directs the incoming electrophile to meta position by increasing the

charge density relative to ortho and para position.

16. In an electrophilic substitution reaction of nitrobenzene, the presence of nitro

group ________.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)

activates the ring by inductive effect.

decreases the charge density at ortho and para position of the ring
relative to meta position by resonance.
increases the charge density at meta position relative to the ortho and
para positions of the ring by resonance.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(iv)

deactivates the ring by inductive effect.

17. Which of the following are correct?

(i)

is more stable than CH 3 CH

CH 3O CH
2
2

(ii)

(CH 3)2 CH is less stable than CH3CH2 CH

(iii)

CH 2

CH CH
is more stable than CH3CH2 CH
2
2

(iv)

CH 2

CH is more stable than CH 3 CH 2

18. Four structures are given in options (i) to (iv). Examine them and select the
aromatic structures.
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

19. The molecules having dipole moment are __________.

2,2-Dimethylpropane

(ii)

trans-Pent-2-ene

(iii)

cis-Hex-3-ene

(iv)

2, 2, 3, 3 - Tetramethylbutane.

(i)

III. Short Answer Type

20. Why do alkenes prefer to undergo electrophilic addition reaction while arenes
prefer electrophilic substitution reactions? Explain.
21. Alkynes on reduction with sodium in liquid ammonia form trans alkenes.
Will the butene thus formed on reduction of 2-butyne show the geometrical
isomerism?
165

Hydrocarbons

22. Rotation around carbon-carbon single bond of ethane is not completely free.
Justify the statement.
23. Draw Newman and Sawhorse projections for the eclipsed and staggered
conformations of ethane. Which of these conformations is more stable and why?
24. The intermediate carbocation formed in the reactions of HI, HBr and HCl with
propene is the same and the bond energy of HCl, HBr and HI is 430.5 kJ mol1,
363.7 kJ mol 1 and 296.8 kJ mol1 respectively. What will be the order of
reactivity of these halogen acids?

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

25. What will be the product obtained as a result of the following reaction and why?

26. How will you convert benzene into (i) p nitrobromobenzene

(ii) m nitrobromobenzene

27. Arrange the following set of compounds in the order of their decreasing relative
reactivity with an electrophile.Give reason.

28. Despite their - I effect, halogens are o- and p-directing in haloarenes. Explain.
29. Why does presence of a nitro group make the benzene ring less reactive in
comparison to the unsubstituted benzene ring. Explain.
30. Suggest a route for the preparation of nitrobenzene starting from acetylene?

31. Predict the major product (s) of the following reactions and explain their formation.
(Ph-CO-O)

H 3CCH

2
CH2

HB
r

H 3CCH

HBr
CH2

32. Nucleophiles and electrophiles are reaction intermediates having electron rich
and electron deficient centres respectively. Hence, they tend to attack electron
deficient and electron rich centres respectively. Classify the following species
as electrophiles and nucleophiles.
(i)

H 3CO

(v)

(H 3C)3C

(ii)
+

(vi)

(iii)
Br

(vii)

(iv)
H 3COH

(viii) RNHR

33. The relative reactivity of 1, 2, 3 hydrogens towards chlorination is 1 : 3.8 : 5.

Calculate the percentages of all monochlorinated products obtained from
2-methylbutane.
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 166

34. Write the structures and names of products obtained in the reactions of sodium
with a mixture of 1-iodo-2-methylpropane and 2-iodopropane.
35. Write hydrocarbon radicals that can be formed as intermediates during
monochlorination of 2-methylpropane? Which of them is more stable? Give
reasons.
36. An alkane C8H18 is obtained as the only product on subjecting a primary alkyl
halide to Wurtz reaction. On monobromination this alkane yields a single isomer
of a tertiary bromide. Write the structure of alkane and the tertiary bromide.
37. The ring systems having following characteristics are aromatic.
Planar ring containing conjugated bonds.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)
(ii)

Complete delocalisation of the electrons in ring system i.e. each

atom in the ring has unhybridised p-orbital, and

(iii)

Presence of (4n+2) electrons in the ring where n is an integer

(n = 0, 1, 2,...........) [Huckel rule].

Using this information classify the following compounds as aromatic/nonaromatic.

(A)

(B)

38. Which of the following compounds are aromatic according to Huckels rule?

(E)

(D)

(C)

(F)

39. Suggest a route to prepare ethyl hydrogensulphate (CH3CH2OSO2OH)

starting from ethanol (C2H 5OH).
167

Hydrocarbons

IV. Matching Type

40. Match the reagent from Column I which on reaction with CH 3CH=CH 2 gives
some product given in Column II as per the codes given below :
Column I

Column II

(i)

O3/Zn + H2O

(a)

Acetic acid and CO 2

(ii)

KMnO4/H

(b)

Propan-1-ol

(iii)

KMnO4/OH

(c)

Propan-2-ol

(iv)

H2O/H+

(d)

Acetaldehyde and formaldehyde

(v)

B2H6/NaOH and H 2O 2

(e)

Propane-1,2-diol

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

41. Match the hydrocarbons in Column I with the boiling points given in Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i)

nPentane

(a)

282.5 K

(ii)

iso-Pentane

(b)

309 K

(iii)

neo-Pentane

(c)

301 K

42. Match the following reactants in Column I with the corresponding reaction
products in Column II.
Column I

Column II

AlCl 3
Benzene + Cl2

(a)

Benzoic acid

AlCl3
Benzene + CH3Cl

(b)

Methyl phenyl ketone

(iii)

AlCl 3
Benzene + CH3COCl

(c)

Toluene

(iv)

KMnO /NaOH
Toluene
4

(d)

Chlorobenzene

(e)

Benzene hexachloride

(i)

(ii)

43. Match the reactions given in Column I with the reaction types in Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i)

CH2

H
CH2 + H2O
CH3CH2OH

(a)

Hydrogenation

(ii)

CH2

Pd
CH2 + H2
CH3CH3

(b)

Halogenation

(iii)

CH2

CH2 + Cl2 ClCH2CH2Cl

(c)

Polymerisation

(iv)

Cu tube

C6H6
3 CH CH
Heat

(d)

Hydration

(e)

Condensation

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 168

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) followed by a statement
of reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given
below each question.
44. Assertion (A) : The compound cyclooctane has the following structural
formula :

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

It is cyclic and has conjugated 8-electron system but it is not

an aromatic compound.

Reason (R) :

(4n + 2) electrons rule does not hold good and ring is not
planar.

(i)

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct.

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

45. Assertion (A) : Toluene on Friedal Crafts methylation gives o and pxylene.
Reason (R) :

CH3-group bonded to benzene ring increases electron density

A is not correct but R is correct.

169

Hydrocarbons

VI. Long Answer Type

48. An alkyl halide C 5H 11Br (A) reacts with ethanolic KOH to give an alkene B,
which reacts with Br2 to give a compound C, which on dehydrobromination
gives an alkyne D. On treatment with sodium metal in liquid ammonia one
mole of D gives one mole of the sodium salt of D and half a mole of hydrogen
gas. Complete hydrogenation of D yields a straight chain alkane. Identify
A,B, C and D. Give the reactions invovled.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

49. 896 mL vapour of a hydrocarbon A having carbon 87.80% and hydrogen

12.19% weighs 3.28g at STP. Hydrogenation of A gives 2-methylpentane.
Also A on hydration in the presence of H 2SO4 and HgSO4 gives a ketone B
having molecular formula C6H12O. The ketone B gives a positive iodoform
test. Find the structure of A and give the reactions involved.
50. An unsaturated hydrocarbon A adds two molecules of H2 and on reductive
ozonolysis gives butane-1,4-dial, ethanal and propanone. Give the structure
of A, write its IUPAC name and explain the reactions involved.

51. In the presence of peroxide addition of HBr to propene takes place according
to anti Markovnikovs rule but peroxide effect is not seen in the case of HCl
and HI. Explain.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 170

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (iv)

2. (i)

3. (ii)

4. (i)

7. (iii)

8. (ii)

9. (iv)

10. (iii)

5. (i)

6. (iv)

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

12. (iii), (iv)

13. (iii), (iv)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

11. (iii), (iv)

14. (i), (iv)

15. (i), (iii)

16. (i), (iii)

17. (i), (iii)

18. (i), (iii)

19. (ii), (iii)

III. Short Answer Type

20.

Both alkenes and arenes are electron-rich. Therefore undergo electrophilic

reactions. Olefins undergo addition reactions because addition of a reagent
to an olefin gives a more stable product as sp2 hybridisation changes to
sp3 hybridisation. Addition to the double bond of an arene would give a
product with less or no resonance stability hence addition is difficult
arenes. On the other hand in substitution reaction resonance stabilisation
is retained therefore, arenes undergo substitution reaction.

21.

2-Butene is capable of showing geometrical isomerism.

22.

The rotation about CC bond is restricted because of repulsion between

electron cloud of CH bonds on either carbon atoms.

24.

Bond dissociation energy is least for HI and maximum for HCl therefore,
order of reactivity will be HI > HBr > HCl.

25.

Propyl chloride forms less stable CH 3CH2CH 2 carbocation with

anhydrous AlCl3 which rearranges to a more stable

carbocation and gives isopropylbenzene as the product of the reaction.

27.

The +R effect of OCH3 > Cl and NO2 has a R effect. Relative reactivity
of the substituted benzene rings is as follows :

C6H5OCH3 > C6H 5Cl > C6H 5NO 2

28.

Halogens attached to benzene rings exert I and +R effect. +R effect

dominates I effect and increases the electron density at ortho and
para positions of the benzene ring with respect to halogens.

33.

2-Methyl butane is
and C given below :

. Possible compounds are A, B

171

Hydrocarbons

Nine possibilities for compound A

because nine methyl hydrogens
are present in 2-methylbutane.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Two possibilities for B compound

because two CH hydrogens are
present in 2-methylbutane.

Only one possibility for C

compound because one CH
hydrogen is present in 2methylbutane.

Relative amounts of A, B
and C compounds

Relative amount

number of hydrogen relative reactivity

A (1)

B (2)

C (3)

91= 9

23.8 = 7.6

15=5

Total Amount of monohaloginated compounds = 9 + 7.6 + 5 = 21.6

9
100 = 41.7%
21.6

Percentage of B

7.6
100 = 35.2%
21.6

Percentage of C

5
100 = 23.1%
21.6

Percentage of A

35.

Radical I is tertiary where as radical II is primary. Radical I is more stable

due to hyperconjugation.
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 172

36.

= Planar ring, all atoms of the ring sp2 hybridised, has six delocalised
electrons, follows Huckel rule. It is aromatic.

= Has six electrons, but the delocalisation stops at sp3 hybridised

CH2- carbon. Hence, not aromatic.

= Six delocalised -electrons (4 electrons + 2 unshared electrons on

negatively charged carbon) in a planar ring, follows Huckels rule.
It is aromatic.

= Has only four delocalised -electrons. It is non aromatic.

= Six delocalised -electrons follows Huckels rule. electrons are in

sp2 hybridised orbitals, conjugation all over the ring because of
positively charged carbon. The ring is planar hence is aromatic.

= Follows Huckels rule, has 2 electrons i.e. (4n+2) -electrons where

(n=0), delocalised -electrons. It is aromatic.

= 8 electrons, does not follow Huckels rule i.e., (4n+2) -electrons

rule. It is not aromatic.

= Has 8 electrons, does not follow Huckel rule. Orbitals of one carbon
atom are not in conjugation. It is not aromatic.

= Has 6 delocalised electrons. Hence, is aromatic.

= Has 6 electrons in conjugation but not in the ring. Non aromatic.

= 10 electrons in planar rings, aromatic.

= Out of 8 electrons it has delocalised 6 electrons in one six

membered planar ring, which follows Huckels rule due to which it
will be aromatic.

= 14 electrons are in conjugation and are present in a ring. Huckels

rule is being followed. Compound will be aromatic if ring is planar.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

37.

38.

IV. Matching Type

40.

(i) (d)

(ii) (a)

(iii) (e)

(iv) (c)

(v) (b)

41.

(i) (b)

(ii) (c)

(iii) (a)

42.

(i) (d)

(ii) (c)

(iii) (b)

(iv) (a)

43.

(i) (d)

(ii) (a)

(iii) (b)

(iv) (c)
173

Hydrocarbons

V. Assertion and Reason Type

44. (i)

45. (i)

46. (i)

47. (iii)

VI. Long Answer Type

48.

Br in CS

alc.KOH
2
2 C H Br
C5H11 Br
Alkene (C5H 10)
5
10
2

(A)

(B)

(C)

Naliq.NH

1
H
2 2

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Alc.KOH
3

C5H7Na +
2HBr C5H8

D (Alkyne)

Sodium alkylide

The reactions suggest that (D) is a terminal alkyne. This means triple
bond is at the end of the chain. It could be either (I) or (II).
CH 3 CH2CH2CH2 CH
I

Since alkyne D on hydrogenation yields straight chain alkane, therefore

structure I is the structure of alkyne (D).
Hence, the structures of A, B and C are as follows :
(A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2Br

(B) CH3CH2CH2CH

CH2

(C) CH3CH2CH2CH (Br)CH2Br

49.

Step I

896 mL vapour of CxH y (A) weighs 3.28 g

22700 mL vapour of CxH y (A) weighs

3.2822700
1
g mol = 83.1 g mol1
896

Step II

(%)

Atomic
mass

87.8

7.31

12.19

1.66

4.98 5

Element

Relative ratio

Relative no.
of atoms

Empirical formula of A C3H 5

Empirical formula mass = 35 + 5 = 41 u

Molecular mass
83.1
n = Empirical formula mass = 41 = 2.02 2
Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 174

Simplest
ratio

Molecular mass is double of the empirical formula mass.

Molecular Formula is C 6H 10
Step III

Structure of 2-methylpentane is

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Hence, the molecule has a five carbon chain with a methyl group at the
second carbon atom.

A adds a molecule of H 2O in the presence of Hg 2+ and H+, it should be an

alkyne. Two possible structures for A are :
or

Since the ketone (B) gives a positive iodoform test, it should contain a
COCH3 group. Hence the structure of ketone is as follows :

Therefore structure of alkyne is II.

50.

Two molecules of hydrogen add on A this shows that A is either an

alkadiene or an alkyne.

On reductive ozonolysis A gives three fragments, one of which is

dialdehyde. Hence, the molecule has broken down at two sites. Therefore,
A has two double bonds. It gives the following three fragments :
OHCCH 2CH2CHO, CH3CHO

and

CH3COCH 3

Hence, its structure as deduced from the three fragments must be

(A)

Reactions
(A)

Ozone

Zn/ H2 O

CH3CHO + OHCCH2CH2CHO +

175

Hydrocarbons

Unit

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

ENVIR
ONMENT
AL
ENVIRONMENT
ONMENTAL
CHEMIS
TRY
CHEMISTRY

I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)

Which of the following gases is not a green house gas?

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

CH4

(iv)

H2O vapour

Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. One of the
following is not amongst the components of photochemical smog, identify it.
(i)

NO2

(ii)

(iii)

SO2

(iv)

Unsaturated hydrocarbon

Which of the following statements is not true about classical smog?

Its main components are produced by the action of sunlight on

emissions of automobiles and factories.

(i)

(ii)

Produced in cold and humid climate.

(iii)

It contains compounds of reducing nature.

(iv)

It contains smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide.

Biochemical Oxygen Demand, (BOD) is a measure of organic material present

in water. BOD value less than 5 ppm indicates a water sample to be __________.
(i)

rich in dissolved oxygen.

(iii)

highly polluted.

(iv)

not suitable for aquatic life.

Which of the following statements is wrong?

(i)

Ozone is not responsible for green house effect.

(ii)

Ozone can oxidise sulphur dioxide present in the atmosphere to sulphur

trioxide.

(iii)

Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer present in stratosphere.

(iv)

Ozone is produced in upper stratosphere by the action of UV rays on

oxygen.

Sewage containing organic waste should not be disposed in water bodies

because it causes major water pollution. Fishes in such a polluted water die
because of
(i)

Large number of mosquitoes.

(ii)

Increase in the amount of dissolved oxygen.

(iii)

Decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in water.

(iv)

Clogging of gills by mud.

Which of the following statements about photochemical smog is wrong?

(i)

It has high concentration of oxidising agents.

(ii)

It has low concentration of oxidising agent.

(iii)

It can be controlled by controlling the release of NO 2, hydrocarbons,

ozone etc.

(iv)

Plantation of some plants like pinus helps in controlling photochemical

smog.

The gaseous envelope around the earth is known as atmosphere. The lowest
layer of this is extended upto 10 km from sea level, this layer is _________.
(i)

Stratosphere

(ii)

Troposphere

(iii)

Mesosphere

(iv)

Hydrosphere

Dinitrogen and dioxygen are main constituents of air but these do not react
with each other to form oxides of nitrogen because _________.

poor in dissolved oxygen.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(ii)

(i)

the reaction is endothermic and requires very high temperature.

(ii)

the reaction can be initiated only in presence of a catalyst.

(iii)

oxides of nitrogen are unstable.

(iv)

N2 and O2 are unreactive.

10. The pollutants which come directly in the air from sources are called primary
pollutants. Primary pollutants are sometimes converted into secondary
pollutants. Which of the following belongs to secondary air pollutants?
177 Environmental Chemistry

(i)

(ii)

Hydrocarbon

(iii)

Peroxyacetyl nitrate

(iv)

11. Which of the following statements is correct?

Ozone hole is a hole formed in stratosphere from which ozone oozes out.

(ii)

Ozone hole is a hole formed in the troposphere from which ozone oozes
out.

(iii)

Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer of stratosphere at some places.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

(iv)

Ozone hole means vanishing of ozone layer around the earth completely.

12. Which of the following practices will not come under green chemistry?
(i)

If possible, making use of soap made of vegetable oils instead of using

synthetic detergents.

(ii)

Using H2O 2 for bleaching purpose instead of using chlorine based

bleaching agents.

(iii)

Using bicycle for travelling small distances instead of using petrol/

diesel based vehicles.

(iv)

Using plastic cans for neatly storing substances.

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.

13. Which of the following conditions shows the polluted environment.

(i)

pH of rain water is 5.6.

(ii)

amount of carbondioxide in the atmosphere is 0.03%.

(iii)

biochemical oxygen demand 10 ppm.

(iv)

eutrophication.

14. Phosphate containing fertilisers cause water pollution. Addition of such

compounds in water bodies causes __________.
enhanced growth of algae.

(i)

(ii)

decrease in amount of dissolved oxygen in water.

(iii)

deposition of calcium phosphate.

(iv)

increase in fish population.

15. The acids present in acid rain are _________.

(i)

Peroxyacetylnitrate

(ii)

H2CO3

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 178

(iii)

HNO3

(iv)

H 2SO4

16. The consequences of global warming may be _________.

(i)

increase in average temperature of the earth

(ii)

melting of Himalayan Glaciers.

(iii)

increased biochemical oxygen demand.

(iv)

eutrophication.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

III. Short Answer Type

17. Green house effect leads to global warming. Which substances are responsible
for green house effect?
18. Acid rain is known to contain some acids. Name these acids and where from
they come in rain?

19. Ozone is a toxic gas and is a strong oxidising agent even then its presence in
the stratosphere is very important. Explain what would happen if ozone from
this region is completely removed?

20. Dissolved oxygen in water is very important for aquatic life. What processes
are responsible for the reduction of dissolved oxygen in water?
21. On the basis of chemical reactions involved, explain how do
chlorofluorocarbons cause thinning of ozone layer in stratosphere.

22. What could be the harmful effects of improper management of industrial and
domestic solid waste in a city?
23. During an educational trip, a student of botany saw a beautiful lake in a
village. She collected many plants from that area. She noticed that villagers
were washing clothes around the lake and at some places waste material
from houses was destroying its beauty.

After few years, she visited the same lake again. She was surprised to find that
the lake was covered with algae, stinking smell was coming out and its water
had become unusable.Can you explain the reason for this condition of the
lake?

24. What are biodegradable and non-biodegradable pollutants?

25. What are the sources of dissolved oxygen in water?
26. What is the importance of measuring BOD of a water body?
27. Why does water covered with excessive algal growth become polluted?
179 Environmental Chemistry

28. A factory was started near a village. Suddenly villagers started feeling the
presence of irritating vapours in the village and cases of headache, chest
pain, cough, dryness of throat and breathing problems increased. Villagers
blamed the emissions from the chimney of the factory for such problems.
Explain what could have happened. Give chemical reactions for the support
of your explanation.
29. Oxidation of sulphur dioxide into sulphur trioxide in the absence of a
catalyst is a slow process but this oxidation occurs easily in the atmosphere.
Explain how does this happen. Give chemical reactions for the conversion
of SO2 into SO 3.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

30. From where does ozone come in the photochemical smog?

31. How is ozone produced in stratosphere?

32. Ozone is a gas heavier than air. Why does ozone layer not settle down near
the earth?
33. Some time ago formation of polar stratospheric clouds was reported over
Antarctica. Why were these formed? What happens when such clouds break
up by warmth of sunlight?

34. A person was using water supplied by Municipality. Due to shortage of water
he started using underground water. He felt laxative effect. What could be
the cause?

IV. Matching Type

In the following questions more than one option of Column I and Column
II may match.
35. Match the terms given in Column I with the compounds given in Column II.
Column I

Column II

Acid rain

(a)

CHCl2 CHF2

(ii)

Photochemical smog

(b)

(iii)

Combination with
haemoglobin

(c)

CO2

(iv)

Depletion of ozone layer

(d)

SO2

(e)

Unsaturated hydrocarbons

(i)

36. Match the pollutant(s) in Column I with the effect(s) in Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i)

Oxides of sulphur

(a)

Global warming

(ii)

Nitrogen dioxide

(b)

Damage to kidney

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 180

(iii)

Carbon dioxide

(c)

Blue baby syndrome

(iv)

Nitrate in drinking water

(d)

Respiratory diseases

(v)

Lead

(e)

Red haze in traffic and

congested areas

37. Match the activity given in Column I with the type of pollution created by it
given in Column II.
Column I (Activity)
Releasing gases to the atmosphere
after burning waste material
containing sulphur.

(a) Water pollution

(ii)

Using carbamates as pesticides

(b) Photochemical smog,

damage to plant life,
corrosion to building
material, induce breathing
problems, water pollution

(iii)

Using synthetic detergents for

washing clothes

(c) Damaging ozone layer

(iv)

Releasing gases produced by

automobiles and factories in the
atmosphere.

(d) May cause nerve diseases

in human.

(v)

Using chlorofluorocarbon compounds

for cleaning computer parts

(e) Classical smog, acid rain,

water pollution, induce
breathing problems,
damage to buildings,
corrosion of metals.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

Column II (Effect)

38. Match the pollutants given in Column I with their effects given in Column II.
Column I

Column II

(i)

Phosphate fertilisers in water

(a) BOD level of water increases

(ii)

Methane in air

(b) Acid rain

(iii)

Synthetic detergents in water

(c)

(iv)

Nitrogen oxides in air

(d) Eutrophication

Global warming

V. Assertion and Reason Type

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement
of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given
below each question.
39. Assertion (A): Green house effect was observed in houses used to grow
plants and these are made of green glass.
181 Environmental Chemistry

Reason (R) :

Green house name has been given because glass houses are
made of green glass.

(i)

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct.

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

40. Assertion (A) : The pH of acid rain is less than 5.6.

Carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere dissolves in rain
water and forms carbonic acid.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Reason (R) :
(i)

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct.

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

41. Assertion (A) : Photochemical smog is oxidising in nature.

Reason (R) :

Photochemical smog contains NO 2 and O3, which are formed

during the sequence of reactions.

(i)

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

(i)

44. Assertion (A) : Excessive use of chlorinated synthetic pesticides causes soil
and water pollution.
Reason (R) :

Such pesticides are non-biodegradable.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 182

(i)

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct.

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

45. Assertion (A) : If BOD level of water in a reservoir is less than 5 ppm it is
highly polluted.
Reason (R) :

High biological oxygen demand means low activity of bacteria

in water.

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(ii)

Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(iii)

Both A and R are not correct.

(iv)

A is not correct but R is correct.

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(i)

VI. Long Answer Type

46. How can you apply green chemistry for the following :
(i)

to control photochemical smog.

(ii)

to avoid use of halogenated solvents in drycleaning and that of chlorine

in bleaching.

(iii)

to reduce use of synthetic detergents.

(iv)

to reduce the consumption of petrol and diesel.

47. Green plants use carbon dioxide for photosynthesis and return oxygen to
the atmosphere, even then carbon dioxide is considered to be responsible for
green house effect. Explain why?
48. Explain how does green house effect cause global warming.

49. A farmer was using pesticides on his farm. He used the produce of his farm
as food for rearing fishes. He was told that fishes were not fit for human
consumption because large amount of pesticides had accumulated in the
tissues of fishes. Explain how did this happen?

50. For dry cleaning, in the place of tetrachloroethane, liquefied carbon dioxide
with suitable detergent is an alternative solvent. What type of harm to the
environment will be prevented by stopping use of tetrachloroethane? Will
use of liquefied carbon dioxide with detergent be completely safe from the
point of view of pollution? Explain.

183 Environmental Chemistry

ANSWERS
I. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)
1. (i)
7. (ii)

2. (iii)
8. (ii)

3. (i)
9. (i)

4. (i)
10. (iii)

5. (i)
11. (iii)

6. (iii)
12. (iv)

II. Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

14. (i), (ii)

15. (ii), (iii), (iv)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

13. (iii), (iv)

16. (i), (ii)

III. Short Answer Type

17.

Trapping of heat by green house gases, namely carbon dioxide, methane,

nitrous oxide, ozone and chlorofluorocarbons.

19.

[Hint : Ozone prevents harmful UV radiations of the Sun from reaching

to the Earths surface, thereby it protects life from bad effects of UV
radiations.]

21.

CFCs are stable compounds. These undergo decomposition in presence

of sunlight, as shown below :
UV
Reactions:CF2Cl2 (g)
Cl (g) + CF2Cl (g)

Cl (g) + O3 (g) ClO (g) + O2 (g)

ClO (g) + O (g) Cl (g) + O2 (g)

Chain reactions continue in which ozone layer is depleted.

23.

[Hint : Process of eutrophication is responsible for this. Explain the effect

of accumulation of phosphate from detergents and organic matter entering
into the lake along with domestic waste.]

24.

Biodegradable - which are decomposed by bacteria.

Non-biodegradable - which cannot be decomposed by bacteria.

Sources of dissolved oxygen in water

25.

26.

(i)

Photosynthesis

(ii)

Natural aeration

(iii)

Mechanical aeration

BOD is the measure of level of pollution caused by organic biodegradable

material. Low value of BOD indicates that water contains less organic
matter.

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 184

IV. Matching Type

35.

(i) (c), (d)

(ii) (e), (d)

(iii) (b)

(iv) (a)

36.

(i) (d)

(ii) (e)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (c)

(v) (b)

37.

(i) (e)

(ii) (d)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (b)

(v) (c)

38.

(i) (a), (d)

(ii) (c)

(iii) (a)

(iv) (b)

42. (ii)

43. (iv)

V. Assertion and Reason Type

40. (ii)

41. (i)

44. (i)

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

39. (iii)

45. (iii)

185 Environmental Chemistry

APPENDIX I
ELEMENTS, THEIR ATOMIC NUMBER AND MOLAR MASS

Element

Atomic
Number

Molar
mass/
(g mol1)

Element

Ac
Al
Am
Sb
Ar
As
At
Ba
Bk
Be
Bi
Bh
B
Br
Cd
Cs
Ca
Cf
C
Ce
Cl
Cr
Co
Cu
Cm
Db
Dy
Es
Er
Eu
Fm
F
Fr
Gd
Ga
Ge
Au
Hf
Hs
He
Ho
H
In
I
Ir
Fe
Kr
La
Lr
Pb
Li
Lu
Mg
Mn
Mt
Md

89
13
95
51
18
33
85
56
97
4
83
107
5
35
48
55
20
98
6
58
17
24
27
29
96
105
66
99
68
63
100
9
87
64
31
32
79
72
108
2
67
1
49
53
77
26
36
57
103
82
3
71
12
25
109
101

227.03
26.98
(243)
121.75
39.95
74.92
210
137.34
(247)
9.01
208.98
(264)
10.81
79.91
112.40
132.91
40.08
251.08
12.01
140.12
35.45
52.00
58.93
63.54
247.07
(263)
162.50
(252)
167.26
151.96
(257.10)
19.00
(223)
157.25
69.72
72.61
196.97
178.49
(269)
4.00
164.93
1.0079
114.82
126.90
192.2
55.85
83.80
138.91
(262.1)
207.19
6.94
174.96
24.31
54.94
(268)
258.10

Mercury
Molybdenum
Neodymium
Neon
Neptunium
Nickel
Niobium
Nitrogen
Nobelium
Osmium
Oxygen
Palladium
Phosphorus
Platinum
Plutonium
Polonium
Potassium
Praseodymium
Promethium
Protactinium
Radium
Radon
Rhenium
Rhodium
Rubidium
Ruthenium
Rutherfordium
Samarium
Scandium
Seaborgium
Selenium
Silicon
Silver
Sodium
Strontium
Sulphur
Tantalum
Technetium
Tellurium
Terbium
Thallium
Thorium
Thulium
Tin
Titanium
Tungsten
Ununbium
Ununnilium
Unununium
Uranium
Vanadium
Xenon
Ytterbium
Yttrium
Zinc
Zirconium

Symbol

Atomic
Number

Hg
Mo
Nd
Ne
Np
Ni
Nb
N
No
Os
O
Pd
P
Pt
Pu
Po
K
Pr
Pm
Pa
Ra
Rn
Re
Rh
Rb
Ru
Rf
Sm
Sc
Sg
Se
Si
Ag
Na
Sr
S
Ta
Tc
Te
Tb
Tl
Th
Tm
Sn
Ti
W
Uub
Uun
Uuu
U
V
Xe
Yb
Y
Zn
Zr

80
42
60
10
93
28
41
7
102
76
8
46
15
78
94
84
19
59
61
91
88
86
75
45
37
44
104
62
21
106
34
14
47
11
38
16
73
43
52
65
81
90
69
50
22
74
112
110
111
92
23
54
70
39
30
40

Molar
mass/
(g mol1)
200.59
95.94
144.24
20.18
(237.05)
58.71
92.91
14.0067
(259)
190.2
16.00
106.4
30.97
195.09
(244)
210
39.10
140.91
(145)
231.04
(226)
(222)
186.2
102.91
85.47
101.07
(261)
150.35
44.96
(266)
78.96
28.08
107.87
22.99
87.62
32.06
180.95
(98.91)
127.60
158.92
204.37
232.04
168.93
118.69
47.88
183.85
(277)
(269)
(272)
238.03
50.94
131.30
173.04
88.91
65.37
91.22

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Actinium
Aluminium
Americium
Antimony
Argon
Arsenic
Astatine
Barium
Berkelium
Beryllium
Bismuth
Bohrium
Boron
Bromine
Cadmium
Caesium
Calcium
Californium
Carbon
Cerium
Chlorine
Chromium
Cobalt
Copper
Curium
Dubnium
Dysprosium
Einsteinium
Erbium
Europium
Fermium
Fluorine
Francium
Gadolinium
Gallium
Germanium
Gold
Hafnium
Hassium
Helium
Holmium
Hydrogen
Indium
Iodine
Iridium
Iron
Krypton
Lanthanum
Lawrencium
Lead
Lithium
Lutetium
Magnesium
Manganese
Meitneium
Mendelevium

Symbol

The value given in parenthesis is the molar mass of the isotope of largest known half-life.

APPENDIX II
SOME USEFUL CONVERSION FACTORS

Common Units of Length

1 inch = 2.54 centimetres (exactly)
1 mile = 5280 feet = 1.609 kilometres
1 yard = 36 inches = 0.9144 metre
1 metre = 100 centimetres
= 39.37 inches
= 3.281 feet

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Common Unit of Mass and Weight

1 pound = 453.59 grams
1 pound = 453.59 grams = 0.45359 kilogram
1 kilogram = 1000 grams = 2.205 pounds
1 gram = 10 decigrams = 100 centigrams
= 1000 milligrams
1 gram = 6.022 1023 atomic mass units or u
1 atomic mass unit = 1.6606 1024 gram
1 metric tonne = 1000 kilograms
= 2205 pounds
Common Unit of Volume
1 quart = 0.9463 litre
1 litre = 1.056 quarts
1 litre = 1 cubic decimetre = 1000 cubic
centimetres = 0.001 cubic metre
1 millilitre = 1 cubic centimetre = 0.001 litre
= 1.056 10-3 quart
1 cubic foot = 28.316 litres = 29.902 quarts
= 7.475 gallons

Common Units of Energy

1 joule = 1 107 ergs
1 thermochemical calorie** = 4.184 joules
= 4.184 107 ergs
= 4.129 102 litre-atmospheres
= 2.612 1019 electron volts
7
1 ergs = 1 10 joule = 2.3901 108 calorie
1 electron volt = 1.6022 1019 joule
= 1.6022 1012 erg
= 96.487 kJ/mol
1 litre-atmosphere = 24.217 calories
= 101.32 joules
= 1.0132 109 ergs
1 British thermal unit = 1055.06 joules
= 1.05506 1010 ergs
= 252.2 calories

= 1.094 yards

1 kilometre = 1000 metres

= 1094 yards

= 0.6215 mile

1 Angstrom = 1.0 108 centimetre

= 0.10 nanometre

= 1.0 1010 metre

= 3.937 109 inch

Common Units of Force* and Pressure

1 atmosphere= 760 millimetres of mercury

= 1.013 105 pascals

= 14.70 pounds per square inch

1 bar = 105 pascals

1 torr = 1 millimetre of mercury

1 pascal = 1 kg/ms2 = 1 N/m2
Temperature

SI Base Unit: Kelvin (K)

K = -273.15C

K = C + 273.15

= 1.8(C) + 32

C =

F 32
1.8

Force: 1 newton (N) = 1 kg m/s 2, i.e.,the force that, when applied for 1 second, gives a
1-kilogram mass a velocity of 1 metre per second.
** The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of water from 14.50C to 15.50C.
Note that the other units are per particle and must be multiplied by 6.022 1023 to be strictly
comparable.

APPENDIX III
STANDARD POTENTIALS AT 298 K IN ELECTROCHEMICAL
Reduction half-reaction

E /V

Reduction half-reaction

H4XeO6 + 2H+ + 2e XeO3 + 3H2O

+3.0

Pu4+ + e Pu3+

+0.97

F2 + 2e 2F

+2.87

NO3 + 4H+ + 3e NO + 2H2O

+0.96

O3 + 2H+ + 2e O2 + H2O

+2.07

2Hg2+ + 2e Hg 2+
2

+0.92

S2O8 + 2e 2SO4

+2.05

ClO + H2O + 2e Cl + 2OH

+0.89

Ag+ + e Ag+

+1.98

Hg2+ + 2e Hg

+0.86

Co3+ + e Co2+

+1.81

NO3 + 2H+ + e NO2 + H2O

+0.80

H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e 2H2O

+1.78

Ag+ + e Ag

+0.80

Au+ + e Au

+1.69

Hg 2+
2 +2e 2Hg

+0.79

Pb4+ + 2e Pb2+

+1.67

Fe3+ + e Fe2+

+0.77

2HClO + 2H+ + 2e Cl2 + 2H2O

+1.63

BrO + H2O + 2e Br + 2OH

+0.76

Ce4+ + e Ce3+

+1.61

Hg2SO4 +2e 2Hg + SO42

+0.62

2HBrO + 2H+ + 2e Br2 + 2H2O

+1.60

MnO2
+0.60
4 + 2H2O + 2e MnO2 + 4OH

MnO4 + 8H+ + 5e Mn2+ + 4H2O

+1.51

MnO4 + e MnO42

+0.56

Mn3+ + e Mn2+

+1.51

I2 + 2e 2I

+0.54

Au3+ + 3e Au

+1.40

I3 + 2e 3I

+0.53

Cl2 + 2e 2Cl

+1.36

Cu+ + e Cu

+0.52

Cr2O 7 + 14H+ + 6e 2Cr3+ + 7H2O

+1.33

NiOOH + H2O + e Ni(OH)2 + OH +0.49

O3 + H2O + 2e O2 + 2OH

+1.24

Ag2CrO4 + 2e 2Ag + CrO2

+0.45

O2 + 4H+ + 4e 2H2O

+1.23

O2 + 2H2O + 4e 4OH

+0.40

ClO4 + 2H+ +2e ClO3 + 2H2O

+1.23

ClO4 + H2O + 2e ClO3 + 2OH

+0.36

MnO2 + 4H+ + 2e Mn2+ + 2H2O

+1.23

[Fe(CN)6]3 + e [Fe(CN)6]4

+0.36

Pt2+ + 2e Pt

+1.20

Cu2+ + 2e Cu

+0.34

Br2 + 2e 2Br

+1.09

Hg2Cl2 + 2e 2Hg + 2Cl

+0.27

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

E /V

AgCl + e Ag + Cl

+0.27

S + 2e S2

0.48

Bi3+ + 3e Bi

+0.20

In3+ + e In2+

0.49

SO42 + 4H+ + 2e H2SO3 + H2O

+0.17

U4+ + e U3+

0.61

Cu2+ + e Cu+

+0.16

Cr3+ + 3e Cr

0.74

Sn4+ + 2e Sn2+

+0.15

Zn2+ + 2e Zn

0.76

AgBr + e Ag + Br

+0.07

Cd(OH)2 + 2e Cd + 2OH

0.81

Ti4+ + e Ti3+

0.00

2H2O + 2e H2 + 2OH

0.83

2H+ + 2e H2

(by definition) 0.0

Cr2+ + 2e Cr

0.91

Fe3+ + 3e Fe

0.04

Mn2+ + 2e Mn

1.18

O2 + H2O + 2e HO2 + OH

0.08

V2+ + 2e V

1.19

Pb2+ + 2e Pb

0.13

Ti2+ + 2e Ti

1.63

In+ + e In

0.14

Al3+ + 3e Al

1.66

Sn2+ + 2e Sn

0.14

U3+ + 3e U

1.79

AgI + e Ag + I

0.15

Sc3+ + 3e Sc

2.09

Ni2+ + 2e Ni

0.23

Mg2+ + 2e Mg

2.36

V3+ + e V2+

0.26

Ce3+ + 3e Ce

2.48

Co2+ + 2e Co

0.28

La3+ + 3e La

2.52

In3+ + 3e In

0.34

Na+ + e Na

2.71

Tl+ + e Tl

0.34

Ca2+ + 2e Ca

2.87

PbSO4 + 2e Pb + SO2
4

0.36

Sr2+ + 2e Sr

2.89

Ti3+ + e Ti2+

0.37

Ba2+ + 2e Ba

2.91

Cd2+ + 2e Cd

0.40

Ra2+ + 2e Ra

2.92

In2+ + e In+

0.40

Cs+ + e Cs

2.92

Cr3+ + e Cr2+

0.41

Rb+ + e Rb

2.93

Fe2+ + 2e Fe

0.44

K+ +e K

2.93

In3+ + 2e In+

0.44

Li+ + e Li

3.05

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

203

Appendices

APPENDIX IV
LOGARITHMS
Sometimes, a numerical expression may involve multiplication, division or rational powers of large numbers.
For such calculations, logarithms are very useful. They help us in making difficult calculations easy. In
Chemistry, logarithm values are required in solving problems of chemical kinetics, thermodynamics,
electrochemistry, etc. We shall first introduce this concept, and discuss the laws, which will have to be
followed in working with logarithms, and then apply this technique to a number of problems to show how it
makes difficult calculations simple.
We know that
23 = 8, 32 = 9, 53 = 125, 70 = 1

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

In general, for a positive real number a, and a rational number m, let am = b,

where b is a real number. In other words
the mth power of base a is b.

Another way of stating the same fact is

logarithm of b to base a is m.

If for a positive real number a, a 1

am = b,

we say that m is the logarithm of b to the base a.

We write this as lo g a = m ,

log being the abbreviation of the word logarithm.

Thus, we have

= 125

log 2 8 = 3,

Since 2

log 3 9 = 2,

Since 3

log

125

= 3,

Since 5

log 7 1 = 0,

Since 7

Laws of Logarithms

In the following discussion, we shall take logarithms to any base a, (a > 0 and a 1)
First Law: loga (mn) = logam + logan

Proof: Suppose that logam = x and logan = y

Then ax= m, ay = n

Hence mn = ax.ay = ax+y

It now follows from the definition of logarithms that

loga (mn) = x + y = loga m loga n

m
= loga m logan
n

Second Law: loga

Proof: Let logam = x, logan = y

Then ax = m, ay = n

Hence

m
n

a
a

Therefore
log a

m
=
n

x y = log a m log a n

Third Law :
loga(mn) = n logam
Proof : As before, if logam = x, then ax = m
n

( )

x n

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Then m

= a

giving loga(mn) = nx = n loga m

Thus according to First Law: the log of the product of two numbers is equal to the sum of their logs.
Similarly, the Second Law says: the log of the ratio of two numbers is the difference of their logs. Thus, the
use of these laws converts a problem of multiplication / division into a problem of addition/subtraction,
which are far easier to perform than multiplication/division. That is why logarithms are so useful in all
numerical computations.
Logarithms to Base 10

Because number 10 is the base of writing numbers, it is very convenient to use logarithms to the base 10.
Some examples are:
log10 10 = 1,
log10 100 = 2,

since 101 = 10

since 102 = 100

log10 10000 = 4, since 104 = 10000

log10 0.01 = 2,

since 102 = 0.01

log10 0.001 = 3,

since 103 = 0.001

and log101 = 0

since 100 = 1

The above results indicate that if n is an integral power of 10, i.e., 1 followed by several zeros or 1
preceded by several zeros immediately to the right of the decimal point, then log n can be easily found.

If n is not an integral power of 10, then it is not easy to calculate log n. But mathematicians have made

tables from which we can read off approximate value of the logarithm of any positive number between 1 and
10. And these are sufficient for us to calculate the logarithm of any number expressed in decimal form. For
this purpose, we always express the given decimal as the product of an integral power of 10 and a number
between 1 and 10.

Standard Form of Decimal

We can express any number in decimal form, as the product of (i) an integral power of 10, and (ii) a number
between 1 and 10. Here are some examples:
(i) 25.2 lies between 10 and 100

205

Appendices

25.2

25.2 =

10 = 2.52 10

(ii) 1038.4 lies between 1000 and 10000.

1038.4

1038.4
1000

= 1.0384 10

(iii) 0.005 lies between 0.001 and 0.01

0.005 = (0.005 1000) 10 = 5.0 10

(iv) 0.00025 lies between 0.0001 and 0.001

0.00025 = (0.00025 10000) 10 = 2.5 10

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

In each case, we divide or multiply the decimal by a power of 10, to bring one non-zero digit to the left of the
decimal point, and do the reverse operation by the same power of 10, indicated separately.
Thus, any positive decimal can be written in the form
p

n = m 10

where p is an integer (positive, zero or negative) and 1< m < 10. This is called the standard form of n.
Working Rule

1. Move the decimal point to the left, or to the right, as may be necessary, to bring one non-zero digit to the
left of decimal point.
2.

(i) If you move p places to the left, multiply by 10 .

(ii) If you move p places to the right, multiply by 10 .

(iii) If you do not move the decimal point at all, multiply by 10 .

(iv) Write the new decimal obtained by the power of 10 (of step 2) to obtain the standard form of the
given decimal.
Characteristic and Mantissa

Consider the standard form of n

n = m 10 , where 1 < m < 10

Taking logarithms to the base 10 and using the laws of logarithms

log n = log m + log 10

= log m + p log 10
= p + log m

Here p is an integer and as 1 < m < 10, so 0 < log m < 1, i.e., m lies between 0 and 1. When log n has been
expressed as p + log m, where p is an integer and 0 log m < 1, we say that p is the characteristic of log n and
that log m is the mantissa of log n. Note that characteristic is always an integer positive, negative or zero,
and mantissa is never negative and is always less than 1. If we can find the characteristics and the mantissa
of log n, we have to just add them to get log n.
Thus to find log n, all we have to do is as follows:

1. Put n in the standard form, say

n = m 10p, 1 < m <10

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 206

2. Read off the characteristic p of log n from this expression (exponent of 10).
3. Look up log m from tables, which is being explained below.
4. Write log n = p + log m
If the characteristic p of a number n is say, 2 and the mantissa is .4133, then we have log n = 2+
.4133 which we can write as 2.4133. If, however, the characteristic p of a number m is say 2 and the
mantissa is .4123, then we have log m = 2 + .4123. We cannot write this as 2.4123. (Why?) In order to
avoid this confusion we write 2 for 2 and thus we write log m = 2.4 1 2 3 .
Now let us explain how to use the table of logarithms to find mantissas. A table is appended at the end
of this Appendix.
Observe that in the table, every row starts with a two digit number, 10, 11, 12,... 97, 98, 99. Every

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

column is headed by a one-digit number, 0, 1, 2, ...9. On the right, we have the section called Mean
differences which has 9 columns headed by 1, 2...9.
1

7853

7860 7868

7875

7882 7889

7896

7803 7810

7817

7924

7931 7935

7945

7954 7959

7966

7973 7980

7987

7993

8000 8007

8014

8021 8028

8035

8041 8048

8055

Now suppose we wish to find log (6.234). Then look into the row starting with 62. In this row, look at
the number in the column headed by 3. The number is 7945. This means that
log (6.230) = 0.7945*

But we want log (6.234). So our answer will be a little more than 0.7945. How much more? We look this
up in the section on Mean differences. Since our fourth digit is 4, look under the column headed by 4 in the
Mean difference section (in the row 62). We see the number 3 there. So add 3 to 7945. We get 7948. So we
finally have
log (6.234) = 0.7948.

Take another example. To find log (8.127), we look in the row 81 under column 2, and we find 9096. We

continue in the same row and see that the mean difference under 7 is 4. Adding this to 9096, and we get
9100. So, log (8.127) = 0.9100.

Finding N when log N is given

We have so far discussed the procedure for finding log n when a positive number n given. We now turn to its
converse i.e., to find n when log n is given and give a method for this purpose. If log n = t, we sometimes say
n = antilog t. Therefore our task is given t, find its antilog. For this, we use the ready-made antilog tables.

Suppose log n = 2.5372.

To find n, first take just the mantissa of log n. In this case it is .5372. (Make sure it is positive.) Now
take up antilog of this number in the antilog table which is to be used exactly like the log table. In the
antilog table, the entry under column 7 in the row .53 is 3443 and the mean difference for the last digit 2 in
that row is 2, so the table gives 3445. Hence,
antilog (.5372) = 3.445
Now since log n = 2.5372, the characteristic of log n is 2. So the standard form of n is given by

207

Appendices

n = 3.445 10
or n = 344.5

Illustration 1
If log x = 1.0712, find x.
Solution: We find that the number corresponding to 0712 is 1179. Since characteristic of log x is 1, we have
x = 1.179 101
= 11.79
Illustration 2

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

If log x = 2.1352, find x.

Solution: From antilog tables, we find that the number corresponding to 1352 is 1366. Since the characteristic
is 2 i.e., 2, so

x = 1.366 102 = 0.01366

Use of Logarithms in Numerical Calculations

Illustration 1

Find 6.3 1.29

Solution: Let x = 6.3 1.29

Then log x = log (6.3 1.29) = log 6.3 + log 1.29

Now,

log 6.3 = 0.7993

log 1.29 = 0.1106

log x = 0.9099,
Taking antilog
x = 8.127

Illustration 2

1.5

Find

(1.23)

11.2 23.5

(1.23)2

Solution: Let x =

11.2 23.5

Then log x = log

3
2

(1.23)2

11.2 23.5

log 1.23 log (11.2 23.5)

log 1.23 log 11.2 23.5

Exemplar Problems, Chemistry 208

Now,
log 1.23 = 0.0899
3
2

log 1.23 = 0.13485

log 11.2 = 1.0492

log 23.5 = 1.3711
log x = 0.13485 1.0492 1.3711
= 3.71455
x = 0.005183
Illustration 3
(71.24) 56

Find

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

(2.3) 21
7

(71.24) 56

Solution: Let x =

Then log x =

(2.3) 21
7

1
2

5
2

(71.24)5 56

7
(2.3) 21

log

[log (71.24) + log

log 71.24 +

56 log (2.3) log 21]

log 56

(1.7482)

log 2.3

log 21

Now, using log tables

log 71.24 = 1.8527
log 56 = 1.7482

log 2.3 = 0.3617

log 21 = 1.3222
log x =

5
2

log (1.8527) +

1
4

(0.3617)

(1.3222)

= 3.4723

x = 2967

209

Appendices

LOGARITHMS
Table 1
N

0000 0043

0086

0128

0170

0414 0453

0492

0531

0569

0792 0828

0864

0899

9
8

13
12

17
16

21 26
2O 24

30
28

34 38
32 36

0212

0253 0294 0334 0374

5
4

0607

0645 0682 0719 0755

4
4

8
7

12
11

16
15

20
18

23
22

27
26

31 35
29 33

0969

1004 1038 1072 1106

3
3

7
7

11
10

14
14

18
17

21
20

25
24

28 32
27 31

1303

1335 1367 1399 1430

3
3

6
7

10
10

13
13

16
16

19
19

23
22

26 29
25 29

1614

1644 1673 1703 1732

3
3

6
6

9
9

12
12

15
14

19
17

22
20

25 28
23 26

1903

1931 1959 1987 2014

3
3

6
6

9
8

11
11

14
14

17
17

20
19

23 26
22 25

2175

2201 2227 2253 2279

3
3

6
5

8
8

11
10

14
16
13 16

19
18

22 24
21 23

2430

2455 2480 2504 2529

3
3

5
5

8
8

10
10

13
12

15
15

18
17

20 23
20 22

2672

2695 2718 2742 2765

2
2

5
4

7
7

9
9

12 14
11 14

17
16

19 21
18 21

2900

2923 2945 2967 2989

2
2

4
4

7
6

9
8

11
11

13
13

16
15

18 20
17 19

0934

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

13
14

16
17
18

1139 1173
1461 1492

1761 1790

2041 2068
2304 2330
2553 2577

2788 2810

1206
1523

1818

2095
2355
2601

2833

1239
1553

1847

2122
2380
2625

2856

1271
1584

1875

2148
2405
2648

2878

3010 3032
3222 3243

3054
3263

3075
3284

3096
3304

3118
3324

3139 3160 3181 3201

3345 3365 3385 3404

2
2

4
4

6
6

8
8

11
10

13
12

15
14

17 19
16 18

22
23

3424 3444
3617 3636

3464
3655

3483
3674

3502
3692

3522
3711

3541 3560 3579 3598

3729 3747 3766 3784

2
2

4
4

6
6

8
7

10
9

12
11

14
13

15 17
15 17

24
25

3802 3820
3979 3997

3838
4014

3856
4031

3874
4048

3892
4065

3909 3927 3945 3962

4082 4099 4116 4133

2
2

4
3

5
5

7
7

9
9

11
10

12
12

14 16
14 15

26
27

4150 4166
4314 4330

4183
4346

4200
4362

4216
4378

4232
4393

4249 4265 4281 4298

4409 4425 4440 4456

2
2

3
3

5
5

7
6

8
8

10
9

11
11

13 15
13 14

28
29

4472 4487
4624 4639

4502
4654

4518
4669

4533
4683

4548
4698

4564 4579 4594 4609

4713 4728 4742 4757

2
1

3
3

5
4

6
6

8
7

9
9

11
10

12 14
12 13

4771 4786

4800

4814

4829

4843

4857 4871 4886 4900

11 13

31
32

4914 4928
5051 5065

4942 4955
5079 5092

4969
5105

4983
5119

4997 5011 5024 5038

5132 5145 5159 5172

1
1

3
3

4
4

6
5

7
7

8
8

10
9

11 12
11 12

33
34

5185 5198
5315 5328

5211
5340

5224
5353

5237
5366

5250
5378

5263 5276 5289 5302

5391 5403 5416 5428

1
1

3
3

4
4

5
5

6
6

8
8

9
9

10 12
10 11

5441 5453

5465

5478

5490

5502

5514 5527 5539 5551

10 11

36
37

5563 5575
5682 5694

5587
5705

5599
5717

5611
5729

5623
5740

5635 5647 5658 5670

5752 5763 5775 5786

1
1

2
2

4
3

5
5

6
6

7
7

8
8

10 11
9 10

38
39

5798 5809
5911 5922

5821
5933

5832
5944

5843
5955

5855
5966

5866 5877 5888 5899

5977 5988 5999 6010

1
1

2
2

3
3

5
4

6
5

7
7

8
8

9 10
9 10

6021 6031

6042

6053

6064

6075

6085 6096 6107 6117

9 10

41
42

6128 6138
6232 6243

6149
6253

6160
6263

6170
6274

6180
6284

6191 6201 6212 6222

6294 6304 6314 6325

1
1

2
2

3
3

4
4

5
5

6
6

7
7

8
8

9
9

43
44

6335 6345
6435 6444

6355
6454

6365
6464

6375
6474

6385
6484

6395 6405 6415 6425

6493 6503 6513 6522

1
1

2
2

3
3

4
4

5
5

6
6

7
7

8
8

9
9

20
21

6532 6542

6551

6561

6471

6580

6590 6599 6609 6618

46
47

6628 6637
6721 6730

6646
6739

6656
6749

6665
6758

6675
6767

6684 6693 6702 6712

6776 6785 6794 6803

1
1

2
2

3
3

4
4

5
5

6
5

7
6

7
7

8
8

48
49

6812 6821
6902 6911

6830
6920

6839
6928

6848
6937

6857
6946

6866 6875 6884 6893

6955 6964 6972 6981

1
1

2
2

3
3

4
4

5
5

6
6

7
7

8
8

LOGARITHMS

50
51

6990 6998
7076 7084

7007
7093

7016
7101

7024
7110

7033
7118

7042 7050 7059 7067

7126 7135 7143 7152

1
1

2
2

3
3

4
4

5
5

6
6

7
7

8
8

52
53
54

7160 7168
7243 7251
7324 7332

7177
7259
7340

7185
7267
7348

7193
7275
7356

7202
7284
7364

7210 7218 7226 7235

7292 7300 7308 7316
7372 7380 7388 7396

1
1
1

2
2
2

3
3
3

4
4
4

5
5
5

6
6
6

7
6
6

7
7
7

55
56
57

7404 7412
7482 7490
7559 7566

7419
7497
7574

7427
7505
7582

7435
7513
7589

7443
7520
7597

7451 7459 7466 7474

7528 7536 7543 7551
7604 7612 7619 7627

1
1
1

2
2
2

3
3
3

4
4
4

5
5
5

6
6
6

7
7
7

7634 7642
7709 7716

7649
7723

7657
7731

7664
7738

7672
7745

7679 7686 7694 7701

7752 7760 7767 7774

1
1

2
2

3
3

4
4

5
5

6
6

7
7

7782
7853
7924
7993

7789
7860
7931
8000

7796
7768
7938
8007

7803
7875
7945
8014

7810
7882
7952
8021

7818
7889
7959
8028

7825
7896
7966
8035

7846
7917
7987
8055

1
1
1
1

2
2
2
2

3
3
3
3

4
4
3
3

4
4
4
4

5
5
5
5

6
6
6
5

6
6
6
6

8062 8069

8075

8082

8089

8096

8102 8109 8116 8122

8129
8195
8261
8325
8388

8136
8202
8267
8331
8395

8142
8209
8274
8338
8401

8149
8215
8280
8344
8407

8156
8222
8287
8351
8414

8162
8228
8293
8357
8420

8169
8235
8299
8363
8426

8176
8241
8306
8370
8432

8182
8248
8312
8376
8439

8189
8254
8319
8382
8445

1
1
1
1
1

2
2
2
2
2

3
3
3
3
2

3
3
3
3
3

4
4
4
4
4

5
5
5
4
4

5
5
5
5
5

6
6
6
6
6

8451
8513
8573
8633
8692

8457
8519
8579
8639
8698

8463
8525
8585
8645
8704

8470
8531
8591
8651
8710

8476
8537
8597
8657
8716

8482
8543
8603
8663
8722

8488
8549
8609
8669
8727

8494
8555
8615
8675
8733

8500
8561
8621
8681
8739

8506
8567
8627
8686
8745

1
1
1
1
1

2
2
2
2
2

3
3
3
3
3

4
4
4
4
4

5
5
5
5
5

6
5
5
5
5

8751
8808
8865
8921
8976

8756
8814
8871
8927
8982

8762
8820
8876
8932
8987

8768
8825
8882
8938
8993

8774
8831
8887
8943
8998

8779
8837
8893
8949
9004

8785
8842
8899
8954
9009

8791
8848
8904
8960
9015

8797
8854
8910
8965
9020

8802
8859
8915
8971
9025

1
1
1
1
1

2
2
2
2
2

3
3
3
3
3

4
4
4
4
4

5
5
4
4
4

5
5
5
5
5

9031
9085
9138
9191
9243

9036
9090
9143
9196
9248

9042
9096
9149
9201
9253

9047
9101
9154
9206
9258

9053
9106
9159
9212
9263

9058
9112
9165
9217
9269

9063
9117
9170
9222
9274

9069
9122
9175
9227
9279

9074
9128
9180
9232
9284

9079
9133
9186
9238
9289

1
1
1
1
1

2
2
2
2
2

3
3
3
3
3

4
4
4
4
4

5
5
5
5
5

9294
9345
9395
9445
9494

9299
9350
9400
9450
9499

9304
9355
9405
9455
9504

9309
9360
9410
9460
9509

9315
9365
9415
9465
9513

9320
9370
9420
9469
9518

9325
9375
9425
9474
9523

9330
9380
9430
9479
9528

9335
9385
9435
9484
9533

9340
9390
9440
9489
9538

1
1
0
0
0

1
1
1
1
1

2
2
1
1
1

2
2
2
2
2

3
3
2
2
2

3
3
3
3
3

4
4
3
3
3

4
4
4
4
4

5
5
4
4
4

9542
9590
9638
9685
9731

9547
9595
9643
9689
9736

9552
9600
9647
9694
9741

9557
9605
9652
9699
9745

9562
9609
9657
9703
9750

9566
9614
9661
9708
9754

9571
9619
9666
9713
9759

9576
9624
9671
9717
9763

9581
9628
9675
9722
9768

9586
9633
9680
9727
9773

0
0
0
0
0

1
1
1
1
1

2
2
2
2
2

3
3
3
3
3

4
4
4
4
4

9791
9836
9881
9926
9969

9795
9841
9886
9930
9974

9800
9845
9890
9934
9978

9805
9850
9894
9939
9983

9809
9854
9899
9943
9987

9814
9859
9903
9948
9997

9818
9863
9908
9952
9996

0
0
0
0
0

1
1
1
1
1

2
2
2
2
2

3
3
3
3
3

4
4
4
4
3

4
4
4
4
4

58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

Table 1 continued

9777
9823
9868
9912
9956

9782
9827
9872
9917
9961

9786
9832
9877
9921
9965

7832
7903
7973
8041

7839
7910
7980
8048

ANTILOGARITHMS
Table 2
0

00
.01
.02
.03
.04
.05
.06
.07
.08
.09

1000
1023
1047
1072
1096
1122
1148
1175
1202
1230

1002
1026
1050
1074
1099
1125
1151
1178
1205
1233

1005
1028
1052
1076
1102
1127
1153
1180
1208
1236

1007
1030
1054
1079
1104
1130
1156
1183
1211
1239

1009
1033
1057
1081
1107
1132
1159
1186
1213
1242

1012
1035
1059
1084
1109
1135
1161
1189
1216
1245

1014
1038
1062
1086
1112
1138
1164
1191
1219
1247

1016
1040
1064
1089
1114
1140
1167
1194
1222
1250

1019
1042
1067
1091
1117
1143
1169
1197
1225
1253

1021
1045
1069
1094
1119
1146
1172
1199
1227
1256

0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0

0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
1
1

1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
2
2

2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2

2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
3
3

.10
.11
.12
.13
.14
.15
.16
.17
.18
.19

1259
1288
1318
1349
1380
1413
1445
1479
1514
1549

1262
1291
1321
1352
1384
1416
1449
1483
1517
1552

1265
1294
1324
1355
1387
1419
1452
1486
1521
1556

1268
1297
1327
1358
1390
1422
1455
1489
1524
1560

1271
1300
1330
1361
1393
1426
1459
1493
1528
1563

1274
1303
1334
1365
1396
1429
1462
1496
1531
1567

1276
1306
1337
1368
1400
1432
1466
1500
1535
1570

1279
1309
1340
1371
1403
1435
1469
1503
1538
1574

1282
1312
1343
1374
1406
1439
1472
1507
1542
1578

1285
1315
1346
1377
1409
1442
1476
1510
1545
1581

0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0
0

1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

1
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2

2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2

2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
3

2
2
2
3
3
3
3
3
3
3

3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3

.20
.21
.22
.23
.24

1585
1622
1660
1698
1738

1589
1626
1663
1702
1742

1592
1629
1667
1706
1746

1596
1633
1671
1710
1750

1600
1637
1675
1714
1754

1603
1641
1679
1718
1758

1607
1644
1683
1722
1762

1611
1648
1687
1726
1766

1614
1652
1690
1730
1770

1618
1656
1694
1734
1774

0
0
0
0
0

1
1
1
1
1

1
2
2
2
2

2
2
2
2
2

3
3
3
3
3

3
3
3
4
4

.25
.26
.27
.28
.29

1778
1820
1862
1905
1950

1782
1824
1866
1910
1954

1786
1828
1871
1914
1959

1791
1832
1875
1919
1963

1795
1837
1879
1923
1968

1799
1841
1884
1928
1972

1803
1845
1888
1932
1977

1807
1849
1892
1936
1982

1811
1854
1897
1941
1986

1816
1858
1901
1945
1991

0
0
0
0
0

1
1
1
1
1

2
2
2
2
2

2
3
3
3
3

3
3
3
3
3

3
3
3
4
4

4
4
4
4
4

.30
.31
.32
.33
.34
.35
.36
.37
.38
.39

1995
2042
2089
2138
2188
2239
2291
2344
2399
2455

2000
2046
2094
2143
2193
2244
2296
2350
2404
2460

2004
2051
2099
2148
2198
2249
2301
2355
2410
2466

2009
2056
2104
2153
2203
2254
2307
2360
2415
2472

2014
2061
2109
2158
2208
2259
2312
2366
2421
2477

2018
2065
2113
2163
2213
2265
2317
2371
2427
2483

2023
2070
2118
2168
2218
2270
2323
2377
2432
2489

2028
2075
2123
2173
2223
2275
2328
2382
2438
2495

2032
2080
2128
2178
2228
2280
2333
2388
2443
2500

2037
2084
2133
2183
2234
2286
2339
2393
2449
2506

0
0
0
0
1
1
1
1
1
1

1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
2
2

2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2

2
2
2
2
3
3
3
3
3
3

3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3

3
3
3
3
4
4
4
4
4
4

4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
5

4
4
4
4
5
5
5
5
5
5

.40
.41
.42
.43
.44
.45
.46
.47
.48

2512
2570
2630
2692
2754
2818
2884
2951
3020

2518
2576
2636
2698
2761
2825
2891
2958
3027

2523
2582
2642
2704
2767
2831
2897
2965
3034

2529
2588
2649
2710
2773
2838
2904
2972
3041

2535
2594
2655
2716
2780
2844
2911
2979
3048

2541
2600
2661
2723
2786
2851
2917
2985
3055

2547
2606
2667
2729
2793
2858
2924
2992
3062

2553
2612
2673
2735
2799
2864
2931
2999
3069

2559
2618
2679
2742
2805
2871
2938
3006
3076

2564
2624
2685
2748
2812
2877
2944
3013
3083

1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2

2
2
2
3
3
3
3
3
3

3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3

4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4

4
4
4
4
4
5
5
5
5

5
5
5
5
5
5
5
5
6

5
5
6
6
6
6
6
6
6

.49

3090 3097

3105

3112

3119

3126

3133 3141 3148 3155

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

ANTILOGARITHMS
Table 2 continued
0

.50
.51
.52
.53
.54
.55
.56

3162
3236
3311
3388
3467
3548
3631

3170
3243
3319
3396
3475
3556
3639

3177
3251
3327
3404
3483
3565
3648

3184
3258
3334
3412
3491
3573
3656

3192
3266
3342
3420
3499
3581
3664

3199
3273
3350
3428
3508
3589
3673

3206
3281
3357
3436
3516
3597
3681

3214
3289
3365
3443
3524
3606
3690

3221
3296
3373
3451
3532
3614
3698

3228
3304
3381
3459
3540
3622
3707

1
1
1
1
1
1
1

1
2
2
2
2
2
2

2
2
2
2
2
2
3

3
3
3
3
3
3
3

4
4
4
4
4
4
4

4
5
5
5
5
5
5

5
5
5
6
6
6
6

6
6
6
6
6
7
7

7
7
7
7
7
7
8

.57
.58
.59

3715 3724
3802 3811
3890 3899

3733
3819
3908

3741
3828
3917

3750
3837
3926

3758
3846
3936

3767 3776 3784 3793

3855 3864 3873 3882
3945 3954 3963 3972

1
1
1

2
2
2

3
3
3

3
4
4

4
4
5

5
5
5

6
6
6

7
7
7

8
8
8

.60
.61
.62
.63
.64
.65
.66
.67
.68
.69

3981
4074
4169
4266
4365
4467
4571
4677
4786
4898

3990
4083
4178
4276
4375
4477
4581
4688
4797
4909

3999
4093
4188
4285
4385
4487
4592
4699
4808
4920

4009
4102
4198
4295
4395
4498
4603
4710
4819
4932

4018
4111
4207
4305
4406
4508
4613
4721
4831
4943

4027
4121
4217
4315
4416
4519
4624
4732
4842
4955

4036
4130
4227
4325
4426
4529
4634
4742
4853
4966

4046
4140
4236
4335
4436
4539
4645
4753
4864
4977

4055
4150
4246
4345
4446
4550
4656
4764
4875
4989

4064
4159
42S6
4355
4457
4560
4667
4775
4887
5000

1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2

3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3
3

4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
5

5
5
5
5
5
5
5
5
6
6

6
6
6
6
6
6
6
7
7
7

6
7
7
7
7
7
7
8
8
8

7
8
8
8
8
8
9
9
9
9

8
9
9
9
9
9
10
10
10
10

.70 5012 5023

.71 5129 5140
.72 5248 5260
.73 5370 5383
.74 5495 5508
.75 5623 5636
.76 5754 5768
.77 5888 5902
.78 6026 6039
.79 6166 6180

5035
5152
5272
5395
5521
5649
5781
5916
6053
6194

5047
5164
5284
5408
5534
5662
5794
5929
6067
6209

5058
5176
5297
5420
5546
5675
5808
5943
6081
6223

5070
5188
5309
5433
5559
5689
5821
5957
6095
6237

5082
5200
5321
5445
5572
5702
5834
5970
6109
6252

5093
5212
5333
5458
5585
5715
5848
5984
6124
6266

5105
5224
5346
5470
5598
5728
5861
5998
6138
6281

5117
5236
5358
5483
5610
5741
5875
6012
6152
6295

1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

2
2
2
3
3
3
3
3
3
3

4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4

5
5
5
5
5
5
5
5
6
6

6
6
6
6
6
7
7
7
7
7

7
7
7
8
8
8
8
8
8
9

8
8
9
9
9
9
9
10
10
10

9
10
10
10
10
10
11
11
11
11

11
11
11
11
12
12
12
12
13
13

.80
.81
.82
.83
.84

6310
6457
6607
6761
6918

6324
6471
6622
6776
6934

6339
6486
6637
6792
6950

6353
6501
6653
6808
6966

6368
6516
6668
6823
6982

6383
6531
6683
6839
6998

6397
6546
6699
6855
7015

6412
6561
6714
6871
7031

6427
6577
6730
6887
7047

6442
6592
6745
6902
7063

1
2
2
2
2

3
3
3
3
3

4
5
5
5
5

6
6
6
6
6

7
8
8
8
8

9
9
9
9
10

10
11
11
11
11

12 13
12 14
12 14
1314
13 15

.85
.86
.87
.88
.89

7079
7244
7413
7586
7762

7096
7261
7430
7603
7780

7112
7278
7447
7621
7798

7129
7295
7464
7638
7816

7145
7311
7482
7656
7834

7161
7328
7499
7674
7852

7178
7345
7516
7691
7870

7194
7362
7534
7709
7889

7211
7379
7551
7727
7907

7228
7396
7568
7745
7925

2
2
2
2
2

3
3
3
4
4

5
5
5
5
5

7
7
7
7
7

8
8
9
9
9

10
10
10
11
11

12
12
12
12
13

13
13
14
14
14

15
15
16
16
16

.90
.91
.92
.93
.94

7943
8128
8318
8511
8710

7962
8147
8337
8531
8730

7980
8166
8356
8551
8750

7998
8185
8375
8570
8770

8017
8204
8395
8590
8790

8035
8222
8414
8610
8810

8054
8241
8433
8630
8831

8072
8260
8453
8650
8851

8091
8279
8472
8670
8872

8110
8299
8492
8690
8892

2
2
2
2
2

4
4
4
4
4

6
6
6
6
6

7
8
8
8
8

9
9
10
10
10

11
11
12
12
12

13
13
14
14
14

15
15
15
16
16

17
17
17
18
18

8974
9183
9397
9616
9840

8995
9204
9419
9638
9863

9016
9226
9441
9661
9886

9036
9247
9462
9683
9908

9057
9268
9484
9705
9931

9078
9290
9506
9727
9954

9099
9311
9528
9750
9977

2
2
2
2
2

4
4
4
4
5

6
6
7
7
7

8
8
9
9
9

10
11
11
11
11

12
13
13
13
14

15
15
15
16
16

17
17
17
18
18

19
19
20
20
20

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

.95
.96
.97
.98
.99

8913
9120
9333
9550
9772

8933
9141
9354
9572
9795

8954
9162
9376
9594
9817

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

no
NOTES

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

no
NOTES

tt
o N
be C
re ER
pu T
bl
is
he
d

no
NOTES

Exemplar Problems Science: © Ncert Not To Be Republished
No ratings yet
Exemplar Problems Science: © Ncert Not To Be Republished
10 pages
Periodic Classification of Elements
No ratings yet
Periodic Classification of Elements
64 pages
Major Examination: Subject - Science Maximum Marks: 80 Class - IX Time: 3 Hours
No ratings yet
Major Examination: Subject - Science Maximum Marks: 80 Class - IX Time: 3 Hours
4 pages
Chemistry: Type of Assessment Percentage Weightage in Academic Session Month Duration of Written Assessment Max Marks
No ratings yet
Chemistry: Type of Assessment Percentage Weightage in Academic Session Month Duration of Written Assessment Max Marks
14 pages
Final Fa Fit Class-Ix 4 Feb 2011
No ratings yet
Final Fa Fit Class-Ix 4 Feb 2011
113 pages
Class 9 - Science
No ratings yet
Class 9 - Science
228 pages
9th Biology Final Corrections PDF
No ratings yet
9th Biology Final Corrections PDF
109 pages
Chemistry Basics for Students
No ratings yet
Chemistry Basics for Students
21 pages
Life Processes - CBSE Class 10 Biology
75% (8)
Life Processes - CBSE Class 10 Biology
7 pages
PMT Class XI Chemistry Atomic Structure
No ratings yet
PMT Class XI Chemistry Atomic Structure
39 pages
Atoms & Molecules
No ratings yet
Atoms & Molecules
2 pages
Science Class 9 PDF
No ratings yet
Science Class 9 PDF
228 pages
Science Question Bank
No ratings yet
Science Question Bank
178 pages
Support Material For Biology For Class Xii Members of Writing Team
100% (1)
Support Material For Biology For Class Xii Members of Writing Team
189 pages
SAS - English Class 8
No ratings yet
SAS - English Class 8
108 pages
Chemical Reaction For Class XTH
100% (1)
Chemical Reaction For Class XTH
3 pages
Chemistry 12 Class Support Material 220p
No ratings yet
Chemistry 12 Class Support Material 220p
220 pages
Class X Science
50% (2)
Class X Science
48 pages
Sample Question Paper For Class 9 Cbse English 2013 Term 1
No ratings yet
Sample Question Paper For Class 9 Cbse English 2013 Term 1
5 pages
9th Class Chaptr 1 BIOLOGY Notes
No ratings yet
9th Class Chaptr 1 BIOLOGY Notes
222 pages
Foundation Chemistry Class 7 Content
100% (1)
Foundation Chemistry Class 7 Content
2 pages
@class - 10 - Materials NTSE MATHS PYQs
No ratings yet
@class - 10 - Materials NTSE MATHS PYQs
219 pages
ANswer Key PWNSAT Sample Paper Class-9
0% (1)
ANswer Key PWNSAT Sample Paper Class-9
1 page
Yakeen 2.0 Planner Schedule
No ratings yet
Yakeen 2.0 Planner Schedule
6 pages
8th New Maths Text Book
No ratings yet
8th New Maths Text Book
300 pages
CBSE Class X Science Full Study Material Concepts PDF
100% (1)
CBSE Class X Science Full Study Material Concepts PDF
128 pages
Physics: Best Buy Links To All Imp Iitjee Books (PCM)
No ratings yet
Physics: Best Buy Links To All Imp Iitjee Books (PCM)
4 pages
Nsejs Study Material For Chemistry
No ratings yet
Nsejs Study Material For Chemistry
5 pages
CUET UG Biology Book 2025
100% (1)
CUET UG Biology Book 2025
221 pages
(Ebooks PDF) Download Mylestone Mathematics Volume 2 For 7 2022nd Edition Mylestone Full Chapters
100% (5)
(Ebooks PDF) Download Mylestone Mathematics Volume 2 For 7 2022nd Edition Mylestone Full Chapters
49 pages
Sample Test Paper: Class: X
No ratings yet
Sample Test Paper: Class: X
16 pages
Objective Physics For NEET 2021 2nd Edition Anand Srivastava Full
100% (4)
Objective Physics For NEET 2021 2nd Edition Anand Srivastava Full
116 pages
11th Class Chemsitry WWW Prep4civils Com
67% (3)
11th Class Chemsitry WWW Prep4civils Com
415 pages
CBSE Class 9 Force and Laws of Motion
No ratings yet
CBSE Class 9 Force and Laws of Motion
5 pages
Question Bank For Class X (SCIENCE)
No ratings yet
Question Bank For Class X (SCIENCE)
42 pages
Aakash BYJUS Foundation Medical Engineering Prospectus English 2023
No ratings yet
Aakash BYJUS Foundation Medical Engineering Prospectus English 2023
32 pages
Chemistry Arihant
100% (2)
Chemistry Arihant
31 pages
SC Mock Test CBSE 10th Math 22.01.23
No ratings yet
SC Mock Test CBSE 10th Math 22.01.23
8 pages
Solved Papers
No ratings yet
Solved Papers
284 pages
Foundation Class X PCMB
No ratings yet
Foundation Class X PCMB
1,571 pages
12th Physics Exemplar PDF
50% (2)
12th Physics Exemplar PDF
233 pages
Brochure Pearson Foundation Series
100% (2)
Brochure Pearson Foundation Series
9 pages
Social Science Arihant Term 2 Sample Papers WWW - examSAKHA.in PDF
No ratings yet
Social Science Arihant Term 2 Sample Papers WWW - examSAKHA.in PDF
129 pages
ICSE Class10 Chemistry
No ratings yet
ICSE Class10 Chemistry
272 pages
Atomic Structure
100% (1)
Atomic Structure
49 pages
Concise Selina Biology Part I Solutions For Class Biology ICSE Chapter 2 - Cell - The Unit of Life - TopperLearning
100% (1)
Concise Selina Biology Part I Solutions For Class Biology ICSE Chapter 2 - Cell - The Unit of Life - TopperLearning
6 pages
Physics: Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan
100% (1)
Physics: Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan
223 pages
Exemplar Problems Class XI Chemistry
No ratings yet
Exemplar Problems Class XI Chemistry
227 pages
Class XI Chemistry Exemplar Problem
100% (3)
Class XI Chemistry Exemplar Problem
227 pages
Chemistry Exemplar
No ratings yet
Chemistry Exemplar
11 pages
12th Chemistry Exemplar - Guj (VisionPapers - In)
No ratings yet
12th Chemistry Exemplar - Guj (VisionPapers - In)
308 pages
Kech 2 Ps
No ratings yet
Kech 2 Ps
7 pages
Class VI Science Problems
No ratings yet
Class VI Science Problems
153 pages
NCERT Class 10 Science Exemplar Problems 1
No ratings yet
NCERT Class 10 Science Exemplar Problems 1
24 pages
Kech2ps PDF
100% (1)
Kech2ps PDF
8 pages
124 II PUC Chemisrty Kannada Part II 2019
No ratings yet
124 II PUC Chemisrty Kannada Part II 2019
208 pages
Kech 2 Ps
No ratings yet
Kech 2 Ps
8 pages
Buku Teks Kimia BHG 1
100% (1)
Buku Teks Kimia BHG 1
262 pages
11th Chem
No ratings yet
11th Chem
236 pages