Sol 5
Sol 5
Anthony Varilly
(adapted from Nitin Saksenas LATEXfile)
Math 112, Spring 2002
Solution I. Well prove f is uniformly continuous in [0, 1/4] and on (1/4, +). The former
follows from the Uniform Continuity theorem since f is continuous and [0, 1/4] is compact.
For the latter, notice f 0 (x) = 1/2 x < 1 for x > 1/4. Since f has bounded derivative (i.e., it
is Lipshitz), it is uniformly continuous in (1/4, +).
Solution II. Let > 0 be given and choose = 2 . We want to show that for every pair of
x+y <
x+
7. End Chapter 4, Exercise 34. Assuming that the temperature on the surface of the earth is a
continuous function, prove that on any great circle of the earth there are two antipodal points
with the same temperature.
Solution. Pick a great circle on the earth and a point p on that circle. Let T () be the
temperature at rads, measured counter-clockwise from p. Consider the function S() =
T () T ( + ). S is continuous since T is. It follows that S(0) = T (0) T () and
S() = T () T (2) = T () T (0), S(0) = S(). From the Intermediate Value Theorem,
there exists c (0, ) such that S(c) = 0, which implies that T (c) = T (c + ). Thus the
temperature at two antipodal points is the same.
8. End of Chapter 4, Exercise 42. For x > 0 define L(x) =
this definition:
Rx
1
(a) L is increasing in x. From part (c), we have L0 (x) = 1/x which is positive when x is
positive. Hence L is increasing.
(b) L(xy) = L(x) + L(y). Fix x > 0 and let f (z) = L(xz). Since z 7 xz is differentiable at
every z > 0 with derivative x, we can use part (c) and the chain rule to get
f 0 (z) = L0 (xz) x = (1/xz) x = 1/z = L0 (z)
Since (f L)0 = 0, f L is constant. In particular,
(f L)(y) = (f L)(1) = f (1) L(1) = L(x) 0
since L(1) = 0 from part (d). Thus L(x) = f (y) L(y) = L(xy) L(y) which implies
L(xy) = L(x) + L(y) as desired.
(c) L0 (x) = 1/x. For x > 0, f : [1, x] R (and f : [x, 1] R in the case 0 < x < 1) given by
f (t) = 1/t is continuous and thus satisfies the hypothesis of the Fundamental Theorem
of Calculus. Using the version derived in class, we have L0 (x) = F 0 (x) = f (x) = 1/x.
R1
(d) L(1) = 0. By definition L(1) = 1 (1/t)dt = 0.
(e) Properties (c) and (d) uniquely determine L. What is L? Suppose there are two
functions L(x) and M (x) such that L0 (x) = M 0 (x) = 1/x and L(1) = M (1) = 0. Then
(L M )0 = 0 (L M ) is a constant. Thus (L M )(1) = 0 (L M )(x) = 0 from
which it follows that L(x) = M (x). Therefore properties (c) and (d) uniquely determine
L. L(x) = log(x).
Remark. Many people had trouble with this exercise. In analysis L(x) is the definition of
the natural logarithm. So we were not allowed to use the known properties of ln to prove
the above statements. Also, part (b) required a clever proof since we have not yet proven the
change of variables formula for integration.
9. End of Chapter 4, Exercise 44. Let f : [0, 1] R be Riemann integrableR and suppose for
1
every a, b with 0 a < b 1 there is a c, a < c < b, with f (c) = 0. Prove 0 f = 0. Must f
be zero? What if f is continuous?
Solution. For any partition
f (xk ) = 0. Consider
Sn
k=1 Ik
s0 =
n
X
f (xk )|Ik |
k=1
Because f (xk ) = 0 for all k, we know that s0 = 0. We also know that inf{f (x) | x Ik }
R1
R1
f (xk ) sup{f (x) | x Ik }. Consequently, 0 f s0 0 f . But the definition of integrability
R1
R1
implies 0 f (x)dx = 0 f (x)dx and thus
Z
f (x)dx = s0 = 0.
The function f need not be zero. Consider the following function f : [0, 1] R:
1 x = 1/2
0 x=
6 1/2
f (x) =
This function satisfies the hypotheses of this exercise and integrates to zero (the lower integral
is clearly 0 and the upper integral goes to 0 as the partitions of the interval get finer). If f is
continuous however, it must be zero. If f were not identically zero, then in order to satisfy the
condition that for every a, b with 0 a < b 1 there is a c such that a < c < b, f would have
to have an infinite number of jump discontinuities which would make it discontinuous.
Remark. Many people tried using the example f : [0, 1] R
(
1 xQ
f (x) =
0 x
/Q
This function isR not Riemann integrable. It is only integrable in the sence of Lesbesgue. So
when we write f = 0 we mean the Lebesgue integral of the function is zero. Look at your
class notes for details.