PART-A (MATHEMATICS)
1.
2.
The equation esinx esinx 4 = 0 has :
(1) infinite number of real roots
(2) no real roots
(3) exactly one real root
(4) exactly four real roots
Let a and b be two unit vectors. If the vectors c a 2b and d 5a 4b are perpendicular to each other,,
then the angle between a and b is :
(1)
3.
(2)
(3)
(4)
A spherical balloon is filled with 4500 cubic meters of helium gas. If a leak in the balloon causes the gas to
escape at the rate of 72 cubic meters per minute, then the rate (in meters per minute) at which the radius
of the balloon decreases 49 minutes after the leakage began is :
(1)
4.
9
7
(2)
7
9
(3)
2
9
(4)
9
2
Statement-1 : The sum of the series 1 + (1 + 2 + 4) + (4 + 6 + 9) + (9 + 12 + 16) + .... + (361 + 380 + 400)
is 8000.
n
Statement-2 :
(k
(k 1)3 ) n3 , for any natural number n.
k 1
(1) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(4) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
5.
6.
The negation of the statement
If I become a teacher, then I will open a school, is :
(1) I will become a teacher and I will not open a school.
(2) Either I will not become a teacher or I will not open a school.
(3) Neither I will become a teacher nor I will open a school
(4) I will not become a teacher or I will open a school.
If the integral
(1) 1
tan x 2
dx = x + a n |sin x 2 cos x| + k, then a is equal to :
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 2
7.
Statement-1 : An equation of a common tangent to the parabola y2 = 16 3 x and the ellipse 2x2 + y2 = 4
is y = 2x + 2 3 .
Statement-2 : If the line y = mx +
4 3
, (m 0) is a common tangent to the parabola y2 = 16 3 x and the
m
ellipse 2x2 + y2 = 4, then m satisfies m4 + 2m2 = 24.
(1) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(4) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
8.
1 0 0
2 1 0
Let A =
. If u1 and u2 are column matrices such that Au1 =
3 2 1
1
0 and Au =
2
0
0
1 , then u + u is equal
1
2
0
to :
1
1
(1)
0
9.
1
1
(2)
1
If n is a positive integer, then
2n
3 1
(1) an irrational number
(3) an even positive integer
10.
11.
1
1
(3)
0
2n
3 1
1
1
(4)
1
is :
(2) an odd positive integer
(4) a rational number other than positive integers
If 100 times the 100th term of an AP with non zero common difference equals the 50 times its 50th term, then
the 150th term of this AP is :
(1) 150
(2) 150 times its 50th term
(3) 150
(4) zero
In a PQR, if 3 sin P + 4 cos Q = 6 and 4 sin Q + 3 cos P = 1, then the angle R is equal to :
(1)
5
6
(2)
(3)
(4)
3
4
12.
A equation of a plane parallel to the plane x 2y + 2z 5 = 0 and at a unit distance from the origin is :
(1) x 2y + 2z 3 = 0 (2) x 2y + 2z + 1 = 0 (3) x 2y + 2z 1 = 0 (4) x 2y + 2z + 5 = 0
13.
If the line 2x + y = k passes through the point which divides the line segment joining the points (1, 1) and
(2, 4) in the ratio 3 : 2, then k equals :
(1)
29
5
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4)
11
5
14.
Let x1 , x2 , ....., xn be n observations, and let x be their arithmetic mean and 2 be the variance
Statement-1 : Variance of 2x1 , 2x2 , ...., 2xn is 42.
Statement-2 : Arithmetic mean 2x1 , 2x2 , ...., 2xn is 4 x .
(1) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(4) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
15.
The population p(t) at time t of a certain mouse species satisfies the differential equation
dp(t)
= 0.5 p(t) 450. If p(0) = 850, then the time at which the population becomes zero is :
dt
(1) 2 n 18
16.
17.
19.
(3)
1
n 18
2
(4) n 18
Let a, b R be such that the function f given by f(x) = n |x| + bx2 + ax, x 0 has extreme values at x = 1
and x = 2.
Statement-1 : f has local maximum at x = 1 and at x = 2.
1
1
Statement-2 : a =
and b =
.
2
4
(1) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(4) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
The area bounded between the parabolas x2 =
(1) 20 2
18.
(2) n 9
(2)
10 2
3
y
and x2 = 9y and the straight line y = 2 is :
4
(3)
20 2
3
(4) 10 2
Assuming the balls to be identical except for difference in colours, the number of ways in which one or more
balls can be selected from 10 white, 9 green and 7 black balls is :
(1) 880
(2) 629
(3) 630
(4) 879
2x 1
, where[x] denotes the greatest integer function,
If f : R R is a function defined by f(x) = [x] cos
2
then f is :
(1) continuous for every real x.
(2) discontinuous only at x = 0.
(3) discontinuous only at non-zero integral values of x.
(4) continuous only at x = 0.
20.
If the line
(1) 1
y 1
x 1
z 1
x 3
y k
z
=
=
and
=
=
intersect, then k is equal to :
3
2
4
1
2
1
(2)
2
9
(3)
9
2
(4) 0
21.
Three numbers are chosen at random without replacement from {1, 2, 3, ..., 8}. The probability that their
minimum is 3, given that their maximum is 6, is :
(1)
22.
3
8
(2)
If z 1 and
1
5
(3)
1
4
(4)
2
5
z2
is real, then the point represented by the complex number z lies :
z 1
(1) either on the real axis or on a circle passing through the origin.
(2) on a circle with centre at the origin.
(3) either on the real axis or on a circle not passing through the origin.
(4) on the imaginary axis.
23.
Let P and Q be 3 3 matrices P Q. If P3 = Q3 and P2Q = Q2P, then determinant of (P2 + Q2) is equal to :
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) 1
24.
If g(x) =
cos 4t dt , then g(x + ) equals
0
g(x)
(1) g()
25.
(3) g(x) g()
(4) g(x) . g()
The length of the diameter of the circle which touches the x-axis at the point (1, 0) and passes through the
point (2, 3) is :
(1)
26.
(2) g(x) + g()
10
3
(2)
3
5
(3)
6
5
(4)
5
3
Let X = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. The number of different ordered pairs (Y, Z) that can formed such that Y X, Z X and
Y Z is empty, is :
(1) 52
27.
(2) 35
(3) 25
(4) 53
An ellipse is drawn by taking a diameter of the circle (x 1)2 + y2 = 1 as its semi-minor axis and a diameter
of the circle x2 + (y 2)2 = 4 is semi-major axis. If the centre of the ellipse is at the origin and its axes are the
coordinate axes, then the equation of the ellipse is :
(1) 4x2 + y2 = 4
28.
(2) x2 + 4y2 = 8
(3) 4x2 + y2 = 8
(4) x2 + 4y2 = 16
Consider the function, f(x) = |x 2| + |x 5|, x R .
Statement-1 : f(4) = 0
Statement-2 : f is continuous in [2, 5], differentiable in (2, 5) and f(2) = f(5).
(1) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(4) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
29.
A line is drawn through the point (1, 2) to meet the coordinate axes at P and Q such that it forms a triangle
OPQ, where O is the origin. if the area of the triangle OPQ is least, then the slope of the line PQ is :
(1)
30.
1
4
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4)
1
2
Let ABCD be a parallelogram such that AB q , AD p and BAD be an acute angle. If r is the vector that
coincides with the altitude directed from the vertex B to the side AD, then r is given by :
3(p . q)
(1) r 3q p
(p . p)
p.q
(2) r q p
p.p
p . q
(3) r q p
p.p
3(p . q)
(4) r 3q p
(p . p)
PART-B (PHYSICS)
31.
A wooden wheel of radius R is made of two semicircular parts (see figure). The two parts are held together by
a ring made of a metal strip of cross sectional area S and length L. L is slightly less than 2R. To fit the ring
on the wheel, it is heated so that its temperature rises by T and it just steps over the wheel. As it cools
down to surroundifng temperature, it presses the semicircular parts together. If the coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is , and its Young's modulus is Y, the force that one part of the wheel applies on the other
part is :
(1) 2SYT
32.
(2) SYT
(4) 2SYT
The figure shows an experimental plot discharging of a capacitor in an RC circuit. The time constant of this
circuit lies between :
(1) 150 sec and 200 sec
(3) 50 sec and 100 sec
33.
(3) SYT
(2) 0 and 50 sec
(4) 100 sec and 150 sec
In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q and radius R, the electric field E is plotted as function of
distance from the centre. The graph which would correspond to the above will be :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
34.
An electromagnetic wave in vacuum has the electric and magnetic field E and B , which are always perpen
dicular to each other. The direction of polarization is given by X and that of wave propagation by k . Then
(1) X || B and k || B E
(2) X || E and k || E B
(3) X || B and k || E B
35.
(4) X || E and k || B E
If a simple pendulum has significant amplitude (up to a factor of 1/e of original) only in the period between
t = 0s to t = s, then may be called the average life of the pendulum. When the spherical bob of the
pendulum suffers a retardation (due to viscous drag) proportional to its velocity, with 'b' as the constant of
proportionality, the averatge life time of the pendulum is (assuming damping is small) in seconds :
(1)
0.693
b
(2) b
(3)
1
b
(4)
2
b
36.
Hydrogen atom is excieted from ground state to another state with principal quantum number equal to 4.
Then the number of spectral lines in the emission spectra will be :
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6
37.
A coil is suspended in a uniform magnetic field, with the plane of the coil parallel to the magnetic lines of
force. When a current is passed through the coil it starts oscillating; it is very difficult to stop. But if an
aluminium plate is placed near to the coil, it stops. This is due to :
(1) developement of air current when the plate is placed.
(2) induction of electrical charge on the plate
(3) shielding of magnetic lines of force as aluminium is a paramagnetic material.
(4) Electromagnetic induction in the aluminium plate giving rise to electromagnetic damping.
38.
The mass of a spaceship is 1000 kg. It is to be launched from the earth's surface out into free space. The
value of 'g' and 'R' (radius of earth) are 10 m/s2 and 6400 km respectively. The required energy for this work
will be :
(1) 6.4 1011 Joules
(2) 6.4 108 Joules
(3) 6.4 109 Joules
(4) 6.4 1010 Joules
39.
Helium gas goes through a cycle ABCDA (consisting of two isochoric and isobaric lines) as shown in figure.
Efficiency of this cycle is nearly :
(Assume the gas to be close to ideal gas)
(1) 15.4%
(2) 9.1%
(3) 10.5%
(4) 12.5%
40.
In Young's double slit experiment, one of the slit is wider than other, so that amplitude of the light from one slit
is double of that from other slit. If m be the maximum intensity, the resultant intensity when they interfere
at phase difference is given by :
(1)
41.
m
(4 + 5 cos)
9
(2)
1 2 cos 2
3
2
(3)
1 4 cos 2
5
2
(4)
1 8 cos 2
9
2
A liquid in a beaker has temperature (t) at time t and 0 is temperature of surroundings, then according to
Newton's law of cooling the correct graph between loge( 0) and t is :
42.
43.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A particle of mass m is at rest at the origin at time t = 0. It is subjected to a force F(t) = F0ebt in the x
direction. Its speed v(t) is depicted by which of the following curves ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Two electric bulbs marked 25W 220V and 100W 220 V are connected in series to a 440 V supply. Which
of the bulbs will fuse ?
(1) both
(2) 100W
(3) 25W
(4) neither
44.
45.
Resistance of a given wire is obtained by measuring the current flowing in it and the voltage difference applied
across it. If the percentage errors in the measurement of the current and the voltage difference are 3% each,
then error in the value of resistance of the wire is :
(1) 6%
(2) zero
(3) 1%
(4) 3%
A boy can throw a stone up to a maximum height of 10m. The maximum horizontal distance that the boy can
throw the same stone up to will be :
(1) 20 2 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 10 2 m
(4) 20m
46.
This equation has statement 1 and Statement 2. Of the four choices given the Statements, choose the one
that describes the two statements.
Statement 1 : Davisson-Germer experiment established the wave nature of electrons.
Statement 2 : If electrons have wave nature, they can interfere and show diffraction.
(1) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1
47.
A thin liquid film formed between a U-shaped wire and a light slider supports a weight of 1.5 102 N (see
figure). The length of the slider is 30 cm and its weight negligible. The surface tension of the liquid film is :
(1) 0.0125 Nm1
48.
(2) 0.1 Nm1
(3) 0.05 Nm1
(4) 0.025 Nm1
A charge Q is uniformly distributed over the surface of non-condcting disc of radius R. The disc rotates about
an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre with an angular velocity . As a result of this
rotation a magnetic field of induction B is obtained at the centre of the disc. if we keep both the amount of
charge placed on the disc and its angular velocity to be constant and vary the radius of the disc then the
variation of the magnetic induction at the centre of the disc will be represented by the figure :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
49.
Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in figure is :
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
50.
A radar has a power of 1kW and is operating at a frequency of 10 GHz. It is located on a mountain top of
height 500m. The maximum distance upto which it can detect object located on the surface of the earth
(Radius of earth = 6.4 106 m) is :
(1) 80 km
(2) 16 km
(3) 40 km
(4) 64 km
51.
Assume that a neutron breaks into a proton and an electron. The energy released during this process is :
(mass of neutron = 1.6725 1027 kg, Mass of proton = 1.6725 1027 kg, mass of electron = 9 1031 kg)
(1) 0.73 MeV
(2) 7.10 MeV
(3) 6.30 MeV
(4) 5.4 MeV
52.
A Carnot engine, whose efficiency is 40%, takes in heat from a source maintained at a temperature of 500K.
It is desired to have an engine of efficiency 60%. Then, the intake temperature for the same exhaust (sink)
temperature must be :
(1) efficiency of carnot engine cannot be made larger than 50%
(2) 1200 K
(3) 750 K
(4) 600 K
53.
This question has Statement 1 and Statement 2. Of the four choices given after the Statements, choose the
one that best describes the two Statements.
If two springs S1 and S2 of force constants k1 and k2, respectively, are stretched by the same force, it is found
that more work is done on spring S1 than on spring S2.
Statement 1 : If stretched by the same amount, work done on S1, will be more than that on S2
Statement 2 : k1 < k2
(1) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1
54.
Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2, respectively. Their speeds are such that
they make complete circles in the same time t. The ratio of their centripetal acceleration is :
(1) m1 r1 : m2 r2
(2) m1 : m2
(3) r1 : r2
(4) 1 : 1
55.
A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequncy, f, in air. The tube is dipped vertically in
water so that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the air-column is now :
(1) f
(2) f/2
(3) 3f/4
(4) 2f
56.
An object 2.4 m in front of a lens forms a sharp image on a film 12 cm behind the lens. A glass plate 1 cm
thick, of refractive index 1.50 is interposed between lens and film with its plane faces parallel to film. At what
distance (from lens) should object shifted to be in sharp focus on film ?
(1) 7.2 m
(2) 2.4 m
(3) 3.2 m
(4) 5.6 m
57.
A diatomic molecule is made of two masses m1 and m2 which are separated by a distance r. If we calculate
its rotational energy by applying Bohrs rule of angular momentum quantization, its energy will be given by :
(n is an integer)
(1)
58.
(m1 m 2 )2 n 2h 2
2m12m 22r 2
n2h2
(2)
2(m1 m2 )r 2
2n2h2
(3)
(m1 m 2 )r 2
(4)
(m1 m 2 )n 2h 2
2m1m 2r 2
A spectrometer gives the following reading when used to measure the angle of a prism.
Main scale reading : 58.5 degree
Vernier scale reading : 09 divisions
Given that 1 division on main scale corresponds to 0.5 degree. Total divisions on the vernier scale is 30 and
match with 29 divisions of the main scale. The angle of the prism from the above data :
(1) 58.59 degree
59.
(2) 58.77 degree
(3) 58.65 degree
(4) 59 degree
This questions has statement-1 and statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose the
one that best describe the two statements.
An insulating solid sphere of radius R has a unioformly positive charge density . As a result of this uniform
charge distribution there is a finite value of electric potential at the centre of the sphere, at the surface of the
sphere and also at a point out side the sphere. The electric potential at infinite is zero.
Statement-1 : When a charge q is take from the centre of the surface of the sphere its potential energy
q
changes by 3 .
0
r
Statement-2 : The electric field at a distance r (r < R) from the centre of the sphere is 3
0
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1.
(2) Statement 1 is true Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false Statement 2 is true.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
60.
Proton, Deuteron and alpha particle of same kinetic energy are moving in circular trajectories in a constant
magnetic field. The radii of proton, deuteron and alpha particle are respectively rp, rd and r. Which one of the
following relation is correct?
(1) r = rp = rd
(2) r = rp < rd
(3) r > rd > rp
(4) r = rd > rp
PART-C (CHEMISTRY)
61.
Which among the following will be named as dibromidobis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III) bromide?
(1) [Cr (en)3]Br3
62.
(2) [Cr(en)2Br2]Br
(3) [Cr(en)Br4]
(4) [Cr(en)Br2]Br
Which method of purification is represented by the following equation :
523K
1700 K
Ti (s) + 2I2(g)
TiI4(g)
Ti (s) + 2I2(g)
(1) Zone refining (2) Cupellation
63.
(3) Polling
(4) Van Arkel
Lithium forms body centred cubic structure. The length of the side of its unit cell is 351 pm. Atomic radius
of the lithium will be :
(1) 75 pm
64.
(2) 300 pm
(2) AsCl3
(4) PCl3
(2) Sugars
(3) Amines
(4) Primary alcohols
The incorrect expression among the following is :
(1)
G system
S total
(3) lnK =
67.
(3) SbCl3
Which of the following compounds can be detected by Molischs test :
(1) Nitro compounds
66.
(4) 152 pm
The molecule having smallest bond angle is :
(1) NCl3
65.
(3) 240 pm
Vf
(2) In isothermal process, wreversible = nRT n V
i
=T
H TS
RT
(4) K = eG/RT
The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of water is 1.15
g/mL. The molarity of this solution is :
(1) 0.50 M
68.
(2) 1.78 M
(3) 1.02 M
(4) 2.05 M
The species which can best serve as an initiator for the cationic polymerization is :
(1) LiAlH4
(2) HNO3
(3) AlCl3
(4) BaLi
69.
Which of the following on thermal decomposition yields a basic as well as acidic oxide ?
(1) NaNO3
(2) KClO3
(3) CaCO3
(4) NH4NO3
70.
The standard reduction potentials for Zn2+/Zn, Ni2+/Ni and Fe2+/Fe are 0.76, 0.23 and 0.44 V respectively.
The reaction X + Y2+ X2+ + Y will be spontaneous when :
(1) X = Ni, Y = Fe
(2) X = Ni, Y = Zn
(3) X= Fe, Y = Zn
(4) X= Zn, Y = Ni
71.
According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm which of the following is correct?
(1)
x
p0
m
(2)
x
p1
m
(3)
x
p1/n
m
(4) All the above are correct for different ranges of pressure
72.
The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO (g) at temperature T is 4 104. The
1
1
N (g) +
O2(g) at the same temperature is :
2 2
2
(2) 2.5 102
(3) 4 104
(4) 50.0
value of Kc for the reaction NO(g)
(1) 0.02
73.
The compressibility factor for a real gas at high pressure is :
(1) 1 + RT/pb
(2) 1
(3) 1 + pb /RT
74.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) All amino acids except lysine are optically active
(2) All amino acids are optically active
(3) All amino acids except glycine are optically active
(4) All amino acids except glutamic acids are optically active
75.
Aspirin is known as :
(1) Acetyl salicylic acid
(3) Acetyl salicylate
(4) 1 pb/RT
(2) Phenyl salicylate
(4) Methyl salicylic acid
76.
Ortho-Nitrophenol is less soluble in water than p- and m- Nitrophenols because :
(1) o-Nitrophenol is more volatile steam than those of m- and p-isomers.
(2) o-Nitrophenol shows Intramolecular H-bonding
(3) o-Nitrophenol shows intermolecular H-bonding
(4) Melting point of o-Nitrophenol is lower than those of m- and p-isomers.
77.
How many chiral compounds are possible on monochlorination of 2- methyl butane ?
(1) 8
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 6
78.
Very pure hydrogen (99.9) can be made by which of the following processes ?
79.
(1) Reaction of methane with steam
(2) Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high molecular weight
(3) Electrolysis of water
(4) Reaction of salts like hydrides with water
The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and :
(a) n = 4, = 1
(b) n = 4, = 0
(c) n = 3, = 2
(d) n = 3, = 1
can be placed in order of increasing energy as :
80.
(1) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a)
(2) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
(3) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)
(4) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)
For a first order reaction (A) products the concentration of A changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40 minutes.
The rate of reaction when the concentration of A is 0.01 M is :
(1) 1.73 105 M/min
(2) 3.47 104 M/min
(3) 3.47 105 M/min
(4) 1.73 104 M/min
81.
Iron exhibits +2 and + 3 oxidation states. Which of the following statements about iron is incorrect ?
(1) Ferrous oxide is more basic in nature than the ferric oxide.
(2) Ferrous compounds are relatively more ionic than the corresponding ferric compounds
(3) Ferrous compounds are less volatile than the corresponding ferric compounds
(4) Ferrous compounds are more easily hydrolysed than the corresponding ferric compounds.
82.
The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid HQ is 3. The value of the ionization constant, Ka of the acid is :
(1) 3 101
(2) 1 103
(3) 1 105
(4) 1 107
83.
Which branched chain isomer of the hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72u gives only one isomer of mono
substituted alkyl halide ?
(1) Tertiary butyl chloride
(2) Neopentane
(3) Isohexane
(4) Neohexane
84.
Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol1. If your automobile radiator holds 1.0 kg of water, how may grams of ethylene
glycol (C2H6O2) must you add to get the freezing point of the solution lowered to 2.8C ?
(1) 72 g
(2) 93 g
(3) 39 g
(4) 27 g
85.
What is DDT among the following :
(1) Greenhouse gas
(3) Biodegradable pollutant
(2) A fertilizer
(4) Non-biodegradable pollutant
86.
The increasing order of the ionic radii of the given isoelectronic species is :
(1) Cl, Ca2+ , K+, S2
(2) S2 , Cl, Ca2+, K+
(3) Ca2+, K+ , Cl , S2
(4) K+, S2, Ca2+ , Cl
87.
2 Hexyne gives trans 2Hexene on treatment with :
(1) Pt/H2
(2) Li / NH3
(3) Pd/BaSO4
88.
89.
(4) Li AlH4
Iodoform can be prepared from all except :
(1) Ethyl methyl ketone
(2) Isopropyl alcohol
(3) 3Methyl2butanone
(4) Isobutyl alcohol
In which of the following pairs the two species are not isostructural ?
(1) CO32 and NO3
(2) PCl4+ and SiCl4
(3) PF5 and BrF5
(4) AlF63 and SF6
90.
In the given transformation, which the following is the most appropriate reagent ?
Re agent
(1) NH2NH2, O H
(2) ZnHg/HCl
(3) Na, Liq, NH3
(4) NaBH4