INFECTIOUS DISEASE TEST 1

1. Which of the following is least likely to cause

infective endocarditis:
(a) Staphylococcus albus
(b) Streptococcus facalis
(c)
Salmonella typhi
(d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

9.

In a patient presenting with diarrhea due to vibrio

cholera, which of the following will be present:
(a) Abdominal pain
(b) Presence of leukocytes in stool
(c)
Fever
(d) Occurrence of many cases in the same
locality

2.

Bacterial endocarditis is most commonly caused

by:
(a) Beta- Hemolytic Streptococci
(b) Alpha- Hemolytic Streptococci
(c)
Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Cardiobacterium

10.

In a patient presenting with diarrhea and pus

cells in stool, the causative organism can be:
(a) Non vibrio cholera
(b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli
(c)
Enteroinvasive E. coli
(d) Vibrio cholera

3.

SBE is commonly caused by:

(a) Streptococcus viridans
(b) Strept-facalis
(c)
Staphyloccus
(d) Pneumococcus

11.

4.

Infective endocarditis in drug abuse commonly

affects:
(a) Tricuspid valve
(b) Mitral valve
(c)
Aortic valve
(d) Pulmonary valve

A group of students who attended a college

banquet reported vomiting, watery diarrhea in 6
hours. The most causative organism is:
(a) Shigella
(b) Clostridium botulinum
(c)
E. Coli
(d) Bacillus cerus

12.

Poisoning of food by which of the organisms has

the shortest incubation period:
(a) S. aureus
(b) Salmonella
(c)
Botulism
(d) Cl. perfringesn

13.

Treatment of travellers diarrhea is:

(a) Sulfaguandine
(b) Diphenoxylate and atropine
(c)
Loperamide and Quinolones
(d) Chloromycetic and streptomycin

14.

Drug of choice for pseudomembranous colitis:

(a) Penicillin
(b) Metronidazole
(c)
Ciprofloxacin
(d) Vancomycin

15.

The parasite which is transmitted sexually:

(a) Strongyloidesstercoralis
(b) Necatoramericanus
(c)
Ankylostomaduodonale
(d) None

5.

6.

7.

8.

Commonest complication of subacute bacterial

endocarditis:
(a) CCF
(b) Thromboembolism
(c)
Pulmonary edema
(d) Renal failure
In SABE test of most diagnostic significance:
(a) Serial blood culture
(b) Anti DNAase
(c)
ASLO
(d) Anti streptolysin
Commonest route of infection in acute pyogenic
abscess of liver is:
(a) Ascending infection
(b) Haematogenous
(c)
Lymphatic
(d) Trauma
MC cause of liver abscess:
(a) Streptococcus
(b) Staph aureus
(c)
E. Coli
(d) Staph pyogenes

16.

17.

18.

19.

A 45 year old female complains of lower

abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. On
examination there is cervicitis along with a
mucopurulent discharge best approach to isolate
the causative agent would be:
(a) Culture chocolate agar supplemented with
Haemin
(b) Culture on McCoy cells
(c)
Culture on a bilayer human blood agar
(d) Culture on vero cell lines
The syndromic management of urethral
discharge includes treatment of:
(a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes
genitalis
(b) Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes
genitalis
(c)
Neisseria gonorrhea and Chlamydia
trachomatis
(d) Syphilis and chancroid
Painful lymphadenopathy is seen in:
(a) Donovanosis
(b) Syphilis
(c)
Chancroid
(d) Gonorrhea
In a post-operative intensive care unit, five
patients developed post-operative wound
infection on the same wound. The best method
to prevent cross infection occurring in other
patients in the same ward is to:
(a) Give antibiotics to all other patients in the
ward
(b) Fumigate the ward
(c)
Disinfect
the
ward
with
sodium
hypochlorite
(d) Practice proper hand washing

20.

Most common mode of transmission

nosocomial infections:
(a) Nasal droplets
(b) Catheters
(c)
Contact with hospital personal
(d) Contaminated needles

21.

Nosocomial pneumonia is most common due to:

(a) Gram +ve bacilli
(b) Gram vecocci
(c)
Gram +ve normal
(d) Gram ve bacilli

22.

Most common catheter induced blood infections

is due to;
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) Coagulase negative staphylococci
(c)
Gram negative bacilli

(d)

Candida

23.

Universal precaution
EXCEPT:
(a) Urine
(b) Semen
(c)
Feces
(d) Sputum

24.

A patient of immunocompromised due to

transplantation is suffering from pyrexia and
neutropenia. Most likely cause is:
(a) HSV
(b) CMV
(c)
Gram ve organism
(d) Gram +ve organism

25.

Most common cause of death in renal transplant

patient in India:
(a) Rejection
(b) Infection
(c)
Uremia
(d) Haemorrhage

26.

Pneumococcal vaccination is indicated in all

except:
(a) Post splenectomy
(b) Sickle cell anemia
(c)
HIV
(d) After radiotherapy

27.

A patient admitted to an ICU is on central

venous line for the last one week. He is on
ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of
antibiotics he develops a spike of fever an his
blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci
in chains, which are catalase negative. Following
this, vancomycin was started but the culture
remained positive for the same organism even
after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely
organism causing infections is:
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) Viridans streptococci
(c)
Enterococcus faecalis
(d) Coagulase negative staphylococcus

28.

Young female presents with myalgia, fever,

headache, diarrhea and an erythematous rash
which first appeared in the groin. Most likely
diagnosis is:
(a) Toxic epidermal necrolysis
(b) Staph. Scalded skin syndrome
(c)
Toxic shock syndrome
(d) Epidermolysisbullosa

of

is

applicable

to

all,

29.

A patient in an ICU is on a CVP line. His blood

culture shows growth of grain positive cocci
which are catalase positive and coagulase
negative. The most likely etiological agent is:
(a) Staplycoccus aureus
(b) Staplylococcus epidermidis
(c)
Streptococcus pyogenes
(d) Enterococcus faecalis

30.

The following drug is not useful for MRSA:

(a) Cefaclor
(b) Cotrimoxazole
(c)
Ciprofloxacin
(d) Vancomycin

31.

All of the following are true regarding diphtheria,

EXCEPT:
(a) Tonsillar membrane can be easily wiped
off
(b) There may be swelling of neck causing
bull neck appearance
(c)
With high degree of immunity a membrane
may never appear
(d) In laryngeal diphtheria, tracheostomy may
be
needed
to
relieve
respiratory
obstruction

32.

33.

34.

All are seen in diphtheric outcome, EXCEPT:

(a) Pseudomembrane formation
(b) Cardiomyopathy
(c)
Endotoxemia
(d) Polyneuropathy
Acute ascending paralysis is seen in all,
EXCEPT:
(a) Diptheria
(b) Porphryia
(c)
DM
(d) GBS
Tetanus is characterized by:
(a) Can be cultured from wound
(b) Spasm of masseter occurs first
(c)
Incubation period is 2-3 days
(d) Accompanied by loss of consciousness

35.

Among the toxins produced by clostridium

botulinum the non-neurotoxic one is:
(a) A
(b) B
(c)
C1
(d) C2

36.

Crepitus in a wound is produced by:

(a) Staph aureus
(b) Clostridium tetani

(c)
(d)

Clostridium welchii
Pseudomonas

37.

Best treatment to prevent gas gangrene:

(a) Thorough debridement
(b) Anti serum
(c)
Vaccination
(d) Antibiotics

38.

A 60 years old is diagnosed to be suffering from

legionnaires disease after he returns home from
attending a convention. He could have acquired
it:
(a) From a person suffering from the infection
while traveling in the aeroplane
(b) From a chronic carrier in the convention
center
(c)
From inhalation of the aerosol in the air
conditioned room at convention centre
(d) By sharing an infected towel with a fellow
delegate at the convention

39.

Pontiac fever is caused by:

(a) Marbug virus
(b) Legionella
(c)
Tuberculosis bacilli
(d) Sindbis virus

40.

Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the

following microbial agents, EXCEPT:
(a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
(b) Legionella
(c)
Human Corona virus
(d) Klebsiella pneumoniae

41.

An elderly male patient presented with fever,

chest pain and dry cough, Sputum culture
showed growth on Charcol Yeast Extract
Medium. The organism is:
(a) H. influenza
(b) Moraxella cartarrhalis
(c)
Legionella
(d) Burkholderiacepacia

42.

All of the following are true regarding whooping

cough, EXCEPT:
(a) Spread by droplet infection
(b) 90% of cases occur in children under 5
years of age
(c)
The whoop stage is more infection than
catarrhal stage
(d) Blood count shows lymphocytosis

43.

A 20 year old man presented with hemorrhagic

colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in
pure culture. The following serotype of E. coli is
likely to be the causative agent:

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
44.

45.

46.

0 157:H 7
0 159:H 7
0 107:H 7
0 55:H 7

With reference to infections with E.coil the

following are true, EXCEPT:
(a) Enteroaggregative E. coli is associated
with persistent diarrhoea
(b) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli can cause
hemolytic uremic syndrome
(c)
Enteroinvasive E. coli produces a disease
similar to salmonellosis
(d) Enterotoxigenic E. coil is a common cause
of travellersdiarrhoea
Infective endocarditis due to pseudomonas is
most commonly seen with:
(a) Intravenous drug abuse of pentazocin
(b) HIV patient
(c)
Chronic steroid therapy
(d) Elderly
with
community
acquired
penumonia
The blood culture from a patient of febrile
neutropenia
has
grown
Pseudomonas
aeruginosa. It was found to be a producer of
extended spectrum beta lactamase enzyme. The
beast choice of antimicrobial therapy should be:
(a) Ceftazidime + Amikacin
(b) Azireonam + Amjkacin
(c)
Cefkirome + Amikacin
(d) Imipenem + Amikacin

47.

All are effective

EXCEPT:
(a) Azithromycin
(b) Imipenem
(c)
Ceftazidine
(d) Piperacillin

47.

A farmer rearing sheep, presented with

complaints of fever and weakness for the last 10
days & hepatomegaly. Biopsy of liver showed
non caseating granuloma. These are most likely
due to infection with:
(a) Brucella melitensis
(b) Brucella canis
(c)
Francisellatularensis
(d) Yersinia pestis

48.

against

49.

Actinomycosis is commonly seen in:

(a) Tibia
(b) Mandible
(c)
Scapula
(d) Femur

50.

In actinomycosis of the spine, the abscess

usually erodes:
(a) Intervertebral disc
(b) Into the pleural cavity
(c)
Into the reteroperitoneal space
(d) Towards the skin

51.

Which of the following antituberculosis drug is

not given in pregnancy:
(a) Streptomycin
(b) INH
(c)
Ethamutol
(d) Rifampicin

52.

Tubercular nephritis is characterized by:

(a) Pus cells without organism in the acidic
urine
(b) Pus cells with organism in the acidic urine
(c)
Pus cells without organism in the alkaline
urine
(d) Pus cells with organism in the alkaline
urine

53.

A poverty stricken mother suffering from active

tuberculosis delivers a baby. Which one of the
following advices would be the most appropriate
in her case:
(a) Breast feeding and BCG immunization
(b) Breast
feeding
and
isoniazid
administration
(c)
Expressed breast milk and BCG
immunization
(d) Stop feeds and isoniazid administration

54.

Nerve abscess in tuberculoid leprosy treatment

of choice:
(a) Incission and drainage
(b) High dose clofazimine
(c)
Steroids
(d) Thalidomide

55.

Single skin lesion is seen in which type of

Leprosy:
(a) LL
(b) TT
(c)
BL
(d) BT

56.

Leonine facies is seen in which disease:

pseudomonas,

Which one of the following is effective in the

treatment of brucellosis:
(a) Rifampicin
(b) Amphotericin
(c)
Ketoconazole
(d) Pencillin

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Leprosy
Syphilis
Jaws
Trypanosomiasis

57.

In leprosy nerves commonly involved are:

(a) High ulnar, low median
(b) High median, low ulnar
(c)
Triple nerve palsy
(d) High radial, low median

58.

Treatment of lepra type II reaction are all,

EXCEPT:
(a) Clofazimine
(b) Thalidomide
(c)
Corticosteroids
(d) Cessation of antileprosy treatment

59.

Drug of choice with type I lepra reaction with

severe neuritis is:
(a) Steroids systemic
(b) Clofazimine
(c)
Thalidomide
(d) Chloroquine

60.

Thalidomide is useful in:

(a) Treatment of leprosy
(b) Treatment of lepra reaction type I
(c)
Treatment of lepra reaction type II
(d) Treatment of pure neuritic leprosy

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
64.

Drug of choice in Herpes zoster:

(a) Acyclovir
(b) Vidarabine
(c)
Idoxuridine
(d) Actinoniycin

65.

Most sensitive test for diagnosis of infectious

mononucleosis:
(a) Monospot test
(b) Paul Bunnel test
(c)
Lymphocytosis in peripheral smear
(d) Culture of the virus

66.

The drug of choice in cytomegalovirus retinitis in

AIDS patient is:
(a) Acyclovir
(b) Ribavarin
(c)
Ganciclovir
(d) Vidarabine

67.

Which of the following is true of molluscum

contagiosum:
(a) Treatment is extirpation
(b) Is an STD
(c)
Viral infection
(d) Central umbilication

68.

Condyloma acuminate is caused by:

(a) HPV
(b) HSV
(c)
HIV
(d) All

69.

HTLV-II has been implicated in the etiology of:

(a) AIDS
(b) Adult T cell lymphoma
(c)
Zinc deficiency
(d) Hairy cell leukemia

70.

AIDS
from:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

INFECTIOUS DISEASE TEST 2

61.

62.

63.

Components of Innate immunity that are active

against viral cells include:
(a) NK cells
(b) Cytotoxic T cells
(c)
B cell
(d) Memory B cell
A 65 years old man has painful rashes over his
right upper eyelid and forehead for the last 48
hours. He underwent chemotherapy for Non
Hodgkins lymphoma one year age. His
o
temperature is 90 F, blood pressure 138/76 mm
Hg and pulse is 80/minute. Examination shows
no other abnormalities. Which of the following is
the most likely diagnosis:,
(a) Impetigo
(b) Herpes zoster
(c)
Pyoderma gangrenosum
(d) Erysipelas
Herpes zoster is commonly seen in a:

Cervical region
Thoracic region
Lumbar region
Geniculate ganglion

71.

was first diagnosed in patients suffering

Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis
Pneumocystis carinii
Kaposi sarcoma
Tuberculosis

HIV selectively infects and destroys:

(a) T4 cells
(b) T3 cells
(c)
NK cells

(d)
72.

73.

80.

A resident doctor sustained a needle stick injury

while sampling blood of a patient who is HIV
positive. A decision is taken to offer him post
exposure prophylaxis. Which of the following
would be the best recommendation?
(a) Zidovudine + Lamivudine for 4 weeks
(b) Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine for
4 weeks
(c)
Zidovudine + lamivudine + Indinavir for 4
weeks
(d) Zidovudine + Stavudine + Nevirapine for 4
weeks

81.

The rash in Measles occurs first in the region:

(a) Forehead
(b) Post auricular
(c)
Chest
(d) Neck

82.

All of the following statements are true about

Congenital Rubella, EXCEPT:
(a) It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM
antibodies at birth
(b) It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies
persist from more than 6 months
(c)
Most common congenital defects are
deafness, cardiac malformations and
cataract
(d) Infection after 16 weeks of gestation
results in major congenital defects

83.

The characteristic feature of rabies is:

(a) Brain stem encephalitis
(b) Peripheral neuropathy
(c)
Pachymeningitis
(d) Ventriculltis

84.

Treatment of choice in cryptococcal meningitis

is:
(a) Amphotericin B
(b) Flucytosine
(c)
Ketoconazole
(d) Crystalline penicillin

85.

Fungal lung infection

diabetics is:
(a) Actiomycosis
(b) Mucormycosis
(c)
Aspergillosis

Not transmitted through semen

More chances of transmission during
LSCS than normal labour
More infectious than hepatitis B
Male to female transmission > Female to
male

Antenatal maternal HIV diagnosis

importance in:
(a) To prevent vertical transmission
(b) To terminate
(c)
To discharge
(d) To isolate the patient

is

of

Which drug is given to prevent HIV transmission

from mother to child:
(a) Nevirapine
(b) Lamivudine
(c)
Stavudine
(d) Abacavir

76.

Kaposis sarcoma caused by:

(a) HHV-5
(b) HHV-6
(c)
HHV-7
(d) HHV-8

77.

A
patient
presenting
with
cervical
lymphadenopathy gives a history of having sex 3
weeks back. He thinks that he has got AIDS.
Which of the following tests will clinch the
diagnosis:
(a) ELISA
(b) p24-antigenemia
(c)
Western blot
(d) Lymph node biopsy

78.

In patients of acquired immunodeficiency

syndrome, the commonest cause of space
occupying lesion is:
(a) Non Hodgkins lymphoma
(b) Cytomnegalovirus infection
(c)
Cryptoccosis
(d) Toxoplasmosis

True about HIV:

(c)
(d)

75.

79.

Most common mode of transmission of HIV

world wide is:
(a) Heterosexual
(b) Homosexual
(c)
IV-drug abuse
(d) Contaminated blood products

(a)
(b)

74.

T10 cells

The most common organism amongst the

following that causes acute meningitis in an
AIDS patient is:
(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(b) Streptococcus agalactiae
(c)
Cryptococcus neoformans
(d) Listeria monocytogenes

commonly

seen

in

(d)

Coccidioidomycosis

86.

In an AIDS patient presenting with fever cough a

diagnosis of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is
best established by:
(a) Transtracheal biopsy
(b) Broncho alveolar lavage
(c)
Staining of intranuclear inclusion and silver
staining
(d) Aspiration and culture

87.

Drug of choice in
pneumonia:
(a) Ciprofloxacin
(b) Co-trimoxazole
(c)
Zidovudine
(d) Pentamidine

88.

Diagnostic test for amoebic hepatitis is:

(a) Indirect hemeagglutination test
(b) Isolation from pus
(c)
Isolation from wall of cavity
(d) Cyst in stools

89.

A patient present with lower gastrointestinqal

bleed. Sigmoidoscopy shows ulcers in the
sigmoid. Biopsy from this area shows flask
shaped ulcers. Which of the following is the most
appropriate treatment?
(a) Intravenous ceftriaxone
(b) Intravenous metronidazole
(c)
Intravenous steroids and sulphasalazine
(d) Hydrocortisone enemas

90.

Infectious stage of plasmodium is:

(a) Trophozoite
(b) Cryptozoite
(c)
Sporozoite
(d) Merozoite

91.

Kalazar is transmitted by:

(a) Droplet infection
(b) Sandfly
(c)
Anopheles
(d) Black fly

92.

Intestinal
parasitic
disease
immunocompromised patient is:
(a) Strongyloides
(b) Ascaris
(c)
Hookworm
(d) Trichuris

pneumocystis

carinii

in