Project Life Cycle , Exercise, Chapter 2, Answers Page 67

1. What are the advantages of the matrix type of organization, compared to

functional?

A. Better control of project manager on resources.

B. More than one boss.
C. Easy communications.
D. Reporting is simple.

2. In a projectized organization, the team:

A. Reports to several managers

B. Has no devotion to the project
C. Is under the command of the functional manager
D. Will never have a home

3. The project manager has small authority to assign the resources. What is the form
of organization?

A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Expediter
D. Coordinator

4. In matrix organization, communications are:

A. Very simple
B. Accurate
C. Complicated
D. Difficult to automate

5. In a functional organization, who has the authority to give orders to the team
member?

A. Project manager
B. Functional Manager
C. Team
D. Tight fix matrix

6. Who has the maximum authority in a projectized organization?

A. Project manager
B. Functional manager
C. The team
D. Power is shared

7. All are included in a project, except:

A. Temporary
B. Specific start and end
C. Interconnected activities
D. Repeats every week

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8. All are included in stakeholder management, except:

A. Provide more to stakeholders

B. Identification of stakeholders
C. Determining needs of stakeholder
D. Manage stakeholders expectations.

9. Stakeholders are requesting information regarding project management

methodology, how it was evolved. Stakeholders are concerned about the project
working method. What can the project manager do?

A. Inform that he will keep them in the communication channel

B. Provide a list of latest phrase and their description
C. Alert PMO
D. Make sure authority as the project manager is maintained.

10. A project manager is assigned a project. He has been informed that there was
another project in the recent past that was similar to the allocated project. What
should he do?

A. Contact the project manager concerned for assistance.

B. Obtain records and help firm PMO.
C. Wait to see if the project is delayed due to scope change.
D. Make sure the project scope is approved to by the stakeholders.

11. The organization has determined that all instructions will be considered as
projects. Update will be done daily, to solve issues, and ensure that the client
formally accepts the product within 10 days of end. The project manager will
not do planning except for daily work. How is this situation defined?

A. Since each separate order is a temporary endeavor, each order must be a project.
B. This is program management as multiple projects are concerned.
C. This is recurring practice.
D. Orders with revenue over $ 100,000 are considered projects.

12. The earlier project manager managed project without much competency. There is
a lack of control, and no evidently defined deliverables. Which would be the
BEST option to improve the project?

A. Implement a life cycle approach

B. Create lessons learned for every phase
C. Improve work plans for every work package
D. Create a sketch of the product.

13. Project team is manufacturing a product, but having problems in producing a

project charter. What is BEST explanation of the actual problem?

A. Project objectives are not identified.

B. They are doing a process and not a project.
C. The end date is not defined.
D. Product is not identified.

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14. Who should establish the preference among projects in a corporation?

A. The project manager

B. The project management team
C. The PMO
D. The team

15. A market demand, business need, and legal requirement are illustration of:

A. Reasons to engage a project manager.

B. Reasons projects are started.
C. Reasons people become stakeholders.
D. Reasons for a project to be sponsored.

16. What is BEST utilization of lessons learned?

A. Past reports for forthcoming projects.

B. Planning record for existing project.
C. Describe actions of project manager.
D. Explaining project management plan to team.

17. Lessons learned are BEST created by:

A. Project Manager
B. Team
C. Sponsor
D. Stakeholders

18. What is a program?

A. A strategy of management.
B. A system to attain advantages and control of similar projects.
C. A collection of projects managed in a coordinated way.
D. A government instruction.

19. A corporation is trying to improve performance and produce historical records of

past projects. What creation is the BEST method?

A. Project management plans

B. Lessons learned
C. Network diagrams
D. Status reports

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 Project Processes, Exercise, Chapter 3, Answers Page 69

1. Complete project budget is formed in which process group?

A. Initiating
B. Before the project management plan
C. Planning
D. Executing

2. The project charter is formed in which process group:

A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Closing
D. Initiating

3. After initial project schedule and budget is:

A. Identify risks
B. Alterations
C. Establish communications necessities.
D. Make a bar chart

4. A comprehensive project schedule can be produced after:

A. Project budget
B. WBS
C. Project management plan
D. Complete risk assessment

5. The project is controlled during project planning by:

A. Project manager
B. Team member
C. Functional Manager
D. Sponsor

6. This is NOT an input to the initiating process group:

A. Corporation processes
B. Company culture
C. Past WBS
D. Project scope statement

7. After project charter is:

A. Start to finish work packages.

B. Verify Scope
C. Begin integrated change control.
D. Start to produce management plans

Questions 3, 4, 6, 12, 18, and 19 to be done after Scope on Day 2

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8. High level project schedule constraints are determined in following process
group:

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling

9. Project manager is assigned during.

A. Executing
B. Planning.
C. Closing
D. Initiating.

10. Best action in initiating process group is?

A. Make a comprehensive explanation of the project deliverables.

B. Know the company structure and culture
C. Identify root cause of troubles.
D. Make sure all project management processes are finished.

11. Maximum time and resources are used in process group:

A. Planning
B. Integration
C. Design
D. Executing

12. All executed during project initiating EXCEPT:

A. Recognize and write down business needs

B. Produce a project scope statement.
C. Split big projects into phases.
D. Collect and assess historical information

13. Closure comprises all EXCEPT:

A. Decide performance measures.

B. Giving product of the project.
C. Determine which project phase was correctly closed after its conclusion
D. Updating the organizational process assets.

14. The project first phase has finished. What should be ensured BEFORE starting the
next phase?

A. Confirm that the funds are available for the next phase.
B. Compare project progress with baselines.
C. Confirm desired objectives attained, and all deliverables are properly received.
D. Recommend corrective.

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15. Work is measured and examined during?

A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. Closing

16. Which process group should be included in all projects?

A. Planning, executing, and closing

B. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing
C. Initiating, planning, and executing
D. Planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling.

17. Control Schedule and Manage Procurements are part of which process group:

A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and controlling

18. Project requirements are collected during:

A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Closing

19. All occur during planning process group, except:

A. Develop Project Charter.

B. Estimate Costs.
C. Create WBS.
D. Sequence Activities.

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 Integration Management, Exercise, Chapter 4, Answers Page 71

1. Efficient project integration involves:

A. The individual job of team members.

B. Effective communications.
C. Well timed updates to project management plan.
D. Product control.

2. The need for ________________is important for project communication.

A. Integrity.
B. Integration.
C. Differentiation.
D. Optimization.

3. BEST utilization of historical records is:

A. Estimating, project planning, life cycle costing.

B. Risk management, making lessons learned, estimating.
C. Project planning, produce a status report, estimating.
D. Estimating, project planning, risk management.

4. Regarding a change, the project manager attention is BEST for:

A. Make changes.
B. Track and record changes.
C. Inform sponsor of change.
D. Prevent needless changes.

5. All are parts of efficient change management plan EXCEPT:

A. Procedures.
B. Format for reports.
C. Conference.
D. Lessons learned.

6. Who has the main responsibility to choose if major changes are necessary?

A. Project manager.
B. Project team.
C. Sponsor.
D. Stakeholders.

7. Integration is performed by:

A. Project manager.
B. Team.
C. Sponsor.
D. Stakeholders.

Questions 13, 22, 27, 29 to be done after Scope on Day 2

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8. Which BEST explains project manager function as an integrator?

A. Assist team member to be familiar with project.

B. Put all project pieces into a unified total.
C. Put all project pieces into a program.
D. Ensure all team members as one into a cohesive whole.

9. Permitted corrective action is input to:

A. Validate Scope.
B. Direct and Manage Project Work.
C. Develop Project Charter.
D. Develop Schedule.

10. Which BEST explains a project management plan?

A. A printout.
B. Bar chart.
C. Staffing, risk, process improvement, and other management plans.
D. Project scope.

11. Which BEST describes to attain a practical project management plan?

A. Sponsor produces the plan based on advice from project manager.

B. Functional manager forms the plan based on input from the project manager.
C. Project manager makes the plan based on senior management input.
D. Project manager makes the plan based on input from team.

12. Six persons have signed project charter. Which should worry MOST to Project
Manager?

A. Who will be member of change control board?

B. Spend extra time on configuration management.
C. Obtain a single project sponsor.
D. Determine reporting structure.

13. All are elements of Direct and Manage Project Work EXCEPT:

A. Recognize changes.
B. Using a WBS.
C. Execute correction action.
D. Establish a project control system.

14. A project manager is selected for a project with which he had partial knowledge.
Project manager assigns some of the processes to his team members. He performs
as a coordinator. The results are likely to be:

A. A team functioning effectively.

B. A team that primarily experiences confusion. Later, becomes an effective unit.
C. A team not really productive, but performs well because of the environment
produced by the project manager.
D. A team that has inefficient performance, low morale, and conflict.

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15. You are executing a project when you discover that the resources assured at the
start of the project are now not available. The BEST action is:

A. Explain that the resources were at first promised.

B. Re-plan the project without the resources.
C. Explain impact if the resources are not provided.
D. Crash the project.

16. You are assigned a project. Any delay will be harmful. Project charter and the
project management plan are signed. Clients were informed regularly. Schedule
is under control, and within budget. Abruptly you are informed that the
complete effort may be canceled since the product is unacceptable. What is at the
MOST probable reason of this condition?

A. A vital stakeholder was not effectively engaged in the project.

B. The project charter and project management plan were not carefully clarified by
the client.
C. Communications was poor.
D. The sponsor did not support the project.

17. A change is received from the client that does not concern the schedule, and is
simple to complete. What should project manager do FIRST?

A. Executive the change immediately.

B. Obtain sponsor permission.
C. Contact change control board.
D. Evaluate the effect on other constraints.

18. What is the FIRST action necessary as a new project manager?

A. Check status of risk.

B. Check performance of cost.
C. Establish a management strategy.
D. Explain your objectives.

19. Client is not satisfied with the performance. What is the FIRST action you should
do?

A. Discuss with project team.

B. Reorganize baselines.
C. Revise the contract
D. Meet the client.

20. The client requests changes to the product that will add only three weeks to the
critical path. Project manager should best do?

A. Compress schedule by three weeks.

B. Reduce scope.
C. Explain impact of change to the client.
D. Obtain resources for the task.

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21. The project manager establishes that a change is required to parts purchased for
the project. He calls team meeting to discus the change. This is an instance of:

A. Management by objectives.
B. Non-existence of a change management plan.
C. Excellent team relationships.
D. Good WBS.

22. Project scope statement and project plans have been finalized. A stakeholder
informs that work packages can be completed in a better way. A technical paper is
shown on the issue. What should be done FIRST?

A. Check the project scope.

B. How this change will impact cost, and product quality.
C. How to avoid influence by stakeholders.
D. Review the project plan.

23. An output of Close Project or Phase process is:

A. Project archives.
B. Project charter.
C. Project management plan.
D. Risk analysis plan.

24. All occur in Close Project or phase process EXCEPT:

A. Creation of lessons learned.

B. Formal deliverable acceptance.
C. Reduce spending of resources
D. Perform benefit cost analysis

25. Project charter includes?

A. Risk management strategy

B. Work package estimates
C. Resources estimates in detail
D. Project business need

26. How project charter assists?

A. Explains what is to be completed.

B. Includes names of team members.
C. Gives authority to project manager
D. Illustrates project history

27. Linear programming is project selection criteria of type?

A. Constrained optimization
B. Comparative approach
D. Benefit measurement
D. Impact analysis

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28. Project charter is complete, but not yet approved. Your boss desired that project
start immediately. What is BEST to do?

A. Organize an integrated change control process.

B. Explain effects of performing without approval.
C. Concentrate on projects that have signed project charter.
D. Commence work only on critical path activities.

29. All project technical works are finished. What is yet to be done?

A. Validate Scope.
B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Identify Risks.
D. Complete lessons learned.

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 Scope Management, Exercise, Chapter 5, Answers Page 75

1. A work breakdown structure numbering system is used for:

A. Methodically estimate cost of elements work breakdown structure.

B. Explain justification of project.
C. Identification of level at which elements are found.
D. Use in project management software.

2. Which is a vital output of Validate Scope process?

A. Complete scope management plan.

B. Acceptance of project deliverables by customer.
C. Better schedule estimates.
D. Project management information system.

3. Which document contains detailed description of work packages?

A. WBS dictionary.
B. Activity list.
C. Project scope statement.
D. Scope management plan.

4. Project scope statement is created in which process group?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling

5. As a project becomes more complex, the uncertainty in scope:

A. Remains the same.

B. Decreases.
C. Decreases then increases.
D. Increases.

6. Project manager is asked to add work to project scope. The project manager
remembers that sponsor had previously denied funds for this scope. The project
manager should:

A. Inform sponsor of the request.

B. Evaluate impact of adding the scope.
C. Inform the scope cannot be added.
D. Add the work if there is time is available in project schedule.

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7. For which purpose can a work breakdown structure be used?

A. Communication with the project team.

B. Explaining calendar dares for each work package.
C. Illustrating the functional managers for each team member
D. Show business need for project.

8. During a meeting, a team member recommends a scope increase that is beyond the
scope of project charter. Project manager explains that the team should focus on
finishing all the work and only the work necessary. This is example of:

A. Change management process.

B. Scope management.
C. Quality analysis.
D. Scope decomposition.

9. Validate Scope process is done?

A. At end of project.
B. At beginning of project.
C. At end of each phase of project.
D. During planning processes.

10. Advantage of WBS?

A. Avoids work from slipping through the cracks.

B. Not needed.
C. Required only if project includes contracts.
D. Only method to identify risks.

11. What does NOT explain how far to decompose work?

A. Until it reaches a meaningful conclusion.

B. Until it cannot be sensibly subdivided more.
C. Until it can be done by two persons.
D. Until it can be reasonably estimated.

12. A project manager uses __________________ to ensure the team members know
what work is incorporated in their work package.

A. Project scope statement.

B. Product scope.
C. WBS dictionary.
D. Schedule.

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13. You have held periodic meetings with stakeholders. Project is on schedule and
budget, but stakeholders are not pleased. The MOST significant process that could
have avoided this situation is:

A. Monitor and Control Risks.

B. Control Schedule.
C. Define Scope.
D. Control Cost.

14. Important Collect Requirements process output is?

A. Requirement traceability matrix.

B. Project scope statement.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Change request.

15. A recommended scope change has been rejected by integrated change control
board. What should project manager do?

A. Obtain reasons for rejection.

B. Ensure next change is approved.
C. Record the change request and the result.
D. Make approval processes more creative and simple.

16. Project requirements have been changing. What is MOST likely to occur?

A. Reduce costs.
B. Ensure that customer approves the project scope.
C. How to determine project completion.
D. Always add resources to project.

17. Validate Scope is related to:

A. Perform Quality Control.

B. Sequence Activities.
C. Perform Quality Assurance.
D. Time management.

18. MOST misinterpretation in project scope statement can be due to?

A. Vague language.
B. Inadequate pattern, arrangement, and sequential order.
C. Variations work package sizes.
D. Excessive detail.

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19. Validate Scope process:

A. Promises that deliverable meets specifications, is an input to project management

plan, and an output of Perform Quality Control.
B. Ensures that deliverable is complete on time, make certain customer acceptance,
and explains that deliverable meets specifications.
C. Ensures customer acceptance, deliverable meets specifications, and provides a
chance for difference of opinion.
D. It is an output of Perform Quality Control, happens before Define Scope, and
ensures customer acceptance.

15
 Time Management , Exercise, Chapter 6, Answers Page 78

1. Sequence of activities is being analyzed with least amount of scheduling

flexibility. What technique is being used?

A. Critical path method.

B. Flowcharts.
C. Precedence diagramming.
D. Work breakdown structure.

2. A dependency that needs that design must be completed before manufacture can
begin is an example of:

A. Discretionary dependency.
B. External dependency.
C. Mandatory dependency.
D. Scope dependency.

3. Which is GENERALLY explained easily by bar charts than network diagrams?

A. Logical relationships.
B. Critical paths.
C. Resource trade-offs.
D. Progress or status.

4. How longest project time can be best determined?

A. WBS
B. Network diagram
C. Bar chart
D. Project charter

5. What is CORRECT?

A. Critical path assists to show the project duration.

B. Only one critical path is possible.
C. Network diagram will change when the end date is changed.
D. Project can never have a negative float.

6. What is duration of a milestone?

A. Shorter than duration of longest activity.

B. Shorter than activity it represents.
C. There is no duration.
D. Same length as the activity it represents.

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7. A project has two critical paths. How it affects the project?

A. Easy to manage.
B. Project risk is increased.
C. More people are required.
D. More expensive.

8. If time and cost are not as significant as the resources used, what should be done?

A. Monte Carlo analysis.

B. Fast track
C. Resource leveling.
D. Examine life cycle costs.

9. Milestone chart is used instead of a bar chart for?

A. Project planning.
B. Reporting to team members.
C. Reporting to management.
D. Risk analysis.

10. Project schedule is too long. The project network diagram cannot be changed.
Extra personnel resources are available. What is BEST to do?

A. Fast track.
B. Level resources.
C. Crash the project.
D. Monte Carlo analysis.

11. What should BEST be done to done to complete a project earlier?

A. Inform management that critical path does not allow project to be completed
earlier.
B. Tell the boss.
C. Analyze options for crashing or fast tracking critical path.
D. Work hard.

12. The BEST method to crashing would also include examining:

A. Risk impact of crashing each activity

B. Opinion of customer regarding the activities to crash.
C. Boss opinion regarding the activities to crash.
D. Project life cycle phase in which activity will occur.

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13. Which processes include asking team members the time estimates and agree on
the activity calendar dates?

A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Scope
D. Develop Project Charter

14. Time required for completion is longer than time available. What is BEST to do?

A. Reduce product scope.

B. Inform the management that required date cannot be met.
C. Work overtime.
D. Examine options for schedule compression, and present the recommended option.

15. There are activities that can be operated in parallel but must finish in a specific
sequence. What type of activity sequencing method is required?

A, Precedence diagramming method.

B. Arrow diagramming method.
C. Critical path method.
D. Operational diagramming method.

16. During preparations of network diagram, team suggests that quality may be
enhanced if accepted by management. This suggestion is supported by an article
from a journal. This type of input is called?

A. Mandatory dependency
B. Discretionary dependency
C. External dependency
D. Heuristic

17. Activity duration estimates are ready. What is required to complete Develop
Schedule process?

A. Change requests.
B. Schedule change control system.
C. Recommended corrective actions.
D. Reserves.

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18. A project manager is taking a project from another project manager during
planning process group. If he desires to see what was planned for managing
changes to schedule, he should see:

A. Communications management plan.

B. Update management plan.
C. Staffing management plan
D. Schedule management plan.

19. WBS estimates for work packages and network diagram are finished. What is
NEXT?

A. Sequence the activities.

B. Verify that activities have correct scope.
C. Form an initial schedule and obtain approval of team.
D. Finish risk management.

20. Fixed single estimate for the activity is difficult. Therefore, using the labor hours
per installation from previous projects to forecast future. This is an example of?

A. Parametric estimating
B. Three-point estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. Monte Carlo analysis

21. The project is being completed two days after preferred completion date.
Additional resources are not available, and dependencies are preferential. What is
BEST to do?

A. Reduce resources from an activity

B. Make more activities concurrent.
C. Move resources from preferential dependencies to external dependencies.
D. Remove an activity.

22. Who has the MAIN liability for schedule and cost adherence?

A. Project manager.
B. Senior manager.
C. Project sponsor.
D. Manager of project management office.

23. Which type of report would provide outline information to senior management?

A. Detailed cost estimates.

B. Project management plans.
C. Bar charts.
D. Milestone reports.

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24. Reorganize resources so that a continuous number of resources is used is called:

A. Crashing.
B. Floating.
C. Leveling.
D. Fast tracking.

25. What is advantage of analogous project estimation?

A. The estimates will be accurate.

B. Based on a detailed understanding of what the work requires.
C. It gives the project team an understanding of management expectations.
D. It helps the project manager determine if project will meet schedule.

26. Large number of changes is made to project. The project manager should:

A. Wait until all changes are known.

B. Make approved changes as required, but keep the schedule baseline.
C. Make only the changes that are not expensive.
D. Talk to management before any changes are made.

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 Cost Management , Exercise, Chapter 7, Answers Page 81

Q-1

EV is 523,000, PV is 623,000, AC is 643,000. What is correct?

A. CV: +120,000; SV: +100,000.

B. CV: +100,000; SV: +120,000.
C. CV: -100,000; SV: -120,000
D. CV: -120,000; SV: -100,000.

Q-2

EV is 100,000, PV is 125,000, AC is 100,000. What is correct?

A. The project is on schedule but cost exceed budget.

B. The project is on schedule and on budget.
C. The project is behind schedule but on budget.
D. Then project is behind schedule and cost exceed budget.

Q-3

Project cost exceeds the budget if:

A. CPI > 1
B. CPI < 1
C. CPI < 0
D. SPI = 1

Q-4

AC is 220,000, PV is 250,000, and EV is 220,000. What is correct?

CV = 0
CV = 30,000
CV = -30,000
CV = 1

Q-5

Schedule variance and cost variance are positive. This implies:

A. Project is under budget, behind schedule

B. Project is over budget, behind schedule
C. Project is under budget, ahead of schedule
D. Project is over budget, ahead of schedule

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Q-6

SPI: 0.78 CPI: 1.00. If project was terminated, what is true?

A. Project work is completed behind schedule and on budget.

B. Project work has been completed ahead of schedule and on budget.
C. Project is terminated before completion, and was behind schedule and on budget.
D. Project terminated before completion, and was ahead of schedule and on budget.

Q-7

After 25% completion, CPI is 0.76. What is best to do now?

A. It is a good project that is under budget. No action is necessary.

B. Project is under budget.
C. Evaluate and monitor the costs incurred.
D. Data is not yet complete.

Q-8

CPI is 0.9, BAC is $ 1,000. What is EAC?

A. Nine hundred dollars

B. One thousand one hundred and eleven dollars
C. One thousand dollars
D. One thousand and one hundred dollars

Q-9

Project is at half way. Total cost planned at this stage is $500. Actual work completed at
this stage is worth $400. Amount spent at this stage is $ 1,000. What is CPI?

A. 0.8
B. 1.2
C. 0.5
D. 0.4

Q-10

EV is 350, AC is 400, PV is 325, what is CV?

A. 350
B. -75
C. 400
D. -50

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Q-11

SPI of 0.76 implies:

A. Project is over budget.

B. Project is ahead of schedule.
C. Project is progressing at 76 % of the original plan.
D. Project is progressing at 24 % of the original plan.

Q-12

Which of is NOT required to create the project estimate?

A. WBS
B. Network diagram
C. Risks
D. Change control system

Q-13

Which is an example of parametric estimate?

A. Dollars per meter

B. Learning bend
C Bottom-up
D. CPM

Q-14

During which process group is budget forecast created?

A. Monitoring and controlling

B. Planning
C. initiating
D. Executing

Q-15

What is estimated value of work that is actually completed?

A. Earned value
B. Planned value
C Actual cost
D. Cost variance

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Q-16

You desire expert judgment, but sponsor desires analogous estimates. It would be BEST:

A. Agree to analogous estimates since they are a type of expert judgment.

B. Recommend life cycle costing.
C. Ask why sponsor desires an accurate cost estimate.
D. Convince the sponsor to use expert judgment since it is very accurate.

Q-17

Monitoring of the cost expended to determine variances occurs during which process:

A. Creation of cost change management plan.

B. Recommending corrective actions.
C. Update cost baseline.
D. Control cost.

Q-18

SPI is 0.89 and CPI is 0.91. What is BEST explanation for this occurrence?

A. Scope was frequently changed.

B. A supplier went bankrupt, and a new supplier was engaged.
C. Additional equipment needed to be purchased.
D. A critical path activity took longer and needed more labor hours to complete.

Q-19

Sponsor gives the project charter and asks to verify that project can be completed within
budget. What is BEST technique?

A. Make the estimate a range of probable outcomes.

B. Request team members to assist estimate the cost based on project charter.
C. Based on data, determine a parametric estimate.
D. Give an analogous estimate based on history.

Q-20

Seller informs that activities have caused an increase in the cost. You should:

A. Recommend a change to the project costs.

B. Have a meeting with management to find out what to do.
C. Ask the seller for supporting information.
D. Deny any wrongdoing.

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Q-21

CPI is 0.91, and SPI is 0.89. What is BEST explanation for this occurrence?

A. The scope was changed.

B. A supplier went out of business and a new one needed to be found.
C. Additional equipment was required to be purchased.
D. A critical path activity took longer and needed more labor hours to complete.

25
 Quality Management , Exercise, Chapter 8, Answers Page 82

Q-1

When a product or service completely meets a customers requirements:

A. Quality is achieved.
B. The cost of quality is high.
C. The cost of quality is low.
D. The customer pays the minimum price.

Q-2

Benefits or revenue to be received from improving quality equals the incremental cost to
achieve that quality. This is:

A. Quality control analysis

B. Marginal analysis
C. Standard quality analysis
D. Conformance analysis

Q-3

Who is ultimately responsible for quality management on the project?

A. The project engineer

B. The project manager
C. The quality manager
D. The team member

Q-4

Management states that quality is most important project constraint. If another problem
with quality were to occur, what would be the BEST thing for the project manager to do?

A. Fix the problem as soon as possible.

B. Allow the schedule to slip by cutting cost.
C. Allow cost to increase by fixing the root cause of the problem.
D. Allow risk to increase by cutting cost.

Q-5

The manager suggests that the project manager does not have enough time to hold
meetings about quality when the schedule is so compressed. Which of the following
BEST describes why the manager is wrong?

A. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and

decreased cost risk.
B. Improved quality leads to increased productivity decreased cost effectiveness, and
increased cost risk.
C. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and
increased cost risk
D. Improved quality leads to increased productivity decreased cost effectiveness, and
decreased cost risk

26
Q-6

From the project perspective, quality attributes:

A. Determine how effectively the performing organization supports the project.

B. Provide the basis for judging the project’s success or lure.
C. Are specific characteristics for which a product is designed and tested.
D. Are objective criteria that must be met.

Q-7

Quality is:

A. Meeting and exceeding the customer expectations.

B. Adding extras to make the customer happy.
C. The degree to which the project meets requirements.
D. Conformance to management objectives.

Q-8

All the following are examples of Perform Quality Control EXCEPT:

A. Inspection.
B. Cost of quality.
C. Pareto chart.
D. Fishbone diagram.

Q-9

Pareto charts help the project manager:

A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality.

B. Focus on stimulating thinking.
C. Explore a desired future outcome.
D. Determine if a process is out of control

Q-10

A control chart helps the project manager:

A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality

B. Focus on stimulating thinking.
C. Explore a desired future outcome.
D. Determine if a process is functioning within set limits.

27
Q-11

Testing the entire population would:

A. Take too long.

B. Provide more information than wanted.
C. Be mutually exclusive.
D. Show many defects.

Q-12

All of the following are examples of the cost of non-conformance EXCEPT:

A. Rework.
B. Quality training.
C. Scrap.
D. Warranty costs.

Q-13

Standard deviation is a measure of how:

A. Far the estimate is from the highest estimate.

B. Far the measurement is from the mean.
C. Correct the sample is.
D. Much time remains in the project

Q-14

All of the following result from quality audits EXCEPT:

A. Determination of whether project activities comply with organizational policies.

B. Improved processes to increase productivity.
C. Creation of quality metrics.
D. Confirmation of the implementation of approved change requests.

Q-15

A control chart shows seven data points in a row on one side of the mean. What should be
done?

A. Perform a design of experiments.

B. Adjust the chart to reflect the new mean.
C. Find an assignable cause.
D. Nothing. This is the rule of seven and can be ignored.

28
Q-16

You are managing a project in a just-in-time environment. This will require more
attention, because the amount of inventory in such an environment is generally:

A. 45 percent.
B. 10 percent.
C. 12 percent.
D. 0 percent.

Q-17

In planning project, which would generally have highest priority: quality, cost, or
schedule?

A. Cost is most important, quality next, and then schedule.

B. Quality Is more important than cost or schedule.
C. Schedule is most important, quality next, and then cost.
D. It should be decided for each project.

Q-18

You begin to become concerned about accuracy of progress reports from projects. What
would BEST support your opinion that there is a problem?

A. Quality audits
B. Risk quantification reports
C. Regression analysis
D. Monte Carlo analysis

Q-19

In which is documented quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvements?

A. Quality management plan

B. Quality policy
C. Control charts
D. Project management plan

Q-20

The team adds a specific area of extra work to the project because they have determined it
would benefit the customer. What is wrong in this situation?

A. The team is gold plating.

B. These efforts should not be done in meetings.
C. Nothing. This is how to meet or exceed customer expectations.
D. Nothing. The project manager is in control of the situation.

29
Q-21

The project team has created a plan for how they will implement the quality policy. It
addresses the organizational structure, responsibilities, procedures, and other information
about plans for quality. If this changes during the project, WHICH of the following plans
will also change?

A. Quality assurance
B. Quality management
C. Project management
D. Quality control

Q-22

Purpose of a quality audit is:

A. Part of an ISO 9000 investigation.

B. To check if the customer is following its quality process.
C. To identify inefficient and ineffective policies.
D. To check the accuracy of costs submitted by the team.

Q-23

A senior manager informs that he is worried that project will not meet quality standards.
What should you do in this situation?

A. Assure that during Plan Quality process it was determined that project would meet
quality standards.
B. Analogously estimate future results.
C. Form a quality assurance team.
D. Check the results from the last quality management plan.

Q-24

You are to select tools and techniques to implement a quality assurance program. Which
of the following would NOT be appropriate for this purpose?

A. Quality audits
B. Statistical sampling
C. Pareto charts
D. Focus groups

30
Q-25

The project manager is working with the quality assurance department to improve
confidence that project will satisfy quality standards. Which of the following MUST they
have before they start this process?

A. Quality problems
B. Quality improvement
C. Quality control measurements
D. Rework

Q-26

There is an increase in cost effectiveness, increased productivity and increased morale.

What might be the reason for these changes?

A. Project objectives are in line with those of the performing organization

B. Increased quality
C. Management’s focus on cost containment
D. Rewards presented for individual efforts

Q-27

Project budget and communications requirements are completed & work packages being
completed. What is NEXT?

A. Coordinate completion of work packages.

B. Identify quality standards.
C. Begin the Identify risk process.
D. Execute the project management plan.

Q-28

A project is facing a major change to deliverables. If the project manager is involved in

determining which quality standards are relevant to the change, the project manager must
be involved in:

A. Quality management.
B. Perform Quality Assurance.
C. Plan Quality
D. Perform Quality Control.

31
Q-29

A project manager determines that project has added four areas of functionality and three
areas of performance. The customer has expressed satisfaction with the project. What
does this mean in terms of success of the project?

A. The project was an unqualified success.

B. The project was unsuccessful because it was gold plated.
C. The project was unsuccessful because the customer being happy means they
would have paid more for the work.
D. The project was successful because the team had a chance to learn new areas of
functionality and the customer was satisfied.

Q-30

A project team member informs that a work package has not met the quality metric, and
that she believes it is not possible to meet it. The project manager analyzes the situation.
Which part of the quality management process is the project manager involved in?

A. Perform Quality Assurance

B. Project Control
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Plan Quality

Q-31

As the project manager, you are preparing your methods for quality management. You are
looking for a method that can demonstrate the relationship between events and their
resulting effects. You want to use a method to depict the events that cause a negative
effect on quality. Which of the following is the BEST choice for accomplishing your
objective?

A. Histogram
B. Pareto chart
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Control chart

Q-32

Which of the following explain why quality is planned in and not inspected in?

A. It reduces quality and is less expensive.

B. it Improves quality and is more expensive.
C. It reduces quality and is more expensive.
D. It Improves quality and is less expensive.

32
 Read and understand:
Rea

Action Tool/ Technique Quality

Management
Process
Determining what will be acceptable upper and Control chart Plan Quality
lower thresholds of variance.

Comparing what was done to what was planned in Checklists Perform Quality
writing to be done. Control

Selecting 3 projects to refer out of possible 12 Statistical Plan Quality

projects. sampling
Graphically representing a process to determine Flowcharting Perform Quality
where a process might be failing. Control

Taking measurements and comparing them to the Control chart Perform Quality
upper and lower thresholds of variance. Control
Graphically representing a process to determine Flowcharting Plan Quality
where quality problems might arise.

Analyzing a graphic with an organized series of lines Cause and effect Perform Quality
displaying issues that might have led to a defect to diagram Assurance
examine if the proper process was followed or if
processes must be improved.
Showing data in the form of bars to measure and plot Histogram Perform Quality
how frequently some problem occurred. Control

Collecting many data points to look at the pattern of Scatter diagram Perform Quality
relationships or correlation between two variables. Control

Using a bar chart to show how many problems Pareto chart Perform Quality
occurred for each cause and arranging them Control
according to frequency that the problems occurred.

Creating a list of items to be checked during Checklists Plan Quality

inspections.

Reviewing a graphic with an organized series of Cause and effect Perform Quality
lines displaying issues or potential issues that might diagram Control
have led to a defect or problem.

Looking at the project practices of comparable projects Benchmarking Plan Quality

Measuring 4 doors produced, rather than all 400. Statistical Perform Quality
sampling Control
Identifying the factors that influence particular Design of Plan Quality
variables of a product or process. experiments
Analyzing a chart of problems to find the most Pareto chart Perform Quality
frequent one in order to determine if processes need to Assurance
be improved.
Comparing the expense of quality efforts to the return Cost benefit Plan Quality
on that investment. analysis

33
 Action Tool/ Technique Quality
Management
Process
Determining what will be acceptable upper and
lower thresholds of variance.

Comparing what was done to what was planned in

writing to be done.

Selecting 3 projects from 12.

Graphically representing a process to determine

where a process might be failing.

Taking measurements and comparing them to the

upper and lower thresholds of variance.

Graphically representing a process to determine

where quality problems might arise.

Analyzing a graphic with an organized series of lines

displaying issues that might have led to a defect to
examine if the proper process was followed or if
processes must be improved.

Showing data in the form of bars to measure and plot

how frequently some problem occurred.

Collecting many data points to look at the pattern of

relationships or correlation between two variables.

Using a bar chart to show how many problems

occurred for each cause and arranging them
according to frequency that the problems occurred.

Creating a list of items to be checked during

inspections.

Reviewing a graphic with an organized series of

lines displaying issues or potential issues that might
have led to a defect or problem.

Looking at the project practices of comparable projects

Measuring 4 doors produced, rather than all 400.

Identifying the factors that influence particular

variables of a product or process
Analyzing a chart of problems to find the most
frequent one in order to determine if processes need to
be improved
Comparing the expense of quality efforts to the return
on that investment

34
 Mark the Tools & Techniques
Exercise Quality Management Chapter 8

Plan Quality QA QC

Find existing quality standards and Use measurements from quality control. Measure quality.
requirements for product and project
management.
Create additional project- specific Perform continuous improvement. Identify quality
standards. improvements.
Determine what work you will do to meet Determine if project activities comply Validate deliverables.
standards. with organizational and project policies,
processes, and procedures - quality audit.
Determine how you will measure to make Find good practices. Complete checklist.
sure you meet the standards.
Balance the needs of quality with scope, Share good practices with others in the Update lessons learned.
cost, time, risk, resources, and customer organization.
satisfaction.
Create a quality management plan as part Submit change requests.
of the project management plan.
Update the project
management plan and project
documents.

35
Mark the process of the activity, Plan quality, QA, or QC.
Activity Process

Find existing quality standards and requirements for product and project
management.
Perform continuous improvement.
Update lessons learned.
Create additional project- specific standards.
Measure quality.
Use measurements from quality control.
Determine what work you will do to meet standards.
Validate deliverables.
Share good practices with others in the organization.
Determine how you will measure to make sure you meet the standards.
Find good practices.
Fill checklist.
Balance the needs of quality with scope, cost, time, risk, resources, and customer
satisfaction.
Update the project management plan and project documents.
Submit change requests.
Create a quality management plan as part of the project management plan.
Determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies,
processes, and procedures—quality audit.
Identify quality improvements.

36
 HR Management , Exercise, Chapter 9, Answers Page 85

Q-1

All are forms of power derived from the project manager position EXCEPT:

A. Formal.
B. Reward.
C. Penalty
D. Expert.

Q-2

The highest point of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is called:

A. Physiological satisfaction.
B. Attainment of survival
C. Need for association.
D. Esteem.

Q-3

The sponsors role on a project is BEST described as:

A. Helping to plan activities.

B. Helping to prevent unnecessary changes to project objectives.
C. Identifying unnecessary project constraints.
D. Helping to put the project management plan together.

Q-4

Which conflict resolution techniques will generate the MOST lasting solution?

A. Forcing
B. Smoothing
C. Compromise
D. Problem solving

Q-5

What conflict resolution technique is a project manager using when he says “I cannot deal
with this issue now”.

A. Problem solving
B. Forcing
C. Withdrawal
D. Compromising

37
Q-6

You want to understand who is responsible for doing what on the project. Where would
you find such information!

A. Responsibility assignment matrix

B. Resource histogram
C. Bar chart
D. Project organization chart

Q-7

In a matrix organization, the project manager determines that additional human resources
are required. From whom would he request these resources?

A. Project manager
B. Functional manager
C. Team
D. Project sponsor

Q-8

You are a project manager leading a cross-functional project team in a weak matrix. None
of your project team members report to you functionally, and you do not have the ability
to directly reward their performance. The project is difficult, involving tight date
constraints and challenging quality standards. Which of the following types of project
management power will likely be the MOST effective in this circumstance?

A. Referent
B. Expert
C. Penalty
D. Formal

Q-9

A team member is not performing well on the project because she is inexperienced in
system development work. There is no one else available who is better qualified to do the
work. What is the BEST solution for the project manager?

A. Consult functional manager to determine project completion incentives for team

member.
B. Obtain a new resource more skilled in development work.
C. Arrange for the team member to get training.
D. Allocate some of the project schedule reserve.

38
Q-10

A project manager has just found out that a major subcontractor for her project is
consistently late delivering work. The project team member responsible for this part of
the project does not get along with the subcontractor. To resolve the problem, the project
manager says, “You both will have to give up something to solve this problem. What
conflict resolution method is she using?

A. Confrontation
B. Compromise
C. Smoothing
D. Communicating

Q-11

Team C has repeatedly missed deadlines in the past. This has caused team D to have to
crash the critical path several times. As the team leader for team D, you should meet with
the:

A. Manager of team D.
B. Project manager alone.
C. Project manager and management.
D. Project manager and the leader of team C.

Q-12

A project manager is trying to settle a dispute between two team members. One says the
systems should be integrated before testing, and the other maintains each system should
be tested before integration. The project involves over 30 people, and 12 systems need to
be integrated. The sponsor is demanding that integration happens on time. What is the
BEST statement the project manager can make to resolve the conflict?

A. Do it my way.
B. Calm down and get the job done.
C. Deal with this again next week after we all calm down.
D. Do limited testing before integration and finish testing after integration.

Q-13

A project is in the middle of the executing processes when a stakeholder suggests a major
new change. This change will cause the third major overhaul of the project. At the same
time, the project manager discovers that a major work package was not completed
because a team member’s boss moved him to another project that had a higher priority.
Which of the following is the BEST person for the project manger to address these issues
with?

A. The team
B. Senior management
C. The customer
D. The sponsor

39
Q-14

What theory proposes that employees’ efforts will lead to effective performance and the
employees will be rewarded for accomplishments?

A. Conditional reinforcement
B. Malsow hierarchy
C. McGregor’s
D. Expectancy

Q-15

Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include confronting,

smoothing, forcing, and:

A. Withdrawing.
B. Directing.
C. Organizing.
D. Controlling.

Q-16

You just found out that a major subcontractor for your project consistently provides
deliverables late. The subcontractor approaches you and asks you to continue accepting
late deliverables in exchange for a decrease in project costs. This offer is an example of:

A. Confronting.
B. Compromise.
C. Smoothing.
D. Forcing.

Q-17

The management theory that states that all people can direct their own efforts is:

A. Theory Y.
B. Herzberg’s theory
C. Maslow’s hierarchy.
D. Theory X.

Q-18

Which of the following leadership traits is MOST important for a project manager?

A. Communication
B. Team building
C. Technical expertise
D. Project control

40
Q-19

The project manager is looking at the project’s resource needs and lessons learned from
past projects. This information causes the project manager to be concerned about the
ability to acquire enough resources for the project in six months. Which of the following
would be the LEAST effective preventive action?

A. Make sure functional managers have a copy of the resource histogram.

B. Show the sponsor the data, and explain the project manager’s concern.
C. Determine metrics to use as an early warning sign that resources will not be
available.
D. Ask Functional managers for their opinions.

Q-20

A large project is underway when one of the team members reviews the project status
report. He sees that the project is currently running late. As he looks at the report further,
he notices that the delay will cause one of his activities to be scheduled during a time he
will be out of the country and cannot work on the activity This is of great concern
because he is very committed to the project being successful and he does not want to be
the cause of the project being further delayed. What is the BEST or him?

A. Contact project manager immediately to provide project manager with schedule.

B. Include the information in his next report.
C. Request that the issue be added to the project issue log.
D. Recommend preventive action.

41
 Situation Key
Person
A functional manager is trying to pull a team member off the project to do T
other work. The project manager must give team members enough
information (e.g., bar chart, network diagram, project management plan,
risks) so that they can manage their own workloads. Because the word
"trying" is used, we know that this situation is occurring at the present time.
If the question had used the words "has pulled” the answer would be project
manager.

The project manager does not have the authority to get things done. It is the SP
sponsors role to give the project manager authority in the form of a project
charter.

There are not enough resources to complete the project. The sponsor and SP/FM
functional manager control resources.

The team is unsure of what needs to happen when. It is the project PM

manager's role to take the individual estimates and combine them
into the project schedule.

An activity needs more time and will cause the project to be delayed. SP
Notice the word "will" This means the evaluation by the team is completed
and there is no available reserve since the project completion date is most
likely included in the project charter. Any such changes are changes to the
project charter and require sponsor involvement.

An activity needs more time without causing the project to be delayed. PM

Think about integrated change control here. It is the project managers role
to look for impacts to the other project constraints.

A team member is not performing. Functional management controls FM

resources.
The team is not sure who is in charge of the project. The sponsor designates SP
the project manager in the project charter.

There is talk that the project may no longer be needed. It is the SP

sponsors role to protect the project from changes, including such a
large change.
The sponsor provides an unrealistic schedule objective. Only the sponsor SP
can make a change to the project charter (including schedule objectives).
The project manager must provide evidence that the schedule is unrealistic.

The team is in conflict over priorities between activities. It is the project PM

managers role to settle any such conflicts between activities and to provide
a network diagram and critical path. It is the sponsors or program/portfolio
managers role to set priorities between projects.

The project is behind schedule. Only the project manager can control the PM
overall project schedule.

42
Conflict Resolution Techniques
Description Conflict Resolution

It seems that the real problem here is not a lack of Confronting

communication, but a lack of knowledge of what needs
to be done and when. Here is a copy of the project
schedule. It should help you understand what you need
to know.

Do it my way. Forcing

Lets calm down and get the job done Smoothing

Let us do a little of what both of you suggest. Compromising

Let s deal with this issue next week. Withdrawal

Sandy and Amanda, both of you want this project to Smoothing

cause as little distraction to your departments as
possible. With that in mind, I am sure we can come to an
agreement on the purchase of equipment and what is
best for the project.

We have talked about new computers enough. I do not Forcing

want to get the computers, and that is it.

Sandy, you say that the project should include the Confronting
purchase of new computers, and Amanda, you say that
the project can use existing equipment. I suggest we
perform the following test on the existing equipment to
determine if it needs to be replaced.

Let us see what everyone thinks, and try to reach a Collaborating

consensus.

43
Mark the conflict resolution technique

Description Conflict Resolution

It seems that the real problem here is not a lack of

communication, but a lack of knowledge of what needs
to be done and when. Here is a copy of the project
schedule. It should help you understand what you need
to know.

Do it my way.

Lets calm down and get the job done.

Let us do a little of what both of you suggest.

Let s deal with this issue next week.

Sandy and Amanda, both of you want this project to

cause as little distraction to your departments as
possible. With that in mind, I am sure we can come to an
agreement on the purchase of equipment and what is
best for the project.

We have talked about new computers enough. I do not

want to get the computers, and that is it.

Sandy, you say that the project should include the

purchase of new computers, and Amanda, you say that
the project can use existing equipment. I suggest we
perform the following test on the existing equipment to
determine if it needs to be replaced.

Let us see what everyone thinks, and try to reach a

consensus.

44
 Communications Management - Chapter 10, Practice Exam, Answers Page 87

1. Extensive use of-------------------- communication is most likely to aid in solving

complex problems.

A. Verbal
B. Written
C. Formal
D. Nonverbal

2. Work breakdown structure can be an effective aid for communication in which

situation?

A. Internal within the project team

B. Internal within the organization
C. External with the customer
D. Internal and external to the project

3. The MOST likely result of communication blockers is that:

A. The project is delayed.

B. Trust level is enhanced.
C Conflict occurs.
D. Senior management is displeased.

4. Communications are often enhanced when the sender -------------------the receiver.

A. Speaks up to
B. Uses more physical movements when talking to
C. Talks slowly to
D. Shows concern for the perspective of

5. Formal written correspondence with the customer is required when:

A. Defects are detected.

B. The customer requests additional work not covered under contract.
C. The project has a schedule slippage that includes changes to the critical path.
D. The project has cost overruns.

6. A project manager has a problem with a team member’s performance. What is

BEST form of communication for addressing this problem?

A. Formal written communication

B. Formal verbal communication
C. Informal written communication
D. Informal verbal communication

7. Communications under a contract should tend toward:

A. Formal written communication.

B. Formal verbal communication.
C. Informal written communication.
D. Informal verbal communication.

45
8. The project status report is an example of which type of communication?

A. Formal written communication

B. Formal verbal communication
C. Informal written communication
D. Informal verbal communication

9. When a project manager is engaged in negotiations, non-verbal communication

skills are of:

A. Little importance.
B. Major importance.
C. Importance only when cost and schedule objectives are involved.
D. Importance only to ensure you win the negotiation.

10. You would like to see the project’s communications requirements and what
technology is being used to aid in project communications. Where will you find
this information?

A. The project management plan

B. The information distribution plan
C. The bar chart
D. The communications management plan

11. Project information has been distributed according to the communications

management plan. Some project deliverables have been changed in accordance
with the project management plan. One stakeholder expressed surprise to the
project manager upon hearing of a previously published change to a project
deliverable. All stakeholders received the communication containing notification
of the change. What should the project manager do?

A. Determine why the stakeholder did not receive the information and let him know
when it was published.
B. Ask the functional manager why the stakeholder did not understand his
responsibility
C. Review the communications management plan and make revisions if necessary.
D. Address the situation in the next steering committee meeting so others do not miss
published changes.

12. There are three stakeholders with whom you need to communicate. As such, you
have six channels of communication. A new stakeholder has been added that you
also need to communicate with. How many communications channels do you have
now?

A. 7
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16

46
13. Two people are arguing about what needs to be done to complete a work package.
If the project manager wants to know what is going on, she should pay MOST
attention to:

A. What is being said and when.

B. What is being said, who is saying it, and the time of day.
C. Physical mannerisms and what is being said.
D. The pitch and tone of the voices, and physical mannerisms.

14. A project manager has a project team consisting of people in four countries. The
project manager is concerned about its success. The length of the project schedule
is acceptable. What type of communication should he use?

A. Informal verbal communication

B. Formal written communication
C. Formal verbal communication
D. Informal written communication

15. Project status meeting is not going well. Everyone is talking at same time, there
are people who are not participating, many topics are being discussed at random.
Which of following rules for effective meetings is NOT being adhered to?

A. Demonstrate courtesy and consideration of each other, and control who is allowed
to speak.
B. Schedule meetings in advance.
C. Have a purpose for the meeting with the right people in attendance.
D. Create and publish an agenda and a set of rules for controlling the meeting.

16. You want to quickly review where the project now stands. Which of the following
reports would be the MOST helpful in finding such information?

A. Work status
B. Progress
C. Forecast
D. Communications

17. Who of the following are ALWAYS stakeholders?

A. A person who does not want the project to be completed

B. An assembly line worker that will use the product of the project
C. A functional manager from the engineering department
D. A person who might lose his or her position in the company because of the project

18. A project manager has just been assigned a team that comes from many countries.
What is her BEST tool for success?

A. The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B. The teleconference
C. Team communication with the WBS
D. Communication and well-developed people skills

47
19. The purpose of status meetings is to:

A. Exchange information about the project.

B. Have team members report on what they are doing
C. Issue work authorizations
D. Confirm the accuracy of the costs submitted by the team.

20. Stakeholders can be identified in which project management process groups?

A. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing

B. Initiating and planning
C Planning and monitoring and controlling
D. Monitoring and controlling and closing

21. A project manager wants to report on the actual project results versus planned
results, she should use:

A. Trend report.
B. Forecasting report.
C. Status report.
D. Variance report.

48
 Chapter 11, Practice Exam - Risk Management, Answers Page 89

1. All of the following are factors in the assessment of project risk EXCEPT:

A. Risk event.
B. Risk probability.
C. Amount at stake.
D. Insurance premiums.

2. If a project has a 60 % chance of $100,000 profit and 40 % chance of $100,000

loss, the expected monetary value for the project is:

A. $ 100,000 profit.
B. $ 60,000 loss.
C. $ 20,000 profit.
D. $ 40,000 loss.

3. If a risk event has a 90 % chance of occurring, and the consequences will be

$10,000, what does $9,000 represent?

A. Risk value
B. Present value
C. Expected monetary value
D. Contingency budget

4. Risks will be identified during which risk management process (s)?

A. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis and Identify Risks

B. Identify Risks and Monitor and Control Risks
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis and Monitor and Control Risks
D. Identify Risks

5. What should be done with risks on the watch list?

A. Document them for historical use on other projects.

B. Document them and revisit during project monitoring and controlling.
C. Document & set aside because they are already covered in contingency plans.
D. Document them and give them to the customer

6. All of the following are ALWAYS inputs to the risk management process
EXCEPT:

A. Historical information,
B. Lessons learned.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Project status reports.

7. Risk tolerances are determined in order to help:

A. The team rank the project risks.

B. The project manager estimates the project.
C. The team schedules the project.
D. Management knows how other managers will act on the project.

49
8. All of the following are common results of risk management EXCEPT:

A. Contract terms and conditions are created.

B. The project management plan is changed.
C. The communications management plan is changed.
D. The project charter is changed.

9. Purchasing insurance is BEST considered an example of risk:

A. Mitigation.
B. Transfer.
C. Acceptance.
D. Avoidance.

10. You are finding it difficult to evaluate the exact cost impact of risks. You should
evaluate on:

A. Quantitative basis.
B. Numerical basis.
C. Qualitative basis.
D. Econometric basis.

11. Outputs of the Plan Risk Responses process include:

A. Residual risks, fallback plans, and contingency reserves.

B. Risk triggers, contracts, and risk list.
C. Secondary risks, process updates, and risk owners.
D. Contingency plans, project management plan updates, and change requests.

12. Workarounds are determined during which risk management process?

A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Monitor and Control Risks

13. During which risk management process is a determination to transfer a risk made?

A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysts
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Monitor and Control Risks

14. Once begun, the project cannot be cancelled, as there will be a large expenditure
on plant and equipment. As the project manager, it would be MOST important to
carefully:

A. Review all cost proposals from the sellers.

B. Examine the budget reserves.
C. Complete the project charter.
D. Perform an identification of risks.

50
15. There is no effective way to mitigate or insure against a risk. It is not work that
can be outsourced, nor can it be deleted. What would be the BEST solution?

A. Accept the risk.

B. Continue to investigate ways to mitigate the risk.
C. Look for ways to avoid the risk.
D. Look for ways to transfer the risk.

16. Project is nearing project closing when a previously unidentified risk is

discovered. This could potentially affect the projects ability to deliver. What
should be done?

A. Alert the project sponsor of potential impacts to cost, scope, or schedule.

B. Qualify the risk.
C. Mitigate this risk by developing a risk response plan.
D. Develop a workaround.

17. Monte Carlo analysis is used to:

A. Get an indication of the risk involved in the project.

B. Estimate an activity’s length.
C. Simulate the order in which activities occur.
D. Prove to management that extra staff is needed.

18. A watch list is an output of which risk management process?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Plan Risk Management

51
 Chapter 12, Practice Exam - Procurement Management, Answers Page 91

1. Once signed, a contract is legally binding unless:

A. One party is unable to perform.

B. One party is unable to finance its part of the work.
C. It is in violation of applicable Law.
D. It is declared null and void by either party’s legal counsel.

2. With a clear contract statement of work, a seller completes work as specified, but
the buyer is not pleased with the results. The contract is considered to be:

A. Null and void.

B. Incomplete.
C. Complete.
D. Waived.

3. All statements concerning procurement documents are incorrect EXCEPT:

A. Well-designed procurement documents can simplify comparison of responses.

B. Procurement documents must be rigorous with no flexibility.
C. In general, bid documents should not include evaluation criteria.
D. Well-designed procurement documents do not include procurement statement of
work.

4. The primary objective of incentive clauses in a contract is to:

A. Reduce costs for the buyer.

B. Help the seller control costs.
C. Synchronize objectives.
D. Reduce risk for the seller by shifting risk to the buyer.

5. All the following statements about change control are incorrect EXCEPT:

A. A fixed price contract will minimize the need for change control.
B. Changes seldom provide real benefits to the project.
C. Contracts should include procedures to accommodate changes.
D. More detailed specifications eliminate the causes of changes.

6. A routine audit of a cost reimbursable contract determines that overcharges are

being made. The contract does not specify corrective action, the buyer should:

A. Continue to make project payments.

B. Halt payments until the problem is corrected.
C. Void the contract and start legal action to recover over payments.
D. Change the contract to require more frequent audits.

7. The primary objective of contract negotiations is to:

A. Get the most from the other side.

B. Protect the relationship.
C. Get the highest monetary return.
D. Define objectives and stick to them.

52
8. A seller is working on a cost reimbursable contract when the buyer decides he
would like to expand the scope of services and change to a fixed price contract.
All of the following are the seller’s options EXCEPT:

A. Completing the original work on a cost reimbursable basis and then negotiating a
fixed price for the additional work.
B. Completing the original work and rejecting the additional work.
C. Negotiating a fixed price contract that includes all the work.
D. Starting over with a new contract.

9. Bidder conferences are part of:

A. Plan Procurements.
B. Administer Procurements.
C. Conduct Procurements.
D. Communications Management.

10. All of the following MUST be present to have a contract EXCEPT:

A. Procurement statement of work

B. Acceptance
C. Address of the seller
D. Buyer signatures

11. Which of the following BEST describes the project manager role during
procurement process?

A. The project manager has only minor involvement.

B. The project manager should be the negotiator.
C. The project manager should supply an understanding of the risks of the project
D. The project manager should tell contract manager how contracting process can be
handled.

12. What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?

A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.

B. Negotiate a price under the sellers estimate.
C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.

13. Which of the following activities occurs during the Plan Procurements process?

A. Make-or-buy decisions
B. Answering seller questions about the bid documents
C. Advertising
D. Proposal evaluation

53
14. Which of the following is the BEST thing for a project manager to do in the
Conduct Procurements process of procurement management?

A. Evaluate risks
B. Select a contract type
C. Update the project schedule
D. Answer seller questions about bid documents

15. In a fixed price contract, the fee or profit is:

A. Unknown.
B. Part of the negotiation involved in paying every invoice.
C. Applied as a line item to every invoice.
D. Determined with the other party at the end of the project.

16. An advantage of a fixed price contract for the buyer is:

A. Cost risk is lower.

B. Cost risk is higher.
C There is little risk
D. Risk is shared by all parties.

17. As part of the records management system, you are trying to make sure that all
records from the procurement are documented and indexed. Which of the
following do you NOT have to worry about?

A. Proposal
B. Procurement statement of work
C. Terms and conditions
D. Negotiation process

18. You are in middle of negotiation when other party says, ‘We need to finish in one
hour because I have to catch my plane. That person is using which of the
following negotiation strategies?

A. Good guy, bad guy

B. Delay
C. Deadline
D. Extreme demands

19. With which type of contract is the seller MOST concerned about project scope?

A. Fixed price
B. Cost plus fixed fee
C. Time and material
D. Purchase order

54
20. Your company has an emergency and needs contracted work done as soon as
possible. Under these circumstances, which of the following would be the MOST
helpful to add to the contract?

A. A clear procurement statement of work

B. Requirements as to which subcontractors can be used
C. Incentives
D. A force majeure clause

21. During what part of the procurement process does procurement negotiation occur?

A. Plan Procurements
B. Close Procurements
C. Manage Procurements
D. Conduct Procurements

55
 Exercise, Procurement, Chapter 12

Plan Conduct Control Close

Procurements Procurements Procurements Procurements
Finalize a make- Find potential sellers Understand the legal Perform a
or-buy decision through advertising or the implications of your procurement
Internet actions audit

Create Send procurement Hold procurement Reach a

procurement documents performance reviews negotiated
management plan settlement
Create procurement Hold a bidder conference Request changes and Create lessons
statement of work administer claims learned

Select appropriate Answer sellers questions Manage interfaces Complete final

contract type among sellers contract
performance
reporting

Create terms, Seller makes a decision to Report performance Verify product

conditions, bid/propose
standards, special
conditions

Create procurement Seller creates the proposal Monitor performance Issue formal
documents against the contract acceptance

Create source Receive the proposals Review cost submittals Update records
selection criteria

Compare the proposals to Maintain records of Create a

source selection criteria everything procurement
using a weighting or file
screening system to
pick/shortlist the sellers

Receive presentations Make payments Perform

from seller(s) financial closure

Compare to independent Perform inspections

estimates and audits

Hold negotiations

56
Mention the procurement process.
Action Plan, Conduct, Control,
Close Procurement
Request changes and administer claims
Manage interfaces among sellers
Report performance
Make a make-or-buy decision
Perform a procurement audit
Find potential sellers through advertising or the Internet
Hold a bidder conference
Answer sellers questions
Reach a negotiated settlement
Create lessons learned
Create a procurement management plan
Send procurement documents
Create procurement statement of work

Hold procurement performance reviews

Complete final contract performance reporting

Select the appropriate contract type
Understand the legal implications of your actions
Create terms & conditions, standard & special conditions
Receive the proposals
Seller makes a decision to bid/propose
Monitor performance against the contract
Seller creates the proposal
Create procurement documents
Update records
Review cost submittals
Create source selection criteria
Create a procurement file
Maintain records of everything
Compare the proposals to source selection criteria using a
weighting or screening system to pick/shortlist the sellers
Make payments
Receive presentations from seller(s)
Perform financial closure
Issue formal acceptance
Compare to independent estimates
Hold negotiations
Verify the product
Perform inspections and audits

57
 Chapter 13, Stakeholder Management, Answers page 66

Question 1: Project manager must identify ___________, determine their

requirements, manage, and influence those requirements, to ensure a
successful project.

A. Scope
B. End users
C. Stakeholders
D. Functional managers

Question 2: Which of the following statements BEST describes how

stakeholders are involved on a project?

A. They help to determine project resource needs and resource constraints.

B. They help to determine the project constraints and product deliverables.
C. They approve the project charter, help provide assumptions, and create
management plans.
D. They help to determine project schedule, deliverables, and
requirements.

Question 3: Near end of last project, additional requirements were

demanded by stakeholders. This was a pro blem because you had not
included time or cost in project management plan for these requirements.
What is BEST to prevent such problems?

A. Review project charter thoroughly, examining business case for “holes.”

B. Do a more thorough job of procurem ent planning.
C. Pay more attention to stakeholder management.
D. Review WBS dictionary thoroughly, looking for incomplete
descriptions.

Question 4: Degree to which a particular stakeholder may be able to

positively or negatively affect a project is his:

A. Level of influence.
B. Level of engagement.
C. Level of commitment.
D. Level of interest.

Question 5: Stakeholders engagement assessment matrix can be used to

identify:

A. Communications gaps
B. Key relationships between stakeholders
C. Additional stakeholders
D. Skill levels of stakeholders

58
Question 6: Information in the stakeholder register should be:

A. Accessible only to the project manager

B. Available to the project manager and PMO staff
C. Shared with others at the discretion of the project manager
D. Available to all stakeholders and team members

Question 7: Key objective of stakeholder management is:

A. Communication
B. Satisfaction
C. Coordination
D. Relationships

Question 8: Maintaining trust, resolving conflicts, and preventing

problems are all parts of:

A. Controlling communication.
B. Planning human resource management.
C. Planning risk responses
D. Managing stakeholder engagement

Question 9: Identify Stakeholders is:

A. An initiating process, because you need to know stakeholder

requirements before you plan.
B. Part of organizational process assets, and an input to project initiating
C. A planning process, because you need to involve stakeholders in
planning.
D. An initiating process, because before you start, you must make a clear
delineation between the customer and the performing organization.

Question 10: Procurement management plan is an input to Identify

Stakeholders because:

A. The plan includes the results of market research to identify additional

stakeholders.
B. The procurement statement of work includes a complete list of project
stakeholders
C. All parties to the contract are stakeholders
D. All stakeholders must receive a copy of the contract

Question 11: Project manager is trying to recall a stockholder’s preferred

communication method. Where can she find that information?

A. RACI chart
B. Human resource management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Stakeholder assessment matrix

59
Question 12: All of the following are true EXCEPT:

A. Communications management plan is part of the project

management plan
B. The stakeholders’ impact on the proje ct must be assessed.
C. The project manager needs to determine the skills of the stakeholders
D. The stakeholders do not have a role in determining the project
management plan unless they are part of the project team

Question 13: Which of the following BEST describes stakeholders?

A. End users
B. People who may have a positive or negative influence on a project
C. Sponsors and the team
D. The public

Question 14: Role of each stakeholder is determined by:

A. The team and the project manager

B. The stakeholder and the sponsor
C. The project manager and the sponsor
D. The project manager and the stakeholder

Question 15: Stakeholder register is an input to which of the following

processes?

A. Identify Risk and Develop Project Charter

B. Plan Quality management and Perform Quality Assurance
C. Plan Risk Management and Collect Requirements
D. Perform Integrated Change Control and Plan Communications
Management

Question 16: While discussing the project with stakeholders, project

manager realizes she needs to add to the requirements traceability matrix
and stakeholder register. Does she need formal approval from sponsor or
others to change these?

A. It depends on what changes are being made

B. Yes. Change needs approval of change control board.
C. Yes. All documents require formal approval of changes by management.
D. No. These are project documents, not parts of project management
plan.
Question 17: A salience model is used in stakeholder analysis to classify
stakeholders based on their:

A. Interest, influence and legitimacy

B. Power, urgency, and legitimacy
C. Urgency, interest, and power
D. Impact, interest, and urgency

60
Question 18: A stockholder’s belief about picture of the project is:

A. Constraint
B. Heuristic
C. Expectation
D. Requirement

Question 19: Stakeholder management is an important responsibility of

the project manager during which process groups?

A. Planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling

B. Planning and executing
C. Initiating, planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling
D. Initiating, planning, and executing

Question 20: There are 30 stakeholders on your project, which is being

done in another country with people from 4 countries as team members.
Which of the following is the MOST important thing to keep in mind?

A. Conflicts of interest must be disclosed.

B. There must be one sponsor from each country
C. Many competing needs and objectives must be satisfied
D. The communication channels will be narrow

Question 21: The key objective of stakeholder management is:

A. Stakeholder engagement
B. Stakeholder satisfaction
C. Stakeholder quantification
D. Stakeholder compliance

Question 22: You are project manager and realize there are over 200
stakeholders on project. Which of the following would be the BEST
course of action for you to take?

A. Gather the needs of all the most influence stakeholders

B. Eliminate some stakeholders
C. Contact your manager, and ask which stakeholders are most important.
D. Find an effective way to gather the needs of all stakeholders

Question 23: Stakeholder management is MOST important in which of

the following processes?

A. Perform Quality Assurance

B. Close Project Phase
C. Collect Requirements
D. Sequence Activities

61
Question 24: Information including desired levels of engagement for
stakeholders, and how particular stakeholders will be involved in the
project, is included in the:

A. Stakeholder management plan

B. Communication management plan
C. Responsibility assignment matrix
D. Human resource management plan

Question 25: All are responsibilities of project manager EXCEPT:

A. Find when stakeholders will be involved in project and how

extensively
B. Get stakeholders’ sign-off that the requirements are finalized
C. Ask stakeholders to let you know about problems in project
communications and relationships
D. Carefully select appropriate stakeholder s for the project

Answers

1 C
2 B
3 C
4 A
5 A
6 C
7 B
8 D
9 A
10 C
11 C
12 D
13 B
14 D
15 C
16 D
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 C
21 B
22 D
23 C
24 A
25 D

62
 Chapter 2, Project Life Cycle, Answers (Page 7)

1. Answer A
Explanation Remember that if the question doesn’t state what it is comparing to, it is
comparing to a functional organization.

2. Answer D
Explanation The main drawback of the projectized organization is that at the end of the
project, the team is dispersed but they do not have a functional department (‘home”) to
which to return.

3. Answer A
Explanation In a functional organization, the project manager has the least support for the
project and has little authority to assign resources. Choices C and D are roles in a weak
matrix organization.

4. Answer C
Explanation Because a project done in a matrix organization involves people from across
the organization, communications are more complex.

5. Answer B
Explanation In a functional organization, the functional manager is the team member’s
boss and probably also the project manager’s boss.

6. Answer A
Explanation In a projectized organization, the entire company is organized by projects,
giving the project manager the most power.

7. Answer D
Explanation Choice D implies that the whole project repeats every month. Generally, the
only things that might repeat in a project are some activities. The whole project does not
repeat.

8. Answer A
Explanation Giving stakeholders extras is known as gold plating. This is not effective
stakeholder or quality management

9. Answer C
Explanation Some students may think this question has more than one right answer. It
does not. There are many things the project manager can do, but what should be done?
The company policies are managed by the project management office and the project
manager should make sure the stakeholders have clear information by sending them
directly to the authority on company policies for project management.

10. Answer B
Explanation There are many things the project manager could do. Choice A is not best
choice, as other project manager might not be an experienced mentor. His advice might
not be adequate to help this project manager. Choice C is reactive, while a project
manager should be proactive. Choice D is not best choice. It would be helping, but does
not specifically address the issues in this situation. If the PMO is contacted the project
manager can receive the knowledge of many project managers, historical information
from many projects, and have assistance of someone whose job it is to help.

63
11.Answer C
Explanation Because orders are numerous and of short duration, this situation is a
process, not a project.

12. Answer A
Explanation Choice B would help improve subsequent phases, but would do nothing for
control and deliverables. Choice C would help control each phase, but would not control
the integration of the phases into a cohesive whole. Choice D would help, but not help
both control and deliverables for each phase. Effective project management requires a life
cycle approach to running the project. Choice A is the only answer that covers both
control and deliverables.

13. Answer: B
Explanation This work has entered the manufacturing stage. Manufacturing is generally
considered a process, not a project, as it is not temporary. A project charter will not be
appropriate here.

14. Answer C
Explanation Because the question talks about priorities among projects, this cannot be the
role of the project manager (choice A), the project management team (choice B), or the
project team (choice D).

15. Answer B
Explanation These are all reasons projects are initiated.

16. Answer A
Explanation Notice that this question asks about the use of a tool of project management.
Many people can learn from a book what a lessons learned document is, but questions
like this can more readily be answered if you actually use the tool and know from
experience its value. Ask yourself about the other tools of project management. Why are
they beneficial? The BEST use of lessons learned is choice A. There are other tools that
are better for accomplishing the things listed in the other choices.

17. Answer D
Explanation The best answer is stakeholders, as their input is critical for collecting all the
lessons learned on each project. The term stakeholders include all the other groups.

18. Answer C
Explanation Remember the definition of a project: temporary and unique. Operations and
maintenance are considered on-going activities, not temporary. Therefore, such work is
not considered a project or part of a project.

19. Answer B
Explanation Lessons learned help to avoid future pitfalls and use the good ideas of past
projects. This leads to improvements in future projects.

64
 Chapter 3, Processes, Answers (Page 10 )

1. Answer C
Explanation Notice the use of the word detailed. Such a budget is created during the
planning process group.

2. Answer D
Explanation Project charter is needed before planning & execution of the work can begin.

3. Answer C
Explanation Communications requirements and quality standards are needed before risks
(especially risks relating to communications and quality) can be determined (choice A).
Iterations (choice B) cannot begin until the risks are identified, qualified, quantified, and
responses developed. These then create the need to revise the WBS and other parts of the
project management plan. A bar chart (choice D) would have been done during the
creation of the schedule, so it cannot be the next thing. Of the choices listed, determine
communications requirements (choice C) are the best.

4. Answer B
Explanation In the project management process, the project budget (choice A), project
management plan (choice C), and detailed risk assessment (choice D)) come after the
schedule. The only answer that could be an input is the WBS.

5. Answer A
Explanation The project manager should be named early in the project, during project
initiating if possible.

6. Answer D
Explanation Notice the question asks which is NOT an input to initiating process group.
Project scope statement (choice D) is an output of the planning process group. Did you
select choice A? Companies should have processes in place for hiring resources,
reporting, and managing risks on projects (to name only a few).

7. Answer D
Explanation The project charter is created during the initiating process group. Therefore
the question is asking what is done next in either the initialing process group or the
planning process group. For this type of question, you should look for the choice that
occurs closet to the process group you are in. Choice A is done during the executing
process group. Choices B and C are done during the monitoring and controlling process
group. Choice D is the best choice, as it is part of the planning process group.

8. Answer A
Explanation High-level project constraints are determined during initiating process group.

9.Answer D
Explanation The project manager must be assigned during initiating.

10. Answer B
Explanation Choice A occurs during the planning process group as part of creating the
project scope statement. Since you must already have problems in order to determine their
root cause, choice C must occur during the monitoring and controlling process group, not
initiating. Choice D occurs during the closing process group.

65
11. Answer D
Explanation Doing actual work will normally take the MOST project time and resources.

12. Answer B
Explanation Project scope statement (choice B) is generally created in project planning.

13. Answer A
Explanation Performance measures are determined earlier in the project so they can be
used to measure progress during the project, making choice A the only correct answer to
this question.

14. Answer C
Explanation A phase or project must be formally dosed and accepted.

15. Answer C
Explanation During the monitoring and controlling process group, project performance is
measured, and needed changes are identified and approved.

16. Answer B
Explanation All five process groups are addressed in each project. It is the responsibility
of the project manager to determine the level of attention to give to each process group.

17. Answer D
Explanation All of these processes are part of monitoring and controlling.

18. Answer C
Explanation Detailed requirements are collected during Collect Process in planning.

19. Answer A
Explanation Develop Project Charter (choice A) occurs in the initiating process group.

66
 Integration Management Exercise, Answers Chapter 4, Page 13

1. Answer B

Explanation This question is asking for the most important of the choices. Think about
what is involved in integration: project management plan development, project
management plan execution, and integrated change control. In order to integrate the
project components into a cohesive whole, communication is key when one activity will
interface with another, one team member will interface with another, and any other form
of interfacing will occur. Choices C and D are parts of the monitoring and controlling
process group, while integration includes more than control. Choice A is under project
management plan execution.

2. Answer B

Explanation The project manager is basically performing the duties of an integrator, and is
mostly doing integration of activities.

3. Answer D

Explanation Historical records are not generally used for life cycle costing (choice A),
lessons learned (choice B), or creating status reports (choice C).

4. Answer D

Explanation Project managers should be proactive. The only proactive answer here is
preventing unnecessary changes.

5. Answer D

Explanation. Change management plan includes the processes and procedures that allow
smooth evaluation and tracking of changes. Lessons learned (choice D) are reviews of the
processes and procedures to improve them; they are not part of the system.

6. Answer C
Explanation The sponsor issues the project charter and so he or she should help the project
manager control changes to the charter. The primary responsibility lies with the sponsor.
7. Answer A
Explanation Integration is a key responsibility of the project manager, so choice A is the best
answer.
8. Answer B
Explanation Integration refers to combining activities, not team members (choice D). Could the
project manager smash two team members together and create one big team member?
9. Answer B
Explanation Choice B is the only correct response.

67
10. Answer C
Explanation The project management plan contains more than just a bar or Gantt chart and the
project managers plan for completing the work. It includes all the management plans for the project.
11. Answer D
Explanation If we were to rephrase the question, it is asking, "Who creates the project
management plan?" The best answer is that project management plans are created by the project
manager but require input from the team.
12. Answer B

Explanation This situation implies that there are six areas concerned with this project. In
addition to added communications requirements, you should be concerned with competing needs
and requirements.
13. Answer D
Explanation A project control system (choice D) is set up during the planning process group, not
during project executing. Did choice B confuse you? A WBS is created in project planning, but
can be used to help manage the project during project executing. The wording here was not
"creating the WBS" but "using the WBS."

14. Answer D

Explanation A project manager must manage a project. If all activities are delegated, chaos
ensues and team members will spend more time jockeying for position than completing
activities.
15. Answer C

Explanation Choices B and D are essentially delaying the situation. Instead, the project
manager should try to prevent the situation by showing the consequences if the resources
are not available (choice C). This is a more effective strategy than saying "but you gave
them to me," as in choice A.

16. Answer A

Explanation A single high-level executive can end an entire project if he or she is not
satisfied with the results, even if that person has, by choice, been only tangentially
involved in the project It is critical to ensure that all of the final decision makers have
been identified early in a project in order to ensure that their concerns are addressed.

17. Answer D

Explanation The other impacts to the project should be evaluated first. Such impacts
include scope, cost, quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction. Once these are
evaluated, the change control board, if one exists, can approve or deny the change.

68
18. Answer C

Explanation Before you can do anything else, you have to know what YOU are going to
do. Developing the management strategy will provide the framework for all the rest of the
choices presented and the other activities that need to be done.

19. Answer D

Explanation First, you need to find out why the customer is not happy. Then meet with
the team and determine options.

20. Answer C

Explanation Do you remember what to do when there is a change? Evaluate first. You
wouldn't take action before getting approval, so compressing the schedule (choice A) and
cutting scope (choice B) would happen after choices C and/or D. You would not go to the
customer before going to your internal management, so choice D is not the correct thing
to do next 1he next step is to discuss options with the sponsor (choice C).

21. Answer B

Explanation The project manager is asking how to make a change. The procedures, forms,
sign- offs, and other similar requirements for handling changes should have already been
defined in the change management plan (choice B). Because they weren't, the project
manager will waste valuable work time trying to figure it out after the fact.

22. Answer B

23. Answer A

Explanation The project charter (choice B) is created in initiating. The project

management plan (choice C) is an output of the planning process group. You have not
seen the term risk analysis plan (choice D) in this book, so it is unlikely to be the best
answer.

24. Answer D

Explanation Benefit cost analysis (choice D) is done earlier in the project to help select
between alternatives. All the other choices are done during dosing. Therefore choice D
must be the best answer.

25. Answer D

Explanation This question may seem simple, but it is really testing if you know what is a
correct project charter. Choices A and B do not come until project management planning,
after the project charter. A project charter may include the names of some resources (the
project manager, for example), but not detailed resources (choice C).

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26. Answer C

Explanation The exam will ask questions like this to make sure you know the benefits you
should be getting out of the process and tools of project management. The details of what
needs to be done (choice A) are found in the WBS dictionary. The names of team
members (choice B) are included in the responsibility assignment matrix and other
documents. Project history (choice D) is found in the lessons learned and other project
documents.

27. Answer A

28. Answer B

29. Answer D

Explanation Did you pick choice A? Then you may have forgotten that the Verify Scope
process is done during the monitoring and controlling process group, not the closing
process group. The other plans (choices B and C) are done earlier in the project. The
lessons learned (choice D) can only be completed after the work is completed.

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 Scope Management - Chapter 5, Answers (Page 18)

1. Answer C
Numbering system allows to quickly identify level in work breakdown structure where
the specific element is found. It also helps to locate the element in the WBS dictionary.

2. Answer B
Output of Verify Scope process is customer acceptance of project deliverables. Other
choices happen during project planning, well before Verily Scope process takes place.

3. Answer A
Activity lists (choice B) may list the work package they relate to, but they do not contain
detailed descriptions of the work packages. The project scope statement (choice C)
defines the project scope, but it does not describe the work a team member is assigned.
The scope management plan (choice D) describes how scope will be planned, managed,
and controlled. It does not include a description of each work package. The WBS
dictionary defines each element in the WBS. Therefore, descriptions of the work
packages are in the WBS dictionary (choice A).

4. Answer B
The project scope statement is an output of the Define Scope process, which occurs
during project planning.

5. Answer D
The level of uncertainty in scope increases based on the scale of effort required to identify
all the scope. For larger projects it is more difficult to catch everything.

6. Answer C
Based on the information presented, there is no reason to try to convince the sponsor to
add the work (choices B and D). Though one could let the sponsor know (choice A) the
best choice would be to say no. A better choice would be to find the root cause of the
problem, but that choice is not listed here.

7. Answer A
A WBS does not show dates or responsibility assignments (choices B and C). Those are
included on the bar chart and possibly in the communications management plan. The
business need (choice D) is shown in the project charter. Never thought that a WBS could
be shown to the customer? Made you think! Of course it could be used for that purpose.
In this situation, the product and project scope are being fine tuned. It would save the
project manager time to effectively manage progressive elaboration lithe WBS was used
to assist. The WBS helps ensure everyone understands the scope of the work.

8. Answer B
The team member is suggesting an enhancement that is outside the scope of the project
charter. Scope management involves focusing on doing the work and only the work in the
project management plan that meets the objectives of the project charter. The project
manager is performing scope management.

9. Answer C
The Verify Scope process occurs during the monitoring and controlling process group, so
choices A, B, and D cannot be correct. Verify Scope is done at the end of each phase (the
end of design, implementation, etc.), making choice C the best answer.

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10. Answer A
Choice C is not generally true. Every project must have a WBS. Risks can be identified
using various methods. Therefore, choice D is an incorrect statement and not the best
answer. Choice A, preventing work from being forgotten (slipping through the cracks) is
ONE of the reasons the tool is used.

11. Answer C
The lowest level of the WBS is a work package, which can be performed by more than
one person.

12. Answer C
The project scope statement (choice A) describes work on a high-level basis. Work
packages need to be specific to enable team members to complete their work with less
gold plating. The product scope (choice B) would not tell team members what work is
assigned to them. The team should have a copy of the schedule (choice D), but a schedule
will not show them what work is included in each of their work packages. Work packages
are described in the WBS dictionary (choice C). NOTE: Do not think of the WBS
dictionary as a dictionary of terms.

13. Answer C
Choices A, B, and D are processes in the monitoring and controlling process group. This
situation asks how to prevent the problem. This would have been done during the
planning processes. The project deliverables are defined in the Define Scope process
(choice C), which is a part of project planning. Good planning reduces the likelihood of a
situation like the one described by including the right people and spending adequate time
in clarifying the project scope.

14. Answer A
The project scope statement (choice B) is an output of the Define Scope process. The
work breakdown structure (choice C) is an output of the Create WBS process. Change
requests (choice D) are an output of the Verify Scope and Control Scope processes.

15. Answer C
One could do choice A, but there Is no reason to think that the board’s rejection would
not contain an explanation already, since providing that information is commonly done.
Suggesting a change process that circumvents the change control boards authority (choice
B) is not ethical There is no reason to think that approval processes are not already in
place (choice D). A rejected change should be recorded for historical purposes, In case
the idea is resurrected later, and for other reasons.

16. Answer C
Though it is common to have to cut costs (choice A) and add resources to a project
(choice D), nothing In the question should lead you to think these will be required in this
situation. Customers do not generally approve the project scope (what you are going to do
to complete their requirements); instead, they approve the product scope (their
requirements), so choke B cannot be best. Since the requirements are a measure of the
completion of the product of the project (choice C), not having completed requirements
makes such measurement impossible. This is why choice C is the best choice.

17. Answer A
Perform Quality Control checks for correctness and Verify Scope checks for acceptance.

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18. Answer A
Much of the work on the project is dictated by the protect scope statement. Any
imprecision in such a key document will lead to differing interpretations.

19. Answer C
Since the project management plan is completed before the Verify Scope process, choice
A cannot be best. Since Verify Scope does not deal with time, but rather acceptance,
choice B cannot be best. Since the Verify Scope process does not occur before the Define
Scope process. Choice D cannot be best. Only the statements in choice C are completely
correct, making that the best answer.

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 Chapter 6, Time Management, Answers (Page 22)

1. Answer A
There are only two choices related to scheduling: A and C. Choice C, however is a
diagramming technique that deals with the relationship between activities, not schedule
flexibility.

2. Answer C
Since the dependency is required. it could not be discretionary (choice A) and therefore
must be mandatory No mention is made that the dependency comes from a source outside
the project, so external (choice B) is not correct. Scope dependency (choice D) is not a
defined term. The key word in this question is requires. The question defines a mandatory
dependency.

3. Answer D
The bar chart (or Gantt chart) is designed to show a relationship to time. This is best used
when demonstrating progress or status as a factor of time.

4. Answer B
The bar chart (choice C) may show an end date, but it is not used to determine dates and
show progress. The project charter (choice D) may include any required end dates, but not
a logical determination of bow long the project will take. The network diagram (choice B)
takes the work packages from the work breakdown structure (choice A) and adds
dependencies. The dependencies allow us to look at the various paths through the
diagram. The longest duration path is the critical path. Choice B is the best answer.

5. Answer A
This question tests your knowledge about a number of topics. There can often be more
than one critical path (choice B) but you might adjust to decrease risk and have only one
critical path. Choice C uses the word will. The network diagram may change or it may
not, depending on the amount of schedule reserve and the reason for the change to the
schedule. You can have negative float (choice D) if you are behind schedule. Only choice
A is correct.

6. Answer C
A milestone shows the completion of a series of activities or work packages. Therefore, it
takes no time of its own. With this in mind, choice C is the best answer.

7. Answer B
Though having two critical paths COULD require more people (choice C) or cost more
(choice D) the answer that is definitely and always true is choice B. Because you need to
manage two critical paths, there is more risk that something could happen to delay the
project.

8. Answer C
Fast tracking (choice B) would affect time and cost. Monte Carlo analysis and life cycle
costs (choices A and D) do not directly deal with resources. Leveling (choice C) is the
only choice that will definitely affect resources.

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9. Answer C
Project planning (choice A) would use both types of charts. Team members (choke B)
need to see details and so they need a bar chart rather than a milestone chart. Risk
analysis (choice D) COULD make use of both charts. A milestone chart is used instead of
a bar chart for any situation where you want to report in a less detailed way (choice C).
Bar charts can scare people with their complexity and often show too much detail to be
worthwhile on a management level. Milestone charts are more effective for reporting to
management.

10. Answer C
Leveling resources (choice B) generally extends the schedule. Monte Carlo analysis
(choice D) does not directly address the constraints of this situation. To compress the
schedule you could either crash or fast crack. However, the situation says that the network
diagram cannot change. This eliminates the fast tracking option (choice A) leaving choice
C as the best answer.

11. Answer C
This is another question that asks about problem solving. Only choice C relates to
evaluate” Choices B and D do not try to solve the real problem. Choice A is just an untrue
statement

12. Answer A
You may or may not need your customer’s (choice B) or your Boss (choice C) input, but
you will definitely need to include an analysis of risk. Choke A is broader than choice D
and therefore is better.

13. Answer B
By the time this process is taking place, Sequence Activities (choice A), Define Scope
(choice C), and Develop Project Charter (choice D) would be completed.

14. Answer D
Since cutting product scope affects the customer, choice A has a great negative effect and
is therefore not best. A project manager’s job is to determine options for meeting any end
date or time, therefore choice B cannot be correct. Working overtime (choice C) is
expensive and unnecessary when there are so many other choices that could be selected
first. Choice D could have the least negative effect on the project

15. Answer A
The question implies a finish-to-finish relationship between activities. The arrow
diagramming method (choice B) does not support these types of relationships. Choice C
is not a diagramming method, and choice D is a made-up term.

16. Answer B
The situation is neither mandatory (choice A), nor driven by an external source (choice
C). A rule of thumb (choice D) is something that can be used consistently. This situation
is a unique occurrence. The situation is a suggestion of a preferred method, so choice B is
the best answer.

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17. Answer D
Develop Schedule includes all work & uses all inputs needed for a finalized, realistic
schedule. One would need time reserves (choice D) in order to complete a schedule. All
of the other items are parts of Control Schedule and occur after Develop Schedule.

18. Answer D
Answer D is the most correct answer. The schedule management plan is the repository for
plans for schedule changes. Note that choice B is a made-up term.

19. Answer C
Choice A is the same thing as create a network diagram. Choice B is another name for
Verify Scope, which is done during the monitoring and controlling process group, not
during project planning. Since a schedule is an input to risk management, choice D comes
after choice C and so it is not the next thing to do. The only remaining choice is C.

20. Answer A
Past history is being used to calculate an estimate. Monte Carlo (choice D)) relates to
what-if analysis. Choice B uses three time estimates per activity. One could use past
projects to come up with the estimate (choice C), but the best answer is choice A because
an estimate such as hours per installation is a chief characteristic of parametric estimates.

21. Answer B
Cutting resources from activity (choice A) would not save time nor would moving
resources in way described (choice C). Removing activity from the project (choice D) is a
possibility, but since dependencies are preferential and risk is low, best choice would be
to make more activities concurrent (choice B), as this would have less impact on project.

22. Answer A
Schedule management is a responsibility of the project manager.

23. Answer D
Detailed estimates (choice A) have nothing to do with the situation described. Project
management plans (choice B) will have more detail than Is necessary for the situation
described and may distract from the conversation if used in this situation. Bar charts
(choice C) are usually only for the team. The best answer is choice D because milestone
reports present the right level of detail for upper management.

24. Answer C
The key to this question is the phrase constant number used each month. Only leveling
choice C has such an effect on the schedule.

25. Answer C
Analogous estimates are top-down, high-level estimates even though a high-level or even
a definitive estimate can be estimated analogously. Therefore, choices A & B cannot be
correct. Project manager needs more than an analogous (high-level) estimate to determine
whether or not project will meet schedule (choice D). It is a benefit to know managements
expectations of how much project will cost so that any differences between analogous
estimate & detailed bottom-up estimate can be reconciled in planning processes. Best
choice is C.

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26. Answer B
A project manager must be more in control of the project than choices C and D reflect.
Choice A is a common error many project managers make. Instead, the project manager
should be controlling the project throughout the completion of the project.

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 Chapter 7 - Cost, Answers (Page 27)

Q-1, Answer: D

Q-2, Answer: C

Q-3, Answer: B

Q-4, Answer: A

Q-5, Answer: C

Q-6, Answer: C

Q-7, Answer: C

Q-8, Answer is B (EAC = (BAC/CPI)

Q-9, Answer: D

Q-10, Answer: D

Q-11, Answer: C

Q-12, Answer: D

Q-13, Answer: A

Q-14, Answer: A

Q-15, Answer: A

Q-16, Answer: A

Q-17, Answer: D

Q-18, Answer: D

Q-19, Answer: A

Q-20, Answer: C

Q-21, Answer: D

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 Chapter 8, Quality, Answers (Page 31)

1. Answer A
As a general rule, one cannot say that quality (as defined in the question) is either of high
or low cost (choices B and C) or that it provides the minimum price (choice D). It does
give the customer what the customer wanted, which may not be the lowest or highest
cost. Therefore, the best answer is A.

2. Answer B
Know the term so you will be able to answer questions that deal with this concept.
Choices A, C, and D may sound good, but they are made-up terms.

3. Answer B
Although each person working on the project should check his or her own work as part of
any project, the project manager ultimately has the responsibility for quality on the
project as a whole.

4. Answer C
Many people would pick choice A. It is proactive, but choice C mentions root cause and
the probable effect of dealing with the problem. If a problem with quality occurs again,
some other project constraint(s) must change to accommodate fixing the problem. Choice
B is partially correct (allow schedule to slip) but may not need to occur, because the
project manager might be able to compress the schedule in other areas. Besides, cutting
cost does not necessarily cause the schedule to slip. Choice D is not best, because a
quality problem is most likely to create additional cost, rather than cut cost.

5. Answer A
Notice in this question that there is a tot of data not relevant to answering the question?
Expect these distracters to occur in almost every question on the exam Quality should
produce a decrease rather than an increase in cost risk as a result of less rework, so
choices B and C can be eliminated. Quality should also provide increased cost
effectiveness due to less rework. This eliminates Choice D, leaving the best answer,
choice A.

6. Answer C
Quality attributes are the measurements that determine if the product is acceptable. They
are based on the characteristics of the product for which they were designed.

7. Answer C
Choices A and B cannot be the best, because there can be a cost impact (or time, risk,
etc.) of exceeding expectations or adding extras. Since a project should meet requirements
choice C is best.

8. Answer B
Choices A, C, and D are done as part of Perform Quality Assurance or Perform Quality
Control (depending on how they are used). This leaves only choice B, which must be the
best answer, as cost of quality is part of Plan Quality.

9. Answer A
Choices B and C relate to fishbone diagrams. Choice D relates to control charts. Only
choice A relates to Pareto charts.

10. Answer D

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Choice A relates to Pareto charts. Choices B and C relate to fishbone diagrams. Only
choice D relates to control charts.

11. Answer A
The length of time it takes to test a whole population is one of the reasons to take a
sample.

12. Answer B
Explanation Only quality training (choice B) is a cost of conformance to quality. All the
other choices arc costs of nonconformance to quality

13. Answer B
Standard deviation is the measurement of range around the mean. Therefore, choice B
must be the best answer.

14. Answer C
Quality metrics are an output of the Plan Quality process. They are an input to the
Perform Quality Assurance process, which is the process in which quality audits take
place.

15. Answer C
The rule of seven applies here. If you have seven data points in a row on the same side of
the mean, statistically the mean has shifted, calling for action to correct the problem.

16. Answer D

17. Answer D
This can be a tricky question, in that most project managers dismiss the need to focus on
quality, cost, and schedule should be considered of equal importance unless specific
project objectives make any one of them most important. Quality cost, schedule, scope,
risk, and other factors may be prioritized differently on each project.

18. Answer A
Quality audits are a necessary part of the Perform Quality Assurance process to improve
project performance quality

19. Answer A
Choices B and C are components of a quality management plan. The quality management
plan is part of the project management plan. The best answer is the quality management
plan.

20. Answer A
This is an example of gold plating. You should provide ONLY what the customer asked
for. The Learn does not know if their change will provide benefit to the customer. Focus
efforts on fulfilling the requirements.

21. Answer C
The plan described is the quality management plan. Since the quality management plan is
included in the project management plan, changing the quality management plan will also
change the project management plan.

22. Answer C
Perform Quality Assurance, of which an audit is part, focuses on processes, procedures,
and standards. Though ISO may be thought of as a standard, that is not the only reason an

80
audit would be conducted, and so choice A cannot be best. The seller cannot generally
control or review the customer’s process, so choice B cannot be best. Choice D is more
representative of a cost audit than a quality audit, so cannot be the best choice.

23. Answer C
Choice A is not productive since it does not solve the problem. An analogous estimate
(choice B) looks at past history of other projects. This would not be appropriate to
determine how the current project is going. The quality management plan (choice D) does
not provide results. Perform Quality Assurance (choice C) helps to determine if the
project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

24. Answer D
Quality audits (choice A), statistical sampling (choice B), and Pareto charts are tools and
techniques used in the Perform Quality Assurance and Perform Quality Control
processes. Focus groups are a tool of the Collect Requirements process, and would not be
useful in the Perform Quality Assurance process.

25. Answer C
Carefully read the questions ‘though quality problems (choice A) may lead to quality
assurance efforts, they are not a Quality improvement (choice B) is a result of Perform
Quality Assurance, not an input. Rework (choice D) can be an output of Perform Quality
Control. That leaves only quality control measurements (choice C), which are inputs to
Perform Quality Assurance.

26. Answer B
As you increase quality, there will be associated benefits for the project. Some of these
benefits are increased productivity increased cost effectiveness, decreased cost risk, and
improved morale.

27. Answer B
Performance of work packages (choice A) is done after project planning. Since the
previous project manager did not finish planning, choice D should not be next. Identify
Risks (choice C) sounds like a good choice; however, identifying quality standards
(choice B) occurs before the Identify Risks process. The best answer is B.

28. Answer B

29. Answer B
Gold plating a project wastes time and probably cost. It makes the project unsuccessful

30. Answer C
Measuring is part of the Perform Quality Control process. Did you select choice B? The
question asked what part of the quality process are you in, not what part of the project
management process are you in.

31. Answer C
All reports and diagrams are communications tools. This question asks you to pick the
most appropriate quality tool to help communications. An Ishikawa diagram (choice C),
also called a cause and effect diagram, is more appropriate than the Pareto chart (choice
B) since you are trying to determine the causes. Once causes are known and you have
data on occurrences, the data can be displayed in a Pareto chart.

32. Answer D

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Look for the proactive approach. When we plan for quality, it improves quality, which is
less expensive over the long run. You may spend more initially for increased quality. But
you will save through reduced rework, etc.

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 Chapter 9, HR, Answers (Page 42)

1. Answer D
When someone is given the job of project manager, they will have formal, reward, and
penalty power. But just having the position does not make the project manager either a
technical or project management expert.

2. Answer D
This question is asking which of the FOLLOWING is the highest. Self-actualization is
not listed, so the next best choice is esteem.

3. Answer B
Though the sponsor may help plan some of the activities (choice A) it is not the sponsor’s
exclusive duty. Some project constraints (choice C) come from the sponsor, but they
should be considered necessary. The project management plan (choice D) is created by
the team and approved by the sponsor and other management. Since the project objectives
are stated in the project charter and it is the sponsor who issues the project charter, choice
B is the correct answer.

4. Answer D
Problem solving normally takes more tune, but it gets buy-in from everyone, generating a
more lasting solution.

5. Answer C
Delaying the issue is called withdrawal.

6. Answer A
The responsibility assignment matrix maps who will do the work. The resource histogram
(choice B) shows the number of resources used in each time period. In its pure form, a bar
chart (choice C) shows only activity and calendar date. An organizational chart (choice
D) shows who reports to whom.

7. Answer B
Did you remember that in a matrix organization, the functional manager controls the
resources?

8. Answer B
Reward and expert are the best sources of power. Reward is not listed as a choice.

9. Answer C
The job of the project manager includes providing or obtaining protect-specific training
for team members. This kind of training is a direct cost of the project.

10. Answer B
The act of both parties giving something defines compromise.

11. Answer D
Those having the problem should resolve the problem. Having had to crash the critical
path several times implies that team D has already dealt with these problems. In this case,
the two team leaders need to meet. The extent of this situation requires the project
manager’s involvement as well.

12. Answer D

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Choice D is an example of compromising.

13. Answer D
It is the sponsor’s role to prevent unnecessary changes and to set priorities between
projects. The situation described in this question implies that such work is not being done,
and the project manager must therefore go to the root of the problem: the sponsor.

14. Answer D
Employees who believe that their efforts will lead to effective performance and who
expect to be rewarded for their accomplishments will stay productive as rewards meet
their expectations. This is expectancy theory.

15. Answer A
Explanation There is always the option to simply postpone dealing with the issue until
late. This is withdrawing.

16. Answer B
Both parties are giving up something. This is a compromise.

17. Answer A
Know the difference between Theory X and Theory Y.

18. Answer A
As project managers spend 90 percent of their time communicating, the correct choice
must be A.

19. Answer A
Sending data without pointing out the issue (choice A) does not mean the recipient will
adequately decode the communication. The other choices are more effective
communication in this instance.

20. Answer D
Notice that this question talks about what the team member should do? It is important for
the project manager to understand the team member’s role and possibly even instruct
team members on how to work on projects and what is expected of them. Choices A, B,
and C have one thing in common. They involve the team member asking the project
manager to do something. In reality, it may very well be the team member who will come
up with a solution (such as decreasing the scope of the activity fast tracking, or specific
suggestions about changes to predecessor activities). Therefore, choice D is the best
choice. But ask yourself how you run your projects? Which is better, your way or this
way? Lastly, please note that recommended corrective or preventive actions can come
from the team or stakeholders in addition to the project manager.

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 Chapter10, Communications, Answers (Page 50)

1. Answer B
Written communication allows your words to be documented, and they will go to
everyone in the same form. When there are complex problems you want everyone to
receive the same thing.

2. Answer D
Explanation The work breakdown structure allows communication vertically and
horizontally within the organization as well as outside the project

3. Answer C
Explanation The major result of communication blockers and miscommunication as a
whole is conflict.

4. Answer D
Explanation Understanding the receivers perspective allows you to direct the
communication to meet his needs.

5. Answer B
Explanation Everything that we do is more formal in a procurement environment than in
other project activities. Because choice B deals with contracts, it is the best answer.

6. Answer D
Explanation The best choice is 0. If informal verbal communication does not solve the
problem, choice A is the next best choice. This does not mean that you do not keep
records of the problems but this question is asking about communication between two
parties.

7. Answer A
Explanation When we talk about contracts, everything that we do is more formal than in
other project activities. Records are also important, thus the need for written
communication.

8. Answer A
Explanation The project status needs to be known by many people. Therefore, it is best to
make this type of communication in writing so that it can be transmitted to many people.
It is also formal in that it is an official report of the project. Therefore, choice A is the
best answer.

9. Answer B
Explanation Nonverbal communication carries 55 percent of the message you send. With
this much at stake, nonverbal communication is of major importance.

10. Answer D
Explanation Although the information is found as a sub-plan to the project management
plan (choice A), the communications management plan (choice D) is the best answer
because it directly answers the question.

11. Answer C
Explanation Choice A cannot be correct because the question states that all stakeholders
received the information. Choices B and D do not address the root cause of the problem.

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The problem presented here shows that there is something missing in the communications
management plan. The best answer is to review the communications management plan in
order to prevent future problems and find any instances of similar problems.

12. Answer B
Explanation Did you realize that the project manager is part of the communication
channels? Therefore, there are actually four stakeholders to begin with and six channels
of communication. The question is asking how many total channels of communication
you have with a team of five people. The formula is [N x (N-1)/2 or (5 x 4)/2 = 10.

13. Answer D
Explanation Choices C and D both include nonverbal communication, which represents
55 percent of communication. Choice D adds paralingual communication (pitch and tone)
and is thus the best choice.

14.Answer B
Explanation Because of the differences in culture and the distance between team
members, formal written communication is needed.

15.Answer D
Explanation Choice A is not a rule” for effective meetings. Since there is no indication
that the meeting was not scheduled in advance (choice B) or that there isn’t a purpose
(choice C), these cannot be the best answers. Discussed at random” implies no agenda
(choice D). If an agenda is issued beforehand, people will follow the outline and should
not need random discussions.

16. Answer B
Explanation The key word is quickly. ‘The status report (choice A) is too detailed for a
quick look The forecast report (choice C) only looks into the future. The progress report
(choice B) will summarize project status.

17. Answer B
Explanation A user of the project’s product is always a stakeholder, while the others may
or may not be.

18. Answer D
Explanation Working with people from different cultures, with different cultural values
and beliefs, necessitates an understanding of both basic delineations and the areas of
cultural impact. As project managers, we need to have good communication skills and a
willingness to adapt to other cultures.

19. Answer A
Explanation Many people select choice B, but the question asks for the purpose of such
meetings. Team members’ reporting on what they are doing may best be done outside of
meetings. The main purpose is choice A.

20. Answer A
Explanation Stakeholders must be identified and involved at the beginning of the project
in order to determine their requirements and expectations. Remember that if this is not
done early, the results may be expensive changes and or dissatisfaction later in the
project.

21. Answer D

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Explanation This situation describes the need to “compare A trend report (choice A)
shows performance over time. A forecasting report (choice B) looks only to the future. A
status report (choice C) is generally static (relating to a moment in time). The only choice
that compares project results is a variance analysis (choice D).

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 Chapter 11, Risk, Answers (Page 54)

1. Answer D
Explanation Insurance premiums come into play when you determine which risk response
strategy you will use.

2. Answer C
Explanation Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by EMV = Probability x
Impact. We need to compute both positive and negative values and then add them.
0.6 x $100,000 = $60,000. 0.4 x ($100,000) = ($40,000) Expected Monetary Value =
$60,000 - $48,000 = $20,000 profit

3. Answer C
Explanation Expected monetary value is computed by multiplying the probability times
the impact. In this case, EMV 0.9 x $10,000 = $9,000.

4. Answer B
Explanation This is a tricky question. Risks are identified during the Identify Risk
process, naturally, but newly emerging risks are identified in the Monitor and Control
Risks process.

5. Answer B
Explanation Risks change throughout the project. You need to review risks at intervals
during the project to ensure that non-critical risks have not become critical.

6. Answer D
Explanation Project status reports (choice D)) can be input to risk management. However,
when completing risk management for the first time, you would not have project status
reports. Therefore, project status reports are not always input to risk management

7. Answer A
Explanation If you know the tolerances of the stakeholders, you can determine how they
might react to different situations and risk events. You use this information to help
ass1e4riak on each work package or activity.

8. Answer D
Explanation A change to project charter is not always necessary. Change to project
charter is fundamental change to project and may require major adjustment to all aspects
of the project management plan. There are many reasons the other choices could happen
as a result of risk Since a contract can only be created after risks are known (a contract is
a tool to transfer risks), it is common sense that choice A cannot be the exception. The
project management plan (choice B) could change to include a modified WBS and new
work packages related to mitigating risk. The communications management plan (choice
C) could change as a way to address a risk. Choice D is the best answer.

9. Answer B
Explanation To mitigate risk (choice A), we either reduce the probability of the event
happening or reduce its impact. Many people think of using insurance as a way of
decreasing impact. However, mitigating risk is taking action before a risk event occurs.
Buying insurance is not such an action. Acceptance of risk (choice C) does not involve
such action as purchasing insurance. Avoidance of risk (choice D) means we change the

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way we will execute the project so the risk is no longer a factor. Transference is passing
the risk off to another party

10.Answer C
Explanation If you cannot determine an exact cost impact to the event, use qualitative
estimates such as Low, Medium, High, etc.

11. Answer A
Explanation A risk list (choice B), process updates (choice C), and change requests
(choice 0) are not outputs of the Plan Risk Responses process. The items in choice A are
all outputs of the Plan Risk Responses process, making choice A the correct answer.

12. Answer D
Explanation A workaround refers to determining how to handle a risk that occurs but is
not included In the risk register. The project must be in the Monitor and Control Risks
process if risks have occurred.

13. Answer C
Explanation Transference is a risk response strategy.

14. Answer D
Explanation Choice A could be done, but it is not a pressing issue based on the situation
provided. Choice B could also be done, but not until risk planning is completed. ft is
always important to carefully complete a project charter, choice C, but there are other
issues needing detailed attention in this situation, so choice C cannot be best. Since this
project has never been done before, and there will be a large cost outlay, it would be best
for the project manager to spend more lime on risk management. Risk identification is the
most proactive response and would have the greatest positive impact on the project.

15. Answer A
Explanation This question relates real world situations to risk types. Did you realize that
the entire first paragraph is extraneous? Based on the question. you cannot delete the
work to avoiding, nor can you insure or outsource to transfer the risk. This leaves
acceptance as the only correct choice.

16. Answer B
Explanation You would need to analyze the problem before you would talk to the sponsor
(choice A). You could not mitigate the risk (choice C) until you qualified the risk A
workaround (choice D) is an unplanned response to a risk that is occurring. This risk is
identified, not occurring, so there is no need to take action by creating a workaround.
Qualifying the risk (choice B) will give you an indication of how great the risk is. That
Information will help you determine how to proceed.

17. Answer A
Explanation Notice how many choices are half right? Monte Carlo could help you know
that an estimate for an activity needs to change, but not what the activity estimate should
be (choice B). Monte Carlo is a simulation (choice C), but it simulates time, not order of
activities. Monte Carlo can be used to prove things to management (choice D) but its
main focus deals with time, not staff. Risk can be assessed using Monte Carlo analysis
(choice A). By considering the inputs to the PERT estimates and the network diagram.
you can obtain a better overview of the overall project risk.

18. Answer C

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Explanation A watch list is made up of low priority risks that, in the Perform Qualitative
Risk Analysis process, were determined to be of too low priority or low impact to move
further in the risk process.

Chapter 12, Procurement, Answers (Page 57)

1. Answer C
Explanation Once signed, a contract is binding. Generally) the inability to perform, get
financing, or one parties belief that the contract is null and void does not change the fact
that the contract is binding. If, however, both sides agree to terminate the contract, the
contract can move into closure. Once closure is completed, the project is considered
completed.

2. Answer C
Explanation If the seller completes the work specified in the procurement statement of
work, the contract is considered complete. That does not mean the same thing as contract
dosed. The Close Procurements process must still occur. However, in this situation, the
contract work is completed.

3. Answer A
Explanation Often the seller is required to inform buyer of anything that is missing or
unclear in the procurement documents (choice B). It is in the buyers interest to discover
missing Items, since it will save the buyer money and trouble to correct the problem early
Procurement documents must contain terms and conditions and evaluation criteria (choice
C) as well as all the work that is to be done, including the procurement statement of work
(choice D). This is so the seller can price the project and know what is most important to
the buyer. Choice A is an important point for the real world and is the best answer.

4. Answer C
Explanation Incentives are meant to bring the objectives of the seller in line with those of
the buyer. That way both are progressing toward the same objective.

5. Answer C
Explanation Since there can be changes in any form of contract, choice A is not the best
answer. There are always good ideas (changes) that can add benefit to the project, so
choice B cannot be the best answer. In choice D, the word ‘eliminate” implies that
changes will not occur. As that is not true, this cannot be the best answer.

6. Answer A
Explanation Notice that choice B is really saying ‘halt ALL payments:’ Halting all
payments would be a breach of contract on the buye?s part. Choice C is too severe and
cannot be done unilaterally. Choke D does not solve the problem presented. A choice that
said, ‘Halt payments on the disputed amount” would probably be the best answer, but it is
not offered. The best answer is A.

7. Answer B
Explanation As a project manager you want to develop a relationship during negotiations
that will last throughout the project.

8. Answer D

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Explanation The seller does not have the choice to start over. The contract that exists is
binding. Both parties could agree to start over, but this is a drastic step.

9. Answer C
Explanation Expect many questions on the exam that require you to know in what part of
the procurement process activities are done.

10 Answer C
Explanation A contract includes procurement statement of work (choice A). To have a
contract, you must also have acceptance (choice B). One set of signatures is not enough;
you must have sign-off (acceptance) from both parties, so choice D is only partially
correct. The address of the seller (choice C) is not required, and therefore is the exception.

11.Answer C
Explanation As the project manager, you know what the project risks are. You need to
make sure that provisions are included in the contract to address these risks.

12. Answer A
Explanation Choices C and D are good ideas, but not key objective. Negotiations should
be win/win, so choice B is not the best choice. A fair and equitable price (choice A) will
create a good working atmosphere. Otherwise, you will pay later, on change orders.

13. Answer A
Explanation Answering sellers’ questions (choice B), advertising (choice C), and proposal
evaluation (choice D) occur during the Conduct Procurements process.

14. Answer D
Explanation During the Conduct Procurements process, you normally answer questions
submitted by the sellers. The risk analysis processes (choice A) are done before the
procurement process begins, as procurement is a risk mitigation and transference tool.
Selecting a contract type (choice B) is part of Plan Procurements. Changes to the project
schedule (choice C) may be an output of the Control Procurements process.

15. Answer A
Explanation To the seller, it is known, but this question is from the buyer perspective.
You do not know what profit the seller included in the contract.

16. Answer A
Explanation If you had trouble with this one1 you need to remember that the questions
are asked from the buyer’s perspective unless otherwise noted. In this case, the seller has
the most cost risk, and the buyer’s risk is lower.

17. Answer D
Explanation You need to know what a records management system is and that it would
not be used to keep track of negotiations. The negotiation process is not a document.

18. Answer C
Explanation Putting a time limit on the negotiation is an example of deadline.

19. Answer A
Explanation In a fixed price con tract, the seller has the cost risk and therefore wants to
completely understand the procurement statement of work before bidding.

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20.Answer C
Explanation If you follow proper project management process, you ALWAYS have good
definition of scope (choice A). In this situation, you are in a time crunch. Both good
scope definition & incentives are required. Along with good scope definition, you need
the seller to provide speed. Incentives bring the seller’s objectives in line with the buyer’s
and thus would be MOST helpful. Good scope definition alone does not ensure speed.

21. Answer D: Explanation Negotiation occurs during the Conduct Procurements process.

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Select project Determine how do Execute work according Take action to control Confirm work is done
manager - I planning - P to PM plan - E the project - M&C to requirements - C
Determine Finalize requirements - Produce product scope - E Measure performance Implement only
company culture - P against performance approved changes - E
I measurement baseline -
M&C
Complete Measure performance Request changes - Identify risks, Gain formal
procurement against other metrics E, M&C qualitative & acceptance of the
closure - C determined by project quantitative risk product - C
manager - M&C analysis, risk response
planning - P
Divide large Determine what to Hand off completed Determine variance & Collect processes,
projects into purchase - P product - C if they warrant change procedures, historical
phases - I request - M&C information - I
Uncover initial Determine team - P Ensure common Influence factors that Index and archive
requirements - I understanding system - E cause changes - M&C record - C
Create measurable Approve or reject Request changes - Estimate time and cost -
objectives - I change - M&C E, M&C P
Develop project Perform integrated Follow processes - E Create process Create activity list - P
charter - I change control - M&C improvement plan - P
Identify Create network diagram Perform Quality Release resources - C
stakeholders - I -P assurance - E
Complete final Estimate resource Perform quality audits - E Inform stakeholders of Continuously improve
performance requirements - P approved changes - authorization system -
reporting - C M&C E
Create WBS & Gain acceptance of Acquire final team - E Manage configuration - Create project scope
WBS dictionary - interim deliverables M&C statement - P
P from customer - M&C
Update lessons Determine critical path - Manage people - E Create forecasts - Develop schedule - P
learned - C P M&C
Send & receive Report on project Develop stakeholder Hold team building Determine quality
information - E performance - M&C management strategy - I activities - E standards & metrics - P
Administer Develop budget - P Determine all roles and Perform quality control Plan communications
procurements - responsibility - P - M&C -P
M&C
Hold kickoff Select sellers - E Give recognition and Prepare procurement Gain formal approval
meeting - P rewards - E documents - P of the plan - P
Finalize execution Evaluate team & project Use issue logs - E Perform risk audits - Hold meetings - E
& control parts of performance standard, M&C
all management processes, metrics - E
plans - P
Develop final plan & Facilitate conflict Manage reserves - Go back, iterations -
performance measurement resolution - E M&C P
baseline- P

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