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SBI Clerk (Pre.) Exam Paper - 2014

:: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE ::
1. A Vessel contains 60 litres of milk, 6 litres of milk is taken out and 6 litres of water is added to the
vessel. Again 6 litres of milk from the vessel is withdrawn and 6 litres of water is added to the vessel.
The ratio of milk and water in the resulting mixture in the vessel is
1) 81 : 19
2) 71 : 29
3) 61 : 39
4) 61 : 29
5) None of these
2. The present age of Rakshak is twice the present age of Sonal. Five years hence, Sonals age will be
twice the present age of Arati. Five years ago, the ratio of the ages of Arati and Kiran was 2 : 3
respectively. Kirans present age is 20 years. Find Rakshaks present age.
1) 45 years
2) 50 years
3) 35 years
4) 40 years
5) None of these
3. Simple interest on a certain sum at a certain rate for 2 years in Rs.160 and compound interest on
the same sum at the same rate and for the same period is Rs.170. The rate of interest per annum is:
1) 12%
2) 12.5%
3) 8%
4) 9%
5) None of these
4. Neha Chaudhary bought some goods for Rs.10000. She sold half of the goods at a loss of 25%. At
what percent of profit should she sell the remaining goods so that she gets a gain of 38% on the whole
transaction?
1) 75%
2) 85%
3) 101%
4) 105%
5) None of these
5. The cost price of 8 chairs in same as that of 5 tables. The total cost of 6 chairs and 2 tables is
Rs.3680. Find the cost of 6 tables.

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1) Rs.3840
2) Rs.3850
3) Rs.3860
4) Rs.3845
5) None of these
Directions (6 15): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the following questions?
6.

1) 3
2) 5
3) 7
4) 6
5) 8
7.

8. 11/51 of 13/15 of 17/19 of ? = 286/3

1) 560
2) 570
3) 580
4) 590
5) None of these
9. 1600 + 576 = ?
1) 3969
2) 3096
3) 2096
4) 4096
5) None of these

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10. 878.34 ? + 345.43 = 579.39
1) 644.38
2) 654.38
3) 649.38
4) 654.49
5) None of these
11. 1.64 + 0.64 + 0.064 0.8 0.08 = ?
1) 1.644
2) 1.464
3) 2.464
4) 1.466
5) None of these
12. 285.5 2.4 + 24.6 36.4 = ? 0.8
1) 1875.5
2) 1795.8
3) 1975.8
4) 1888.6
5) None of these
13. 592 = 492 = 2? 33 5
1) 4
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3
5) None of these
14. 13.5 5 + 245 0.5 + 677.5 = 59.1 ?
1) 14.7
2) 15.8
3) 16.5
4) 21.7
5) None of these
15. 40% of 1476 + 25% of ? = 12933 20
1) 215
2) 225
3) 235
4) 216
5) None of these

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16. A boatman rows downstream a distance of 30 km in 6 hours and upstream a distance of 24 km in 6
hours. The ratio of speed of boat in still water and speed of current is
1) 9 : 1
2) 8 : 1
3) 9 : 2
4) 8 : 3
5) None of these
17. The part of work done by A in 1 day is 1/5 th of the part of work done by B in 1 Day. As 1 days
work in 3/4 th of Cs 1 days work. C alone can complete the work in 24 days. In how many days will
B alone do the same work?
1) 42/5 days
2) 32/5 days
3) 22/5 days
4) 17 days
5) None of these
18. A, B and C together start a business. The ratio of investment of A and B is 7 : 8 and that of B and
C is 4 : 9. B gets a share of Rs. 7104 in annual profit. What is Cs share in the profit?
1) Rs.16984
2) Rs.16894
3) Rs.15894
4) Rs.14894
5) None of these
19. The present population of a city P is thrice the present population of city Q. Two years hence, the
population of city Q will be 18513. If the rate of growth of population of city Q is 10% per annum,
what is the present population of city P
1) 48500
2) 45500
3) 49500
4) 45900
5) None of these
20. Vishal invested 2/11 th part of his monthly income in stocks share and that of 1/4th part in mutual
fund. He spent the remaining amount on domestic needs and apparel in the ratio 5 : 3 respectively.
The expenditure on domestic needs was Rs.2100. What is his annual income?
1) Rs.84480
2) Rs.85480
3) Rs.86480
4) Rs.83480
5) None of these

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21. The distance between Shauryas house and Pratyushas house in 18 km. Shauryas speed is 3/4 th
of that Pratyusha. Shaurya takes on hour in going to Pratyushas house. What is the speed of
Pratyusha?
1) 18 kmph
2) 24 kmph
3) 30 kmph
4) 32 kmph
5) None of these
22. In a piggy bank there are 1 rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins. The respective ratio of their
numbers is 10 : 8 : 5. In piggy bank there is a total sum of Rs. 976. How many 25 paise coins are there
in the piggy bank?
1) 256
2) 360
3) 320
4) 640
5) None of these
23. The salary of Sarthak is 40% of that of Sarvagya. Harishs salary is 60% of that of Sarthak. By
what per cent is Sarvagyas salary more than that of Harish?
1) 317
2) 217
3) 228
4) 281
5) None of these
24. The perimeter of a square plot is equal to the perimeter of a rectangular plot which is 23 metre
long and 19 metre broad. What will be the diagonal of the square plot?
1) 172 m
2) 212 m
3) 222 m
4) 232 m
5) None of these
25. A tank is fitted with two inlet pipes A and B and an outlet pipe C. Pipe A can fill the empty tank in
12 minutes. While pipe B alone can fill it in 18 minutes. Pipe C can empty the full tank in 45/4
minutes. If all three pipes are opened simultaneously, in what time will the empty tank be filled?
1) 16 minutes
2) 18 minutes
3) 20 minutes
4) 22 minutes
5) None of these

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26. The sum of 68 numbers is 3474. The average of first 22 numbers is 61 and that of last 19 numbers
is 44. What will be the average of remaining numbers?
1) 44
2) 48
3) 46
4) 50
5) 52
Directions (27 31): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
27. 5 12.5 32.5 105 427.5 ?
1) 2145
2) 2045
3) 2245
4) 2005
5) None of these
28. 20 38 74 146 290 ?
1) 576
2) 578
3) 580
4) 574
5) None of these
29. 12 13 21 85 597 ?
1) 4683
2) 4663
3) 4693
4) 4863
5) None of these
30. 400 800 880 896 899.2 ?
1) 889.48
2) 898.48
3) 899.64
4) 899.84
5) None of these
31. 40 20 30 75 262.5 ?
1) 1181.25
2) 1182.25
3) 1281.25

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4) 1161.25
5) 1811.25
32. If (7x/12) 12 = 23 + (3x/8) , find the value of x.
1) 164
2) 168
3) 165
4) 180
5) 140
33. The diameter of a wheel is 42 cm. How many revolutions will be made by the wheel in covering a
distance of 4092 metre?
1) 3600
2) 3200
3) 3100
4) 3300
5) None of these
34. Ankur invested a sum of Rs.16800 for four years in a scheme A. The rate of interest in scheme A is
8% per annum compounded yearly for the first two years and 10% for the third and fourth years
compounded yearly. What will be the compound interest at the end of 4 years?
1) Rs.6810
2) Rs.6910
3) Rs.6540
4) Rs.6210
5) Rs.6740
Directions (35 40): Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it.

35. What is the respective ratio between the total number of sun glasses old by store M in the years
2001, 2002 and 2003 and that sold by store P in the same years?

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1) 401 : 406
2) 201 : 203
3) 131 : 139
4) 411 : 406
5) None of these
36. By what per cent is the number of sun glasses sold by store N in the year 2005 less than that sold
by store R in the year 2003?
1) 10%
2) 12%
3) 14%
4) 15%
5) 20%
37. What is the respective ratio between the average number of sun glasses sold by store P and store Q
during all the give years?
1) 271 : 276
2) 217 : 216
3) 227 : 216
4) 113 : 115
5) None of these
38. By what per cent approximately is the total number of sun glasses sold by store P in the years
2003, 2004 and 2005 more than that sold by store Q in the same years?
1) 14%
2) 16%
3) 18%
4) 12%
5) 17%
39. What is the average number of sun glasses sold by store R ?
1) 760
2) 790
3) 810
4) 820
5) 829
40. How many sun glasses were sold by all the stores in the year 2003?
1) 5190
2) 4190
3) 4290
4) 5290
5) None of these

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:: ENGLISH LANGUAGE ::
Directions (41 45): In the following questions, each sentence has two blanks; each blank indicating that
something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blanks which best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.
41. An analysis of booking data .. by online travel portal has shown 40 per cent of city residents
for hill stations for weekend breaks.
1) conduct, opted
2) conducted, opt
3) given, opted
4) collected, opted
5) conducted, chose
42. Mobile operators are allowed to .. network infrastructure like cellphone towers, which has
.. them reduce cost, but not air waves.
1) sharing, helping
2) shared, helped
3) share, help
4) collect, helped
5) collect, helped
43. I .. a friend named Ankur who .. a horse ranch in the city.
1) have, owns
2) got, sells
3) need, holds
4) possess, runs
5) has, buys
44. Traffic was .. on the express way on Saturday as local residents .. the road.
1) disturbed, blocked
2) disrupted, blocked
3) blocked, stopped
4) jammed, block
5) disrupting, blockage
45. The incident .. place when the victim asked a .. of youths for money.
1) had, group
2) take, group
3) took, group
4) took, herd
5) was taken, group

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Directions (46 50): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If
there is No error the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation if any)
46. Earlier this year (1)/ some foreign nations (2)/ was caught (3)/ bringing in drugs in shoe cavity. (4)/
No Error (5).
47. Our country looks all set to throw open (1)/ its door to foreign investors in infrastructure, (2)/ as
the nation seeks to help (3)/ improved the creaky transportation facility. (4)/ No Error (5).
48. The company holds (1)/ the patent of the technology (2)/ which enable them to extract (3)/ precious
metals from e-waste. (4)/ No Error (5).
49. It was strange (1)/ when people started (2)/ congratulate me (3)/ on completion of my dissertation.
(4)/ No Error (5).
50. Business confidence is by the upswing (1)/ as companies are betting (2)/ on a turnaround in the
economy (3)/ and improvement in the investment. (4)/ No Error (5).
Directions (51 55): In the following questions, a sentence/ apart of the sentence is printed in bold. Below
are given alternatives to the bold sentence/ part of the sentence at (1), (2), (3) and (4) which may improve
the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (5).
51. Traders and Mandi Market Committees are not threatening by the Governments move to
override the APMC laws.
1) scared
2) afraid
3) over powered
4) threatened
5) No Correction required
52. Indian firms are benefit strongly from the surge in mergers and acquisitions and amid heightened
activity thanks to the business optimism generated by new government.
1) benefiting weakly
2) benefiting strongly
3) benefited weakly
4) feeling strongly
5) No correction required
53. Inspire scoring very high in the examination, Suresh failed to secure admission in the college of his
choice.
1) but
2) despite
3) even
4) since
5) No correction required

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54. The commerce aircraft manufacturing business is a rarefied zone.
1) commercial
2) trade
3) businesses
4) trading
5) No Correction required
55. Signs that the Indican Economy is readying to became research basis are every where, and come
from both the government and the private sector.
1) became researches basis
2) to became research basis
3) for becoming research basis
4) to become research based
5) No correction required
Directions (56 60): Rearrange the following six sentences/ group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and
(F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
A) All the labourers and the soldiers turned around and saw a hut just a few steps away from the palace gate.
B) Then suddenly his eyes fell on something and he shouted, What is that? I did not see that before.
C) Before inviting the King to see the palace, the minister decided to take a final look. Splended! the
minister exclaimed, looking at the palace.
D) Many labourers were put to work and in a few days the palace was ready.
E) Once, Veer decided to build a apace on a river bank and ordered his ministers to survey the site and start
the construction.
F) King Veer was known for his justice and kindness in whose kingdom, everyone was leading a happy and
content life and his people loved him and were proud of him.
56. Which of the following sentences should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) F
57. Which of the following sentences should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
58. Which of the following sentences should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

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1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
59. Which of the following sentences should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
57. Which of the following sentences should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) E
Directions (61 70): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The assessment of humanitys (61) in the next 100 years, which has taken 21 months to complete,
argues strongly that to achieve long and healthy lives for all 9 billion people (62) to be living in 2050,
the twin issues of population and (63) must be pushed to the top of political and economic agenda.
Both issues have been largely (64) by politicians and played down by environment and development
for 20 years. The number of people living on the planet has never been higher, their levels of consumption
are (65) and vast changes are taking place in the environment. We (66) choose to rebalance the
use of resources (67) a more egalitarian pattern of consumption or we can choose to do nothing and
to (68) into a downward spiral of economic and environmental ills (69) to a more unequal and in
hospitable future.
At todays rate of population increase developing countries will have to build the equivalent of a city of a
million people every five days from now to 2050, says the report. Global population growth is (70) for
the next few decades. By 2050, it is projected that todays population of 7 billion will have grown by 2.3
billion, the equivalent of new China and an India.
61. 1) prospective 2) perception 3) prospects 4) aims 5) prospecting
62. 1) expect 2) expecting 3) expectation 4) expected 5) aspirations
63. 1) consumption 2) resumption 3) revamp 4) reconstruction 5) expenditure
64. 1) ignoring 2) ignored 3) cared 4) attended 5) attention

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65. 1) unprecedented 2) limited 3) useful 4) surprised 5) amazed
66. 1) would have 2) should be 3) can 4) are 5) have
67. 1) to 2) by 3) for 4) with 5) walk
68. 1) drifted 2) drift 3) flew 4) flowing 5) walk
69. 1) led 2) held 3) leading 4) going 5) doing
70. 1) evitable 2) inevitable 3) inevitably 4) viable 5) dispensable
Directions (71 80): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
During the last few years, a lot of hype has been heaped on the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South
Africa). With their large populations and rapidgrowth, these countries, so the argument goes, will soon become
some of the largest economies in the world and, in the case of China, the largest of all by as early as 2020. But
the BRICS, as well as many other emerging-market economies-have recently experienced a sharp economic
slowdown. So, is the honeymoon over?
Brazils GDP grew by only 1% last year, and may not grow by more than 2% this year, with its potential
growth barely above 3%. Russias economy may grow by barely 2% this year, with potential growth also at
around 3%, despite oil prices being around $ 100 a barrel. India had a couple of years of strong growth recently
(11.2% in 2010 and 7.7% in 2011) but slowed to 4% in 2013. Chinas economy grew by 10% a year for the
last year and risks a hard landing. And South Africa grew by only 2.5% also year and may not grow faster
than 2% this year.
Many other previously fast growing emerging market economies for example. Turkey, Argentina, Poland,
Hungary and many in Central and Eastern Europe are experiencing a similar slow down. So, what is ailing
the BRICS and other emerging markets?
First, most emerging-market economies were overheating in 2010-11, with growth above potential and
inflation rising and exceeding targets. Many of them thus tightened monetary policy in 2011, with
consequences for growth in 2012 that have carried over into this year.
Second, the idea that emerging-market economies could fully decouple from economic weakness in advanced
economies was farfetched: recession in the eurozone, near-recession in the United Kingdom and Japan in
2011-2012, and show economic growth in the United States were always likely to affect emerging-market
performance negatively -via trade, financial links, and investor confidence. For example, the ongoing
eurozone downturn has hurt Turkey and emerging-market economies in Central and Eastern Europe, owing
to trade links.
Third, most BRICS and a few other emerging markets have moved toward a variant of state capitalism. This
implies a slowdown in reforms that increase the private sectors productivity and economic share, together with
a greater economic role for state-owned enterprises (and for state-owned banks in the allocation of credit and
savings), as well as resource nationalism, trade protectionism, import substitution industrialisation polices,
and imposition of capital controls.
This approach may have worked at earlier stages of development and when the global financial crisis caused
private spending to fall; but it is now distorting economic activity and depressing potential growth. Indeed,

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Chinas slowdown reflects an economic model that is, as former Premier Wen Jiabao put it, unstable,
unbalanced, uncoordinated, and unsustainable, and that now is adversely affecting growth in emerging Asia
and in commodity-exporting emerging markets from Asia to Latin America and Africa. The risk that China
will experience a hard landing in the next two years may further hurt many emerging economies.
Fourth, the commodity super-cycle that helped Brazil, Russia, South Africa and many other commodityexporting emerging markets may be over. Indeed, a boom would be difficult to sustain, given Chinas
slowdown, higher investment in energy-saving technologies, less emphasis on capital and resource-oriented
growth models around the world, and the delayed increase in supply that high prices induced. The fifth, and
most recent, factor is the US Federal Reserves signals that it might end its policy of quantitative easing earlier
than expected, and its hints of an eventual exit from zero interest rates, both of which have caused turbulence
in emerging economies financial markets. Even before the Feds signals, emerging-market equities and
commodities had underperformed this year, owing to Chinas slowdown. Since then, emerging-market
currencies and fixed-income securities (government and corporate bonds) have taken a hit. The era of cheap
or zero-interest money that led to a wall of liquidity chasing high yields and assets equities, bonds,
currencies, and commodities in emerging markets is drawing to a close.
Finally, while many emerging market economies tend to run current-account surpluses, a growing number of
them including Turkey, South Africa, Brazil and India are running deficits. And these deficits are now being
financed in risker ways: more debt than equity: more short-term debt that long-term debt; more foreigncurrency debt than local-currency debt; and more financing from fickle cross-border interbank flows.
These countries share other weaknesses as well: excessive fiscal deficits, above-target inflation, and stability
risk (reflected not only in the recent political turmoil in Brazil and Turkey, but also in South Africas labour
strife and Indias political and electrocal uncertainties). The need to finance the external deficit and to avoid
excessive depreciation (and even higher inflation) calls for raising policy rates or keeping them on hold at
high levels. But monetary tightening would weaken already-slow growth. Thus, emerging economies with
large twin deficits and other macroeconomic fragilities may experience further downward pressure on their
financial markets and growth rates.
These factors explain why growth in most BRICS and many other emerging markets has slowed sharply.
Some factors are cyclical, but others -state capitalism, the risk of a hard landing in China, the end of the
commodity super-cycle are more structural. Thus, many emerging markets growth rates in the next decade
may be lower than in the last as may the outsize returns that investors realised from these economies
financial assets (currencies, equities, bonds and commodities). Of course, some of the better managed
emerging-market economies will continue to experience rapid growth and asset outperformance. But many of
the BRICS, along with some other emerging economies, may hit a thick wall, with growth and financial
markets taking a serious beating.
71. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as per the given information in the passage?
A) Brazils GDP grew by only 1% last year, and is expected to grow by approximately 2% this year.
B) Chinas economy grew by 10% a year for the last three decades but slowed to 7.8% last year.
C) BRICS is a group of nations Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
1) Only A
2) Both A and B
3) Both B and C
4) Both A and C

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5) All A, B and C
72. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the given information in the
passage?
1) Russias economy may grow barely 2% this year, with potential growth also at around 4%.
2) The ongoing eurozone downturn has hurt Turkey and emerging market economies in Central and Eastern
Europe, owing to trade links.
3) Most emerging-market economies were overheating in 2010-11, with growth above potential and
inflation rising and exceeding targets.
4) Most BRICS and a few other emerging markets have moved toward a variant of state capitalism.
5) None of these
73. What should be the most appropriate title of the passage in your opinion?
1) Flourishing BRICS and Ailing Emerging Markets
2) Ailing BRICS and other Emerging Markets
3) Slowdown of Global Economy
4) China and World Economy
5) None of these
74. Which of the following is not a factor responsible for economic slowdown in BRICS and others
emerging-market economies as cited by the writer of the passage?
1) Slow economic growth in the United States, recession in the eurozone, near recession in the United
Kingdom and Japan in 2011-2012.
2) The commodity super cycle that helped Brazil, Russia, South Africa etc. may be over.
3) The US Federal Reserves signal that it might and its policy of quantitative easing earlier than expected.
4) A growing number of emerging-market economies are running deficits are being financed in risker ways.
5) Stable,balanced, co-ordinated and sustainable growth.
75. The need to finance the external deficit and to avoid excessive depreciation in emerging markets
calls for
1) raising policy rates
2) keeping policy rates on hold at high levels
3) Either (1) or (2)
4) Tightening monetary policy
5) None of them
Directions (76 78): Choose the word/ group of words which is most similar in meaning to the world group
of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
76. Far-fetched
1) believable
2) unbelievable
3) besieged
4) behighted

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5) distant
77. Take a serious beating
1) to be difficult to do
2) to be easy to do
3) a very heavy defeat
4) to be better
5) to take lead
78. Turbulence
1) sudden changes
2) turf war
3) tumulus
4) confusion
5) turmoil
Directions (79 80): Choose the word/ group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
79. Fickle
1) unstable
2) stable
3) often changing
4) meagre
5) voluminous
80. Depressing
1) very sad
2) unenthusiastic
3) enthusiastic
4) discouraging
5) hollow

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:: REASONING ABILITY ::
Directions (81 85): In these questions, relationship between different elements in shown in the statements.
The statements are followed by two conclusions
Given answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true
Given answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true
Given answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true
Given answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
Given answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true
81. Statements: A B = C D
Conclusions:
I. A C
II. D > A
82. Statements: P < Q = M N < O
Conclusions:
I. Q > O
II. P < M
83. Statements: T > R < S = U > V; U M
Conclusions:
I. M R
II. T M
84. Statements: Q P M N = T, N O
Conclusions:
I. O T
II. O Q
85. Statements: D > E = F C P < Q
Conclusions:
I. E < Q
II. F P
Directions (86 90): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

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In a certain code language, bank for my conductor is written as ya ri vi pa.
for conductor is my is written as ri vi pa da
my computer is yours is written as da vi pi du
it yours tablet is written as yu du ca
86. Which of the following is the code for conductor?
1) da
2) ri
3) ya
4) pa
5) ri or pa
87. Which of the following may represent ya pi du?
1) my computer tablet
2) yours computer bank
3) yours tablet bank
4) computer for bank
5) my tablet conductor
88. What is the code for my?
1) ri
2) pa
3) du
4) vi
5) da
89. What does the code pa stand for?
1) for
2) conductor
3) my
4) bank
5) Cannot be determined
90. In the code language my computer can be coded as:
1) pi vi
2) pi da
3) vi ri
4) pi ya
5) du pi
Directions (91 95): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I
and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even it they seem to be at variance form
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two
statements disregarding commonly known facts.

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Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Give answer (5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follows
91. Statements: Some apples are oranges
Some oranges are potatoes
Conclusions:
I. No orange is apple
II. At least some potatoes are oranges
92. Statements: No pen is pencil
No pencil is ink
Conclusions:
I. Some ink are pens
II. Some pens being ink is a possibility
93. Statements: No elephant is horse
All bulls are horses.
Conclusions:
I. No bull is elephant
II. Some bulls being elephant is a possibility
94. Statements: Some books are papers
No appear is bottle
Conclusions:
I. No bottle is book
II. Some bottles being book is a possibility
95. Statements: Some mobiles are tablets
No tablet is personal computer
Conclusions:
I. No personal computer is mobile
II. Some personal computers are mobiles
Directions (96 100): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

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Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal
distance between adjacent people. In Row -1, V, W, X, Y and Z are seated and all of them are facing south.
In Row -2, H, I, J, K and L are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating
arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. Y is sitting to the immediate
left of W. H is to the immediate left of person who faces V. L is sitting third to the right of J. Z is at the extreme
end of the line. X faces L. W is sitting second to the right of the person who faces K. J is at the extreme end
of the line.
96. Who amongst the following is sitting second to the left of V?
1) Y
2) X
3) W
4) Z
5) None of these
97. Who amongst the following sit at the extreme ends of the two rows?
1) I, J, W, Z
2) X, Z, J, L
3) W, X, K, J
4) Z, Y, J, H
5) W, Z, J, L
98. Which of the following statements is true regarding K?
1) K sits third to the right of J
2) K is not an immediate neighbour of H
3) K sits second to the left of I
4) K faces Y
5) There are three persons to the left of K.
99. Which of the following statements is true regarding J?
1) J is at extreme right position
2) J is sitting between H and L
3) J faces V
4) K is an immediate neighbour of J
5) None is true
100. Who among the following sits exactly between X and Y?
1) W
2) V
3) Z
4) Cannot be determined
5) There is no person between X and Y
Directions (101 105): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

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Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G joined different languages courses viz, Marathi, Hindi, Bengali,
Odiya, Telugu, Gujarati and Malayalam on the seven different days of the same week from Monday to Sunday,
but not necessarily in the same order.
Only three friends joined courses after D. Only two friends joined courses between D and the one who joined
Bengali language. Only three friends joined language courses between the persons who joined Bengali and
Odiya languages. Only one friend joined between G and the person who joined Telugu language. G joined
courses neither on Tuesday nor on Wednesday. Neither G nor E joined Odiya language. Only three friends
joined language courses between G and C. A joined language course on the day immediately before the one
who joined Malayalam language. Neither D nor E joined Malayalam language. B joined Hindi language. A
did not join Gujarati language.
101. On which of the following days of the week A did join the language course?
1) Tuesday
2) Monday
3) Friday
4) Wednesday
5) Thursday
102. Who among the following did join the Bengali language course?
1) A
2) D
3) F
4) G
5) E
103. Who among the following joined the Odiya language course?
1) C
2) D
3) F
4) A
5) Either A or F
104. Which of the following combinations of Day-Person-Course is not correct?
1) Wednesday F Odiya
2) Saturday G Gujarati
3) Thursday D Telugu
4) Monday C Bengali
5) Friday B Hindi
105. Who among the following joined the language course on the last day of the week, i.e., Sunday?
1) E
2) F
3) C

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4) G
5) B
Directions (106 108): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
A and B are husband and wife. C is son of B. D is son of C. C is married to P. P is mother of M. R is
daughter of M. M is mother of T.
106. Who among the following is the grandson of A?
1) C
2) D
3) M
4) T
5) P
107. Who among the following is the grand daughter of C?
1) R
2) T
3) D
4) M
5) None of these
108. Who among the following is mother-in-law of P?
1) A
2) B
3) M
4) Either A or B
5) None of these
Directions (109 111): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Among five persons M, N, O, P and Q each having different height. N is taller than O but shorter than
M. Q is taller than only P. The second tallest person is 165 cm tall while the second shortest in 155 cm tall.
109. Who among the following is the tallest?
1) Q
2) O
3) M
4) N
5) None of these
110. Who among the following may be 160 cm tall?
1) O
2) N

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3) Q
4) P
5) None of these
111. Who among the following is shorter than N but taller than Q?
1) P
2) M or O
3) M
4) O
5) None of these
Directions (112 115): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
M, V, K, D, T, J and R are seven friends studying in different classes IIIrd, IVth, Vth, VIth, VIIth, VIIIth,
and IXth standards. Each of them has different favourite colours yeloow, blue, red, white, black, green and
violet. J likes red and studies in class Vth, R likes violet and studies in Class IIIrd. M studies in class VIIIth
and does not like either green or yellow. K likes white and does not study either in VIIth or in IVth. D
studies in VIth and likes black. T does not study in IVth. V does not like green.
112. In which standard does K study?
1) IIIrd
2) Vth
3) IVth
4) VIIth
5) None of these
113. What is Ms favourite colour?
1) Red
2) Yellow
3) Green
4) Blue
5) None of these.
114. In which standard does V study?
1) IVth
2) IXth
3) VIIth
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these.
115. What is Vs favourite colour?
1) Green
2) Red
3) Yellow

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4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
116. Statement: The Government is working on a proposal to double the investment threshold that defines
micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs).
Which of the following cannot be a possible effect of the above proposal if it is accepted?
1) The MSMEs would grow at rapid pace as many small entities prefer to be small for the fear of losing out
the tax benefits.
2) If the sizes of companies are bigger then they are less vulnerable and their issues can be addressed in a
better way.
3) The MSMEs would discard its basic structure and these would come in direct competition with the bigger
companies.
4) The step would enable more companies to get tax benefits currently available to MSMEs.
5) Technological upgradation and more R & D would be available to MSMEs.
117. Effect: The Reserve Bank of India has increased the priority sector housing loans to Rs.40 lakh per
unit. Which of the following can be a possible cause of the above statement?
1) The Government is facing great challenge to provide affordable housing to the needy people.
2) The definition of affordability in most of the cities has changed and more funds are needed to purchase a
dwelling unit.
3) Real estate developers are focusing on high-end luxury segment and ignoring the lower segment.
4) The costs of building materials have surpassed the prices of land for housing.
5) Banking industry has sought permission to finance land purchase also.
118. Statement: The Income Tax authorities carried out raids at three different business houses in the city
last week.
Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above statement?
1) The three business houses are regular defaulters in payment of their income tax.
2) The Income Tax department had received a tip off about the illegal activities going on in the three
business houses.
3) The Government decided to look into the matter and has appointed and inquiry committee.
4) Other business houses took immediate action to clear off all their income tax dues in order to avoid a raid
on their establishments.
5) The authorities intend to conduct raids in several other business houses in the vicinity.\
Directions (119 120): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Point B is 4 meters towards the North of point A
Point E is 8 meters towards the East of point B.
Point C is 5 meters towards the East of Point A.
Point D is 9 meters towards the West of point C.
119. How far should one walk from point A in order to reach point D?

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1) 4 meters
2) 9 meters
3) 5 meters
4) 14 meters
5) 8 meters.
120. If a person walks 4 meters towards the South from point E and then walks after taking a right
turn, which of the following points would he reach first?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) None of these

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SBI Clerk Exam Paper - 2012

:: General Awareness ::
1. Which of the following countries has agreed to accept the payment of export of oil and petroleum
products to India, in rupee terms instead of dollar or any other currency?
(a) Kuwait
(b) UAE
(c) Iran
(d) Iraq
(e) Libya
2. As per the news paper reports Govt. of India has finally agreed to purchase advanced MRMRs for
its naval forces. What are these MRMRs?
(a) Aircrafts
(b) Warships
(c) Submarines
(d) Radar Systems
(e) Rocket Launchers
3. Which of the following agencies/organizations decided to cancel 122 Licenses of 2G Spectrum issued
by the Govt. of India to various companies and asked the Govt. to do the process afresh?
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
(b) Supreme Court of India
(c) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
(d) Conference of Indian Industry (CII)
(e) Reserve Bank of India
4. Who among the following is the Prime Minister of a country at present and has also won the
Presidential Elections held in March 2012? (He had been president of the country twice in the past.
This will be his third term as president. He will join office in July 2012).
(a) Mohammed Waheed Hassan (Maldives)
(b) Add Rabba Mansour Hadi (Yeman)
(c) Daniel Ortega (Nicaragua)
(d) Vladimir Putin (Russia)
(e) None of these
5. Which of the following countries approved a new constitution of the country in a referendum
through secret voting held in February 2012?
(a) Libya
(b) Iraq
(c) Iran
(d) UAE
(e) Syria

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6. Which of the following has signed a Non-Aggression Pact with Sudan?
(a) Uganda
(b) Kenya
(c) Ethiopia
(d) South Africa
(e) South Sudan
7. General Clients of various banks in India can made a complaint to which of the following offices, on
the issues related to deficiency in services which do not get resolved at banks level?
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Ombudsman
(d) Indian Audit Bureau
(e) Indian Banks Association
8. The sensitive index of National Stock Exchange of India is popularly known as _______
(a) SENSEX
(b) CRIS
(c) CSE
(d) MCX
(e) Nifty
9. Which of the following Indians was conferred the prestigious National Medal of Arts and
Humanities, awarded by US President in February 2012?
(a) Syria
(b) Sudan
(c) Iran
(d) Libya
(e) Egypt
10. Who among the following Indian was conferred the prestigious National Medal of Arts and
Humanities, awarded by US President in February 2012?
(a) Dr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(b) Ms. Meria Kumar
(c) Dr. Amariyan Sen
(d) Dr. D Subbarao
(e) Shri N.R. Narayan Murthy
11. The proceeds from disinvestment of various public sector undertakings are channelized into_____
(a) Technology Upgradation Fund
(b) Venture Capital Fund (NABARD)
(c) Rural Innovation Fund (NABARD)
(d) Portfolio Risk Fund (SIDBI)
(e) National Investment Fund
12. World Day for Water is observed on which of the following dates?
(a) 22nd August
(b) 22nd July
(c) 22nd October

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(d) 22nd March
(e) 22nd April
13. As per new data released recently what was GDPs real growth rate? (approximately)
(a) 7%
(b) 8%
(c) 9%
(d) 10%
(e) 15%
14. Meryl Streep who was awarded one of the Oscar Awards 2012, is a famous ______
(a) Film Director
(b) Actress
(c) Song writer
(d) Screen play writer
(e) Costume Designer
15. Which of the following counties has announced to freeze its Nuclear Programme so that it can
avail food aid from US and other countries?
(a) North Korea
(b) South Korea
(c) Iran
(d) India
(e) Pakistan
16. Which of the following organizations has agreed to give a financial and of US $ 4.3 billion to India
to help it in eliminating poverty?
(a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(b) World Bank
(c) Bank of Tokyo & HSBC Jointly
(d) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(e) IMF & ADB Jointly
17. What is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) at present?
(a) 20%
(b) 22%
(c) 25%
(d) 24%
(e) None of these
18. Which of the following is one of the major functions of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development (NABARD)?
(a) Provide loans to State Govt. for developing rural infrastructure
(b) Preparing Monetary & Credit Policy of India
(c) Deciding Bank Rate
(d) Providing Credit to Small Industrial Units
(e) Monitoring and Controlling functions of the Stock exchanges in India

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19. India conducted a joint naval coast guard exercise Sahyog-Kaijin-XI with _______
(a) China
(b) Myanmar
(c) Thailand
(d) Japan
(e) Bangladesh
20. Which of the following teams won the Africa Cup Football Championship Final held in February
2012?
(a) Kenya
(b) Zambia
(c) South Africa
(d) Ivory Coast
(e) Ghana
21. Agnieszka Radwanska of Poland recently won an international sports/games Championship. She is
a famous_______
(a) Chess player
(b) Golf player
(c) Lawn Tennis player
(d) Table Tennis player
(e) Badminton player
22. Which of the following films was adjudged Best picture in 84th Oscar Award function held in
February 2012?
(a) The Help
(b) The Iron Lady
(c) The Artist
(d) The Girl with the Dragon Tattoo
(e) Midnight in Paris
23. What does the letter S denote in the abbreviation SEBI which is the same of a regular in financial
sector in India?
(a) Small
(b) State
(c) Special
(d) Statutory
(e) Securities
24. Mr. Sauli Niinisto is the present President of ________
(a) Yemen
(b) Maldives
(c) China
(d) Finland
(e) S. Korea
25. A tax levied on the values that eh added to goods and services by the producers at various stages of
production and distribution is called ______
(a) Excise duty

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(b) Value Added Tax
(c) Goods & Service Tax
(d) Surcharge
(e) Income Tax
26. Which of the following combinations of authors and the books written by her/him is NOT correct?
(a) A tale of Two Gardens Octavio Paz
(b) A suitable Boy Vikram Seth
(c) Area of Darkness V. S. Naipaul
(d) Malguid Days R. K. Narayan
(e) A house for Mr. Biswas - Kiran Desai
27. Which of the following terms is used in the game of cricket?
(a) Punch
(b) Deuce
(c) Trump
(d) Leg Bye
(e) Dribble
28. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT associated with the game of Lawn Tennis?
(a) Davis Cup
(b) Merdeka Cup
(c) Wimbledon
(d) ATP Open
(e) Dubai open
29. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Banking & Finance?
(a) Double Fault
(b) Hit Wicket
(c) Atomic Number
(d) Dividend
(e) Grand Slam
30. Which of the following is the currency used in South Korea?
(a) Euro
(b) Krone
(c) Dinar
(d) Pound
(e) Won
31. Which of the following awards by the Govt. of Madhya Pradesh for excellence in the field of
classical Music?
(a) Tansen Award
(b) Saraswati Samman
(c) Mangla Prasad Paritoshik
(d) Arjun Awards
(e) Dronacharya Award

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32. Who among the following is a famous Cricket player and represent his country in international
matches?
(a) Kane Williamson
(b) Jbe Kruger
(c) Marcel Siem
(d) Saurav Ghosal
(e) Rahul Aware
33. Which of the following is NOT a name of a newspaper published in India?
(a) Danik Jagran
(b) The Statesman
(c) The Tribune
(d) Rajasthan Patrika
(e) South Zone
34. Which of the following cities in India is known as Electronic city of India?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Bangalore
(d) Hyderabad
(e) New Delhi
35. Mr. Yang Jiechi who was on a visit to India in March 2012 is the ________
(a) Home Minister of Japan
(b) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(c) Kalinga Award
(d) Sarswati Samman
(e) Kabeer Samman
36. Which of the following awards is given by the Govt. of India?
(a) Kalidas Samman
(b) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(c) Kalinga Award
(d) Sarswati Samman
(e) Kabeer Samman
37. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the field of Biology?
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) GST
(d) Osmosis
(e) Homeostatis
38. Which of the following places in India is famous for its woolen carpets?
(a) Satara
(b) Bhadohi
(c) Nagpur
(d) Ambala
(e) Bhagalpur

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39. The second Green Revolution planned for North Eastern states is based on production of which of
the following crops?
(a) Paddy
(b) Wheat
(c) Banana
(d) Pulses
(e) Vegetables
40. Which of the following schemes was launched by the Govt. of India of school Children?
(a) Mid Day Meal
(b) MGNREGA
(c) RAY
(d) Look East
(e) Swavlamban

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:: General English ::
1-15. Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words/phrase
have been in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the question.
The men of Suvarnanagari were very lazy. The only liked to gossip and tell each other tall tales. As soon as
the sun rose, the men would tuck into a hearty breakfast and then gather in groups for their daily session of
gossiping. They should spend the rest of the day telling each other impossible stories. They came back home
only at lunch and dinner time. The farmlands of Suvarnanagari were very fertile. If the men had spend even a
little time at the fields, they would have reaped wonderful crops. But as they did nothing, all the responsibilities
ended up on the shoulders of the women. They had to work hard the whole day. The cooked, cleaned, sent the
children to school, worked in the fields, took that the men needed to be taught a lesson. One of them suggested
that they write to the king about their problem, as he was known to be a just a kind person. So the letter was
written and sent to the king. The women went back to their daily routines hoping that the king would soon
take some action. Many would the king of such a vast empire be concerned about the plight of the women of
such a tiny village? they thought. A month passed by and it was a full moon night. The men ate their dinners
and because it was so beautiful and well lit outside, they gathered again to chat and boast. That night they
Soon a tall and handsome stranger joined them. Seeing his noble features and intelligent eyes, each one wanted
to prove himself better than the others and impress him. One said, I knew the map of this trouble bringing
me back home! Everyone was impressed by this story. Soon another man said, So all the way to the kings
places. He received me with a lot of love and we had the most delicious meal together. This was even more
impressive so everyone applauded. Now a third man said, Huh ! That is nothing. I sat on an elephant when I
was a week old and had lunch with the king in his palace. Before the admiring numbers could die down, a
fourth man said, When I was a month old, I flew like a bird and landed in the kings garden. The king picked
me up and even let me sit on his throne with him. While everyone was in awe of these stories, the stranger
spoke up, Do all four of you know the king very well Of course we do ! they replied together. Our king
knows and loves us. In fact he is proud That makes my task so much easier. You see, I work in the kings
court. Some days ago the king had summoned four supermen to the city in order to repair a large hole in the
city wall. As you know, we use only the largest and the toughest stones for building these walls, and they
could be lifted and put in place only be these supermen. The four supermen asked to be paid in gold bars and
the king complied. But the night they received their fee, they disappeared from the place. I have been
wandering around ever since looking for them. The king has ordered me to find the four men and bring them
back to the capital to finish the work. They will also have to return the gold bars they ran away with. It looks
like the search has finally ended. I will take the four of you to the king along with the gold bars. The king will
be very pleased with me and will surely reward me, said the stranger. By the time the stranger finished his
story the four men realized that their lies had landed them into a huge trouble. Their faces turned ashen and
they divided at the strangers feet. Save us ! they pleaded. Those were all lies. We are all just a bunch of
lazy men. But if you forgive us and forget our stories we promise to do some honest work and stop telling
such lies, they wailed. The stranger smaller and said, Alright, I will tell the king that there are no supreme
in this village, just honest and hardworking men and women. That night the stranger left the village. The
women were sure that it was none other than the king himself.
1. How did the men of Suvarnanagari spend their days?
(a) They helped in repairing the kingdoms walls
(b) They worked in the fields and at the market
(c) They only ate, gossiped and told each other tall tales
(d) They searched for the supermen
(e) They spoke about their experience

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2. What did the women of Suvarnanagari decide?
(a) That they would complain to the king about the lazy men
(b) That they would write a letter to the village headman
(c) That they would stop working in the fields
(d) That they would stop sending the children to school
(e) That they would start gossiping like the men
3. Why did the women of Suvarnanagari start losing hope?
(a) Because there was no improvement in the mens behavior despite the kings intervention
(b) Because many days had passed and the king had not acted on their complaint
(c) Because they could not earn much despite working hard all day in the field
(d) Because the king always favoured the men of Suvarnanagari
(e) Because they were losing their importance after the men had started working
4. What did the second man boast about?
(a) That he knew the way to the palace even before being born
(b) That he was stronger than all the other supermen in that village
(c) That the flew to the kings palace a week after he was born
(d) That he rode an elephant after he was born and had lunch with the king
(e) That he rode a horse a day after he was born and had a meal with the king
5. Why were the four supermen summoned by the king as told by the stranger?
(a) To make sure that the men of Suvarnanagari were working in the fields
(b) To rob the gold bars from Suvarnanagari
(c) To help the women of Suvarnanagari in their daily chores
(d) To make sure that the children of Suvarnanagari went to school
(e) To fix the hole in the city wall with strong and big stones
6. Why did the four men start waiting?
(a) They realized that there were other supermen in the kingdom
(b) They realized that the king was upset about their laziness
(c) They realized that they were being unfair to the women
(d) They realized that their lies had landed them in trouble
(e) They realized that the stranger was the king
7. What did the four men promise to do?
(a) They promised that they would stop lying and start working hard
(b) They promised that they would repair the city wall
(c) They promised that they would return the gold bars, the king gave them
(d) They promised that they would help the stranger look for the four supermen
(e) They promised that they would gossip only about true stories
8. Arrange the following incidents in a chronological order as they occurred in the passage.
(1) The second man was boasting about his powers
(2) The women of Suvarnanagari were unhappy
(3) The stranger left the village
(4) The stranger said that he would take the four men to the king

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(a) 1432
(b) 2413
(c) 1243
(d) 2134
(e) 2143
9. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
(a) The women of Suvarnanagari gossiped
(b) The women thought that the stranger was the king himself
(c) The second man said that he could fly when he was a week old
(d) The stranger said that the city wall was destroyed by the four supermen
(e) None is true
10. Which of the following may be an appropriate title to the passage?
(a) The fertile farms of Suvarnanagari
(b) The man who could fly
(c) The lazy men of Suvarnanagari
(d) The foolish women of Suvarnanagari
(e) The city walls of Suvarnanagari
11-13. Choose the word/groups of words which is most similar in the meaning to the word/group of
words printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. Tuck into
(a) Eat
(b) Fit into
(c) Sleep
(d) Wear
(e) Place on
12. Plight
(a) Troubles
(b) Lives
(c) Routine
(d) Fights
(e) Arguments
13. Received
(a) Obtained
(b) Welcomed
(c) Collected
(d) Found
(e) Got
14-15. Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words
printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. Die down
(a) Stop

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(b) Decrease
(c) Kill
(d) Start
(e) Create
15. Compiled
(a) Accepted
(b) Agreed
(c) Declined
(d) Decided
(e) Disobeyed
16-20. Each sentence below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted.
Chosen the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
16. They ________ changed a few criterion in ______ recruitment process.
(a) has our
(b) have their
(c) can a
(d) had an
(e) may company
17. They had ______ the venue for the party a month _______
(a) found soon
(b) saw earlier
(c) looked later
(d) selected easily
(e) booked in advance
18 She is one of the _______ interior decorators _______ the city.
(a) best in
(b) most of
(c) better for
(d) good by
(e) more on
19. Please ______ sure that you attach the photocopies _______ not the original documents
(a) be also
(b) in but
(c) so only
(d) as just
(e) make and
20. _____ his parents moved to another city, he _____ to stay in this city.
(a) Despite - still
(b) Though continues
(c) Inspire of wants
(d) No sooner waits
(e) Later remains

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21-25. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error idiomatic error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is No
Error the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation if any).
21. She informed that (1) / she will visiting her (2) / aunt at the (3) / hospital the next day. (4) / No Error (5)
22. Each participant are (1) / expected to be present (2) / at least an hour (3) / before the competition. (4) /
No error (5)
23. The king praised (1) / the minister and (2) / rewarded him with (3) / a thousand gold coins. (4) No error
(5)
24. She had request (1) / me to looked (2) / her garden while (3) / she was away. (4) / No error
25. The farmer was (1) / in need of money (2) / so he went (3) / at the money-lender. (4) / No error (5)
26-30. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in
the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful land correct? If the sentence is
correct as it is and No correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
26. Barring the few, all the customers are defaulters.
(a) Barred a few
(b) Leave a few
(c) Barring a less
(d) Barring a few
(e) No correction required
27. The cooks up a story in order to get out of the situation.
(a) cooked in a story
(b) cooked up a story
(c) cooked up a stories
(d) cooked on the story
(e) No correction required
28. She likes to be in all goods books of others.
(a) one the good books
(b) in the books
(c) in the goo books
(d) in the good bookings
(e) No correction required
29. The actor has been keeping lower profile for some time now.
(a) lowering the profile
(b) profile low
(c) a lowest profile
(d) a low profile
(e) No correction required

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30. Thought everyone was tired, Rahul was hell bend on playing another game.
(a) bending hell on
(b) hell bent in
(c) hell bent on
(d) hell bent for
(e) No correction required
31-40. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers
are printed below the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The Fool of the Year contest was (31) to all the countries of king Krishnadeva Raya. All of them looked
forward to the event as the winner would (32) a handsome prize of 5000 gold coins. The trouble was that
Raman (33) won the contest. One year the other courtiers decided that he must be kept out of it and (34) his
servant to lock him in his room to prevent him from reaching the palace in time for the event. Consequently,
Raman reached the place (35) the contest was over. Just as the (36) of the winner was about to be announced
the king noticed Raman. Seeing him come in, the king asked him why he was so late. Raman told him he was
in need of a hundred gold coins and had been engaged in trying (37) to the amount.
If you had participated in the contest you might have won the prize money and your problem would have
been solved, said the king. Youve behaved very foolishly, Raman. Sir that means I am a fool, said Raman.
Youre the greatest fool Ive ever seen ! said the king. In that case all the other here are (38) than me. That
means I have won the contest ! said Raman. The king realized that he had (39) a slip but he was too proud to
acknowledge it. To the chagrin of the other countries, the king (40) Raman the winner of the Fool of the Year
contest!
31. (a) closed
(b) easy
(c) open
(d) lost
(e) winning
32. (a) find
(b) give
(c) see
(d) receive
(e) show
33. (a) never
(b) tried
(c) totally
(d) easy
(e) always
34. (a) bribed
(b) ask
(c) complained
(d) raised
(e) confessed

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35. (a) later
(b) soon
(c) after
(d) completely
(e) not
36. (a) face
(b) contest
(c) contestant
(d) name
(e) age
37. (a) look
(b) collects
(c) finding
(d) counting
(e) raise
38. (a) foolish
(b) happier
(c) wiser
(d) sad
(e) taller
39. (a) fallen
(b) showed
(c) found
(d) made
(e) created
40. (a) declared
(b) announce
(c) said
(d) told
(e) called

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:: Quantitative Aptitude ::
1-5. What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
1. (47)2 (15)2 = ?
(a) 1894
(b) 1849
(c) 1949
(d) 1984
(e) None of these
2. 81% of 4915 = ?
(a) 3819.15
(b) 3871.15
(c) 3981.15
(d) 3918.15
(e) None of these
3. 25 43 5 = ?
(a) 215
(b) 220
(c) 205
(d) 251
(e) None of these
4. 93 + 26 3 51 = ?
(a) 201
(b) 102
(c) 120
(d) 210
(e) None of these
5. 1682 45 ? = 377
(a) 13
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 14
(e) None of these
6. 2.8 + 28.8 + 2.88 + 0.2 + 0.28 = ?
(a) 44.96
(b) 33.96
(c) 43.96
(d) 34.96
(e) None of these
7. 63 9 14 ? = 98
(a) 83

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(b) 86
(c) 88
(d) 91
(e) None of these
8. 11.7 4.1 5.97 = ?
(a) 48
(b) 42
(c) 46
(d) 39
(e) None of these
9.
(a) 758
(b) 763
(c) 741
(d) 751
(e) None of these
10.

(e) None of these

11.
(a) 89
(b) 97
(c) 93
(d) 91
(e) 99
12. 24% of 6730 = ?
(a) 1615.2
(b) 1619.4
(c) 1613.8
(d) 1617.2
(e) None of these

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13.

14.

(a) 3199
(b) 3168
(c) 3189
(d) 3188
(e) None of these
15. 2850 ? = 75
(a) 31
(b) 34
(c) 39
(d) 37
(e) None of these
16-20. Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The graph represent the total number of tickets sold of five plays P, Q, R, S and T, across two auditoriums A
and B on a particular day

16. The number of tickets sold of play T at auditorium A is what percent of the number of tickets of
play P sold at auditorium A?

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(a) 220
(b) 200
(c) 210
(d) 190
(e) 180
17. What is the total number tickets of plays Q and R together at both the auditoriums A and B
together?
(a) 1050
(b) 1200
(c) 1250
(d) 1350
(e) 1300
18. What is the respective ratio of the number of tickets sold of play P at auditorium B to the number
of tickets sold of play Q at auditorium B?
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 3 : 5
(e) 4 : 5
19. What is the difference between the total number of tickets sold of all plays together at auditorium
A and the total number of tickets sold for all plays together at auditorium B?
(a) 180
(b) 170
(c) 150
(d) 160
(e) 140
20. What is the average number of tickets sold at auditorium B for play T and S together?
(a) 360
(b) 320
(c) 300
(d) 340
(e) 350
21. If the area of a rectangle is 1248 square meters and its breadth is 32 meters how much is its
perimeter?
(a) 142 meters
(b) 128 meters
(c) 148 meters
(d) 124 meters
(e) None of these
22. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7950/-. If it is to be sold at a profit of 18%, how much would be
its selling price?
(a) Rs. 9431/(b) Rs. 9183/-

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(c) Rs. 9218/(d) Rs. 9381/(e) None of these
23. 24 articles were bought for Rs. 14880 and sold for Rs. 18480. How much was the approximate
profit percentage per article?
(a) 32%
(b) 29%
(c) 17%
(d) 20%
(e) 24%
24. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 7200/- at 5 p.c.p.a. in 2 years?
(a) Rs. 841
(b) Rs. 738
(c) Rs. 793
(d) Rs. 812
(e) Rs. 694
25. The ratio of the ages of A and B is 4 : 3 respectively. The ratio of their ages eight years from now
will be 6 : 5 respectively. How old was A, when B was 7 years old?
(a) 16 years
(b) 11 years
(c) 9 years
(d) 12 years
(e) None of these
26. What will be the average of the following set of scores?
48, 47, 64, 91, 72, 68, 93
(a) 65
(b) 69
(c) 72
(d) 61
(e) 75
27. In how many different ways can the letters of the PARTY be arranged?
(a) 120
(b) 2005
(c) 2400
(d) 720
(e) None of these
28. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 1434. What is the largest number?
(a) 488
(b) 484
(c) 476
(d) 472
(e) None of these

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29. The circumference of a circle is 748 meters. What will be its radius?
(a) 113 meters
(b) 107 meters
(c) 116 meters
(d) 109 meters
(e) None of these
30. Cost of 68 pens and 96 pencils is Rs. 788/-. What is the cost of 17 pens and 24 pencils?
(a) Rs. 193/(b) Rs. 189/(c) Rs. 197/(d) Rs. 183/(e) None of these
31-33. Study the information given below and answer the question that follow:
An article was bought for Rs. 5200/-. It price was marked up by 15%. Thereafter it was sold at a
discount of 9% on the marked price.
31. What was the amount of discount given?
(a) Rs. 528.20
(b) Rs. 519.20
(c) Rs. 533.20
(d) Rs. 538.20
(e) Rs. 529.20
32. What was the marked price of the article?
(a) Rs. 5480/(b) Rs. 5880/(c) Rs. 5990/(d) Rs. 5790/(e) Rs. 5980/33. What was the percent profit earned on the transaction?
(a) 4.85%
(b) 4.65%
(c) 4.35%
(d) 4.45%
(e) 4.25%
34. A and B together can complete a particular task in 4 days. If A alone can complete the same task
in 12 days, how many days will B take to complete the task if he works alone?
(a) 9 days
(b) 7 days
(c) 5 days
(d) 3 days
(e) None of these
35-39. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

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35. ? 7800 1560 390 130 65
(a) 47120
(b) 49900
(c) 46800
(d) 48350
(e) None of these
36. 7 11 19 ? 67 131
(a) 35
(b) 23
(c) 46
(d) 51
(e) None of these
37. 5 10 25 70 205 ?
(a) 650
(b) 370
(c) 550
(d) 610
(e) None of these
38. 7 35 210 ? 6300 31500
(a) 1040
(b) 1360
(c) 1080
(d) 1030
(e) None of these
39. 513 495 ? 462 447 433
(a) 460
(b) 491
(c) 488
(d) 478
(e) None of these
40. In how many years will Rs. 4400 amount to Rs. 5984 at 4 p.c.p.a. simple interest?
(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 7
(e) None of these

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:: Reasoning Ability ::
121-125. Each of the questions given below is based on the given diagram. The diagram shows three
figures each representing Scientists, Government employees and employees of Company X.

121. Which of the following represent all such Scientists who are Government employees but are not
employed in Company X?
(a) Only C
(b) C and G
(c) G, C and F
(d) C and F
(e) Only F
122. Which of the following represents such employees of company X who are also Government
employees but are not Scientists?
(a) D and G
(b) Only D
(c) G and F
(d) Only A
(e) None of these
123. Which of the following groups represents all such Government employees who are not Scientists?
(a) A, B and D
(b) B and F
(c) Only A
(d) B and D
(e) A and C
124. Which of the following does the group C represent in the above diagram?
(a) All such employees of Company X who are also Scientists as well as Government employees
(b) All such Government employees who are Scientists as well as employees of Company X
(c) All such employees of Company X who are Scientists but are not Government employees
(d) All such Scientists who are neither Government employees nor employed with Company X
(e) All such Government employees who are also employed with Company X

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125. Which of the following groups represents all such Scientists who are Governments employees as
well as employed with Company X?
(a) Only A
(b) F and G
(c) Only G
(d) Only B
(e) Not represented in the diagram
126-130. Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
6518249452617329423679258314512835
126. If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be
eleventh from the right end of the arrangement?
(a) 9
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5
(e) 7
127. How many such 4s are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded as
well as immediately followed by an odd digit?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Tow
(d) Three
(e) More than three
128. How many such 1s are three in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded or
immediately followed by a perfect square?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
129. How many 3s are three in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a
digit which has a numerical value of less than three?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
130. Which of the following is fifth to be right to the sixteenth digit from the right end of the above
arrangement?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 3

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(d) 5
(e) None of these
131-135. Following questions are based on five words given below:
MET ARK MOB SKI URN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be
meaningful English words)
131. In the second alphabet in each of the words is changed to the previous alphabet in the English
alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Tow
(d) Three
(e) Four
132. If in each of the words, all the alphabets are arranged in English alphabetical order within the
word, how many words will begin with a vowel?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
133. If the given words the arrangement in order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to
right, which of the following will be second from the right?
(a) MET
(b) RK
(c) MOB
(d) SKI
(e) URN
134. If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel
is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no
vowels appear?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
135. How many letter s are there in the English alphabetical series between third letter of the word
which is fourth from the left and the third letter of the word which is fourth from the right of the
given words?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five

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136-140. In each question below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and
II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follows.
136. Statements : No toffee is coffee. No sweet is toffee.
Conclusions : I. No coffee is sweet.
II. Al sweets are coffee.
137. Statements : All medals are awards. All rewards are medals.
Conclusions : I. All rewards are awards
II. All awards are medals
138. Statements : Some trees are plants. All bushes are plants.
Conclusions : I. Atleast some trees are bushes
II. Some trees are definitely not bushes
139. Statements : All bottles are glasses. No cup is a glass.
Conclusions : I. No bottle is a cup
II. Atleast some glasses are bottles
140. Statements : All windows are doors. All entrances are windows. No gate is a door.
Conclusions : I. Atleast some windows are gates
II. No gate is an entrance
141. In a certain code PAUSE is written as OBVTD and SHIFT is written as RIJGS. How will THINK
be written in the same code?
(a) UGHML
(b) SIJOJ
(c) SILOJ
(d) SIJQJ
(e) SIJOL
142. Ajay walked 2m towards east, took a right turn and walked 7m. He then took a left turn and
walked 5m before taking a left turn and walking 7m. He then took a final right turn and walked 1m
before stopping. How far is Ajay from the starting point?
(a) 8m
(b) 7m
(c) 6m
(d) 5m
(e) 9m
143-145. Stud the following information to answer the given questions:
Amongst five friends, P, Q, R, S and T, each scored different marks in an examination out of a total of 100

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marks. S scored more than only T. R scored less than P. only one person scored more than Q. The one who
scored second highest marks scored 87 marks.
143. Who scored the third least marks in the examination?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
(e) T
144. Which of the following is true with regard to the given information?
(a) Only one person scored more than P
(b) No one scored less than T
(c) R scored more than both Q and S
(d) Amongst the five friends, S is most likely to have scored 95 marks in the examination
(e) None is true
145. If S scored 23 marks less than the marks scored by Q, which of the following could possibly be
Rs score?
(a) 64
(b) 93
(c) 61
(d) 89
(e) 78
146-150. Study the following information to answer the given questions:
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing for people each, in such a way that there is an
equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1-A, B,C and D are seated (but not necessarily in the
same order) and all them are facing south. In row 2-E, F, G and H are seated (but not necessarily in the
same order) and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member
seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
G sits second to right of E. The one who faces E sits to the immediate right of C. A faces the immediate
neighbour of E. H sits to immediate left of the person who faces D. H does not sit at n extreme end of the line.
146. Who amongst the following faces A?
(a) E
(b) F
(c) G
(d) H
(e) Cannot be determined
147. Who amongst the following faces the person who sits exactly between G and E?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) Cannot be determined

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148. Who amongst the following faces G?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) Cannot be determined
149. Which of the following is true regarding B?
(a) B sits exactly between C and D
(b) D sits second to right of B
(c) B sits at an extreme end of the line
(d) B is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces F
(e) None is true
150. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and
thus from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that groups?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) F
(d) G
(e) A
151-160. In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should
come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequences were continued?

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:: Marketing Aptitude / Computer Knowledge ::

1. Marketing of Services is adopted in ___________
(a) Grocery stores
(b) Garment trade
(c) Medicine shops
(d) Fruit stall
(e) Hotels
2. Selling is ________
(a) Same as marketing
(b) More than Marketing
(c) Offering discounts
(d) A sub-function of marketing
(e) Nothing to do with marketing
3. Indirect marketing is the same as ________
(a) Onsite selling
(b) Using a smart-phone
(c) Viral marketing
(d) Advertisements
(e) Online marketing
4. Benchmark means _______
(a) A Standard value for comparison
(b) Basic products
(c) Court cases
(d) Financial targets
(e) Sales persons targets
5. A Call in marketing terms means ________
(a) A newly introduced product
(b) Territory allocation for sales persons
(c) A Call Centre
(d) A sales meeting
(e) To visit a Prospect
6. A Cold Call means _______
(a) A futile exercise
(b) Calls made in cold countries
(c) Sales talk
(d) Old product with new wrapping
(e) Calls made without prior appointment
7. A Lead means _______
(a) ATM usage
(b) Products offering
(c) Document sales

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(d) A likely buyer
(e) A type of credit card
8. To Close a Call means _______
(a) To look for new clients
(b) Telemarketing
(c) To clinch the sales deal
(d) Online marketing
(e) Indoor marketing
9. Delivery channels means ________
(a) Place from where the products are sold
(b) Courier service
(c) Distribution agencies
(d) Delivery time
(e) Offsite banking
10. Market size also means ______
(a) Market planning
(b) Market pricing
(c) Market space
(d) Market distribution
(e) Market channels
11. A fall in the market share implies ________
(a) Sales have gone up
(b) Profit has gone up
(c) Prices are erratic
(d) Competition has increased
(e) Business is would up
12. Market share can be increased by increasing ______
(a) Raw material cost
(b) The staff strength
(c) The sales
(d) The sales staff
(e) Competition
13. More number of conversions indicates ________
(a) More sales
(b) More purchases
(c) More staff
(d) More products
(e) More technological progress
14. Financial Inclusion means __________
(a) Financial statements
(b) Financial data
(c) Wholesale Banking

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(d) Retail Banking
(e) Bringing all poor people under banking net
15. Find the correct sentence _________
(a) KYC norms are not applicable for Financial Inclusion
(b) Loans can be granted to students at low rate of interest
(c) Home loans are not useful for public
(d) NRI customers are not profitable customers
(e) Online marketing is very costly
16. Margin contribution in the case of a loan account means _________
(a) Money paid by bank to borrower
(b) Same as EMI
(c) Borrowers own contribution for the venture
(d) Stamp duty
(e) Registration charges
17. Mutual Fund business from existing bank customers can be mobilized by _______
(a) Online marketing
(b) Cross-selling
(c) Telemarketing
(d) Carpet bombing
(e) Road-shows
18. Digital Marketing is the same as__________
(a) Online marketing
(b) Cross-selling
(c) Website designing
(d) Road-shows
(e) Door-to-door marketing
19. Load means _______
(a) Log of wood
(b) Free charged when one buys or sells the units of a fund
(c) Share price at the time of buying
(d) Stamp duty
(e) Fund value
20. In a Savings Account, money can be deposited on ________
(a) Monthly basis
(b) As per the convenience of the depositor
(c) Annual basis
(d) In one lump sum
(e) Quarterly basis
21. The input device to be used to get a printed diagram into a computer is the _______
(a) Printer
(b) Mouse
(c) Keyboard

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(d) Touchpad
(e) Scanner
22. What type of device is a computer mouse?
(a) Storage
(b) Output
(c) Software
(d) Input
(e) Input / Output
23. Any component of the computer you can see and touch_______
(a) Software
(b) Peripheral
(c) Storage
(d) CPU
(e) Hardware
24. What is the value of the binary number 101?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 101
(e) 9
25. Data or information used to run the computer is called _______
(a) Software
(b) Hardware
(c) Peripheral
(d) CPU
(e) None of these

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SBI Clerk (Pre.) Exam Paper - 2011

:: GENERAL AWARENESS ::
1. The Government of India and RBI are making all the efforts to provide Banking facilities to all the
villages/ habitations in the country. This is the part of their policy of ..........
1) PURA
2) Financial Inclusion
3) Swawalamban
4) Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana
5) None of these
2. Which of the following is NOT a Private Bank in India?
1) Yes Bank
2) HDFC Bank
3) Axis Bank
4) Kotak Mahindra Bank
5) IDBI Bank
3. What of the following is/ are NOT the functions of a bank?
A) Accept deposits from the public
B) Grant of loans and advances
C) Providing finance to all those who cannot earn enough to survive
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) All A, B & C
5) Only B & C
4. David Cameron who was in news recently is the ...........
1) President of Australia
2) Prime Minister of United Kingdom
3) President of Brazil
4) Prime Minister of Brazil
5) None of these
5. Farmers in India are covered by some welfare schemes. Which of the following is the name of the
same?

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1) Swasthya Bima Yojana
2) Varsha Bima Yojana
3) National Pension Scheme for unorganized sector
4) Food for work scheme
5) None of these
6. Which of the following Awards is given to a sports coach?
1) Arjuna Award
2) Khel Ratna Puraskar
3) Sportsman of the year Award
4) Dronacharya Award
5) None of these
7. Who amongst the following has taken over as the Chief Minister of Bihar after recent assembly
elections there?
1) Lalu Prasad Yadav
2) Ramvilas Paswan
3) Nitish Kumar
4) Syeed Shahnawaj Hussain
5) None of these
8. Hashim Amla who was awarded the player of the year in his category is a famous ...........
1) Tennis player
2) Badminton player
3) Hockey player
4) Chess player
5) Cricket player
9. What does the letter 'F' denote in the abbreviated name 'IIFCL'?
1) Functional
2) Foreign
3) Forwarded
4) Finance
5) None of these
10. What is the purpose of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?
1) To provide employment to all those who are unemployed
2) To provide 100 days employment to those who are willing to take a job
3) To ensure that nobody in a village remains unemployed
4) Too ensure that people get enough income during off season
5) None of these
11. 'Guangzhou' was recently in news as ...........

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1) G- 20 Summit took place there
2) Commonwealth Games were organized there
3) ASEAN Summit took place there
4) Asian Games 2010 were organized there
5) None of these
12. Which of the following is a treaty associated with the use of Nuclear Power?
1) NPT
2) SAFTA
3) GATT
4) Look East Policy
5) None of these
13. Nicole Faria who was crowned 'Miss Earth-2010' is from which of the following countries?
1) Brazil
2) India
3) Britain
4) Italy
5) France
14. Which of the following awards/ honours is given to Mr. Pranab Mukherjee?
1) Parliamentarian of the year
2) Best Union Minister
3) Finance Minister of the year for Asia
4) SAARC Parliamentarian of the year
5) None of these
15. Which of the following names is associated with a Health scheme launched by the Govt. of India?
1) VAT
2) MAT
3) CAR
4) AAFI
5) ASHA
16. Gagan Narang who won 4 gold medals in Delhi Commonwealth Games is basically a ...........
1) Weight Lifter
2) Badminton player
3) Table Tennis player
4) Swimmer
5) Air Rifle shooter
17. An individual going to Kuwait will have to make all his/ her payments in which of the following
currencies?

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1) Pula
2) Ruble
3) Curo
4) Lari
5) Dinar
18. World's largest bourse was inaugurated in Mumbai recently. The bourse will deal in which of the
following commodities?
1) Textiles
2) Gold
3) Silver
4) Diamond
5) None of these
19. HINDALCO is company operating in the area of ...........
1) Car & Automible
2) Textiles
3) Cement manufacturing
4) Software Development
5) Aluminium & Copper rolling
20. Who has written the book "The White Tiger"?
1) Saul Bellow
2) Amitav Ghosh
3) Salman Rushdie
4) V.S.Naipaul
5) Aravind Adiga
21. Which of the following is a form of irrigation used in India?
1) Dip
2) Booting
3) Amalga
4) Extension Service
5) None of these
22. Who amongst the following is one of the winner of the Nobel Prize 2010 in Physics?
1) Andre Geim
2) Alex Sammond
3) Rober G Edwards
4) Akira Suzuki
5) None of these
23. Mr. Howard Jacobson who is Booker prize winner for 2010 writes in ...........

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1) Spanish
2) German
3) Russian
4) French
5) English
24. Who amongst the following has never been the Prime Minister of India?
1) Smt. Indira Gandhi
2) Lal Bahadur Shastri
3) Morarji Desai
4) Somnath Chetterjee
5) Rajiv Gandhi
25. Who amongst the following is a famous man Booker Prize winner author of India origin
1) Chetan Bhagat
2) Arundhati Roy
3) Namita Gokhale
4) Upamanyu Chetterjee
5) None of these
26. Which of the following schemes is launched to make cities free from slums?
1) Indira Aawas Yojana
2) Bharat Nirman
3) Rajiv Gandhi Awas Yojana
4) Pradhan Mantri Aadarsha Gram Yojana
5) None of these
27. Which of the following trophies/ cups is NOT associated with the game of Football?
1) Challenge Cup
2) Nehru Gold Cup
3) Carling Cup
4) FIFAWorld Cup
5) Merdeka Cup
28. Shri SM Krishna recently signed an agreement with Dr. Guido Westerwelle when he came to India
in October 2010. This means this was an agreement between India and ...........
1) USA
2) Russia
3) Germany
4) France
5) Brazil
29. The first general election was held in india in ...........
1) 1951-52
2) 1962

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3) 1957
4) 1947-48
5) 1949
30. Which one of the following taxes/ cess levied by States in India?
1) Tax on motor vehicles
2) Educational cess
3) Tax on hotels
4) Tax on wealth
5) All of these
31. Who among the following has been declared as Businessman of the decade?
1) Mukesh Ambani
2) Anil Ambani
3) Ratan Tata
4) Azim Premji
5) Aditya Birla
32. Tejaswini Sawant is the first Indian woman to be crowned world champion in ............
1) Shooting
2) Wrestling
3) Boxing
4) Athletics
5) None of these
33. NAV is normally used in respect of scheme floated by ............
1) Banks
2) Mutual funds
3) Insurance Companies
4) Merchant banker
5) None of these
34. The regulator of the Insurance Companies in India is ............
1) RBI
2) Finance Minister
3) SEBI
4) IBA
5) None of these
35. The headquarters of SAARC is in ............
1) Kathmandu
2) New Delhi
3) Islamabad

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4) Dhaka
5) Colombo
36. The seat of International Court of Justice is established at ............
1) Geneva
2) Hague
3) Chicago
4) Switzerland
5) Washington
37. Which of the following states has achieved the highest literacy rate?
1) Haryana
2) West Bengal
3) Kerala
4) Maharashtra
5) Tamil Nadu
38. Money Laundering refers to ............
1) Conversion of assets into cash
2) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained
3) Conversion of cash into gold
4) Conversion of gold into cash
5) Money power
39. Who won the Commonwealth Writer's Prize on April 12, 2010?
1) Shobha De
2) Tara Joshi
3) Arvind Virmani
4) Rana Dasgupta
5) Khushwant Singh
40. brahmos is a/an ............
1) Fighter plane
2) Pattan tank
3) Submarine
4) Supersonic missile
5) Helicopter

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:: ENGLISH LANGUAGE ::
Directions (41 - 50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time in a village, there lived six blind men. In spite of their blindness, they had managed to
educate themselves. Seeking to expand their knowledge, they decided to visit a zoo and try out their skills in
recognising animals by their touch. The first animal they came across, as soon as they entered the zoo, was an
elephant.
As the first man approached the elephant, the elephant waved its trunk, and the man felt something brush past
him. Managing to hold on to it, he felt it, and found something long and moving. He jumped back in alarm,
shouting "mover away! This is a snaker!". Meanwhile,the second man had moved closer, and walked right
near its legs. As the man touched the thick, cylindrical - shaped legs, he called out "Do not worry. These are
just four trees here. There is certainly no snaker!" The third man was curious hearing the other two, and moved
forward. As he walked towards the elephant, he felt his hand touch one of the tusks. Feeling the smooth, sharp
ivory tusk, the man cried out "Be careful! There is a sharp spear here". The fourth man cautiously walked up
behind the elephant, and felt its swinging tail. "It's just a rope! There is nothing to be afraid of!" he said. "This
is nothing but a huge fan!" The sixth man did not want to be left out. As he walked towards the elephant, he
bumped into its massive body, and he exclaimed, "Hey! This is just a huge mud wall! There is no animal at
all!" All six of them were convinced that they were right, and began arguing amongst themselves.
Wondering what the commotion was all about, the zoo keeper arrived at the scene, and was surprised to see
six blind men surrounding an elephant, each of them shouting at the top of their voice! "Quiet" he shouted out,
and when they had calmed down, he asked. "Why are all of you shouting and arguing in this manner? "They
replied, "Sir, as your can see, we are all blind. We came here to expand our knowledge. We sensed an animal
here, and tried to get an idea of its appearance by feeling it. However, we are not able to arrive at a consensus
over its appearance, and hence are arguing. Can you please help us and tell us which of us is right"?
The zoo keeper laughed before answering, "My dear men, each of you has touched just one portion of the
animal. The animal you see is neither a snake, nor any of the other things you have mentioned. The animal in
front of you is an elephant!" As the six men bowed their head, ashamed of the scene they had created, the zoo
keeper said, "My dear men, this is a huge animal, and luckily, it is tame. It stood by clamly as each of you
touched it. You are extremely lucky that it stayed calm even during your argument, for if it had got angry, it
would have trampled all of you to death!" He continued further, "It is not enough to gather knowledge, but it
is also important to learn to share and pool your knowledge. Instead of fighting among yourselves, if you had
tried to put all your observations together, you might have had an idea of the animal as a whole! Also, when
you cannot see the entire truth, it is better to go to someone who does know the complete truth, rather than
guess about small parts of it.
Such half-knowledge is not only useless, but also dangerous. If you had come directly to me, I would have
helped you identify all the animals without putting you in danger!" The six men apologized to the zoo keeper,
and assured him that they had learn their lesson. From now on, they would seek true knowledge from qualified
people, and would also try to work together as a team so that they could learn more.
41. Which part of the elephant resembled a big fan?

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1) The wide ears
2) The mouth
3) The long slender trunk
4) The big wrinkled body
5) The end of the tail
42. Why did the six blind men visit the zoo?
1) They wanted to touch an elephant
2) They had heard a lot about animals
3) They wanted to visit the animals in the zoo
4) They wished to recognise animals by their touch and feel
5) They had never been to a zoo before
43. What was the first thing the blind men came across as they entered the zoo?
1) A large mud wall
2) The zoo keeper
3) The trees
4) The elephant
5) A snake
44. Why is it that each of the six blind men had different impressions of the elephant?
A) Each of them touched only a portion of the elephant
B) Each of the six blind men approached different animals
C) The blind men were touching the surroundings instead of the elephant
D) They had never touched an elephant before
1) Only A
2) Only A and C
3) Only C
4) Only B and D
5) Only B
45. Why were the six men arguing and shouting amongst themselves?
1) Each of them wanted his voice to be heard over and above the others
2) Each of them thought he was right about the animal
3) There was alot of noise in the zoo and they couldn't hear each other
4) They were having an interesting debate
5) None of these
46. What advice did the zoo keeper give to the six blind men?
1) That the elephant was tame and obedient
2) That they were very lucky to have had the opportunity to visit the zoo
3) That it was important to share knowledge and work together as a team

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4) That they were not qualified to be knowledgeable individuals
5) That the elephant is mad up of different parts
47. Which statement best describes the zoo keeper's behaviour towards the six blind men?
1) The zoo keeper insulted the six men
2) The zoo keeper presented himself to be as ignorant as they were
3) The zoo keeper helped them and assisted them further
4) The zoo keeper was indifferent towards the six blind men
5) The zoo keeper prohibited the six blind men from entering the zoo
Directions (48 - 50): Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold
as used in the passage
48. Convinced
1) Certain
2) Doubtful
3) Pressured
4) Committed
5) Daring
49. Pool
1) Expand
2) Gather
3) Devote
4) Apply
5) Combine
50. Consensus
1) Harmony
2) Agreement
3) Information
4) Order
5) Inference
Directions (51 - 55): In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted.
Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.
51. In all likelihood the missing boy has run away to the forest
1) with good intentions
2) there's no chance
3) without doubt
4) In most probability
5) None of these

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52. The parents were completely in the dark concerning their daughter's plans.
1) ignorant about
2) ashamed of
3) pretending to be unaware
4) unhappy about
5) None of these
53. I am in touch with the police, and they will be here in ten minutes.
1) in communication with
2) in close proximity with
3) in good terms with
4) familiar with
5) None of these
54. I stumbled upon some interesting old letters in my Grandfather's desk.
1) Deliberately went through
2) Surveyed
3) Tripped over
4) Discovered by chance
5) None of these
55. The secretary made an entry of the arrangement
1) initiated discussion
2) made a record
3) about notice
4) showed approval
5) None of these
Directions (56 - 60): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error,
if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the
answer is (5) i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
56. In times of crisis, (1)/the Bhagavad Gita gives light (2)/and guide to the mind tortured by doubt
(3)/and torn by conflict of duties. (4)/ No Error (5).
57. It was not easy for late Raja Ram Mohan Roy (1)/ to root out the custom of sati (2)/ because a
majority of (3)/ the educated class does not support him. (4)/ No error (5).
58. Deplete of the Ozone layer (1)/ and the greenhouse effect (2)/ are two long-term effects (3)/ of air
pollution. (4)/ No Error (5).
59. Most of the people which (1)/ have been victims (2)/ of extreme violence (3)/ are too frightened to
report it to the police. (4)/ No Error (5).

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60. The doctor helps (1)/ to reducing human suffering (2)/ by curing diseases (3)/ and improving
health (4) No error (5).
Directions (61 - 65): Each sentence below has a blank, each blank indicates that something has been
omitted. Choose the word/group of words that best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
61. When I was training for the marathon, I .......... run over 100 kilometres a week.
1) have to
2) would
3) will
4) destined
5) used to
62. My colleague is one of the kindest people ..........
1) that I knows
2) I know
3) who I know
4) which know
5) I had know
63. The lawyer's .......... let to the resolution of the problem.
1) behaviour
2) fees
3) advice
4) impact
5) approval
64. The government claims that .......... in the telecommunications industry will mean lower prices for
customers.
1) budget
2) finance
3) installments
4) decrease
5) competition.
65. Sarah was walking along the street .......... she tripped over.
1) when
2) as
3) while
4) then
5) however
Directions (66 - 70): In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered
(1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the

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context of the sentence. Find out the word that sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or word that
is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the
sentence then mark (5) i.e. 'All Correct' as your answer.
66. All the competitors (1)/ completed (2)/ the race (3)/ with just one exeption (4)/ All Correct (5).
67. Poor posture (1)/ can lead (2)/ to muscular (3)/ problems in later life (4)/. All Correct (5).
68. The pump (1)/ shut off (2)/ as a result (3)/ of a mecanical failure (4)/. All correct (5).
69. The Principal (1)/ gave a very pompous (2)/ speach (3)/ about the Portals of learning (4)/. All
Correct (5).
70. Copeing (1)/with her mother's long illness (2)/ was a heavy load (3)/ to bear (4)/. All correct (5).
Directions (71 - 75): Rearrange the following six sentences/ group of senterices A, B, C, d, E an F in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below.
A) To his surprise, a little honeybee came before his throne and said, "Of all the gifts you could give me,
only one will do. I'd like the power to inflict great pain whenever I choose to".
B) I hereby give you a sharp sting. But, I am sure you will use this weapon carefully only in times of anger
and strife.
C) "What an awful wish!" said great Zeus. "But I will grant It".
D) And to this day, the little honeybee dies after it stings.
E) One day, Zeus, the King of mount Olympus, was giving out gifts to beasts, birds and insects.
F) "You will get to use it only once, for using it will cost you your life".
71. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
1) D
2) F
3) B
4) E
5) C
72. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A
2) D
3) F
4) B
5) E
73. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
1) E
2) B
3) D

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4) C
5) F
74. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A
2) D
3) F
4) E
5) F
75. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement.
1) E
2) D
3) B
4) C
5) F
Directions (76 - 80): In the following passages, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Day dreaming is often overlooked as a proper dream and ...(76)... instead as wandering thoughts. However,
the meanings to you highly dream symbols are also ...(77)... to your day dreams. The content in you day
dreams are helpful in understanding your true feelings and will help you in ...(78)... your goals. Day dreaming
is the spontaneous imagining or recalling of various images or experiences in the past or the future. When you
daydream, you are accessing your right brain, which is the creative and feminine side of your personality.
Worrying about something creates visual images in your brain of the worst outcome that you are imagining
and is a form of daydreaming. By repeating these negative images in your mind, you are more likely to make
them happen. so the next, time you start worrying, try to think of a positive outcome. Positive daydreaming is
very healthy and acts as a temporary ...(79)... from the demands of reality. It is also a good way to ...(80)...
built up frustrations without physically acting them out.
76.
1) composed
2) determined
3) thought
4) felt
5) regareded
77.
1) duplicated
2) present
3) established
4) applicable
5) depictive

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78.
1) thinking
2) holding
3) achieving
4) realise
5) capturing
79.
1) solitude
2) healing
3) gateway
4) passage
5) escape
80.
1) adjust
2) confirm
3) capture
4) relase
5) demonstrate

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:: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE ::
Directions (81 - 90): What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions?
81. 6389 - 1212 - 2828 - ?
1) 2349
2) 2493
3) 2934
4) 2394
5) None of these

83. 526 12 + 188 = 50 ?

1) 120
2) 160
3) 140
4) 110
5) None of these
84. 622 - 322 + (?)2 = 3144
1) 17
2) 16
3) 19
4) 51
5) None of these

1) 58
2) 61
3) 63
4) 51
5) None of these
86. ? % of 5600 - 28% of 3500 = 1988

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1) 58
2) 55
3) 51
4) 53
5) None of these

1) 2556.7
2) 2456.7
3) 2546.7
4) 2645.7
5) None of these

1) 10021
2) 12001
3) 10221
4) 10201
5) None of these
Directions (91 - 50): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

91. 4 19 49 94 154 ?
1) 223
2) 225

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3) 229
4) 239
5) None of these

93. 101 103 99 105 97 ? 95

1) 93
2) 104
3) 108
4) 107
5) None of these
94. 3 219 344 408 ? 443 444
1) 416
2) 435
3) 423
4) 428
5) None of these
95. 7 10 16 28 52 ? 196
1) 100
2) 90
3) 160
4) 150
5) None of these
96. The average of five numbers is 57.8 The average of the first and the second numbers is 77.5 and
the average of the fourth and fifth numbers is 46. What is the third number?
1) 45
2) 43
3) 42
4) cannot be determined
5) None of these
97. Mr. Nair's monthly salary is ` 22,500. He took a loan of ` 30,000 on simple interest for 3 years at
the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. the amount that he will be paying as simple interest in 3 years is what percent of
his monthly salary?

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1) 10
2) 18
3) 20
4) 25
5) None of these
98. If the numerator of a certain fractions increased by 100% and the denominator is increased by
200% the new fraction thus formed is 4/21. What is the original fraction?

99. In howmany different ways can the letters of the word 'SIMPLE' be arranged?
1) 720
2) 120
3) 5040
4) 270
5) None of these
100. 52% students from a college participated in a survey what is the respective ratio between the
number of students who did not participate in the survey to the number of students who participated?
1) 11 : 13
2) 12 : 13
3) 12 : 17
4) cannot be determined
5) None of these
Directions (101 - 105): Study the following table carefully and answer the question that follow:
Number of students specialising in different fields from six different colleges, M-Males, F - Females

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1) 10
2) 30
3) 50
4) 110
5) 70
103. What is the respective ratio between the total number of students specialising in Economics from
college P and the total number of students specialising in Psychology from the same college?
1) 29 : 31
2) 25 : 34
3) 28 : 39
4) 25 : 39
5) None of these
104. The total number of females specialising in Political Science from colleges K, N and P together
are approximately what percent of the males specialising in the same field from the same colleges?
1) 210
2) 90
3) 190
4) 150
5) 110
105. How many students are there in college M from all the specialisation together?
1) 574
2) 578
3) 572
4) 568
5) None of these

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106. How much will be the compound interest to be paid on a principal amount of ? 53,000 after 2
years at the rate of 4 p.c.p.a.?
1) ` 4,324.8
2) `4,432.8
3) ` 4,342.8
4) ` 4,234.8
5) None of these
107. The area of a rectangle is twice the area of a triangle. The perimeter of the rectangle is 58 cm.
What is the area of the triangle?
1) 106 ccm2
2) 108 ccm2
3) 104 ccm2
4) cannot be determined
5) None of these
108. Yesterday Shweta completed 300 units of work at the rate of 15 units per minute. Today she
completed the same units of work but her speed was 40% faster than yesterday. What is the
approximate difference in the time she took to complete the work yesterday and the time she took
today?
1) 16 minutes
2) 26 minutes
3) 46 minutes
4) 36 minutes
5) 6 minutes
109. The average speed of a bus is 8 times the average speed of a bike. The bike covers a distance of
186 km in 3 hours. How much distance will the bus cover in 10 hours?
1) 4069 km
2) 4096 km
3) 4960 km
4) 4690 km
5) None of these
110. What is the value of (x) in the following equation?

1) 18
2) 12
3) 16
4) 14
5) None of these

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Directions (111 - 115): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark(?) in the
following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

1) 11
2) 30
3) 50
4) 70
5) 100
112. 507.893 + 253.013 + 199.781 = ?
1) 760
2) 860
3) 560
4) 460
5) 960
113. 7231 21 1.7 = ?
1) 585
2) 650
3) 555
4) 525
5) 505

1) 35
2) 115
3) 25
4) 95
5) 65
115. 170 14 181=?
1) 3
2) 13
3) 33
4) 53
5) 43
Directions (116 - 120): Study the following pie charts carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Percentage of students from different states attending a national seminar total students: 8000

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116. What is the respective ratio between the number of female students from Karnataka to the
number of female students from Kerala?
1) 2 : 7
2) 2 : 5
3) 2 : 3
4) 3 : 7
5) None of these
117. what is the total number of male students from Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh together?
1) 2175
2) 2725
3) 2527
4) 2275
5) None of these
118. What is the respective ratios between the number of male students from Assam and the number
of male students from Madhya Pradesh?

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1) 197 : 134
2) 197 : 135
3) 197 : 133
4) 199 : 133
5) None of these
119. What is the respective ratio between the number of female students from Karnataka and the
number of male students from the same state?
1) 35 : 69
2) 32 : 69
3) 38 : 69
4) 35 : 67
5) None of thse
120. The number of female students from Assam are approximately what percent of the male students
from the same state?
1) 14
2) 28
3) 96
4) 66
5) 46

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:: REASONING ABILITY ::
121. In a certain language 'to be polite' is coded as 'fa so la', ' she is polite' is coded as 'so me pa' and '
to have manners' is coded as 'na la ma'. Which of the following is the code for 'be' in that language?
1) so
2) fa
3) la
4) me
5) na
122. 'Lead' is related to, 'pencil' in the same way as 'ink' is related to
1) Bottle
2) Pen
3) Stamp
4) Pot
5) Colour
123. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ONFT using each letter only
once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
124. If the, digits in the number 25673948 are arranged in ascending order from left to right, what will
be the sum of the digits which are fourth from the right and third from the left in the new
arrangement?
1) 10
2) 9
3) 4
4) 6
5) 8
125. In a certain code GIVEN is written as MDVJH. How is SHARK written in that code
1) JSAIT
2) JQAIT
3) TIAQJ
4) JQBTI
5) JQIAT
126. If each of the vowels in the word HONESTLY is changed to the next letter in the English
alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical

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series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which
of the following will be fifth from the left of the new arrangement thus formed?
1) S
2) R
3) M
4) F
5) P
127. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and sixth letters of
the word PYGMALION, which of the following would be the second letter of that word from the right
end? If no such word can be made, give 'X' as your answer and if more than one such word can be
formed, give your answer as 'Z'.
1) X
2) P
3) Y
4) A
5) Z
128. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
1) Feathers
2) Leaves
3) Twings
4) Nest
5) Hay
129. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DUPLICATE each of which has as many
letters between them in word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between, them
in the English alphabetical order?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three
130. In a certain language 'GUEST' is coded as '@7$2' and 'SNIP' is coded as '957#' and 'GAPE' is
coded as '$35'. How will 'SING' be coded in the same code?
1) 9$7#
2) 59#$
3) 97$
4) 7$59
5) $27#

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Directions (131 - 135): (In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by-two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from conclusions logically follows 'from the statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows
Given answer (2) if only conclusion II follows
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
Given answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follows
131. Statements: All petals are flowers
Some flowers are not petals
Some petals are colours
Conclusions: I. Some flowers are colours
II. Some flowers are not colours
132. Statements: All desks are tables
Some tables are drawers
Some drawers are big
Conclusions: I. Some tables are big
II. No desk is a drawer
133. Statements: All Colleges are buildings
All buildings are concrete
Some concrete are strong
Conclusions: I. Some colleges are strong
II. Atleast some strong are concrete
134. Statements: Some trees are tall
All tall are healthy
All healthy are not tall
Conclusions: I. Some healthy are tall
II. Some trees are not tall
135. Statements: All books are interesting
All magazines are books
Some interesting that are not books are journals
Conclusions: I. All books are journals
II. All magazines are interesting
Directions (136 - 140): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
If 'A Z' means 'A is the wife of Z'
If 'A Z' means 'A is the husband of Z'

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If 'A + Z' means 'A is the sister of Z'
If 'A - Z' means 'A is the brother of Z'
If 'A > Z' means 'A is the son of Z'
If 'A < Z' means 'A is the daughter of Z'
136. Which of the following relations will not be true if the expression 'A < P T + F > L M' is
definitely true?
1) A is the daughter of T
2) F is the son of M
3) P is the son-in-law of L
4) A is the cousin of F
5) M is the grandmother of A
137. Which of the following means N is the daughter-in-law of A?
1) M + N P > A
2) N < M P + A
3) M - N P < A
4) A < P + N M
5) A < N < P M
138. How is P related to F if 'Q P < B + F'?
1) Daughter
2) Niece
3) Daughter-in-law
4) Grand daughter
5) Aunt
139. Which of the following means P is the father of R?
1) R > S < P J
2) J + R - S < P
3) R > S P - J
4) S + J R < P
5) None of these
140. How is M related to B if 'A B > Z S + M'?
1) Aunt
2) Grandfather
3) Uncle
4) Cousin
5) Cannot be determined.
Directions (141 - 145): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:

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612 589 743 468 297
141. If two is added to the first digit of each of the numbers, how many numbers thus farmed will be
completely divisible by three?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Four
142. If the position of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, in how
many numbers thus formed will be the last digit be a perfect square? ('1' is also a perfect square)
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) Five
143. What will be the resultant if the third digit of the second lowest number is divided by the second
digit of the highest number?
1) 4
2)1
3) 6
4) 5
5) 2
144. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in descending order within the number,
which of the following will form the highest number in the new arrangement of numbers?
1) 612
2) 589
3) 743
4) 468
5) 297
145. If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order from left to right. which of the following will
be sum of all the three digits of the number which is second from the right of the new arrangement
thus formed?
1) 14
2) 9
3) 18
4) 16
5) 12
Directions (146 - 150): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

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Six friends L, M, N. O, P and Q work in three different cities namely Chennai. Pune and Nashik (not more
than two work in a single City). Each of them has a different profession, viz., banker, software engineer,
lawyer, lecturer, doctor and psychologist, but not necessarily in the same order. O works in Chennai and is
not a lecturer. M is a banker by profession and works in Pune with only Q, who is a software engineer by
profession. N works in Nashik and is not a lawyer by profession. P is a doctor and does not work in Chennai.
The only other person who works in Chennai is a lecturer by profession.
146. Which of the following is true for L?
1) L is a lecturer by profession.
2) L works in the same place as N.
3) L is neither a lecturer not a lawyer by profession.
4) L works in Pune.
5) None of these
147. Which two people work in Nashik?
1) L and N
2) N and P
3) L and Q
4) N and O
5) Cannot be determined
148. Which of the following combinations of persons, place and profession is correct?
1) Q -Nashik-psychologist
2) P-Pune-doctor
3) L-Nashik-lecturer
4) N-Chennai-software engineer
5) O-Chennai-lawyer
149. Which of the following is the occupation of N?
1) Software engineer
2) Psychologist
3) Lecturer
4) Lawyer
5) None of these
150. Who among the following five is a lawyer by profession among the group of friends?
1) O
2) L
3) N
4) Q
5) None of these
Directions (151 - 160): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the
right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

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158. Problem Figures

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:: MARKETING APTITUDE/COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE ::

161. Which of the following groups consist of only input devices?
1) Mouse, Keyboard, Monitor
2) Mouse, Keyboard, Printer
3) Mouse, Keyboard, Plotter
4) Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner
5) None of these
162. A menu contains a list of
1) Commands
2) data
3) objects
4) reports
5) none of these
163. What is output?
1) What the processor takes from the user
2) What the user gives to the processor
3) What the processor gets from the user
4) What the processor gives to the user
5) None of these
164. An error is also known as
1) bug
2) debug
3) cursor
4) icon
5) None of these
165. Computer... is whatever is typed, submitted, or transmitted to a computer system
1) input
2) output
3) data
4) circuitry
5) None of these
166. Which process checks to ensure the components of the computer are operating and connected
properly?
1) Booting
2) Processing
3) Saving

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4) Editing
5) None of these
167. Unsolicited commercial email is commonly known as
1) spam
2) junk
3) hoaxes
4) hypertext
5) None of these
168. ............ is processed by the computer into information.
1) numbers
2) processor
3) input
4) data
5) None of these
169. A website address is unique name that identifies a specific ........... on the web.
1) web browser
2) website
3) PDA
4) Link
5) None of these
170. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be?
1) distributed
2) cortralised
3) open source
4) wireless
5) None of these
171. Editing a document consists of reading through the document you've created. then?
1) correcting your errors
2) printing it
3) saving it
4) deleting it
5) None of these
172. The Internet allows you to?
1) send electronic mail
2) view web pages
3) connect to servers all around the world

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4) all of these
5) None of these
173. Most mail programmes automatically complete the following two parts in an e-mail?
1) From : and Body:
2) From: and Date:
3) From: and To:
4) From and Subject:
5) None of these
174. Where is the disk put in a computer?
1) in the modem
2) in the hard drive
3) into the CPU
4) in the disk drive
5) None of these
175. The name a user assigns to a document is called a (n)?
1) file name
2) program
3) record
4) data
5) None of these
176. An e-mail address typically consists of a user ID followed by the ........... sign and the name of the
e-mail server that manages the user's electronic post office box?
1) @
2) #
3) &
4)
5) None of these
177. A personal computer is designed to meet the computing needs of a (n)?
1) individual
2) department
3) company
4) city
5) None of these
178. Ctrl, shift and alt are called keys ...........?
1) adjustment
2) function
3) modifier

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4) alphanumeric
5) None of these
179. File ........... shrinks the size of a file so it requires less storage space?
1) scanning
2) synthesizing
3) defragmenting
4) compression
5) None of these
180. In addition to the basic typing keys, desktop and note book computer keyboards include a(n)
........... keypad to efficiently move the screen based insertion point
1) editing
2) number
3) locked
4) docked
5) None of these
181. Safe Deposit Locker can be canvassed among
1) All existing account holders
2) Persons below poverty line
3) Students
4) Jewelers
5) ATM Cardholders
182. Tele marketing means?
1) Selling telephones
2) Sending SMS messages
3) Chatting on the phone
4) Marketing through phone calls
5) Marketing person
183. The USP of a Credit Card is?
1) Cashless operations
2) Only for HNIs
3) Only for men
4) Only for emploployed persons
5) Transaction through cheque book
184. EMI can be a marketing tool if?
1) EMI is increasing
2) it is very high
3) it is very low

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4) EMI has no impact on marketing
5) EMI is a flat rate
185. The USP of a Current Account is?
1) High profitability
2) Liquidity
3) Low Rate of Interest
4) Costly transaction
5) Friendly features
186. Bancassurance means?
1) Assurance of banks for quality service
2) Assurance for sanction of loans
3) Selling of insurance products by banks
4) Selling credit cards
5) selling debit cards
187. Good competition helps in?
1) Improved Sales
2) Improved customer Service
3) Improved brand image
4) All of these
5) None of these
188. Banks sell insurance for?
1) Increasing deposits
2) increasing loans
3) increasing clients
4) Earning more profits
5) Taking over insurance companies
189. Debit Card can be issued to?
1) Only Income Tax assesses
2) Only Professionals
3) Only women
4) All farmers
5) All Savings Account holders
190. Mutual Funds investments can be effectively canvassed among?
1) Only salaried persons
2) Students availing Education Loans
3) HNI customers

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4) Sunrise industries
5) Poor farmers
191. Product Design is function of?
1) Front office staff
2) Back office staff
3) Management
4) Marketing and Research team
5) Loan section
192. The target group for Personal Loans is?
1) All Private Limited Companies
2) All Businessmen
3) All Salaried Persons
4) Minor Children
5) New born infants
193. Advertisement is a type of?
1) Direct marketing
2) Service marketing
3) Indirect marketing
4) Internet banking
5) Internal marketing
194. The sales process begins with?
1) Customer identification
2) Lead generation
3) Sales presentation
4) Sales closure
5) Sales meet
195. Financial Planning is required when?
1) One has no income
2) One is flushed with funds
3) One has no expenses to incur
4) One is illiterate
5) Income level is insufficient to meet the expenses
196. 'Value added services' implies?
1) Additional knowledge of marketing staff
2) Service beyond normal hours
3) Service with extra facilities

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4) Marketing agencies
5) Overtime work
197. Optimum results in marketing is possible through?
1) Increased production
2) More number of products
3) More sales persons
4) Motivated staff
5) More ATMs
198. Mutual Fund business from existing customers can be canvassed by?
1) Coercion
2) Cross-selling
3) Internal marketing
4) Outdoor marketing
5) Road-shows
199. Marketing in banks has been necessitated due to ?
1) Globalisation
2) Excess Staff
3) Nationalisation of banks.
4) Complacency among the staff
5) Poor customer service
200. Market Research is necessary for?
1) making proper marketing decisions
2) Choosing the right products
3) Selecting the right sales persons
4) All of these
5) None of these

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SBI Clerk Exam Paper - 2009

:: GENERAL AWARENESS ::
1.The changed management programme ol which of the following banks is named as "Parivartan" ?
(1) Reserve Bank of India
(2) Bank of India
(3) Union Bank of India
(4) BankofBaroda
(5) State Bank of India
2.The Government of India recently increased its allocation of\ funds of which of the following
schemes by 37% to make it Rs. 12,886 crores ?
(1) Midday Meal Scheme ,.
(2) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yqjana
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewable Mission (JNNURM)
(4) National Watershed Development Programme
(5) None of these
3. Which of the following countries has decided to give a 20% subsidy to its farmers even though they
are rich ?
(1) France
(2) England
(3) Italy
(4) USA
(5) Germany
4. Which of the following statcment(s) is/are true about the Rail Budget 2009-10 presented in July
2009 ?
(A) A new scheme 'Izzat' was un* veiled for the workers in unorganised sector. In this scheme, monthly
season tickets will be available at the rate of Rs. 25 only.
(B) No charges will be levied for "TatkalTickets" if booked 72 hours in advance.
(C) Now passengers can buy their reserved tickets from 5000 post offices.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A and C
(5) All A, B and C

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5. As per the report published recently, Income Tax Department has found about Rs. 1,200 crores
lying in Frozen Demat Accounts in India. Why were these Demat Accounts frozen ?
(A* Funds in these accounts were coming from unknown foreign sources.
(B) These account holders were not able to produce their Permanent Account Number, which is mandatory
for such transactions.
(C) There are the accounts of those who expired without making a will or nominating someone as their heir
apparents.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) All A, B and C
(5) None of these
6. As per the reports published in various newspapers/magazines, the Indo-US trade dropped by 25%
in January to March 2009. But there are certain items whose exports were on increase. Which of the
following is/are these items ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Steel
(C) Apparels
(1) Only B and C
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A
(5) All A, B and C
7. Which of the following clearly defines what corporate taxes are?
(A) It is a direct tax levied on the income of a company or association.
(B) It is a tax which is levied to the companies on their production and commonly known as Value Added
Tax (VAT).
(C) This is the tax levied on the income of the Directors, Promoters of a company/association on the profits
earned by them during the year.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) All A, B and C
(5) None of these
8. The Government of India is planning to infuse how much amount in 12 public sector banks to make
their capital base strong ?
(1) Rs. 10,000' crores
(2) Rs. 12,000 crores
(3) Rs. 16,000 crores

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(4) Rs. 22.000 crores
(5) Rs. 24,000 crores
9. How much amount did the Government of India allocate the National Housing Bank i.NHB) for
making up of the shortfall in priority sector lending by commercial banks? (Announcement was made
in Union Budget 2009-10).
(1) Rs. 1,000 crores
(2) Rs. 2,000 crores
(3) Rs. 2,500 crores
(4) Rs. 3,000 crores
(5) Rs. 5,000 crores
10. After J.L. Nehru, who amongst the following was/is the other Prime Minister-who completed
his/her first term and immediately carne for the second term ?
(1) Iviisvlndira Gandhi
(2) Dr. Manmchan Singh
(3) Mr. Htal Bihari Vajpayee
(4) Mr. Rajiv Gandhi
(5) None of these
11. Which of the following teams won the 'Asia Cup HockeyTournament' held in May 2009 ?
(1) South Korea
(2) Iran
(3) India
(4) Pakistan
(5) China
12. Which of the following countries recently conducted 2nd nuclear test and also test fired some
missiles defying the condemnation of various nations ?
(1) North Korea
(2) China
(3) South Korea
(4) Pakistan
(5) USA
13. An epidemic of infectious diseases which is passed on through population across a large region or
worldwide is called
(1) Pandemic
(2) Endemic
(3) Global
(4) Non infectious
(5) None of these
14. Which of the following is the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) at present ?

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(1) 3%
(2)*4% , ^
(3) 5%!
(4) 6%
(5) None of these
15. Who amongst the following is the winner of Women's Singles "French Open Tennis Tournamcnt2009' ?
(1) Dinara Safina
(2) Virginia Ruaho Pascual
(3) Anabcl Medina Garrigues
(4) Svetlana Kuznetsova
(5) None of these
16. Many times we read in newspapers/ magazines about the increase or decrease in tax collection.
Which of the following taxes is not included in the tax collection levied by the Union Government ?
(1) property Tax
(2) Education.Cess
(3) Corporate Tax
(4) Income Tax r
(5J Fringe Benefit Tax
17. Sheikh Sharif Ahmed who is heading a UN backed Central Government in his country, is the
President of\
(1) Somalia
(2) Iran
(3) Uganda
(4) Israel
(5) None of these
18. Which of the following is the name of the international treaty which was signed by many nations to
curb production of atomic bombs and other such Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) ?
(1) 123 Agreement
(2) Rio Declaration
(3) Rotterdom Convention
(4) Nuclear Non Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
(5) None of these
19- Which of the following nations celebrated its first Republic Day on 29th May, 2009 ?
(1) Fiji
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Myanmar
(4) Nepal
(5) None of these

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20. Which of the following is/are the objectives of the National Mission on Sustainable Habitat ?
(A) Greater emphasis on urban waste management and recycling.
(B) Emphasis on use of items made of plastics and other such material and not of metals, as they need deep
digging of earth.
(C) It suggests incentive for use of public transportation more and more.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Both A and C
(4) Both A and B
(5) All A, B and C
2 1 . As per the National Food Security Act, how much wheat or rice, the people below poverty line,
will get every month at the rate of Rs. 3 per kg.?
(1) 10 kg.
(2) 15 kg.
(3) 20 kg.
(4) 25 kg.
(5) None of these
22. As we all know, emission of certain gases is responsible for the level of Global Warming. Which of
the following gases makes maximum contribution in the same ?
(1) Ammonia
(2) Oxygen
(3) Carbon Dioxide
(4) Nitrogen
(5) None of these
23. Sayali Gokhale who won an international title recently in associated with which of the following
games/sports ?
(1) Lawn Tennis
(2) Badminton
(3) Golf
(4) Chess
(5) None of these
24. Who amongst the following is NOT a member of the Council of Ministers headed by Dr.
Manmohan Singh ?
(1) Mr. Vilasrao Deshmukh
(2) Mr. Praful Patel
(3) Mr. Kama! Nath
(4) Ms. AmbikaSoni
(5) Mr. Rahul Gandhi

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 IBPS Specialist Officer Study Kit

IBPS PO Study Kit
IBPS Clerk Study Kit
Study Materials for SBI - Probationary Officer Exam
Study Materials for SBI - Clerk Exam
Essay Writing Skills Improvement Programme (EWSIP)

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25. Which of the following is NOT a banking or finance related term ?
(1) Letter of Credit
(2) Back up Guarantee
(3) LIBOR
(4) Polymerisation
(5) Factoring Services
26. Twang I and Twang II. two big hydropower projects are being developed in the slate of
(1) Assam
(2) Meghalaya
(3) West Bengal
(4} Tripura
(5) Arunachal Pradesh
2 7 . "Navrauia Status" is awarded to which of the following organisation/ units?
(1) Those IITs/IIMs who are doing good research work
(2) Defence production units/ factories who are showing good profits
(3) Any public sector manufacturing unit doing well and* earning good profits
(4) A public sector bank rated very high by the RBI in the area of customer service andrecovery of NPAs
(5) None of these
28 . 'IraniTrophy" is associated with which of the following games ? i
(1) Badminton
(2) Golf
(3) Cricket
(4) Football
(5) Hockey
29. Which of the following awards is , given for the excellence in the field of literature in India ?
(1) Arjun Award
(2) Bharatiya Jnanpiih Award
(3) Shanti Swamp Bhatnagarj Award
(4) Dronacharya Award
(5) Tansen Sanman
30. The World Population Day is ob-! served on
(1) 10th July
(2) 11th July
(3) 10th August
(4) 11th August
(5) 15th September
31 . An Indian citizen can open a Savings Account in which ol the following ?

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(1) SIDBI
(2) RBI
'(3) NABARD
(4) A Private Sector Bank
(5) None of these
32. Indian citizens generally make investments in many schemes. Which of the following is not the
name of any such scheme in which investment for the purpose of saving income tax can be made?
(1) National Savings Certificate
(2) White Papers
(3) Mutual Funds
(4) Infrastructure Bonds
(5) L1C policies
33. Which of the following has written the book "Between the Lines" ?
(1) V.S.Naipaul
(2) PremBhatia
(3) Kuldeep Nayyar
(4) C. Rangarajan
(5) Saul Bellow
34. Which of the following countries has decided to use the revenue collected from newly discovered
oil field to make a Special Sovereign Fund ?
(1) Iraq
(2) Russia
(3) Iran
(4) Indonesia
(5) Brazil
35. Many times, we read a term 'ISO'. What is the full form of the same?
(1) International Social Organisation
(2) Insurance and Social Obligations
(3) International Space Organisation
(4) Integrated Security Organisation
(5) International Standards Organisation
36. As per the reports published by the Government of India, what is the approximate percentage of
the people in rural India who hold a bank account ?
(1) 10%
(2) 20%
(3) 25%
(4) 15%
(5) 35%

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37. Mr. Kurmanbek Bakiev has taken over as President of
(1) Honduras
(2) Lithuania
(3) Venezuela
(4) Kyrgyzstan
(5) None of these
38. If some people wish to start a banking company in India, they certainly need a permission of the
(1) I ndian Banks' Assocation
(2) Institute of Chartered Acccounts in India
(3) Ministry of Finance
(4) Banking Ombudsman
(5) Reserve Bank of India
39. The number of people living Below Poverty Line (BPL) is maximum in
(1) Gujarat
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) Maharashtra
(5) Orissa
40. Basel Norms are related with further strengthening and performance of
(1) Public sector manufacturing units
(2) Banking Industry
(3) Educational Institutes
(4) Hotels
(5} None of these

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:: GENERAL ENGLISH ::
Directions (41-55): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
King Hutamasan felt he had everything in the world not only due to his riches and his noble knights, but
because of his beautiful queen, Rani Matsya. The rays of the sun were put to shame with the iridescent light
that Matsya iEuminated, with her beauty and brains. At the right hand of the king she was known to sit and
aid him in all his judicial probes. You could not escape her deep set eyes when you committed a crime as
she always knew the victim and the culprit. Her generosity preceded her reputation in the kingdom and her
hands were always full to give. People in the kingdom revered her because if she passed by, she always gave
to the compassionate and poor.
Far away from the kingly palace lived a man named Raman with only ends to his poverty and no means to
rectify it. Raman was wrecked with poverty as he had lost all his land to the landlord. His age enabled him
little towards manual labour and so beg^ ging was the only alternative to salvage his wife and children. Every
morning he went door to door for some work, food or money. The kindness of peo-i pie always got him enough
to take home. But Raman was a little seli-eenteied. His world began with him firstlilftjkvsd by his tamlly and
the rest. 8 He would eat and drink to his delight and return home with whatever he found excess. This routine
followed and he never let anyone discover his interests as he always put oma long face when he reached home.
site <d >, I
One day afe he.was relishing the bowl of nee.he had just received from a humble tipiiiKi he. heard that Rani
Matsya was Jo pass from the very place he was standing. Her generosity had reached his ears and he knew if
he pulled a loo glace and showed how poor he wa,s, she would hand him a bag full of gold coins enough
for the rest of his iff?1, enough to buy food and supplies' ibr his family. He thought - he could keep some coins
for himself and only repeal a few to his wife; so he can fulfill his own wishes.
He ran to the chariot of the Rani and begged her soldiers to allow him to speak to the queen. Listening to the
arguments omsideRani Matsya opened the curtains of her chariot and asked R irrtan what he wanted. Raman
went on his knee^.and praised the queen. I haye heard you are most generous and most chaste, show this
beggar some charityvRanJ narrowed her brows and asked Raman what he could give her in return. Surprised
by such a question, Raman looked at his bowl full of rice. With r-pite in him he just picked up a few grains of
rice and gave it to the queen. Rani Matsya counted the 5 grains and looked at his bowl full of rice and said,
you shall be given what is due to you. Saying this the chariot galloped away.
Raman abused her under his breath. This he never thought would happen. How could she ask him for
something in return when she hadn't given him anything ? Irked with anger he stormed home and gave his
wife the bowl of rice. Just then he saw a sack a,t the entrance. His wife said some men had come and kept it
there. He opened it to find it full of rice. He put his hand inside and caught hold of a hard metal only to discover
it was a gold coin. Elated he upturned the sack to find 5 gold coins in exact for the five rice grains. If only I
had given my entire bowl, thought Raman, I would have had a sack full of gold.
41. According to the passage, which of the following is definitely true about Rani Matsya?
(A) She was beautiful '
(B) She is intelligent
(C) She was kind.

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(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) All the three (A), (B) and (C)
42. What does the phrase 'pulled a long face' as used in the passage mean ?
(1) Scratched his face
(2) Looked very sorrowful
(3) Disguised himself
(4) Put on makeup
(5) None of these
43. What can possibly be the moral of the story ?
(1) Do onto ethers as you would want others to do to you
(2) Patience is a virtue
(3) Winning is not everything, it is the journey that counts
(4) Change is the only constant thing in life
(5) Teamwork is more we and less me
44. Why was begging the only option for Raman to get food ?
(1) As Raman belonged to a family of beggars
(2) As begging was the easiest way for him to obtain food
(3) As Raman's family had forced him to beg r
(4) As he had lost all his property and was too old to do manual work
(5) None of these
45. Which of the following words can be used to describe Raman?
(A) Deceitful
(B) Selfish
(C) Timid
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A) and (B)
(4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) All the three (A), (B) and (C)
46. What did Raman find after he returned home from his meeting with Rani Matsya ?
(1) The Rani's soldiers
(2) An empty house
(3) The five grains of rice that he had given to Rani Matsya
(4) A sack full of rice and five gold coins
(5) None of these

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47. What emotion did Raman feel when he saw that the Rani had given him five gold coins ?
(1) Determination
(2) Regrti
(3) Hatred
(4) Suspicion
(5) Thrill
48. What did Raman do when Rani Matsya asked him for something in return for her charity ?
(1) He gave her five grains of rice out of his full bowl of rice
(2) He gave her the five gold coins that he had saved
(3) He handed over the entire bowl of rice that he possessed
(4) He refused to give her anything as he was offended with her request
(5) None of these
49. Why was Raman angiy with Rani Matsya ?
(1) As she had not stopped despite Raman's calling out to her
(2) As she had insulted him in front of his family
(3] As she had taken the rice grains from him and had not given him anything in return
(4) Not mentioned in the passage
(5) None of these
50. How did Raman treat his own family?
(1) He gave his family plenty to eat
(2) He saved whatever food and money he got and handed it over to his family.
(3) He loved his familly a lot and always put. their interests before his
(4) He beat up bis wife and children out of frustration
(5) None of these
Directions (51- 53): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group
of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
51. GALLOPED
(1) hurtled
(2) stumbled
(3) slumbered
(4) jumped
(5) ran
52. REVERED
(1) remembered
(2) feared
(3) talked about

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(4) embraced
(5) respected
53. HAND
(1) arm
(2) throw
(3) give
(4) limb
(5) lend
Directions (54 - 55): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group
of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
54. REVEAL
(1) stop
(2) conceal
(3) present
(4) pending
(5) tell
55. ELATED
(1) afraid
(2) poor
(3) happy
(4) depressed
(5) grounded
Directions ( 56 - 60): Rearrange! the following six. sentences (A), (B), (C)! (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence! to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Because of the black and white rats the branch would fall on the! ground very soon and the man woke
up with a start oniy to realize that it was a dream.
(B) On climbing, he looked down and saw that the lion was still there waiting for him.
(C) Once a man dreamt that a Hon was chasing him.
(D) One rat was black and the other one was white.
(E) The man then looked to his side where the branch he was sitting on was attached to the tree and saw that
two rats were circling around and eating the branch.
(F) The man ran to a tree, climbed on to it and sat on a branch.
56. Which of the follovving should be the THIRD sentence alter rear rangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

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57. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after re arrangement ?
(1) B _
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5)F
58. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
59. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2)B
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
60. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2)B
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Directions ( 6 1 - 6 5 ) : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace
the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
given and No correction is required', mark (5) as the answer.
61. In order to forget his worries Rahul take to smoke day and night.
(1) took to smoke
(2) taking to smoking
(3) take to smoking
(4) took to smoking
(5) No correction required
62. Prerna was very please with the gift she had received from her best friend on her birthday.
(1) was very pleased
(2) was very pleasing
(3) is very pleased

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(4) is very pleasing
(5) No correction required
63. She was so scared on seeing the lion that she shooked like a leaf.
(1) shaked like a leaf
(2) shook like a leaf
(3) shook like a leaves
(4) shake like a leaf
(5) No correction required
64. Meena had the presence of mind to get out of the way as the bus sped out of control past her.
(1) present of mind
(2) present mind
(3) presence in mind
(4) presence to mind
(5) No correction required
65. Finally Suhas had gather the courage to speak against his father's atrocities.
(1) gathering the courage
(2) gathers courage
(3) gathered the courage
(4) gather the couraged
(5) No correction required
Directions (66-70): In each question below, a sentence with four v/ords printed in bold type is given. These
are numbered as (1 ), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt
or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if
any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. 'All correct' as your answer.
66. The designer will showcash (1)/ her collection (2)/at an upcoming (3)/ fashion (4)/ event in the city.
All correct (5).
67. Our mind is like a garden (1)/ which can either be intelligently ( 2 )/ cultivated (3)/ or be allowed to
run wilde. (4)/ All correct (5}
68. Researchers (1)/ have identified ( 2 )/ the early master cells that make up the human heart could be
used to make patches (3)/ to fix damaged hearts. (4)/ All correc(5)
69. The girl spends (1)/every knight (2)/studying, as she wants to graduate (3) / from a well known
college with good marks. (4)/ All correct (5)
70. The next time your gym instructor ( 1 ) / tells you to do some stretching (2)/ exersises (3)/ before
starting the workout, say no. (4) / All correct (5).

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Directions (71-80): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
There was a man who had four sons. He (71) his sons to learn not to judge things too quickly. So he sent them
each on a (72) in turn, to go and look at a pear tree that was a great distance away. The first son went in the
winter, the second in the spring, the third in summer, and the youngest son in autumn. When they had all gone
and come back, he (73) them together to (74) what they had seen. The first son said that the tree was ugly,
bent, and twisted. The second son said, "No! It was covered with green buds and full of promise." The third
son disagreed; he said it was laden with blossoms that (75) so sweet and looked so beautiful, it was the most
graceful thing he had (76) seen. The last son disagreed with all of them; he said it was ripe and drooping with
fruit, full of life and fulfillment. The man then (77) to his sons that they all were right, because they had each
seen but only one (78) in the trees life. He told them that you (79) judge a tree, or a person, by only one season,
and that the (80) of who they are and the pleasure, joy, and love that comes from that life can
only be measured at the end, when all the seasons are over.
71.
(1) created
(2) wanted
(3) placed
(4) meant
(5) teach
72.
(1) quest
(2) airplane
(3) expedition
(4) pilgrimage
(5) requested
73.
(1) followed
(2) tied
(3) called
(4) said
(5) bound
74.
(1) all
(2) predict
(3) maintain
(4) describe
(5) talk
75.

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(1) was
(2) fell
(3) colour
(4) smelled
(5) cooked
76.
(1) worriedly
(2) mostly
(3) ever
(4) forever
(5) forcefully
77.
(1) tell
(2) feaked
(3) reprimanded
(4) stood
(5) explained
78.
(1) flower
(2) season
(3) ground
(4) more
(5) leaf
79.
(1) let
(2) not
(3) must
(4) should
(5) cannot
80.
(1) essence
(2) danger
(3) tree
(4) fear
(5) journey

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:: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE ::
Directions (81-95) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
81. 182 + V? = 350
(1) 576
(2) 676
(3) 26
(4) 28
(5) None of these
82. 1530 -r 34 x 360 + 24 = ?
(1) 625
(2) 765
(3) 575
(4) 645
(5) None of these
83. 4966 + 285 - 1236 + ? = 4860
(1) 854
(2) 848
(3) 825
(4) 875
(5) None of these
84.

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Directions (96-100): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?
96. 11 12 26 81 ?

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(1) 324
(2) 328
(3) 320
(4) 280
(5) None of these
97. 5120 1280 320 80 ?
(1) 16
(2) 24
(3) 30
(4) 40
(5) None of these
98. 7 11 27 63 ?
(1) 96
(2) 118
(3) 9 9 .
(4) 127
(5) None of these
99. 6 10 18 34 ?
(1) 62
(2) 64
(3) 66;
(4) 50
(5) None of these
100. 5 11 23 47 ?
( l ) 95
(2) 93
(3) 96
(4) 97
(5) None of these
101. A, B. C, D and E are five consecutive even numbers. Average of A and E is 46. What is the largest
number ?
(1) 52
(2) 42
(3) 50
(4) 48
(5) None of these
102. A train running at the speed of 66 kmph crosses a signal pole in 18 seconds. What is the length of
the train ?

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(1) 330 metres
(2) 300 metres
(3) 360 metres
(4) 320 metres
(5) None of these
103. Find the average of the following set of numbers.
155, 128. 137, 140, 160, 132
(1) 148
(2) 140
(3) 146
(4) 144
(5) None of these
104. Number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two digit number is less than the original
number by 18, and the sum of the digits is 6. What is original two digit number ?
(1) 46
(2) 24
(3) 42
(4) 64
(5) None of these
105. An amount of Rs. 45,000 become Rs. 77,400 on simple interest in eight years. What is the rate of
interest p.c.p.a. ?
(1) 9
(2) 11
(3) 8
(4) 10.5
(5) None of these
106. Three-fifth of a number is more than its 4 0% by 85. What is 60% of that number ?
(1) 245
(2) 255
(3) 260
(4) 250
(5) None of these
107. R a j e s h spends 12% of his monthly income on entertain^ ment, 18% of his monthly income on
children's education, 50% of his monthly income on other household items and the remaining amount
of Rs. 5,200 he saves. What is his monthly income ?
(1) Rs. 25,400
(2) Rs. 26,200
(3) Rs. 24,800

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(4) Rs. 25,600
(5) None of these
108. 24 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days. In how many days will 18 men complete that
work ?
(1) 16 days
(2) 20 days
(3) 22 days
(4) 25 days
(5) None of these
109. R a s i k a and Nikita invested amounts of Rs. 40,000 and Rs. 75,000 respectively. At the end of
five years they got a total div idend of Rs. 46,000. What is Rasika's share in the dividend ?
(1) Rs. 16,500
(2) Rs. 15,500
(3) Rs. 15,000
(4) Rs. 16,000
(5) None of these
110. Present ages of Rama and Shyama are in the ratio of 4 : 5 respectively. Five years hence the ratio
of their ages becomes 5 : 6 respectively. What is Rama's present age ?
(1) 25 years
(2) 22 years
(3) 20 years
(4) 30 years
(5) None of these
111. What is the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 25,000 in two years at the rate of 12
p.c.p.a. ?
(1) Rs. 6,630
(2) Rs. 6,360
(3) Rs. 6,260
(4) Rs. 6.460
(5) None of these
112. Cost of 10 calculators and 12 watches is Rs. 11,100. What is the cost of 30 calculators and 35
watches ?
(1) Rs. 33,600
(2) Rs. 33,650
(3) Rs. 32,600
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

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113. A TV set when sold fo<- Rs. 16,756, the profit earned is 18%. What is the cost pi ice of the TV set
?
(1) Rs. 14,200
(2) Rs. 14,400
(3) Rs. 15,200
(4) Rs. 14,800
(5) None of these
114. Five eighth of a number is equal to 60% of another number. What is the ratio between the first
number and the second number respectively ?
(1) 13 : 12
(2) 12 : 13
(3) 25 : 24
(4) 24 : 25
(5) None of these

Directions (116 - 120) : Study the following table carefully to answer these questions.

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116. What is the average number of employees working in Market irTg department of all the
organizations ?
(1) 149
(2) 145
(3) 146
(4) 148
(5) None of these
117. What is the total number of employees working in all the departments of organization B
together?
(1) 350
(2) 375
(3) 425
(4) 475
(5) None of these
118. What is the ratio between number of employees from Finance and Marketing departments
together of organization B and these two departments together of organisation D respectively ?
(1) 14 : 9
(2) 9 : 14
(3) 11 : 28
(4) 28 : 11
(5) None of these
119. What is the ratio between the total number of employees from all organizations together in HR
and Administration departments respectively ?
(1) 132 : 137
(2) 137 : 132
(3) 122 : 137
(4) 137 : 122
(5) None of these
120. Number of employees in IT department of organization C is what per cent of the tolal number of
employees in organization C in all the departments together ?
(1) 26.5
(2) 25.6
(3) 25.4
(4) 20.4
(5) None of these

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:: REASONING ABILITY ::
121. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BRIGHTEN each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
122. In a certain code FIGHT is writ ten as '39%@4' and TEARS is written as '458(F)*'. How is
STAGE written in that code ?
(1) 4835
(2) *48%5
(3) 84%5
(4) *48@5
(5) None of these
123. Among A, B, C, D and E each reaching school at a different time, C reaches before D and A and
only after 3. E is not the last to reach school. Who among them reached school last ?

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(1) M D 1
(2) 4 H P
(3) 3 W T
(4} Q 5 A
(5) J % $
139. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter ?

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(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
140. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the
eleventh from the left end ?
(1) P
(2) Q
(3) N
(4)
(5) None of these
141. What should come next in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
F 3 1 DP4 TWN ?
(1) 5 B I
(2) Q E I
(3) Q E B
(4) Q 5 B
(5) None of these
142. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a consonant ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
143. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the seventeenth from the right end of the above
arrangement ?
(i) E
(2) D
(3) #
(4) I
(5) None of these
Directions (144-149): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions
numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
144. Statements:

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All telephones are wires.
All wires are tents.
All tents are cans.
Conclusions:
I. Some cans are wires.
II. Some tents are telephones.
III. Some cans are telephones.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only II and III follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) All I, II and III follow
(5) None of these
145. Statements:
Some cards are pictures.
All pictures are paints.
Some paints are nails.
Conclusions:
I. Some paints are cards.
II. Some nails are cards.
III. Some nails are pictures.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow
146. Statements:
All walls are glasses.
No glass is table.
Some tables are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are walls.
II. Some tables are walls.
III. Some windows glasses.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows

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(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow
147. Statements:
All baskets are poles.
Some poles are lamps.
All lamps are roads.
Conclusions:
I. Some lamps are baskets.
II. Some roads are poles.
III. Some lamps are poles.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) All I, II and III follow
(5) None of these
148. Statements:
Some leaves are baskets.
Some baskets are flowers.
Some flowers are lakes.
Conclusions :
I. Some lakes are baskets.
II. Some flowers are lakes.
III. No lake is basket.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only either I or III follows
(5! None of these
149. Statements:
AH rtcttiircs are bands.
Some bands are chairs.
Some chairs are tables.
Conclusions :

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I. Some tables are bands.
II. Some chairs are pictures.
III. Some tables are pictures.
(1) None follows
(2) Only 1 follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) Only III follows
Directions (150-155) : In the following questions, the symbols @, 8, k, $ and % are used with the
following meanings as illustrated below :
'P 8 Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P * Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.
'P % Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three
conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
150. Statements:
B % N, N 8 F, F H
Conclusions :
I. H $ N
II. F % B
III. B % H
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only I and III are true
(3) Only II and III are true
(4) None is true
(5) All I, II and III are true
151. Statements:
W 8 F, F % K, K $ M
Conclusions :
I. M % F
II. M 8 F
III. W $ K
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II true
(3) Only either I or II is true

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(4) Only III is true
(5) None of these

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Directions (156 - 160): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the
right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

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What You will get:
1. All the relevant and required materials of subjects mention in the syllabus like:

100% IBPS Exam Syllabus Covered with MCQs.

Quantitative Aptitude

Reasoning Ability

General English

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General Awareness

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:: MARKETING APTITUDE/COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE ::

161. To move to the beginning of a line of text, press the key.
(1) pageup
(2) a
(3) home
(4) enter
(5) None of these
162. Computers use the number system to store data and perform calculations.
(1) binary
(2) octal
(3) decimal
(4) hexadecimal
(5) None of these
163. Physical components th?t make >.:: computer are known as ;
(1) Operating System
(2) Software
(3) Hardware
(4) Web Browsers
(5) None of these
164. Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task ?
(1) function
(2) space bar
(3) arrow
(4) control
(5) None of these
165. Ctrl, Shift and Alt are called keys.
(1) modifier
(2) function
(3) alphanumeric
(4) adjustment
(5) None of these
166. The pattern of printed lines on most products are called .
(1) prices
(2) OCR
(3) scanners

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(4) barcodes
(5) None of these
167. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called ?
(1) RAM
(2) ROM
(3) CPU
(4) CD-ROM
(5) None of these
168. Various applications and documents are represented on the Windows desktop by .
(1) Symbols
(2) Labels
(3) Graphs
(4) Icons
(5) None of these
169. All the deleted files go to .
(1) Recycle Bin
(2) Task Bar
(3) Tool Bar
(4) My Computer
(5) None of these
170. In MlCR, C stands for .
(1) Code
(2) Colour
(3) Computer
(4) Character
(5) None of these
171. E-mail addresses separate the user name from the ISP using the symbol.
(1) &
(2) @
(3) %
(4) *
(5) None of these
172. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is .
(1) multiprogramming
(2) multitasking
(3) time-sharing

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(4) rrmlti proteasing
(5) None of these
173. What type of device is a computer printer ?
(I) Input
(2) Output
(3) Software
(4) Storage
(5) None of these
174. The contents of are lost when the computer turns off.
(1) storage
(2) input
(3)'output
(4) memory
(5) None of these
175. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test .
(1) Ram test
(2) disk drive test
(3) memory test
(4) power-on-self-test
(5) None of these
176. When you save to this, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off
(1) RAM
(2) motherboard
(3) secondary storage device
(4) primary storage device
(5) None of these
177. For creating a document, you use command at File Menu.
(1) Open
(2) Close
(3) New
(4) Save
(5) None of these
178. "Making a Call" means .
(1) Calling on a prospective customer
(2) Explaining product details
(3) Negotiating a deal

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(4) Arguing with a customer
(5) All of these
179. With a CD you can .
(1) Read
(2) Write
(3) Read and Write
(4) Either Read or Write
(5) None of these
180. " R e l a t i o n s h i p " is marketing means .
(1) Relation between salesperson
(2) Relation between buyer and seller
(3) Relation between company and consumer
(4) All of these
(5)t*<one of these
181. Marketing of services is known as- .
(1) Transaction marketing
(2) Door-to-door marketing
(3) Relationship marketing
(4) internal marketing
(5) All of these
182. "Referrals" means .
(1) Reference books
(2) Ix;ads provided by operation staff
(3) Sales persons
(4) Front-office staff
(5) Management
183. "Conversion" in sales language means .
(1) converting a buyer into a seller
(2) converting a seller into a buyer
(3) converting a prospect into a client
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
184. Bank marketing is same as .
(1) Transaction marketing
(2) Service marketing
(3) Indoor marketing

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(4) All of these
(5) None of these
185. Leads can be provided by .
(1) Friends and relatives
(2) Websites
(3) Directories
(4) Colleagues
(5) All of these
186. One of the following is not a sales activity. Find the same.
(1) Identifying leads
(2) Malting a call
(3) Presentation
(4) Negotiation
(5) After-sales service
187. Selling is a function undertaken by
(1) All the sales persons
(2) All the employees
(3) Entire organisation
(4) Outsourced agencies
(5) All of these
188. Find the correct statement
(1) Selling is same as marketing
(2) Selling is more than marketing
(3) Selling is part of marketing
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
189. You can start Microsoft Word by using button.
(1) New
(2) Start
(3) Program
(4) Control Panel
(5) None of these
190. In Excel, Charts are created using which option ?
(1) Chart Wizard
(2) Pivot Table
(3) Pie Chart

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(4) Bar Chart
(5) None of these
191. Marketing is a function undertaken by .
(1) AllDSA's
(2) All front-office staff
(3) Whole organisation
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
192. Non-product selling menas .
(1) selling variety of products
(2) selling only one product
(3) selling seasonal products
(4) selling services
(5) All of these
193. A vision statements is .
(1) not required for established companies
(2) not required due to competition
(3) not required as no one understands them
(4) a long term Inspiration
(5) None of these
194. Effective Bank Marketing requires .
(1) proper pricing
(2) customized products
(3) simple procedures
(4) market research
(5) All of these
195. Direct Marketing means .
(1) Face-to-face marketing
(2) Melas
(3) Seminars
(4) Indoor marketing
(5) Online marketing
196. Indirect Marketing means .
(1) Marketing by non-sales persons
(2) Market Survey
(3) Market Research

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(4) Advertisements
(5) All of these
197. Marketing is - Find the wrong option .
(1) an ancient concept
(2) a modern need
(3) a continuous affair
(4) a team effort
(5) a direct need for survival
198. Customer's Relationship with the Bank is influenced by .
(1) Customers' attitudes
(2) Attitudes of Bank staff
(3) Interest rates of the Bank
(4) Attitudes of sales persons
(5) All of these
199. Marketing is best suited in _.
(1) Buyer's market
(2) Sellers' market
(3) Internal marketing
(4) Direct marketing
(5) None of these
200. Delivery channels other than Bank counters are .
(1) ATM's
(2) Internet Banking
(3) Mobile Banking ' '
(4) Tele banking
(5) All of these

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SBI Clerk Exam Paper - 2008

:: GENERAL AWARENESS ::
1. Which among the following activities cannot be considered a
common activity of a general Bank customer?
1) Use of tele-banking
2) Use of ATMs
3) Start of EFT facility
4) Use of Banker's cheque
5) Increase or decrease in PLR and announcement of credit policy
2. Who amongst the following is the author of the book "The Future of Freedom" published recently?
1) Peter Hudson
2) Richard Wolfee
3) Tamara Lipper
4) Fared Zakaria
5) None of these
3. Indian Constitution has given some liberties to its citizens. Which of the following is NOT TRUE
about it. Citizen is free to the liberty of
1) his expression and speech
2) to gather peacefully without arms
3) to purchase land and property in any party of the country
4) to do business in any trade in the list prepared by Indian Government
5) to form associations or unions
4. According to "India Vision 2020", India is trying to give full employment till 2020. Then how many
employments should be created every year?
1) One million
2) Two million
3) Five million
4) Ten million
5) None of these
5. High rates of interest in a low inflation regime1) attract people to make more and more investments
2) discourage people to make an investment
3) create atmosphere for capital formation

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4) are not favourable for credit expansion
5) None of these
6. For the distinguished work in which field 'Kalidas Samman' is presented?
1) Games and Sports
2) Science and Technology
3) Music
4) Social Service
5) None of these
7. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) has been raised recently by Reserve Bank of India (RBI). what is the
rule of CRR in the country's economy especially in Banking Sector?
A. It helps to control the inflation
B. It plays a great role in Banking Sector
C. It plays a great role for banks in the Interest rates
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only A and B
4) Only C
5) All A, B and C
8. A resident Indian wishes to invest some money in a foreign company who does not have any
office/representative in India. What are the options available to him/her? Pick up the best option.
A. Open of foreign currency account in a bank in that country
B. Send the money to some one known to him/her in that country
C. Open account in a foreign bank in India whose branch is in that country
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only A and C
4) Only A and B
5) None of these
9. What are the options available to a foreign bank willing to enter the Indian Market?
A. Open a branch in India.
B. Launch a wholly-owned subsidiary
C. Acquire upto 90 percent stake in a private sector bank
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only A and C
4) Only A and B
5) None of these

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10. As per the reports published in the newspapers the E-Commerce is growing very fast. Which of
the following is most preferred? (Pick up the area which is attracting maximum clientele.)
1) Travel & Ticket
2) Gifts
3) Jobsites
4) Books
5) None of these
11. Which of the following sectors is NOT considered 'Infrastructure Sector"?
1) Software
2) Cement
3) Petroleum
4) Steel
5) Power Generation
12. Which among the following terms is not related to Banking?
1) Cash Reserve Ratio
2) Currency Exchange
3) Zero Hour
4) Bank Rate
5) Repo Rate
13. Formation of several Advisory Committees of the Parliament was in the news recently. Who
among the following forms the Advisory Committees?
1) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
2) Vice-President of India
3) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
4) President of India
5) None of these
14. Which among the following is an international River?
1) Brahmaputra
2) Cauvery
3) Krishna
4) Narmada
5) Mahanadi
15. The 'Maiti Movement' a movement to promote the habit of cultivation, is initiated by the women
folk of
1) Uttarakhand
2) Himachal Pradesh
3) Uttar Pradesh

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4) Punjab
5) West Bengal
16. Which of the following is considered one of the major reasons of Global Warming or heating of Earth's
surface which is at increase these days?
1) Distance between the Sun and Earth has reduced by about 45,000 kms. in the last 1000 years
2) A big unidentified celestial object is approaching Earth very fast. The radiation from it is making the
Earth's surface warmer
3) Carbon pollution from fossil fuels traps the Sun's heat instead of letting it radiate back safely out into
space
4) Sun has become slightly cooler by several degrees centigrade and is not able to reabsorb the heat radiation
back as it used to do earlier
5) None of these
17. As per the reports published in the newspapers the average price to Earnings (P/E) Ratio has
fallen down in past few days. This implies that
1) investors are willing to pay much less for equity now
2) investors are willing to pay more for equity now
3) investors are not in mood to invest in equity now
4) investors want to withdraw their investment in equity with immediate effect
5) None of these
18. Which of the following organisations/ banks has created a Rs. 50,000/- crores Rural Development
Fund known as Lok Nayak Jayaprakash Narayan Fund?
1) State Bank of India
2) ICICI Bank
3) NABARD
4) SIDBI
5) UTI
19. At which place representatives of around 50 countries met in November 2007 to revive the IsraelPalestinian peace process and deal with other sources of tension in West Asia?
1) Helsinki
2) Annapolis
3) Sichuan
4) Berne
5) None of these
20. Who among the following was made the chairman of the newly constituted 13th Finance
Commission recently?
1) Kamalesh Sharma
2) M Sundaram
3) Vijay L. Kelkar

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4) Arun Bhatnagar
5) None of these
21. Ms. Zhang Zilin was crowned Miss World 2007 in December 2007 in the beauty peagent held in
Sanya. Ms. Zilin is native of
1) Angola
2) Mexico
3) Phillippines
4) Ecuador
5) China
22. The pilot and commander of B-29 that dropped the atomic bomb on Hiroshima, Japan during
Second World War died recently in USA. He was
1) Paul Tibbets
2) Joseph Stewart
3) Robert Maxwell
4) Brad Wikinson
5) None of these
23. Danilo Turk defeated his rival former Prime Minister Lojze Peterle in the elections held recently
to become the third President of which country
1) Venezuela
2) Slovenia
3) Chile
4) Bolivia
5) Taiwan
24. India won the Kabaddi gold in the Asian Indoor Games held in Macau in November 2007
defeating
1) Iran
2) Bangladesh
3) Sri Lanka
4) Pakistan
5) None of these
25. Who among the following was the chief guest at the Republic Day Celebrations in January 2008 at
New Delhi?
1) Saudi King Abdullah
2) Johan Howard
3) Nicholas Sarkozy
4) Vladimir putin
5) None of these

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26. Which of the following film was adjudged the best film at the 18th Stockholm International Film
Festival in November 2007?
1) 4 months 3 Weeks and 2 Days
2) Expired
3) Taxi Driver
4) American Gigolo
5) None of these
27. Who among the following is the author of the book titled "The Age of Turbulence: Adventure in a
New World"?
1) Vaclav Havel
2) Ismat Chugtai
3) Phillips Talbot
4) Allan Greenspan
5) None of these
28. Consider the following statements about the 'World Energy Outlook 2007' released recently?
A. consumption of coal in India as a generator of energy will nearly triple by 2030.
B. Before 2050, India will overtake Japan as the world's third largest net importer of oil, after the US and
China.
C. By 2015, India will become the third largest emitter of carbon dioxide.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1) Only A and C
2) Only B and C
3) Only A and B
4) Only C
5) All A, B and C
29. India occupies the 128th place in the Human Development Index rankings which was released in
November 2007 in New Delhi. What the position of India in the HDI rankings in 2006?
1) 128th
2) 134th
3) 124th
4) 136th
5) 126th
30. Roger Federer of Switzerland was named the ITF World Champion for 2007 recently, becoming
only the second player to win the honour for four straight years. The first player to accomplish this
feat was
1) Pete Sampras
2) Ivan Lendl
3) Mats Wilander

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4) Boris Becker
5) None of these
31. The 4400 year old Chinese city, the capital of China's oldest Liangzhu culture, was dug up by
archaeologists recently. It is located in the province of
1) Xiang
2) Shadong
3) Sichuan
4) Zhejiang
5) None of these
32. Which of the following car companies in India announced a special savings scheme 'Happy
Customer Offer' recently?
1) Hindustan Motors
2) Maruti Suzuki
3) Skoda
4) Ford
5) None of these
33. KV Kamath was named 'Businessman of the Year 2007' by Forbes Asia recently. He is associated
with which of the following business establishments?
1) Satyam Computers
2) ICICI Bank
3) HDFC Bank
4) Maruti Suzuki
5) None of these
34. The five days excercise condenamed 'Hand-in-Hand 2007' the first ever Sino-India joint military
exercise held recently at
1) Jaisalmer
2) Kunming
3) Leipiz
4) Hubiz
5) None of these
35. In which of the following countries people voted in first ever democratic elections recently?
1) Congo
2) Slovenia
3) Bhutan
4) Nepal
5) None of these
36. Services beat Punjab at the 58th National Basketball championship in Puducherry recently to lift
the Todd Memorial Trophy for the ...... time

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1) 28th
2) 30th
3) 29th
4) 26th
5) 27th
37. The scientists of which of the following universities have identified silenced genes which play a
profound role in people's health?
1) Manchester University
2) Leichestor University
3) Duke University
4) Houston University
5) None of these
38. Recently a comprehensive scheme for the prevention of trafficking and rescue, rehabilitation and
reintegration of the victims of the commercial sex exploitation was drafted by the Union Women and
Child Development Ministry. The scheme has been named
1) Swapna
2) Laadli
3) Kanchan
4) Ujjawala
5) None of these
39. The Hindu Rights Action Force (Hindraf) was in news recently. In which of the following countries
it is active?
1) Malaysia
2) Nepal
3) Sudan
4) Fiji
5) None of these
40. Which of the following Indian Oil exploration companies became the only Indian company to
enter the list of world's most admired firms compiled by the Fortune magazine and global consultancy
firm Hay Group?
1) Oil India Limited
2) Indian Oil Corporation
3) Hindustan Petroleum
4) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
5) Bharat Petroleum

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:: ENGLISH LANGUAGE ::
Directions (41 - 55): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
works/expressions are given in bold in the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Radically changing monsoon patterns, reduction in the winter rice harvest and a quantum increase in
respiratory diseases all part of the environmental doomsday scenario which is reportedly playing out in South
Asia. According to a United Nations Environment Programme report, a deadly three km deep blatant of
pollution comprising a fearsome cocktail of ash, acids, aerosols and other particles has enveloped this region.
For India, already struggling to cope with a drought, the implications of this are devasting and further crop
failure will amount to a life and death question for many Indians. The increase in premature deaths will have
adverse social and economic consequence and a rise in morbidities will place an unbearable burden on our
crumbling health system. And there is no one to blame but ourselves. Both official and corporate India has
always been allergic to any mention of clean technology. most mechanical two wheelers roll off the assembly
line without proper pollution control systems. Little effort is made R & D on simple technologies, which could
make a vital difference to people's lives and the environment.
However, while there is no denying that South Asia must clean up its act, sceptics might questions the timing
of the haze report. The johannesburg meet on rio +10 is just two weeks away and the staze is set for the usual
battle between the developing world and the West, particularly the U.S. President Mr. Bush has admantly
refused to sign any protocol, which would mean a change in American consumption. U.N. environment report
will likely find a place in the U.S. arsenal as it points an accruing finger countries like India and China. yet
the U.S. can hardly deny is own dubious role in the matter of erasing trading quotas. Richer countries can
simply buy up excess credits from poorer countries and continue to pollute. Rather than try to get the better of
developing countries, who undoubtedly have taken up environmental shortcuts in their bid to catch up with
the West, the U.S. should take a look at the environment profligacy, which is going on within. From opening
up virgin territories for oil exploration to relaxing the standards for drinking water. Mr. Bush's policies are not
exactly beneficial- not even to Americans we realise that we are all in this together and that pollution anywhere
should be a global concern only be more tunnels at the end of the tunnel.
41. Both official and corporate India is allergic to
1) failure of monsoon
2) poverty and inequality
3) slowdown in industrial product
4) mention of clean technology
5) crop failure
42. Which, according to the passage, is a life and death question to many Indians?
1) Increase in respiratory diseases
2) Use of clean technology
3) Thick blanket of pollution over the region
4) Failure in crops
5) Dwindling agricultural yield
43. If the rate of premature deaths increases it will-

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1) exert added burden on our crumbling economy
2) have adverse social and economic consequences
3) make positive effect on our efforts to control population
4) have less aspirants in the society
5) have healthy effect on our economy
44. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning to the work 'profligacy' as used in the passage.
1) wastefulness
2) conservation
3) upliftment
4) criticalness
5) denouncement
45. According to the passage, India cannot tolerate any further1) crop failure
2) deterioration of health care system
3) increase in respiratory diseases
4) proliferation of nuclear devises
5) social and economic consequences
46. According to the passage, two wheeler industry is not adequately concerned about...
1) passenger safety on the roads
2) life cover insurance of the vehicle owners
3) pollution control systems in the vehicles
4) rising cost of the two wheelers
5) rising cost of the petrol in the country
47. What could be the reason behind timing of the haze report just before the Johannesburg meet, as
indicated in the passage?
1) United Nations is working hand-inglobe with the U.S.
2) Organizers of the forthcoming meet to teach a lesson to the U.S.
3) Drawing attentions of the world towards devastating effects of environmental degradation.
4) U.S. wants to use it as a handle against the developing countries in the forthcoming meet
5) The meet is a part of political agenda of the U.N.
48. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'allergic' as used in the passage.
1) liking
2) passionate
3) possessive
4) crumbling
5) repugnant
49. Which of the following is the indication of environmental degradation in South Asia?

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1) Social and economic inequality
2) Crumbling health care system
3) Inadequate pollution control system
4) Over emphasis on technology
5) Radically changing monsoon pattern
50. What must we realise, according to the passage?
1) No country should show superiority over other countries
2) U.N. is putting in hard efforts in the direction of pollution control
3) All countries must join hands in fighting pollution
4) Nobody should travel through tunnel to avoid health hazards
5) We all must strive hard to increase agricultural production
51. which of the following finds place in the United Nations Environment Programme Report
1) Changing monsoon patterns
2) Substantial increase in respiratory diseases
3) A serious cover of pollution over the region
4) Reduction in winter rice harvest
5) None of these
52. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?
1) U.N. environment report blames countries like India and China
2) Developing countries have taken environmental shortcuts in their bid to catch up with west
3) U.S. is also to be blamed for environmental degradation and pollution
4) Indians cannot afford to have any further crop failure
5) U.S. has tightened safety standards for drinking water
53. According to the passage, Johannesburg meet is going to witness...
1) calm and dispassionate thinking on the issue of pollution control
2) a blaming game between developed and developing countries
3) refusal of U.N. to work as arbitrator
4) U.S. agreeing to look at the issue of lowering its consumption
5) countries agreeing for higher monetary allocation to R & D
54. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'dubious' as used in the
passage?
1) unquestionable
2) dissimilar
3) illegal
4) antisocial
5) innovative
55. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'morbidity' as used in the
passage.

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1) powerfulness
2) healthiness
3) softness
4) acuteness
5) purposeful
Directions (56 - 65): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error,
the answer is (5), (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
56. This facts make it very clear (1)/ that he had a hand in the murder (2)/ though he still (3)/ pleads
innocence. (4)/ No error (5)
57. A nationwide survey (1)/ has brought out an (2)/ interesting finding (3)/ regarding infant mortality
rate in India. (4)/ No error (5)
58. Gangotri has a special significance (1)/ for the devout (2)/ as it is considered as (3)/ the abode of
king Bhagirath who bought the Ganga down to the earth. (4)/ No error (5)
59. The recent study has (1)/ indicated that there (2)/ is perceptible change in (3)/ the attitudes of the
people (4)/ No error (5)
60. The disclosure of (1)/ the synopsis of Thakkar Commission Report (2)/ on the assassination of Mrs.
Indira Gandhi (3)/ has raised several vital questions. (4) No error (5)
61. He did not go (1)/ to the city on foot, (2)/ he go there (3)/ by train. (4) No error (5)
62. It being a rainy day (1)/ we will decide not to go out (2)/ but to stay at home (3)? and watch a
movie. (4)/ No error (5)
63. By all standards (1)/ he is the best soldier (2)/ our military school (3)/ will produce so far. (4)/ No
error (5)
64. As I was reach (1)/ early I left in an aeroplane (2)/ instead of (3)/ going by train. (4)/ No error (5)
65. On my request (1)/ Lalit introduced me (2)/ to his friend (3)/ who is singer and a scientist. (4)/ No
error (5).
Directions (66 - 70): Which of the following phrases at (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the
phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct,
if the sentence is correct as it is and 'No correction' required and (5) as the answer.
66. If the evidence bear out the charge, he may be sentenced to death.
1) bears out
2) bore out
3) was born out
4) has borne out
5) No correction required

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67. He has to liaise direct with the politics while writing the report.
1) liaised direct
2) to liaise directly
3) to liaise direct
4) to liaise directed
5) No correction required
68. The rise in unemployment is parallel by an increase in petty crime.
1) was parallel by
2) will be parallel by
3) is paralleled by
4) is paralleled with
5) No correction required
69. He has a chance redeem him after last week's mistake.
1) to redeem him
2) to redeem
3) redeem himself
4) to redeem himself
5) No correction required
70. We shall eat some now and save some for tomorrow.
1) now some and save some
2) now some and some save
3) some and save
4) some now or save some
5) No correction required
Directions (71 - 75): In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been
printed of which one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are
correctly spelt mark (5) i.e. 'All correct' as the answer.
71.
1) Reverence
2) Heavenly
3) Elsewhere
4) Celebrate
5) All correct
72.
1) Admirable
2) Mingle
3) Instinctively

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4) Accomplishment
5) All correct
73.
1) Opportunity
2) Lethargy
3) Procrastination
4) Bereavement
5) All correct
74.
1) Discouraged
2) Proceeding
3) Disastrous
4) Innocent
5) All correct
75.
1) Friendship
2) Soldeir
3) Grandeur
4) Familiar
5) All correct
Directions (76 - 80): In each of the following questions there is a sentence with a pair of blank spaces,
followed by five pair of words. Choose the pair that can fill up the blanks in the same order. The number of
that pair is your answer.
76. Handicrafts constitute an important ...... of the decentralised sector of India's economy and ......
employment to over six million artisans.
1) factors -aims
2) extension - plans
3) segment -provides
4) supplier - gives
5) period - projects
77. Among a number of hobbies that one can ......, the hobby of reading is the most useful and ......
1) develops - accumulative
2) cultivates - enlightened
3) nourish -cumulative
4) absorbs - durable
5) considers - appreciative

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78. The quality of ......between individuals and the organisation for which they work can be ...... to the
benefit of both the parties.
1) services -evaluated
2) interaction - improved
3) sophistication - developed
4) work - appreciated
5) life - conceptualised
79. Part of the confusion in our societies ......... from our pursuit of efficiency and economic growth, in
the ..... that these are the necessary ingredients of progress.
1) stems -conviction
2) derives - evaluation
3) emerges - consideration
4) obtains - exploration
5) extends - planning
80. The problem of housing shortage ......... with the population explosion has also been ......... by this
policy.
1) coped - highlighted
2) dispensed - acknowledged
3) compounded - addressed
4) threatened - manifested
5) projected - discussed

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:: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE ::
Directions (81 - 90): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

1) 5.55
2) 6.27
3) 6.03
4) 6.13
5) None of these
82. 7275.84 - 889.4 + 124.518 = ?
1) 6550.202
2) 6560.598
3) 6550.958
4) 6510.958
5) None of these

5) None of these
84. 18800 470 20 = ?
1) 800
2) 2
3) 23.5
4) 0.10
5) None of these

1) 1936
2) 4624
3) 4196
4) 4096
5) None of these

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86. 777.07 + 77.77 + 0.77 + 7.07 + 7 + 77 = ?
1) 946.78
2) 946.68
3) 964.68
4) 946.86
5) None of these
87. 0.04 ? = 0.000016
1) 4
2) 0.04
3) 0.0004
4) 400
5) None of these
88. 35% of 160 + ?% of 180 = 50% of 310
1) 35
2) 45
3) 65
4) 55
5) None of these

1) 1/16
2)1/4
3) 3
4) 1
5) None of these
90. 0.99 14 11 0.7 = ?
1) 18
2) 180
3) 1.8
4) 1800
5) None of these
Directions (91 - 95): Read the following information carefully to answer these questions. These statistical
data were collected in the year 2005. Hamirpur in Gujarat is a small township with a population of 75000.
40% of the population belongs to the above 35 age category. The ratio of males to females is 1 : 1.5. Past
records indicate that the population in Hamirpur grows at an annual rate of 7%. The total cultivable area in
Hamirpur is 2 Lakh acres. Paddy is the major crop of Hamirpur and has shown average productivity levels
of 2.5 tonnes per acre. Hamirpur receives about 10 inches of rainfall in a normal monsoon year.

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91. The number of people in Hamirpur below the age of 35 is
1) 41000
2) 42000
3) 45000
4) 43000
5) 44000
92. The number of males in Hamirpur is greater/lesser than the number of females by
1) Lesser by 15,000
2) Greater by 15000
3) Greater by 10000
4) Lesser by 10000
5) None of these
93. If the ratio of males to females in 2006 remains the same as that in 2005, then the number of males
in 2006 would be
1) 30600
2) 32100
3) 31500
4) 32700
5) 33000
94. What would be the population of Hamirpur in 2007?
1) 85000
2) 84750
3) 83900
4) 85870
5) 86850
95. If in 2005, only 60% of the average productivity were attained, then the total paddy production of
Hamirpur would be
1) 2.6 Lakh tonnes
2) 3.0 lakh tonnes
3) 2.8 lakh tonnes
4) 3.3 lakh tonnes
5) 3.6 lakh tonnes
Directions (96 - 100): In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out that wrong
number.
96. 2 11 38 197 1172 8227 65806
1) 11
2) 38

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3) 197
4) 1172
5) 8227
97. 16 19 21 30 46 71 107
1) 19
2) 21
3) 30
4) 46
5) 71
98. 7 9 16 25 41 68 107 173
1) 107
2) 16
3) 41
4) 68
5) 25
99. 4 2 3.5 7.5 26.25 118.125
1) 118.125
2) 26.25
3) 3.5
4)2
5) 7.5
100. 16 4 2 1.5 1.75 1.875
1) 1.875
2) 1.75
3) 1.5
4) 2
5) 4
Directions (101 - 105): Find out the approximate value which should replace the question mark (?) in the
following questions. (You are not expected to find out the exact value)

1) 1.9
2) 3
3) 2.99
4) 3.6
5) 2.7

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1) 2500
2) 1230
3) 1640
4) 1525
5) 2130
103. 0.0004 + 0.0001 36.000009 = ?
1) 0.10
2) 1.45
3) 145
4) 14.5
5) 1450
104. 137% of 12345? = ?
1) 17000
2) 15000
3) 1500
4) 14300
5) 900
105. 3739 + 164 27 = ?
1) 105400
2) 4000
3) 8200
4) 690
5) 6300
Directions (106 - 110): Study the following to answer the given question percentage of Marks obtained by
Seven students in six Subjects.

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106. What are the total marks obtained by Meera in all the subjects?
1) 448
2) 580
3) 470
4) 74.67
5) None of these
107. What are the average marks obtained by these seven students in History? (rounded off to two
digits)
1) 72.86
2) 27.32
3) 24.86
4) 29.14
5) None of these
108. How many students have got 60% or more marks in all the subjects?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) None
5) None of these
109. What is the overall percentage of Kunal?
1) 64
2) 65
3) 75

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4) 64.24
5) None of these
110. In which subject is the overall percentage the best?
1) Maths
2) Economics
3) History
4) Science
5) None of these
111. What approximate value should come in place of (?) in the following equation?
9876 24.96 + 215.005 - ? = 309.99
1) 395
2) 295
3) 300
4) 315
5) 310
112. Average weight of three boys P, T and R is 163/3 Kgs while the average weight of three boys, T, F
and G is 53 Kgs. What is the average weight of P, T, R, F and H?
1) 53.8 kgs
2) 52.4 kgs
3) 53.2 kgs.
4) Can't be determined
5) None of these
113. Sudhanshu invested Rs.15,000 at interest @ 10 p.c.p.a. for one year. If the interest is compounded
every six months what amount will Sudhanshu get at the end of the year?
1) Rs. 16,537.50
2) Rs. 16,500
3) Rs. 16,525.50
4) Rs. 18,150
5) None of these
114. Ratio of the earnings of A and B is 4 : 7 respectively. If the earnings of A increase by 50% and the
earnings of B decreases by 25% the new ratio of their earnings becomes 8 : 7 respectively. What are
A's earnings?
1) Rs. 26,000
2) Rs. 28,000
3) Rs. 21,000
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

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115. The wheat sold by a grocer contained 10% low quality wheat. What quantity of good quality
wheat should be added to 150 kgs. of wheat so that the percentage of low quality wheat becomes 5%?
1) 150 Kgs.
2) 135 Kgs.
3) 50 Kgs.
4) 85 Kgs.
5) None of these
Directions (121 - 125): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Account of income and expenditure (in crores) of seven companies in the year 2007

116. Approximately what is the percentage of profit/loss that companies C and D had together?
1) 10% profit
2) 12% profit
3) 10% loss
4) 12% loss
5) There was no loss or profit

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117. If the income of Company Ahad increased by 10% in year 2007 from year 2006 and profit earned
in 2006 was 20% what was its expenditure in 2006? (The value upto two decimal places in crores)
1) 36.36
2) 32.32
3) 30.30
4) Can't be determined
5) None of these
118. If the expenditure of Company G in 2007 was 20% more than its expenditure in the year 2006
and the Company has earned a profit of 10% in 2006. What was the company income in 2006 in
crores Rs.?
1) 37.5
2) 41.25
3) 34.09
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
119. Which of the following Companies had the highest percentage of profit/loss in 2007?
1)B
2)C
3)F
4)A
5) None of these
120. What is the approximate percentage of profit earned by all the Companies together in 2007?
1) 11
2) 11.5
3) 10.5
4) 12
5) 12.5

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:: REASONING ABILITY ::
121. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
1) Bat
2) Spider
3) Mosquito
4) Butterfly
5) Cockroach
122. Akshay is 16th from the left end in the row of boys and Vijay is 18th from the right end. Avinash
is 11th from Akshay towards the right end and 3rd from Vijay towards the right end. How many boys
are there in the row?
1) Data inadequate
2) 42
3) 40
4) 48
5) None of these
123. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ''CHILDREN" each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet?
1) 3
2) 5
3) 4
4) 2
5) None of these
124. Pointing to the lady in the Photograph, Mrinalini said, ''Her son's father is the only son-in-law of
my mother". How is Mrinalini related to the lady?
1) Sister
2) Mother
3) Cousin
4) Aunt
5) None of these
125. In a certain code 'MOTHER' is written as OMHURF. How will 'ANSWER' be written in that
code?
1) NBWRRF
2) MAVSPE
3) NBWTRD
4) NBXSSE
5) None of these

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Directions (126 - 130): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
B, M, T, R, K, H and D are travelling in a train compartment with II-tier sleeper berth. Each of them has a
different profession of Engineer, Doctor, Architect, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Journalist and Pathologist. They
occupied two lower berths, three middle berths and two upper berths. B, the Engineer is not on the upper
berth. The Architect is the only other person who occupies the same type of berth as that of B. M and H are
not on the middle berth and their professions are Pathologist and Lawyer respectively. T is a Pharmacist, D
is neither a Journalist nor an Architect. K occupies same type of berth as that of the Doctor.
126. What is D's profession?
1) Doctor
2) Engineer
3) Lawyer
4) Pharmacist
5) Data inadequate
127. Which of the following group occupies middle berth?
1) DKR
2) DHT
3) HKT
4) DKT
5) None of these
128. Which of the following combinations of person-berth-profession is correct?
1) R-Lower-Journalist
2) R-Lower-Architect
3) D-Upper-Doctor
4) K-Upper-Lawyer
5) All correct
129. Which of the following pairs occupy the lower berth?
1) BD
2) BK
3) BT
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
130. Who is the Architect?
1) D
2) H
3) R
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

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131. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, the fifth, the seventh and the tenth
letters of the word 'OUTRAGEOUS', which of the following will be the second letter of that word? It
more than one such word can be formed, give 'X' as the answer and if no such word can be formed,
give 'Y' as the answer.
1) E
2) A
3) S
4) Y
5)X
132. The positions of the first and the second digits in the number 7986032451 are interchanged.
Similarly the positions of the third and fourth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the
following will be the fifth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
1) 3
2) 6
3) 4
4) 0
5) None of these

134. If the letters of the word ''PRINCE" rearranged as they appear in the English alphabet, the
position of how many letters will remain unchanged after the rearrangement?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
135. If 'A B' means A is father of B', 'A B' means 'A is mother of B' and 'A # B' means 'A is
husband of B' then which of the following means 'P is grandson of Q'?
1) Q # R S P
2) Q N P # R
3) Q L # N P
4) P # N M Q
5) None of these
Directions (136 - 140): In the following questions, the symbols
following meaning as illustrated below:

, $, %, @ and # are used with the

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'P @ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'
'P $ Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'
'P # Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
'P Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'
'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.
136. Statements: J # R, R % K, K @ D
Conclusions: 1. K @ J II. D @ J
137. Statements: M

T, K % T, K @ N

Conclusions: I. N % M II. K % M
138. Statements: V $ D, D

R, R % F

Conclusions: I. R & V II. V @ F

139. Statements: B @ E, E # S, S $ Z
Conclusions: I. Z @ E II. E # Z
140. Statements: H % M, N M, N $ T
Conclusions: I. H $ T II. H % T
Directions (141 - 145): Answer the questions given below referring to the following arrangement:
JR3PL2# IN7OC@K5D=M$6B<AQ4
141. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as regards their position in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) 2 3 #
2) O I C
3) K O 5
4) # P I
5) B $ <
142. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement?

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PRJ#L3712@ON?
1) D K C
2) 5 @ O
3) D K @
4) = 5 @
5) None of these
143. If the above series is re-arranged in the reverse order, which will be the eleventh element to the
left to the sixteenth element's from the left end?
1) J
2) 6
3) B
4) <
5) None of these
144. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a symbol?
1) None
2) Two
3) Four
4) Three
5) None of these
145. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a number and immediately followedby a consonant?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) More than three
5) None
Directions (146 - 150): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
146. Statements: All flowers are rooms
Some rooms are windows
All cards are windows
Conclusions: I. Some cards are flowers
II. Some cards are rooms
III. Some windows are flowers
IV. All cards are rooms

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1) None follows
2) Only II follows
3) Only I follows
4) Only III follows
5) Only IV follows
147. Statements: All males are wolves
All owls are males
All parrots are owls
Conclusions: I. All wolves are owls
II. All owls are wolves
III. All parrots are wolves
IV. All parrots are males
1) All follow
2) Only III and IV follow
3) Only II, III follow
4) Only II, III and IV follow
5) None of these
148. Statements: Some leaves are skies
All skies are clouds
No cloud is a boat
Conclusions: I. Some boats are leaves
II. Some skies are leaves
III. All skies are leaves
IV. No leaf is a boat
1) Only I, II and IV follow
2) Only II, III and IV follow
3) Either I or IV and II follow
4) Either I or IV and III follow
5) None of these
149. Statements: No building is white
All whites are oranges
Some oranges are waters
Conclusions: I. No building is water
II. No oranges are building
III. Some oranges are whites
IV. Some waters are building
1) Either I or IV and II follow
2) Either I or IV and III follow
3) Either I or IV follow

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4) None follows
5) Either I or IV and II and III follow
150. Statements: Some mangoes are apples
Some bananas are apples
Some branches are bananas
Conclusions: I. Some mangoes are bananas
II. Some branches are apples
III. Some branches are mangoes
IV. All apples are mangoes
1) None follows
2) Only I and II follow
3) Only III and IV follow
4) Only I and IV follow
5) All follow
Directions (151 - 155): Following is given a set of digits and the corresponding letter code of each digit
followed by certain conditions for coding.

In each question one number consisting six digits followed by four combinations of letter codes. You have
to find out which of the combination of letter codes represents the set of digits based on the above codes and
the conditions given below and mark your answer accordingly. Otherwise give answer (5), i.e. None of
these.
Conditions: (i) If both the first and the last digits of the number are odd digits then both are to be coded as I.
(ii) If both the first and last digits of the number are even digits then both are to be coded as Y.
151. 726395
1) IMDNWI
2) YMDNWY
3) TMDNWR
4) IMDNWR
5) None of these
152. 263847
1) IDNBKI
2) YDNBKY
3) IDNBKY
4) MDNBKY
5) None of these

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153. 591248
1) IWJMKB
2) RWJMKY
3) YWJMKY
4) RWJMKB
5) None of these
154. 615824
1) IJRBMI
2) IJRBMY
3) YJRBMY
4) DJRBMK
5) None of these
155. 831795
1) INJTWR
2) BNJTWR
3) BNJTWY
4) YNJYWY
5) None of these\
Directionss (156 - 160): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures should
come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued?

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:: MARKETING / COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE ::

161. Marketing is
1) Consumer oriented
2) Competitors oriented
3) Producer oriented
4) Both (I) and (2)
5) Both (2) and (3)
162. Warehousing Management does not include
1) Space determination
2) Stock layout
3) Stock design
4) Stock placement
5) Order picking procedure
163. A marketing technique where marketer plays a specific role in a particular segment is called
1) Mass marketing
2) Niche marketing
3) Strategic marketing
4) Modelling
5) Communication marketing
164. In the case of such goods where consumer normally compares price, quality delivery etc. are
called
1) Shopping goods
2) Speciality goods
3) Staple goods
4) Derived demand
5) Luxury goods
165. Which among the following is not an example of convenience goods?
1) Tea
2) Coffee
3) Soap
4) Tooth paste
5) Umbrella in rainy season
166. Vegetable market in India is nearly an example of
1) Perfect Competition
2) Monopoly
3) Oligopoly

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4) Imperfect Competition
5) High Monopoly
167. In marketing Mix 4 P's imply
1) Product, Price, Place, Promotion
2) Product, Price, Policy, Place
3) Product, Place, Promotion, Policy
4) Place, People, Product, Policy
5) Promotion, Product, Price, People
168. A bed in a hotel for night haulting is an example of
1) Core Product
2) Augmented Product
3) Expected Product
4) Potential Product
5) Main Product
169. Marketing Planning helps in
1) avoiding future uncertainties
2) achieving objectives
3) control
4) Complete satisfaction
5) All of the above
170. Which among the following is not a tool for Marketing Planning appraisal?
1) External appraisal
2) Internal appraisal
3) Gap analysis
4) SWOT analysis
5) PCOT analysis
171. In market segmentation, which among the following is not an Economic Component?
1) Age
2) Sex
3) Both (1) and (2)
4) Income level
5) Taxes
172. A defence strategy of identifying weakness in the competitor and aggressively going after that
market niche is called
1) Pre-emptive
2) Counter offensive
3) Mobile defence

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4) Position defence
5) Flanking defence
173. when a firm sells off part of its business to another organisation, it is called
1) Diversification
2) Divestment
3) Pruning
4) Strategy
5) Joint venture
174. The research which is basically concerned with establishing cause and effect relationship, is
called
1) Diversified Research
2) Technical Research
3) Casual Research
4) Predictive Research
5) Exploratory Research
175. ACE provides door-to-door service for Godrej and Mc Donald products, it is an example of
1) Third Party delivery
2) First party delivery
3) Multi-Channel delivery
4) Diversified Marketing
5) Horizontal Marketing
176. The goods which are used for further production are called
1) Durable goods
2) Market goods
3) Derived goods
4) Consumer goods
5) Capital goods
177. Which among the following a fixed expense in Sales Budget?
1) Incentives
2) Rent
3) Communication Expense
4) Commission
5) Awards
178. Which among the following is a feature of good forecasting method?
1) Accuracy
2) Simplicity
3) Economy

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4) Availability
5) All of the above
179. A person who ultimately determines any part or whole of the buying decision is called
1) Decider
2) Buyer
3) User
4) Influencer
5) Initiator
180. A package which has a secondary usefulness after its contents have been consumed, is called
1) Dual use Package
2) Bulk Package
3) Both (1) and (2)
4) Consumer Package
5) Industrial Package
181. The hardware device that acts as both a switching and connecting unit is called a(n)
1) RS-232 C Port
2) Concentrator
3) Multiplexer
4) Communication processor
5) None of these
182. The device that assembles groups of characters into complete messages prior to their entering the
CPU is called
1) An Interpreter
2) A compiler
3) A communication processor
4) An Editor
5) A Translator
183. Application Software
1) is used to control the operating system
2) is designed to help programmers
3) performs specific task for computer users
4) is used for making design only
5) All of the above
184. Data structure include
1) Array
2) Execution statement
3) Interaction

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4) Both (2) and (3)
5) List
185. What is name of the logic circuit which can add two binary digits
1) half adder
2) full adder
3) parallel adder
4) serial adder
5) None of these
186. A program embedded in a semiconductor chip during their manufacture is called
1) humanware
2) firmware
3) liveware
4) hardware
5) software
187. The person contributing the idea for the stored program was
1) John Neumann
2) Charles Babbage
3) Howard Aiken
4) Daniel Thomas
5) Dennis Ritenie\
188. A collection of related fields in data organisation is called
1) Group
2) File
3) Information
4) Register
5) Record
189. Plotter accuracy is measured in terms of repeatability and
1) Vertical dimension
2) Intelligence
3) Resolution
4) Pixels
5) Buffer size
190. The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called
1) Bandwidth
2) Interlacing
3) Response time

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4) Scanning
5) Maximum speed
191. The dbase III plus is mostly used for
1) Office automation
2) Database management problems
3) Scientific problems
4) Calculations only
5) None of these
192. In the "C" language the function scanf ( ) reads
1) single character
2) character and strings
3) any possible number
4) any possible variable type
5) limited variable types
193. BIOS stands for
1) Basic Input Output Service
2) Basic Inner Outer Service
3) Better Input Output Services
4) Better Inner and Outer Services
5) None of these
194. A commonly used graphic format for the web is
1) GIF
2) bmp
3) text
4) lmp
5) TIF
195. The HTML code written in a text editor to make web-pages, is
1) HTML coding tags
2) source code
3) source element
4) tags
5) None of these
196. The basic building block of a database that contains related records is
1) Query
2) Form
3) Table

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4) Edited page
5) Report
197. A set of rules that computer on a network use to communicate with each other are called
1) Rules
2) Regulations
3) Protocol
4) Netiquettes
5) None of these
198. The process of connecting to the Internet account is
1) LOG IN
2) LOG OUT
3) SIGN IN
4) SIGN OUT
5) None of these
199. An image editing software in which we can draw and edit images, is
1) Page Maker
2) MS-Paint
3) Photo Image
4) Front page
5) Corel Draw
200. Which out of the following is not a DBMS software?
1) dBASE
2) FOXPRO
3) ORACLE
4) SyBase
5) Data base 2000

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