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Fcps Part - 1 Mcqs Test (Question With Explanation) : Exam Finished

This document contains a multiple choice questions (MCQs) test on various medical topics. It includes 10 questions related to subjects like immunology, anatomy, pharmacology, and more. For each question, the document provides the multiple choice options and an explanation of the correct answer. The test taker scored 0 out of 10 correct. At the end, there is a link to download a certification and information about the USMLE exam.

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0% found this document useful (1 vote)
89 views

Fcps Part - 1 Mcqs Test (Question With Explanation) : Exam Finished

This document contains a multiple choice questions (MCQs) test on various medical topics. It includes 10 questions related to subjects like immunology, anatomy, pharmacology, and more. For each question, the document provides the multiple choice options and an explanation of the correct answer. The test taker scored 0 out of 10 correct. At the end, there is a link to download a certification and information about the USMLE exam.

Uploaded by

drhirasalman
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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FCPS Part -1 MCQs Test

(Question with
Explanation)
Posted on May 29, 2013 by fareed No Comments

Exam Finished
Thank you for your time.

Medicine
Gastroesophageal junction competence is
increased by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Lying supine
Paralysis of the diaphragm
Use of Morphine
Use of Metoclopromide
Increased intra-abdominal pressure

Metoclopromide is D2 receptor antagonist that increased the resting tone of


GIT, increases contractility & increases Lower esophageal junction tone. It is
clinically used for Diabetic & post-surgery gastroparesis. Toxicity includes
parkinsonian effects, restlessness, drowsiness, fatigue, depression, nausea,
diarrhea. Contraindicated in patients with small bowel obstruction. Other
option under this question actually decrease the GE junction tone.

Which of the followings cross placenta?


1.
2.
3.
4.

IgM
IgA
IgG
IgD

Of all the immunoglobins only IgG is the only antibody that crosses placenta.
It is main antibody in secondary response and the most abundant one. It

fixes complement, opsonized bacteria, neutralizes bacterial toxins and


viruses.

Which of the followings is increased in first


response?
1.
2.
3.
4.

IgM
IgD
IgE
IgG

IgM is the antibody produced in primary response to an antigen. IgG is the


main antibody in secondary response. IgM also fixes complement but does
not cross placenta.

Which of the following is an example of a


pivot joint?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Temporomandibular Joint
Altanto-occipital Joint
Median Atlanto-axial Joint
Intervertebral joint

Pivot Joint is type of joint in which rounded or conical surfaces of one bone fit
into a ring of bone or tendon allowing rotation. An example of this type of
joint is between axis and atlas in the neck that is the median atlanto-axial
joint in which the dens (odontoid process) of axis articulates with inner
surface of the arch of atlas.

Captopril causes:
1.
2.
3.
4.

Hyperkalemia
Hypernatremia
Hypokalemia
Hypercalcemia

Captopril is one of the ACEI (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor). Major


side effects of ACEIs are cough (due to increased levels of bradykinin),
angioedema, hyperkalemia ,proteinuria. Hyperkalemia with ACEI therapy
occurs because: Renin-Angiotensin system is a potent stimulator of
aldosterone release. Aldosterone inturn conserves sodium & increases the

excretion of potassium. With ACEIs, the rennin-angiotensin system is


inhibited, so is aldosterone secretion, resulting in low plasma levels of
aldosterone. Low aldosterone prevents the excretion of potassium, which
builds up in body resulting in hyperkalemia.

For good verbal communication skills which


of the followings is necessary?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Good comprehension
Good vocabulary
Fluent Speech
Competence in presentation

This is one of the questions that only require common sense. So common
sense tells us that fluent speech is an absolute requirement for good
communication skills. The other three options simply dont fit.

Ejaculation is mediated by:


1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Sympathetic stimulation
Parasympathetic stimulation
Both a & b
Pudendal nerve
None

Innervation of the male sexual response is as followings: Erection:


Parasympathetic nervous system (through pelvic nerve) Emission:
Sympathetic nervous system (through hypogastric nerve) Ejaculation:
visceral & somatic nerves (though pudendal nerve)

A woman living at a hill station has had an


uncomplicated pregnancy. She is brought to
the hospital at the onset of labour. An
ultrasound scan is performed which shows no
fetal abnormality. The baby can still have
which of the following conditions?
1. Transposition of great vessles
2. Patent ductus arteriosis
3. Limb defects

4. Tetrology of Fallot
During fetal period, the ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the right to the
left. It connects the pulmonary trunk with the aorta. Blood entering the
pulmonary trunk from the right ventricle is shunted through ductus
arteriosus into aorta. As the baby is born, the circulatory changes that occur
also include closure of the ductus arteriosus. Closure of the ductus arteriosus
is promoted by increase oxygen tension (when baby starts breathing) which
decrease prostaglandin (PG) synthesis. At hill stations, the atmospheric
oxygen pressure is low. A baby born and staying during the first few days of
his life under such circumstances would lead to a decrease in oxygen tension
and so failure of ductus arteriosus to close. Patency of ductus arteriosus can
also be maintained by high PG levels such with use of indomethacin (a PG
synthesis inhibitor). In summary low oxygen tension and high PG levels
cause PDA.

Corneal opacities are caused by:


1.
2.
3.
4.

Ethambutol
Phenothiazines
Cholorquine
Penicillamine

Chloroquine is commonly used anti-malarial used for the treatment &


prevention of Malaria. One of its important side effects occurs in the eyes. It
can cause corneal deposits, lenticular deposits & damage to the retina.

A patient has been taking anti-tuberculous


therapy for MDR-TB. His drugs regimen
contains 6 drugs. The patient eventually
develops difficulty in distinguishing red &
green colours. Which of the following drugs
is responsible for this effect?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Amiodrone
Pyrazinamide
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Ciprofloxacin

Ethambutol is one of the drugs used in anti-tuberculous therapy. Optic


neuritis is an important, though rare side effect of ethambutol. If optic
neuritis develops, red-green colour vision may be lost first. This agent should
probably not be used in young children in whom it may be difficult to assess
vision.

Total Points: 0 correct out of 10


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