HEMATOLOGY TEST 1

1. Reticulocytosis is seen in all EXCEPT:

(a) P.N.H.
(b) Hemolysis
(c)
Neutritional anemia
(d) Dyserythropoietic syndrome

9.

Which of the following test is the most sensitive

for detection of iron depletion in pregnancy:
(a) Serum iron
(b) Serum transferrin
(c)
Serum ferritin
(d) Serum erythropoitin

2.

10.

Increased iron absorption is seen all, EXCEPT:

(a) Iron deficiency anaemia
(b) Hypoxia
(c)
Acidic PH of stomach
(d) Ferric iron

11.

Iron is actively absorbed in:

(a) Stomach
(b) Duodenum and proximal jejunum
(c)
Large intestine
(d) Ileum

12.

A child 5 year of age presents with anemia. On

examination his MCV was 70 and MCH was
blood erythrocyte protoporphyrin was high. What
is the probable diagnosis:
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Iron deficiency syndrome
(c)
Porphyria
(d) Sickle cell anemia

13.

Microcytosis is seen in all EXCEPT:

(a) Thalassemia
(b) Hb lapore
(c)
Hb barts
(d) Megaloblastic anemia

14.

Earliest response to iron therapy is:

(a) Increase in Hb%
(b) Reticulocytes
(c)
Increased PCV
(d) Increased neutrophilis

15.

All of the following are features sideroblastic

anemia, EXCEPT:
(a) Microcytosis with ypochromia
(b) Increased iron stores in bone marrow
(c)
Responds to pyridoxine therapy
(d) Responds to folic acid therapy

16.

A patient presents with increased serum ferritin,

decreased TIBC, increased serum iron, %
saturation increased. Most probable diagnosis
is:
(a) Anemia of chronic disease
(b) Sideroblastic anemia
(c)
Iron deficiency anemia
(d) Thalassemia minor

All of the following are the causes of relative

polycythemia, EXCEPT:
(a) Dehydration
(b) Dengue haemorrhagic fever
(c)
Gaisbock syndrome
(d) High altitude

3.

Which is not a criteria of hypersplenism:

(a) Splenomegaly
(b) Coombs test (+ve)
(c)
Splenectomy is curative
(d) Hyperplastic bone marrow

4.

All of the following diseases cause massive

splenomegaly, EXCEPT:
(a) Malaria
(b) Kalazar
(c)
Lymphoblastic leukaemia
(d) Idiopathic myelofibrosis

5.

In India, Splenectomy is
performed for:
(a) Hydatid cyst
(b) Carcinoma thyroid
(c)
Trauma
(d) Portal hypertension

most

commonly

6.

Peripheral blood smear in a splenectomised

patient will show:
(a) Neutrophillia
(b) Howell joly bodies
(c)
Target cells
(d) Thrombocytopenia

7.

Most common infections after splenectomy are:

(a) Capsulated Bacteria
(b) Uncapsulated Bacteria
(c)
Gram Positive Sepsis
(d) Gram Negative Bacteria

8.

Mucosal transfer of iron in GIT by:

(a) Transferrin
(b) Apoferritin
(c)
Apotransferrin
(d) Ferritin

17.

Seen in chronic inflammatory anemia is:

(a) Serum iron S. ferritin and transferrin
(b) Serum iron S. ferritin and transferrin
(c)
Serum iron S. ferriti and transferring
(d) Serum iron S. ferritin and transferrin

18.

In sickle cell anemia the pathology may be

represented as:
6
(a) HbS B glu Val
6
(b) HbS A glu Val
18
(c)
HbSB glu Val
8
(d) HbS glu Val

19.

In a patient with enteric fever bone and joint

infection is seen specially in children having:
(a) Aplastic anemia
(b) HIV disease
(c)
Sickle cell disease
(d) HbsAg + ye hepatitis

20.

HbA increased in:

(a) Alfa-thalassemia
(b) Iron deficiency anemia
(c)
Beta-thalassemia
(d) Sickle cell trait

22.

Barts hydropsfetalis is lethal because:

(a) Hb Barts cannot bind oxygen
(b) The excess -globin form insoluble
precipitates
(c)
Hb Barts cannot release oxygen to fetal
tissues
(d) Microcytic red cells become trapped in the
placenta

23.

Diagnosis of beta thalassemia is established by:

(a) NESTROFT Test
(b) Hb A1 C estimation
(c)
Hb electrophoresis
(d) Target cells in peripheral smear

24.

Megaloblastic anemia is consequence os all

except:
(a) Trimethoprin
(b) Methotrexate
(c)
Amoxycilline
(d) pyrimethamine
Megaloblastic anemia in blindloop syndrome is
due to:
(a) Vit B12 deficiency
(b) Intrinsic factor deficiency
(c)
Iron absorption defect
(d) Folate deficiency

25.

26.

In erythropoiesis:
(a) Size of the cells increases in subsequent
stages
(b) Haemolobin appears at early normoblast
stage
(c)
Mitosis occurs in late normoblast at the
fastest rate
(d) Folic acid is useful as a maturation factor

27.

Pernicious anemia is due to:

(a) Iron deficiency
(b) Atrophic gastritis
(c)
Low folic acid
(d) None

28.

The most common enzyme deficiency in man is:

(a) Gulcose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(b) Gulcose-6-phosphatase
(c)
Hexokinase
(d) Gulcose-1.6-diphosphatse

29.

Earliest sign of megaloblastic anemia:

(a) Increased MCV
(b) Increased neutrophil segmentation
(c)
Altered ME ratio
(d) Decreased hemoglobin

30.

Which one of the following is not true of folic

acid:
(a) It prevents megaloblastic anemia
(b) Its deficiency id detected by Schilling test
(c)
Its administration should be started in
early pregnancy
(d) Its deficiency causes neural tube defect in
foetus

31.

Osmotic fragility is seen in:

(a) Sickle cell anemia
(b) B Thalassemia
(c)
Hereditary spherocytosis
(d) Iron deficiency anemia

32.

Auto haemolysis test is positive in:

(a) Beta thalessemia
(b) Hereditary spherocytosis
(c)
Vit E deficiency
(d) Sickle cell disease

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

Gulcose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

is:
(a) Autosomal recessive
(b) Autosomal dominant
(c)
Sex-linked recessive
(d) Sex-linked dominant
All are feature of warm antibody hemolytic
anemia, EXCEPT:
(a) Coombs positive
(b) Spherocytes in blood
(c)
Mycoplasma Ag positive
(d) Responds to steroid
All of the following infections are often
associated with acute intravascular hemolysis,
EXCEPT:
(a) Clostridium tetani
(b) Bartonella bacilliformis
(c)
Plasmodium falciparum
(d) Babesia microti
In hemolytic uremic syndrome characteristic
finding in peripheral smear is:
(a) Burr cell
(b) Anisopoikilocytosis
(c)
Leukemoid reaction
(d) Burr cells with fragmented RBCs
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria
screened by:
(a) Acid ham test
(b) CD59, DAF
(c)
Serum hapten levels
(d) Low serum complement levels

38.

HAM test is done for:

(a) G.P.I. anchor protein
(b) Complement defect
(c)
Spectrin defect
(d) Mannose binding protein

39.

Pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in:

(a) PNH
(b) G6PD deficiency
(c)
Acquired aplastic anemia
(d) Thalassemia

40.

The commonest cause of aplastic anemia is:

(a) Idiopathic
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c)
Phenylbutazone
(d) Petroleum products

42.

The virus most commonly causing aplastic crisis

in hemolytic anemia is:
(a) HIV
(b) Herpes virus
(c)
Parvo virus
(d) HTLV

43.

A patient aged 65 years, is diagnosed to have

severe aplastic anemia. HLA compatible sibling
is available. The best option of treatment is:
(a)Anti-thymocyte
globulin
followed
by
cyclosporine
(b)Conventional bone marrow transplantation
from the HLA identical sibling
(c)Non-myeloablative
bone
marrow
transplantation from the HLA identical
sibling
(d)Cyclosporine

44.

Treatment of choice for aplastic anemia is:

(a) Blood transfusions
(b) Oxymethalone
(c)
Bone marrow transplantation
(d) Azathioprine

45.

In which of the following age group

myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) are most
common:
(a) 2-10
(b) 15-20
(c)
25-40
(d) >50

46.

True about polycythemia rubra vera is all,

EXCEPT:
(a) Can evolve into acute leukaemia
(b) Hyper uraecemia
(c)
Venous thrombosis
(d) May result in severe infections

47.

Which of the following is not a myeloproliferative

disease:
(a) Polycythemia rubra vera
(b) Acute myeloid leukemia
(c)
Chronic myeloid leukemia
(d) Essential thrombocytosis

is

48.

49.

50.

Laboratory evaluation for the differential

diagnosis of chronic myeloproliferative disorders
includes all the following, EXCEPT:
(a) Chromosomal evaluation
(b) Bone marrow aspiration
(c)
Flow-cytometric analysis
(d) Determination of red blood cell mass
A 59 year old male came with Hb 18.0 g/dl on
three occasions. The resident doctor wants to
exclude Polycythemia Vera. Which of the
following is the most relevant investigations:
(a) Hematocrit
(b) Total leucocyte count
(c)
Red cell mass
(d) Reticubocyte count

(c)
(d)
55.

Arsenic is used in treatment of:

(a) Acute promyelocytic leukemia
(b) A.L.L.
(c)
C.M.L.
(d) Transient myeloproliferative disorder

56.

Diagnostic criteria of CML are:

(a) Auer rods
(b) Basophilia
(c)
LAP score
(d) Chromosomal abnormality seen

57.

A peripheral smear with increased neutrophils,

basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly
suggestive of:
(a) Acute myeloid leukemia
(b) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
(c)
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
(d) Myelodysplastic syndrome

58.

Best Rx for CML is:

(a) Autologous BMT
(b) Allogenic BMT
(c)
Alpha interferon
(d) Hydroxyurea

59.

Interferon is not used in:

(a) CML
(b) Polymyositis
(c)
Hairy cell leukaemia
(d) Chronic hepatitis C infection

60.

80 years old, asymptomatic man present with a

Total Leucocyte Count of 1 lakh, with 80%
lymphocytes and 20% PMCs. What is the most
probable diagnosis:
(a) HIV
(b) CML
(c)
CLL
(d) TB

61.

Anti CD 20 antibody is now the treatment of

choice for:
(a) All low grade non-hydgkins lymphomas
(b) Relapsed B cell follicular lymphomas
(c)
Relapsed Hodgkins disease
(d) Chronic lymphatic leukaemia

62.

Bone marrow biopsy is absolutely indicated in:

(a) Acute leukemia
(b) Megaloblastic anemia
(c)
Hairy cell leukemia
(d) Thalassemia

All are true respect to polycythemia vera,

EXCEPT:
(a) High leucocyte alkaline phosphatase
(b) Increased B12 binding protein
(c)
Increased Erythropoietin
(d) Bone marrow hyperplasia

HEMATOLOGY TEST 2
51.

52.

53.

54
a)
b)
c)
d)

Leukemia is predisposed to by:

(a) Blooms syndrome
(b) Fanconis anemia
(c)
Ataxia telangiectesia
(d) All
All of the following syndromes are associated
with AML, EXCEPT:
(a) Downs syndrome
(b) Klinefelters syndrome
(c)
Patau syndrome
(d) Turners syndrome
For acute leukaemia the blast cells should be
more than -%:
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c)
30
(d) 40
In AML, all of the following are seen except:
Retonic acid is used in treatment
15/17 translocation may be seen
CD 15/34 both seen in same cell
Associaited with DIC
Gum hypertrophy is seen in which type of AML:
(a) M1
(b) M2

M3
M4

63.

64.

65.

66.

Which of the following statements about Mycosis

fungoides is not true:
(a) It is the most common form of cutaneous
lymphoma
(b) Pautriers micro abscess
(c)
Indolent course and easily amenable to
treatment
(d) Erythroderma seen and spreads to
peripheral circulation
Diagnosis of Hodgkins disease is confirmed by:
(a) CT scan
(b) Bone marrow biopsy
(c)
Lymph node biopsy
(d) Lymphangiography
A 58 years old woman, who had backache and
recurrent chest infections for 6 months, develops
pain of the leg and urinary retention. Her
investigations show a hemoglobin of 7.3 gm/dl,
serum calcium - 12.6 mg/dl, phosphate - 2.5
mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase - 100 /L, serum
albumin - 3 gm/dl, globulin - 7.1 gm/dl, and urea
- 178 mg/d. What is the most likely diagnosis:
(a) Lung cancer
(b) Disseminated tuberculosis
(c)
Multiple myeloma
(d) Osteoporosis
The following is the least useful investigation in
multiple myeloma:
(a) ESR
(b) X-Ray
(c)
Bone scan
(d) Bone marrow biopsy

67.

The single most powerful predictor of survival in

multiple myeloma is:
(a) M component production
(b) Bone marrow plasmacytosis
(c)
Serum beta 2-microglobulin level
(d) Serum calcium level

68.

M spike on serum elecgtrophorosis is seen in:

(a) Lymphoblastic leukemia
(b) Waldenstromsmacroglobulinaemia
(c)
Alpha-chain disease
(d) AIDS

69.

Cyoprecipitate is rich in factor:

(a) II
(b) V
(c)
VII
(d) VIII

70.

Massive transfusion
EXCEPT:
(a) DIC
(b) Hypothermea
(c)
Hypokalemia
(d) Hyperkalemia

causes

the

following,

71.

Platelet transfusion is indicated in:

(a) Immune thrombocytopenia
(b) Dilutional thrombocytopenia
(c)
DIC
(d) ITP

72.

Which of the following are

transmitted viruses, EXCEPT:
(a) Hepatitis B
(b) CMV
(c)
HTLV
(d) Rubella

73.

If bone marrow is transplated,, ideally the donor

must be:
(a) The mother
(b) The father
(c)
The sister
(d) An identical twin

74.

Bone marrow transplantation as a treatment

modality can be advised in all of the following
cases which are newly diagnosed, EXCEPT:
(a) Combined immunodeficiency
(b) CML
(c)
Aplastic anemia
(d) All

75.

Bone marrow transplantation is not indicated in:

(a) Aplastic anemia
(b) Congenital spherocytosis
(c)
Thalassemia
(d) Acute myeloid leukaemia in first remission

transfusion

HEMATOLOGY TEST 3

77.

The following disease without splenomegaly for

which splenectomy is effective:
(a) Sickle cell disease
(b) Idiopathic thromyocytopenic purpura
(c)
Aplastic anaemia
(d) Thalassemia

78.

Platelet function defect is seen in all, EXCEPT:

(a) Glanzman syndrome
(b) Bernard soulier syndrome
(c)
Wiskot Aldrich syndrome
(d) Von-Wiilebrand disease

79

80.

81.

82.

A newborn baby presented with profuse

bleeding from umbilical stump after birth.
Probable diagnosis is:
(a) Factor XIII deficiency
(b) VWF deficiency
(c)
Factor XII deficiency
(d) Glanzmann thrombosthenia
Which of the following is the best source of
factor VIII:
(a) Fresh food
(b) Fresh frozen plasma
(c)
Cryoprecipitate
(d) Platelet concentrate
In DIC which false:
(a) PT prolonged
(b) APTT is normal
(c)
Fibrinogen is decreased
(d) Thrombocytopenia
Most important aspect of treatment of DIC:
(a) Treat the primary cause
(b) Heparin
(c)
FFP and Cyroprecipitate
(d) Fluids

rd

83. A patient is admitted with 3 episode of deep

venous thrombosis. There is no history of any
associated medical illness. All of the following
investigations are required for establishing the
diagnosis, EXCEPT:
(a) Proteing C deficiency
(b) Antithrombin III deficiency
(c)
Antibiodes to factor VIII
(d) Antibodies to cardiolipin
84.

Heparin requires for its action:

(a) Antithrombin I
(b) Antithrombin III
(c)
Antithromboplastin
(d) Antithrombin VI

85.

Heparins major mode of action is:

(a) Inhibits synthesis of thrombin
(b) Not easily controlled
(c)
Inhibits factor VII synthesis
(d) Activates plasmin

86.

An overdose of Heparin is treated:

(a) Prostaglandins
(b) Phenindione
(c)
Protamine sulphate
(d) Prostigmine

87.

Oral anticoagulant therapy is monitored:

(a) PT
(b) PTT
(c)
TT
(d) Clot lysis time