CISSP®

Exam Prep
Questions, Answers & Explanations
CISSP® Exam Prep
Questions, Answers & Explanations

SSI Logic Publishing

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Table of Contents
Introduction

Welcome
CISSP Exam Overview

Practice Exams and Quizzes

CISSP Mock Exam (Baseline)

CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 1
Domain Area Test: Security and Risk Management
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 2.
Domain Area Test: Identity and Access Management.
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 3.
Domain Area Test: Security Engineering
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 4.
Domain Area Test: Communications and Network Security
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 5.
Domain Area Test: Security Assessment and Testing.
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 6.
Domain Area Test: Asset Security Practice.
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 7.
Domain Area Test: Software Development Security.
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 8
Domain Area Test: Security Operations
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 9
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 10.
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 11
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 12.
Domain Area Test: Multi Domain.
 CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 13
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 14
CISSP Extended Quiz
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 15
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 16
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 17
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 18
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 19
Extra Domain Area Test: Security and Risk Management
Extra Domain Area Test: Security Operations

Additional Resources

Exam Taking Tips

INTRODUCTION
Welcome

Thank you for selecting SSI Logic’s CISSP® Exam Prep – Questions, Answers, and
Explanations for your CISSP study needs. The goal of this book is to provide
condensed mock exams and practice tests which allow you to become comfortable
with the pace, subject matter, and difficulty of the Certified Information Systems
Security Professional (CISSP) certification exam.

The content in this book is designed to optimize the time you spend studying in
multiple ways.

1. Practice exams in this book are condensed to be completed in one hour;

allowing you to balance your time between practice tests and offline study.

2. Passing score requirements in this book are slightly higher than the real exam;
allowing you to naturally adjust to a higher test score requirement.

3. Practice exams included in this book cover the entire scope of the CISSP exam,
while shorter quizzes focus only on specific CISSP Common Body of
Knowledge (CBK) Domains.

The practice exam content in this book is structured into two general types of exam
preparation:

• “Lite” Mock Exams, which allow you to test your knowledge across
condensed versions of the CISSP exam; designed to be completed within one
hour.

• Domain Area Quizzes, which reflect brief practice tests focused on specific
CBK® Domain Areas; designed to be completed in 15 to 30 minutes,
depending on the exercise.

We wish you the best of luck in your pursuit to become a certified CISSP.
CISSP® Exam Overview

The CISSP practice questions in this book reflect the Domain areas presented in the
official CISSP Common Body of Knowledge (CBK).

About the Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)

Certification

The CISSP certification is managed by the International Information Systems

Security Certification Consortium (ISC)2 and reflects (ISC)2 's CISSP Common
Body of Knowledge (CBK). The CISSP program is the first IT certification to be an
ANSI ISO/IEC Standard 17024:2003 accreditation; an accreditation achieved in June
2004.

As of March 2015, the CISSP certification has been acquired by more than 98,000
individuals worldwide. The CISSP certification is a globally recognized credential,
with individuals certified in more than 130 countries. On average, salaries
associated with CISSP certified professionals are consistently ranked high among
the IT industry, with an average salary of $98,986 per year.

The minimum requirements in attaining the CISSP certification:

• Work experience: A minimum of five years of security work experience in two
or more CISSP domains; or four years of work experience with an applicable
degree or certification
• Accept the CISSP Code of Ethics and attest to the truth of your professional
experience
• Answer four questions regarding criminal history and related background
• Have your qualifications endorsed by another (ISC)2 certified professional
• Pass the CISSP Exam

CISSP Exam Details

The CISSP exam is designed to objectively assess and measure Information Security
knowledge. Concepts covered in the CISSP exam are directly derived from the eight
domains of the CISSP Common Body of Knowledge (CBK).

The actual CISSP exam is offered via computer based testing (CBT), in addition to
proctored, paper-based exams. A summary of the exam structure and passing
requirements are as follows:

• There are 250 total multiple choice questions which make up the CISSP exam
• Individuals have 6 hours to complete the exam
• The passing grade required is a scaled score of 700 out of a possible 1000
points

The Eight CISSP Domains

The eight CBK® Domains covered by the CISSP exam are listed below.

• Security and Risk Management

• Asset Security
• Security Engineering
• Communications and Network Security
• Identity and Access Management
• Security Assessment and Testing
• Security Operations
• Software Development Security

The CISSP certification is a globally recognized credential, and must be renewed

every three years. The certification can be renewed through Continuing
Professional Education (CPE) credits, or by retaking the CISSP exam.

About the International Information Systems Security Certification

Consortium (ISC)2

The (ISC)2 is a not-for-profit organization headquartered in the U.S.A, most widely

known for its CISSP certification. The (ISC)2 develops and maintains the (ISC)2
Common Body of Knowledge (CBK), upon which a common framework of terms
and principles in the Information Security field are based. In addition to the CISSP
certification, the (ISC)2 also credentials the SSCP, CAP, and CSSLP certifications.
PRACTICE EXAMS AND QUIZZES
CISSP Mock Exam (Baseline)
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (Baseline)

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which used as a baseline score for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. Separation of duties is an important aspect of operations security. Which of the

following scenarios does not violate the separation of duties principle?

A. A development team performs unit testing and quality assurance testing.

B. A security administrator is allowed to view and delete audit logs.

C. A computer user is allowed to install software and also to modify her

security profile.

D. A computer user is allowed to install software and alter desktop

configurations.

2. A security administrator completed the configuration of an antivirus software.

She was however concerned about how the system would behave when an actual
virus was encountered. Which of the following will help her in resolving this?

A. A script test

B. An ICE test

C. A self-test
 D. An EICAR test

3. The IT team in a company with a poor security policy uses a mechanism by

which they are able to access code without any security checks. This is likely to
be a:

A. Administrator hook

B. Database program

C. Security bypasser

D. Maintenance hook

4. During development of a software product, the development team performed

unit testing on the code during the coding phase. Subsequently a different team
performed formal testing on the product. This is in accordance with what
principle?

A. Generally accepted testing principles (GATP)

B. Agile methodology

C. Division of labor

D. Separation of duties

5. A user logged into an online banking system using a secure connection and
performed certain online transactions. She left her desk for about 5 minutes and
then returned to continue a transaction on the online banking system. At this
time, the online banking system required her to login again. Which of the
following is a reason this could happen?

A. All secure connections are setup such that they timeout automatically after 5
minutes. Hence it is important to ensure that a periodic refresh is done every
5 minutes so that the web server doesn't log the user out.

B. When a web session is idle for a period of time, the internet connection gets
timed out. Hence the user needs to login again into the online banking
system.
 C. This is most likely a bug in the online banking software and the user needs
to register a formal complaint.

D. When a web session is idle for a specified period of time, the connection is
closed out since the web server does not receive a cookie from the session.
The cookie has a timestamp and as a result the session gets timed out.

6. A high security system was found to have a high level of electromagnetic

emanation. Which of these standards is likely to have been violated?

A. Ampere

B. Tropic

C. Tempest

D. Faraday

7. Although the terms event and incident are often used interchangeably, they are
different. Which of the following statements is incorrect in this context?

A. An insider attack is a type of incident.

B. A terrorist attack is a type of incident.

C. An incident may have a positive or a negative impact on the company.

D. An event is a negative occurrence that can be observed, verified and

documented.

8. A security officer developed a security program to handle the security

requirements of an organization. The first three stages of the life cycle of the
security program were (a) Plan, (b) Implement and (c) Operate. Select a choice
from the following which best represents the next activity to be done as part of
the Security Program.

A. Assign roles and responsibilities

B. Monitor the program

 C. Assess business drivers

D. Restart the planning process

9. In the context of an IT environment, what does asset identification and

management refer to?

A. Asset management involves knowing and keeping up-to-date the hardware,

software, firmware, operating systems, and applications.

B. Asset management involves knowing and keeping up-to-date the complete

inventory of hardware, including the names of the manufacturers.

C. Asset management involves knowing and keeping up-to-date the complete

inventory of software in the department including operating systems,
applications and individual libraries.

D. Asset management involves knowing and keeping up-to-date the complete

inventory of hardware including laptops and printers.

10. A bank is planning to implement a security model which allows for dynamic
changing of access controls to prevent conflict of interest. Which of the
following would fit this requirement?

A. Brewer and Nash model

B. Clark and Wilson model

C. The Access Control Matrix model

D. Biba model

11. Two sets of computers are communicating with each other. One set of
computers uses session keys while the other set of computers uses static
symmetric keys. Which of the two is preferable to provide better protection?

A. Static symmetric keys provide better protection than session keys since they
are valid only for one session.

B. Both session keys and static symmetric keys provide equal protection since
 they are valid only for multiple sessions.

C. Session keys provide better protection than static symmetric keys since they
are valid only for one session.

D. Both session keys and static symmetric keys provide equal protection since
they are valid only for one session.

12. Which of the following types of plans establishes personnel safety and
evacuation procedures?

A. Cyber incident emergency plan

B. Business resumption plan

C. IT contingency plan

D. Occupant emergency plan

13. Lighting in buildings is often controlled such that lights in different parts of the
building turn on and off at different times. This gives potential intruders the
impression that there are people at work in different parts of the building. What
is this called?

A. Bypass lighting

B. Standby lighting

C. Standoff lighting

D. Controlled lighting

14. Which of the following proxy firewalls does not operate at the networking
layer of the OSI model?

A. Stateless proxy

B. Packet filtering

C. Stateful proxy
 D. Kernel proxy

15. Clustering refers to a fault-tolerant server technology similar to redundant

servers with the difference that each server takes part in processing services that
are requested. Which of the following statements about clustering is incorrect?

A. Clustering provides for availability

B. Clustering helps in load balancing where each system takes a part of the
processing load.

C. Clustering provides failover such that other systems continue to work if one
fails.

D. Clustering offers poor scalability.

16. A vandal stole a hardcopy of a list of credit card numbers and typed these into a
spreadsheet on his computer. However, he was arrested by the police and his
computer was seized. What category of computer crime law would apply?

A. Computer is incidental crime

B. Computer-induced crime

C. Computer-assisted crime

D. Computer-targeted crime

17. A frame relay is a WAN solution that allows multiple companies and networks
to share a WAN media. In this context, what is the equipment used at the
company-end (such as a router or a switch) called?

A. Data Terminal Equipment (DTE)

B. Data Circuit-Terminating Equipment (DCE)

C. Data Broadcasting Equipment (DBE)

D. Data Circuit Equipment (DCE)

18. A software company developed an encryption software that eventually became
very popular. A competitor of the company bought a copy of the software and
took it apart to understand its functionality. The competitor then came out with a
product that performed a similar type of encryption. What is this known as?

A. Decryption

B. Reverse analysis

C. Research and development

D. Reverse engineering

19. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of activities in the event
of a disaster?

A. Disaster, Backup operations, Salvage operations, Normal operations

B. Disaster, Alternate operations, Continuity operations, Normal operations

C. Disaster, Interim operations, Alternate operations, Normal operations

D. Disaster, Recovery operations, Emergency response, Normal operations.

20. An important objective of threat assessment as part of BCP is to evaluate

existing organizational controls and procedures to determine the likelihood of
a potential interruption of services. Which of the following is not a type of
threat assessment?

A. Physical and personnel security assessment

B. Futuristic assessment

C. Environmental security assessment

D. Information security assessment

21. Key management is a very challenging aspect of cryptography. If a key is not

securely stored/ transmitted, the strength of the algorithm becomes immaterial.
What is the recommended period to change cryptographic keys?
 A. Every day.

B. Every week

C. Every month

D. It depends on the level of security required by the data.

22. A company decided to use combination locks on the doors of its data
processing center. Once the combination has been set, what is the usual
guideline followed to change it?

A. Every year and when an employee who knows the code leaves the company

B. Every month

C. Every week and when an employee who knows the code leaves the company

D. Every six months and when an employee who knows the code leaves the
company

23. At a generic level, evidence of a crime needs to be relevant to the case at hand
and meet the criteria of the five rules of evidence. These rules states that:

A. Evidence must be authentic, irrefutable, complete, convincing and

admissible.

B. Evidence must be authentic, accurate, complete, convincing and admissible.

C. Evidence must be authentic, complete, convincing, admissible and unaltered.

D. Evidence must be authentic, accurate, convincing, admissible and clear.

24. A security officer would like to ensure that an early warning is received in case
a fire breaks out. The early warning can then be used to sound a warning alarm
to start off evacuation procedures. Which of these may be used as an early-
warning device?

A. Smoke-activated detectors
 B. Fire suppressors

C. Heat-activated detectors

D. Fixed-temperature sensors

25. Which of these is not a best practice for physical security in organizations?

A. Encourage employees to question strangers

B. Encourage placement of trees close to the facility to deter intruders

C. Force all guests to go to a front desk and sign in before entering a facility

D. Limit the number of entry points to a facility

26. A disgruntled employee had to be terminated due to certain security violations.

Which of these is the best way to terminate the employee?

A. Give the employee a month's notice, disable his accounts at the end of 30
days, and have a security guard escort the employee out of the facility after
the necessary exit formalities have been completed.

B. Disable the employee's accounts right away and have a security guard escort
the employee out of the facility after the necessary exit formalities have been
completed.

C. Give the employee a week's notice, disable his accounts at the end of 7 days,
and have a security guard escort the employee out of the facility after the
necessary exit formalities have been completed.

D. Give the employee a day's notice, disable his accounts at the end of the day,
and have a security guard escort the employee out of the facility after the
necessary exit formalities have been completed.

27. Privacy is a serious issue as the world relies more and more on technology and
the user of computers / digital information. What law protects US citizens'
sensitive information collected by government agencies?

A. Computer fraud and abuse act

 B. Graham-Leach-Bliley act

C. HIPAA

D. The Federal privacy act

28. Companies normally have an acceptable use policy which indicates what
software users can install. What type of controls should be put in place to
prevent unauthorized users from being able to install unauthorized software?

A. Physical controls

B. Administrative controls

C. Hardware controls

D. Technical controls

29. A network administrator wants to minimize the number of public IP addresses

that his organization purchases. Which of the following implementations will
help him achieve this?

A. Port address translation (PAT)

B. Static mapping

C. This is not possible. The company will need to purchase IP addresses

corresponding to each computer that needs to connect to the Internet.

D. Hidden address translation (HAT)

30. Grid computing is a load-balanced parallel means of massive computation.

Which of these statements about grid computing is not correct?

A. In grid computing, the grid members are of variable capacity.

B. In grid computing, the excess CPU processing power of loosely coupled

systems combined.

C. In grid computing the nodes do not trust each other.

 D. Grid computing is ideal for processing sensitive data due to the high
capacity available.

31. A BCP / DRP team came up with an exhaustive set of procedures to be

implemented in case of a disaster. How should the team proceed to test these?

A. Include all employees in the most critical operations as part of its first
exercise.

B. Include employees in the least critical operations as part of its exercise.

C. Include all employees as part of its first test exercise.

D. Include only a small group of people as part of its first test exercise.

32. Which of the following is not an instance of a computer-targeted crime?

A. Installing rootkits and sniffers.

B. Capturing passwords and sensitive data

C. Carrying out a DDos attack.

D. Carrying out hacktivism by defacing a government's website

33. The Clark-Wilson model establishes a system of subject-program-object

bindings so that the subject does not have direct access to the object any more.
Each data item is defined and changes are allowed only by a limited set of
programs. Which of these is not a defined item?

A. Hidden data element (HDE)

B. Constrained data item (CDI)

C. Transformation procedure (TP)

D. Integrity verification procedure (IVP)

34. In order to support auditing of implemented security controls, a number of

frameworks have been created. Which of the following ISO standards specifies
 requirements for a documented information security management system?

A. ISO 31000

B. ISO 14001

C. ISO 9000

D. ISO/IEC 27001

35. A company recognized the need to have a business continuity plan in place.
Which of the following guidelines will help the company in this process?

A. NIST 900-34

B. ISO 9000:34

C. ISO 800-34

D. NIST 800-34

36. In which type of operating system do all of the operating system's functionality
work in ring 0 and in privileged or supervisory mode?

A. Layered operating systems

B. Virtual machines

C. Monolithic operating systems

D. Polylithic operating systems

37. Critical data needs to be protected from accidental or malicious changes. Such
data needs to be accessed through properly formatted requests. Which of the
following concepts does not use such a methodology?

A. Polymorphism

B. Protection domains
 C. Data hiding

D. Layering

38. Which of the following is a simple method used in symmetric key

cryptography to ensure message integrity?

A. HAVAL

B. Message digest

C. Checksums

D. Diffie-Hellmann algorithm

39. A company had sensitive data stored in a database. It wanted to ensure that
certain data was not available to lower-level users. The company created a table
containing multiple tuples with the same primary keys and each instance was
distinguished by a security level. The data for the lower-levels was changed to
some arbitrary values. Hence, lower-level users who accessed the data received
a fake view of the data. What is this called?

A. Views

B. Polymorphism

C. Multi-tuple security

D. Polyinstantiation

40. Data in a database is structured in many ways depending on the type of

information stored. Which of these is not a valid database management model?

A. Network database management model

B. Relational database management model

C. Hierarchical database management model

D. Ordered database management model

CISSP Mock Exam (Baseline)
Answer Key and Explanations

1. D - A computer user may be allowed to set an initial password, install software

and alter desktop configurations. In this case, there is no breach of the
separation of duties principle. However, the user must not be allowed to modify
his/her security profile. [Security Operations]

2. D - After an antivirus software has been installed, an EICAR test can be

performed. In this test a string that all antivirus products recognize as hostile is
used. Antivirus products have an EICAR.com file and a signature matches this
file. This allows an administrator to test the reaction of the anti-virus system
when a virus is encountered. [Software Development Security]

3. D - This is likely to be a maintenance hook. Maintenance hooks are a type of

backdoor and refer to code within software to which the developers have
access. They allow the developers to bypass usual security procedures. They are
prone to attack by malicious hackers. [Security Engineering]

4. D - Unit testing can be performed during the development cycle by the

programmers developing the code. However, when formal testing is required, it
is usually done by a different team to ensure separation of duties. This enhances
the chance that bugs will be found. In general, a programmer should not
develop, test and release software. [Software Development Security]

5. D - Online banking software uses secure connections. They use cookies with
timestamps on them and the web server periodically requests the cookie to
ensure that the session has not been hijacked. When the system is inactive for a
period of time, the web server does not receive the cookie when it requests for
it. Hence it times out the user's session and requires a re-login. [Asset Security]

6. C - Tempest is a standard that outlines how countermeasures can be developed

to control spurious electrical signals that radiate from electrical equipment.
Equipment that needs to be highly secure should prevent or control this type of
radiation and adhere to the Tempest standards. [Identity and Access
Management]

7. C - An event is a negative occurrence that can be observed / verified /

documented whereas an incident is a series of events that negatively affects the
 company. Virus, insider and terrorist attacks are incidents. [Security and Risk
Management]

8. B - The next step in the process would be to monitor and evaluate the program.
This would include reviewing logs, audit results, and service level agreements.
This would also include development of improvements to the program.
[Security and Risk Management]

9. A - Asset management in an IT environment is typically an automated solution

and involves knowing everything that exists in the environment. This includes
hardware, firmware, operating systems, applications, individual libraries and
other run time components. Just having the list of inventory may not help.
Interdependencies also need to be known. [Security Operations]

10. A - The Brewer and Nash model allows access controls that can change
dynamically depending on the actions of a user. It ensures that conflict of
interest is protected. [Security Engineering]

11. C - Session keys provide better protection than static symmetric keys since they
are valid only for one session. Hence if an attacker were to capture a session
key it would no longer be valid for the next session and the window of
opportunity available to the attacker is very limited. [Asset Security]

12. D - Organizations usually have various types of recovery plans. The Occupant
emergency plan specifically establishes personnel safety and evacuation
procedures. As a general principle, human life is given the highest priority in
the event of a disaster. [Security and Risk Management]

13. B - This is referred to as standby lighting. It is similar to a technique used in

residential homes where certain gadgets can be configured to turn lighting on
or off at pre-determined times. This gives the illusion that the house is
occupied. The same technique is used in companies and security guards can
configure the times that lights turn on and off. [Security Operations]

14. D - In a kernel proxy firewall, all the inspection and processing takes place in
the kernel and does not need to be passed up to a higher software layer for
processing. The other three firewall proxies work in the network layer.
[Communications and Network Security]

15. D - Clustering offers good scalability since a group of servers can be viewed
 logically as a single server to users and can be managed as a single logical
system. [Security Operations]

16. A - This is an example of a 'computer is incidental' type of crime. It is incidental

that the hacker stored the list of credit card numbers in his computer. He may as
well have retained the hard copy in which case it would have just been a case of
theft. [Security and Risk Management]

17. A - The equipment used at the company's end is called Data Terminal
Equipment (DTE). It could be a router or a switch and provides connectivity
between the company's own network and the frame relay network. DCE is the
equipment used by the service provider. [Communications and Network
Security]

18. D - This is known as reverse engineering. There could be legal issues

associated with this activity but it is used by many companies to understand how
their competitor's products work and to improve upon features in their
products. [Asset Security]

19. C - Once a disaster strikes, Interim operations kick in. These include emergency
responses and situational assessments. This is then followed by alternate
operations during which recovery and restoration operations are performed.
This then allows the company to recover back to normal operations. [Security
and Risk Management]

20. B - Futuristic assessment is not a specific type of threat assessment. The other
three are valid types of threat assessments and cover a large number of areas
such as loss of key personnel, physical control weaknesses, emergency plan
assessment, telecommunications availability, continuity planning etc. [Security
and Risk Management]

21. D - The necessary level of security required and the frequency of use of a
cryptographic key determine how often the key should be changed. For
example, a small retail store may only change its keys once a month whereas a
military establishment may change them every day. [Asset Security]

22. D - The combinations need to be changed at least every six months. Changing
them every week may be too much of an overhead. Additionally they also need
to be changed whenever an employee who know the combination leaves the
company. [Security Operations]
23. B - At a generic level, evidence in a computer crime needs to be relevant to the
case at hand. The five rules of evidence are that it should be authentic, accurate,
complete, convincing and admissible. [Security and Risk Management]

24. A - Smoke-activated detectors are very useful as early-warning devices. They

operate using photo-electric devices, which detect variations in light intensity. If
the beam of light produced by the device is obstructed due to smoke, an alarm
sounds and this can be used to kick-off evacuation and other procedures.
[Security Operations]

25. B - Having trees very close to a facility may be a security hazard since they will
enable intruders to gain access to upper-story windows / balconies / skylights.
This needs to be balanced with the objective of concealing a facility. [Security
Operations]

26. B - Although it may seem harsh to do so, it is best to ensure that the termination
happens quickly and in such a manner that the disgruntled employee cannot
cause any harm prior to his/her exit. The company's HR policies will dictate the
actual procedure but in case of disgruntled employees, their accounts / accesses
should be disabled right away and they should be escorted out of the facility by
security guards or supervisor after complying with necessary exit formalities.
[Security and Risk Management]

27. D - The Federal privacy act protects US citizens' sensitive information that is
collected by government agencies. It states that data must be collected in a fair
and lawful manner. The data must be held for a reasonable amount of time and
used only for the purpose for which it was collected. [Security and Risk
Management]

28. D - Technical controls need to be in place to ensure that unauthorized users are
not able to install unauthorized software in the environment. These consist of
password and resource management, identification and authentication methods,
configuration of the infrastructure etc. [Security Operations]

29. A - Port Address Translation (PAT) is an NAT implementation where the

company can use only one public IP address for multiple computers that
communicate with the Internet. This is achieved by the NAT device which
changes the header information and maps internal addresses to the public IP
address, but with a different port number. [Communications and Network
Security]
30. D - In grid computing, the secrecy of the contents of a workload unit allocated
to a grid member cannot be guaranteed. Hence, it is not suitable for processing
sensitive data even though massive computational power is available. [Security
Operations]

31. D - Once written plans have been developed, they need to be tested for specific
weaknesses. Companies cannot afford to have any impact to normal operations.
Hence the tests should be carried using a small group of people from various
departments until each learns his / her responsibility. Testing on all employees
may actually disrupt operations as also may testing on the most critical
department. On the other hand testing on the least critical department may not
yield useful results. [Security and Risk Management]

32. D - A computer-assisted crime is one in which a computer is a tool used to

carry out a crime. A computer-targeted crime is one in which a computer is the
victim of an attack to harm it. Hence, hacktivism, which involves protesting a
government's activities by defacing their websites is not a computer-targeted
crime. [Security and Risk Management]

33. A - A hidden data element (HDE) is not one of the items defined by the Clark-
Wilson model. The other three are defined by the model. Additionally, an
unconstrained data item is used to define data not controlled by the Clark-
Wilson model. [Security Engineering]

34. D - ISO / IEC 27001 specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing,
operating, monitoring, reviewing, maintaining and improving a documented
information security management system.
ISO 9001 deals with quality management, ISO 14001 deals with environment
management and ISO 31000 deals with risk management. [Security and Risk
Management]

35. D - The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) has put together
a set of best practices and documented them as a series of steps in the NIST 800-
34 document. Although this specifically deals with IT contingency plans, the
steps are the same while creating enterprise-wide BCPs. [Security and Risk
Management]

36. C - In a monolithic operating system, all of the kernel's activity takes place in
privileged or supervisory mode. Hence, all the functionality is in ring 0. This
improves performance but causes a security risk since more code runs in
 privileged mode and can be exploited by attackers. [Security Engineering]

37. A - Data hiding, layering and protection domains are different terms used to
describe the same concept. The methodology used by them is that the secure
data cannot be accessed except via a set of properly formatted requests sent to
system APIs. Polymorphism is not used in this context. [Security Engineering]

38. C - Checksums are simple error detecting codes and are used in symmetric key
cryptography to ensure message integrity. The checksum is created and
appended to a message. The receiver will decrypt the message and generate
their own checksum to verify the integrity of the message. [Asset Security]

39. D - This is known as polyinstantiation and is used for very sensitive data. A
simpler strategy would be to simply deny access when a lower-level user
accesses a higher-level object. However, this indirectly gives the lower-level
user information that sensitive data exists at that level. Polyinstantiation
overcomes this issue. [Software Development Security]

40. D - The ordered database management model is not a valid one. The other three
choices are valid. Of the three types, the hierarchical database model is the
oldest. [Software Development Security]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 1
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 1

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. An Internet Service Provider adds a large generator and battery bank to its
infrastructure. Which of the following needs to be added to the list of
operational procedures?

A. Monthly testing of the generator and annual testing of the batteries

B. Annual testing of the generator and monthly testing of the Batteries

C. Annual testing of the generator and the batteries

D. Monthly testing of the generator and the batteries

2. A new software with many vulnerabilities was installed. As a result, it is likely

that the system is no longer providing its necessary minimum level of
protection. This minimum level is referred to as:

A. A requirement

B. A start-up

C. A guideline
 D. A baseline

3. Although less common today, phreakers are special class of hackers who
manipulate telephone systems to receive free services. Which of the following
is NOT used by phreakers?

A. Red Box

B. Blue Box

C. Black Box

D. Teal Box

4. A lawyer serves notice on a business entity for a civil wrong against a business
entity that he represents. This would be dealt with under:

A. Criminal law

B. Administrative law

C. Tort law

D. Cyber Law

5. The most important goal for the results of any computer forensics should be
which of the following?

A. Equipment Redeployment

B. Retaliation and Redress

C. Admissibility in Court

D. Cost-Savings where possible

6. A company uses asymmetric cryptography and a public key system. The private
key will be known only to the company while the public key will be known to
everyone. In such a public key system:
 A. Only the public key can be used to encrypt data but the data can be decrypted
with either the private or public keys

B. Both the public key and the private key can be used to encrypt and decrypt
data. Data encrypted with the private key can be decrypted with either the
private or public keys.

C. Both the public key and the private key can be used to encrypt and decrypt
data. Data encrypted with the private key requires the public key to be
decrypted.

D. Only the public key can be used to encrypt data and the private key is
required to decrypt it.

7. Rob is writing up a detailed set of procedural security measures. He plans to

follow this up with a series of educational programs to educate employees
within the company. This would be the best way to minimize:

A. Malicious threats

B. Accidental threats

C. Environmental threats

D. External threats

8. Which of the following is not a preventive measure against static electricity in a

data center?

A. Ensure that static-free carpets are used.

B. Ensure proper grounding for electrical wiring.

C. Ensure that people use antistatic bands while working on computers.

D. Ensure that humidity is as low as possible.

9. A company hires an accounting firm to audit finances. Because of certain

contractual obligations, the accountants may not be allowed to view the names
of customers in the General Ledger database. However, it is appropriate that
 they see invoice numbers and all other data. Which of the following solutions
requires the least effort to implement?

A. Custom Database View

B. Redacted Printouts

C. Sanitized Data Mirror

D. Custom Web Interface

10. A problem in application security is that some developers build-in methods to

bypass security. They usually do this for testing and efficient development
purposes. What is this practice termed as?

A. Viruses

B. Spyware

C. Rootkits

D. Backdoors

11. The AIC triad is made up of three main principles of information security:
availability, integrity and confidentiality. Which of the following threats can
compromise availability?

A. Password leak

B. Social engineering

C. Dumpster diving

D. Denial-of-Service attack

12. While setting up measures for handling fire hazards, you are concerned that
activation of sprinklers, immediately following the detection of a fire may
interfere with evacuation activities. Which of the following may be a good
option to pursue in such a case?
 A. Use of a low-pressure sprinkler system

B. Use of a dry pipe system.

C. Use of a wet pipe system.

D. Use of a manually controlled sprinkler system.

13. John is a web developer. What would be the best way for him to connect to a
database without exposing its physical location and passwords used to connect
to it?

A. Use a Restricted Source Name (RSN)

B. Use a Data Source Node (DSN)

C. Use a Data Source Name (DSN)

D. Use a Restricted Source Node (RSN)

14. A fire broke out due to a leak in the diesel tank of a back-up power generator.
Which of the following should not be used to put out such a fire?

A. Carbon di-oxide

B. Water

C. Monoammonimum phosphate

D. Sodium bi-carbonate

15. Which of the following is the cause of most information breaches in email?

A. System errors

B. Spam

C. Long chains of forwards

D. Intentional abuse
16. What classification of gate is designed to secure an industrial yard where only
authorized individuals are permitted entry and which is not expected to serve
the general public?

A. Class I

B. Class IV

C. Class II

D. Class III

17. When two different keys generate the same output for the same message, what
is it called?

A. Wardialing

B. Polyinstantiation

C. Collision

D. D. CORBA

18. Ray wants to ensure that a message he sends to Ron is not altered in any way. He
encrypts the message's value and includes it with his message (he does this by
digitally signing his message). What does Ron have to do to ensure the message
came from Ray?

A. Ron needs to perform the hashing function on the message and come up
with a hash value. Ron will then decrypt the hash value sent in the message
using Ray's public key and compare with the hash value he obtained. If they
are the same, it indicates the message was not altered.

B. Ron needs to perform the hashing function on the message and come up
with a hash value. Ron will then decrypt the hash value sent in the message
using Ray's private key and compare with the hash value he obtained. If they
are the same, it indicates the message was not altered.

C. Ron needs to perform the hashing function on the message and come up
with a hash value. Ron will then decrypt the hash value sent in the message
 using his public key and compare with the hash value he obtained. If they are
the same, it indicates the message was not altered.

D. Ron needs to perform the hashing function on the message and come up
with a hash value. Ron will then decrypt the hash value sent in the message
using his private key and compare with the hash value he obtained. If they
are the same, it indicates the message was not altered.

19. Karen is in charge of her company's Internet security. She decides to implement
a fake DMZ that hosts a specialized server. This server holds no data, but
answers any scan or hack attempt with positive results. The purpose is to trick
an attacker into wasting enough time on this system so that detection
possibilities are increased. This type of system is commonly known as:

A. Honeypot

B. Hobgoblin

C. Spamtrap

D. Pitfall

20. During a security audit, an external auditor finds several unlocked electrical
panels in common areas. She writes this up as a potential security issue. Which
of the following groups of people is most likely to cause a potential security
hazard by taking advantage of the unsecured panels?

A. Auditors

B. Hackers

C. Administrators

D. Disgruntled Employees

21. Which of the following teams is responsible for starting recovery of the
original site in the aftermath of a disaster?

A. Restoration team
 B. Backup team

C. Assessment team

D. Salvage team

22. Because of the size of Alex's company, it has been decided that rotation of
duties is not practical. Which of the following is another good way to detect
fraudulent activity?

A. Criminal Background Checks

B. Wire Sniffers

C. Mandatory Vacations

D. Video Surveillance

23. What type of virus infects both the boot sector and executable files?

A. Polymorphic

B. Self-garbling

C. Multipart

D. Meme

24. As part of the planning to implement an antivirus software, Jim is considering

implementing a program which will work proactively and detect malware. This
technique is called:

A. Immunization

B. Heuristic detection

C. Signature-based detection

D. Fingerprint detection
25. Which of the following options best describes mature procedures and
processes?

A. Well-documented

B. Well-known

C. Ad-Hoc

D. Obsolete

26. A systems analyst designs an access control software application such that the
authentication and authorization processes are independent ones that happen
sequentially. Which of the following vulnerabilities can a hacker use to break
into such a system?

A. Code jam

B. Strength of the wireless network

C. Two-factor authentication

D. Race condition

27. A hacker attempts to perform a replay attack by capturing traffic from a

legitimate session and using the information to authenticate his session. This
type of attack can be avoided by:

A. Use of session variables

B. Use of time-stamp validation.

C. Use of SSL

D. Use of cryptic parameters

28. As network administrator, you have a requirement to split up a network into

collision domains and broadcast domains. Which of the following networking
devices should you use?
 A. A router

B. A hub

C. A repeater

D. A bridge

29. Two mechanisms by which malicious code may be detected are via
___________ for known viruses and ___________ for unknown viruses.

A. Patches and Updates / Filtering

B. Testing / Code execution prevention

C. Heuristics / Port blocking

D. Signatures / Heuristics

30. Intrusion detection systems are used to determine if attacks are occurring on a
network. You have been asked to implement an intrusion detection system that
uses predefined knowledge about attacks to determine if an attack is occurring.
Which one of the following would you consider?

A. Statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection

B. Protocol anomaly-based intrusion detection

C. Least-privilege-based intrusion detection system

D. Signature-based intrusion detection

31. Which of the following physical security controls are preventative rather than
detective?

A. Guard Dogs

B. Logging

C. Motion Sensors
 D. Padlocks

32. Company A hires Company B to develop an application. Company B only does

business on a licensing model, and therefore will not provide a copy of the
application's source code to Company A. However, Company A wants to be
protected in case Company B ceases to exist. What is a good option for
Company A?

A. Safety-Deposit Box

B. 24-bit Encryption

C. Software Escrow

D. Non-Disclosure Agreement

33. As a network administrator in a large-sized company, you understand that

government regulations require you to maintain a record of your company's
email for seven years. This would be a large amount of data. A very good
option would be to:

A. Use a SAN.

B. Use RAIT

C. Use RAID

D. Use RAIL

34. Data leakage can cause huge losses to the company depending on the criticality
of the data. Companies can look at publicly available data to understand the
channels from which data is lost and plug potential security loopholes. Which
of the following are the top two (in that order) causes for loss of data?

A. Internet, Emails

B. Internet, Mobile Devices

C. Emails, Internet
 D. Mobile devices, Internet

35. Application security is often a balancing act between:

A. Process and Procedure

B. Developers and Administrators

C. Functionality and Security

D. Client and Server

36. Due to recent security breaches, the security administrator of a large financial
institution has mandated that all critical data infrastructure be secured by three-
factor authentication. Which of the following choices best meets the
requirement?

A. Use of a fingerprint Scanner, Smart Card, PIN Number

B. Use of a smart Card, PIN Number, Password

C. Use of a hardware Token, PIN Number, Password

D. Use of a fingerprint Scanner, Password, PIN Number

37. A company uses a particular combination of a word, name, shape, color, sound,
symbol as their corporate “signature.” These are registered to prevent copying
by others. What is this known as?

A. Copyright

B. Trademark

C. Trade Secret

D. Corporation

38. Which type of attack introduces fake packets into the data stream so that the
session can be hijacked?
 A. Sniffer Attack

B. TCP Sequence Number Attack

C. DNS Poisoning

D. Ping of Death Attack

39. Company guidelines have required you to use a biometric system as one of the
authentication methods. You are okay with a situation where authorized users
are rejected, but would like to ensure that the system rejects unauthorized users
to a high degree of accuracy. Which of the following error rates are you more
likely to prefer?

A. 1% Type I errors, 25% Type II errors

B. 25% Type I errors, 10% Type II errors

C. 10% Type I errors, 25% Type II errors

D. 25% Type I errors and 1% Type II errors

40. What term refers to the creation, administration/maintenance and deactivation

of user objects and attributes?

A. Revisioning

B. Authorization

C. Authentication

D. Provisioning
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 1
Answer Key and Explanations

1. D - A backup power system must be tested end-to-end even though it is intended

to be used only for emergencies. Hence both the generator and the battery need
to be tested. Monthly testing is the preferred option. Annual testing for such a
backup system is inadequate. [Security Operations]

2. D - Baselines are used to define the minimum level of protection required. By

establishing, documenting, and adhering to the requirements, a company will be
implementing a baseline of protection. [Security and Risk Management]

3. D - A blue box simulates a particular calling tone, enabling the theft of long-
distance service. A red box simulates the alert tones of coins being deposited
into a pay phone. A black box manipulates line voltage to enable toll-free
calling. [Security and Risk Management]

4. C - A civil wrong against a company or business entity would normally be dealt

with under tort law. [Security and Risk Management]

5. C - A clear chain-of-custody and excellent forensic methods are the end goal.
Poor forensics will destroy the best evidence in a criminal case. [Security and
Risk Management]

6. C - A common misunderstanding is that a public key is used only to encrypt and

the private key is only used to decrypt. Either of the keys can be used to encrypt
data. However, data encrypted with a public key will require the private key for
decryption and vice-versa. [Asset Security]

7. B - A commonly accepted security principle is that more than three-fourths of

all security violations attributed to insiders of a company are accidental in
nature. These are best avoided by a good set of educational programs and by
strong procedural security measures. [Security Operations]

8. D - Low humidity conditions are conducive for static electricity which can
damage computer equipment. On the other hand, high humidity causes
corrosion. Hence the humidity needs to be optimally controlled. [Security
Operations]
 A - A database view is a custom subset of data based upon a query. It is easy and
9. effective because it runs against live data and only returns selected data sets. All
of the other options require significant effort and expense. [Software
Development Security]

10. D - When a developer creates a shortcut into a system, it is usually called a

backdoor or trapdoor. This type of practice is generally frowned upon and has
become less common in modern development environments. [Software
Development Security]

11. D - A DoS attack attempts to disrupt or totally disable client access to one or
more systems. This results in systems not being available. The other three
options listed may impact integrity / confidentiality. [Security and Risk
Management]

12. B - A dry pipe system may be used in such a case. Typically, the valve which
needs to be activated by the smoke/fire sensor is activated in a delayed manner.
The delay allows evacuation activities to take place without interference due to
the sprinklers. [Security Operations]

13. C - A Data Source Name (DSN) is a logical name for the data store and does not
use the drive letter or directory location of the database. This can be used when
programming using Open Database Connectivity interface (ODBC). [Software
Development Security]

14. B - A fire due to a diesel leak is classified as a class B fire, which includes fires
due to petroleum products and coolants. Water should not be used in trying to
put out such a fire. [Security Operations]

15. C - A long chain of forwards is often the culprit when private information is
breached. An email, with private information, circulated between departments
internal to the organization, could get forwarded to an external party without
the entire contents of the message being checked. This then results in loss of
private information. [Security and Risk Management]

16. D - A gate is the movable part of a barrier that is designed to control physical
access. There are four main classifications for vehicular gates. A Class III gate
is designated for industrial usage, and is not intended to be accessed by the
general public. [Security Operations]
17. C - A good hash function should never produce identical hash values. Doing so
is called a collision. Collision is the basis of hash cracking techniques. [Asset
Security]

18. A - A hash value that was encrypted with a sender's private key is called a digital
signature. Since Ray has encrypted the hash value with his private key, Ron will
have to decrypt the message with Ray's public key and compare it to the hash
value that he got when he performed the hashing function on the message.
[Asset Security]

19. A - A honeypot is a system that attempts to lure attackers away from real
information and data assets. Multiple honeypots can act together and it would be
called a honeynet. [Communications and Network Security]

20. D - An unlocked electric panel can easily be misused by disgruntled employees.

Hackers may not have access to unlocked electrical panels and auditors /
administrators are unlikely to target unlocked electric panels. [Security
Operations]

21. D - The salvage team is responsible for starting work on the recovery of the
original site. This team (like a restoration team) needs to know how to do many
tasks such as installing operating systems, handling wiring requirements,
setting up workstations, servers etc. [Security and Risk Management]

22. C - A mandatory vacation is a policy that requires employees to take a full

weeks or even two full weeks of vacation at a time each year. The theory is that
any fraudulent behavior will be caught by others during that time. Criminal
background checks only give a historical perspective. Snuffers and cameras are
usually not sufficient to catch fraud. [Security Operations]

23. C - A multipart virus first finds its way into system memory, and then infects the
boot sector of the hard drive. It then infects the entire system. [Security and Risk
Management]

24. B - A proactive technique that can detect malware is called Heuristic detection.
This is in contrast to signature-based detection (fingerprint detection), which
can not do this. [Software Development Security]

25. A - Mature procedures or processes are usually well-documented. The

documentation should continue to be updated as the process changes or grows
 more efficient. [Security Operations]

26. D - A race condition is a situation where two or more processes use a shared
resource and perform their operations in an incorrect order due to non-
availability of the resource. If authentication and authorization are split as
separate functions, there is a possibility that an attacker uses a race condition to
have the authorization step completed before authentication. This will allow
access into the system. [Identity and Access Management]

27. B - A replay attack involves an attacker grabbing traffic from a valid, legitimate
session, and then 'replaying' it, giving the impression that it is valid traffic, and
authenticating his session. The counter to this is to use some mechanism of a
time-based (or timestamp) validation so that the information grabbed by the
attacker is no longer “current”. [Software Development Security]

28. A - A router is used when there is requirement to split up a network into

collision domains and broadcast domains. A bridge can do simple filtering to
separate collision domains but not broadcast domains. A repeater can do
neither. A hub is a multi-port repeater. [Communications and Network Security]

29. D - Signatures are sequences of code extracted from malware by antivirus

vendors. The anti-virus software has an engine that uses these signatures to
identify malware. Heuristics attempt to catch unexpected behavior that is
malicious even for unknown viruses and zero-day attacks. [Software
Development Security]

30. D - A signature-based intrusion detection system uses accumulated knowledge

to determine if an attack is being made. Models of known attacks are developed
and these are called signatures. When an attack matches the information within a
signature, the intrusion detection system takes the required action to protect the
network or system. [Identity and Access Management]

31. D - A simple padlock is preventative - although it may not necessarily be very

effective by itself. The other choices are all detective. [Security Operations]

32. C - A Software Escrow is a third party who is entrusted with the final source
code as a protection to both the development entity and the purchasing entity.
No other choice offers a complete solution. [Software Development Security]

33. A - A Storage Area Network (SAN) is used in large-sized companies that need
 to handle large volumes of data. SANs provide the necessary redundancy and
fault-tolerance apart from being extremely reliable. RAID and RAIT cannot be
used for such a requirement. [Security Operations]

34. D - A survey of various types of data leaks has revealed that mobile devices
head the list, followed by the Internet as the single largest causes. [Security
Operations]

35. C - A system that offers the best functionality and ease of use is one that usually
has little security in place. In contrast a completely secure system is one that
almost none can use. In practice, a trade-off is achieved between the two
extremes, based on what is acceptable. [Software Development Security]

36. A - Three-factor authentication combines something you know (a PIN number),

something you have (smartcard), and something you are (your fingerprint).
This provides strong authentication. [Identity and Access Management]

37. B - A trademark can be a combination of a word, name, shape, color, sound or

symbol. These can be registered to ensure that they are unique. [Security and
Risk Management]

38. B - A Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Sequence Number Attack exploits

the communication session that is created between two hosts. An attacker
eavesdrops on the traffic and then predicts the correct sequence numbers. He
then introduces fake data packets with the correct sequence numbers. This then
allows the attacker to hijack the session. [Communications and Network
Security]

39. D - A Type I error occurs when authorized users are rejected by the biometric
system whereas Type II errors occur when unauthorized users are accepted by
the system. In an ideal scenario, both types of errors should tend to zero. Since
the intent is to have a highly secure system even at the cost of higher Type I
errors, the correct answer is 25% Type I errors and 1% Type II errors. [Identity
and Access Management]

40. D - Provisioning is the term used to refer to the creation, administration /

maintenance and deactivation of users objects and permissions / attributes.
[Identity and Access Management]
Domain Area Test: Security and Risk Management
Practice Questions

Test Name: Domain Area Test: Security and Risk Management

Total Questions: 15
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 11 (73.33%)
Time Allowed: 25 Minutes

Test Description

This practice test specifically targets your knowledge of the Security and Risk
Management domain area.

Test Questions

1. One of the primary steps in a quantitative risk analysis is to determine the

annualized loss expectancy (ALE). How is the ALE calculated?

A. Single loss expectancy / Frequency per year

B. Asset value x 2.8

C. Single loss expectancy X Frequency per year

D. Asset value + (Single loss expectancy / Frequency per year)

2. An Electrical provider must maintain documentation of their electronic security

perimeter in precisely the way set forth in the North American Energy
Reliability Corporation (NERC) Critical Infrastructure Protection documents,
particularly CIP-005-1, or face significantly daily fines. What is this an example
of?

A. Standards

B. Baselines

C. Practices
 D. Policies

3. Which of the following terms refers to a security hole that could result in an
attack on a system?

A. Risk

B. Exposure

C. Threat

D. Vulnerability

4. Before Joan can begin work at her new job, she must undergo a Criminal
Background Check and participate in Security Awareness Training. What type
of control are these preventative measures?

A. Technical Controls

B. Administrative Controls

C. Physical Controls

D. Resident Controls

5. After risks are mitigated, what is the amount of risk remaining called?

A. Annualized Loss Expectancy

B. Single Loss Expectancy

C. Residual Risk

D. Exposure Factor

6. Which of the following has the highest potential to be a security hazard to a

company that has well-defined security procedures.

A. An employee who performs critical duties is fired.

 B. The Information Security Officer falls ill.

C. Grid power is lost for 3 hours

D. A web server containing employee performance data crashes.

7. Senior management plans to implement a security policy that outlines what can
and cannot be done with employees' e-mail for monitoring purposes and to
address privacy issues. What would such a security policy be called?

A. Advisory

B. Issue-specific

C. System-specific

D. Organizational

8. Which of the following denotes the magnitude of potential losses due to a

threat?

A. Risk

B. Exposure

C. Vulnerability

D. Loss

9. Which of the following contains general approaches that also provide the
necessary flexibility in the event of unforeseen circumstances?

A. Policies

B. Standards

C. Procedures

D. Guidelines
10. Non-enforced password management on servers and workstations would be
defined as a:

A. Risk

B. Threat Agent

C. Vulnerability

D. Threat

11. Information such as data that is critical to a company needs to be properly

identified and classified. In general, what are the guidelines to classify data?

A. Classify all data irrespective of format (digital, audio, video) excluding

paper.

B. Classify only data that is digital in nature and exists on the company servers.

C. Classify all data irrespective of the format it exists in (paper, digital, audio,
video)

D. Classify only data that is digital in nature and exists on the company servers,
desktops and all computers in the company.

12. In a secure network, personnel play a key role in the maintenance and
promotion of security procedures. Which of the following roles is responsible
for ensuring that the company complies with software license agreements?

A. Product-line manager

B. Process owner

C. Solution provider

D. Data analyst

13. Once risk assessment of a company is performed, threats and vulnerabilities are
identified and the total / residual risk is determined. Which of the following is
not one of the ways in which risk is handled?
 A. Risk Inference

B. Risk Mitigation

C. Risk Acceptance

D. Risk Avoidance

14. Steve is doing risk analysis as part of his company's Information Risk
Management. He ends up with a calculation that the annualized loss expectancy
(ALE) due to a virus attack on the company's network is $ 25000. He also
calculates that the single loss expectancy (SLE) due to this event would be $
25000. What can you say about the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO)?

A. The ARO will be greater than 1.0

B. The ARO will be less than 1.0

C. The ARO cannot be calculated in this case.

D. The ARO equals 1.0

15. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to the relationships
between threat, vulnerability, exposure, countermeasure and risk?

A. A threat agent takes advantage of a vulnerability.

B. The probability of a fire causing damage is a risk.

C. A countermeasure can mitigate a vulnerability.

D. A vulnerability can expose a system to possible damage

Domain Area Test: Security and Risk Management
Answer Key and Explanations

1. C - A quantitative risk analysis calculates the ALE, which is the annual loss of
an asset if expected threats are realized. This value allows the company to
evaluate the financial implications of potential threats. ALE is calculated as the
product of Single Life Expectancy (SLE) and the Frequency per year, also
known as Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO). [Security and Risk Management]

2. A - A Standard is non-negotiable. It must be followed to the fullest extent. A

Baseline is a minimum configuration that is required across all of an
organization's technology. [Security and Risk Management]

3. D - A 'vulnerability' refers to a security hole that can potentially be tapped,

resulting in an attack. It is not that an attack has been made, just that the
possibility exists. If an attacker uses a vulnerability then it is said to have been
“exploited.” [Security and Risk Management]

4. B - Administrative controls are preventative in nature and include background

checks, drug testing, security training on the Human Resources side, and also
include policies, procedures, and data classification. [Security and Risk
Management]

5. C - After a Risk Analysis is performed, controls may be implemented. The risk

that remains and is not mitigated by the controls is called Residual Risk.
[Security and Risk Management]

6. A - Among these choices, the greatest risk is from an employee performing

critical duties being fired. He may be in a position to compromise the security
if he is disgruntled and wants to 'get back'. The other situations will be handled
well since the company has a well-defined security procedures in place.
[Security and Risk Management]

7. B - Issue-specific policies are also called functional implementing policies.

They address specific issues that management feels needs more explanation and
attention. [Security and Risk Management]

8. B - Exposure is the magnitude of losses a potential vulnerability may cost an

entity, if exploited by an agent of threat. [Security and Risk Management]
9. D - Guidelines are general approaches and provide the necessary flexibility to
handle emergencies. Guidelines may also be certain recommended approaches /
actions to handle certain scenarios. [Security and Risk Management]

10. C - A vulnerability is a S/W, hardware, or procedural weakness that could be

easily exploited by an attacker. Non-enforced password management on servers
and workstations is a vulnerability. [Security and Risk Management]

11. C - It might appear that one only needs to classify “digital data”. However, all
data needs to be classified, irrespective of the format in which it exists.
[Security and Risk Management]

12. A - Product-line managers are responsible for ensuring that license agreements
are complied with. They are also responsible for translating business objectives
and specifications for the developer of a product or solution. [Security and Risk
Management]

13. A - Risk Inference is not a valid way to handle Risk. Risks are usually dealt with
in four ways - risk mitigation, risk avoidance, risk transference and risk
acceptance. [Security and Risk Management]

14. D - The annualized loss expectancy is obtained by the product of the single loss
expectancy and the annualized rate of occurrence. In this instance, the ALE
equals the SLE, hence the ARO equals 1.0 [Security and Risk Management]

15. C - A countermeasure usually mitigates a risk and not a vulnerability. A

vulnerability is just the potential possibility that a risk may occur. [Security and
Risk Management]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 2
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 2

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. Which of the following choices is an easy and less expensive way to improve
physical security?

A. Surveillance Cameras

B. Man Traps

C. Bunkering

D. Additional Lighting

2. With regard to finding a network address, ______________ knows the IP

address and broadcasts to find the matching MAC address; whereas
_______________ knows the MAC address and broadcasts to find the matching
IP address.

A. ARP / DNS

B. ARP / RARP

C. RARP / DNS
 D. DNS / ARP

3. Security policies can be categorized as regulatory, advisory or informative.

What is true of an advisory policy?

A. An advisory policy may not describe how confidential information will be

processed.

B. An advisory policy may describe the consequences of not abiding by the

rules and procedures.

C. An advisory policy cannot be enforced.

D. An advisory policy is designed for educational purposes.

4. A Microsoft Exchange email server uses the X.400 protocol internally to

exchange email with Outlook clients within the network. What standard
protocol does it use to send mail to other servers on the Internet?

A. IMAP4

B. X.400

C. SMTP

D. POP3

5. How would you distinguish S-HTTP from HTTPS?

A. S-HTTP is used to protect the communication channel between two

computers while HTTPS protects a message that is sent from one computer
to another.

B. S-HTTP is SSL over HTTP whereas HTTPS uses encryption.

C. HTTPS is the same as S-HTTP and both protect the communication channel
between two computers.

D. HTTPS is used to protect the communication channel between two

computers while S-HTTP protects a message that is sent from one computer
 to another.

6. Kerberos is a very effective authentication mechanism. One of its weaknesses is

that:

A. Denial-of-service attacks can easily be launched and these severely

compromise the Kerberos server.

B. The encryption processes are based on passwords and traditional password-

cracking attacks can compromise the system.

C. The realm key used for initial trusted communications is easily hacked.

D. The ticket-granting ticket granted by the Ticket Granting Server to a

requesting resource is susceptible to interception.

7. Which of the following locations would be the least useful in keeping a copy of
a business continuity and disaster recovery plan?

A. An offsite location.

B. A backup location.

C. The BCP coordinator's home.

D. The primary location

8. Data on a server has been compromised due to a hack into the system. A
forensic investigator needs to copy the data on a hard disk on the server. Which
of these will be the first step to be performed as part of the process?

A. Use a file copy method to make sure that all files (including hidden and
system files) are copied.

B. Create an image of the hard disk onto the new media.

C. Ensure that a bit-level copy is performed sector by sector, using a

specialized tool.

D. Ensure that the new media into which the hard disk is being copied is
 properly purged.

9. Which of these is not a characteristic of an Intrusion Detection System?

A. Intrusion Detection Systems should have a fail-safe configuration.

B. Intrusion Detection Systems are relatively inexpensive.

C. Intrusion Detection Systems should detect tampering.

D. Intrusion Detection Systems require human intervention to respond to

alarms.

10. A company has implemented an HTTP/HTTPS proxy server for the purpose of
filtering World Wide Web content. Administrators place the proxy server so
that it physically resides on the local area network. They assign it an IP address
and the internal interface of the border firewall is then configured to only
accept port 80/443 requests from the IP address. What is this an example of?

A. AD

B. DAC

C. ACL

D. RBAC

11. When an attacker is considering attacking a networked target, what is the first
thing he or she does?

A. Inject bad packets

B. Hijack a session

C. Run exploitation scripts

D. A port scan

12. What is a method by which a malicious user can use a weakness in an

application, operating system, protocol, or network stack called?
 A. Bug

B. Vulnerability

C. Exploit

D. Worm

13. Samantha works for an accounting firm with the responsibility of traveling to
client sites to assist in SOX compliance checking. Which of the following
accurately describes this work?

A. External Audit

B. Blackbox Penetration Testing

C. Whitebox Penetration Testing

D. Internal Audit

14. Jeremy is hired by a publicly traded company to perform SOX compliance

checking. Which of the following accurately describes this work?

A. Blackbox Penetration Testing

B. External Audit

C. Internal Audit

D. Whitebox Penetration Testing

15. Senior management plans to implement a security policy that outlines what can
and cannot be done with employees' e-mail for monitoring purposes and to
address privacy issues. What would such a security policy be called?

A. Advisory

B. Issue-specific

C. Organizational
 D. System-specific

16. A hospital is setting up a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) center. You are
called in to advise the hospital during the planning phase. Which type of cabling
would you advise the hospital to use for this center, given that cost is not a
major concern?

A. UTP

B. Fiber-optic cabling

C. Copper cables

D. STP

17. Concurrency issues within a database due to improper table locking can cause
tables to be over-written with stale information. What sort of an issue is this?

A. Confidentiality

B. Relativity

C. Availability

D. Integrity

18. Which of the following mechanisms ensures the integrity of data held within a
database?

A. Multi-level commit

B. Four-phase commit

C. Single-phase commit

D. Two-phase commit

19. What kind of a policy would a large organization typically enforce during a 15-
day period prior to New Year's day?
 A. Apply a restriction on emails and ensure that no executable file attachments
are allowed entry or exit the company.

B. Apply a minimal restriction on emails and ensure that no image attachments

(ex: jpg, gif files) are allowed in email.

C. Regulate all email traffic and apply a restriction on the kinds of attachments
that can be allowed via email.

D. Apply a restriction and ban use of email for personal purposes.

20. Evaluation Assurance Levels (EALs) are assigned under the Common Criteria
Model, and give an indication of the thoroughness of testing. A formally
verified system design would be classified as:

A. EAL5

B. EAL7

C. EAL1

D. EAL6

21. Which of the following is not true about cable media?

A. Cables that are not in use should be disconnected from networking devices.

B. UTP and fiber-optic cables are common types of cable media.

C. All cable media should be periodically checked for tampering.

D. UTP cables are very safe and cannot be tapped.

22. The process by which the credentials of one entity is established to another
utilizing credentials such as passwords, one-time tokens, or PIN numbers is
known as:

A. Authentication

B. Accountability
 C. Administration

D. Authorization

23. A key logger and remote admin tool was used to harvest passwords and the
digital signature of a senior officer of a brokerage firm. Several orders to sell
were then issued without approval, all signed by the firm's digital signature.
What basic goal of cryptosystems has been compromised?

A. Secrecy

B. Integrity

C. Confidentiality

D. Authenticity

24. The process of granting privileges to an entity based upon the time of day,
group membership, network address, or verification of its credentials is known
as:

A. Authorization

B. Administration

C. Authentication

D. Accounting

25. An important tool used in risk management is risk analysis. Which statement
about risk analysis is not true?

A. Threats are given an exposure rating in a qualitative risk analysis

B. The Delphi technique can be used in a qualitative risk analysis.

C. A risk analysis must be directed by senior management.

D. The Herzberg principle applies to qualitative risk analysis.

26. Which of the following access controls is based on the sensitivity of the data?

A. Sensitivity-dependent access control

B. Content-dependent access control

C. Context-dependent access control

D. Data-independent access control

27. This early security model was constructed mainly for the purpose of preserving
the confidentiality of data. It is characterized by the concepts of “cannot read
up” and “cannot write down”. Which of the following security models does this
most likely refer to?

A. Bell-LaPadula Model

B. Clark-Wilson Model

C. Brewer and Nash Model

D. Biba Model

28. Biometric devices are among the most accurate and secure methods of
authentication available. However, some users find them obtrusive and are
therefore reluctant to use them. What biometric recognition system is the most
widely accepted and implemented?

A. Iris patterns based

B. Retinal pattern based

C. Facial features based

D. Fingerprint based

29. If asked to select a fast and relatively unbreakable algorithm amongst the
choices of DES, Double DES, Blowfish and Triple DES, which one would you
choose?
 A. DES

B. Blowfish

C. Triple DES

D. Double DES

30. This security model was developed to prevent potential conflicts of interest. It
employs dynamic access controls that change depending on a subject's access
history. Which of the following security models does this describe?

A. Biba Model

B. Brewer and Nash Model

C. Clark-Wilson Model

D. Bell-LaPadula Model

31. When a graph of the error rate in a biometric system is plotted against its
sensitivity, the point where the false accept rate intersects the false reject rate
curve is known as:

A. DMZ

B. FRR

C. CER

D. FAR

32. You are currently doing a comprehensive technical evaluation on the security
components within your organization. What does this refer to?

A. Affirmation

B. Accreditation

C. Hallmark
 D. Certification

33. In change control, _______ requires comprehensive testing and assessment of a

system's security, while ________ requires management to formally accept the
system at the documented security level.

A. Accreditation, Authorization

B. Certification, Accreditation

C. Auditing, Authorization

D. Auditing, Certification

34. Which of the following is not part of the current state assessment phase for
BCP/DRP?

A. Business impact assessment (BIA)

B. Benchmark / Peer Review

C. Threat analysis

D. Design initial acceptance testing of plans

35. What type of iris lens would typically be used in an area that has fixed lighting?

A. Manual

B. Annuciator

C. Automatic

D. Charged-coupled

36. An employee of a company attempted to steal a CD disk containing confidential

information. He was caught in the act by a security guard. Which of these types
of evidences would be the strongest in a legal prosecution against the
employee?
 A. Corroborative evidence of the employee's action

B. Best evidence of the employee's action

C. Conclusive evidence of the employee's action

D. Direct evidence of the employee's action

37. A company encrypts a file with AES encryption. It is sent to the intended
recipient via email with the password in the body of the message. If the email is
intercepted, which basic goal of a cryptosystem has been compromised?

A. Nonrepudiation

B. Integrity

C. Confidentiality

D. Authenticity

38. A purchasing agent is placing an order using a credit card account. The account
number is on the order form. Which of the following ways would be the least
secure method to complete this transaction?

A. HTTPS

B. Courier Service

C. Fax

D. Postal Mail

39. A security professional has been invited to be on the panel during the planning
phase of constructing and setting up a data center. Which of these would be a
good suggestion from her?

A. Construct the data center as multiple rooms to minimize risk.

B. Construct the data center as a single room at ground level.

 C. Construct the data center as a single room in the basement.

D. Construct the data center as a single room on the highest floor of the
building to avoid break-ins.

40. The AIC triad is made up of three main principles of information security:
availability, integrity and confidentiality. Which of the following threats can
compromise data integrity?

A. Viruses

B. Social engineering

C. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack

D. Dumpster diving
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 2
Answer Key and Explanations

1. D - Adding lights is a simple and cost-effective way to prevent physical security

breaches. Bright lights generally deter intruders. Mantraps, camera systems, and
bunkers are comparatively expensive solutions and require much more
administrative effort. [Security Operations]

2. B - Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) knows the IP address, but needs to

match it with a hardware (MAC) address. In contrast, the Reverse Address
Resolution Protocol (RARP) knows the hardware (MAC) address but needs to
find the IP address. [Communications and Network Security]

3. B - Advisory policies explain to employees the actions and conduct that should
and should not take place within the company. These policies also describe the
consequences of failing to follow the organization's rules and procedures.
[Security and Risk Management]

4. C - SMTP is an Internet standard for email transmission between email servers.

A client may read mail received through one of the other protocols. However,
this question revolves around how one mail server can send messages to
another mail server. [Security Operations]

5. D - Although both HTTPS and S-HTTP sound very similar, they are different in
that, HTTPS is used to protect the communication channel between two
computers while S-HTTP protects a message that is sent from one computer to
the other. [Asset Security]

6. B - Although Kerberos is by itself a very robust authentication mechanism, its

weak link lies in the fact that it uses passwords for encryption and these can be
subject to traditional attacks. [Identity and Access Management]

7. D - Among the choices listed, the primary facility is the least effective for
storage of the business continuity and disaster recovery plans. This is because
in case of a disaster striking the facility, it may not be possible to retrieve the
plans. The other choices, including keeping a copy of the plan in the BCP
coordinator's home will serve the purpose. [Security and Risk Management]

8. D - Among the given choices, the first step to be performed is to purge the new
 media completely before copying the hard disk contents. There have been
instances where the media has contained prior information and was considered
inadmissible in courts. [Security and Risk Management]

9. B - Intrusion Detection Systems are quite expensive. The other choices listed
are valid characteristics of IDSs. [Security Operations]

10. C - An Access Control List (ACL) is a filter that can be configured, in this case,
to drop packets that do not come from a particular source. This configuration is
sometimes referred to as a “Proxy on a Stick,” and can be more stable than a
multi-homed proxy system. [Identity and Access Management]

11. D - An attacker will first need to know what ports are open on a system so that
the attack strategy can be built from that knowledge. An attacker can also run
exploitation scripts but they will take much longer and may be of no use if a
web server is not running on the target machine. [Security Operations]

12. C - An exploit is a way by which a system can be altered or used without

authorization for purposes other than those of the owner. A vulnerability is the
possibility that exploitation might take place A bug is a flaw in software that
might cause a vulnerability to exist. [Software Development Security]

13. A - An external auditor is hired to assist an organization. This can take the form
of an on-going contractor engagement, or a brief spot-check. [Security
Operations]

14. C - An internal auditor works for the organization. While some auditors can
also perform penetration testing, it is usually not their main job function.
[Security Operations]

15. B - Issue-specific policies are also called functional implementing policies.

They address specific issues that management feels needs more explanation and
attention. [Security and Risk Management]

16. B - An MRI center will likely be subject to high electromagnetic emission.

Hence, only fiber-optic cabling and STP are options that can be used here
among the choices given. Since cost is not a consideration, fiber-optic cabling
is the preferred solution. [Communications and Network Security]

17. D - When data becomes inconsistent or untrustworthy, the integrity of the data is
 said to be compromised. Neither availability nor confidentiality is not an issue
here. [Software Development Security]

18. D - A two-phase commit mechanism is a control used in databases that ensures

the integrity of the data held within the database. The other choices are not valid.
[Software Development Security]

19. C - As a trend, it has been found that a number of new viruses are released
during the holiday season prior to New Year. The vulnerability that is exploited
is that many emails with attachments (not only executables) that are carriers of
viruses get exchanged during the holiday season. Having a restrictive email
attachment policy helps control this to some extent. [Software Development
Security]

20. B - As the assurance levels increase, the thoroughness and testing performed
increases. Thus the package where system design is verified and tested is the
highest level EAL7 [Security Engineering]

21. D - UTP cables are not necessarily safe. It is possible to tap into the middle of
UTP cables and use sniffers to capture network traffic. [Security Operations]

22. A - Authentication verifies that the credentials submitted by an entity match its
stored information. Authentication does not track usage or actions
(accountability) or prevent / deny access to resources (authorization). Often,
multifactor authentication is used for better authentication. This is a
combination of something you know (password / PIN), something you have
(smartcard/token), and/or something you are (biometrics). [Identity and Access
Management]

23. D - Authenticity means that the sender is validated and identified. In this case,
the messages were all properly sent and executed using the firm's digital
signature but they were not authentic. [Asset Security]

24. A - Authorization allows users access to resources. It ensures that an entity has
been given the necessary rights and privileges to perform requested actions.
[Identity and Access Management]

25. D - The Herzberg principle is not related to risk analysis. The other three are
valid statements. [Security and Risk Management]
26. B - Content-dependent access control is based on the sensitivity of the data. The
more sensitive the data, the lesser the number of individuals who will have
access to it. [Software Development Security]

27. A - Bell-LaPadula was created for the U.S. Military in the 1970s for to protect
secret information from leaking on multi-user and time-share mainframes. In
such a system a subject cannot read information at a higher security level, or
cannot read “up.” At the same time, to prevent declassifying data
inappropriately, a subject cannot save data to a lower security level, or cannot
write “down.” [Security Engineering]

28. D - Biometrics is the science of measuring and statistically analyzing human

biological characteristics. Biometric devices use a unique, measurable feature
of an individual to authenticate their identity. Fingerprint scanning is widely
accepted as a reliable means of human recognition and authentication, and is
considered less obtrusive than other systems. [Security Operations]

29. B - Blowfish is considered almost unbreakable considering today's computing

standards. The other algorithms were considered unbreakable when they first
came up. However, increase in computing power has now rendered them
breakable. [Asset Security]

30. B - Brewer and Nash was created to prevent conflicts of interest. For instance,
an accounting firm has financial data from two companies that compete. An
accountant who accesses the records of one is automatically locked away from
accessing the records of the other. This method is significantly different from
Bell-LaPadula, Biba, and Clark-Wilson in that the privileges dynamically adjust
based upon activity. [Security Engineering]

31. C - CER, or the Crossover Error Rate is the point at which the FAR (False
Accept Rate) crosses the FRR (False Reject Rate). A DMZ is a demilitarized
zone and is a networking concept. [Identity and Access Management]

32. D - Certification is a process that involves a comprehensive technical

evaluation on the components within your organization. The overall
evaluations would involve risk analysis, safeguards, verification, auditing, and
other tests that are able to assess the components in question. The end goal of
the certification process should be to ensure that the products, systems, or
components meet the overall security requirements of the organization.
[Security Engineering]
33. B - Certification is the process by which security components are evaluated
technically for compliance to an applicable standard or policy. Accreditation is
the formal acceptance by management that the system's security and
functionality is adequate. [Software Development Security]

34. D - Design initial acceptance testing of plans is done in the design and
development phase of the BCP/DRP. The other three activities listed are done
during the current state assessment phase. [Security and Risk Management]

35. A - Closed-circuit TV (CCTV) systems have many components, which include

cameras, transmitters, receivers, recording systems, and monitors. The camera
used in a CCTV system has many characteristics that need to be taken into
account. One of these characteristics is the lens. There are two kinds of irises
used in camera lenses in CCTV systems - automatic and manual. Manual lenses
would be used in areas with fixed lighting and automatic lenses are used in
areas where the light changes from time to time. [Security Operations]

36. C - Conclusive evidence would be the strongest and would not require any
corroboration. [Security and Risk Management]

37. C - Confidentiality means that unauthorized users cannot access the protected
information. This is not a breach in authenticity because the source was never in
question. [Asset Security]

38. C - Courier Services can be bonded. There are many laws that make tampering
with U.S. Mail a federal offense. HTTPS is a relatively secure asynchronously
encrypted transmission. However, there is no guarantee that a fax will be picked
up from the machine by the intended recipient. [Security Operations]

39. B - Data centers should typically be at ground level so that they can be easily
accessed by emergency crew. They should also be constructed as a single room
which makes it easier to secure. The other options listed are not preferred ones.
[Security Operations]

40. A - Data integrity is compromised when it is modified by an unauthorized

person or program and the accuracy of the data is no longer certain. Since a
virus is able to alter system files and data, it can compromise data integrity.
[Security and Risk Management]
Domain Area Test: Identity and Access Management
Practice Questions

Test Name: Domain Area Test: Identity and Access Management

Total Questions: 15
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 11 (73.33%)
Time Allowed: 25 Minutes

Test Description

This practice test specifically targets your knowledge of the Identity and Access
Management domain area.

1. Which of the following is an example of a brute force attack?

A. A program that captures UserID / password values as they are entered by the
user

B. A program that uses a pre-defined list of values and compares it to captured

values

C. A program that uses every possible input combination to try to determine a

password

D. A program that sniffs the network and captures packets

2. What type of access control does a stateful firewall use?

A. Content-dependent access control

B. Rule-based access control

C. Context-dependent access control

D. Access control grid

3. You use an access card to access specific rooms within a building. In the context
of three-factor authentication, which of the following does the access card
represent?
 A. Something you have

B. Something you validate

C. Something you are

D. Something you know

4. Randy has worked in an organization for fifteen years. He has been granted
accesses to various systems and they have never been revoked. If the company
has to be compliant with Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) regulations, at a minimum,
how often does Randy's manager need to review his access permissions?

A. Annually

B. Every month

C. Every six months

D. Every two years

5. Greg is a security professional and wants to ensure that users do not access the
company's HR database between 10 PM and 5 AM. Which of the following
access control mechanisms might he employ?

A. Trust based Access Control

B. Smart Cards

C. Time of Day Access Control

D. Off-hours Access Control

6. Alison is responsible for the security of a group of infrastructure devices. She

discovers that an external attacker is using an automated password search
program to try and break into the company systems. What is a simple yet
effective strategy that is used to mitigate this type of attack?

A. Password Aging
 B. One-time password

C. Limit Logon Attempts

D. Password Checkers

7. Which of these access control models is most likely to be used by the United
States military?

A. DAC

B. MAC

C. AAA

D. RBAC

8. In which of the following access control models does the owner of a file have
the maximum flexibility to grant another user access to a file?

A. Administrative access control

B. Mandatory access control

C. Role Based access control

D. Discretionary access control

9. When a biometrics system incorrectly accepts an impostor who should not

actually be granted access, what type of error is it called?

A. Type II Error

B. Type I Error

C. Type IV Error

D. Type III Error

10. A hacker managed to hack into a computer system and stole some financial
 information related to the profitability of a company. Such information would
normally be classified as:

A. Public

B. Secret

C. Unclassified

D. Sensitive

11. In a system governed by a multi-level security policy, a subject can access an

object only when:

A. The security level of the subject is at level zero

B. The security level of the subject is equal to or greater than that of the
object's classification

C. The security level of the object is at level zero.

D. The security level of the subject is lesser than that of the object's
classification

12. A network administrator in a company finds that employees in the company

clog the network by exchange of music and movie files. Employee A shares his
directory and enables Employee B to copy the files across the network, thus
using up valuable bandwidth. What kind of access control permits this to
happen?

A. Role Based Access Control

B. This is a problem related to HR policies and not access control.

C. Discretionary Access Control

D. Mandatory Access Control

13. A security professional is evaluating biometric solutions for access control to a

critical facility. If she is given a set of cross-over rates (CERs) to choose from,
 which of these should she prefer?

A. CER of 90

B. CER of 3

C. CER of 10

D. CER of 97

14. The junior manager of a finance department was granted access privileges to
all files on the company server including employee performance details,
employee payroll details, client feedback reports. This is a situation that should
best be avoided and is termed as:

A. Access creep

B. Authorization creep

C. Excessive privileges

D. Excessive read

15. You are trying to book a holiday package through a website on the internet. You
log in to the holiday resort's website and are automatically able to make your
airline and car rental reservations on different websites without needing to sign
in again. This would be possible through:

A. Digital sign-on

B. Password synchronization

C. Single Sign-on

D. Federation
Domain Area Test: Identity and Access Management
Answer Key and Explanations

1. C - A brute force attack is designed to use every possible combination when

determining the correct value. The attack keeps occurring until a combination is
found. For example, if the beginning of the password is known, such as 'pass'
for 'password', then the attacker will try every other possible value for the
remaining values that are missing. This could include: pass1, pass2, passaa,
passAA, etc. [Identity and Access Management]

2. C - A stateful firewall uses context-dependent access control. Context-dependent

access control involves using a collection of information for making access
decisions. Instead of allowing access based on the sensitivity of the data, as with
content-dependent access control, a stateful firewall using context-dependent
access control will review a TCP connection and ensure that all of the correct
steps are followed before allowing any packets to be transmitted through the
firewall. [Identity and Access Management]

3. A - Access cards, keys, swipe cards, and badges are all examples of something
you have. They are physical devices that you carry on your person so that you
can be authenticated when you wish to access something. [Identity and Access
Management]

4. A - As per Sarbanes-Oxley regulations, managers need to review their

employees' access permissions at least once a year. [Identity and Access
Management]

5. C - Greg could use time-of-day access control. Since the HR data is

confidential, placing an access restriction will ensure that most users cannot
access the HR database between 10 PM and 4 AM. Off-hours and trust based
access control do not exist. Smart cards will not serve the purpose here.
[Identity and Access Management]

6. C - Limiting logon attempts provides protection against dictionary and

exhaustive attacks. A threshold is set to allow only a limited number of logon
attempts. Once this is exceeded, a user's account will be locked out. Password
aging is to keep passwords fresh. It will not help against such attacks. Password
checkers are used to test the strength of users' passwords so they will not help
prevent attacks. A one-time password does not serve the purpose here. [Identity
 and Access Management]

7. B - In a Mandatory Access Control (MAC) system, users and data are given a
security clearance such as confidential, top secret etc. The operating system
makes the final decision about fulfilling a user request to access data. The MAC
model is specifically used in the military where confidentiality and
classification of information are very important. [Identity and Access
Management]

8. D - In the discretionary access control model, a user is the owner of a file if he

creates it. Such a system will allow the owner to specify which other users can
access the file. In other access control methods, the owner of a file does not
have as much flexibility to specify who can access the file. [Identity and Access
Management]

9. A - Mistaken authentication by a biometric system is called a Type II Error

(false acceptance). A Type I Error occurs when a biometric system rejects an
authorized individual (called false rejection). [Identity and Access Management]

10. D - Financial information is usually classified as sensitive. This type of

information requires special precautions to ensure the confidentiality and
integrity of the data. [Identity and Access Management]

11. B - Multilevel security policies prevent information flow from a higher to a

lower security level. Hence these policies permit a subject to access an object
only if its security level classification is equal to or greater than that of the
object. [Identity and Access Management]

12. C - Such a situation can arise in a discretionary model. Employee A will have
the necessary permissions to share a directory or file with Employee B.
Employee B then tries to access and copy the file(s) over the network, resulting
in excess traffic. In the other access control models, users do not have as much
freedom to permit other users to access their files. [Identity and Access
Management]

13. B - The biometric system with a crossover error rate (CER) of 3 is the most
accurate system. The CER represents the point at which the false rejection rate
(authorized individuals are rejected) equals the false acceptance rate
(unauthorized individuals are accepted). A lower value indicates a more
accurate system. CERs of 90 and 97 will not occur in practice. [Identity and
 Access Management]

14. C - This is a situation called Excessive Privileges and is quite hard to control in
larger organizations. In general, an employee should only be given access to as
much data as he/she needs to access. [Identity and Access Management]

15. D - This is possible through federation which allows a federated identity to be

portable across businesses and allows the user to be authenticated across
different systems and businesses. [Identity and Access Management]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 3
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 3

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. Which of the following uses asymmetric-key encryption?

A. RC4

B. Diffie-Hellman

C. 3DES

D. DES

2. Which of the following is NOT useful for Encryption?

A. AES

B. Digital Signature Algorithm

C. RSA

D. DES

3. In running a backup on a system, what should the first step be?

 A. Run a differential backup

B. Run an incremental backup

C. Run a full backup

D. Run both a differential and an incremental backup

4. The company's database server contains multiple tables with customer orders. If
a disaster results in the server going offline the company would start to lose
significant amounts of money after about 24 hours. What category of maximum
tolerable downtime (MTD) should the server be placed in?

A. Normal

B. Urgent

C. Critical

D. Nonessential

5. An information systems security professional enforces separation of duties

with the intention of reducing frauds and errors. However, this results in
inflexible operations. What could the professional do to ease things?

A. Implement static separation of duties

B. Implement conditional separation of duties

C. Implement job rotation instead

D. Implement dynamic separation of duties

6. Users have been complaining that they have to enter too many userids and
passwords to access systems. You are looking at a solution to help them out.
Each of the following technologies may assist in this except:

A. Password synchronization

B. Password network
 C. SSO

D. Federation

7. Which Common Criteria Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL) involves

semiformal design and testing of systems?

A. EAL 5

B. EAL 7

C. EAL 1

D. EAL 3

8. Which of the following is not a countermeasure to eavesdropping on a

network?

A. Use of routers

B. Encryption of network traffic

C. Traffic padding

D. Rerouting of information

9. Which of the following memory technologies is most commonly used to store

computer BIOS microcode?

A. DRAM

B. ROM

C. EEPROM

D. RAM

10. In the context of cryptography, which of the following is incorrect?

A. A message can be digitally signed and this provides nonrepudiation

 B. A message can be hashed and this provides integrity

C. A message can be digitally signed and this provides authentication

D. A message can be encrypted and this provides integrity

11. When IPSec is used in transport mode, what is the only part of the message that
is encrypted?

A. Payload

B. Authentication Header

C. Routing Header

D. Symmetric Public Payload

12. What is the most common security issue for faced by companies?

A. DoS attacks

B. Data diddling

C. Excessive privileges

D. IP spoofing attacks

13. A security professional is performing a Failure Modes and Effects Analysis

(FMEA). Which of the following is correct about FMEA?

A. Failure Modes and Effects Analysis is only useful while analyzing single
sub-systems.

B. Failure Modes and Effects Analysis cannot be applied to determine where

exactly a failure is likely to occur.

C. Failure Modes and Effects Analysis is very theoretical in nature and does not
have practical application.

D. Failure Modes and Effects Analysis can be applied to determine where

 exactly a failure is likely to occur.

14. A junior network technician has approached you and asked for your opinion on
what would be the most secure cable to implement within the organization.
What should you tell her?

A. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)

B. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)

C. Fiber-optic

D. Coaxial

15. The ICMP protocol is intended to send status messages. However, attackers have
figured out how to insert data inside an ICMP packet to communicate with a
compromised system. This is done by setting up a backdoor on systems. Which
of the following is a well-known attack which uses this method to target
systems?

A. Ping of death

B. Router attack

C. Loki attack

D. Longdale attack

16. In access control terminology, an account username is _________ and the

password is _________.

A. Authorization, Identification

B. Identification, Authentication

C. Authentication, Authorization

D. Accountability, Authentication

17. A diagnostic program called ping is used to determine if a specified host is on a

 network. What is the ping of death?

A. A ping works by sending an ICMP echo packet to the target host. If this is
greater than a legal packet size of 65,636 bytes, the operating system crashes
or becomes unstable.

B. A ping works by sending an IKE echo packet to the target host. If this is
greater than a legal packet size of 32,768 bytes, the operating systems crash
or become unstable.

C. A ping works by sending an ICMP echo packet to the target host. If this is
greater than a legal packet size of 32,768 bytes, the operating systems crash
or become unstable.

D. A ping works by sending an IKE echo packet to the target host. If this is
greater than a legal packet size of 65,636 bytes, the operating systems crash
or become unstable.

18. Todd evaluates an enterprise software that will be installed on the company's
network. This software will also be accessible through the web. Which of the
following features would be a bad practice, and grounds for rejecting the
software?

A. The need to use a secureID card for all web accesses.

B. A feature such as user access through a WAP-enabled mobile device.

C. A feature such as user access through a VPN interface.

D. A feature such as administrative access through a web-based interface.

19. An organization is evaluating the pros and cons of using a hardware

cryptography system versus a software cryptography system. If the
organizations wants a high speed cryptography solution, which option would it
prefer?

A. A software solution provides the fastest throughput.

B. The best option would be to use a VPN connection that avoids the need for
cryptography.
 C. A combination of hardware and software will be the most effective solution.

D. A hardware solution will be the best option and function at a higher speed.

20. Which of these options is not a presentation layer standard?

A. MPEG

B. JPEG

C. TIFF

D. HTTP

21. Use of SSL over HTTP technology, also known as HTTPS, helps prevent which
of the following attacks?

A. Teardrop

B. Man-in-the-middle

C. Smurf

D. Fraggle

22. Of the protection rings used by operating system security, in which of the
following would applications such as web browsers, email, and word
processors reside?

A. Ring 0

B. Ring 2

C. Ring 1

D. Ring 3

23. The continuity planning project team (CPPT) is facing challenges in getting
various units of the organization to participate in the Disaster Recovery and
Continuity Planning process. This is very likely because of:
 A. Poor communication.

B. Lack of management support

C. Lack of understanding of the disaster recovery planning process.

D. A poorly prepared business impact assessment.

24. Camille is works for an accounting firm in a remote lab, away from the main
offices. Her main job is to perform security checks against client websites. To
do this, she is provided only a web address. Which of the following accurately
describes this work?

A. Blackbox Penetration Testing

B. External Audit

C. Whitebox Penetration Testing

D. Internal Audit

25. Gerald works for an accounting firm as a part of a tiger team. He has received
all of the Rules of Engagement documentation for the current project. Included
in the documents is information about specific targets the client would like
tested. Which of the following accurately describes this work?

A. Internal Audit

B. External Audit

C. Whitebox Penetration Testing

D. Blackbox Penetration Testing

26. A token device is a handheld device that can be used to authenticate a user in a
synchronous or asynchronous manner. What mechanism does an asynchronous
token-generating method employ?

A. Counter based mechanism

 B. Challenge/response mechanism

C. Accept/Reject mechanism

D. Start/Stop mechanism

27. In which security mode can users access all data once they have proper
clearances and comply with certain other requirements?

A. Multilevel security mode.

B. Compartmented security mode.

C. Dedicated security mode

D. System high security mode

28. Liz is a network engineer and is finding it difficult to troubleshoot a network

cable fault. In which topology would it be difficult to detect cable faults?

A. Linear Bus Topology

B. Mesh Topology

C. Star topology

D. Ring Topology

29. A consultant is called in to advise on aspects of creating a business continuity

and disaster recovery plan. She insists on establishing clear goals for the plans.
What key information must a goal contain?

A. Responsibility, Priorities, References

B. Responsibility, Authority, Priorities

C. Responsibility, Email addresses, Organization Structure

D. Responsibility, Target Dates, Email Addresses

30. If the same key is being used to encrypt and decrypt a payload, what is the
encryption method in use called?

A. Asymmetric

B. Public Key Exchange

C. Public Key Infrastructure

D. Symmetric

31. Which of the following will be curbed by implementation of the Least Privilege
principle?

A. Information Breaches via fax

B. Network sniffing

C. Information Breaches via email

D. Browsing

32. Which of these access control models is the best system for a company that has
high employee turnover?

A. LDAP

B. RBAC

C. MAC

D. DAC

33. In what mode should a door access system that relies on magnetic locks fail in
the event of a complete power failure?

A. Fail Secure

B. Fail Local
 C. Fail Remote

D. Fail Safe

34. The CEO of a drug-manufacturing company was aware of malpractices in the

manufacture of certain drugs by the company. These drugs resulted in loss of
life to some users of those drugs. The CEO is likely to be tried under:

A. Civil and criminal laws

B. Civil and administrative laws

C. Administrative, criminal and civil laws

D. Administrative and criminal laws

35. Which statement best describes a properly implemented incident handling

program?

A. Incident reporting should be decentralized

B. Incident handling should be approached in a reactive manner

C. Incident handling should be part of the business continuity plan

D. Incident handling should be aligned with the disaster recovery plan

36. A publicly listed company was due to announce its quarterly results in a few
days' time. How would the company classify information pertaining to its
results, prior to the day of the results?

A. It would be classified as private.

B. It would be classified as public.

C. It would be classified as sensitive.

D. It would be classified as confidential.

37. Of the protection rings used by operating system security, in which of the
 following would I/O drivers and utilities reside?

A. Ring 2

B. Ring 1

C. Ring 0

D. Ring 3

38. Among the components inside the Central Processing Unit of a computer,
which of the following performs the logic and calculations?

A. Output Unit

B. Arithmetic Logic Unit

C. Registers

D. L1 Cache

39. In an effort to create additional free space on a computer's hard disk, a user
unwittingly deletes a folder that contains critical operating system files. What
security principle is affected by this action?

A. Integrity

B. Confidentiality

C. Authentication

D. Capacity

40. A file is encrypted and placed on a secure FTP server. An MD5 hash is taken of
the file and also placed on the FTP server. The authorized user logs in to the
server and downloads both files, however, the hash fails to match the archive. In
this case, which basic goal of a cryptosystem has failed?

A. Nonrepudiation
B. Authenticity

C. Confidentiality

D. Integrity
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 3
Answer Key and Explanations

1. B - Diffie-Hellman is the only public key exchange asymmetric encryption

technology. All the other choices listed are pre-shared key or synchronous.
[Asset Security]

2. B - DSA, based upon the Digital Signature Standards created by NIST, can not
be used for encryption. The other options can be used for encryption. [Asset
Security]

3. C - The first step in the backup process would be to run a full backup. This can
then be followed by a differential or an incremental backup. However,
differential and incremental backups should not be mixed up. [Security and Risk
Management]

4. B - During the business impact analysis (BIA), the organization needs to

identify its critical systems and determine the maximum outage time the
organization can tolerate without these critical functions. This is referred to as
the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD). General categories of MTDs are:
Nonessential: 30 days, Normal: 7 days, Important: 72 hours, Urgent: 24 hours
and Critical: Up to 4 hours Hence the server would be classified with an MTD
of Urgent. [Security and Risk Management]

5. D - Dynamic separation of duties allows for flexibility in operations. Static

separation of duties results in rigid policies. Job rotation will not help and
conditional separation of duties is not a valid type of separation of duties.
[Identity and Access Management]

6. B - Each of the three technologies - Password synchronization, SSO (single

sign on) and Federation, help in using the information entered once by a user
while signing on, for accessing other systems. Password network is not a valid
response. [Identity and Access Management]

7. A - EAL 5 involves semiformal design and testing of systems. It ensures that a

higher level of assurance is met through practices that have been thoroughly
tested in rigorous commercial development. Therefore, it is supported by the
use of specialist security engineering techniques. [Security Engineering]
 A - Eavesdropping is the act of intercepting and viewing unauthorized
8. information that is being transmitted over the network. Use of routers will not
prevent this activity. [Communications and Network Security]

9. C - Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory is a non-volatile

storage technology that can be “flashed” with reprogramming and updates. It is
used to store the BIOS on most modern computer systems. [Security
Engineering]

10. D - Encrypting a message does not provide integrity. It is hashing which

provides integrity. Digitally signing it provides authentication, nonrepudiation
and integrity. [Asset Security]

11. A - When IPSec is used in transport mode, only the payload of the message is
encrypted. [Asset Security]

12. C - Excessive privileges' is the most common security issue faced by

companies. This occurs when a user possesses more rights, privileges, and
permissions than required to fulfill their duties. Users can often cause the most
damage to resources because of the privileged access they have been granted.
[Security and Risk Management]

13. D - Fault tree analysis is useful in identifying failures that can take place in
complex environments or systems. In this process, each failure situation is
added to a tree as a series of logic expressions. This helps in determining where
exactly a failure is likely to occur. [Security and Risk Management]

14. C - Fiber-optic cable is the most secure cabling among the choices listed. Fiber-
optic cable cannot be easily tapped into since it is made of glass. It is also very
difficult to eavesdrop on since it does not radiate any signals that can be
captured. [Communications and Network Security]

15. C - Loki is a client/server program that is used by hackers to setup backdoors

on systems. The server portion of the Loki software is installed on
compromised systems and monitors a particular port which is the backdoor
into the system. [Communications and Network Security]

16. B - Identification ensures that a subject is the entity that it claims to be. This is
achieved by use of a username, or account number. Authentication ensures that
an additional credential such as a password or PIN number matches previously
 stored values for the subject. [Identity and Access Management]

17. A - Ping is a diagnostic program to determine if a host is on a network. A ping

works by sending an ICMP echo packet to the target host. If this is greater than a
legal packet size of 65,636 bytes, a large number of operating systems crash or
become unstable. The source of attack is sometimes difficult to find because a
ping might seem like a harmless entry in a log. [Communications and Network
Security]

18. D - From a security perspective, it is better to restrict remote administrative

access. This is especially true for critical applications or servers. By doing so,
the possibility of an attacker gaining control of an administrative userid and
password to attack the system is minimized or eliminated. [Software
Development Security]

19. D - Hardware encryption is costlier than software encryption, but provides high
speeds of operation in comparison to software encryption. [Asset Security]

20. D - HTTP is an application layer protocol. It is used to transfer information

between a web browser and a web server. It is not a presentation layer standard.
[Communications and Network Security]

21. B - HTTPS, because of the asymmetric key exchange, is good for preventing
man-in-the-middle attacks. Smurf, Teardrop, and Fraggle are all network based
attacks that overwhelm a victim host with network traffic. [Asset Security]

22. D - Ideally, Ring 3 applications would never be able to directly access processes
belonging to lower numbered security rings. In fact, in some cases an
additional level of security is added in to applications like web browsers to
even further abstract processes away from more critical ones. This is usually
called sandboxing. Ring 3 is often called User mode or User land software.
[Security Engineering]

23. B - Lack of management support is the most likely reason the continuity
planning project team is facing difficulties in getting the rest of the
organization to participate and contribute to the plan. BCP/DRP needs to be a
top-down initiative with support coming in from the highest level. [Security and
Risk Management]

24. A - In a blackbox test, the penetration tester is only given enough information to
 ensure that the correct enterprise is tested. No specifics are given to the testers
about the systems themselves. The advantage of blackbox testing is that it may
yield unexpected results. A disadvantage is that extensive testing of particular
controls may not take place simply because they are not uncovered in the test.
[Security Operations]

25. C - In a whitebox test, an external tester is given information on specific targets

to be tested. This can included IP addresses, operating systems, and protection
technologies. While these tests may not discover unexpected results, they can be
very useful at drilling down on specific security controls. [Security Operations]

26. B - In an asynchronous token method, the device uses a challenge/response

scheme whereby it authenticates a user. The authentication server sends the user
a random value (a challenge). This value is entered by the user into the token
device which returns an encrypted value. This value is entered by the user and
sent to the authentication server for authentication. [Identity and Access
Management]

27. C - In dedicated security mode, once a user has the necessary clearances, he/she
can access all data. This is in contrast to the other modes where users can only
access some of the data subject to approvals. [Security Engineering]

28. B - In mesh topology, computers are connected to each other, providing a good
amount of redundancy. This is however more expensive and cable faults can be
quite effort-intensive to detect. [Communications and Network Security]

29. B - In order for goals to be useful, it needs to contain key information such as
responsibility, priorities, authority and implementation / testing dates. [Security
and Risk Management]

30. D - In symmetric encryption, a single key is used to both encrypt and decrypt
the message. [Asset Security]

31. D - Implementation of the Least Privilege access principle ensures that

personnel who have unnecessary access to systems do not end up “browsing”
or looking through data that they should not have access to. Least Privilege
access will not prevent any of the other choices. [Security Operations]

32. B - An RBAC model is well suited for a company with high employee turnover.
This is because if an employee is mapped to a specific role, when he/she leaves,
 his/her replacement can easily be mapped to the same role. The administrator
need not continually change ACLs on individual objects. [Identity and Access
Management]

33. D - In this instance, failing safe means that the doors would be unlocked in case
of a power failure. This will ensure that personnel are not trapped behind the
door in case of emergencies. [Security Operations]

34. C - In this scenario, the CEO is likely to be tried under all the three types of
laws: 1. Civil law - because of the wrongs to certain individuals. 2. Criminal law
- because the CEO willfully violated government laws. 3. Administrative law -
because of the violation of regulatory standards. [Security and Risk
Management]

35. D - Incident handling should align with the company's disaster recovery plan.
Both plans are designed to quickly respond to incidents so that the company can
return to normal operations as soon as possible. However, incident handling is
a recovery plan that specifically addresses malicious technical threats. [Security
and Risk Management]

36. C - Information within the company can be classified as public, sensitive,

confidential or private. In the case of such financial information, it would
typically be classified as sensitive, prior to the declaration of results. [Security
and Risk Management]

37. A - Input/output system drivers and operating system utilities reside at the Ring
2 level. This ring is at an intermediate level between User mode (Ring 3) and
Privileged Mode (Rings 0 and 1) rings. [Security Engineering]

38. B - The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) handles all of the logic and mathematical
calculations. The control unit schedules the work to be done, and the local
memory registers, or L1 cache, hold working data for quick reference.
[Security Engineering]

39. A - When a user deletes files that are required, the integrity of the system is
affected. Unlike a virus attack which deliberately affects data integrity, a user
deleting files usually happens in error. [Security and Risk Management]

40. D - Integrity means that the file or message was not modified in transmission,
either by accident or on purpose. This is not a breach in confidentiality since the
intended recipient also cannot read the file. [Asset Security]
Domain Area Test:
Security Engineering
Practice Questions

Test Name: Domain Area Test: Security Engineering

Total Questions: 15
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 1 (73.33%)
Time Allowed: 25 Minutes

Test Description

This practice test specifically targets your knowledge of the Security Engineering
domain area.

Test Questions

1. A high security environment requires that every keystroke made by a user be

recorded. What is this called?

A. Trojan Horse

B. Spyware

C. Keystroke logging

D. Biometrics

2. Which of the following does the Common Criteria use in its evaluation
process?

A. Protection profiles

B. Application hosts

C. Application profiles

D. Protection hosts
3. A security perimeter is an imaginary boundary. Which of these statements
correctly explains the concept of a security perimeter?

A. Both trusted and untrusted components are outside the perimeter.

B. Trusted components are outside the perimeter and untrusted components are
within it.

C. Trusted components are within the perimeter and untrusted components are
outside it.

D. Both trusted and untrusted components are within the perimeter

4. In many instances, firmware is preferred over software. Which of the following

is a likely reason for this to be the case?

A. Firmware is difficult to tamper with since it needs to be physically accessed.

B. Code written in firmware has lesser security needs.

C. Firmware runs faster than software.

D. Software is difficult to program in comparison with firmware.

5. A product vendor comes out with a new package called “Unified threat
management system”. The vendor claims that their product obviates the need
for all other network security devices / software. If a company decides to use
only this package, what major tenet of network security would this violate?

A. Defense in Depth

B. Network Segregation

C. Separation of Duties

D. Least Privilege

6. John works in accounting and Marsha in payroll. Both of them have always had
the same privileges to the financial data files. In particular, both use one of
Marsha's files named Payroll.xls. Marsha uses Payroll.xls to track and input
 weekly timesheet data, and John uses the data as an input for a different
spreadsheet. A recent external audit firm has recommended that the company
apply the concept of Least Privilege. How would this best be implemented?

A. Set John's access for the file to read-only

B. Remove John's access to the file completely

C. Set both John's and Marsha's access for the file to read-only

D. Remove Marsha's access to the file completely

7. A contractor assigned to work on a critical application introduced certain

pieces of code that he planned to exploit at a later time. How can such activity be
detected?

A. By thoroughly testing the code.

B. By implementing a structured code walkthrough process.

C. By implementing an IDS

D. By doing a thorough background check on the contractor prior to hire.

8. Secure systems are dependent on the use of effective security models. Which of
these models protects integrity of information within a system?

A. The Biba model

B. The Clark-Denning Model

C. The Bell-LaPadula Model

D. The Brewer-Wilson Model

9. Full hard drive encryption on laptops mitigates some of the risk of loss or theft
of the unit. Under what security realm is this classified?

A. Host Security
 B. Network Security

C. Data Security

D. Application Security

10. A covert channel is a way in which an entity can get information in an

unauthorized manner. The number of covert channels that can be considered
acceptable depends on the assurance rating that the system has. Which of these
will have the least number of covert channels?

A. EAL0

B. EAL6

C. EAL3

D. EAL1

11. What ITSEC rating is concerned with a high level of integrity during
communications?

A. F5

B. F6

C. F7

D. F8

12. The Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) is a single

standard for evaluating security attributes of computer systems. Which of the
following regions uses this?

A. United States only

B. Europe only

C. United States and Canada

 D. United States and Europe

13. An operating system has many protection mechanisms to ensure that processes
that are running do not negatively affect each other or other components. One
such mechanism is a protection ring. The ring architecture is dictated by:

A. The security mode

B. The processor

C. The operating system

D. The processor and the operating system

14. Which rule is also classified as the “no read down” rule?

A. Star property rule

B. Simple integrity axiom

C. Simple security rule

D. Star integrity axiom

15. The sensitivity of the data being processed dictates the security modes in which
systems operate. If users need to access some data subject to clearances and
formal access approvals, what security mode would this likely be?

A. System high security mode.

B. Partitioned security mode.

C. Multi-level security mode.

D. Dedicated security mode

Domain Area Test:
Security Engineering
Answer Key and Explanations

1. C - This is called keystroke logging. This is usually done in high risk

situations, such as air traffic control or nuclear power operations to enforce
accountability. [Security Engineering]

2. A - The Common Criteria uses protection profiles as part of its evaluation

process. The profile typically contains the set of security requirements, their
meaning/reasoning and the EAL rating that the product will require. [Security
Engineering]

3. C - A security perimeter is an imaginary boundary with trusted components

within it and untrusted components outside it. [Security Engineering]

4. A - Firmware requires physical access that makes it difficult to tamper with.

Hence it provides excellent security. The other choices do not present valid
reasons. [Security Engineering]

5. A - Defense in depth is an information assurance strategy that relies on using

multiple methods to defend a system. No single technology is ultimately secure;
therefore strong security can only be had by adding layers of effective security
rather than stripping them out. Although the vendor may claim that no other
software is required if their product is used, it is preferable to use multiple
layers for security. [Security Engineering]

6. A - John only needs to read-access to the payroll xls. He may never have
attempted to change any of the values in the payroll xls but the principle of least
privilege states that he should only have as much access as needed. Hence the
file needs to be read-only for John. The other answers are incorrect because
both people need access to the file and Marsha needs to be able to write her
changes since she needs to update timesheet data. [Security Engineering]

7. B - Such types of activities are difficult to catch since they are at the
programming level. A code review is the only way in which they can be caught.
[Security Engineering]

8. A - The Biba model is one in which the integrity of information within a system
 is protected, along with the activities that take place. [Security Engineering]

9. C - The goal of hard drive encryption is to protect the data and this is classified
as data security. This does not protect the host itself. [Security Engineering]

10. B - The higher the assurance level, the better the protection. Hence a system
with a rating of EAL6 will have a lesser number of covert channels compared
to the other values listed. EAL0 doesn't exist. [Security Engineering]

11. D - The Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) is an

evaluation standard developed and endorsed by the European Union (EU). EU
countries wanted a broader standard that included integrity and availability, as
well as confidentiality. The ITSEC ratings are broken down into two areas,
which are Functionality “F” and Assurance “E”. Functionality rating F8 requires
a high level of data integrity during communications. [Security Engineering]

12. B - The ITSEC is used in European countries. The United States uses the
Orange book. However, most countries have started migrating towards
Common Criteria. [Security Engineering]

13. D - The ring architecture that a system uses, is dependent on the processor and
the operating system. This is also the reason that an operating system designed
for one platform (chip) do not work with another. [Security Engineering]

14. B - The simple integrity axiom rule is also classified as the “no read down”
rule. This rule stipulates that a user at a specific integrity level cannot read
information at an integrity level that is lower than their current level. [Security
Engineering]

15. C - This would be multi-level security mode. All users need to have formal
approvals and an NDA. They access only some of the data on the system based
on clearances, a formal approval and a need-to-know. [Security Engineering]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 4
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 4

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. After a computer system is believed to have been used in a crime or incident, it

is most important that which of the following be saved securely before
electricity is removed?

A. Internet cache

B. Memory dump

C. Personal files

D. Documents

2. Access to secure and / or critical areas should be always requested by

________________, and only granted when a valid ________________ is
demonstrated.

A. The Asset Owner / Signed Statement

B. Division Director / Criminal Background Check

C. An Employee's Supervisor / Business Need

 D. An Employee / Photo Identification

3. Joann has been given the task of maintaining the Backup Control Center box. A
list of Master passwords, install media, and other essentials are contained
inside. In the event of a disaster, she is to keep possession of the box at all times.
Which of the four elements of a business continuity plan does this exemplify?

A. Testing

B. Authority

C. Priorities

D. Responsibility

4. Which of these is a key factor to keep in mind while selecting a directory

service based product for Identity Management and Access Control?

A. The X.501 standard is the best and preferred over the X.500 standard

B. The directory service shows tangible benefits only when the number of
entries in the directory exceeds 4000.

C. The directory service shows tangible benefits only when the number of
entries in the directory exceeds 400.

D. Legacy applications may still need to be configured and managed

individually by the system administrator.

5. Which of these is NOT an example of a detective physical control?

A. Security guards

B. Alarms and sensors

C. Smoke and fire detectors

D. Library control systems

6. Which of the following refers to the likelihood that an agent will exploit a
 weakness?

A. Risk

B. Exposure

C. Threat

D. Vulnerability

7. What statement is not true in regard to maintenance hooks?

A. It is a tool used by developers to patch systems after they go into production

B. It is a security risk if not removed before the software goes into production

C. It is a type of backdoor created by the developer

D. It is a method used to bypass access controls to alter software code during

the development process

8. Which statement best describes maintenance hooks?

A. They are cycles of downtime for software access controls.

B. They are periods of time in which the software security is lax.

C. They are Trojan horses placed in the software by hackers.

D. They are backdoors into software that only the developer knows about.

9. Floyd is the chief compliance officer for a multi-million dollar concern that
deals with medical records. It was reported to him that the firewalls currently in
place are weak and have well-known exploits. However, in order to save
money, he decides to ignore this. Which of the following has he violated?

A. Due diligence

B. Privacy rights
 C. Prudent person rule

D. ISO-9000

10. Most companies outsource their security guard services requirements to

external contractor companies. This results in a higher risk and is a
vulnerability for information security requirements. Which of the following
will be the least effective in reducing the risk?

A. Have a robust set of training procedures.

B. Monitor specific performance metrics.

C. Have strong contract management procedures.

D. Have a policy to mandatorily change the guards every week.

11. Employees in the accounting department in a company are required to

mandatorily take off on vacation for two weeks every year. What is the purpose
of such a requirement?

A. Mandatory vacations are a well known financial practice.

B. Mandatory vacations are a well-known HR practice.

C. Mandatory vacations are very useful for job rotation.

D. Mandatory vacations are well known as a security practice.

12. A biometric system weighs people entering a facility to ensure that only one
person is being granted access. Where would such a system typically be used?

A. In a dual-surveillance system

B. In a fail-safe system

C. In a fail-secure system

D. In a mantrap
13. Which of the following would the first priority of a disaster recovery plan?

A. Fast data recovery

B. Transportation

C. Human safety

D. News media statements

14. Which of these is not a Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design

(CPTED) guideline?

A. Natural access control

B. Natural response

C. Territorial reinforcement

D. Natural surveillance

15. A memory leak occurs when poorly written applications use up memory but do
not free it back to the operating system. How would a hacker use such a flaw to
disrupt systems?

A. By a Buffer Overflow attack

B. By a Teardrop attack

C. By Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

D. By introducing a Trojan horse

16. Doug is the manager of a large switched network. He notices that the network is
very slow and with the use of a network sniffer, he diagnoses a broadcast storm.
What causes a broadcast storm?

A. Repeaters

B. Pings
 C. Bridges

D. Routers

17. The length of outage that can be survived by a company is called:

A. Minimum Time Between Failure

B. Maximum Backup Recovery Time

C. Maximum Tolerable Downtime

D. Minimum Tolerable Downtime

18. Certain information has an MTTR of close to zero. What action should an
Information Security Professional advise for such a requirement?

A. Such information should be accessed only by the system administrator

B. It is not possible to have an MTTR of close to zero

C. Such information need not have any backup planned.

D. Such information should be mirrored / duplexed.

19. An object oriented programming (OOP) environment has certain key

characteristics that need to be looked at carefully from a security point of view.
Which of the following OOP features has an associated set of security issues?

A. Objects

B. Multiple Inheritances

C. Encapsulation

D. Classes

20. A company purchased anti-virus software from a leading vendor and installed
it. However, the signatures were not kept up-to-date. This is a:
 A. Vulnerability

B. Risk

C. Countermeasure

D. Threat

21. Threats to data integrity can be reduced through separation of duties and
rotation of duties. What other security principle will help protect against threats
to integrity?

A. Social engineering

B. Dumpster diving

C. Need-to-know

D. Collusion

22. Public key certificates provide a high level of trust. Certificates need to be
issued, maintained, may expire, or may need to be revoked. Which authority
keeps track of expired certificates?

A. No authority keeps track of expired certificates

B. Certificate Repository (CR)

C. Certificate Authority (CA)

D. Registration Authority (RA)

23. The Local Area Networking team at a company has commenced work on a
Business Continuity Plan. They have followed all recommendations and
procedures and have come up with an exhaustive plan. However, they have
forgotten a very important step in the process. What could this be?

A. Obtain a hardware Budget

B. Get management support

 C. Test the plan

D. Choose between hot site and cold site

24. Will an operating system that works with one microprocessor chip work with
another?

A. Yes, this is part of the portability built into operating systems.

B. Yes. The ring architecture of operating systems is designed to be flexible

across different chips.

C. No. Even though the ring architecture used by chips is the same, the ring
architecture system used by an operating system is different.

D. No. Different microprocessors have different architectures and instruction

sets.

25. A sender challenged a recipient that a message did not originate from him. If
this message was sent using cryptography and used a trusted third party, what
feature of cryptography allows this statement to be verified?

A. Authentication

B. Nonrepudiation

C. Integrity

D. Access Control.

26. If you are designing a cryptosystem and require a mathematically intensive

algorithm, which one should you use?

A. IDEA

B. Blowfish

C. RSA

D. Data Encryption Standard (DES)

27. Two computers are communicating at the transport layer. Which of these is not
a protocol used at the transport layer?

A. Remote Procedure Call (RPC)

B. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

D. Sequenced Packet Exchange (SPX)

28. Which of these correctly depicts the structure of a business continuity plan?

A. Initiation phase, Activation phase, Reconstruction phase, Recovery phase

B. Activation phase, Initiation phase, Reconstruction phase, Recovery phase

C. Activation phase, Initiation phase, Recovery phase, Reconstruction phase

D. Initiation phase, Activation phase, Recovery phase, Reconstruction phase

29. Which of these is not a characteristic of a signature-based intrusion detection

system?

A. Identifies new types of attacks

B. Needs constant updating

C. Uses pattern matching

D. Can be host-based

30. Which of the following types of evidence can stand on its own merit in court
and needs no corroboration?

A. A. Opinion evidence

B. Direct evidence

C. Circumstantial evidence
 D. Hearsay evidence

31. Which of the following is NOT a physical security control?

A. Padlocks

B. CCTV

C. A password

D. Guards

32. An audit of the password management process of an enterprise organization

revealed that users were never required to reset their network passwords. This
was flagged as a red item and the administrator was asked to enforce password
changes. What is a good frequency for change of passwords?

A. 180 to 365 days

B. 30 to 60 days

C. 15 to 30 days

D. 90 to 120 days

33. Visitors to a high security prison are marked with an invisible hand stamp. This
is then verified by a Corrections Officer behind a bullet proof glass enclosure,
after which the visitor is allowed through a second door. What type of
preventative control is this?

A. Technical Control

B. Administrative Control

C. Resident Control

D. Physical Control

34. What of these is the best way to prevent piggybacking from occurring at the
access points into a facility?
 A. Security guards

B. Programmable locks

C. Swipe cards

D. Proximity cards

35. Which of the following is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?

A. First Name and Address

B. Last Name

C. First Name, Last Name, Account Number

D. Last Name and Address

36. A bank wishes to install wireless access within their main branch. Because of
FFIEC guidelines to encrypt transmitted data, however, they must find a way to
do so securely. Which of the following implementations would be most secure?

A. Connect the wireless access point to the internal network and allow DHCP to
provide addresses to client machines.

B. Connect the wireless access point to the internal network and implement
WPA.

C. Connect the wireless access point to the Internet and use WEP.

D. Place the wireless access point in a DMZ and allow only VPN connections to
the internal network.

37. Why should plenum-rated cabling be used in data centers?

A. Prevents crosstalk

B. Improves signal strength

C. Reduces attenuation
 D. Reduces fire hazards

38. Which of the following technologies is not used for Virtual Private
Networking?

A. L2TP

B. IPSec

C. PPTP

D. PPP

39. Which of the following is primarily at a management level and states a high-
level overview of an entity's stance towards a certain issue?

A. Policy

B. Procedure

C. Standard

D. Guideline

40. Which of the following firewall architectures is the fastest?

A. Stateful firewall

B. Application-level proxy firewall

C. Circuit-level proxy firewall

D. Kernel proxy firewall

CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 4
Answer Key and Explanations

1. B - Internet cache, personal files, and documents are all stored on the hard
drive. However, evidence in RAM will disappear forever when the machine is
turned off. Special software tools must be used to do this. [Security and Risk
Management]

2. C - It is good practice to require requests for access to come from an

employee's supervisor. This prevents an employee from gaining access levels
about which his or her management does not know. This should be based on a
business need. [Security Operations]

3. D - This refers to responsibility. Joann has accepted the responsibility of the

backup control center box (BUCC). She does not necessarily have the Authority
to declare a disaster, and she may have other priorities before and after the
responsibility of the BUCC. [Security and Risk Management]

4. D - Legacy applications may still need to be configured and managed

individually by the system administrator since they were not built to work with
a directory service. These legacy entities need to be managed using their
original management software. [Identity and Access Management]

5. D - Library control systems are classified as preventive technical controls, not

detective physical controls. Library control systems avoid unauthorized data
modification by ensuring that only library control personnel can implement
changes to production programs. [Security Operations]

6. A - A risk is the likelihood that a threat agent will take advantage of a

vulnerability. It ties the vulnerability, threat and the likelihood of being
exploited, to the business impact that could result. [Security and Risk
Management]

7. A - Maintenance hooks are backdoors into software that were created by the
developer. Generally, developers use them to bypass access controls to easily
make changes to software code or alter development. They become a serious
security issue when they are not removed after the software is sent to
production. Many developers still use maintenance hooks even though they are
considered a security issue. [Security Engineering]
8. D - Maintenance hooks are software backdoors created by the developer.
Generally, developers use them to bypass access controls in order to easily
change software code or alter development. They become a serious security
issue when they are not removed after the software is sent to production. Many
developers still use maintenance hooks even though they are considered a
security issue. [Security Engineering]

9. C - Management must follow the prudent person rule in performing due care. In
other words, they must do what a prudent and responsible person would do in
the situation. Due diligence takes place in planning, and is done to ensure that
all possible weaknesses and threats were considered. Due care is the set of
actions to mitigate weaknesses in the current situation. [Security and Risk
Management]

10. D - Mandatorily changing the guards every week will actually add to the risk.
Security guards will need some time to be trained and be familiar with the
system requirements and understand what the security expectations are. If
guards are frequently changed, there is a loss of knowledge. This option does
not reduce the risk of outsourcing the security guard services. [Security
Operations]

11. D - Mandatory vacations are well known as a security practice. Frauds

committed by employees can come to light during their absence. The company
has a better chance of finding this out if the employee is away for a week or
longer. Hence companies often mandate that employees in key departments be
covered by such policies. [Security Operations]

12. D - Mantraps typically consist of a small room with two doors. An individual
must first authenticate through the first door to enter the room. Then, the
individual must authenticate through the second door to gain access into the
facility. Sometimes, mantraps have biometric systems that weigh individuals to
make sure that only one person enters the facility at a time. This is an effective
way to prevent unauthorized individuals from piggybacking and gaining access
to the facility. [Security Operations]

13. C - Human safety is the first priority of a disaster recovery plan. Many
regulatory bodies also require that human concerns be considered ahead of all
others in every emergency response plan. [Security and Risk Management]

14. B - Natural response is not a valid CPTED guideline. CPTED primarily outlines
 how a well-designed physical environment can reduce/minimize crime by
affecting human behavior. [Security Operations]

15. C - Memory leaks can be exploited by hackers who can launch a Denial of
Service (DoS) attack. Hackers can potentially cause systems to be disrupted by
continually sending requests to the server. This results in more and more
memory being used up, because the application does not release allocated
memory. At some point, it will run out of memory. [Security Engineering]

16. C - Bridges forward all traffic and as a result they broadcast all packets as well.
This can congest the network and result in a broadcast storm. [Communications
and Network Security]

17. C - MTD, or Maximum Tolerable Downtime is the length of time a company

can withstand an outage It is based on the best technical facts available, but is a
purely business decision. [Security and Risk Management]

18. D - MTTR refers to Mean Time to Repair. If the MTTR is close to zero, it
means that the information needs to be continuously available. This would call
for mirroring / duplexing the information. [Security Operations]

19. B - Multiple Inheritances have the potential to be incorrectly used, resulting in a

security breach for object access. Aspects such as name clashes need to be
resolved by the programming language or else a situation may arise where a
subclass has inherited excessive privileges from a superclass and can misuse its
privileges. [Software Development Security]

20. A - This is a vulnerability since the company is now prone to virus attacks. The
threat is that a virus will actually show up and disrupt systems. Risk is the
likelihood of the virus showing up. [Security and Risk Management]

21. C - Need-to-know, or least privilege, is a security principle that will help

protect against threats to data integrity. Employees should only be granted
access to the resources required to perform their duties [Security and Risk
Management]

22. A - No authority keeps track of expired certificates. The certificate authority

(CA) keeps a list of all certificates that have been revoked but not of those that
have expired. [Asset Security]
23. B - A continuity plan can never be successful without the involvement of other
departments. Management support needs to be enlisted to make this happen.
[Security and Risk Management]

24. D - No. Hardware chips are designed to have a certain number of rings.
Operating systems also need to be designed to work within this ring structure.
Different microprocessors have different architectures and instruction sets thus
preventing operating systems from being portable. [Security Engineering]

25. B - Nonrepudiation. Digital signatures and public key encryption provide tools
for non-repudiation or origin. Use of a third party can allow verification of the
origin of the message. [Asset Security]

26. C - Of the choices given, RSA is an asymmetric algorithm while the other
choices Blowfish, DES and IDEA are symmetric algorithms. Asymmetric
algorithms are mathematically intensive compared to symmetric algorithms.
Hence RSA is the right choice. [Asset Security]

27. A - Of the protocols listed, remote procedure call (RPC) works at the session
layer and not at the transport layer. [Communications and Network Security]

28. D - A good business continuity plan will be structured as Initiation phase,

Activation phase, Recovery phase, and Reconstruction phase. [Security and Risk
Management]

29. A - A major drawback of signature-based intrusion detection systems is that

they are weak against new types of attacks. For this type of intrusion detection
system to perform optimally, it must be continually updated. If a new type of
attack is discovered, a new signature must be created by the vendor. Intrusion
detection systems must then be updated to be able to detect this type of attack in
the future. [Identity and Access Management]

30. B - Only direct evidence, such as an eye-witness, does not need backup
information. Conclusive evidence also needs no corroboration - it is
irrefutable. [Security and Risk Management]

31. C - Passwords are not physical controls, they are cyber or electronic controls.
[Security Operations]

32. B - Passwords may be easily compromised over a period of time. Enterprise

 organizations typically force users to change passwords in a timeframe of 30 to
60 days. More frequent changes are a hindrance to users while less frequent
changes lower the security. [Identity and Access Management]

33. D - Physical controls attempt to prevent physical access by unauthorized

persons to secure objects. Other examples are guard dogs, antenna badges, and
swipe cards. [Security and Risk Management]

34. A - Piggybacking occurs when an individual obtains unauthorized access to a

facility by simply following another individual who had valid credentials. One
of the best ways to prevent piggybacking from occurring is to place security
guards at each access point into the facility. [Security Operations]

35. C - PII does not include information that is readily available from a telephone
directory. However, when it is combined with a third item of information, such
as an account number, it becomes private. A social security number would
always be considered private. [Security and Risk Management]

36. D - Placing the access point in a firewall DMZ and using a strong technology
such as VPN is the safest way to implement wireless networking. Placing the
device on the LAN with no protection is dangerous. The other options do not
provide the security of VPN. [Communications and Network Security]

37. D - Plenum is more expensive than non-plenum cable. This is due to the special
cabling material that does not let off hazardous gases if it burns.
[Communications and Network Security]

38. D - Point to Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP), Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

(L2TP), and IPSec can all be used for VPN connections. PPP is a non secure
connection protocol, as it does not tunnel. [Communications and Network
Security]

39. A - Policies present a high-level view of a company's attitude toward protecting

a particular asset, or dealing with a single issue. For instance, a Server Security
Policy may only state that the entity will use NIST guides as a gold standard. It
should then refer to detailed server administration procedure documentation.
[Security and Risk Management]

40. D - A kernel proxy firewall is a fifth-generation firewall. This firewall is faster

than other firewalls because inspection and processing takes place in the kernel
and does not need to take place in a higher layer in the OS. [Communications
and Network Security]
Domain Area Test:
Communications and Network Security
Practice Questions

Test Name: Domain Area Test: Communications and Network Security

Total Questions: 15
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 11 (73.33%)
Time Allowed: 25 Minutes

Test Description

This practice test specifically targets your knowledge of the Communications and
Network Security domain area.

Test Questions

1. A company needs to install a customer-facing sales web server so that their

backend customer database is accessible over the internt. They install this server
between two firewalls so that one stands between the internet and the server and
the other between the server and the internal systems. This arrangement would
be called a:

A. WEP

B. DMZ

C. WAN

D. LAN

2. A firewall is essentially a special-purpose type of device. Which of the

following could be used to describe a firewall?

A. Bridge

B. Switch
 C. Repeater

D. Router

3. On which layer of the OSI model does a hub or repeater operate?

A. Layer 1 - Physical

B. Layer 2 - Data Link

C. Layer 3 - Network

D. Layer 4 - Transport

4. On which layer of the OSI model does a network router operate?

A. Layer 2 - Data Link

B. Layer 3 - Network

C. Layer 4 - Transport

D. Layer 1 - Physical

5. On which layer of the OSI model does a basic network switch operate?

A. Layer 4 - Transport

B. Layer 1 - Physical

C. Layer 2 - Data Link

D. Layer 3 - Network

6. What solution would you use if you needed to make a secure connection over
an unsecure network?

A. None. It is not possible to make a secure connection over an unsecure

network.
 B. VPN

C. ADSL

D. PPP

7. At which layer of the OSI model are communications channels setup and
released using protocols such as remote procedure calls (RPC)?

A. Data Link Layer

B. Session Layer

C. Network Layer

D. Transport Layer

8. At which layer of the OSI model do connection-oriented protocols operate?

A. Session Layer

B. Application Layer

C. Transport Layer

D. Physical Layer

9. Which of these is not a requirement for a computer to communicate across a

router using TCP/IP?

A. Gateway Address

B. IP Address

C. Subnet Mask

D. DNS Server

10. Which of the following is a fringe benefit of using a Network Address

Translation (NAT) gateway?
 A. The shortage of IP addresses is resolved because companies can reuse
private IP addresses within their networks as long as these don't access the
internet.

B. When attackers attack a network, they are unable to find out the internal
details about the company's network and topology.

C. Since the internal topology of a company is not known, it is completely

immune to viruses.

D. Even though the acceptance of IPv6 is taking time, NATs have allowed
companies to put the problem off for a while.

11. When a firewall proxies many computer systems using private IP addressing to
the Internet over a single public IP address what is it called?

A. NAT

B. DNS

C. WAN

D. DNA

12. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for interfacing between the
network stack and the application?

A. Network Layer

B. Physical Layer

C. Session Layer

D. Application Layer

13. A connection-less protocol has no way of detecting transmission errors that

may occur due to connectivity or network problems. What can a connection-
less protocol use to test connectivity and troubleshoot problems on IP
networks?
 A. ARP

B. MAC

C. RARP

D. ICMP

14. At which layer of the OSI model are transformations made to prepare
datagrams for use between disparate systems, such as an EBCDIC to ASCII
conversion?

A. Session Layer

B. Physical Layer

C. Application Layer

D. Presentation Layer

15. A programmer wants to use a connection-oriented protocol that provides

handshaking so that the application can identify whether packets were dropped
and which ones to resend. Which protocol would he use in the application?

A. UDP

B. Telnet

C. TCP

D. SSL
Domain Area Test:
Communications and Network Security
Answer Key and Explanations

1. B - A De-Militarized Zone is the traditional name for a secure segment that is

still firewalled away from the internal network. They are used commonly for
Internet-facing services. [Communications and Network Security]

2. D - A firewall is a router with packet inspection and filtering capabilities. In

fact, many routers have optional features that may be installed to transform
them into firewalls. [Communications and Network Security]

3. A - A repeater or hub (which is just a multiport repeater) simply amplifies

electrical impulses it receives and broadcasts the same impulses out on all
ports. It operates on the physical layer only. [Communications and Network
Security]

4. B - A router is a network layer device that only forwards directed traffic.

Broadcasts are not forwarded. [Communications and Network Security]

5. C - A basic network switch operates at the data-link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI
model. [Communications and Network Security]

6. B - A VPN permits a secure, private connection using an unsecure environment.

This is achieved through the use of encryption and tunneling protocols.
[Communications and Network Security]

7. B - At the session layer, communications channels (called sessions) between

applications are set up and released. Remote procedure calls (RPC), Structured
Query Language (SQL) and Network File System (NFS) are some of the
protocols used in this layer. [Communications and Network Security]

8. C - Connection-oriented protocols such as TCP are found at the Transport layer.

[Communications and Network Security]

9. D - DNS Servers are not needed to just communicate to another network

segment. A network node requires a unique IP address and a subnet mask to
communicate on a network. To communicate to another network (across a
router), a gateway address is required. [Communications and Network Security]
10. B - NATs were originally intended to address the shortage of IP address
problem. However, a fringe benefit is that attackers are unable to obtain internal
network topology details of companies since the NAT gateway stands in
between attackers and the company's internal networks. Use of NATs does not
make the company immune to viruses. [Communications and Network Security]

11. A - Network Address Translation allows many hosts behind a firewall to access
the Internet from only one public address. [Communications and Network
Security]

12. D - The application layer does not refer to the end application itself but refers
to the interface between the OSI network stack and that application. It is the
topmost layer and interfaces with the system and applications. [Communications
and Network Security]

13. D - The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) reports routing information
and errors and delivers status messages. It can be used as a means of sending
back error messages to sending systems that use connectionless protocols.
[Communications and Network Security]

14. D - The presentation layer is responsible for making conversions between

formats so that the data can be properly processed by the end system. Handling
a conversion from EBCDIC to ASCII would be done at this layer.
[Communications and Network Security]

15. C - The programmer would use TCP, which is a connection-oriented protocol

that uses handshaking. Packets which are dropped are identified and can be
resent. In contrast, UDP is a connection-less protocol and UDP will not know
which packets were dropped. Telnet and SSL do not fit in here.
[Communications and Network Security]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 5
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 5

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. Which of the following is a document that lists step-by-step tasks and is

intended to be used by operations staff?

A. Guideline

B. Procedure

C. Standard

D. Policy

2. The temperature inside a data center started to go up due to a malfunction of the

air-conditioning system. Which of the following will be most resistant to such a
rise in temperature?

A. Hard copy of a report

B. A printer

C. A data tape

D. A keyboard
3. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of maintaining a Hot Site?

A. Fast Recovery Time

B. Highly Available

C. Less Expensive

D. Available for Annual Testing

4. There are two main types of Risk Analysis: __________ which uses the
knowledge of the workers who know the processes best, but also includes some
amount of guesswork. There is also ___________, which requires more
complex calculations, but can also be more easily automated and provides cost /
benefit information.

A. Auditory / Preemptive

B. Qualitative / Quantitative

C. Quantitative / Qualitative

D. Preemptive / Auditory

5. What type of interference can be caused by fluorescent lights that are

commonly found in office buildings?

A. Electrostatic discharge

B. Radio modulation

C. Radio frequency interference

D. Intermodulation

6. If cost is not an issue, which of the following storage systems provides the best
combination of performance and availability?

A. RAID 1
 B. RAID 10

C. RAID 5

D. RAID 0

7. Which algorithm is not a hashing algorithm?

A. RC4

B. SHA

C. HAVAL

D. MD5

8. Which of the following statements best describes the objectives of a Recovery

Strategy?

A. They are measures put into place to help detect when a disaster strikes.

B. They are predefined activities that will be used to prevent a disaster from
occurring.

C. They are measures put into place to help reduce the likelihood of a disaster.

D. They are predefined activities that will be used when a disaster strikes.

9. What is the process of transferring transaction logs or journals to an offsite

facility known as?

A. Disk duplexing

B. Disk-shadowing

C. Remote journaling

D. Electronic vaulting

10. Which of the following choices is not a basic principle used to help protect
 against threats to data integrity?

A. Separation of duties

B. Repudiation

C. Rotation of duties

D. Need-to-know

11. When managing risks, which of the following statements is true?

A. Risk Management provides complete security.

B. Risk Management should be outsourced whenever possible to professionals

in the Risk Management industry.

C. Risk Management cannot mitigate risk in any way, it is merely an exercise to

become aware of existing or possible risks.

D. Risks are best managed with a layered approach, sometimes called defense-
in-depth.

12. Java uses a security scheme to prevent an applet from having undue access to
the rest of the system. What is this called?

A. Ivory Tower

B. Sandboxing

C. Browser-level

D. Safe-mode

13. A software application development project had already proceeded into the
design phase when it was discovered that security aspects had not been taken
into consideration. What should be done to address this?

A. Prepare the necessary security guidelines and checklists so that they can be
used in the build/coding phase.
 B. Prepare necessary test plans so that security aspects are properly taken care
during Integration testing.

C. Restart the design phase and include security as part of this phase.

D. Revisit the requirements phase to incorporate security requirements and

ensure that these are input to the design phase.

14. At what point should security requirements be addressed while developing a

new system?

A. At the end of the design phase.

B. At the start of the project.

C. At the end of the testing phase

D. At the start of the integration testing phase.

15. In order for security plans to be effective, the time-period for which they must
be designed is at least:

A. Three years.

B. Ten years.

C. One year.

D. Six months.

16. The security policy of a company had the following statement: “Employees of
the company should not share their passwords with anyone.” Is this statement
worded correctly? If not, how would you reword it for it to be effective as a
policy?

A. The statement is okay and can be left as-is.

B. No, it is not worded correctly. It should be rewritten as “Employees of the

company should avoid sharing their passwords with anyone.”
 C. No, it is not worded correctly. The statement should be rewritten as
“Employees of the company shall not share their passwords with anyone.”

D. No, it is not worded correctly. It should be rewritten as “Employees of the

company shouldn't share their passwords with anyone.”

17. A RAID consists of multiple drives but appears as a single drive to applications.
A technique used is to divide and write data over several drives. This results in
dramatically increased read performance since data is simultaneously read
from several drives. Such a technique is called:

A. Multiple-mirroring

B. Strobing

C. Swapping

D. Striping

18. In a HTTPS connection, the web server generates a cookie which is sent to the
browser. This may be stored on hard disk or in memory. Which of these is not a
valid 'best practice' with regard to cookies in a HTTPS connection?

A. Cookies should not contain sensitive information such as account numbers

and passwords.

B. Cookies should not have timestamps on them.

C. Cookies containing sensitive information should be only resident in

memory and not stored on hard disk.

D. Cookies containing sensitive information should be encrypted by the server

19. Certain audit standards required that records be maintained for 3 years. In order
to comply with these standards, what is the recommended duration for which
data should be maintained?

A. 4 years

B. 6 years
 C. 1 year

D. Exactly 3 years

20. Under what law would a person caught stealing a computer be prosecuted?

A. Civil Law

B. Copyright Law

C. Criminal Law

D. Regulatory Law

21. Which of the following protocols is easily susceptible to hacking?

A. VPN

B. HTTPS

C. 3DES

D. SMTP

22. A person enters a business claiming to be a printer service engineer. He talks

his way into secure areas and manages to copy some confidential data. What is
this usually called?

A. Black boxing

B. Dumpster diving

C. Phreaking

D. Social engineering

23. Jen would like to have more control over VPN connections made to her
corporate network. Additionally, she would like to save effort and money by
eliminating costly VPN client licenses. Which technology would be the best
solution?
 A. SSL VPN

B. IPSec VPN

C. IPSec / L2TP VPN

D. S/MIME

24. Which of the following refers to a mandatory rule (either internally or

externally mandated) implemented across an organization?

A. Policy

B. Guideline

C. Standard

D. Procedure

25. Which of these is not an example of a physical control?

A. Subnets

B. Building location

C. External lights

D. Data backups

26. The Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) has an advisory that
companies should use legal banners that pop up when employees log in. What
would be the purpose of such banners?

A. Using such legal banners absolves the company from any legal action in
case of security violations.

B. They permit personal information of the employee to be captured and used

by the company.

C. They will prevent employees from violating security policies.

 D. They can be used to strengthen a case against an employee in case of a
security violation.

27. Kate is the director of risk management at a large financial institution. Once
each year, she is required by the board of directors to convene a table-top
exercise based upon a disaster scenario. After several milestones are discussed
in the exercise, she makes sure that the lessons learned are folded back into the
BCP for more efficiency. This exemplifies which of the four elements of a
business continuity plan?

A. Responsibility

B. Maintenance

C. Testing

D. Authority

28. What network device can you implement between end systems on a network to
reduce the possibility of sniffing and monitoring attacks by potential intruders?

A. Gateways

B. Routers

C. Switches

D. Firewalls

29. Dan has been tasked to employ an encryption methodology for his company's
data network. Management has identified performance as the number one
concern. Which of the following should Dan use for encryption?

A. MD5

B. RSA

C. DSA

D. DES
30. Greg is designing a cryptosystem to provide encryption and decryption. He
weighs the pros and cons and finally decides to use a symmetric cryptosystem
as opposed to an asymmetric cryptosystem. Which of the following could have
been a key influencing factor in his decision?

A. Key management is very simple and straightforward in symmetric

cryptosystems.

B. Symmetric cryptosystems are very scalable.

C. Symmetric cryptosystems are much faster than asymmetric systems.

D. Symmetric cryptosystems provide strong authenticity and nonrepudiation.

31. At John's company, there is a software policy in place that prevents the use of
unencrypted flash storage devices, such as USB thumb drives. What type of
control is such a preventative measure called?

A. Resident Control

B. Physical Control

C. Administrative Control

D. Technical Control

32. Which of the following is an example of a technical control?

A. Policies and procedures

B. Encryption

C. Mantraps

D. Background checks

33. Administrative, technical, and physical controls are used by security

administrators to meet the organization's security requirements. Which of these
is an example of a technical control?
 A. Closed-circuit TV (CCTV)

B. Separation of duties

C. Use of guard dogs

D. Firewall

34. The remote administration security policy of a company states that no

administration technology that utilizes clear-text transmission over a routable
protocol should be employed on any network system. Which of the following
protocols will not be allowed as per the policy?

A. Serial Console Port

B. USB Console Port

C. SSH

D. Telnet

35. Which of the following is NOT a step in contingency Planning?

A. Testing and Implementation

B. Identifying Critical Business Functions

C. Estimating Potential Disasters

D. Identifying Resources and Systems that Support Critical Business Functions

36. Which of these security models ensures that you cannot write to an object that
resides at a security level lower than the one you possess?

A. Clark-Wilson model

B. Lattice model

C. Biba model
 D. Bell-LaPadula model

37. Which of the following is a benefit of job rotation?

A. All of the options

B. Cross Training enhances Efficiency of Employees

C. Fraud Prevention

D. Skill Redundancy in case of Emergency

38. You are currently meeting with management to have them formally approve the
products, systems, and components within your organization. What is this
process referred to as?

A. Certification

B. Accreditation

C. Affirmation

D. Verification

39. When databases are updated in a distributed environment, protecting the

integrity of the data becomes very important. The ACID test is often used as a
guideline to how the database software should be implemented. This stands for:

A. Atomicity, Consistency, Inter-operability and Dependability

B. Atomicity, Concurrency, Inter-operability and Dependability

C. Atomicity, Concurrency, Isolation and Durability

D. Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation and Durability

40. A bank's rating was lowered post an audit by the Federal Deposit Insurance
Corporation (FDIC). Lack of proper administrative controls in the IS
department was cited as a key non-conformance. Which of the following would
NOT be the Board of Directors' primary response?
A. Hire an Internal IT Auditor into the Risk Management Department

B. Approve an Information Security Program

C. Hire an Internal Auditor into the IS Department

D. Approve a plan to create a procedural manual for the IS department.

CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 5
Answer Key and Explanations

1. 1B - Procedures are detailed in nature. They typically include step-by-step tasks

that need to be done to achieve a specific goal such as configuring operating
systems, setting up new user accounts etc. [Security and Risk Management]

2. A - Products made of paper can withstand temperatures up to 350 deg

Fahrenheit. Magnetic products start to degrade first, as early as 100 deg
Fahrenheit. [Security Operations]

3. C - Purchasing, implementing, and maintaining two sets of hardware and

software is very expensive. However, once in place, a hot site offers the fastest
recover time over cold and warm Sites. [Security and Risk Management]

4. B - Qualitative Risk Analysis uses personal and subjective opinions of people

involved with the processes. Quantitative Risk Analysis seeks to apply
mathematical values and formulae to the process and can best achieve hard
numbers. [Security and Risk Management]

5. C - Radio frequency interference (RFI) can be caused by devices that produces

radio waves and is commonly caused by fluorescent lights in buildings.
Shielded cabling and proper placement of cables are ways to help prevent
interference due to fluorescent lighting. [Security Operations]

6. B - RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Drives. RAID 0 stripes

data across two drives, which is extremely fast but has no redundancy. Raid 1 is
drive mirroring or duplexing, but can suffer from performance issues. Raid 5
offers a fairly good protection with striping plus parity data and is only
moderately expensive. The most expensive is RAID 10 which is a combination
of RAID 1 and RAID 0. RAID 10 offers the best performance and best
protection. [Security Operations]

7. A - RC4 is a symmetric key algorithm that provides key distribution services.

Hashing is used to verify the integrity of a message. If you want to ensure that a
message has not been altered in transmission from source to destination, you
can use a hashing function. A one-way hash will take the variable-length
message that you want to send and produce a fixed-length value to send to the
recipient. Once the recipient receives the message, they will perform the same
 hash function to determine if they get the same result. If the results are the same,
the message has not been altered. [Asset Security]

8. D - Recovery strategies are predefined activities that will be used when a

disaster strikes. They identify how the disaster and recovery should be handled.
The recovery strategy should include documents about alternate sites and
facilities, costs and alternatives, emergency response procedures, contact
information, security procedures, and other systems that may need to be
reviewed. [Security and Risk Management]

9. C - Remote journaling is the process of moving journals or transaction logs

offsite to another storage facility. This type of solution does not include the
actual files, but only the logs containing any changes that have been made to the
files since the last transfer. If for some reason data becomes corrupted, the log
files can be retrieved and used to quickly restore the data. This is a very
efficient means of recovery as only the changes need to be retrieved and
applied to the data. [Security and Risk Management]

10. B - Repudiation does not protect against threats to integrity. Repudiation refers
to sending a message and then denying that you sent it. Digital signatures are
used to provide a non-repudiation service, which prevents the sender from
denying that they sent the message. [Security and Risk Management]

11. D - Risk Management is just that - management of risk. Risks cannot be

completely eliminated. Hence, risks are best managed by a layered approach.
[Security and Risk Management]

12. B - Sandboxing constructs a walled, virtual environment to execute foreign

code. In theory, an applet cannot pass commands directly to the underlying
system, but it is instead abstracted away by the virtual layer. [Software
Development Security]

13. D - Security needs to be built into a software application development project

right from the requirements phase. If this has been missed out, the requirements
phase needs to be revisited and reworked to address this gap. [Software
Development Security]

14. B - Security requirements must be addressed right at the start of the project.
[Software Development Security]
15. A - Security plans should be designed to be useful for at least three years. If not,
it means that sufficient thought has not gone into its creation and it needs to be
revisited. [Security Engineering]

16. C - Security policies should contain statements that are direct and commanding.
They need to convey the effect and less forceful words like 'should' or 'may'
should be replaced by use of the stronger words 'shall' or 'must'. [Security and
Risk Management]

17. D - This technique is known as striping. Although a write operation might take
longer time, a read is much faster since data is read simultaneously from
multiple drives. [Security and Risk Management]

18. B - Since HTTP is a stateless protocol, cookies are very much essential for a
secure connection using SSL. In order to prevent man-in-the-middle attacks, it
is very important that the cookies contain timestamps. The web server
periodically checks these. If the connection has been idle for a while, it is
“timed out” by the web server. All the other choices are best practices. [Asset
Security]

19. D - As a general principle, audit data should not be kept any longer than
required since it can otherwise consume massive amounts of storage. Hence it
is advised to maintain records for exactly 3 years in this case. [Security
Operations]

20. C - Since this case involves a physical theft, at least the initial charges will be
criminal. If it was later discovered that the perpetrator was sent by a competitor
to steal trade secrets, then a civil case might also be brought on. [Security and
Risk Management]

21. D - SMTP is the only protocol or technology listed that uses clear text for all of
its transmissions. Hence it is particularly vulnerable to being hacked. The others
are all encrypted in some way. [Security Operations]

22. D - Social engineering involves convincing or tricking a person into giving

access to or parting with confidential information. It plays on the basic trusting
and helpful nature of most people. [Security and Risk Management]

23. A - SSL VPNs make use of common web browsers and allow users to access
applications in the organization's network. Back-end databases can also be
 accessed with the help of plug-ins. This approach is more cost-effective than the
VPN using IPSec. [Asset Security]

24. C - Standards refer to mandatory activities or rules. They could be internally or

externally mandated. For example, organizational security standards may
specify in detail how hardware and software products are to be used by a
company. [Security and Risk Management]

25. A - Subnets are an example of technical controls. Subnetting allows you to

logically break up a network into segments. The other choices of external
lighting, data backups, and physical location of the building are physical
controls. [Identity and Access Management]

26. D - Such banners strengthen the legal case against an employee in case he/she is
found to have violated security policies. This is because the company can show
that the employee had acknowledged the security policy and given permission
to be monitored. The other choices are not valid. [Security and Risk
Management]

27. C - Kate is testing the plan. Testing is a key aspect of the BCP because
environments continually change. When the plan is tested (or exercised),
improvements and efficiencies can be uncovered. [Security and Risk
Management]

28. C - Switches are used on networks to connect end systems to the network.
Switches create a virtual private connection between two communicating end
systems on a network. Therefore, data packets are not flooded throughout the
network where they could be easily sniffed and monitored. They are sent
directly from end system to end system on the network. [Communications and
Network Security]

29. D - Symmetric algorithms are very fast when compared to asymmetric

algorithms. Of the choices listed, only DES is a symmetric algorithm. [Asset
Security]

30. C - Symmetric cryptosystems work much faster when compared to asymmetric

cryptosystems. They use simple mathematical algorithms for encrypting and
decrypting. The algorithm is applied multiple times during encryption /
decryption. This also makes them much harder to break. The other choices
listed are not valid. [Asset Security]
31. D - Technical controls are software or operating system based, and can include
concepts such as encryption, passwords, smart cards, and biometrics.
Sometimes the term technical controls and logical controls are used
interchangeably. [Security and Risk Management]

32. B - Technical controls protect resources on a network by granting or denying

access to them. They protect the integrity, availability, and confidentiality of
resources through methods that include access control software, anti-virus
software, passwords, smart cards, encryption, audit trails, and intrusion
detection systems. [Identity and Access Management]

33. D - Technical or logical controls are mechanisms employed to enforce policy.

They include elements such as firewalls, operating systems, filters or routing
protocols. [Security and Risk Management]

34. D - Telnet is a routable protocol that operates in clear-text. SSH, or Secure

Shell, is an encrypted technology. Serial cables and USB cables connected to
console ports are not affected by this policy, as neither of them is a routable
network protocol. [Asset Security]

35. A - Testing can only be done after a plan is implemented; it is not a part of
designing one. The other choices listed are logical steps in contingency
planning. [Security and Risk Management]

36. D - The *-property rule of the Bell-LaPadula model ensures that you cannot
write to an object that resides at a security level lower then the one you possess.
This is classified as the “No Write Down” rule. The “No Read Up” rule states
that you cannot read information that is at a higher classification level then the
one you possess. [Security Engineering]

37. A - All of the choices listed are benefits of job rotation. Job rotation reduces the
risk of fraud by reducing the risk of collusion between two individuals.
Rotating individuals out of jobs helps build skill redundancy and cross training.
[Security and Risk Management]

38. B - The accreditation process occurs after the certification process. It involves
meeting with management and presenting the information derived from the
certification process. This is done to have management formally approve the
products, systems, or components within the organization. When management
accredits the products, systems, and components within the organization they
 are stating that they know the potential threats, vulnerabilities, and weaknesses
and are accepting the associated risks. [Security Engineering]

39. D - The ACID test stands for Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation and Durability
and should be implemented by all database software in distributed
environments. [Software Development Security]

40. C - Auditing is a technical control, however, the question is specifically focused

around administrative controls. Hiring an auditor in the IS department is not
really a solution to the problem. [Identity and Access Management]
Domain Area Test:
Security Assessment and Testing
Practice Questions

Test Name: Domain Area Test: Security Assessment and Testing

Total Questions: 15
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 11 (73.33%)
Time Allowed: 25 Minutes

Test Description

This practice test specifically targets your knowledge of the Security Assessment and
Testing domain area.

Test Questions

1. The website of a bank was taken down for several hours by a denial of service
attack. A group of loosely organized individuals have claimed responsibility.
During the subsequent investigation, the responding law enforcement agency
classifies this crime as which of the following?

A. Organizational modification

B. Computer assisted crime

C. Cyber graffiti

D. Computer targeted crime

2. Several companies have deployed their servers in the data center of a managed
hosting provider. While these servers are logically segregated by VLANs, there
is a management VLAN to which all systems are connected. One of the
companies has delayed implementing a critical OS security patch for several
weeks because they have not finished testing its interoperability with the
applications running on its servers. While the company is completing its
testing, the vulnerability for which the patch is issued was exploited on one of
their servers. As a result, the unprotected servers were used to launch a denial
of service attack against the hosting provider and some of the other servers
 connected to the management VLAN. During the course of the incident
investigation, it is determined that the company was negligent in delaying the
installation of the patch, and that it is responsible for service outages to the
service provider and the other companies hosted in the datacenter. Which term
best describes this condition?

A. Criminal trespass

B. Downstream liability

C. Civil liability

D. Criminal negligence

3. A government agency has installed a Class 3 vault to house top secret materials.
How long will this type of vault withstand an attack with common mechanical
tools?

A. 1 hour

B. 30 minutes

C. 2 hours

D. 15 minutes

4. Over the last 6 months, an IT group has replaced server and network
components that have mysteriously failed. These failures occurred at intervals
more frequent than the Mean Time Between Failures rating of the affected
components, so the team began to suspect an environmental issue. It was
discovered that the HVAC system had not been receiving annual maintenance
service. Which of the following could be the result of an HVAC system's faulty
performance?

A. Oxidation and corrosion

B. Moisture damage

C. All of the above

 D. Mold growth

5. All computer users at a government agency must meet the following

requirements: clearance, documented formal access, and the need to know. This
is what type of security operations mode?

A. Privileged security mode

B. Dedicated security mode

C. Directive mode

D. Trusted mode

6. Protection rings are one of the most common architectures implemented to

guard system functionality and data from malicious behavior and faults. Which
of the following protects the kernel?

A. Ring 0

B. Ring 2

C. Ring 1

D. Ring 3

7. Which of the following are examples of centralized access control

technologies?

A. Diameter

B. All of the above

C. TACACS

D. RADIUS

8. The law firm of Ross, Huff, and Wilson is remodeling its single story office
building. The renovation work includes replacing all exterior windows and
doors. Which of the following types of glass is recommended for this
 scenario?

A. Bullet resistant glass

B. Tempered glass

C. Laminated glass

D. Wired glass

9. The property manager of an office building is installing a new video

surveillance system in all public areas. What is the best type of camera lens to
be used in the building's lobby area?

A. Telephoto

B. Auto iris lens

C. Long focal length

D. Short focal length

10. A small company has posted links to several files on its public website. Rather
than using a sanitized version of a URL that points to a virtual directory,
however, the URLs for these files reveal the actual file and folder structure of
the server where the files are housed. Which of the following attacks exploits
this particular vulnerability?

A. Denial of service

B. Spoofing

C. Rainbow tables

D. Directory traversal

11. Nora has embedded a video and photos of her most recent vacation on her
social networking page. The video and photos are actually hosted on two other
websites. Which of the following allows Nora to share on her social
networking page?
 A. XML

B. OLE

C. API

D. HTML

12. Of which of the following would a Nigerian email scam best be categorized?

A. Computer is incidental crime

B. Computer targeted crime

C. Wire tapping

D. Computer assisted crime

13. Which of the following is the most accurate and secure form of biometric
recognition?

A. Iris scanning

B. Retinal scanning

C. Vascular patterns

D. Fingerprints

14. The lock on a storage facility uses an electronic keypad for access code entry.
What additional security components should be implemented with this?

A. Solenoid mechanism and adequate area lighting

B. Entry delay and badge reader

C. Mantrap and egress control

D. Keypad shield and battery backup

15. Immediately after a significant earthquake, the manager of an IT group begins
to assess which of his team members were able to evacuate, to determine if any
of his staff may have been trapped in the basement data center. Because the
security policy requires employees to badge in and out of the data center, the
manager is able to check logs to determine which employees were in the data
center at the time of the quake and which ones had badged out prior to that time.
What is this system feature called?.

A. Turnstiling

B. Anti-passback

C. Location logging

D. Badging out
Domain Area Test:
Security Assessment and Testing
Answer Key and Explanations

1. D - Computer targeted crimes are those actions that impact a computer or

related device. These crimes include installation of malware, denial of service
attacks, and buffer overflow attacks. [Security Assessment and Testing]

2. B - The failure of a company to ensure that its actions or inactions do not

impact another company is called downstream liability. In this scenario, the
company that failed to implement the patch in a timely manner has caused
service disruptions for a number of other companies, and could be held liable
for their negligence, if one of the impacted companies chose to sue for the
damage caused. [Security Assessment and Testing]

3. C - Underwriter Laboratories has set forth ratings for vault attack resistance.
The lowest rating, Class M, will resist attack for 15 minutes. The highest rating,
Class 3, will withstand attack for two hours. [Security Assessment and Testing]

4. C - HVAC damage is not limited to systems or component breakdown due to

thermal cycling or excessively high heat. Failure to adequately condition the air
to control humidity can cause an increase in moisture, resulting in damage to
equipment as well as the building infrastructure. [Security Assessment and
Testing]

5. B - Dedicated security mode, specified in DOD Directive 5200.28, is an

operational mode in which all users have clearance or authorization,
documented formal access approval, and a need to know the information stored
on the system. Dedicated security mode can be implemented with a single or
multiple data classification levels. [Security Assessment and Testing]

6. A - Protection rings are a form of layered protection to prevent unauthorized

access to system resources:
Ring 0 protects the operating system kernel
Ring 1 protects the remainder of the operating system
Ring 2 protects I/O functions and resources
Ring 3 protects applications and user activities [Security Assessment and
Testing]
 B - In the centralized access control model all authentication, authorization, and
7. accounting functions are handled by a single entity. RADIUS, TACACS, and
Diameter are all remote access control technologies that are managed by a
single entity. The advantage of a centralized model is consistently applied
access policies. The disadvantage, however, is this model tends to be slower to
respond to requests for changes, adds, or deletes. [Security Assessment and
Testing]

8. C - Laminated glass is recommended for use in street level windows and doors.
It is composed of two sheets of glass bonded to a middle layer of plastic. When
laminated glass is struck with enough force to break the glass, the plastic layer
prevents the glass from shattering and displacement onto surrounding surfaces.
[Security Assessment and Testing]

9. D - Short focal length lenses provide a wide angle view of an area, which is
ideal in an open area such as a lobby. Long focal length lenses provide a very
narrow view, which is more appropriate for small areas such as entry/ exit
points. [Security Assessment and Testing]

10. D - When an attacker can see the true file path as part of a URL, he or she can
execute a directory traversal attack to navigate into other folders and files. This
is accomplished by inserting a standard comandline directory navigation
command, “../”, into the URL to move upward in the directory structure, then
running other commands to view and change directories at will. This attack is
also known as the “dot slash” attack, named after the characters used to initiate
the directory traversal. [Security Assessment and Testing]

11. C - APIs, or application programming interfaces, enable two different

applications to seamlessly integrate together without either application needing
to know much about how the other application works. In this example, APIs
enable Nora to share photos and videos on a social networking page, but APIs
can also be used to extend functionality or customize off-the-shelf software
such as email or finance applications. [Security Assessment and Testing]

12. A - A computer is incidental crime is a crime in which a computer is used, but

another computer is not attacked, nor is electronic data illegally accessed. In the
case of an email scam, the crime that is attempted is fraud. The email is simply
the vehicle for the scammers' request for money or banking information. These
types of scams were carried out through postal correspondence before the rise
of email, and could still be conducted by means of pen, paper, envelope, and
 stamp; thus the computer is simply an incidental mechanism in the crime.
[Security Assessment and Testing]

13. B - Retinal scanning offers low false positive rates, and false negative rates of
close to zero. It also has a very small base of outliers, those users who are
unable to be enrolled in the system. Further is much more difficult to defeat this
type of system than other types of biometric readers, including iris scanning.
[Security Assessment and Testing]

14. D - When using electronic cipher locks, it is highly recommended that the
keypad be shielded from view by anyone but the immediate user, to prevent
unauthorized users from shoulder surfing key codes. These types of locks
should also be connected to a battery backup to ensure continuous operation of
the lock during power outages. [Security Assessment and Testing]

15. B - Anti-passback features require users to provide badges, PINs, or other

authentication device every time a user enters and exits specified portals. If an
employee fails to badge-out of a restricted area, he or she will be prohibited
from re-entering that secured area without administrative intervention. This is a
countermeasure against users sharing badges, PINs, etc. [Security Assessment
and Testing]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 6
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 6

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. What is the product of Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) and Annualized Rate of
occurrence (ARO) i.e. SLE x ARO known as?

A. Residual Risk

B. Single Loss Expectancy per risk

C. Exposure Factor

D. Annualized Loss Expectancy

2. A data recovery solution is chosen based on business criticality of operations.

The cost to recover needs to be balanced against the cost of disruption. What is
this balancing point called?

A. Point of Inflexion

B. Recovery time objective

C. Critical point

D. Minimum damage point

3. Which statement best describes the Bell-LaPadula simple security rule?

A. A user at any given security level cannot write data at a level that is higher
than their current level.

B. A user at any given security level cannot read data at a level that is lower
than their current level.

C. A user at any given security level cannot read data at a level that is higher
than their current level.

D. A user at any given security level can only read data

4. Dawn is designing a server room for her manufacturing company. She would
like to reduce air-borne dust contamination as much as possible. Which of the
following would best serve this requirement?

A. Positive pressurization

B. Sealed server racks

C. Raised floor

D. Negative pressurization

5. Which of these is a good countermeasure to asynchronous attacks involving

time-of-check/time-of-use (TOC/TOU)?

A. Use of software locks.

B. Good quality assurance testing

C. Use of bounds checking.

D. Use of hardware locks.

6. One of the best ways to keep a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) up to date is:

A. Include maintenance responsibilities in job descriptions

 B. Integrate the BCP plan into the change management process

C. Maintain a record of any revisions made to the BCP plan

D. Review the BCP plan at least once a year

7. This early security model was constructed mainly for the purpose of preserving
data integrity. It is typified by the concepts of “cannot read down” and “cannot
write up”. Which of the following security models best fits this description?

A. Bell-LaPadula

B. Clark-Wilson Model

C. Brewer and Nash Model

D. Biba Model

8. As an information security professional, what would be your biggest concern

with open database connectivity (ODBC)?

A. The username and the password for the database are stored in plaintext, thus
making them susceptible to inappropriate access.

B. In data exchanges over the network, the actual call is encrypted, but the
returned data is in cleartext.

C. In data exchanges over the network, the actual call is in cleartext, but the
returned data is encrypted.

D. The username is in plaintext but the password is encrypted and stored, thus
making the username susceptible to inappropriate access.

9. Which model allows changes to occur dynamically for access controls based
on previous actions that a user performed?

A. Graham-Denning Model

B. Chinese Firewall Model

 C. Brewer and Nash Model

D. Lattice Model

10. A brokerage services company makes recommendations to clients to buy equity

stocks and also issues analyst reports on equity stocks. In order to ensure that
there is no conflict of interest between its two divisions, what information flow
policy should it implement?

A. Implement the Brewer-Nash model for information flow.

B. Implement the Graham-Denning model for information flow.

C. Implement the Bell-LaPadula model for information flow.

D. Implement the Clark-Wilson model for information flow.

11. This security model was developed with a great deal of focus on information
integrity and fraud prevention. It requires the use of an abstraction layer that
prevents subjects from directly accessing the object. The abstraction layer
enforces the integrity of the object. Which of the following models best
corresponds to this description?

A. Clark-Wilson Model

B. Brewer and Nash Model

C. Biba Model

D. Bell-LaPadula Model

12. The Chief Information Security Officer of an organization wants to implement

an effective model for IT governance procedures. Which of these would guide
him in this endeavor?

A. CoBit

B. COSO

C. BS7799
 D. ISO 17799

13. A company performs a risk assessment and determines that they are exposed to
a very small amount of risk from a possible robbery at the convenience store
next door. They choose to do nothing. This is an example of what?

A. Terminating Risk

B. Transferring Risk

C. Tolerating Risk

D. Treating Risk

14. A company performs a risk assessment and determines that because of an older
Windows NT 4.0 server that is directly attached to the Internet, they are exposed
to risk. The system cannot be changed but an upgrade is available that places the
server behind a strong firewall. The company decides to upgrade the system.
What is this an example of?

A. Terminating Risk

B. Tolerating Risk

C. Transferring Risk

D. Mitigating Risk

15. A company lost some confidential data from a critical server due to an attack by
hackers into its network systems and decided to implement an Intrusion
Detection System (IDS). To provide the best protection, which of the following
options should the company pursue?

A. Install a NIDS and a HIDS on the critical server.

B. Install a HIDS on the critical server

C. Install a NIDS on the critical server

D. Install a HIDS on the network.

16. A company has hired a software developer who has a very good prior track
record. Which of the following steps will help best ensure that the company's
data is protected.

A. The company should have the employee undergo a security awareness

training program.

B. The employee should be asked for two references prior to his joining and
these references would be contacted for their feedback on the employee.

C. The company should have the employee sign a non-disclosure agreement.

D. The company should have a background check performed on the individual.

17. What is the concept of only granting a user the exact minimum access required
to complete ordinary daily job functions called?

A. Least Access

B. Least Privilege

C. Mandatory Access Control

D. Role Based Access Control

18. Which security principle ensures that information is not disclosed to

unauthorized individuals?

A. Confidentiality

B. Availability

C. Integrity

D. Authorization

19. An organization has outsourced a part of its software development and

maintenance activities to an outside vendor organization. The outside
organization requires test data. What would be the best way to go about this?
 A. Sanitize data obtained from production and ensure that no confidential data
is supplied as part of the test data.

B. Ask the vendor organization to connect to the company's network to access

production data through a secure VPN connection.

C. Avoid outsourcing work to a vendor organization. The associated risk is

usually not manageable.

D. Ask the vendor organization to create its own test data since this is their
responsibility.

20. Which of the following types of encryption may allow an attacker to find out
details (such as headers, addresses and routing) about an intercepted packet
without needing to decrypt it?

A. Link encryption.

B. Inline encryption.

C. End-to-end encryption.

D. Online encryption.

21. If the requirement is that a user have flexibility in choosing what gets encrypted,
which of these encryption methods should be used?

A. Link encryption

B. End-to-end encryption

C. PPTP encryption.

D. Online encryption

22. As part of the company's security activities, it wishes to monitor employees'

email. Which of the following would be the first step in undertaking such an
activity?

A. Put up a notification on the common notice board in the company indicating

 that all employees' email is going to be monitored.

B. Prepare a document informing employees that if they do not accept the

policy, they will be terminated.

C. Introduce an email filter which permits employees' email to be monitored.

D. Outline the security policy around email monitoring.

23. Which of the following access control functionalities has controls that provide
for an alternative measure of control?

A. Corrective

B. Directive

C. Deterrent

D. Compensating

24. An organization is performing quantitative risk assessment. In order to mitigate

a particular risk, the company decides to apply a countermeasure. The cost of
the countermeasure over a 5 year period is equal to 5 times the annualized loss
expectancy. What would be the likely course of action for the company?

A. The countermeasure cost per year should always be greater than annualized
expectancy. Hence the company may proceed with the countermeasure.

B. The value of the annualized loss is required to make a decision. Hence the
data provided is insufficient to determine the course of action.

C. The countermeasure cost per year should always be less than the annual loss
expectancy. Hence the company should look at an alternative way of
handling the risk.

D. The company should proceed with the countermeasure since the

countermeasure cost per year is less than the annualized loss expectancy.

25. Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) provides guidance

on the design of a physical environment and outlines how it can affect the crime
 rate. Which of the following choices would be a guideline from CPTED?

A. Avoid use of glass and have metal doors in garages and stair towers within
the parking lots.

B. A side door at the facility, with restricted access, should not have a sidewalk
leading up to it from the front of the building.

C. Provide for barriers and trees near secluded doors. This will prevent it from
being visible to intruders.

D. Provide for a driveway right up to the entrance door of the facility to

prevent incidents of crime against the employees.

26. Sally creates a digital file for her company. If the company uses a discretionary
access control scheme, who owns the file according to the control
methodology?

A. Sally

B. The network administrator

C. Sally's manager

D. The Board of Directors

27. You connect to an external website on the internet, download, and play an
MPEG file on your computer. In the OSI model, at what layer does the
decompression of the MPEG file happen?

A. Application layer

B. Session Layer

C. Presentation layer

D. Transport Layer

28. Company security policy dictates that access to the company's networks from
the internet must be highly restricted, and through a DMZ. How is a firewall
 setup to implement the DMZ?

A. Setup a firewall between the DMZ and external network only.

B. Setup a firewall between the internal network and DMZ and another firewall
between the DMZ and external network.

C. Setup a firewall between the DMZ and the internal network only.

D. Setup a firewall between the internal network and DMZ and another between
the internal network and the external network.

29. Which of the following is NOT useful for secure key distribution?

A. DSA

B. RSA

C. El Gamal

D. Diffie-Hellman

30. The commonly used form of IP is IP version 4 (IPv4) which uses 32 bits for its
addresses. However, these have started to run out due to the high demand, and
there is a move towards IP version 6 (IPv6). How many bits does IPv6 use?

A. 64

B. 32

C. 96

D. 128

31. What is the first level in the Orange Book that requires labeled security?

A. B1

B. B2
 C. C1

D. C2

32. What is the first level in the Orange Book that requires users to be individually
identified and accountable for their actions?

A. B1

B. C1

C. C2

D. B2

33. Disaster has struck at the facility of a company. Which of the following would
be the first priority to the company when such an incident occurs?

A. Restoration of customer service at the earliest.

B. Start of operations from a backup site

C. Assessment of the financial loss

D. Safety of its employees.

34. What feature/tool can be used in cryptography to prevent messages from

getting altered?

A. A message authentication code (MAC) can be used to prevent a message

from getting altered.

B. A hash function can be used to prevent the message from getting altered.

C. None. Cryptographic tools cannot prevent a message from getting altered.

D. A digital signature can be used to prevent a message from getting altered.

35. A company uses a 10-key pad for door entry. However, concerns have been
raised that the four-digit PIN numbers might be breached or guessed. Which of
 the following strategies will be least effective in preventing unauthorized
individuals from entering through the door?

A. Use a thumbprint scan in addition to the PIN

B. Use an antenna card combination in addition to the PIN

C. Use a key token combination in addition to the PIN

D. Use video surveillance logging in addition to the PIN

36. Which of the following regulations requires financial institutions to develop

privacy notices and allow customers an option to prevent their information
from being shared with nonaffiliated third parties?

A. Glass-Steagall Act

B. SOX

C. GLBA

D. HIPAA

37. Katie is the director of Information Systems at her company. She is in the
process of identifying a suitable facility to house a new data center. Which of
the following four sites would be best suited for this purpose?

A. Top floor, center of building, carpeted, and site generator

B. Top floor, carpeted, site generator, and pre-existing network cabling

C. Ground floor, center of a building, no carpet, and site generator

D. Ground floor, no carpet, edge of a building, and pre-existing network

cabling

38. In the realm of one-way hashing, which of the following can be configured to
be the best choice against a birthday attack?

A. MD0
 B. MD2

C. MD5

D. SHA1

39. Which of the following is a document that describes management's view on

how databases are to be used and protected?

A. Policy

B. Practice

C. Program

D. Procedure

40. Within a Software Development Life Cycle, a process may be assigned a

maturity level that describes its effectiveness and durability. According to the
Capability Maturity Model, the final stage and highest level of maturity is
which?

A. Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, Custom

B. Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, Auditable

C. Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, Optimized

D. Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, Quantized

CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 6
Answer Key and Explanations

1. D - The Annualized Loss Expectancy is derived by multiplying the SLE by the

Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). [Security and Risk Management]

2. B - The balancing point is called the recovery time objective. As part of the
business continuity planning / disaster recovery planning, the team needs to
strike a balance between the cost of disruption and cost to recover. [Security and
Risk Management]

3. C - The Bell-LaPadula simple security rule states that a user at any given
security level cannot read data at a level that is higher than their current level.
Users can only read the information at their security level or lower. This
protects the confidentiality of information at higher security levels by ensuring
that unauthorized users cannot read the information. [Security Engineering]

4. A - The best choice is a positive pressurization system that forces air out of the
server room whenever a door is opened. The other choices listed do not help in
preventing dust-contamination. [Security Operations]

5. A - The best way to avoid TOC/TOU attacks (asynchronous attacks) is by

having the operating system apply software locks on the files being requested.
[Security Engineering]

6. B - The best way to keep a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) up to date is to

integrate the plan into the change management process. The change
management process could be updated to alert the individuals in charge of the
BCP plan when any changes are about to occur. This ensures that when any
change occurs in the organization, the BCP team is aware of it and can update
the BCP plan accordingly [Security and Risk Management]

7. D - The Biba model was developed from the Bell-LaPadula model. It is

primarily concerned with the protection of data integrity--making it ideal for
the corporate world where the integrity of proprietary secrets is key. In the Biba
system, a subject cannot read information from a lower integrity level that
might be suspect or corrupt, in other words, it cannot read “down.” At the same
time it prevents the inappropriate assignation of integrity levels by preventing
subjects from writing suspect or corrupt data to higher levels, in other words, it
 cannot write “up.” [Security Engineering]

8. A - The biggest concern with ODBC connectivity is that both the username and
password are stored as plaintext. Hence if an HTML document is calling an
ODBC source of data, it must be protected to ensure that the userid and
password in the source is protected. [Software Development Security]

9. C - The Brewer and Nash model, also known as the Chinese Wall model was
designed to allow access controls to dynamically change based on previous
actions that a user performed. This model's main goal is to protect an
organization's assets from a user's conflict of interests by automatically
denying access to resources that would cause a conflict of interest. [Security
Engineering]

10. A - The Brewer-Nash model is also known as a Chinese Wall and is used in
situations of conflict of interest. In the current scenario, the company should
ensure that the activities of the two departments are clearly separated to avoid
conflicts of interest. [Security Engineering]

11. A - The Clark-Wilson model was developed as an extension to the Biba model.
Concepts in the model revolve around the inability to directly access and/or
manipulate objects to prevent data corruption. [Security Engineering]

12. A - The CoBIT stands for Control Objectives for Information and related
Technology. This is published by the IT Governance Institute and is an effective
IT Governance framework. COSO is a model for corporate governance, while
ISO 17799 and ISO 27001 are enterprise security standards. [Security and Risk
Management]

13. C - The company has accepted the risk by choosing to ignore it. This is based
upon the fact that the risk of its occurrence is a remote possibility. Such a
decision should also be documented well. [Security and Risk Management]

14. D - The company has decided to mitigate the risk. They have added protection
to ensure that the risk has a smaller opportunity of occurring. Residual risk is
the term for the amount of risk left after a mitigating control is put into place.
[Security and Risk Management]

15. A - The company will need to install both a NIDS as well as a HIDS. The NIDS
monitors network traffic whereas the HIDS detects anomalous activity on the
 critical server. [Identity and Access Management]

16. C - The company should have the employee sign a nondisclosure agreement.
While the other choices go towards reducing the risk of hiring the employee or
ensuring that he/she is aware of the security policies, it is the nondisclosure
agreement which will protect the company's information and can be legally
enforced. [Security and Risk Management]

17. B - The concept of least privilege is to start each account at zero privileges and
add only the access needed to perform required job functions and no more.
[Identity and Access Management]

18. A - The confidentiality security principle ensures that information is protected

from unauthorized individuals, other programs, or processes. The actual level
of confidentiality is usually determined by the overall level of secrecy required
for the information. Therefore, information that requires a high level of
security will usually also require a very high level of confidentiality. [Identity
and Access Management]

19. A - The correct procedure would be to sanitize the production data and provide
this to the supplier. The other options do not serve the purpose. Connecting
through a secure VPN link to the organization ensures that the data is secure,
however, it does not prevent the vendor organization from getting access to raw
production data, which could then be misused. [Security and Risk Management]

20. C - The correct response is end-to-end encryption. In this form of encryption,

details such as the addresses, routing information, header and trailer
information are not encrypted, thereby enabling an attacker to gain details
without the need for decryption. In contrast, link encryption (also known as
online encryption) provides better security against packet-sniffers. [Asset
Security]

21. B - The correct response is end-to-end encryption. This provides the user more
flexibility in choosing how and what is encrypted. [Asset Security]

22. D - The correct response is that the security policy around email monitoring
must first be outlined. The next step would be to prepare a document that
employees can read and sign. [Security and Risk Management]

23. D - Compensating controls provide for an alternative measure of control.

 [Identity and Access Management]

24. C - The countermeasure cost per year should not exceed the annualized loss
expectancy. Hence in the current case where both are equal, it may not be viable
for the company to use this countermeasure. [Security and Risk Management]

25. B - A CPTED guideline is that a side door at the facility, with restricted access,
should not have a sidewalk leading up to it from the front of the building. This
will ensure that unwanted people are not aware of its existence and do not use it.
The other choices are contrary to CPTED guidelines. [Security Operations]

26. A - The creator of a file is the owner in a discretionary access control model
(DAC). An administrator may possess privileges to override this and take
ownership, but that is only in case of emergencies. [Identity and Access
Management]

27. C - The data decompression of the MPEG file would happen at the presentation
layer. There are only services and no protocols that work at this layer.
[Communications and Network Security]

28. B - The DMZ is the demilitarized zone and is a network segmented between a
protected and unprotected network. To implement this, setup a firewall between
the internal network and DMZ and another between the DMZ and external
network. [Communications and Network Security]

29. A - DSA was primarily created for the purpose of digital signatures. It cannot
encrypt data and cannot be used for key exchange. [Asset Security]

30. D - IPv6 is the next generation of IP addressing and uses 128 bits. It also
provides many other capabilities that IPv4 does not. [Communications and
Network Security]

31. A - The first level in the Orange Book that requires labels is B1 (Labeled
Security). At the B1 level each subject and object will have its own security
label. To be granted access, the subject and object labels will have to be
compared and match accordingly. This level has the ability to support classified
data. [Security Engineering]

32. C - The first level in the Orange Book that requires users to be individually
identified and accountable for their actions is C2. C2 users are required to
 authenticate to the system which proves the individual's identity within the
system. The system is then able to track the user's activities and associate this
information with the user's account credentials in the system log files. [Security
Engineering]

33. D - The first priority in the aftermath of a disaster would be to ensure that the
employees are safe and there is no loss to life. [Security and Risk Management]

34. C - The fundamental application of cryptography is to detect whether a message

has been altered (intentionally or otherwise). Cryptographic tools cannot
prevent a message from getting altered. [Asset Security]

35. D - The goal is prevention, rather than detection. Use of video surveillance is
the least effective of the options listed since an individual who has cracked the
PIN code can still access the door. [Security Operations]

36. C - The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) covers financial institutions. A bank

may fall under Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
regulations as they apply to Human Resources and Benefits. Sarbanes-Oxley
Act (SOX) would only apply if the bank is a publicly traded company. The
Glass-Steagall Act of 1933 created the FDIC and does not apply. [Security and
Risk Management]

37. C - The ground floor is more accessible to emergency crew in case of fires.
The center of a building is better than the edges for protection against bombs,
weather events, and intruders. Site generation for intermediate-term backup
power is important for a data center. Finally, a carpet is to be avoided when
dealing with equipment sensitive to static electricity. [Security Operations]

38. D - The SHA1 algorithm uses 160 bits. This makes it more resistant to the
birthday attack which is a type of brute-force attack. [Asset Security]

39. A - Policies are overall general statements produced by senior management (or
a policy board / committee). For example, system-specific policies could detail
out management's view on how databases are to be used and protected. [Security
and Risk Management]

40. C - The highest level of maturity in the Capability Maturity Model is a process
that is optimized, or one that essentially cannot be made more efficient.
[Software Development Security]
Domain Area Test: Asset Security
Practice Questions

Test Name: Domain Area Test: Asset Security

Total Questions: 15
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 11 (73.33.00%)
Time Allowed: 25 Minutes

Test Description

This practice test specifically targets your knowledge of the Asset Security domain
area.

Test Questions

1. Which type of attack is considered a passive attack?

A. Sniffing attack

B. Ciphertext-only attack

C. Replay attack

D. Chosen-plaintext attack

2. Which method does not provide integrity for a message?

A. Encrypting a message

B. Digitally signing a message

C. Hashing a message

D. Encrypting and digitally signing a message

3. Which term best describes the method used to transform plaintext information
into ciphertext?
 A. Incipher

B. Decryption

C. Encryption

D. Decipher

4. At what level of the OSI model does IPSec operate?

A. Application

B. Network

C. Physical

D. Session

5. Which of the following is a Hashing Algorithm?

A. El Gamal

B. 3DES

C. MD4

D. DES

6. A securities clearinghouse receives several sales orders from a customer and

executes them accordingly. The customer later claims that the sales orders did
not come from him. However, due to the use of a digital signature, the
clearinghouse can prove that the sales orders did in fact originate with the
customer. In this case, what basic goal of a cryptographic system is being met?

A. Nonrepudiation

B. Integrity

C. Authenticity
 D. Confidentiality

7. Which of the following is a Symmetric Key Algorithm?

A. El Gamal

B. Diffie-Hellman

C. Digital Signature Algorithm

D. IDEA

8. What is Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) known as?

A. A web of trust

B. Hierarchical certificate authority

C. One time pad

D. Multipurpose Internet mail extension

9. Which protocol relies on a “web of trust” for its key management approach
instead of a hierarchy of certificate authorities?

A. RSA

B. SSL

C. PGP

D. Deffie-Hellman

10. In an asynchronous encryption system, Alan can only send an encrypted

message to Bob if which of the following are true?

A. Bob provides his private key to Alan

B. Bob provides his public key to Alan

 C. Alan provides his private key to Bob

D. Alan provides his public key to Bob

11. Which of the following is an asymmetric key algorithm?

A. RC4

B. Blowfish

C. RSA

D. DES

12. Which method involves the hiding of data within another form of media so that
the existence of the original data is concealed?

A. Steganography

B. Stenography

C. Tasseography

D. Cryptography

13. Which type of cipher replaces bits, characters, or blocks with different bits,
characters, or blocks?

A. Permutation cipher

B. Substitution cipher

C. Transposition cipher

D. Replacement cipher

14. What type of cipher moves bits, characters, and blocks around to hide the
original plaintext message?

A. Scramble cipher
 B. Replacement cipher

C. Substitution cipher

D. Transposition cipher

15. Which of the standards listed identifies the format for public key certificates?

A. X.21

B. X.400

C. X.500

D. X.509
Domain Area Test: Asset Security
Answer Key and Explanations

1. A - A passive attack is an attack that does not alter or destroy information as it

passes over the network. Passive attacks simply capture or monitor traffic as it
crosses the network. Since no changes occur to the actual data, they are rather
hard to detect. As such, methods are employed to try to prevent them from
occurring rather then detecting and stopping them [Asset Security]

2. A - Encrypting a message only provides confidentiality. When you want to

ensure that a message has not been altered in transmissions from source to
destination, you can use a hashing function. This verifies the message's
integrity. A one-way hash will take the variable-length message that you want to
send and produce a fixed-length value to send to the recipient. Once the
recipient receives the message, they will perform the same hash function to
determine if they get the same result. If the results are the same, the message has
not been altered. [Asset Security]

3. C - Encryption is the method that is used to transform plaintext information into

ciphertext. A complex mathematical formula, also known as an algorithm, is
used to complete the transformation. [Asset Security]

4. B - IPSec runs at the Network layer of the OSI model. No encryption is possible
at the physical layer. [Asset Security]

5. C - MD4 is a one-way hashing algorithm. It is one of a set of algorithms. MD2,

MD4 and MD5 which were developed by Ron Rivest. [Asset Security]

6. A - Nonrepudiation means that the sender cannot deny, or repudiate, that the
message was sent. The clearinghouse was simply doing what they were
contracted to do. [Asset Security]

7. D - Of the choices, only IDEA is a symmetric algorithm. The rest of the choices
are asymmetric algorithms. [Asset Security]

8. A - PGP is a web of trust rather than a hierarchical authority. There is no central

certificate server in the PGP structure, and each endpoint manages their own
public key and signs the public keys of other users. [Asset Security]
 C - PGP is used as an e-mail security program and relies on a “web of trust” for
9. its key management approach instead of certificate authorities. Users generate
and distribute their own public keys and they will sign each others public keys
to determine who will trust each other. With a certificate authority hierarchy, no
one trusts each other. They only trust the CA. [Asset Security]

10. B - Private keys are never shared. Alan needs Bob's public key to encrypt a
message that only Bob can decrypt using his (Bob's) private key. If Alan
encrypts a message with his own public key, then only Alan's private key can
decrypt it - which does not serve the purpose. [Asset Security]

11. C - RSA is the only asymmetric algorithm listed among the choices. The others
are all symmetric algorithms. [Asset Security]

12. A - Steganography is a method that involves the hiding of data within another
form of media so that the existence of the data is concealed. An excellent
example of this is hiding a text message within a picture. You can accomplish
this by changing some of the pixels to letters so that they can be read under a
microscope but to the naked eye it appears as just a pixel that completes the
entire picture. [Asset Security]

13. B - The substitution cipher replaces bits, characters, or blocks with different
bits, characters, or blocks to create the ciphertext. For example, if you wanted to
encrypt the plaintext term “James” and you were using the English alphabet and
moving three positions to the right, the new ciphertext would be “Mdphv”.
[Asset Security]

14. D - The transposition cipher rearranges and scrambles bits, characters, and
blocks to hide the original plaintext message. A key is used to keep track of
where the original bits, characters, and blocks would normally be. A
transposition cipher can be very simple or very complex. It can use
mathematical calculations to create a very strong cipher that is difficult to
break. [Asset Security]

15. D - A digital certificate is a very important piece of a Public Key Infrastructure

(PKI). The X.509 standard defines the different types of fields that are used
within the certificates as well as the possible values that could be used within
those fields. The most current X.509 version is 4. A certificate would usually
include a serial number, a version number, identity information, algorithm
information, lifetime dates, and the signature of the issuing authority. [Asset
Security]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 7
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 7

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. A reporting structure is being prepared for the Information Security Officer of

a high security organization. Which of the following would best serve the
purpose?

A. Information Security Officer reporting to the CEO.

B. Information Security Officer reporting to the Internal Audit department.

C. Information Security Officer reporting to the Corporate Security

department.

D. Information Security Officer reporting to the Information Technology

department.

2. Which layer of the TCP/IP model maps to the Network layer of the OSI model?

A. Host-to-Host

B. Application

C. Internet
 D. Network Access

3. If you are looking for a less expensive but secure encryption method, you
would prefer to use:

A. Internet Security Protocol (IPSec)

B. End-to-end encryption method

C. Secure Electronic Transaction (SET)

D. Link Encryption method

4. Of the protection rings used by operating system security, which of the

following would host privileged mode (or supervisor mode) processes that
specifically deal with the kernel of the system?

A. Ring 2

B. Ring 3

C. Ring 1

D. Ring 0

5. Which of the following is the most important component of a Kerberos system?

A. Key Distribution Center (KDC)

B. Privileged Attribute Certificate (PAC)

C. Ticket Authentication Service (TAS)

D. Authentication Grant Service (AGS)

6. Bert is a security officer in his organization. He is asked by HR to provide

some DOs and DON'Ts that can be incorporated into an employees manual.
Which of the following may have been a suggestion from Bert?

A. Employees may not reveal their network login IDs and passwords, except if
 asked by their supervisors.

B. Employees need to disclose all removable media that they are carrying with
them, except in the case of music CDs or DVDs.

C. Employees shall confront individuals inside the organization premises who

do not have a clear identification badge prominently displayed, and politely
ask them who they are. Also ask them why they are not displaying an ID and
escort them to the nearest security officer.

D. Employees need to prominently display their Identification badge while at

work, except on weekends.

7. Change management, separation of duties, and logging are implementations of

the concept of:

A. Execution

B. Accountability

C. Cooperation

D. Prosecution

8. Communications utilizing an asymmetric encryption method are most

susceptible to which of the following attacks?

A. Birthday

B. Man-in-the-middle

C. Smurf

D. Teardrop

9. Which of these is not a protocol at the transport layer?

A. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

 C. NetBios

D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

10. Which access control model is also referred to as non-discretionary access

control?

A. Rule-based access control

B. Role-based access control

C. Discretionary access control

D. Mandatory access control

11. Which security model has the ability to address the inference attack?

A. Lattice model

B. Noninterference model

C. Biba model

D. Graham-Denning model

12. What is the first priority of an individual during a disaster?

A. Protect Systems

B. Protect Data and Assets

C. Evacuate

D. Render Humanitarian Aid

13. Which of the following would be true if you were using Kerberos security
technology?

A. Redundancy is necessary for the Key Distribution Center (KDC)

 B. Kerberos is insulated from password guessing

C. Kerberos protects the network traffic even when encryption is not enabled

D. Secret keys are never stored on users' workstations

14. Of the protection rings used by operating system security, in which of the
following would the operating system kernel reside?

A. Ring 4

B. Ring 6

C. Ring 2

D. Ring 0

15. What is the correct order of sensitivity levels for data classification in
commercial business (from lowest to highest)?

A. Private, Confidential, Sensitive and Public

B. Sensitive, Confidential, Private and Public

C. Public, Private, Sensitive and Confidential

D. Public, Sensitive, Private and Confidential

16. A company needs to selectively encrypt e-mail messages. What choice would
you recommend?

A. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)

B. Private Signed Mail (PSM)

C. Kerberos

D. Link encryption

17. Radio frequency interference (RFI) frequently occurs in buildings. Which of the
 following is the primary cause of RFI?

A. Backup generators

B. UPS equipment

C. Telephone lines

D. Fluorescent lighting

18. How are rows uniquely identified in a relational database model?

A. By a column key

B. By a primary key

C. By a tuple key

D. By a row key

19. Which of the following is not a recommended procedure to handle a system

crash or failure?

A. It is best to have an administrator validate configuration and system files

after a crash.

B. It is best to have an administrator physically present at a console to recover

files.

C. It is best to boot to a Recovery console to recover files.

D. It is best to enter into multi-user mode to recover files.

20. Which of these books mainly addresses government and military expectations
for their computer systems?

A. Aqua Book

B. Red Book
 C. Orange Book

D. Blue Book

21. Which term best describes an abstract machine that ensures all subjects have the
access rights necessary before accessing objects.

A. Security perimeter

B. Security kernel

C. Reference monitor

D. Secure state

22. What technique utilizes anonymous opinions by members of the risk analysis
team?

A. Classification

B. Quantitative

C. Delphi

D. Safeguard

23. In which phase are threats and vulnerabilities determined?

A. Risk Assessment

B. Vulnerability Assessment

C. Threat Assessment

D. Agent Assessment

24. Ben works for an auditing firm on a team that specializes in social engineering.
At a client site, he carries an armload of boxes to a secure entrance and waits
for a helpful employee to open the door for him. Once inside, he poses as a
printer repair person and accesses data from the stations of several
 administrative assistants. Which of the following would be options would be
successful in preventing such breaches in the future?

A. Security awareness training for all employees

B. Use of additional video surveillance cameras

C. Use of sensitive alarms

D. Use of ID cards by all employees

25. Which of these accurately depicts the relationship between total risk,
countermeasures and residual risk?

A. Total risk + Residual Risk = Countermeasures

B. Total risk - Countermeasures = Residual risk

C. Total risk + Countermeasures = Residual risk

D. Countermeasures - Total Risk = Residual risk

26. What does the Asset Value multiplied by the Exposure Factor yield?

A. Single Loss Expectancy

B. Exposure Factor

C. Residual Risk

D. Annualized Loss Expectancy

27. From a security perspective, if you wish to ensure that internal and external
resolution requests to the DNS server are handled separately, how can this be
achieved?

A. Implement a split DNS

B. Use a proxy server to handle requests separately

 C. Implement a parallel DNS

D. Place internal resources within the DMZ

28. Which of the following passwords is the strongest of the choices listed?

A. PasswordBob123

B. P999000

C. kathy!

D. KaJM22!4

29. A company is concerned that the system administrator might abuse his elevated
privileges. They implement a plan that removes all of the administrator's
privileges to the server logs and charge a security auditor with the task of
viewing them. What would this be known as?

A. Separation of duties

B. Change Management

C. Least Privilege

D. Regulatory Compliance

30. Which of the following refers to the level of trust a system provides rather than
the level of security it provides.

A. ISO-9000

B. Trusted Computer System

C. Trusted Systems Specification

D. Trusted Computer Base

31. Which of these is the correct order in which the Zachman framework for
enterprise architecture should be approached?
 A. Scope context boundary, Business model concepts, System model logic,
Technology model physics.

B. Scope context boundary, System model logic, Business model concepts,

Technology model physics.

C. Business model concepts, Scope context boundary, System model logic,

Technology model physics.

D. Technology model physics, Scope context boundary, Business model

concepts, System model logic.

32. When working with United States military classifications, which answer best
ranks the level of classification in order from low to high?

A. Top Secret, Secret, Classified, Sensitive, Public

B. Unclassified, Sensitive but Unclassified, Confidential, Secret, Top Secret

C. Top Secret, Confidential, Classified, Unclassified but Confidential, Sensitive

D. Confidential, Secret, Top Secret, Public, Proprietary

33. Fire code regulations dictate that data centers and server areas should have two
doors. What is the usual best practice followed to minimize security issues?

A. Have separate doors for entry and exit purposes respectively. Ensure that a
security guard is posted at each of the doors.

B. Have one door for daily entry and exit into the secure area. The other door
should be used only in emergencies and should have a panic bar.

C. Have only one door for entry and exit into a data center. In the interests of
security, the fire code regulations can be overruled in case of data centers.

D. Have two doors into the facility, but only one door should be conspicuous.
The other door should be known to only a handful of people and should not
be publicized.

34. Which of the following is a solution to DNS poisoning?

 A. Increase penalties for attackers indulging in DNS poisoning

B. Implement an NIS

C. Enable DNSSEC on all DNS servers on the internet

D. Use better firewalls

35. Which of the following is a robust security architecture framework?

A. The Starkey framework

B. The Zachman framework.

C. The Zimmerman framework

D. The Zarkov framework

36. Several measures can be taken to help protect against electric power issues.
Which of these is NOT a recommended method of protecting devices?

A. Plug all devices into surge protectors.

B. Use shielded cables.

C. Plug power bars into other power bars to help provide additional protection

D. Do not run cables close to fluorescent lights.

37. Which is NOT an integrity goal that is addressed by the Clark-Wilson model?

A. Separation of duties is enforced

B. Constrained data items can be manipulated only by transformation

procedures

C. Auditing is required

D. Subjects can access objects through any program

38. The primary feature of an application design that uses a web-based data
warehousing thin client, as compared to a thick client application is:

A. It will run much faster but requires specialized software to be installed on

the client machine.

B. It provides redundancy if the connection to the internet is dropped, but runs

relatively slowly.

C. It runs faster and by choosing an application that provides redundancy, data

access is possible even if the connection to the internet is disrupted.

D. It will run much faster but cannot provide redundancy in case the connection
to the internet is dropped

39. A cybercriminal wants to redirect traffic from a competitor's website. When a

prospective customer tries to visit the competitor's website, the cybercriminal
redirects him to another website. What form of attack does he use to achieve
this?

A. Trojan horse

B. DNS poisoning

C. A worm

D. DNS reconfiguring

40. A biometrics system rejects access to an authorized subject. What is this called?

A. Type II Error

B. Type III Error

C. Type IV Error

D. Type I Error
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 7
Answer Key and Explanations

1. A - Such a reporting structure reduces any message filtering that may happen
due to any hierarchy structure that exists and improves communication. This is
ideally suited for firms that have high security needs. [Security and Risk
Management]

2. C - The Internet layer of the TCP/IP model maps to the Network layer of the
OSI model. [Communications and Network Security]

3. A - The Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) allows a secure channel to be set up

between two devices that wish to exchange data in a protected manner. It is
flexible and the least expensive of the options listed. [Asset Security]

4. D - The kernel is the most protected area of the operating system. The
Protection Ring security mechanism prevents higher ring levels from directly
accessing lower rings. For example, Ring 0 can directly access Ring 1,
however, the reverse is not true. Rings 0 and 1 are considered System,
Supervisor, or Privileged Modes [Security Engineering]

5. A - The Key Distribution Center is a single point of failure and is the most
important component of a Kerberos system. TAS and AGS are not valid choices
while PAC is used by SESAME. [Identity and Access Management]

6. C - The likely input given by Bert is that employees should confront any
individuals inside the organization premises who do not have a clear
identification badge prominently displayed, and politely ask them who they are.
Employees should also ask them why they are not displaying an ID and escort
them to the nearest security officer. This will go a long way in preventing any
adverse incidents. [Security Operations]

7. B - Change management, separation of duties, and logging are implementations

of the concept of accountability since they help establish who carried out a
particular activity. The other choices are not valid. [Security Operations]

8. B - A common problem with a communications channel using asymmetric

encryption (besides a full denial of service attack) is the man-in-the-middle
attack. [Asset Security]
9. C - NetBIOS is a protocol that operates at the session layer. UDP, TCP and SSL
operate at the transport layers. [Communications and Network Security]

10. B - A role-based access control (RBAC) model is also called a non-

discretionary access control model. Access to objects is granted or denied
based on the role a user has within the organization. [Identity and Access
Management]

11. B - The Noninterference model has the ability to address the inference attack.
An inference attack occurs when someone has just enough information to infer
(guess) about other information that they are not allowed to access or view. The
Noninterference model addresses this attack by ensuring that any actions that
occur at a particular security level do not affect or hinder the actions that occur
at a lower security level. This prevents information from leaking from higher
security levels down to lower security levels. [Security Engineering]

12. D - The first priority of an individual is to render immediate medical care and
aid. This should also be clearly stated in the Business Continuity and Disaster
Recover Plan. [Security and Risk Management]

13. A - Redundancy is necessary for the KDC in a Kerberos system. The KDC can
turn out to be a single point of failure and if it goes down, no one will have
access to the required resources. [Identity and Access Management]

14. D - The operating system kernel is in ring 0. Subjects in other rings cannot
access this ring directly but need to make requests to access this ring. [Security
Engineering]

15. D - The order of sensitivity from lowest to highest in commercial business is

Public, Sensitive, Private and Confidential. Information classified as Public is
available to the general public to access. Sensitive information should not be
disclosed to or modified by unauthorized users. Private information, which
must be kept internal, is considered personal and should be viewed by the
intended users only. Confidential information is the most sensitive, and if
disclosed, could have a severe, negative effect on the company. [Security and
Risk Management]

16. A - The preferred choice is Pretty Good Privacy (PGP). This is a public key
encryption program and is a complete cryptosystem to protect email and files.
The other choices are not valid responses. Link encryption may be used if all
 data on the company's network needs to be encrypted. Kerberos may be
implemented when single sign-on is required. Private Signed Mail does not
exist. [Asset Security]

17. D - The primary cause of radio frequency interference in office buildings is

fluorescent lights. The solution is to use shielded cables and to ensure that
power and data lines are separate and don't run over fluorescent lights.
[Security Operations]

18. B - A primary key uniquely identifies a row within a relational database. The
other choices are not valid. [Software Development Security]

19. D - An administrator must be involved in the aftermath of a system crash and it

is best to use 'single user' mode so that unauthorized connections are kept out.
[Security Operations]

20. C - The Orange Book mainly addresses government and military expectations
for their systems. However, there are a number of deficiencies in the Orange
book and the focus is now to move towards Common Criteria. [Security
Engineering]

21. C - The reference monitor is an access control concept. It is responsible for

mediating subject access to objects. This ensures that subjects are provided with
access rights that are necessary for them to access objects, and to ensure that the
objects are protected from modification and unauthorized access. It is important
to note that the reference monitor is not an actual physical component; it is an
abstract machine. [Security Engineering]

22. C - A risk analysis team may use the Delphi technique when conducting
qualitative risk analysis. Each member of the team anonymously submits their
opinions with regard to asset values, security threats, and their probabilities of
occurring in the organization. The comments are collected and shared among
the team, after which another series of anonymous contributions are made to
gather feedback. This process continues within the group until a consensus is
reached. [Security and Risk Management]

23. A - Threats and vulnerabilities are determined in the risk assessment phase. At
this time the total risk is obtained by multiplying the value of the assets being
assessed and the possibility of a vulnerability being exploited. [Security
Engineering]
24. A - Social engineering involves playing on the emotions of employee such that
they unwittingly help in a crime. This can be addressed by better and more
regular security awareness training. In the current scenario, a helpful employee
allowed an unknown person to enter the facility. More cameras, better alarms
etc will not stop social engineering. [Security Operations]

25. B - Residual risk is the risk that remains after a company implements
countermeasures to handle risks. Hence at a conceptual level, Total risk -
Countermeasures = Residual risk.
Note that this is not a mathematical formula, but depicts the relationship
between the three entities. [Security and Risk Management]

26. A - The single loss expectancy is the dollar amount an organization might
assign to a single event representing the potential loss if a specific threat took
place. It is determined by multiplying the asset value and the exposure factor
(exposure factor is the percentage of loss a realized threat could have on an
asset). [Security and Risk Management]

27. A - The solution is to implement a split DNS. In this, a DNS server is installed
in the DMZ to handle external resolution requests. This ensures that the internal
DNS is not directly accessible through the internet and has additional layers of
protection since both external and internal requests are handled separately.
[Communications and Network Security]

28. D - The strongest passwords are those with a mix of upper and lower case
letters, numerical digits, and special characters. The best passwords are
constructed via a phrase that can be easily remembered rather than made up of
dictionary words. The other passwords are not as strong since they are
susceptible to being guessed. [Security Operations]

29. A - The system administrator in this example is prevented from covering his
tracks by editing the log files. The auditor views the logs to make sure nothing
is inappropriately used. This separates the administration and the auditing
duties. [Security Operations]

30. D - The Trusted Computing Base, or TCB, was developed after the Orange
Book, but is more concerned with trust levels rather that system security.
Communications between trusted components and untrusted components must
be regulated. [Security Engineering]
31. A - The correct order in which the layers of the Zachman framework are
approached are: Scope context boundary, Business model concepts, System
model logic, Technology model physics, Component configuration and
Functioning enterprise instances. [Security Engineering]

32. B - The US Military classifies information in the following way from highest to
lowest: Top secret, Secret, Confidential, Sensitive but unclassified, Unclassified.
Note that the question asked for the reverse order. [Identity and Access
Management]

33. B - The usual best practice is to have two doors to the facility. However, only of
these should be used for daily entry and exit from the facility. The other should
be equipped with a panic bar so that the door can open only from the inside. The
other option of using multiple doors and posting security guards may also
work but is not a preferred solution since it will increase costs. [Security
Operations]

34. C - Installation of DNSSEC on all DNS servers will prevent this type of attack
because two DNS servers communicating with each other will authenticate each
other. However, in practice if DNSSEC has to work properly, all DNS servers
on the internet would need to participate in a PKI to validate digital signatures
and this is quite impractical. [Communications and Network Security]

35. B - The Zachman framework serves as a model that can be used to create robust
security architectures that deal with multiple components across the
organization. [Security Engineering]

36. C - There are a number of things that can be done to help protect against
electric power issues. Power bars and extension cords should always be
plugged into their own wall sockets to prevent possible fire hazards. Plugging
power bars into other power bars, or extension cords results in safety issues.
[Security Operations]

37. D - One of the ways in which the Clark-Wilson model addresses a goal of
integrity is that subjects can access objects only through authorized programs
and not just any program. [Security Engineering]

38. C - Thin client applications normally use an Internet browser to connect to a

central server. The web-based data warehousing thin client runs very fast and
also provides redundancy in case the connection to the internet is dropped.
 [Security Engineering]

39. B - This can be done using a DNS poisoning attack. In this attack the
cybercriminal will listen for requests from a particular DNS server when it is
trying to resolve a particular hostname. When this happens, he quickly sends a
request to the server with the incorrect mapping and causes a false redirection.
[Communications and Network Security]

40. D - This is a called a Type I error, or a False Negative (Reject). In this case an
authorized subject is prevented access and this is usually more of an
inconvenience rather than a breach. [Identity and Access Management]
Domain Area Test:
Software Development Security
Practice Questions

Test Name: Domain Area Test: Software Development Security

Total Questions: 15
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 11 (73.33%)
Time Allowed: 25 Minutes

Test Description

This practice test specifically targets your knowledge of the Software Development
Security domain area.

Test Questions

1. Which attack involves sending malformed packets to a system in order to cause

it to crash or end processing?

A. Denial of Service (DoS) attack

B. Smurf attack

C. Fraggle attack

D. SYN flood attack

2. What type of mobile code control serves as a protected area for a program to
execute?

A. Sandbox

B. Access matrix

C. Kernel

D. Covert channel
3. Which form of malware has the ability to reproduce itself and is classified as
self-contained?

A. Trojan horse

B. Logic bomb

C. Virus

D. Worm

4. Aggregation is a database security issue. Which of the following statements

about aggregation is true?

A. A user has the permissions to access information, and does not have the
required permissions to access subsets of the same information.

B. A user lacks the permissions to access information, but has the required
permissions to access subsets of the same information.

C. A user has the permissions to access information, and also has the required
permissions to access subsets of the same information

D. A user lacks the permissions to access information, and does not have the
required permissions to access subsets of the same information.

5. Which of these is NOT a type of programming language?

A. High-Level

B. Assembly

C. Machine

D. Interpreter

6. Pre-compiled code runs faster than interpreted code but can be considered less
secure. Is this statement correct?

A. Yes. Pre-compiled code runs so quickly that it can tie up CPU resources and
 cause availability issues.

B. No. This is a common fallacy. Pre-compiled code is actually significantly

more secure than interpreted code.

C. Yes. Interpreted code relies on the integrity of the host system for security.
Therefore it has no security holes. This is not the case with Pre-compiled
code.

D. Yes. Pre-compiled code is transformed into a binary file that is unreadable

by humans. Unauthorized changes are extremely hard to detect.

7. The senior loan officer of a large financial institution is preparing to travel to a

conference. To make more effective use of travel time, he copies a large
number of customer files to his laptop to work on during flight. While at the
airport, he uses free WiFi to check email. During this time, another WiFi user
compromises the security of the Loan Officer's laptop and copies the customer
data. The malicious user then overwrites the customer information with similar
files containing random edits as a prank. This is an example of what kind of
breach(es)?

A. Integrity and Availability

B. Confidentiality Only

C. Integrity Only

D. Confidentiality and Integrity

8. What is the strategy of providing security at many points, including at the

application level, known as?

A. Security Bifurcation

B. Monolithic Security

C. Defense-in-depth

D. Layer Cake Security

9. What type of database interface language is used for structuring data so that it
can be shared between applications and web technologies?

A. ADO

B. OLE DB

C. ODBC

D. XML

10. Every foreign key in a relational database refers to an existing primary key.
This type of integrity is known as:

A. Database Integrity

B. Referential Integrity

C. Entity Integrity

D. Key Integrity

11. Which of the following provides a simple and effective mechanism to protect
against buffer overflow vulnerabilities?

A. Input Validation

B. Policies

C. Firewalls

D. High Availability

12. A database server in a hospital data center is an active-node member of a

geographically dispersed active/passive cluster that is synchronized across
three locations. Due to a software defect an improperly calculated value is
written back into the database tables. What type of breach is this?

A. Availability Only
 B. Integrity and Availability

C. Integrity Only

D. Confidentiality

13. Which of these is a system that employs Artificial Intelligence to solve

problems, recognize patterns, and mine data.

A. Software Escrow

B. Expert System

C. Dynamic Data Exchange

D. Database Cluster

14. What type of attack occurs when an attacker sends packets that are too small?

A. Fraggle

B. Teardrop

C. SYN flood

D. Smurf

15. A set of procedures that are used to carry out changes that affect software,
individual systems or the network is called:

A. Application management

B. Configuration management

C. Baseline management

D. Migration management
Domain Area Test:
Software Development Security
Answer Key and Explanations

1. A - A Denial of Service (DoS) attack is performed by sending malformed

packets to a system in order to cause it to crash or end processing. The attacked
system is unable to recognize the format of the packets that it receives. This
causes it to crash or stop processing other valid packets. [Software
Development Security]

2. A - A sandbox is a type of mobile code control that serves as a protected area

for a program to execute. The sandbox limits the amount of memory,
processor, and hard drive resources that a process can utilize. If the process
exceeds the limits of the sandbox, process is terminated. [Software
Development Security]

3. D - A worm has the ability to self reproduce, and is classified as self-contained.

It does not require any type of host application. It is commonly transferred
through email messages over the Internet. [Software Development Security]

4. B - Aggregation occurs when a user has the permissions to access subsets of

information but does not have the required permissions to access the
information as a whole. The user will collect (aggregate) the subsets of
information and attempt to create the information as a whole from it. When the
user succeeds, this is known as inference. Using this method a user could access
information that he/she is not supposed to. [Software Development Security]

5. D - An interpreter is a program (translator) that is used to convert a high-level

language into a lower level language such as assembly or machine. It is not a
type of programming language. [Software Development Security]

6. D - Changes made to the code base of an interpreted program can be easily

found by human eyes. Most interpreted programs include in-line documentation
(comments) that describe the function of each section of code. A change, either
mistakenly or maliciously, is easy to track down. Since pre-compiled code is in
machine language, it is extremely difficult to detect changes. [Software
Development Security]

7. D - Confidentiality was breached because a copy of the private data was made.
 Integrity was breached because bad data was merged into the files. Availability
is not an issue in this scenario. [Software Development Security]

8. C - Defense-in-depth seeks to employ the best security possible at each level of

a system. The overarching idea is to slow down an attacker to such a degree that
they are either detected or give up the attack entirely. [Software Development
Security]

9. D - Extensible Markup Language (XML) is a database interface language

standard used for structuring data so that it can be shared between applications
and web technologies. XML is flexible and provides a lot of options for how
data can be presented in the database. [Software Development Security]

10. B - In a relational database model, referential integrity implies that a foreign

key actually exists. Entity integrity means that each table must have a unique and
non-null primary key. Key integrity requires that a key must be maintained if
referenced by another. Database integrity refers to the overall validity of the
data contained in a database. [Software Development Security]

11. A - Input validation prevents unexpected data from being entered into database
fields and provides a simple form of protection against buffer overflow errors.
[Software Development Security]

12. C - Integrity was breached due to the fact that bad data was written to the
database. Because of the role of a node in the Active/Passive configuration, the
bad data was propagated to the other sites. Availability is not an issue, as the bad
data was available. Confidentiality too is not an issue. [Software Development
Security]

13. B - An expert system is also called a knowledge-based system and uses

Artificial Intelligence (AI) to solve problems. It uses nonnumeric algorithms to
solve complex problems. [Software Development Security]

14. B - Teardrop attacks occur when an attacker sends packets that are too small and
result in a system locking up or rebooting. This type of attack takes advantage
of the fact that systems do not check to see if a received packet is too small. The
attacker creates these small packets in such a way that when the receiving
system attempts to recombine the fragments, they can not be reassembled
properly. [Software Development Security]
15. B - Configuration management is the set of procedures that are used to carry
out changes that affect software, individual systems or the network. [Software
Development Security]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 8
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 8

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. A database administrator wishes to restrict certain tables of a database from

being accessed or used by certain users. This is accomplished by using:

A. Access controls at the program level.

B. Database restrictors which restrict a set of users from seeing certain

information.

C. Database controls which can be configured to let some users see only
certain information.

D. Database views which restrict a set of users from seeing certain information.

2. A hacker is trying to exploit the vulnerability of a software program. He inserts

a large amount of data and hopes to execute malicious code in system memory.
This pattern is called:

A. Buffer overflow

B. Covert channel

C. Memory reuse
 D. Trapdoor attack

3. A database administrator of a database containing very sensitive information is

trying to misdirect attackers. He does this by inserting fake information into the
database. This would be termed as:

A. Noise and falsification

B. Cell suppression

C. Noise and polymorphism

D. Noise and perturbation

4. A film distribution company creates a website that advertises “Click Here for
Free Movies.” They record all individuals who download these files and attempt
to prosecute for copyright infringement. What would such an activity be termed
as?

A. Entrapment

B. Scandal

C. Enticement

D. Libel

5. During a code walkthrough, a systems analyst uncovered unauthorized code

installed in a production system program. This could have potentially been used
to gain access to the program. The most likely explanation is:

A. A programmer inadvertently inserted the code into the program during the
development stage.

B. This is normal programming practice. The code is known only to the group
of people who programmed it, so it is unlikely to be exploited by a hacker.

C. A hacker gained access to the production system and inserted code which
could be used to exploit the system later.
 D. A programmer inserted the code into the program during development to
access the system if the access control mechanism failed during
development.

6. A malicious programmer inserted code which would cause serious problems if

activated. This did not cause problems during normal operation and he intended
to activate this if he was laid-off from the company. This is referred to as:

A. Spyware

B. Remote Access Trojan (RAT)

C. A prank

D. Logic bomb

7. An algorithm has been chosen such that a minor change in the key results in a
completely different ciphertext being produced. This is referred to as:

A. Weak Hashing

B. Avalanche effect

C. Diffusion

D. Confusion

8. Andy receives a mail which informs him that if he forwards the email to ten
other people he will have 'good luck' for the rest of the day. Andy promptly
complies with this request. This would be termed as a:

A. Meme virus

B. Multi-part virus

C. Human virus

D. Social Engineering virus

9. Which of the following techniques is used in detecting spam?

 A. Gaussian filtering

B. Curtis filtering

C. Polynesian filtering

D. Bayesian filtering

10. Servers are placed on one network segment and all of the workstations on a
second segment. The router in between these two networks is configured to
only pass traffic a handful of required ports. What is this termed as?

A. Network Address Translation

B. Domain Services

C. Dynamic Host Control Protocol

D. Network Segregation

11. Rick performs certain critical operations at work. Due to a serious illness, Rick
is unable to report to work. The company is ill-prepared for this and work
suffers for many days before normalcy is restored. This could have been
avoided by implementing:

A. Job Rotation

B. Mandatory Reporting

C. Separation of Duties

D. Periodic company sponsored health checks.

12. An employee became aware of a computer crime in which a colleague was

involved. However, he did not bring it to the notice of the company. This was
most likely because:

A. The crime did not have serious ramifications.

B. It is the responsibility of the security team in the company to detect such

 crimes.

C. The employee was also involved.

D. Incident handling procedures were poorly defined in the company.

13. A policy that outlines what is acceptable behavior within an organization and
also outlines the repercussions of not complying with such a policy would be
considered as what category of policy?

A. An advisory policy

B. A regulatory policy

C. An Informative policy

D. A standard policy

14. A protester hacked a government website and put up protest banner images on
it. This type of cyber-crime would be classified as:

A. A computer-targeted crime.

B. A computer-assisted crime

C. A computer-violation

D. A 'computer is incidental crime'.

15. The entity that takes advantage of a vulnerability to endanger systems is called:

A. Threat

B. Threat-agent

C. Risk

D. Exposure

16. An audit board found that a bank was poorly prepared to handle disasters and
 that the bank's current choice of backup site would not be operational in a
timely manner following a disaster. If cost is not an issue and the bank needs to
be fully operational within TWO hours of a disaster, what kind of site should
the bank use?

A. Cold Site

B. Warm Site

C. Dead Site

D. Hot Site

17. While preparing a BCP/DRP, goals are established so that everyone involved is
aware of the ultimate objective. Which of these is not key information that is
part of a goal?

A. Responsibility

B. Strategies

C. Authority

D. Priorities

18. A _______ law protects a resource that a company uses as a competitive

advantage, while ________ law protects certain resources that a company
produces.

A. Trademark, Trade Secret

B. Copyright, Trade Secret

C. Trade Secret, Copyright

D. Trade Secret, Trademark

19. Which of these is a very important consideration for accurate event correlation
and forensics?
 A. Chain of Custody

B. Separation of Duties

C. Chain of responsibility

D. Accurate Time Stamping

20. A man-in-the-middle attack can happen when an attacker intercepts a

communication and spoofs the identities of either of the two parties involved.
How can such a type of attack be countered?

A. Such attacks can be countered by having an authentication done through the

use of a digital signature, before accepting someone's public key.

B. Such an attack can be countered by a cyclic redundancy check (CRC)

C. Such an attack can be countered by use of a parity bit.

D. Such attacks can be countered by using two-way hashing algorithms.

21. A programmer is developing an application which would reside on a server and

send out status information to the network where it would be received by
listening nodes. Which transport protocol would she prefer to use?

A. OSP

B. CP

C. TCP

D. UDP

22. In order to minimize the expenses involved in acquiring alternative resources

like computer workstations, network circuits and backup hardware, the CFO of
a company downplayed the potential revenue loss. What will be the most likely
impact of this?

A. The continuity planning project team (CPPT) will need to find cheaper
alternatives to cope with a disaster.
 B. The savings in the cost of the backup equipment will make up for the
potential revenue loss when a disaster strikes.

C. The continuity planning project team (CPPT) will be held responsible for
drop in customer service levels when a disaster strikes.

D. The customer service level will likely drop when a disaster strikes and the
company may be unable to service customers properly.

23. Jim is caught spending a great amount of time and resources sending non-work
related emails on subjects the leadership of the company would not approve. He
is summarily fired. Jim sues for wrongful termination on the basis that he never
gave permission for his email to be monitored. If his case succeeds, which of
the following options is most likely to be the reason?

A. Chain of custody

B. Freedom of speech

C. Legal council

D. Reasonable expectation of privacy

24. A junior network technician has approached you and wishes to know what type
of cable is the least resistant to electromagnetic interference (EMI). Which of
these would you select?

A. Unshielded Twisted Pair

B. Coaxial

C. Fiber-optic

D. Shielded Twisted Pair

25. You wish to implement a control mechanism for mobile code. A good option is:

A. Introduction of an efficient error logging system.

B. Use of a sandbox that provides a protective area for program execution.

 C. Introduction of proper audit control procedures.

D. Use of a blackbox that provides a protective area for program execution

26. A certain organization has multiple teams that take turns with off-hours support
duty. Their work requires that they have elevated privileges on the firewalls,
servers, and infrastructure devices. What type of access control scheme would
best be used in this situation?

A. MAC

B. RBAC

C. LDAP

D. DAC

27. What is the most common method used to locate unsecured wireless networks?

A. War dialing

B. War driving

C. Piggybacking

D. Salami

28. What is a Type II error in a biometric system?

A. Crossover error rate

B. False rejection rate

C. Equal error rate

D. False acceptance rate

29. As part of the business impact analysis, individual threats are identified and loss
criteria are applied. Which of the following is an incorrect criterion while
considering business impact due to a potential disaster?
 A. Decrease in operational expenses.

B. Loss in revenue

C. Violations of contractual agreements

D. Loss of reputation

30. On a device-by-device basis, which of the following should be included in

documentation demonstrating the application of standards?

A. All deviations from the written standard, serial number, date, and technician
name

B. Deviations that lower security level from that of the standard, serial number,
date, and technician name

C. The date and name of the technician

D. The machine type and serial number

31. In which of the following situations could you say that the integrity of data has
not been lost?

A. A New Year's greeting sent by the CEO of a company to all its employees is
intercepted and altered.

B. The equity stock balance in an individual's account shows 50000 instead of

5000.

C. A consumer receives a telephone bill of $75 instead of $ 750.

D. The credit card number of a cardholder finds its way into public domain.

32. When a data center facility has been flooded, what is the best way to handle the
situation?

A. Scrap all equipment and invest in new equipment.

B. Allow the moisture to evaporate on its own.

 C. Increase the room temperature to 150 deg Fahrenheit (about 65 deg
Centigrade) so that the moisture evaporates.

D. Use dehumidifiers that are of industry-strength to dry up the moisture.

33. Your company is implementing wireless technologies to provide users with the
mobility they require to perform their day to day activities. Management has
approached you and is questioning the security of the wireless technologies in
relation to war driving. You need to assure them that the network will be
secured against war driving. Which of the following measures will not provide
protection against war driving?

A. Enable 'broadcasting SSID' on the access points.

B. Physically place the access points within the middle of the buildings.

C. Use 128-bit WEP as the encryption standard on the wireless network.

D. Change the default SSID of each access point

34. Which of the following is not a type of response to operating system failure?

A. System jumpstart

B. Emergency system restart

C. System reboot

D. System cold start

35. A large bank and a hospital decide that in the event of a disaster at either of their
facilities, the other will provide facilities for short term business continuity.
Under this agreement, the Information Technology staff of the affected entity
will be provided with workstations, necessary connectivity, electricity, and
office space. What is this known as?

A. Joint BCP

B. Reciprocal Agreement
 C. Warm Site

D. Active/Active Agreement

36. Which of the following cabling strategies is cost-effective and resistant to

electromagnetic interference (EMI)?

A. STP

B. Fiber-optic

C. XTP

D. UTP

37. A hard drive containing evidence of a possible breach is given to several local
computer stores for general advice before finally handing it over to a
professional data forensics expert. What principle has been violated by not
maintaining a signed history document?

A. Chain of custody

B. GLBA

C. SOX

D. Protocol

38. Which of these roles is responsible for data protection and will be held liable in
case of any negligence that resulted in the breach of the data?

A. Chief Legal Counsel

B. Security Officer

C. Systems Administrator

D. Network Administrator

39. The main difference between compartmented security mode and the other
 security modes is:

A. Formal access approval is not required.

B. All users must have proper clearance for the highest level of data
classification in the system.

C. All users need to sign an NDA for the information they will access.

D. All users must have proper clearance for the lowest level of data
classification in the system.

40. If employees find a USB drive labeled “Beach Vacation Pics” plugged into a
computer system at work, what should they be trained to do?

A. Follow procedures for a security incident

B. Attempt to find the owner

C. Access the drive to determine who lost it

D. Throw it away
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 8
Answer Key and Explanations

1. D - This is accomplished by using database views which can place restrictions

on the information that users can access. [Software Development Security]

2. A - This is called 'Buffer Overflow' and is a common problem in poorly written

software programs. An attacker enters a larger amount of data than the program
can handle and attempts to execute malicious code when the excess data
overflows into system memory. This can be avoided by doing proper bounds
checking. [Software Development Security]

3. D - This is called noise and perturbation and is a technique to confuse and

mislead attackers so that their attacks do not succeed or yield poor results.
[Software Development Security]

4. A - This is called entrapment because the company was advertising “free”

movies to trick the victims into clicking. [Security and Risk Management]

5. D - This is known as a trapdoor / backdoor. Software developers often use this

route to provide access to a program in case they are locked out of the program
during development due to a failure of the access control mechanism. So, it is
most likely that a programmer inserted this code as a backdoor route. This
poses a risk to the system and could be dangerous. [Software Development
Security]

6. D - This is referred to as a logic bomb and should be caught by proper code

review procedures. If this is not caught and slips through, an employee may
activate this code with malicious intent at a later time. [Software Development
Security]

7. B - This is referred to as 'Avalanche Effect' and forms a key consideration

while selecting an algorithm. A strong hashing algorithm will also have this
feature. This makes the algorithm difficult to crack. [Asset Security]

8. A - This is termed as a meme virus and is not actually a virus. Such email
messages, hoax virus alerts, religious messages that are continually forwarded
on the Internet by people waste valuable resources. [Software Development
Security]
9. D - Bayesian filtering is used to detect spam. This is a mathematical method and
it reviews prior events to predict future events and quantifies uncertainty to
detect spam. [Software Development Security]

10. D - This is network segregation and helps segregate networks and subnets from
each other. [Communications and Network Security]

11. A - This type of situation is best handled by job rotation. Job rotation would
have allowed an individual other than Rick to do the job and the company
would not have struggled to handle this situation. The other choices listed
would not help in this matter. [Security and Risk Management]

12. D - This was most likely due to poor incident-handling procedures in the
company. Employees need to be aware how such incidents are handled and
should not feel threatened by reporting such incidents. [Security and Risk
Management]

13. A - This would be classified as an Advisory policy. Such policies typically

advise employees on acceptable behavior within an organization and the result
of not conforming to such behavior. For example, such an advisory policy
could be put into effect while handling confidential data. [Security and Risk
Management]

14. B - This would be termed as a computer-assisted crime since the protester uses
the computer as a tool to carry out an attack such as a protest against the
government. In contrast a 'computer-targeted' crime targets a computer to gain
some information while a 'computer is incidental' crime is a situation where the
computer is just incidental to the attack and not the primary purpose of the
attack. [Security and Risk Management]

15. B - The entity that takes advantage of a vulnerability is referred to as a threat-

agent. This could be an intruder accessing the network or even an employee
making an unintentional error and deleting confidential information. [Security
and Risk Management]

16. D - A hot site is recommended as a recovery site since the requirement is to

begin operations within two hours of the disaster. Warm sites and cold sites do
not provide this level of turnaround and require much longer to become
operational. [Security and Risk Management]
17. B - Strategies are not part of the goals established while preparing a BCP/DR
plan. The goals usually contain key information such as: Responsibility,
Authority, Priorities, Implementation and testing [Security and Risk
Management]

18. C - Trade secrets are usually proprietary to the company. They are used to
create products, but they are not the products themselves. Copyrights protect the
products (such as software) from being sold as original works by some other
company. [Security and Risk Management]

19. D - Two events from two different systems can be very meaningful when
correlated together. This requires an accurate and precise time stamp on each of
them. [Security Operations]

20. A - Two parties communicating with each other can use digital signatures for
authentication purposes before accepting each other's public key. This will
allow them to securely authenticate each other and communicate safely. [Asset
Security]

21. D - For the given application, even if there is a node on the network which does
not receive the status information due to a dropped packet, it is acceptable since
it will receive it on the next update. Hence UDP is preferred in such cases. Using
TCP for this requirement may not be efficient since TCP requires a higher
overhead. [Communications and Network Security]

22. D - Understating the loss of revenue results in poor and inadequate readiness to
cope with disaster. The most obvious impact will be that the company will be
unable to restore customer service levels adequately in a manner required by
the business. [Security and Risk Management]

23. D - Unless employees sign or in some other way acknowledge that they have no
expectation of privacy, in most states they do have a legitimate (and legal)
expectation of privacy. To mitigate this risk, all employees should be required
to sign an acceptable use agreement as a condition of employment. [Security
and Risk Management]

24. A - Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) cable provides very little protection against
EMI. It contains insulated copper wires that are surrounded by an outer jacket.
The wires are twisted into pairs to provide protection against EMI. However,
UTP is more susceptible to EMI as compared to the other choices.
 [Communications and Network Security]

25. B - Use of a sandbox is a good control mechanism for mobile code. The
sandbox places a limit on the memory and resources available to a program. If
this is exceeded, an error is logged and the program is terminated. [Software
Development Security]

26. B - Using RBAC, roles are created for various job functions. Permissions to
perform certain operations are then assigned to specific roles. Anyone in the
role has the ability to access the resources needed. DAC and MAC do not
provide this flexibility. LDAP is a directory system, not an access methodology.
[Identity and Access Management]

27. B - War driving is a technique that is used on wireless networks. It involves

driving or walking around with a laptop and searching for unsecured wireless
networks. [Communications and Network Security]

28. D - When a biometric system accepts an individual who should have been
rejected, it is referred to as a Type II error or false acceptance rate. Type II
errors are dangerous, as an unauthorized individual obtains access to resources
that they should not have access to. [Identity and Access Management]

29. A - When a disaster strikes, the operational expenses will most likely increase
rather than decrease. All the other choices are correct and need to be included
as part of loss criteria. [Security and Risk Management]

30. A - When applying standards, all deviations should be recorded on a device-by-

device basis. This paper trail should be reviewed at least annually to ensure that
the device still matches the documented settings. One advantage of using a
standard is that all settings do not have to be recorded, only those that deviate
need to be recorded. [Security Operations]

31. D - When the credit card number of a cardholder is released into public
domain, the confidentiality of data or information is lost since the information
is now available to unauthorized people. In the other three instances, the
integrity of data is lost since the original value or content has been altered.
[Identity and Access Management]

32. D - When there is water-related damage in a data center, it is advisable to use

dehumidifiers of industry-strength to remove moisture. This will prevent the
 formation of mold which could cause problems and render equipment unusable.
[Security Operations]

33. A - War driving is a common attack on wireless networks and involves people
who try to identify Access Points (APs) and break into them. Best practices for
wireless LANs include disabling and not enabling 'broadcast SSID” on the
network. [Communications and Network Security]

34. A - System jumpstart is not a valid response. The other choices are valid
responses. System reboot happens when the system shuts itself down in a
controlled manner. Emergency restart happens after a system failure in an
uncontrolled manner. System cold start takes place if an unexpected kernel or
media failure takes place. [Security Operations]

35. B - Reciprocal agreements are alternatives to offsite facilities. Two companies

mutually agree to aid the other in the event of a disaster. This is a cheap option
but it may not always work out when an actual disaster strikes. [Security and
Risk Management]

36. A - While fiber-optic is impervious to EMI, it is an expensive option. Shielded

Twisted Pair (STP) provides protection against EMI and is comparatively
economical to implement. [Communications and Network Security]

37. A - Evidence that has been handled without proper controls would not be
admissible in court. [Security and Risk Management]

38. B - A security officer is responsible for data protection and is held liable in
case of any breach of data. [Security and Risk Management]

39. B - The main difference between compartmented security mode and the other
modes is that all users must have proper clearance for the highest level of data
classification in the system. In the other modes proper clearance is required for
all information in the system. [Security Engineering]

40. A - This incident may be part of an organized attack and hence appropriate
security procedures need to be followed to handle this. This method of attack is
often used to run background scripts to steal passwords, copy the entire email
history, etc. and email it to the hacker's address. [Security Operations]
Domain Area Test:
Security Operations
Practice Questions

Test Name: Domain Area Test: Security Operations

Total Questions: 15
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 11 (73.33%)
Time Allowed: 25 Minutes

Test Description

This practice test specifically targets your knowledge of the Security Operations
domain area.

Test Questions

1. Some personnel are trained in CPR and other procedures and stationed
throughout an organization to aid their colleagues when the need arises. What is
this group normally called?

A. Backup and recovery team

B. Disaster recovery team

C. Emergency response team

D. Business continuity team

2. Of the following, which is the most appropriate to include as part of an

Emergency Response Plan?

A. Detailed HVAC Diagrams

B. Server Passwords

C. Door Access Logs

 D. Evacuation Routes

3. Susan is driving by her office late one night and sees intruders attempting to
gain entrance through a darkened front window. She follows a procedure and
calls the control room, which is staffed on a 24 x 7 basis to report what she has
seen. What type of procedure would this be?

A. Control Reporting Plan

B. Incident Handling Procedures

C. Emergency Response Plan

D. Governance Procedures

4. Which of the following groups provides classifications and guidelines to

ensure the necessary level of protection in physical security?

A. Underwriters Laboratory (UL)

B. National Institute of Standards (NIS)

C. Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture (SABSA)

D. Laboratory Standards (LS)

5. Which of the following physical security controls are detective rather than
preventative?

A. Moat

B. Fence

C. CCTV

D. Six Wall Enclosure

6. Which of the following physical security schemes is comparatively expensive

to maintain?
 A. Flood Lighting

B. Guard Dogs

C. Perimeter Fencing

D. CCTV

7. For what class of fires would you use carbon dioxide (CO2)?

A. Class C and D

B. Class B and C

C. Class A and B

D. Class A and D

8. Which of the following power fluctuations results in a loss of power?

A. Spike

B. Brownout

C. Sag

D. Fault

9. While away on business you are forced to leave a company laptop unattended in
your hotel room for several hours. What would be the best method of securing
the sensitive data stored on this laptop from theft?

A. Maintain backups of the sensitive data in a secure location

B. Place the laptop in an unmarked bag

C. Have the laptop engraved with an ID number

D. Use encryption software to encrypt the sensitive data

10. Which type of lock allows for a certain amount of individual accountability?

A. Combination lock

B. Smart lock

C. Cipher lock

D. Electronic combination lock

11. A company has two feeder supplies for electrical power. In addition, it has a
provision for backup generators. Which of the following choices would offer
the best benefits while planning for backup in case of a power failure?

A. The generator room should be located close to the data center so that there
is minimum loss of power during transmission.

B. The two feeders should be connected to the same electrical station, but via
different paths.

C. The two feeders should be connected to two separate electrical stations.

D. The capacity of each generator should be equal to one quarter the maximum
load of the data center.

12. Locks act as delaying devices and hold up intruders if they are properly
installed. Which of these locks provides the highest level of security?

A. A tumbler lock

B. A warded lock

C. A grade III lock

D. A cipher lock

13. Lighting is an important aspect of security planning. In which of the following

situations is the lighting requirement incorrectly mentioned?

A. Lights used for protection in the exterior of buildings require less

 illumination intensity than those in the interior.

B. Lighting should be directed away from the gates and inwards to deter
intruders.

C. Locations where security guards physically verify identification credentials

should be brightly lit.

D. Guard locations should have lower amounts of illumination and should be

in the shadows.

14. Procedural security involves procedural controls within the company. Which of
the following procedural controls may require special consents from
employees?

A. Use of smartcards to access a data center

B. Use of CCTV to monitor personnel.

C. Use of security guards at the entrance of a facility

D. Use of guard dogs on the campus

15. An audit of physical security measure revealed vulnerabilities. It appeared that

the procedures were relaxed because the employees had a different
understanding than what was documented. What is the first step that should be
taken to overcome this?

A. Penalize employees who violate documented policies by linking violations

to the employees' salaries.

B. Have a policy of job-rotation so that the same employees do not handle the
same responsibility all the time.

C. Publicize security procedures so that all employees in the company are

aware of them.

D. Institute a security awareness program so that employees are aware of the

procedures.
Domain Area Test:
Security Operations
Answer Key and Explanations

1. C - An emergency response team is made up of volunteers who have been

trained in evacuation routes and life-saving techniques. Unlike a disaster
recovery team, they are not usually senior decision-makers. [Security
Operations]

2. D - An Emergency response plan (ERP) should be simple and easy to follow.

Evacuation routes need to be part of such a plan. Server passwords may not
really be part of an emergency response plan although they may be part of a
recovery plan. [Security Operations]

3. B - Any suspicious behavior is an incident. Incident handling procedures

typically detail out the set of activities to handle such incidents. In this scenario,
Susan has kicked off the procedures by informing the control center. [Security
Operations]

4. A - Underwriters Laboratory (UL) is a non-profit organization that provides the

necessary classifications and guidelines for physical security. This organization
inspects, tests and classifies various devices and equipment used in physical
security. [Security Operations]

5. C - Closed Circuit Television (CCTV) is a simple surveillance camera that is

usually monitored in real-time by a human (as opposed to a DVR type
recording device). It can only detect an attack, it does not specifically deter
attacks. [Security Operations]

6. B - Among the options listed, guard dogs are the most expensive to maintain.
[Security Operations]

7. B - Carbon dioxide (CO2) is used to put out class B and class C fires. It is bad
for most types of life forms since it works by removing oxygen from the air.
Hence a delay mechanism is often used so that CO2 is applied after people have
had time to evacuate. [Security Operations]

8. D - A fault is a type of power fluctuation that occurs when there is a momentary

loss of power. In contrast, a blackout is a type of power fluctuation that occurs
 when there is a prolonged, total loss of power. The other options listed are
situations where the voltage is above or below normal. [Security Operations]

9. D - In most cases it is best to never leave your laptop unattended. If you must
leave your laptop unattended for any extended period of time, the best way to
secure the sensitive data on the laptop hard drive would be to encrypt it. This
would ensure that the data is not accessible even if it is stolen. [Security
Operations]

10. B - A smart lock is a type of cipher lock that can allow for individual
accountability by assigning specific codes to each individual. Smart locks can
also be configured to allow certain codes access to the facility only at certain
times. [Security Operations]

11. C - The two electrical feeders should ideally be connected to different electrical
power stations else the whole purpose of having two feeders is lost. The other
choices don't help as much. Having two separate paths to the same station for
the feeders will not help in case of an outage at the power station. The generator
room should not be located near the data center and the total generator capacity
should be planned such that it can handle the load of the data center. [Security
Operations]

12. D - Cipher locks provide the best level of security. They are expensive
compared to traditional locks but they have a number of additional features
which makes them very desirable for office environments. [Security
Operations]

13. B - Lights should be directed towards an area from which an intruder is likely
to come, rather than away from it. Hence it should be directed at gates. The
other choices mentioned are correct uses of lighting. [Security Operations]

14. B - Use of CCTV to monitor personnel has the potential to violate the privacy
of individuals. Hence it needs specific consents from employees. [Security
Operations]

15. D - The first step would be to institute a security awareness program which
trains employees and increases their awareness of security policies. A key point
to note here is that some of the security policies will be on a need-to-know basis
so ALL security procedures cannot be publicized. Penalizing employees is too
drastic a step and may come in at a later stage. [Security Operations]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 9
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 9

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. Joe wants to exchange data with 100 other users using symmetric key
encryption. How many separate keys does Joe need to have?

A. 101 keys

B. 100 keys

C. 1 key

D. 99 keys

2. A computer data center hosts 10 servers. At any given time, it is expected that
only 1 server may fail. The cost of each of the servers is $ 10,000. The
frequency at which a server may fail in a year is 0.1. What would be the
annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the data center due to a file server
failure?

A. $10,000

B. $1,000

C. $100
 D. $100,000

3. A company has a trade secret that is proprietary to the company. The company's
business depends on this trade secret. What is the typical expiry period for trade
secrets?

A. 75 years

B. They never expire in most cases.

C. 10 years

D. 100 years

4. A high-speed LAN network needs to operate at 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps). Which of

the following technologies will support this?

A. Ethernet

B. 100VG-AnyLAN

C. FDDI

D. Token Ring

5. Which of the following correctly brings out the difference between a copyright
and a patent?

A. A copyright deals with the representation of an invention whereas a patent

deals with the actual subject matter of an invention.

B. A copyright deals with the actual subject matter of an invention whereas a

patent deals with the representation of an invention.

C. A copyright protects a specific resource whereas a patent protects a name,

shape, color or symbol.

D. A copyright deals with the actual subject matter of an invention whereas a

patent deals with something that is proprietary to the company.
6. For disaster and backup planning purposes, which of the following would not
be called a disaster impacting a company?

A. Introduction of a worm into a computer system

B. A financial emergency

C. A distributed denial of service attack (DDOS).

D. A hurricane that hits the facilities

7. The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is identified as 4 days for a business

operation. In such a case, which of the following recovery alternatives cannot
be used?

A. A warm site

B. A hot site

C. A cold site

D. A mobile site

8. A trigger event that most incident response and handling models consider as the
first step that starts off the process is called:

A. A flash

B. A rubric

C. A precursor

D. A triage

9. The operations team would like to use a backup method that allows quick
restores. They also have an additional criterion that the method should be cost-
effective. Which of these will fit the requirement?

A. A differential backup process

 B. An incremental backup process.

C. A full backup process

D. A pseudo-incremental backup process.

10. A company has facilities in the mid-west region in the US. This region is prone
to tornadoes. Since the processing done in the facilities is very critical, the
company decides to shift its facilities to a different region where tornadoes are
not active. This would be called:

A. A preventive measure.

B. A recovery objective

C. A crisis-management strategy

D. A recovery strategy.

11. An employee of a bank made changes to the software such that small sums of
money were diverted to his account from inactive accounts. Such an attack
would be labeled as:

A. Data diddling

B. Data manipulation

C. A rosalin attack

D. A salami attack

12. An inexperienced network engineer used a nearly obsolete identification

service which allowed a hacker to exploit certain security loopholes associated
with it. What is this likely to be?

A. Finger service

B. StopID service

C. NTP
 D. HAND service

13. Which of the following events is least likely to be the cause of a fire inside a
computer room?

A. A component on the motherboard of a computer catches fire due to the DC

current flowing through it.

B. A transformer coil in a UPS short-circuits and starts a fire.

C. The plastic surrounding an overheated component catches fire and this starts
a fire.

D. The wire insulation in an electrical line gets heated up and starts a fire.

14. An attack occurred on a computer network system and some data was
compromised. If the company proceeds to court and initiates action against the
attacker, which of the following people can testify and present their opinion of
the case?

A. A user of the application who first noticed the issue.

B. An expert witness

C. The security officer

D. The chief executive officer (CEO)

15. Company Z's systems are infected due to a virus attack through the network
systems of company Q. If company Z sues company Q, this would be termed as:

A. Downstream liability

B. System liability

C. A virus chain

D. Upstream liability

16. An auditor observed that the data center of a company was poorly secured and
 lacked necessary security controls to prevent unauthorized access. What activity
should be performed to correct this situation?

A. Access to the data center should be controlled.

B. The data center should be physically secured.

C. The data center security controls should be hardened.

D. The data center security controls should be softened.

17. Your company wishes to purchase some safes to store backup tapes and
valuable documents such as contracts. You would like to have added protection
against possible tampering of the safes. Which of these features should you
include?

A. Duplex relocking and anti-thermal functions

B. Passive relocking and thermal relocking functions.

C. Active relocking and Fire-safe functions

D. Realtime relocking and Fire protection functions

18. You are currently meeting with management to have them formally approve the
products, systems, and components within your organization. What is this
process usually called?

A. Affirmation

B. Certification

C. Verification

D. Accreditation

19. A security administrator is creating a procedure for setting up a new account

and giving out the password of the new account to employees. Which of the
following will best serve the purpose?
 A. After a new account is set up, a temporary password should be revealed to
the employee over telephone and the system should force the user to change
the password on first logon.

B. After a new account is set up, a standard temporary password should be

used. The system should then force the user to change the password on first
logon.

C. New accounts should be set up such that they do not require any password.
Once an employee is intimated about the account creation, she can change
the password on first logon.

D. After a new account is set up, the ID and the password should be emailed to
the supervisor or reporting manager of the employee. The manager can than
reveal the password to the employee.

20. Which of the following is a good operational practice?

A. Service accounts should not be allowed multiple log-on session capabilities,

but individual accounts should be allowed multiple-logon session facilities.

B. All service and individual accounts should not be allowed multiple log-on
session capabilities.

C. All service and individual accounts should be allowed multiple log-on

session capabilities.

D. Some service accounts may be allowed multiple log-on session capabilities,

but individual accounts should not be allowed multiple-logon session
facilities.

21. Which of the following best expresses the objective of having an access control
policy?

A. An access control policy should specify how users of resources are

identified, processes used to authenticate them, and the level of access they
must be granted to access resources.

B. An access control policy should specify authentication processes and the

level of access they must be granted to access resources.
 C. An access control policy should specify the level of access users must be
granted to access resources.

D. An access control policy should specify the tools used for authenticating
resources and the level of access users must be granted to access resources.

22. During an external audit of a company's information security, you find that
employees do not need to periodically change their passwords, and have access
to all servers in the company. This is very likely due to:

A. An error on the part of the security administrator.

B. Poor access control policies.

C. Employees needing to access all the data.

D. An open communication policy.

23. A company laid out a policy on how financial transactions and other
confidential information should be handled. This type of policy would be
classified as:

A. An advisory policy.

B. A mandatory policy.

C. An informative policy.

D. A regulatory policy.

24. You would like to ensure that in the event of a fire, the smoke is pushed
outwards rather inwards, if a door in your workplace is opened. Which of these
air-ventilation combinations would you select?

A. A closed-loop, recirculating air-conditioning system and using positive

pressurization.

B. A closed-loop, recirculating air-conditioning system and using negative

pressurization.
 C. An open-loop, recirculating air-conditioning system and using positive
pressurization.

D. An open-loop, recirculating air-conditioning system and using negative

pressurization.

25. If two systems need to transfer large amounts of data, which form of
communication is preferred?

A. Analog communication

B. Mixed-mode communication

C. Asynchronous communication

D. Synchronous communication

26. Two applications need to communicate with each other using full-duplex mode.
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) network model is
responsible for establishing the connection and controlling the release of the
connection?

A. Session layer.

B. Network layer.

C. Interface layer.

D. Transport layer.

27. A company has just completed a series of security training programs and has
covered about 95% of its employees. A good measure of the effectiveness of
this program would be to:

A. Obtain feedback from the employees on a clearly articulated scale of 1 to 5.

B. Check the retention of the course participants by sending out a questionnaire

1 year after the training.

C. Compare the number of security incidents reported before and after the
 training.

D. Artificially create some test situations and monitor the response of the
employees.

28. Which of the following types of languages provides better security and
enforces coding standards?

A. Low-level languages

B. Binary-level languages

C. High-level languages

D. Assembly-level languages

29. A risk analysis technique that obtains opinions from a group of experts,
requires no calculations and does not provide a cost/benefit analysis is:

A. Delphi technique

B. Quantitative risk analysis

C. Annualized loss expectancy

D. Automated risk analysis

30. Power failures could have disastrous consequences if not properly planned for.
Which of these backup options provides the best protection from power
failures?

A. Inverters

B. Battery packs

C. Online UPS systems

D. Standby UPS systems

31. A certain system required frequent granting and revoking of permissions. Why
 is a biometric means of authentication a poor choice for this system?

A. Revoking credentials is a key issue in biometrics.

B. Biometric devices are very expensive

C. Biometrics are unreliable in verifying credentials.

D. The danger that a hacker may misuse the system is very high.

32. A large organization decided to perform a penetration test of its network

systems. Which of these choices would be the most appropriate to test for
internal penetrations?

A. Black box penetration testing

B. Zero knowledge penetration testing

C. Full knowledge penetration testing

D. Partial knowledge penetration testing

33. While classifying the data in your company, how would you select a data
custodian and a data owner?

A. The data custodian is an IT role whereas the data owner is a business role

B. Both, the data custodian and the data owners are IT roles.

C. Both, the data custodian and the data owners are business roles.

D. The data custodian is an business role whereas the data owner is an IT role

34. You are responsible for a project which has just gone through the software
development life cycle (SDLC). For which of the following activities would
you need to get management sign-off?

A. Testing

B. Accreditation
 C. Certification

D. Build

35. As the security officer of a company, you are preparing a security program for
physical safety. Which of these will not be a major metric as part of your
security performance measurements?

A. Business impact of disruptions.

B. Number of unsuccessful crimes in the company.

C. Number of successful crimes in the company.

D. Number of employees who left the company the previous year.

36. A company deals with very sensitive and confidential information that needs to
be available with zero downtime. Which of these steps can it take to ensure that
it is completely able to provide this service even during a disaster?

A. By using a backup site.

B. By using a tertiary site.

C. By having a reciprocal agreement.

D. By having a warm site available.

37. Piggybacking is a common issue faced while using mantraps. Which of the
following is the best option to counter this?

A. By using a closed circuit camera

B. By using a weight-based biometric system.

C. By having a clear warning sign at the entrance that piggybacking is

prohibited.

D. By having a timing-based alarm circuit on the closure of the door.

38. In the financial sector, many software applications used by companies are
critical. Vendors do not provide the source code for these applications. How can
companies protect themselves from a scenario where the application vendor
goes bankrupt or out of business?

A. By having alternate software applications identified and ready to implement.

B. By signing non-disclosure agreements and insisting that the vendors supply

the source code.

C. By using a software escrow.

D. Through a trust mechanism.

39. An administrator failed to verify the authenticity / integrity of a patch and

downloaded a patch file for an application from a disreputable site. This caused
a host of issues by introducing a Trojan horse into the system. This could have
been avoided by:

A. Using a setting of auto-update mode to enable auto-installation of patches.

B. Researching the patch, verifying the authenticity of the download and

performing an integrity check.

C. Avoiding the use of patches unless they are obtained in CD/DVD format
directly from the vendor

D. Installing only the essential patches and omitting the non-essential ones.

40. An employee used a bootable USB flash drive to boot a workstation and copy
confidential information. How could this situation have been prevented?

A. By installing a BIOS password and setting up only specific drives as boot

drives.

B. By implementing a policy that employees should not be allowed to bring

USB flash drives onto the company campus.

C. By implementing CCTV to monitor all workstations.

D. By removing USB ports from all workstations.
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) – 9
Answer Key and Explanations

1. B - In symmetric cryptography, the sender and receiver will use two instances
of the same key to encrypt and decrypt. So if Joe needs to exchange data with
100 other people, he would need to have as many separate keys, so the correct
answer is 100. [Asset Security]

2. B - Since each server has a cost of 10,000, the total asset value of the servers in
the data center is 10 x 10,000 = $ 100,000. It is expected that only 1 out of 10
servers may fail at a time. Hence the exposure factor is 1/10 = 0.1 Hence, the
single loss expectancy (SLE) is given by asset value x exposure factor =
100,000 x 0.1 = $ 10,000. The frequency at which a server may fail in a year is
given as 0.1, hence the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) is 0.1. The
annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is given by SLE x ARO = 10,000 x 0.1 = $
1,000 [Security and Risk Management]

3. B - Trade secrets are proprietary to companies and vital for their survival. In
most cases, trade secrets do not expire. [Security and Risk Management]

4. A - Ethernet technology has developed over the years. Modern Ethernet

technology supports upto 1Gbps using UTP and is called 1000base-T Gigabit
Ethernet. [Communications and Network Security]

5. A - A copyright deals with the representation of an invention and protects the

rights of an author so that the original work may not be copied or reproduced.
In contrast, a patent deals with the actual subject matter of an invention and
grants individuals or companies legal ownership of the invention. [Security and
Risk Management]

6. B - A disaster would include anything that causes physical damage to the assets
of an organization. A financial emergency may not be classified as a disaster
for business continuity / disaster recover purposes. [Security and Risk
Management]

7. C - Cold sites cannot be used when the RTOs are less than a week. Cold sites
only consist of a shell location that does not have any supporting equipment.
While they are cost-effective, they do not serve the purpose for RTOs of less
than a week. [Security and Risk Management]
8. D - The trigger event that kicks off the incident handling process is called a
triage. This would be the first in the entire incident handling process with other
activities following it. [Security and Risk Management]

9. A - A differential backup process backs up files that have been modified since
the last time a full backup was done. The back up process takes longer than an
incremental backup, but is faster during a restore. [Security and Risk
Management]

10. A - This would be called a preventive measure. A company would do a

thorough investigation and analysis to arrive at such a decision. Since this will
ensure that the company is no longer in a tornado hit area, it is called a
preventive measure. This is usually taken up proactively. [Security and Risk
Management]

11. D - An attack in which the attacker commits a large crime, but does it in smaller
phases is called a salami attack. In such an attack, the attacker hopes to avoid
being discovered because insignificant amounts are involved in the individual
smaller crimes. [Security and Risk Management]

12. A - The finger service is an almost obsolete identification service. It can be

easily exploited and has raised many privacy and security concerns. It is no
longer used unless there is no alternative available. [Communications and
Network Security]

13. A - The DC voltage at the motherboard level is normally in the range of 3 to 5

volts. This is usually unlikely to cause fires. All the other options listed are
more likely to occur and cause fires. [Security Operations]

14. B - In a court of law, the opinion rule applies. As a result, witnesses may only
state facts pertaining to an issue and not their opinion. Only expert witnesses,
who are considered subject matter experts, may testify and present an opinion
of the issue. [Security and Risk Management]

15. A - This is termed as downstream liability. It is an important reason for

companies to take proper precautions and protect their networks and systems.
[Security and Risk Management]

16. C - System hardening should be performed on the data center. Hardening is a

process of securing the data center and would involve implementation of
 various security controls to prevent unauthorized access. Hardening is also
applied as a term when the security controls are increased. [Security
Operations]

17. B - A passive relocking function can detect if someone attempts to tamper with
the lock. When this happens, the mechanism causes extra bolts to fall in place. A
thermal relocking function can detect when a certain temperature is met. For
example if the lock is being drilled, its temperature will potentially rise. In such
a case, the lock automatically causes extra bolts to fall into place. [Security
Operations]

18. D - The accreditation process occurs after the certification process. It involves
meeting with management and presenting the information derived from the
certification process. This is done to have management formally approve the
products, systems, or components within the organization. When management
accredits the products, systems, and components within the organization they
are stating that they know the potential threats, vulnerabilities, and weaknesses
and are accepting the associated risks. [Security Engineering]

19. A - Once a new account is set up, it is preferable to use an out-of-channel

distribution method such as telephone to reveal the password to the employee.
The second level of security can be provided by forcing the employee to
change the password on first logon. Emailing passwords should be avoided
since they will then travel as plain text and may be potentially intercepted.
[Security Operations]

20. D - Some service accounts may be allowed multiple log-on session capabilities,
but individual accounts should not be allowed multiple-logon session facilities.
Preventing this facility will allow unauthorized sharing of accounts to be
detected. Further, if an account has been stolen, this will prevent access by the
attacker. [Security Operations]

21. A - An access control policy should specify how users of resources are
identified, authentication processes, and the level of access they must be granted
to access resources. It does not need to specify what tools are to be used for
authentication, and only provides a guideline on standards and best practices.
[Identity and Access Management]

22. B - This is most likely due to poor access control policies. Administering
access to users and controlling what they can access are key aspects of access
 control. [Identity and Access Management]

23. A - Policies which strongly advise employees on what behaviors and activities
are acceptable and what are not, along with the repercussions of violations,
would be classified as advisory policies. Handling of financial data and
confidential information comes under this umbrella of policies. [Security and
Risk Management]

24. A - A closed-loop recirculating system ensures that the air inside the building is
reused after proper filtration, instead of bringing in outside air. Positive
pressurization means that if a door opens, the air goes out and outside does not
come in. This is important in case of a fire when smoke should go out rather
than be pushed back in. [Security Operations]

25. D - When large amounts of data are involved, systems are usually setup to
transmit data synchronously. This involves the use of a clocking mechanism. In
contrast, asynchronous communication is preferred for small amounts of data.
[Communications and Network Security]

26. A - Application-to-application communication happens at the session layer. This

layer is responsible for setting up the connection between the applications and
controlling the release of the connection. [Communications and Network
Security]

27. C - A good indication of whether a security training program was effective or

not can be obtained by looking at details such as number of security incidents
before and after training. A decrease in number can point to effective training
whereas an increase likely means that the training has not done much to help.
[Security and Risk Management]

28. C - High-level languages provide better security and enforce coding standards.
They are also easier to use and can be used to produce code very fast. [Software
Development Security]

29. A - A risk analysis technique that obtains opinions from a group of experts,
requires no calculations and does not provide a cost/benefit analysis is the
Delphi technique. This is a type of qualitative risk analysis. [Security and Risk
Management]

30. C - Online UPS systems provide the best protection in case of power failures. In
 these systems, primary power passes through the UPS even for normal
operation. Hence they are ideally suited to detect power failures and supply
backup power from the battery pack when required. [Security Operations]

31. A - The key challenge in using biometrics is that the credential is tied down to a
user attribute as a result of which the process of granting / revoking accesses is
very cumbersome. Hence this is a poor choice for systems that require frequent
granting and revoking of accesses. [Identity and Access Management]

32. C - In full knowledge penetration testing, all information about the environment
is typically provided to the tester. Here the intent is to explore what can be done
rather than what can be discovered. Hence, this is appropriate in testing for
internal penetration and a greater level of information can be shared with the
testers. [Identity and Access Management]

33. A - The data custodian is an IT or security role and the personnel are
responsible for maintaining and protecting the data. In contrast, the data owner
is a business role and is typically the in-charge of a business unit. [Security and
Risk Management]

34. B - Accreditation is an activity that requires management authorization. This is

typically done after reviewing the certification. Intermediate phases of the
software development life cycle may not necessarily require management sign-
off. [Software Development Security]

35. D - Key metrics for a security program include the number of successful and
unsuccessful crimes and the business impact of disruptions. The attrition in the
company may not be a major metric in the company's security program.
[Security Operations]

36. B - A requirement that demands zero downtime needs to be available even in

case of a disaster. So, a backup site is a minimum requirement. In this case, it
would be logical to have a tertiary site which serves as a secondary backup site.
This will ensure that even if the backup site is down, the company can provide
its services. [Security and Risk Management]

37. B - A weight based system will be the most effective in countering piggy-
backing. The other options may not be as effective. A closed circuit camera may
also offer some protection, but it will require constant monitoring. [Security
Operations]
38. C - Such a situation is usually handled by using a third party escrow service
called software escrow. Agreements are drawn up such that a third party holds
the source code and the company gets access to the code only if the vendor goes
out of business. [Security and Risk Management]

39. B - Administrators need to make sure the source of a file is authentic by

researching a patch thoroughly. An integrity check needs to be performed to
ensure the file is not corrupted. This is particularly relevant since almost all
software vendors release patches to application software. [Software
Development Security]

40. A - Among the options listed, the option that will work best is the use of a BIOS
password. A “soft” policy may not deter a malicious employee from getting a
flash drive into the facility. Use of CCTV to monitor all workstations or
removing USB ports from all workstations is impractical. [Security
Engineering]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 10
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 10

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. An application programmer wrote a web program that used session cookies to

keep track of unsuccessful login attempts. If a user tried multiple times, the
session cookie value was decremented and the user would be locked out after 3
attempts. An attacker used web proxy software to change the number of
allowable attempts to 10000 and the application did not detect this. How could
this situation have been handled?

A. By using cleartext

B. By using hidden fields

C. By using post-validation control

D. By using adequate parameter validation

2. Which of the following access controls becomes unmanageable for large

applications / large environments?

A. Centralized access control

B. Access control matrix

 C. Role-based access control

D. Rule-based access control

3. The network administrator of a company is extremely busy and does not

change cryptographic keys used for encryption. The result is that all the keys
have remained unchanged for a year now. If the company deals with credit-card
data, what should be the preferred frequency of changing the keys?

A. Change the keys thrice a day

B. Change the key once a week

C. Change the keys once a quarter.

D. Change the keys once in a month

4. If you are looking for a software development model that is simple, offers a
fairly structured approach, works best for small teams, and allows for small,
fully integrated releases, the best choice is:

A. Waterfall model

B. Spiral Method

C. Cleanroom

D. Extreme programming

5. A company publishes a policy that an employee who uses a sniffer in an

unauthorized manner is liable to be fired, if detected. This type of policy is
called:

A. Corrective access control

B. Directive access control

C. Preventive access control

D. Deterrent access control

6. What is the benefit of using clustering in your enterprise data management
scheme?

A. Creates a single point of failure

B. Amount of data storage is increased

C. Scalability and redundancy

D. Requires less memory to operate

7. A hacker broke into a computer network and stole sensitive information. He

subsequently sold this to the company's competitor. Such acts would be tried
under:

A. Criminal law

B. Civil law.

C. Cyber-law

D. Regulatory law.

8. A database was designed to contain very critical and sensitive information. An

effective way to ensure that a hacker cannot obtain access to all the critical data
in one go is by dividing the database into different parts. This technique is
called:

A. Database duplication

B. Database partitioning

C. Database redundancy

D. Database mirroring

9. A company uses off-site storage as part of its business continuity strategy.

Regular backups are made on tapes and these are shipped off to off-site
locations where they are held securely. Which of the following will help in
improving its Recovery Time Objective (RTO) considering that the company
 does not require real-time response?

A. Storage Area Networks

B. Remote journaling

C. Electronic vaulting

D. Database mirroring

10. Which of the following is not an assessment used in vulnerability testing?

A. Physical testing

B. Personnel testing

C. System testing

D. Management testing

11. In a well-established security system, developers should have to access to which

of the following environments?

A. Development, quality assurance and production environments

B. Development and quality assurance environments

C. Development environment only

D. Development and production environments

12. The owner of certain data required specific users to access certain data and
granted them read permissions. However, the system determined that these users
should not have access to the data. This will happen in:

A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

B. Rule Based Access Control

C. Deterrent Access Control

 D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

13. Which of the following is a best practice to follow in designing the door to a
computer room, to prevent it from being broken down easily?

A. Doors should open inwards and there should be at least seven hinges per
door.

B. Doors should open outwards and there should be at least three hinges per
door.

C. Doors should open inwards and there should be at least three hinges per
door.

D. Doors should open outwards and there should be at least seven hinges per
door.

14. Which of the following is not a good practice in assigning userids or

identification values to users?

A. Each userid or value should be unique to provide accountability.

B. The userid or value should not be shared across users.

C. A standard nomenclature should be used for each userid or value.

D. The userid or value should be descriptive of the user's position.

15. Which of the following algorithms can only detect unintentional modifications
to messages?

A. Hash function

B. CBC-MAC function

C. JMAC function

D. HMAC function

16. Devices such as wireless equipment, cellular telephones may have limited
 processing capacity, power supply and bandwidth. If efficiency of use of
resources is a key factor, what type of encryption functionality may be used?

A. Knapsack

B. Elliptic Curve Cryptosystem (ECC)

C. El Gamal

D. RSA

17. An application requires a PIN to be encrypted in the fastest and easiest mode
using Digital Encryption Standard (DES) or another block cipher. The best
choice would be to use:

A. Electronic Block Chaining (EBC)

B. Electronic Code Book mode (ECB)

C. Cipher Feedback (CFB)

D. Cipher Block Chaining (CBC)

18. An optical disk was not properly purged, with the result that some of the
company data was leaked out to a competitor. What is the best way to purge an
optical disk?

A. Electroplating the disk surface

B. Grinding of the media surface

C. Degaussing the media

D. Zeroization of the media

19. Collisions occur when too many computers on the network transmit data at the
same time. This slows down the network performance. Which of the following
technologies does not suffer from this problem?

A. Fast Ethernet
 B. Token ring

C. Ethernet using star topology

D. Ethernet using bus topology

20. What are the two major disadvantages that processes using multi-threading run
into?

A. Deadlocks and Blocking

B. Failed RPCs and Buffer overflow.

C. Deadlocks and Failed RPCs

D. Deadlocks and Thread-drop

21. Fences act as an effective first line of defense and deter intruders. Which of the
following may be a poor practice while designing a fence?

A. The posts to which the fencing is connected should be deeply buried in the
ground.

B. Fences should be at least 8 feet high with razor wire at the top.

C. Fencing should extend into the ground in terrain that is soft.

D. Bushes should always be planted in front of fences so that the buildings

within are unnoticeable.

22. Which of the following security models does not address the issue of integrity?

A. Biba model

B. Clark-Wilson model

C. Bell-LaPadula model

D. Graham-Denning model
23. A hacker created an email attachment with a name that was greater than 64K in
length. The longer name overwrote program instruction code and caused issues
because the email application was only designed to handle 64K long filenames.
This could be avoided by:

A. Security control

B. Granular control

C. Cryptography

D. Implementing parameter checking

24. An employee was hired for a specific role and a regular background check was
performed. A year later, the employee is now being considered for a more
sensitive role. What would be the course of action required?

A. Perform a more detailed background check since the initial back-ground

check was just a regular one.

B. Nothing specific needs to be done. One year in the company is sufficient to

prove the employee's trustworthiness.

C. Consider alternatives for the role. Ideally look for an employee who has at
least 5 years of service in the company.

D. Have the employee sign a confidentiality agreement prior to starting his new
role.

25. If a system of a higher trust level needs to work with a very high level of
protection, what would be the best memory implementation to use?

A. Hardware segmentation of memory

B. Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory (EPROM)

C. Under privilege level

D. Cache memory
26. A security professional would like to ensure that the anti-virus system
implemented is proactive and detects new malware. Which of these techniques
should the anti-virus system incorporate?

A. Non-heuristic techniques

B. Signature based techniques

C. Behavior blocking techniques

D. Immunizer techniques

27. An administrator was subject to criminal and civil liability because he

authorized a certain type of activity. Which of these is it most likely to be?

A. Implementation of an IDS without informing the employees of the company.

B. Implementation of a mandatory vacation policy.

C. Use of keystroke monitoring as an audit trail.

D. Non-enforcement of a requirement to change the password every 30 days

28. Debbie communicates with 9 other people using symmetric cryptography. If

each one of them has to communicate securely with every other person, what is
the total number of keys involved?

A. 11 keys

B. 45 keys

C. 9 keys

D. 20 keys

29. Which of the following is typically the responsibility of a network

administrator and not that of a security administrator?

A. Creation and maintenance of user profiles

 B. Implementation of security devices.

C. Ensuring the availability of a system

D. Setting initial passwords for users

30. Which of the following choices correctly represents an action dictated by the
chain of custody evidence?

A. After a backup of a compromised server is made, it can be restored to

normal application immediately.

B. In a computer crime, the hard disks and media are the most important pieces
of evidence.

C. All evidence in a cyber-crime should be properly backed-up.

D. All evidence in a cyber-crime should be properly labeled with information

indicating the person who secured and validated it.

31. The Golay code is a 24-bit error-correcting and detecting code. Where might
this be used to ensure that data processed is accurate?

A. In a secondary control

B. In an input control

C. In an auxiliary control

D. In an output control

32. Which of the following models enforces separation of user duties?

A. Information flow model

B. Bell-LaPadula model

C. Biba model

D. Clark-Wilson model
33. Certain information that was once sensitive and confidential is no longer
confidential. What should be the next course of action?

A. The information should be de-classified to ensure that excess protection is

not applied to non-sensitive documents.

B. The information should be de-rated to ensure that excess protection is not

applied to non-sensitive documents.

C. Information which was once confidential should continue to be held

confidential. Hence no action should be taken.

D. The information should be destroyed so that it is no longer accessible.

34. Network Address Translation (NAT) was developed because IP addresses were
running out and the address space needed to be extended. Which of the
following implementations will help resolve the address issue?

A. IPv6

B. IPv8

C. IPv5

D. IPv4

35. Two users have exchanged communication using a symmetric algorithm. If the
sender challenges the communication and says that he/she did not send the
message, how can this be proved or verified?

A. This cannot be verified. A symmetric algorithm does not provide

nonrepudiation.

B. It can be easily verified that a message was sent by a particular sender, since
the sender's key and the receiver's keys are different

C. This can be verified by a third party who has access to the keys held by both
users.

D. The keys are known only to the sender and the recipient. So, neither the
 sender nor the recipient can repudiate the fact that he/she sent the message.

36. A network administrator needed to connect two machines that were located at a
distance of 250 meters. She used an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) in a single
cable segment to make the connection, however she found that the machines
were unable to communicate. What is the likely issue?

A. It is likely that the cable was frayed and lost continuity. The administrator
should look at replacing the cable.

B. When UTP cable is used in segments greater than 100 meters, the signal gets
attenuated and the communication breaks down.

C. This is most likely a network settings issue and the administrator needs to
check the settings.

D. When UTP cable is used in segments greater than 200 meters, the signal gets
attenuated and the communication breaks down.

37. Virtual memory uses hard drive space and 'extends' memory through a process
of page swapping. It also has its own set of security issues. Which of the
following is not an issue associated with virtual memory?

A. It is possible that even when a process is terminated, pointers to the data are
present in the hard disk space. These could potentially be retrieved and
misused.

B. It is possible that in the process of using virtual memory space on the hard
disk, critical data on the non-virtual memory areas of the hard-disk could
get overwritten.

C. It is possible that an attacker may gain access to the hard disk space and copy
the data even as the process is executing.

D. It is possible that a controlling program has written unencrypted data to disk

while using it as virtual memory, and this could be potentially compromised.

38. Which of the following is not correct about Secure European System for
Applications in a Multi-Vendor Environment (SESAME)?
 A. It offers access control based on roles.

B. It offers SSO with additional distributed access controls.

C. Components are not accessible through Kerberos v5 protocol.

D. It uses public key cryptography to distribute private keys.

39. A publicly listed company was due to announce its quarterly results in a few
days' time. How would the company classify information pertaining to its
results, prior to the day of the results?

A. It would be classified as private.

B. It would be classified as sensitive.

C. It would be classified as confidential.

D. It would be classified as public.

40. How would responsibilities be divided in a good application programming

setup?

A. Software developers should focus on functionality and the security team

should focus on the functionality and security of the program.

B. Software developers should focus on functionality and the security team

should focus on the security of a program.

C. Software developers should focus both on functionality as well as security

of a program.

D. Modern application development environments automatically take care of

security requirements, so software developers only need to focus on
functionality.
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 10
Answer Key and Explanations

1. D - This situation could have been avoided by proper input parameter

validation. If the session cookies are the only means of validation, it opens up
the application to brute-force attacks. [Software Development Security]

2. B - An access control matrix (ACM) is a table structure of an access control list.

Users, data and permissions are identified and incorporated into the matrix.
This becomes unmanageable for very large systems. [Identity and Access
Management]

3. B - A general rule of cryptography is that the more often a key is used, the
more likely it is that it can be captured and misused. In the case of a credit-card
company, the company may need to go in for a change of all keys once a week.
The other frequencies mentioned won't work. Changing them thrice a day is an
overkill and once a month or a quarter is too infrequent. [Asset Security]

4. D - Extreme programming meets the criteria listed. Typically, this model works
best for small-size teams of less than 12 people. It relies on sub-projects of
limited and clearly-defined scope. [Software Development Security]

5. D - This is a deterrent access control. Users are discouraged from using

sniffers because they are aware of the potential punishment they may receive, if
detected. [Identity and Access Management]

6. C - With clustering technology, multiple servers are connected to form a

“cluster” of computers. Clustering prevents the failure of a single file server
from denying access to data and adds computing power to the network for a
large number of users. [Security Operations]

7. A - Such acts would normally be tried under criminal law since information
was stolen and misused. The other types of law would not apply in this case
since a crime has been committed. [Security and Risk Management]

8. B - This is termed as database partitioning and makes it very hard for an

unauthorized individual to obtain access to the complete set of data. [Software
Development Security]
 C - Electronic vaulting is a good option for companies which use off-site
9. locations for their backups and have an RTO of 3 to 5 days. [Security and Risk
Management]

10. D - Management testing is not an assessment used in vulnerability testing. The

other choices are valid. [Identity and Access Management]

11. C - Developers should only have access to the development environment and
should not be able to access the quality assurance and production environments.
This will ensure that these two environments are protected from accidental
changes as well as malicious attacks. [Software Development Security]

12. A - This would happen in a Mandatory Access Control System. In spite of the
owner of the data clearing users, the system still determines whether they
should or not have access. [Identity and Access Management]

13. B - As a best practice, doors should be designed to open outwards. This will
prevent them from damaging equipment that may be inside. Doors should also
have at least three hinges per door and be fixed to adjoining walls securely.
[Security Operations]

14. D - Using identity values or userids that represent a user's role or task is a poor
practice. Userids such as 'operator', 'purchasemanager', 'administrator' etc
should be avoided. This is to ensure that the purpose of an account is not
revealed in the identity value. A standard nomenclature such as
lastname.firstname is often used for userids. [Identity and Access Management]

15. A - In a Hash based algorithm, the receiver can compare a hash of the message
digest with the value that was transmitted with the message. If these are
different, he/she will know that the message was modified. [Asset Security]

16. B - Elliptic Curve Cryptosystems (ECC) require a much smaller percentage of

the resources used by other algorithms and RSA. ECC provides similar levels
of protection as RSA with a key size that is shorter. Hence it is preferred for
wireless device or cellular telephone applications. [Asset Security]

17. B - Electronic Code Book mode (ECB) is the fastest and easiest mode to use. It
is typically used only for encrypting small amounts of data like PIN numbers or
keys because it produces the same block of ciphertext given a block of plaintext
and for a given key. [Asset Security]
18. B - Grinding the data side of the optical disk such that the media is rendered
unreadable is a very effective way of destroying it. At a minimum, the grinding
can be used to scratch the surface to such an extent that the media is rendered
unreadable. [Security Operations]

19. B - Token ring technologies do not have the issue of collisions since in a token
ring, only the computer which has the 24-bit token can transmit data. However,
this is achieved at the cost of speed and token rings are slower compared to
Ethernet. [Communications and Network Security]

20. A - Two common problems which occur with processes using multi-threading
are deadlocks and blocking. Deadlocks occur when two processes vie for the
same resource. Blocking occurs when a process attempts to perform a read or a
write on an input-output device and is not able to successfully exit. [Security
Engineering]

21. D - Planting of bushes in front of fences may not be good practice. Over a
period of time they could damage the fencing. It is also possible that the
integrity of the fencing could be impacted. [Security Operations]

22. C - The Bell-LaPadula model was primarily designed to address confidentiality

and does not address the integrity of the data. [Security Engineering]

23. D - Such situations can be avoided by implementing parameter checking. This

would involve checking input for length, matching data-type, format and
forbidden characters. [Software Development Security]

24. A - When an employee is being considered for a more sensitive role, it may be
required to perform a more detailed background check since the earlier one
was a regular one, probably at a lower-level. Longevity in the company may be
a parameter as well, however 1 year is not sufficient to do away with the more
detailed background check. [Security and Risk Management]

25. A - In hardware segmentation of memory, memory is physically separated

instead of just being logically separated. As a result, this adds a high level of
protection and prevents a lower-privileged access from modifying memory
used by a higher-privileged access. [Security Engineering]

26. C - Behavior blocking techniques analyze sequences of code in advance and can
potentially identify malicious viruses. It is considered a proactive technique.
 Heuristic detection is another proactive technique. [Software Development
Security]

27. C - Keystroke monitoring is associated with privacy issues. Of the choices

listed, this is the choice that is most likely associated with criminal and civil
liabilities. This may happen if employees are not properly informed that they
are being monitored or liable to be monitored. [Identity and Access
Management]

28. B - In symmetric cryptography, each set of users would need to use a separate
set of keys. Therefore, the total number of keys required would be 45. This is
given by the formula Total number of keys = n x (n-1) /2 where n is the total no.
of people communicating. For ex: If 2 people communicate, you require 2 x (2-
1)/2 = 2 keys and if 10 people communicate, you require 10 x (10-1)/2 = 45
keys [Asset Security]

29. C - The network and security administrator have different responsibilities

although there is a tendency to overlap. The network administrator is
responsible for network or resource availability and for responding to user
needs for functionality. In contrast a security administrator may actually
introduce processes and checks and balances, which decrease performance.
[Security Operations]

30. D - All evidence in a cyber-crime should be properly labeled with information

indicating the person who secured and validated it. This is one of the steps
required in providing strong evidence of the crime and proper handling of the
evidence. [Security and Risk Management]

31. B - Contamination of data can occur in multiple ways - while going into or out
of a system. Error detection and correction is an input control and the Golay
code can be used for this. The Golay code is a highly reliable one and is used
for applications involving satellite / digital communications. [Software
Development Security]

32. D - The Clark-Wilson model outlines how separation of duties is to be

incorporated in an application. For example, if a user requires to do a certain
approval that exceeds a certain value, the system may require this to be routed
via a supervisor first. [Security Engineering]

33. A - In order to ensure that there is no undue effort and security around
 protecting non-essential information, the information should be de-classified in
an orderly manner. [Security Operations]

34. A - IPv6 is the next generation of IP addressing and has a very large address
space, addressing the limitations of IPv4 addressing. However, its
implementation has been very slow because of interoperability issues.
[Communications and Network Security]

35. A - Cryptography does not provide nonrepudiation (or authenticity). It only

provides confidentiality of a message between two users. [Asset Security]

36. B - If UTP cable is used, the maximum cable segment it can be used for is 100
meters. After this attenuation occurs. So, the network administrator will need to
use a repeater or an amplifying device for lengths beyond 100 meters. This is
likely to be the issue. [Communications and Network Security]

37. B - It is highly unlikely that virtual memory on hard disk overwrites any good
data on the hard disk. The virtual memory and page swapping process is tightly
controlled. The other three scenarios listed are security issues associated with
the use of virtual memory. [Security Engineering]

38. C - SESAME is a European Research and Development project intended to

address some of the limitations of Kerberos. It is an extension of Kerberos and
components are accessible via Kerberos v5 protocol. The other choices are
attributes of SESAME. [Identity and Access Management]

39. B - Information within the company can be classified as public, sensitive,

confidential or private. In the case of such financial information related to a
company's quarterly results, it would typically be classified as sensitive, prior
to the declaration of results. [Security and Risk Management]

40. C - Security is always an important consideration in application development. It

is the responsibility of software developers to focus on both application
functionality as well as security of a program. [Software Development Security]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 11
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 11

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (0.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. All users in a system have security clearance to access the information in the
system but do not necessarily have a need to know all the information
processed in the system. This is typical of:

A. System High-Security Mode

B. Compartmented Security Mode

C. Multi-level Security Mode.

D. Dedicated Security Mode

2. An organization is located in the US. In which of the following situations is the

organization better suited to handle a disaster and ensure continuity of
operations?

A. Multiple offices located in different parts of the US.

B. Multiple buildings on the same campus

C. Multiple offices in the same city.

 D. Multiple floors in the same building.

3. An operating system is designed such that it can handle requests from several
different processes loaded into memory concurrently. This type of operation is
called:

A. Multitasking

B. Multiprocessing

C. Multithreading

D. Multiprogramming

4. If data hiding is a key feature that you are looking for in an operating system,
what type of operating system should you look for?

A. Multiprocessing operating systems

B. Flat operating systems

C. Monolithic operating system

D. Layered operating system

5. Sally is heading a risk assessment team for her company. She is looking at the
various methodologies that she can choose from. Which of the following will
not be part of her list of choices?

A. PRISM

B. NIST SP 800-30

C. CRAMM

D. OCTAVE

6. A disaster struck a company but the company was effectively prepared and put
its disaster recovery plan into place and moved to a backup site. The original
facility was destroyed and had to be rebuilt over a period of 3 months. Which of
 the following functions should be moved first to new facility?

A. The most critical function

B. The least critical function

C. Move all functions simultaneously

D. None. Operate out of the backup location for at least 1 year before moving.

7. The biggest disadvantage of Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is:

A. Standardized functionality is not easy to accomplish. For example, if a user

were to lose his private key, he needs to inform everyone else trusting his
public key that his private key can no longer be trusted.

B. It is a proprietary software, very expensive and is not as popular as some

other options available.

C. Once a user is fixed at a certain trust level, it can never be changed. This
causes a hierarchy of trust and becomes unmanageable.

D. It has a central leader and all changes need to pass through this central
leader. This makes it cumbersome to handle changes.

8. A user wishes to inappropriately access an object to which he has no access. He

does this by accessing another program to which he has access, which in turn
has access to the object, and manages to get at some confidential data. This kind
of a situation can be avoided by:

A. One-way access rule

B. Control of environment

C. Adequate granularity of controls.

D. Separation of duties

9. Which of the following is a type of urban camouflage that makes it difficult for
attackers to target a company?
 A. Use of padlocks

B. Limited or no use of flood lights

C. Small or no logo on building

D. Use of fake signboards

10. As a vendor, you need to provide periodic patches or updates to a product. Your
customers would like to be sure that they are downloading the patches from the
legitimate site. Further, they would like to ensure that the integrity of the
download has not been compromised. An effective way to do this is through the
use of:

A. Symmetric cryptography

B. Digital signatures.

C. Asymmetric cryptography

D. PGP

11. An administrator found that there were numerous telnet calls to computers on
the network and wanted to ensure that this was turned off. Which port needs to
be disabled to prevent telnet connections?

A. Port 23

B. Port 21

C. Port 25

D. Port 80

12. You are assigned the responsibility of performing a risk analysis to ensure that
security is properly addressed in your organization. The first step would be to:

A. Perform asset valuation

B. Prepare a cost/benefit comparison.

 C. Carry out project sizing

D. Prepare a contingency plan

13. A programmer wrote poor code that resulted in multiple tuples (rows) in a
database having the same primary key value. What kind of integrity does this
violate?

A. Semantic integrity

B. Program integrity

C. Referential integrity

D. Entity integrity

14. As part of an application development project, the project did an analysis

related to the risk of the project failing. This would be termed as:

A. Security risk analysis

B. Project risk analysis

C. Project success analysis

D. Application failure analysis

15. Which of the following Wide Area Network (WAN) technologies avoids the
problem of using a CAT-3 cable?

A. ADSL

B. Cable modem

C. RADSL

D. PSTN

16. Redundancy planned for a system required data storage in excess of five
hundred terabytes and mostly needed to carry out a write operation. An
 effective option in this case would be to use:

A. SAN

B. MAID

C. RAIT

D. RAID

17. Virtual memory usually refers to the hard-disk being used as swap space. This
is typically the slowest of the types of memories used. Which one is the fastest?

A. Secondary memory

B. Cache memory

C. RAM

D. Main memory

18. A redundancy option using only hard disks proves very expensive, while use of
tapes makes it a very slow option. Which of the following provides an effective
solution combining the two technologies?

A. Redundant Array of Independent Tapes (RAIT)

B. Random Storage Management (RSM)

C. Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM)

D. Direct Access Tape Storage (DATS)

19. Jon is an administrative assistant in the corporate department of a company. His

role involves printing out company reports. What sort of access rights should
Jon be given to the LAN server where the files reside?

A. Execute privileges

B. Write privileges
 C. Read, write and execute privileges

D. Read privileges

20. In order to achieve a Recover Time Objective (RTO) of zero or near-zero, what
sort of a backup site should be planned?

A. Cold site

B. Reciprocal arrangement

C. Hot site

D. Warm site

21. Which of the following will be a very important consideration for the
management team of a company that is currently doing business continuity and
disaster recovery planning for its operations?

A. Cost/Benefit analysis

B. Regulatory issues

C. Minimizing cost

D. Legal issues

22. You receive an emergency call that a server has been compromised. What is the
first step that you would advise to be done?

A. Power down the server

B. Isolate the server from the network

C. Backup the data on the server

D. Re-install the data on the server from the most recent backup.

23. A security professional has shortlisted various options for access control.
Which of these has a high degree of security, is tamper-resistant, and can store
 personal information?

A. Smart cards

B. Retinal scanners

C. Iris scanners

D. RSA cards

24. The risk analysis team has come up with a set of findings and identified certain
threats. The information security team puts up a contingency plan in place so
that the company can continue to function if that threat takes place. This would
be termed as:

A. Risk acceptance

B. Risk reduction

C. Risk mitigation

D. Risk transfer

25. When IPSec is used in transport mode, what is the only part of the message that
is encrypted?

A. Authentication Header

B. Routing Header

C. Symmetric Public Payload

D. Payload

26. An initialization vector is used as the initializing input algorithm to encrypt a

cleartext sequence. The initialization vector would be considered as:

A. Non-secret

B. Non-secret but private

 C. Secret

D. Secret, but known between the two communicating parties.

27. For the highest level of protection using IPSec, which mode would you use?

A. Secure mode

B. Tunnel mode

C. Transport mode

D. Network mode

28. While setting up security measures and controls, what should be the level of
transparency of these measures to users?

A. Security controls and measures should not be transparent. The users should
be completely aware of their existence.

B. Security controls and measures should be completely transparent. The users

should not be aware of their existence.

C. Security controls and measures should be transparent only to a degree. The

users should be aware of their existence.

D. Security controls and measures should be completely transparent but the

users should be aware of their existence.

29. Network systems personnel in a company notice that the system performance
has degraded considerably. They attribute this to cross-talk. Which of the
following cabling would be the first suspect?

A. Shielded cables

B. B. UTP cables

C. Co-axial cables

D. Optic fiber cables

30. A network may come under denial-of-service attack and get overloaded due to
the excessive traffic generated. Which of these following options will not work
as a countermeasure against such attacks?

A. A. Shifting of IP address by the target.

B. B. Load balancing

C. C. Redundant network

D. D. Installation of a DMZ

31. Testing out a business continuity/disaster recovery plan is a very important

aspect of the planning. What kind of testing should be carried out to verify that
the alternate facility actually works, without impacting current operations?

A. Walk-through testing

B. Full-Interruption testing

C. Simulation testing

D. Parallel testing

32. Which protocol relies on a “web of trust” for its key management approach
instead of a hierarchy of certificate authorities?

A. SSL

B. PGP

C. RSA

D. Deffie-Hellman

33. A wireless network can be a vulnerability and allow unauthorized users to

access a company's networks. What should be the first point of defense/action in
preventing unauthorized users from getting into the network?

A. Strong perimeter security

 B. The access point's signal should be hidden.

C. Weak signal strength

D. Authentication

34. The landscaping of a company's premises often includes furnishings such as

benches and tables placed outdoors. What is the purpose of these furnishings?

A. Such furnishings encourage people to 'lounge' and watch what is going on

around them. This deters criminal activity.

B. Such furnishings can be used to install concealed cameras. This deters

criminal activity.

C. This is usually a HR program that allows employees to take a break from

work in a secure setting.

D. It is mandated by city laws that all companies need to provide for such
furnishings.

35. Collusion is a threat in which two people within an organization work together
to defraud the company. Which of the following controls will be ineffective
against such a threat?

A. Use of confidentiality agreements

B. Rotation of duties

C. Supervision

D. Pre-employment background checks

36. One of the protective mechanisms implemented by CPUs is use of different

execution modes. By doing so, the operating system can ensure that certain
types of instructions may not be executed in a lower execution mode. Which of
the following would typically operate in the lowest execution mode?

A. Kernel mode
 B. User mode

C. Supervisor mode

D. Privileged mode

37. Which of the following techniques would you not consider while performing
qualitative risk analysis?

A. A. Checklists

B. B. Surveys

C. C. Cost / benefit analysis

D. D. Delphi technique

38. An IDS software was not properly configured. As a result, the IDS continually
identified many activities as suspicious and the workload became unmanageable
for the administrator. What can be done to manage this situation better?

A. The administrator should set a clipping level. The IDS should raise alerts
only if the clipping level is crossed.

B. The administrator should set a beeping level. The IDS should raise alerts
only if the beeping level is crossed.

C. The administrator should set a lower level. The IDS should raise alerts only
if the lower level is crossed.

D. The administrator should set a tripping level. The IDS should raise alerts
only if the tripping level is crossed.

39. Which of the following determines whether a strong encryption method should
be used?

A. The sensitivity of the data being encrypted.

B. The algorithm
 C. The length of the key

D. The initialization vectors

40. A risk assessment team has just performed quantitative risk analysis on the
assets of a company. The team found that the annualized rate of occurrence
(ARO) values were 0.01, 0.1, 0.99 and 1.01 respectively for four of the assets.
To which of these assets should the company give the highest priority?

A. The data provided is insufficient to determine which asset is the highest

priority.

B. The asset with the ARO of 1.01

C. The asset with the ARO of 0.01

D. The asset with the ARO of 0.99

CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 11
Answer Key and Explanations

1. A - This is typical of System High-Security Mode. This mode requires all users
to have a very high level of clearance since they can access all data on the
system. [Security Engineering]

2. A - From a disaster recovery angle, the best option is to have multiple offices in
different parts of the US. This addresses the issue of business availability, and it
is easier to service customers. Having multiple floors in the same building, or
using a different building on the same campus, or another office in the same
city has the risk that they may also be struck by the same disaster. [Security and
Risk Management]

3. A - If an operating system is able to handle requests from different processes

that are loaded in memory, it is referred to as multitasking. [Security
Engineering]

4. D - Data hiding is achieved in layered operating systems where the instructions

and data at various layers do not have direct access to instructions and data of
other layers. [Security Engineering]

5. A - All the choices listed are valid risk assessment methodologies except
PRISM. [Security and Risk Management]

6. B - It is preferred that the least critical function be moved into the rebuilt
facility first. Any problems in configurations, setup, network connectivity can
be thoroughly investigated first, before moving in the critical functions.
[Security and Risk Management]

7. A - The biggest disadvantage of PGP is that standardized functionality is

difficult to achieve. For example, if a user were to lose his private key, he needs
to inform everyone else trusting his public key that his private key can no
longer be trusted. [Asset Security]

8. C - Such access control issues can be addressed by introducing adequate

granularity of controls. These will then address both the program and the user
and their access requirements. [Software Development Security]
 C - Using a very small logo or no identification at all on a building serves as a
9. type of urban camouflage. This makes it harder for attackers to target a
building. The other options do not necessarily provide any camouflage. Use of
fake signboards may be prohibited by law. [Security Operations]

10. B - Digital signatures are used for this purpose and can be used to ensure both
integrity of a download and legitimacy of the site from which it was
downloaded. [Asset Security]

11. A - The Telnet port is 23 and can be disabled to prevent telnet sessions from
being established. The other ports given represent the following protocols:
SMTP - 25, HTTP - 80, and FTP -21. [Communications and Network Security]

12. C - The first step in carrying out a risk analysis would be to carry out a project
sizing. This is a very essential step and can mean the difference between project
success and failure. It helps understand what assets and threats should be looked
at and evaluated. If this step is not done properly, the project could end being
budgeted wrongly. It may appear that the first step is to prepare a cost/benefit
comparison, but that is a later step. [Security and Risk Management]

13. D - This violates entity integrity which necessitates that no two rows or tuples in
a database table can have the same primary key values. [Software Development
Security]

14. B - This is an instance of project risk analysis. This is different from security
risk analysis which is more concerned with risks and consequences that a
customer may face when using a particular product being developed. [Software
Development Security]

15. B - A CAT-3 cable is a copper cable that connects phones to a central office
(CO). PSTN, RADSL and ADSL technologies ride on the copper cable to
connect to a network. The cable modem based network uses a different
technology. [Communications and Network Security]

16. B - A Massive array of inactive disks (MAID) suits this requirement. A MAID is
especially suited for a requirement that involves write operations for the most
part and has storage requirement in excess of hundreds of terabytes. [Security
Operations]

17. B - Among the choices listed, cache memory is the fastest in operation. Cache
 memory is very fast and is the place where information needed by a processor
can quickly be retrieved. The memory manager component of an operating
system manages the memory and ensures proper access control so that
processes are able to only access memory that they have access privileges to.
[Security Engineering]

18. C - Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is a technology which combines

expensive hard drives and slower tape drives in a very effective manner and
provides a cost-effective solution. [Security Operations]

19. D - Jon should be given Read privileges to the files. This will ensure that Jon
cannot alter the files in any way or obtain a copy of it. If Jon is given write /
update access, then he could maliciously or inadvertently alter/delete the files.
This is in line with the least-privilege principle of access control. [Identity and
Access Management]

20. C - An RTO of near zero means that the company should be able to shift
operations very quickly and start at the new site. This can be achieved by using
a hot site. [Security and Risk Management]

21. A - Management is primarily concerned with looking at Cost/Benefit

considerations and would like to ensure that the expenditure on business
continuity and disaster recovery activities is a trade-off. On legal and
regulatory issues, the company will not have much choice but to comply with
them. [Security and Risk Management]

22. B - The first step is to take the server offline and isolate it from the network.
The next steps should be to preserve the evidence. [Security and Risk
Management]

23. A - The correct response is smart cards. They have a high degree of security,
are tamper-resistant, and can store personal information very effectively
because of a microprocessor and integrated chip embedded in the card. [Identity
and Access Management]

24. B - This would be termed as risk reduction. A contingency plan will reduce
damages if a threat actually takes place. [Security and Risk Management]

25. D - When IPSec is used in transport mode, only the payload portion of the
message is encrypted. [Asset Security]
26. A - The initialization vector is usually non-secret and increases security by
introducing additional cryptographic variances. [Asset Security]

27. B - IPSec works in either tunnel mode or transport mode. Tunnel mode is very
secure since the payload along with routing/header information are all
protected by encryption. An attacker will be unable to view any of the
information. [Asset Security]

28. C - Security controls and measures should be transparent to a certain degree.

The users should be aware of their existence but should not know the complete
details. This will prevent them from working out a strategy to counter the
controls. [Security Operations]

29. B - UTP cabling is very vulnerable to cross-talk. This is because it lacks the
extra layers of shielding that the other cables have. Hence any electrical
impulses being transmitted through UTP can interfere with those being
transmitted in adjacent cables. This will result in degraded performance.
[Communications and Network Security]

30. D - A DMZ will prevent inbound connections if the firewall is properly setup.
However, it cannot counter against denial-of-service attacks which strikes at
network availability by generating excessive traffic. [Communications and
Network Security]

31. D - A parallel test should be carried out to verify that the alternate facility
actually works, without impacting current operations. This can be followed by
appropriate tweaking or adjustments to the alternate site and processes.
[Security and Risk Management]

32. B - PGP is used as an e-mail security program and relies on a “web of trust” for
its key management approach instead of certificate authorities. Users will
generate and distribute their own public keys and they will sign each other's
public keys to determine who will trust each other. With a certificate authority
hierarchy, no one trusts each other. They only trust the CA. [Asset Security]

33. D - The first strong defense employed by a company against unauthorized

people getting in through a wireless network is authentication. The other
options are not solutions to address the vulnerability of wireless networks.
[Communications and Network Security]
34. A - Such furnishings encourage people to 'lounge' and watch what is going on
around them. This puts off criminals since they feel their actions are likely to be
watched. [Security Operations]

35. A - Use of confidentiality agreements may not deter employees from colluding.
All the other controls mentioned will help prevent collusion. [Security
Operations]

36. B - User mode typically would have the least privileges and operate in the
lowest execution mode. Operating systems are designed such that they execute
user programs in a lower privileged mode, ensuring that some of the CPU's
instructions are not available to the application. [Security Engineering]

37. C - Cost/benefit analysis is a quantitative technique and would not be considered

while performing qualitative risk analysis. [Security and Risk Management]

38. A - The baseline level which an administrator sets up is called the clipping
level. The administrator can set this up on the IDS such that the IDS will notify
the administrator of any detections beyond the threshold of the clipping level.
[Security Operations]

39. A - Selection of a strong encryption method will be influenced by the nature of

the data. Hence, a stronger method will be used for very sensitive data. [Asset
Security]

40. A - The annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the
frequency with which a particular threat will occur in a given year's time-frame.
Knowing the ARO values for a set of assets is not sufficient to determine which
asset is to be given priority. The single loss expectancy (SLE) is required to
arrive at the annualized loss expectancy (ALE). This can then drive the
company's priorities. [Security and Risk Management]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 12
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 12

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. A bank's online banking software is a product from an established product

vendor. The bank has a requirement of high availability for the online system
and it is extremely concerned that a crisis may arise in case the product vendor
is unable to support it (the bank). What is a possible solution to this?

A. Use of a software escrow service so that the bank can get access to the
source code in case of any issues with the product vendor.

B. The bank should purchase the source code from the product vendor with a
right to only make changes within their systems.

C. The bank should identify an alternative vendor and come out with a backup
implementation plan in case of such a situation.

D. This is an unnecessary concern for the bank. The bank should sign an
agreement with the product vendor and include a clause which states that
they can have access to the source code if required in an emergency.

2. As part of an intensive anti-piracy drive, a company puts up a web-page on the

internet. This web-page contains a link to a second webpage which promises
them an illegal copy of the software, but in reality doesn't lead anywhere. The
company intends to prosecute all those who clicked the link on the first page.
 Your view on this would be:

A. Software downloads on the internet are protected by Internet laws.

B. The company has a strong case and can prosecute under anti-piracy laws.

C. The company will not have a case. Clicking on the link does not prove a
crime was committed.

D. The company has a strong case of successful entrapment.

3. A company had a competitive edge by virtue of some of its business processes.

This information leaked out into public domain and a number of its competitors
started using similar processes. The company went to court to prevent its
competitors from doing so. What would your comment be?

A. The company has a strong case. Copyright laws would prevent other
companies from using the business processes in their companies.

B. The company has a strong case. The business processes can be considered
as trademarks and the company can go to court to prevent other companies
from using the business processes in their companies.

C. The company does not have a valid stance. Trade secrets are protected as
long as the owner of the information (ex: business processes) takes steps to
keep it secret. If it is leaked out into public domain, other companies cannot
be prevented from using the information.

D. The company's case is quite weak. This type of information comes under the
category of patents which grants ownership and exclusive rights to the
owner to use the processes.

4. A company placed certain sensitive data on a server that was accessible to all
employees. The company clearly informed its employees that the files were
confidential. If an employee copies the files onto a USB flash drive and uses it
outside the company, what would the company's position be?

A. The company is appropriately covered since the information was stored on

its property.
 B. The company will not be covered under criminal laws since this is a matter
internal to the company.

C. The company will not be properly covered by criminal laws since it did not
practice due care.

D. The company is covered properly under criminal laws since it informed its
employees that the files were confidential.

5. A company was hesitant to bring in law-enforcement agencies after a security

breach at the company and after much deliberation, decided not to do so. Which
of these would NOT have been a major factor in the company's decision?

A. The company was worried that it would lose control over the investigation
if the authorities were brought in.

B. The company was worried that it would take three years to go to court with
the case.

C. The company was worried that knowledge of the breach would become
public and tarnish its reputation.

D. The company was worried about reactions of its shareholders and

customers.

6. The risk analysis team is evaluating the functionality and effectiveness of

countermeasures that they propose to apply. Which of the following
characteristics is undesirable for a countermeasure?

A. Resetting the asset to its original settings should be as difficult as possible

and the countermeasure mechanism should not permit easy resetting.

B. The countermeasure should not provide any backdoors or covert channels.

C. An administrator should have override facility over the countermeasure, if

necessary.

D. Users should have as few permissions as possible to configure or disable

the protection mechanism of the countermeasure.
7. A user was unauthorizedly able to access certain information. The audit logs
revealed that the data had been accessed, but was unable to provide details of
who accessed them. This turned out to be due to poor application programming
of the in-house developed application (which did not capture details of the user
who accessed the data, in the audit log). Who would hold the bottom-line
responsibility for this situation?

A. Software quality control

B. The data owner

C. The application programmer

D. The security administrator

8. An employee notices that the photograph on the ID card worn by a contractor

on the campus does not match his appearance. The ID seems to be valid and has
the company logo and other details clearly listed. What should the employee
do?

A. The employee should check with other people in the vicinity if they are
aware of who the person is and whether his ID is valid.

B. Nothing needs to be done in this case. As long the other individual has a
valid ID card, it is sufficient. It is possible that the individual's appearance
has changed since the time the photograph was taken.

C. The employee should make a note of details such as the location of the
individual, and inform security immediately.

D. Nothing needs to be done. It is the responsibility of the security department

to detect such cases.

9. A software vendor discovered that a company was using illegal copies of its
software. An employee had copied the installation disks and installed the
software on the company's server. Who would be held primarily responsible
for this?

A. The employee who copied the software.

 B. The security officer in charge.

C. The legal department of the company.

D. The manager of the employee who copied the software.

10. A Trusted Computing Base (TCB) addresses the level of trust that a system
provides. What components does it address?

A. The firmware

B. The hardware

C. The software

D. The hardware, software and firmware

11. Asset management will typically not include details on:

A. The firmware used in the company.

B. The number of users in the company

C. The software used in the company.

D. The hardware used in the company.

12. As part of a cost-saving initiative, the security and network team decided to
handle all security awareness and specialized security training in-house.
Management questioned the team on whether paid outside training was required
but the security officer indicated that she was comfortable with doing the
training in-house itself. A month later, a breach occurred and some important
information was stolen. Who is likely to be held responsible for this?

A. The in-house trainer

B. Management

C. The security officer

 D. The network department

13. Multiple vendors have developed their own networking frameworks. How do
they ensure that layers within their frameworks are interoperable with those
developed by other vendors?

A. By using network modulators

B. By implementing polymorphism of the layers

C. By modularization of the network layers

D. By using a common voltage level

14. Data backup is a crucial activity in organizations. Which of the following teams
should define what data gets backed up and how often?

A. The legal team

B. The management team

C. The security team

D. The operations team

15. Lin would like to use a hybrid encryption method using both symmetric and
asymmetric encryption methods. How would he go about this?

A. The message sent would be encrypted using a public key and the key used
would be encrypted using a symmetric algorithm.

B. The message sent and the key would be encrypted using a symmetric
algorithm and the receiver would decrypt this using his private key.

C. The message sent would be encrypted using a symmetric algorithm and the
key used would be sent using an asymmetric encryption.

D. The message sent would be encrypted using an asymmetric algorithm and

the key used would be sent using a symmetric encryption.
16. A software company provides software services to financial companies and
also has a product division that has a financial product in the market.
Employees working on services for other financial companies could potentially
be working on products that compete in the market with the company's own
product. This type of conflict of interest is well-handled by:

A. The Noninterference model

B. The Brewer and Nash model

C. The Graham and Denning model

D. The Lattice model

17. An administrator discovered that there were certain default system accounts in
an application. It was not clear what they were used for. What is the best way to
handle this?

A. The security administrator should send out an email with the list of the
accounts to all senior managers to find out who uses them.

B. The best way is to leave the accounts since they will be required by users.

C. The security administrator should wait for a minimum of 30 days before

deciding to disable the accounts.

D. The best way is to disable these accounts first and then determine who uses
them, if at all.

18. Robert is a systems engineer and was called in to preserve certain evidence in a
cyber-attack on the company. Robert isolated the hard disk but inadvertently
made some changes to the hard disk. This seriously compromised the
company's case. Who is responsible for actions taken with digital evidence?

A. The security officer

B. The company

C. The supervisor of the individual handling digital evidence.

 D. The individual handling the digital evidence (Robert)

19. An organization opts for disk shadowing to provide a fault-tolerant solution.

Which of the following is incorrect with regard to a disk shadowing solution?

A. Disk shadowing is a very expensive solution.

B. The company will need to perform periodic offline manual backup of the
data.

C. The shadow set can carry out multiple reads in parallel.

D. Multiple paths are provided to duplicate data

20. One of the biggest challenges in successfully taking a cyber-criminal to court

is:

A. Current technology is still not advanced enough to properly seize and

control evidence of such crimes.

B. There are not enough security devices available to prevent a cyber-crime.

C. There are an insufficient number of lawyers to handle such cases.

D. Companies are unwilling to come forward with evidence.

21. A team that is doing risk analysis pegs the exposure factor (EF) of a large
storage warehouse at 10%. How would this be interpreted?

A. This means that 10% of the warehouse would be specially protected with fire
controls and other means to protect the goods in that area.

B. This means that if a fire or untoward incident were to occur, only 10% of the
warehouse is expected to be lost.

C. This means that items which are the highest in value would be stored in a
space that occupies no more than 10% of the warehouse.

D. This means that if a fire or untoward incident were to occur, only 10% of the
warehouse is expected to be saved.
22. An attacker took advantage of a vulnerability in an application system. Once a
process validated the authorization of a user for a noncritical file, the attacker
substituted the noncritical file with a critical one and managed to obtain access
to it because the file access was carried out by a second process. What type of
attack is this?

A. Time of check / Time of use attack

B. Time of authorization / Time of access attack

C. Time of use / Time of check attack

D. Time of validation / Time of Input-output attack

23. A company plans to step-up its monitoring activities and decides to implement a
CCTV monitoring system. The best way to install the CCTV cameras is:

A. To install them within fittings for lighting.

B. To discretely mount them behind other fittings

C. To completely conceal them.

D. To mount them In full view

24. When dealing with physical safety, to what should a company give the highest
priority?

A. To have a proper procedure in place to deal with crimes if and when they
occur.

B. Installation of CCTV cameras

C. To prevent the occurrence of crimes.

D. To prevent crimes and disruptions to the company's operations, but also plan
to deal with them if and when they occur.

25. A very poorly written application makes periodic calls to the operating system
to allocate memory, and does not release the memory. The result is that the
 operating system often gets starved for memory and even crashes. What is a
solution to this?

A. To use a trash collector

B. To use a garbage collector

C. To use a disk cleaner

D. To use a memory manager

26. A hacker uses a new signature pattern to launch an attack. Which of these
intrusion detection systems will be unable to detect this attack?

A. Pattern matching IDS

B. Protocol anomaly-based IDS

C. Traffic anomaly-based IDS

D. Statistical anomaly-based IDS

27. A Local Area Network (LAN) needs to be designed to be resilient and

impervious to failures of single nodes. Which of the following topologies
would you recommend?

A. Tree topology

B. Ring topology

C. Star topology

D. Linear bus topology

28. You are implementing an Intrusion Detection System (IDS). Which of these
problems would you expect to run into often?

A. False-negatives

B. False-positives
 C. True-positives

D. True-negatives

29. A number of changes were made to an application system. What kind of testing
now needs to be done to ensure that the functionality and existing security has
not been compromised?

A. Acceptance testing

B. Unit testing

C. Regression testing

D. Integration testing

30. The Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) is a single

standard for evaluating security attributes of computer systems. It is primarily
used in which regions?

A. United States and Europe

B. United States Only

C. Europe Only

D. United States and Canada

31. You are involved in the selection of material for windows in a facility. You are
aware that there have been a number of burglaries in the area and would like to
prevent would-be thieves from breaking windows and getting into the facility. If
cost is not an issue, what material should you choose?

A. Standard glass

B. Laminated glass

C. Untempered glass

D. White glass
32. Stateful firewalls provide an additional level of protection. However, they are
also vulnerable to some attacks. Which of these is a possible attack on a stateful
firewall?

A. Denial of Service (DOS) attack.

B. Phishing attack

C. URL service attack

D. Phreaker attack

33. In a symmetric key cryptographic system for a fax software, one of the users
also sent the cryptographic key via a fax message. What would you comment on
this?

A. Use of a fax is unreliable since the maximum speed of transmission is 56.4

kbps.

B. Use of the fax will ensure that the cryptographic key is not available to
anyone else but the recipient.

C. Usually, a fax does not need to be encrypted since it is targeted at an

individual machine and is safe by definition.

D. The cryptographic key should have been sent using an out-of-band

transmission method.

34. Which of these is a preferred security practice in handling accounts?

A. Assigning of individual accounts to groups

B. Use of group IDs for better accountability

C. Use of group accounts for better accountability

D. Use of shared accounts for common responsibilities.

35. A key security concern in an organization is that unattended laptops on the

desks of employees may be stolen. What can the company do as a preventive
 measure?

A. Use slot locks.

B. Use cable traps.

C. Use port locks.

D. Use switch controls

36. A security officer receives complaints that hardware in the company such as
disk drives, I/O devices and memory are periodically being stolen. What
preventive measures can he take?

A. Use device locks to protect hardware.

B. Provide stiff penalties including removal from service for employees

caught in the act.

C. Install CCTV cameras to cover all workstations.

D. User circumventing locks to protect hardware.

37. A systems analyst is designing a new application which should have restricted
access. Which of the following would be best suited for the application?

A. Multi-factor authentication

B. Anonymous authentication

C. UserID/Password based authentication.

D. Shared Secret authentication

38. As part of its final report, a team assigned monetary values to assets. This is
likely to have been the output of:

A. Vulnerability analysis

B. Threat analysis
 C. Risk analysis

D. Asset analysis

39. An eavesdropper finds out the algorithm being used between two people for
their encrypted communication. What will be the result if he now manages to
capture a message between the two encrypted using that algorithm?

A. When an eavesdropper intercepts a message, the communication will get

terminated. The communication software will recognize that the message
was intercepted and initiate this action.

B. The message is in encrypted format, so he would unable to decipher its

contents.

C. The eavesdropper knows the algorithm used and can now decipher the
message even though it is encrypted.

D. It is not possible for the eavesdropper to capture the information.

40. Samantha works for an accounting firm with the responsibility of traveling to
client sites to assist in SOX compliance checking. Which of the following
accurately describes this work?

A. External Audit

B. Blackbox Penetration Testing

C. Internal Audit

D. Whitebox Penetration Testing

CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 12
Answer Key and Explanations

1. A - In such an instance where the operations of the bank are very critical, the
bank can look at using the services of third party software escrow services.
Various clauses are clearly defined and can come into effect if the product
company is unable to service the bank for any reason. [Security and Risk
Management]

2. C - The company does not have a strong case. Merely clicking on the link that
promised illegal software does not prove that a crime was committed. [Security
and Risk Management]

3. C - The company does not have a strong position. This type of information is
considered as a trade secret since it gives the company a competitive edge over
others. Trade secrets are protected as long as the owner of the information (ex:
business processes) takes steps to keep it secret. If it is leaked out into public
domain, other companies cannot be prevented from using the information.
[Security and Risk Management]

4. C - Although the company informed its employees that the information was
confidential, it did not practice due care in ensuring that the server was
accessible only to those who required access. Hence, it may not be properly
covered under criminal law. [Security and Risk Management]

5. B - One of the considerations that a company will be concerned about is the

duration it takes to go to court. However, the figure indicated (three years) is on
the higher side. Typically a company should be able to go to court within a
year's time. Hence this would not have been a likely consideration. [Security and
Risk Management]

6. A - The countermeasure should be such that it can be easily reset and restored to
original settings without affecting the asset it is protecting. [Security and Risk
Management]

7. D - The security administrator has the bottom-line responsibility for this.

During the application development phase, the security administrator should
have been involved in the process and laid out the requirements for the audit
log files. This should have also been captured during testing. A failure in this
 process will be the security administrator's responsibility. [Security Operations]

8. C - All such incidents need to be brought to the notice of security personnel as

soon as possible. There could be valid reasons for the photograph looking
different. However, the primary purpose of an ID is to authenticate an
individual, so it is important to have a recent photograph if the individual's
appearance has changed. [Security Operations]

9. B - It is usually the responsibility of the security officer in-charge to ensure that

only legal copies of software are used within the company. There need to be
appropriate procedures in place to control the copies of software installed on
various machines in the company, and the security officer is held responsible
for this. [Security and Risk Management]

10. D - The TCB addresses all three components of hardware, firmware and
software because each has the ability to impact a computer's environment
positively or negatively. [Security Engineering]

11. B - Asset management typically does not include details of how many users are
there in the company. It focuses on hardware, software, firmware, application
software and software libraries. [Security Operations]

12. B - Management is responsible. Although it may have been the ineffectiveness

of training that lead to poor patch deployment, it is always management who is
held responsible for security breaches. [Security and Risk Management]

13. C - The modularization of layers enables the functionality within a layer to be

interoperable with protocols developed by other vendors. [Communications and
Network Security]

14. D - It is the responsibility of the operations team to define what data gets backed
up and the periodicity of the backup. [Security and Risk Management]

15. C - Symmetric algorithms are very fast but the keys are difficult to manage. On
the other hand, asymmetric algorithms are slow but key management is easier.
A hybrid approach is one in which the message is encrypted using a symmetric
algorithm. The symmetric key is then encrypted using an asymmetric algorithm
and sent to the recipient. [Asset Security]

16. B - This type of conflict of interest is handled well by the Brewer and Nash
 model. The software company could implement a product that tracks its
employees' activities and ensures that certain types of accesses would be
disallowed due to conflicts of interest. [Security Engineering]

17. D - Typically, systems will contain a number of default system accounts and
these could turn out to be security loop-holes. If it is not possible to determine
who or what system accounts are used for, they should be disabled first. Re-
enabling them can be a decision based on subsequent information obtained.
[Security Operations]

18. D - According to general principles for handling evidence involving computer

crimes, the individual handling digital evidence is responsible for it as long it is
in his possession. [Security and Risk Management]

19. B - Disk shadowing is a very effective, expensive option. However, if it is

employed, the company can likely dispense with its offline manual backup
operations or perform it in a very reduced manner. [Security and Risk
Management]

20. A - Currently, the biggest hurdle in bringing cyber-criminals to book is the lack
of technology to seize and control evidence of such crimes. The courts of law
require conclusive evidence and it is still a difficult to task to obtain evidence
that can hold up to a court of law. [Security and Risk Management]

21. B - The exposure factor (EF) is the percentage of loss that a threat (which
actually occurs) could have on a certain asset. Hence an EF of 10% means that it
is expected that not more than 10% of the warehouse is expected to be lost due
to a fire or other incident. [Security and Risk Management]

22. A - This is called a time of check / time of use (TOC/TOU) attack. This can
happen due to poor coding of an application which permits process 2 to access
a critical file even though process 1 authenticated the user for a non-critical file
at a different time. [Security Engineering]

23. D - The recommended way to mount CCTV cameras is to mount them in full
view. This will act as a deterrent to criminals by announcing that the
environment is being monitored. In addition, there should be prominent
displays indicating that the system / facility is under surveillance. [Security
Operations]
24. D - When dealing with physical safety, a company should give the highest
priority not only to the prevention of crimes and disruptions to business, but
also to procedures to properly deal with them when they occur. [Security
Operations]

25. B - A garbage collector can be used to help alleviate the problem. This is a
special software which runs an algorithm to identify unused memory allocated
to application programs. The program then informs the operating system that
the memory is now available for reuse. [Security Engineering]

26. A - A pattern matching IDS is a signature based IDS and has thousands of
signatures that are compared to traffic streams. If an attacker uses a new
signature, the pattern matching based IDS will not be able to detect the attack.
[Identity and Access Management]

27. C - Both ring and bus topologies (tree/linear bus) suffer from the disadvantage
that there are single points of failure which can cause the entire network to fail.
The Star topology is more resilient. [Communications and Network Security]

28. B - A very common problem that IDS suffers from is false-positives. This
happens when normal or expected behavior gets classified as a potential
problem. An administrator needs to be aware of this and be able to handle this
appropriately. [Security Operations]

29. C - When changes have been made to an application, regression testing is

required to ensure that none of the existing functionality and security features
have been compromised. [Software Development Security]

30. C - The ITSEC is only used in Europe. The United States uses the Orange book.
However most regions are now moving to Common Criteria. [Security
Engineering]

31. B - Among the choices listed, laminated glass provides the best security from
break-ins. They are made with two sheets of glass and a plastic film in between.
This makes them extremely difficult to break. They come in different depths
and the greater the depth, the greater the security. [Security Operations]

32. A - Although a stateful firewall provides an additional level of protection, it is

unable to fend off Denial-of-Service attacks. If the state table of the firewall is
flooded with bogus information, it consumes memory and hard disk space. The
 firewall could then require to be rebooted. [Communications and Network
Security]

33. D - In a symmetric cryptosystem, the cryptographic key should always be sent

using an out-of-band transmission method. Since the primary communication is
going to happen over the fax system, the key should have been sent using a
channel other than fax. [Asset Security]

34. A - As a security practice, group IDs are best avoided since they cannot provide
accountability. A good practice though is to assign individual users to groups
or roles. This makes it efficient to administer the groups or roles. [Security
Operations]

35. A - Slot lock are used to secure laptops. The consist of steel or tough metal
cables. These are used to fasten laptops to desks or other immovable objects.
[Security Operations]

36. A - Pilferage of hardware (especially smaller components) affects companies

quite a bit. Device locks are quite effective and can be used to prevent such
occurrences. [Security Operations]

37. A - An application which should have restricted access should use multi-level
authentication. This will ensure better access control because of the extra level
of authentication. [Identity and Access Management]

38. C - One of the key outputs of a Risk Analysis is that monetary values are
assigned to assets. This allows the team to calculate the necessary costs to
mitigate risks to these assets. [Security and Risk Management]

39. B - A key is required to decipher a message. Hence, if an eavesdropper

intercepts a message, he will only be able to view the encrypted message and
this will be useless to him. He will be unable to decipher it without the key.
[Asset Security]

40. A - An external auditor is hired to assist an organization. This can take the form
of an on-going contractor engagement, or a brief spot-check. [Security
Operations]
Domain Area Test: Multi Domain
Practice Questions

Test Name: Domain Area Test: Multi Domain

Total Questions: 20
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 15 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 30 Minutes

Test Description

This domain area test focuses on many of the more difficult domains; including
Cryptography, Legal, and Security Architecture.

Test Questions

1. Data Encryption Standard (DES) is a symmetric algorithm that was a standard

for many years. However, with the increase in availability of computing power
to break algorithms, this standard has now been replaced. Which of these is the
replacement for DES?

A. International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA)

B. Triple DES

C. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

D. Secure and Fast Encryption routine (SAFER)

2. When working with asymmetric algorithms, which of these principles

regarding open / confidential messages is correct?

A. Confidential messages are encrypted with the public key whereas open
messages are encrypted with the private key.

B. Confidential messages are encrypted with the private key whereas open
messages are encrypted with the public key.

C. Both open and confidential messages are encrypted with the public key.
 D. Both open and confidential messages are encrypted with the private key.

3. Which of these is the correct way to digitally sign a message?

A. Encrypt the message using a symmetric algorithm and then encrypt the hash
of the result with the sender's private key.

B. B. Encrypt the message using a symmetric algorithm and then encrypt the
hash of the result with the sender's public key.

C. Encrypt a hash of the message with the sender's private key and append it to
the message.

D. Encrypt a hash of the message with the public key of the sender and append
it to the message.

4. Key management is a very important aspect of a cryptographic implementation.

What is multiparty key recovery in the context of key management?

A. In case the private key is lost, multiple parties are contacted and a new key is
generated using the public information.

B. The private key is broken up into multiple parts and these are handed out to
various trusted people within an organization. In case of loss of the key,
these people are grouped together and the key is reconstructed.

C. The private key is given to multiple trusted people. In case of loss of the key,
any one of these people can be approached to obtain the key.

D. The private key is locked in a safe whose combination is known only to one
individual. In case of loss of the key, this person may be contacted to open
the safe.

5. There are 20 people in an organization. How many keys does this organization
need to manage if they use symmetric algorithms?

A. 190

B. 400
 C. 20

D. 40

6. An information security team is doing a threat-agent vs. threat analysis. Which

of the following categories of threat agents would be the first candidate for
suspicion in case of a loss of valuable trade secrets in the company?

A. User

B. Contractor

C. Employee

D. Janitor

7. A company would like to use a process to determine chronic failure and where
exactly it is likely to happen. Which of the following will allow such an analysis
to be performed?

A. Ishikawa analysis

B. Facilitated risk analysis process (FRAP).

C. Failure modes and effect analysis (FMEA)

D. Analysis Tree

8. An approval system was designed such that all purchase orders of value greater
than $ 100 needed to be approved by an immediate supervisor and orders of
value greater than $ 1000 needed to be approved by the higher up manager. This
is an example of:

A. Job position sensitivity

B. Separation of duties

C. Least privilege

D. Job rotation
9. A company has a very effective background check program in place. How often
should background checks be done on employees in a company?

A. Prior to their joining work and every two years.

B. Prior to their joining work and every three years.

C. Prior to their joining work and as required.

D. Prior to their joining work and every year.

10. The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for an asset is $ 10,000. A security
officer decides to apply a countermeasure for the risk. If the countermeasure
can be used for a period of 5 years, what is the maximum countermeasure cost
that the company can spend?

A. $2,000

B. $20,000

C. $10,000

D. $50,000

11. You would like to ensure that the operating system you are running is capable
of loading more than one program in memory at the same time and can handle
requests from different processes at the same time. What capabilities does this
operating system need to have?

A. Multiprogramming, multitasking

B. Multiprogramming, multithreading

C. Multiprocessing, multitasking

D. Multiprogramming, multiprocessing

12. Integrity models primarily need to prevent unauthorized users from making
changes, authorized users from making improper changes and maintain both
internal as well as external consistency. Which of the models satisfies all three
 goals?

A. Clark-Wilson model

B. Bell-La Padula model

C. Biba model

D. Clark-Frost model

13. In a security model that you are analyzing, the commands and activities
performed at a particular security level are not seen by objects at another
security level. What model is this?

A. The information flow model

B. The Brewer and Nash model

C. The access control matrix model

D. The noninterference model

14. Systems operate in different security modes of operation. In which mode can all
users access all the data?

A. System high security mode

B. Dedicated security mode

C. Multi-level security mode

D. System high security mode

15. In which of the following models is an evaluation carried out on a product and
an Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL assigned)?

A. ITSEC model

B. Common criteria model

 C. Specific criteria model

D. TCSEC model

16. A hacker committed a computer crime in an organization. During investigation,

a trained employee from the information security department took custody of
one of the computers that was part of the crime. While the computer was in his
custody, the computer got damaged. As per generally accepted principles, who
is likely to be held responsible for the computer damage?

A. The chief security officer

B. The hacker

C. The employee

D. The employee's supervisor

17. In which of the following legal systems are court decisions governed by
previous court rulings and generally use an adversarial approach to litigation?

A. Civil law

B. Common law

C. Tort law

D. Criminal law

18. An organization is using a commercial off-the-shelf software to perform some

of its daily operations. On whom does the onus lie to make sure the software is
a legitimate, licensed copy?

A. The end-user

B. The software product manufacturer

C. The end-user's supervisor

D. The company
19. A hacker hacked into a system to access confidential data in an unauthorized
manner. In order to prevent being tracked, he manually changed the IP address
on the packets to show a different IP address than the actual one. This is called:

A. Phishing

B. IP masking

C. IP spoofing

D. IP hacking

20. The chief executive officer (CEO) of a publicly traded company was prosecuted
due to major inaccuracies in the financial information presented by the
company. Under what act would this likely have been done?

A. The Federal Privacy Act

B. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX)

C. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act

D. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

Domain Area Test: Multi Domain
Answer Key and Explanations

1. C - With computing power becoming more easily available, the need was felt to
have a more efficient and secure system than DES. Advanced Encryption
Standard (AES) was developed for this purpose. Triple DES is an intermediate
solution. [Asset Security]

2. A - Confidential messages are encrypted with the public key. This allows only
the holder of the private key to decrypt them. Open messages are encrypted with
the private key of a sender. They can be decrypted by anyone having the
corresponding public key. [Asset Security]

3. C - A hash value is obtained by running a one-way hashing function on the

message. The hash value is then encrypted with the private key of the sender and
appended to the message. [Asset Security]

4. B - In multiparty key recovery, the private key is broken up into parts and given
to various trusted people across the organization. One single individual will not
be able to construct the key. In case of loss of the key, all of these people would
report to a common party and the key would then be reconstructed. [Asset
Security]

5. A - The general formula to compute the number of keys required for 'n' users is
n x (n-1) / 2. For 20 users, this works out to 20 x (20-1)/2 = 10 x 19 = 190.
[Asset Security]

6. B - Contractors work within organizations and often have access to trade

secrets. Hence appropriate precautions need to be taken care to ensure that the
trade secrets are guarded. The other choices mentioned could also be involved
in stealing trade secrets, but the probabilities are lower. [Security and Risk
Management]

7. C - Failure modes and effect analysis is a method that helps identify failures,
assesses the failures and looks at the effects of the failure in a structured
manner. It is extremely useful in determining where a vulnerability exists and
the scope of the vulnerability. [Security and Risk Management]

8. B - This is an example of separation of duties and ensures that for larger value
 orders, an individual will himself be unable to approve a purchase order.
Hence, the possibility of malpractice is reduced. [Security and Risk
Management]

9. C - The best time to do background checks is prior to an employee joining the

company. Subsequent reinvestigation can be done depending on the sensitivity
of their positions. Once an employee has joined a company, it is usually not
necessary to reinvestigate and do a background check without a valid cause.
[Security and Risk Management]

10. D - The general rule is that no countermeasure should be greater in cost than
the risk it mitigates. To make a comparison with the cost of the risk (ALE), the
countermeasure cost per year is calculated. This is the cost of the
countermeasure divided by the years of its use within the organization. Hence,
maximum countermeasure cost per year = cost of risk = $ 10,000. Total cost of
the countermeasure = 10000 x 5 = $ 50,000 (given that the countermeasure can
be used for 5 years). [Security and Risk Management]

11. A - Multiprogramming refers to the capability to load more than one program
in memory at the same time while multitasking means the operating system can
handle requests from several different processes loaded in memory at the same
time. [Security Engineering]

12. A - The Clark-Wilson model addresses all the three objectives listed whereas
the other models (Biba and Bell-LaPadula) address only one of the objectives
listed. Clark-Frost is not a valid model. [Security Engineering]

13. D - The noninterference model ensures that any actions taking place at a lower
or higher level do not interfere with those taking place at a different level. The
focus here is not the data itself, but what a subject knows about the state of the
system. [Security Engineering]

14. B - In dedicated security mode, all users have clearance to access data within a
system. A single classification level of information is handled by the system. An
example of this is military systems. [Security Engineering]

15. B - An evaluation is carried out on a product in the Common criteria model. It

is assigned an Evaluation Assurance Model (EAL) ranging from EAL1 to EAL7
corresponding different assurance levels. [Security Engineering]
16. C - As per the generally accepted principles for computer forensics and digital
evidence, an individual is responsible for all actions related to any digital
evidence while it is in his possession. Hence, the trained employee would be
held accountable for the damage to the computer. [Security and Risk
Management]

17. B - This is the case in common law. Common law is based on the notion of
legal precedence, past decisions and societal traditions. This framework can be
found in many parts of the world which were once colonies or territories of the
British empire. [Security and Risk Management]

18. D - It is the company's responsibility to ensure that all copies of software being
used for its operations are legal copies. It is also the responsibility of the
company to keep track of all copies of software, and the licenses involved.
Ignorance cannot be used as an excuse as far as compliance is concerned.
[Security and Risk Management]

19. C - This is called IP spoofing. Attackers spoof their IP addresses so that it

becomes difficult, if not impossible for the victim to track them down. [Security
and Risk Management]

20. B - The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) applies to any company that is publicly
traded on the US stock markets. This law governs accounting practices and
directs how the company needs to report on their financial status. It provides
requirements on how they must track, manage and report financial information.
Non-compliance of this can lead to prosecution and stiff penalties for the CEO,
CFO and others. [Security and Risk Management]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 13
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 13

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. A company is concerned that log files may be tampered or manipulated by

users who have access to it. This could then seriously compromise the validity
of the log files. What strategy can a company employ during the process of
review of logs to prevent this?

A. Monitoring

B. Background check

C. Strong security policy

D. Separation of duties

2. Which of these chemicals used in older fire extinguishers is dangerous for

humans and has also been found to damage the ozone layer?

A. Halogen

B. Nitron

C. Halon
 D. Argon

3. Network Information System (NIS) and NIS+ enable users and applications to
locate network resources. Which of the following describes NIS+ rather than
NIS?

A. Hierarchical naming structure

B. No security

C. Flat naming structure

D. Data stored in two-column maps

4. You are analyzing an application that was developed 20 years ago. To access
certain data, you need to start at a particular branch and go through different
layers before reaching the data you need. What database model will this likely
be?

A. Hierarchical

B. Quasi-relational

C. Object-oriented

D. Relational

5. You are part of a business continuity planning team. The team comes up with an
elaborate continuity plan that requires a large budget. During an interim
meeting, team members are asked to present their views on the budget: Your
view would be that:

A. Obtaining funds for BCP activities is usually quite tough. The activities are
mostly unnecessary, so management doesn't support this.

B. Large budgets are fine. Management is usually co-operative in authorizing

funds for BCP work.

C. Obtaining funds for BCP activities is usually quite tough. The team needs to
cut down the cost as much as possible even thought continuity planning is
 very important.

D. Large budgets are fine. Management usually has a special fund for this
purpose with visibility right up to the CEO of the company.

6. Fire drills, evacuation drills etc need to be periodically conducted to ensure that
the procedures in place work, and to identify issues. The recommended
frequency is to carry these drills out at least:

A. Once a year

B. Once in 2 years

C. Once a month

D. Once in 3 months

7. A company plans to procure a new product to improve its operations. Which of

the following types of evaluation will help assure that the product conforms to
certain clipping level configurations?

A. Functionality assurance

B. Parametric assurance

C. Life-cycle assurance

D. Operational assurance

8. An airline ticket booking application is accessed by users across the internet or

via dedicated networks. Given a scenario where multiple users are accessing the
system at the same time, which of the following is a key issue in such a ticket
booking application?

A. Aggregation of data

B. Performance

C. Overloading of the network

 D. Concurrency of data

9. Which among the following forms of authentication will be relatively tougher

to attack?

A. PIN number

B. Passphrase

C. Passcode

D. Password

10. A major project has just been approved. This project will require access to a
number of internal company systems. What kind of controls are used to provide
such access?

A. Directive controls

B. Compensatory controls

C. Preventive controls

D. Technical controls

11. What type of control is review of violation reports, log files, Intrusion
Detection systems (IDS), or use of CCTV?

A. Preventive controls

B. Recovery

C. Deterrent

D. Detective

12. A company is classifying data within the company. How it would classify trade
secrets?

A. Confidential
 B. Public

C. Blocked

D. Sensitive

13. In a wormhole attack, two attackers are involved, one at each end of the tunnel
(called wormhole). This typically takes place on wireless networks (but can be
done on wired networks too). What is the countermeasure to this?

A. A leash

B. A collar

C. A restraint

D. A tie

14. While auditing a set of business continuity and disaster recovery programs, you
review a list of preventive measures that the company has undertaken. Which of
the following would incorrectly be classified as a preventive measure?

A. Purchase of a redundant server.

B. Purchase of a UPS.

C. Purchase of insurance.

D. Purchase of additional network bandwidth on an existing link.

15. As part of acceptance testing, an independent group performed a security test on

an application. What kinds of test data should the team use?

A. Data in the acceptable range, outside the acceptable range, random data and
data on the boundary.

B. Data on the boundary and outside the acceptable range.

C. Random data
 D. Data in the acceptable range.

16. At a software development facility, the security personnel found that there were
a lot of incidents involving stolen laptops. Users found that when they left desks
for extended periods of time, their laptops were missing on their return. What
can be done to prevent this?

A. Introduce additional CCTV cameras.

B. Use slot locks

C. Use port controls

D. Replace laptops with desktop computers

17. A large retailer has been told that there are numerous risks associated with
doing business on the internet. As a result, the retailer decides to stay away
from doing business on the internet. This is an example of:

A. Risk avoidance

B. Risk Transfer

C. Risk mitigation

D. Risk acceptance

18. An administrator wants to separate out some of the departments into logical
groups such as HR, payroll, production and research. Which of the following
will allow this to be done?

A. SLANs

B. RLANs

C. VLANs

D. XLANs

19. Which of the following can speed up the performance of the CPU by reducing
 memory access time?

A. RAM

B. ROM

C. Cache memory

D. SDRAM

20. Wireless device and cellphone encryption needs to be as efficient as possible so

as to conserve bandwidth. Which of the following asymmetric algorithms is
used for such devices?

A. DES

B. International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA)

C. RSA

D. Elliptic curve cryptosystems (ECC)

21. Financial fraud committed by one of the company's junior officers came to
light during a review of certain data. The officer in question had obtained
access in excess of his requirements and managed to commit the crime. Which
of the following could have helped prevent or avoid this situation?

A. User authentication

B. Single sign-on

C. Digital identity

D. User provisioning

22. There is no specific standard but almost every computer has the same port
mapped to the same protocol. If a network programmer is referring to port 25,
he is likely referring to which protocol?

A. Telnet
 B. FTP

C. SMTP

D. HTTP

23. An auditor finds that the business continuity plan in an organization was last
tested 6 months ago. He notes this down as an issue. However, the continuity
planning team does not agree. What is your view on this?

A. The auditor is right. A BCP should be tested once every 3 months.

B. The auditor is right. A BCP should be tested at least once in 6 months.

C. The auditor is wrong. A BCP should be tested once in 2 years.

D. The auditor is wrong. A BCP should be tested at least once a year.

24. Which of the following is not true about keypad or pushbutton locks?

A. The combination relates to the lock rather than an individual

B. Accountability is lower in case of keypad locks.

C. These locks require a combination of numbers to be learned and secured.

D. The keypad usually needs to be changed once in 5 years

25. A connection between two machines dropped. However, before this link failure
was detected, an attacker managed to attach to one of the ports and pretended to
be the trusted machine, thus gaining unauthorized access. What is the counter
against this?

A. The counter to this is to forcibly log out the user periodically.

B. The counter to this is to use a fire-wall.

C. The counter to this is to use SSL.

D. The counter is to have some form of authentication constantly performed on

 the line.

26. The management of a company decided to cut down on training budgets due to
a crunch of funds. A few months later, a hacker broke into one of the servers of
the company and stole some valuable information. This could have been
prevented if the employee monitoring the intrusion detection system had been
trained to monitor and interpret the logs. Who is held responsible in this case?

A. The employee

B. The employee's supervisor

C. Management

D. The manufacturer of the intrusion detection system

27. One of the employees in an organization illegally installed a software and

started using it. The software manufacturer detected this and took the
organization to court over this. The organization is of the view that this is a
matter between the employee and the software manufacturer. What is your view
on this?

A. The organization is correct. This is a matter between the employee and the
software manufacturer. However, the organization may ask the employee to
delete the software.

B. The organization is responsible for all software that is installed on its

premises.

C. The organization is correct. This is a matter between the employee and the
software manufacturer.

D. The software manufacturer has no case. What goes on within an

organization is an internal matter.

28. In the OSI model, which of the following layers will contain a data packet that
also has information added by each of the 7 layers?

A. The Application layer

 B. The Transport layer

C. The Physical layer

D. The Data link layer

29. Outermost perimeter in the context of physical security usually refers to the
farthest extent that an organization can patrol. How is physical security
managed for the outermost perimeter?

A. Through creation of security zones.

B. Through hard control logic

C. Through procedural controls

D. Through soft control logic

30. Process isolation needs to be enforced to ensure that individual processes do

not affect other processes' performance. This can be done by any of the
following except:

A. Encapsulation of objects

B. Naming distinctions

C. Underloading of objects

D. Time multiplexing of shared resources

31. The physical security team of a company did a risk analysis and came up with a
set of criteria outlining the level of protection required for its security
program. What should be the objective of the first level of control of a security
program?

A. To detect intruders

B. To deter intruders

C. To capture intruders
 D. To delay intruders

32. A computer programmer came up with a brilliant algorithm to perform a

certain calculation. Such an algorithm would most likely be protected by:

A. Trade secret laws

B. Trademark laws

C. Copyright laws

D. Patent laws

33. A company uses a number of legacy computers and hardware. During business
impact analysis, this is flagged as one of the potential areas of concern. As part
of continuity and disaster recovery planning what can the company do to
minimize the impact if a disaster strikes?

A. Identify legacy devices and plan for commercial off the shelf products, if
possible.

B. Train additional personnel in the use and maintenance of the legacy systems

C. Duplicate the legacy systems and place orders for new equipment while they
are available.

D. Strengthen the backup around the legacy systems.

34. Which of the following represents the correct order in of activities in response
to an incident?

A. Triage, Repair, Recovery

B. Triage, Analysis, Tracking

C. Triage, Reaction, Follow-up

D. Triage, Containment, Tracking

35. A security officer is auditing the operations of a computer center. She finds that
 downtime is high for a particular server. She looks up the operations log and
finds a comment that the server often reboots on its own and works fine after
that. What would the security officer recommend?

A. Upgradation of the server capacity since it is unable to withstand the load.

B. Monitoring of the server for another 3 months after which a new one needs
to be installed.

C. Upgradation of the memory on the server since it is unable to withstand the

load.

D. An investigation as to why the server is rebooting on its own often.

36. Which of the following methods are most commonly used to ensure that an
end-user has read and accepts a licensing agreement (EULA)?

A. Use of a click through or radio button which the user must click on to
signify acceptance of the terms, before being able to click on the Install
button.

B. Use of a licensing agreement, provided as a separate document which the

user must read after installation.

C. Use of a hardcopy which the end-user must sign and mail back to the
software manufacturer.

D. Use of an email which will get sent over the internet once an end user has
accepted the terms and conditions of the license.

37. Which of the following is not a recommended security practice?

A. Assignment of group accounts to be shared by multiple individuals.

B. Assignment of individual accounts into groups or roles.

C. Use of automated password reset methods

D. Assignment of temporary passwords when a new user is created in the

system.
38. A hardware vendor would like to ensure that he need not replace an entire
product in case of a firmware change. Which of the following can help in
achieving this?

A. Use of a PROM

B. Use of an EEPROM

C. Use of ROM

D. Use of cache memory

39. A continuity planning team came up with a detailed analysis of the current state
of readiness, the gaps and the action areas for a company. The team is
concerned that there could be areas that they have not considered. What would
be a good way to innovate practices in this area?

A. Through standardization

B. Use of readily available software packages

C. Through benchmarking

D. Use of continuity planning workshops

40. Routers and firewalls are implemented with failover equipment as secondary
devices. These secondary devices take over when the primary fails. This type of
hardware backup is known as:

A. Tepid spare

B. Warm spare

C. Hot spare

D. Cold spare
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 13
Answer Key and Explanations

1. D - The company can use separation of duties to ensure that the individuals who
have access to data are not the ones who have access to review the logs. This
will ensure that a situation where an employee accesses logs to delete
information about his unauthorized activities is avoided. [Identity and Access
Management]

2. C - Halon has been banned since it damages the ozone layer. Companies with
older fire extinguishers that use halon need to use a replacement FM-200 which
is similar to halon but does not damage the ozone layer. [Security Operations]

3. A - NIS+ improved upon the performance and security issues that existed with
NIS. The naming structure is hierarchical in case of NIS+. [Communications
and Network Security]

4. A - This will likely be a hierarchical database. They are found on older systems
and follow a hierarchical structure. To reach a data entity, you need to traverse
down layers on a particular branch. [Software Development Security]

5. C - Although BCP activities are very important, obtaining funds for this
purpose is often quite difficult. Hence it is important to keep costs as low as
possible. [Security and Risk Management]

6. A - Fire drills, evacuation drills etc should be carried out at least once a year.
Doing them less frequently than a year will entail additional costs, while 2 years
is too far apart to be of significant value. [Security Operations]

7. C - Life-cycle assurance deals with the standards and expectations a product

must meet before it can be considered a trusted product. Design specifications
and clipping-level configurations are part of these standards. [Security
Operations]

8. D - When multiple users are trying to access the same data, it is possible to run
into concurrency issues that violate the integrity of the data. For example, if
multiple users are trying to make reservations for the same flight on a given
day, the system should be able to resolve the situation. [Software Development
Security]
9. B - Passphrases are longer to enter and that makes them harder to attack. They
are relatively easy for users to remember but given their length, an attacker will
be unable to crack them easily. [Identity and Access Management]

10. B - Compensating controls are introduced to handle temporary situations such

as new projects, business development, application testing etc. [Identity and
Access Management]

11. D - Review of violation reports, log files, use of an intrusion detection system
(IDS), CCTV are considered as detective type of controls since these provide
information after the event. [Identity and Access Management]

12. A - Trade secrets would be classified as confidential. This type of data is for use
within the company only. Unauthorized disclosure of confidential data could
seriously affect a company. [Security and Risk Management]

13. A - The countermeasure to a wormhole attack is a leash. This is a data packet

put into the header of individual packets and this restricts the packet's
transmission distance either geographically or puts a limit on the lifetime of the
packet. [Communications and Network Security]

14. D - Increase in the bandwidth of an existing network link cannot be termed as a

preventive measure since it will not be of any use when a disaster actually
strikes. Each of the other choices listed will help in a specific way during a
disaster. [Security and Risk Management]

15. A - While performing acceptance testing, all kinds of input data conditions
should be tested. This includes data in the acceptable range, outside the
acceptable range, random data and data on the boundary. [Software
Development Security]

16. B - Slot locks are commonly used to secure laptops to a stationary component
in the vicinity of the desk. This will help prevent them from being stolen.
[Security Operations]

17. A - This is an example of risk avoidance. Such a decision will also likely have
an impact on the company's revenues, and the company needs to have taken that
into consideration while making the decision to stay away from the internet
business. [Security and Risk Management]
18. C - VLANs stand for virtual LANs and enables administrators to group
computers logically based on certain business needs. [Communications and
Network Security]

19. C - Cache memory is used to improve CPU performance. This is because cache
memory is high-speed RAM. Data moves from the lower speed RAM to the
faster cache and then to the CPU. An optimally designed cache can ensure
higher processing speeds. [Security Engineering]

20. D - Elliptic curve cryptosystems (ECC) are used as asymmetric algorithms.

They use much lesser resources than other algorithms and hence they are used
in wireless device and cell phone encryption. [Asset Security]

21. D - User provisioning could have helped prevent this. It controls how user
privileges are created, maintained and deleted. Such a system would have placed
checks on the level of access the officer had. One of the audits or reviews
would also have revealed that the officer had excessive access and this could
have potentially avoided the fraud. [Identity and Access Management]

22. C - Although there is no specific standard created for this purpose, all
computers are usually mapped to the same ports. Port 25 is the port for SMTP
(simple mail transfer protocol). [Communications and Network Security]

23. D - Generally, a business continuity plan should be tested at least once a year.
Such tests and drills prepare the team and management for the kinds of issues
they may run into, and provide a controlled environment where they can learn
the tasks to be done when a disaster actually strikes. [Security and Risk
Management]

24. D - The keypad needs to be changed more frequently. Due to repeated use, the
keypad wears out and an astute criminal will be able to determine which keys
are used to open the lock. [Security Operations]

25. D - The counter to an attack where the attacker attaches to one of the ports used
in communication between two computers before the link failed is to have a
form of authentication performed constantly on the line. The attacker will be
unable to respond to this and appropriate action can be taken by the server or
other computer to drop the connection. [Software Development Security]

26. C - Management is held responsible in this case. It is always their responsibility

 to protect the environment by properly training the staff. Although a budget
crunch may have been a valid reason for cutting down on training, management
needs to look at the impact of such decisions closely in the context of security.
[Security and Risk Management]

27. B - Organizations are responsible for all software installed on their premises.
In case an employee has installed an illegal copy of a software, the organization
is still responsible for it. [Security Operations]

28. C - In the OSI model, the physical layer is the lowest layer (layer 7) while the
application layer is the highest (layer 1). Each of the layers in between add their
own information to a data packet, so the physical layer contains information
from all the layers since it is at the bottom. [Communications and Network
Security]

29. C - Environment boundaries and open spaces at the outermost perimeter are
usually managed through the use of procedural controls. These include guard
posts, checking and escorting visitors on site, and managing deliveries to the
site. [Security Operations]

30. C - Underloading of objects is not a valid method. The other three methods
(encapsulation of objects, time multiplexing of shared resources and naming
distinctions) are used to carry out process isolation. Older operating systems
did not enforce this as well as today's operating systems. [Security Engineering]

31. B - The objective of the first level of control of a physical security program
should be to deter intruders. The general psyche of an intruder is to go for easy
pickings. Hence a well implemented security program should make intruders
feel it is not worth their while to break-in, and deter them. [Security Operations]

32. D - An inventor of an algorithm typically gets a patent to the algorithm and

controls all rights on it. [Security and Risk Management]

33. A - During a disaster it is possible that replacements for legacy equipment can
no longer be found. Hence, as part of continuity planning, the company should
look at moving away from the legacy systems. The other choices are
unrealistic. Training additional personnel or improving backup procedures will
not help during a disaster since the issue is availability of replacement
hardware. Duplicating the hardware may also not be practical. [Security and
Risk Management]
34. C - The sequence in which an incident needs to be responded to is Triage,
Reaction and Follow-up. Triage refers to the actual incident itself. Reaction is
the action taken to contain and track the incident. Follow-up is the action done to
avoid recurrence of the incident. [Security and Risk Management]

35. D - Incidents where a server or a computer reboots on its own without any
apparent cause need to be investigated carefully. They could indicate a deeper
problem such as a virus infection or a compromise in the security of the system
by a hacker. [Security Operations]

36. A - The EULA is typically a click through or radio button that a user clicks on.
This signifies that the user has gone through the terms and conditions of
licensing. Only after this step has been done, the is the install button enabled.
[Security and Risk Management]

37. A - As a general practice, sharing of a single group account by multiple

individuals is not recommended. This is because there is no accountability and
the group account can potentially be misused. The preferred approach is to
assign individual accounts to groups or roles. [Security Operations]

38. B - Firmware that is stored in EEPROMs can be easily upgraded without

changing the product. The hardware itself is not upgradeable, but the firmware
can be upgraded easily. [Security Engineering]

39. C - Benchmarking involves comparison with industry standards and covers the
performance of the industry. Such peer or benchmarking techniques will allow
the team to look beyond their company. A number of best practices can be
learned from this activity and will allow the team to innovate practices.
[Security and Risk Management]

40. C - Redundant hardware components that are already operating are called hot
spares. Other examples of hot spares are when multiple power supplies are
running in parallel. [Security Operations]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 14
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 14

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. As a security officer, you are reviewing the thickness of wire to use for the
fences around your company. If you wish to have greater security, which of the
following should you choose?

A. 1 inch mesh, 11 gauge

B. 2 inch mesh, 6 gauge

C. 1 inch mesh, 9 gauge

D. 2 inch mesh, 9 gauge

2. One of the team members of a security team was performing a random audit of
a computer system and found signs that it had been tampered. This is usually
indicative of:

A. Forensic activity

B. A hacker attack

C. An insider attack
 D. An external attack

3. A user entered her userID, followed by her password. This authentication

process to verify an individual's identity can be viewed as:

A. An identification step and an authentication step, both involving private

information

B. An identification step involving public information and an authentication

step involving private information.

C. An authentication step involving private information and an identification

step involving public information.

D. An identification step involving private information and an authentication

step involving public information.

4. Your company has installed an intrusion detection system that automatically

turns on the lights in a specific area when it detects suspicious activity. This is
referred to as:

A. Backup lighting

B. Standby lighting

C. Active lighting

D. Responsive area illumination

5. Which of the following norms governs how banks can protect themselves and
prevent themselves from overextending / becoming insolvent?

A. Base II

B. Basel II

C. Base I

D. International Banking Act

6. Which of the following firewall architectures provides the highest security?

A. Screened host

B. Screened subnet

C. Unscreened host

D. Unscreened subnet

7. Which of the following power fluctuations is the most dangerous for hardware
equipment?

A. Surges

B. Noise

C. Blackouts

D. Brownouts

8. Stream and block methods are used to encrypt data. Which of these statements
about stream and block ciphers is not true?

A. Stream-based ciphers are relatively stronger than block ciphers.

B. Many stream-based ciphers are implemented in hardware, whereas block-

based ciphers are implemented in software.

C. Block ciphers are more expensive to implement than stream-based ciphers.

D. Block ciphers require much more processing power than stream-based

ciphers.

9. Buffer overflows, which used to be a key threat earlier have now been replaced
by another type of threat. Which of the following is now considered the biggest
threat to current web systems?

A. Boot viruses
 B. Cross-site scripting (XSS)

C. Server side scripting (SSS)

D. Macro viruses

10. A programmer did not have access to a secure resource. However, he has been
granted access to a program that has access to the secure resource. The
programmer is able to bypass the security and obtain information from the
secure resource. How can this be prevented?

A. By implementing the concept of most privilege.

B. By having a low granularity of control.

C. By having high granularity of control

D. By centralizing all requests related to access control.

11. Many companies define the scope of their business continuity plans to only
cover larger threats. How are smaller threats handled in such cases?

A. By independent departmental plans

B. Smaller threats are ignored since their impact is lower.

C. By mini-BCP plans

D. By common departmental plans

12. Which of the following processes provides integrity of data but not data origin
authentication?

A. HMAC

B. MIC

C. CBC-MAC

D. Hash
13. One of the major disadvantages of using threads is a deadlock. What other
disadvantage do threads have?

A. Thrashing

B. Blocking

C. Loading

D. Clocking

14. Networks need to be periodically scanned. Which of these is not a valid type of
network scanning?

A. Compliance scanning

B. Integrated scanning

C. Vulnerability scanning

D. Discovery scanning

15. Which of the following statements regarding copyrights is true?

A. Copyright law protects the source code, object code as well as the user
interface.

B. Copyright law protects only the source code.

C. Copyright law protects the source code and the user interface but not the
object code.

D. Copyright law protects the source code and object code, but not the user
interface.

16. A credit card company has revamped its internal team structure. Earlier, an
informal structure existed, but the new structure now houses an information
security department. Ideally, to whom should this department report?

A. The CEO
 B. Corporate Security

C. Administrative Services

D. The CIO

17. Hackers are looking to dial into a Remote Access Server (RAS) and
clandestinely access the internal networks of a company. What method will
likely be used by them to determine the phone number that provides access to
the RAS dial-up modem?

A. Inwarddialing

B. Wardialing

C. Crashdialling

D. Breakdialing

18. If asked to select the fastest Ethernet type between 10Base-2, 10Base-T and
10Base-5, you would choose:

A. 10Base-5

B. 10Base-T

C. All three have the same speed.

D. 10Base-2

19. As a security officer, you are reviewing the security controls on some systems.
Which of the following situations may warrant use of fewer security controls?

A. A proprietary credit card application used across a public network.

B. A mobile banking application.

C. A proprietary financial application running in a closed environment.

D. A banking application delivered across the internet.

20. A company generates large amounts of data every week. Governmental
regulations mandate that the company maintain these records for 7 years.
Which of the following will help the company maintain this data?

A. A media library

B. A data server

C. A master server

D. A data library

21. One of the users of an application dealing with confidential data often leaves
printouts of such confidential reports on his desk. The user is aware that the
information is confidential. What is the procedure to detect such lapses?

A. Data classification auditing

B. User training

C. Data classification assurance

D. Data classification control

22. Which of these is not a responsibility of the business continuity planning (BCP)
team?

A. Understand the current operational and technical functioning environment.

B. Provide a solution to protect and restore company data when needed.

C. Set up and maintain the company's data classification procedures.

D. Determine the best back-up process so that data can be made available
depending on its classification.

23. An administrator would like to ensure that there is absolutely no security breach
in accessing very confidential data and decides to implement a system that will
capture electrical signals when a person signs a signature. The information
from this system will then be used to authenticate users. Such a system would be
 called:

A. Signature topography

B. Signature control

C. Digital signature

D. Signature dynamics

24. Network Address Translation (NAT) is an effective means to overcome the

shortage of IP addresses. NAT enables a network to communicate over the
Internet even though it may not internally follow the Internet's addressing
scheme. Which of these is not a valid NAT implementation?

A. Port Address Translation (PAT)

B. LDAP

C. Dynamic mapping

D. Static mapping

25. An attacker is trying to gain information about a smart-card. Which of the

following attacks is not a side-channel attack?

A. Fault generation

B. Differential power analysis

C. Electromagnetic analysis

D. Timing analysis

26. Which of the following techniques should be used by programmers while

programming using Open Database Connectivity (ODBC) to ensure that the
physical location of databases or passwords used to connect to them are not
exposed?

A. Use of Data Source Names (DSNs)

 B. Encapsulation

C. Use of hashes

D. Use of simple text ciphers

27. The purpose of continuity planning is to minimize the impact of a disaster or an

incident. Which of the following is a key metric in the aftermath of a disaster?

A. Compromised customer service

B. Employee turnover

C. Extra expense

D. Revenue loss

28. Business continuity and disaster recovery plans need to be tested to identify
their weaknesses. In which of the following tests are specifically identified
systems run at the alternate facility and compared with the regular processing
that happens at the primary site?

A. Full-interruption testing

B. Parallel testing

C. Structured walk-through testing.

D. Simulation testing

29. Static electricity does not usually cause damage to human beings. However, it
can ruin equipment which is sensitive. Which of the following humidity
conditions is most conducive for static to develop?

A. Humidity of 35%

B. Humidity of 90%

C. Humidity of 15%
 D. Humidity of 60%

30. A company considers that its data is very critical and loss of the data would be
disastrous. What is the recommended backup procedure for such critical data?

A. Backup at an onsite location.

B. Backup at an offsite location.

C. Use of a differential backup process.

D. Backup at an onsite location as well as an offsite location.

31. A company has some non-critical work that takes place on its premises. The
company does not expect any major threat from domestic terrorists. Normally
what kind of material would the company use for its buildings?

A. Heavy timber construction material

B. Fire resistant material

C. Incombustible material

D. Light frame construction material.

32. An individual using an open source software found an important security

vulnerability. He contacted the vendor of the software and asked that the
vulnerability followed by a fix be released to the public. This is known as:

A. Partial disclosure

B. Full disclosure

C. Interim disclosure

D. Covert disclosure

33. Which of the following situations least warrants the use of an identity
management solution?
 A. It takes two days to revoke and disable accesses when an employee leaves
the company.

B. It takes three days to setup new employees with required accesses to systems.

C. Users have to use five separate IDs and passwords to obtain information
from various systems within the company.

D. Login screens are very slow to load and take a long time to authenticate
users.

34. A citizen programmer developed an application. As a security administrator,

what would you assume about the security of such an application?

A. Its security would exceed that of an application developed by a professional

programmer.

B. Its security would compare well with that of an application developed by a

professional programmer.

C. It would have a basic level of security.

D. It would lack any security controls and not provide an assurance to security.

35. Which of the following statements is not true about asymmetric algorithms?

A. Keys are usually generated by a cryptographic application without user

involvement.

B. Asymmetric algorithms are usually slower than symmetric algorithms.

C. The number of keys required to communicate between 10 people is 45

D. It is simpler to go in one direction (forward) than in the other direction

(backward).

36. A computer user was under the impression that he could do little harm with his
computer. He sent out a flame email which resulted in his being sued for libel.
This type of ethics fallacy is typically labeled as:
 A. Shatterproof fallacy

B. Law-abiding citizen fallacy

C. Candy-from-a-baby fallacy

D. Free information fallacy

37. A computer department is in the process of physically labeling all the IT

hardware in the company. Which of these would have the least priority to be
included on the hardware label/tag?

A. Serial No. of hardware

B. Model of hardware

C. Location of hardware

D. Name of user

38. An attacker tried to launch a replay attack by capturing some data from a
session and resubmitting it to the server. Which of these techniques will counter
a replay attack?

A. Machine numbers

B. Threshold numbers

C. Packet control

D. Sequence numbers

39. Which of the following is a mathematical model for information flow?

A. Noninterference model

B. Array model

C. Matrix model
 D. Lattice model

40. For computer systems, the mean time to repair (MTTR) is likely to be
measured in:

A. Seconds

B. Hours

C. Depends on the equipment

D. Minutes
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE) - 14
Answer Key and Explanations

1. C - The gauge of fencing wiring refers to the thickness of the wire used in a
fence mesh. The higher the gauge number, the thinner the wire. The mesh size is
the distance between the wires. Hence, a 1 inch mesh is more secure than 2 inch
mesh and within that, a 9 gauge is stronger than a 11 gauge. [Security
Operations]

2. C - System tampering usually indicates an insider attack on a system. When this

is noticed, a detailed internal investigation should be conducted to determine if
there is a possibility of criminal activity. [Security Operations]

3. B - Authentication can be viewed as a two-step process. The first is the

identification step, involving entering of the userID. This is public information.
The next step is the authentication step, involving entering of the password. This
is private information. [Identity and Access Management]

4. D - This is known as Responsive area illumination. This is a feature of the IDS.

When an IDS detects suspicious activity in an area the IDS turns on the lights
there. However, the possibility of false alarms exists. Hence this should ideally
be combined with some form of CCTV monitoring. [Security Operations]

5. B - The Bank for International Settlements came up with a system by which

banks could prevent themselves from overextending / becoming insolvent. This
is known as Basel II Accord. Information security is a key part of the
guidelines. [Security and Risk Management]

6. B - A screened-subnet architecture provides a high degree of protection

compared to a stand-alone or screened host firewall because three devices work
together and all three must be compromised before the attacker can gain access.
[Communications and Network Security]

7. A - Surges refer to a prolonged rise in the voltage from a power source. These
cause a lot of damage and need to be controlled through surge protectors.
Although computer power supplies have a basic surge protection, they need to
be plugged into larger surge protectors for prolonged protection. [Security
Operations]
 A - Block ciphers operate on blocks of text. Block ciphers usually use a
8. combination of substitution/transposition. As a result, block ciphers are
relatively stronger than stream-based ciphers. [Asset Security]

9. B - Cross-site scripting (XSS) is now considered a key threat in web

applications. It refers to an attack where an attacker finds a vulnerability on a
website and uses this to inject malicious code into the hosted application. Users
accessing the site will then get infected. [Software Development Security]

10. C - Such a situation where a programmer has access to an underlying resource

through a program to which he has access can be addressed by adequate
granularity of controls. If the security controls are granular enough to address
both the program and the user, this is resolved. [Software Development
Security]

11. A - At the company level, most companies outline their business company plans
to only cover the major threats. Smaller threats are expected to be handled by
individual departments through departmental contingency plans. [Security and
Risk Management]

12. D - A hash only offers integrity. If a message has been unintentionally modified,
it can be detected. However, it does not offer data origin authentication. HMAC
and CBC-MAC offer data origin authentication. [Asset Security]

13. B - When a thread makes a specific system call (example: an I/O request), the
call will not return back until it has completed or the call is interrupted by a
signal. If any fault occurs during the call, the call may not even come back, or
may take an extended period to return. During this period, the thread cannot
execute any other instruction. This is known as blocking. [Security
Engineering]

14. B - Integrated scanning is not a valid scanning method used to scan networks.
Discovery, compliance and vulnerability scanning are valid methods used to
scan networks for specific purposes. [Communications and Network Security]

15. A - Computer programs may be protected by copyright law under the category
of literary works. The source code, object code as well as the user interface are
covered by this law. [Security and Risk Management]

16. A - A credit card company has high security needs. Ideally, in such an
 organization the information security department should report to the CEO
directly. This minimizes message filtering and enhances communication. This
also sends out a strong signal that the company values information security.
[Security and Risk Management]

17. B - Wardialing is used by attackers to find an entry point into a network.

Specifically written tools are used to dial a bank of phone numbers. The tools
identify lines used for data communication and try to identify the system on the
other end of the line. [Communications and Network Security]

18. C - All three offer the same speeds of response, namely 10Mbps. The difference
is that 10Base-2 and 10Base-5 use coaxial type of cable whereas 10Base-T uses
UTP. [Communications and Network Security]

19. C - A proprietary application running in a closed environment is likely to use

fewer security controls since there is already a greater level of control on the
users accessing the system. As with all applications, security is always an issue.
However, the question here is a relative comparison. [Software Development
Security]

20. A - Media libraries are very useful when large amounts of data need to be
stored in a protected environment. They allow data to be stored in an orderly
manner so that data can be easily retrieved when required. However, a flip side
is that they are quite expensive. [Security Operations]

21. C - Data classification assurance is performed to test data classification and

assure that the activities are being done. This includes random audits of user
areas, information left in open shredding bins, information posted on a public
website etc. In contrast, data classification auditing reviews classifications to
ensure the accuracy of the information. [Identity and Access Management]

22. C - The BCP team is not responsible for setting up / maintaining the company's
data classification procedures. However, during their assessment process, they
may determine that certain areas are weak or vulnerable and they may make
recommendations to management to protect such data. [Security and Risk
Management]

23. D - This is known as signature dynamics. It is based on the fact that when
individuals sign, they sign in the same manner each time. This in turn produces
a uniform pattern of electrical signatures which can then be fed to a biometric
 system to distinguish between users. [Identity and Access Management]

24. B - LDAP is not a valid NAT implementation. The other three choices Static
mapping, Dynamic mapping and Port Address Translation (PAT) are valid NAT
implementations. [Communications and Network Security]

25. A - Fault generation is a method by which an attacker introduces a computation

based error into a smart-card. This error could be based on a changed voltage,
a clock rate or a change in temperature. The attacker hopes that this will allow
him to uncover the encryption process. In contrast, side-channel attacks are
nonintrusive and attempt to uncover information without compromising on any
flaw or weakness. [Identity and Access Management]

26. A - This achieved by the use of Data Source Names (DSNs). These are logical
names used to refer to data stores instead of the actual physical location (ex: the
drive letter or directory location). This helps the security of the system because
the connection strings are variables stored in the registry. Use of DSNs is also a
best practice. [Software Development Security]

27. A - Customer service is a key measure in the aftermath of a disaster. It is usually

impacted in varying degrees and is reflective of the preparedness of an
organization. Compromise in customer service eventually results in revenue
loss, but this can be minimized. [Security and Risk Management]

28. B - Parallel testing is done to make sure that specific, identified systems
perform to the required levels at the alternate sites. Their performance is
compared to the regular processing and any gaps that exist can then be plugged.
[Security and Risk Management]

29. C - Low humidity conditions (< 20 %) are conducive for static charge to be
built up. Hence, it is best to keep the humidity in computer / server rooms
between 35 and 60% at all times. Higher humidity causes condensation on the
equipment. [Security Operations]

30. D - Critical data should be backed up at an onsite location as well as an offsite

location. Onsite copies would be easily accessible in case of non-disasters and
day-to-day operations. In case of a disaster, the offsite copy would kick into
effect. [Security and Risk Management]

31. A - Heavy timber construction material is used in constructing office buildings.

 There are requirements on the thickness and composition of material for
protection from fire. The other options of incombustible or fire resistant
material may be costly options and need not be used unless the company has
critical work on the premises and is concerned about threats due to fire or
intrusion. Light frame construction material is only used for homes. [Security
Operations]

32. A - Such a model where the individual contacts the vendor of the software and
asks for the vulnerability and fix to be published to the public is known as
partial disclosure. It could also include release of information about the
vulnerability and any possible workarounds. In contrast, full disclosure means
that an individual who finds the security vulnerability will disseminate the
information to the public at large. [Software Development Security]

33. D - Login screens taking a lot of time to load is not an issue related to access. It
may be an issue related to network capacity or the server. An identity
management solution will not solve this problem. The other choices are valid
reasons why a company would go in for an identity management solution.
[Identity and Access Management]

34. D - Until proved otherwise, it would be expected that an application developed

by a citizen programmer would lack security controls and would not provide
assurance to security. This is because citizen programmers are unlikely to have
been trained in proper system / application development processes. [Software
Development Security]

35. C - Each user requires a pair of keys (a public key and a private key). So, the
number of keys required for 10 people to communicate is 10 x 2 = 20. All the
other statements about asymmetric algorithms are true. [Asset Security]

36. A - This is known as shatterproof fallacy. Many computer-users believe that

they can do little harm by using their computers. They tend to behave in a
manner which is inappropriate, although they are aware that behaving in the
same manner could lead to trouble in a physical forum not involving a
computer. [Security and Risk Management]

37. D - The name of the user is the least useful in this list. A hardware tag will not
usually include the name of the user. The user details will normally be included
in software form. [Security Operations]
38. D - In a replay attack, the attacker hopes to be authenticated again as someone
else, by replaying captured data. This type of attack can be countered by
timestamps and sequence numbers. Packets contain sequence numbers, so each
machine expects a specific number on a packet. If a sequence number repeats
itself, it is an indication of a replay attack. [Asset Security]

39. D - The lattice model is a mathematical model that provides a certain basic level
of protection if all its rules are followed properly. [Security Engineering]

40. C - The mean time to repair (MTTR) is the time it will take to get a device fixed
or repaired and back into action. The lower the MTTR the better. However, it
will vary for different types of operations. For example, a disk failure in a
server will have a different service level than a disk failure in an end user's
workstation. So, the MTTR depends on the equipment. [Security Operations]
CISSP Extended Quiz
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Extended Quiz

Total Questions: 30
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 25 (83.33%)
Time Allowed: 45 Minutes

Test Description

This is an extended CISSP quiz which includes questions from all eight domains of
the CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. Which of the following tools performs a very similar function to that of a

password checker?

A. Password dictionary

B. Password cracker

C. Password Verifier

D. Password maker

2. A secure system maintains a list of a user's last ten passwords and prevents the
user from reusing these passwords. This ensures good security and is known
as:

A. Password database

B. Password match

C. Password list

D. Password history
3. A user typed in his username and password into a login screen. The system
immediately came back with another screen to enter his username and password
again. The user assumed that he had wrongly entered his username / password
and re-entered them. He was then logged into the system. What type of attack is
this likely to be?

A. Farming

B. Brute force

C. Pharming

D. Spoofing

4. It is important to identify what information is critical to a company and

appropriately classify it. This will help the company protect the data in a cost-
effective manner. From the following choices, select a statement which
correctly describes a characteristic of a data classification program:

A. There should be no overlap in the criteria definitions for classification

levels.

B. Once a data owner is identified, the owner can never be changed.

C. Classification levels should be developed only for data and not software.

D. Procedures for declassifying data should not be created.

5. Voice over IP (VoIP) technology is used to provide advanced voice data

transmission with improved bandwidth. What protocol does it employ to setup
and break down the call sessions?

A. PBX

B. SIP

C. SS7

D. PSTN
6. A company developed a software product by following a standard software
development life cycle (SDLC) and released it into the market. The developers
on the project were moved into another development project to develop yet
another product. Subsequently, it was found that both products had a lot of bugs.
Which of the following processes was likely missed out, resulting in this
situation?

A. Unit testing

B. Postmortem review

C. Quality assurance

D. Regression testing

7. A risk assessment revealed a number of low-level impact and high-level impact

risks. The cost of mitigating the low-level impact risks was very high. Which of
the following risk management strategies may be used in this scenario?

A. Risk transference

B. Risk avoidance

C. Risk acceptance

D. Risk mitigation

8. Security safeguards are carefully evaluated and a number of parameters related

to cost, maintenance, testing, repair etc are taken into consideration before
deciding on one. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about
safeguards?

A. Safeguards must be completely concealed.

B. Safeguards should require minimal amount of human intervention.

C. Safeguards should default to least privilege when installed.

D. Safeguards should have an override functionality that can be used by an

administrator if necessary.
9. Most systems will contain a number of data attributes related to a user. For
example, a user could have an email address, a home address, a phone number
etc. What is the general rule to be followed with respect to data updates for such
profiles?

A. Non-sensitive data can be updated by the user while sensitive data should
only be updated by an administrator.

B. The user should be able to access and update all data on his/her profile.

C. All data updates to a user's profile should only be done by an administrator.

D. Sensitive data can be updated by the user while non-sensitive data should
only be updated by an administrator.

10. An online photograph company was concerned that photographs from its
website were being downloaded and copyright laws were being violated. It
decided to insert a digital watermark on the photographs so that illegal users of
the photographs could be caught. What is this form of concealing identification
data known as?

A. Steganography

B. Steganytics

C. Digital copyright

D. Watermark cryptology

11. Once BCP/DRP plans have been created, they need to be tested. Which of the
following will require comparatively more planning and involve a lot of
people?

A. Straight-through test

B. Simulation test

C. Structured walkthrough test

D. Checklist test
12. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is a well known email security product. Which of
the following is another method used for secure email?

A. S / MIME

B. HTTPS

C. MIME / S

D. TCP / IP

13. The difference between a dictionary attack and a rainbow table attack is:

A. A rainbow table attack uses thousands of words and tries to match them to a
user's password whereas a dictionary attack uses a table with thousands of
possible passwords already in hash format.

B. A dictionary attack is used to match a user's ID whereas a rainbow table

attack targets the password.

C. A dictionary attack and a rainbow table attack are the same.

D. A dictionary attack uses thousands of words and tries to match them to a

user's password whereas a rainbow table attack uses a table with thousands
of possible passwords already in hash format.

14. A network administrator found that an internal network was overburdened and
decided to divide it into smaller segments for better traffic control and use of
bandwidth. What device would she use for this purpose?

A. A switch

B. A bridge

C. A divider

D. A router

15. Which of the following is a poorly implemented output control?

 A. If a report has no information to be reported, it should contain a line saying
“no output”.

B. A printout of an authorization email should always be required before

releasing sensitive output.

C. A heading and trailing banner should indicate who the intended receiver is.

D. Once output is created, it must always have proper access controls

(irrespective of the format in which it exists).

16. Audit trails are used to provide alerts about potentially suspicious activities.
They can be used to perform investigations at a later time and to determine how
far an attack has gone. Which of these is an incorrect guideline for audit trails?

A. All audit logs should be stored securely.

B. Audit trails of high-privileged accounts such as root or the administrator

should not be maintained.

C. Audit logs must be protected from unauthorized changes so that the data is
safeguarded.

D. The ability to delete audit logs should be available only to administrators.

17. An operating system needs to be developed such that it works using a ring
structure. What can be said about the actual ring structure?

A. The actual ring structure is dependent both on the processor and the
operating system.

B. The actual ring structure is dependent only on the processor.

C. The actual ring structure does not depend either on the processor or on the
operating system.

D. The actual ring structure is dependent only on the operating system.

18. An intruder was detected in a car parking lot and CCTV footage of the intruder
loitering around trying to break into cars was obtained. The intruder was
 captured by security guards. If the CCTV records are to be presented in court,
which of the following needs to be done?

A. The CCTV footage must be displayed in court such that the car number
plates and faces of individuals other than the accused need to be blurred out
or pixelated.

B. The CCTV footage must be certified by the CEO before it can be viewed in
court.

C. The CCTV footage must be played to the intruder to ask him to confirm that
it was his actions that were captured.

D. The CCTV footage must be immediately seized and presented in court for
public viewing without any changes.

19. An employee emailed the source code of a software algorithm to a friend. As a

result, the company decided to terminate the employee. The employee
challenged this in court and claimed that he was wrongfully terminated. Given
this scenario, which of the following is incorrect?

A. The onus is on the company to prove the steps taken to secure the algorithm,
the importance indicated to employees, and the potential damage for misuse.

B. The company needs to prove what steps it had taken to secure the algorithm

C. The company needs to prove why the algorithm was important to the
company.

D. The company needs to show what type of damage has been done or could be
done due to the algorithm being leaked out.

20. Development on a project involved various modules. A developer on the

project wrote a security module with low cohesion. What does this mean?

A. The security module interacts with very few other modules to perform its
tasks.

B. The security module carries out multiple tasks and that makes it difficult to
maintain.
 C. The security module interacts with a lot of other modules to perform its
tasks.

D. The security module carries out a single task and that makes it simple to
maintain.

21. A company considers that the security of emails is very important and decides
to implement e-mail protection. Which of the following is true in such a case?

A. The sender and recipient can use different types of encryption schemes.

B. The sender and the recipient can use different encryption schemes but they
will need a converter software to convert from one scheme to another.

C. The sender and the recipient must both use the same type of encryption
scheme.

D. The sender and the recipient can use different encryption schemes except in
case of PGP and PKI, which are compatible with each other.

22. An organization is heavily dependent on Voice over IP (VoIP) for its day-to-day
activities. What implication does this have for the team that is performing a
business impact analysis assessment?

A. The team does not have to do anything specifically to handle this scenario.

B. The team needs to plan to procure additional bandwidth in case a disaster

strikes.

C. The team should address the need for redundant voice systems.

D. The team should make a recommendation to avoid use of VoIP systems. This
will minimize the risk involved.

23. Companies need to comply with local and national standards in dealing with
fire prevention, detection and suppression. How far from electrical equipment
should portable extinguishers be placed?

A. There is no guideline in this case

 B. At a predefined place in the building.

C. Within 50 ft of electrical equipment

D. Within 100 ft of electrical equipment

24. A retailer decided to create an online shopping website. He registered a domain

name and planned to use a static IP address of 192.168.2.15. What would your
comment on this be?

A. The series of IP addresses from 192.168.2.0 to 192.168.2.255 are reserved

for governmental purposes.

B. The series of IP addresses from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 is reserved

as private addresses and may not be used on the Internet

C. This is fine as long as the retailer ensures that the static IP address has been
uniquely assigned by the Internet service provider.

D. The IP address does not matter as long as the website name has been
properly registered.

25. An inexperienced developer on a project wrote code for a security module with
high coupling. How would you interpret this statement?

A. This means that the module interacts with many other modules. It is
preferable to have low coupling.

B. This means that the module carries out a single task. This makes it easy to
maintain.

C. This means that the module carries out multiple tasks. This makes it more
difficult to maintain.

D. This means that the module interacts with very few other modules and is the
ideal situation to be in.

26. Individual networks on the Internet are connected with other networks using
routing protocols. Which of the following protocols builds an accurate routing
table by building a topology database of the network?
 A. Distance-vector routing protocol

B. Time-based routing protocol

C. Link-state routing protocol

D. Internet-vector routing protocol

27. Integrity models map abstract goals of a security policy to information system
terms and enforce the security policy. Which of the following is not a goal of
an integrity model?

A. To prevent an unauthorized user from making modifications.

B. To prevent an authorized user from making improper modifications.

C. To ensure that covert channels are available to transfer data.

D. To maintain external as well as internal consistency

28. The European Union takes individual privacy very seriously and has strict laws
on what data is considered private. Which of these is not one of the European
Union privacy principles?

A. Only the necessary individuals who are required to accomplish the stated
task should have access to the data.

B. Unnecessary data should not be collected

C. The reason for the gathering of data must be clearly specified at the time of
data collection.

D. Data should only be kept for a maximum of 3 years from the time it was
first collected.

29. A professor in a school shared a time management software with a colleague so

that she could check out its features and buy the software if she found it useful.
This may have likely violated the terms under which the software was licensed
to the professor. What ethical principle would the professor apply to justify his
action?
 A. Owner's conservation of ownership

B. Informed consent

C. User's conservation of ownership

D. Change of scale test

30. A safe containing confidential data needs to be protected from potential

intruders. Which of the following intrusion detection techniques is least useful
for this purpose?

A. Photoelectric systems

B. Wave-pattern motion detectors

C. A proximity detector

D. Standby lighting
CISSP Extended Quiz
Answer Key and Explanations

1. B - A password cracker and a password checker perform almost the same

function. When the tool is used by a security professional to test the strength of
a password, it is called a password checker whereas it is called a password
cracker if used by a hacker. [Identity and Access Management]

2. D - This is known as password history. Typically, the last 5 to 10 passwords are

maintained by the system and users are not allowed to revert to these while
changing their passwords. [Identity and Access Management]

3. D - This is likely to be a spoof at logon. In this type of attack, the attacker

provides the user with a realistic looking fake logon screen. The user enters his
username/password which then is seized by the user. The attacker then passes
control back to the operating system so that the actual logon screen is presented
back to the user. The user assumes that he mistyped his credentials and re-enters
them. [Identity and Access Management]

4. A - While developing data classification procedures, care should be taken to

ensure that there is no overlap between the criteria definitions of different
classification levels. This ensure proper focus on the data. [Security and Risk
Management]

5. B - Voice over IP (VoIP) technology uses session initiation protocol (SIP) to set
up and break down call sessions. This is an application layer protocol that can
work over TCP or UDP. [Communications and Network Security]

6. B - A postmortem review is one in which a completed project is looked at

objectively and issues that could be improved upon are identified. It is likely
that a postmortem review was missed out on the first project. Hence the bugs
seen in the first project were also seen in the second one. Many companies do
not see value in postmortem reviews and re-assign developers on a project to
new projects to maximize their utilization. [Software Development Security]

7. C - In this scenario, a number of low-level impact risks have been identified.

The company is most likely to accept the risks (Risk acceptance) since it is a
costlier option to try to mitigate them. The other strategies of risk avoidance,
mitigation and transference may not help in this case. [Security and Risk
 Management]

8. A - Safeguards should be highly visible. This announces to potential attackers

that the necessary protection is in place. However, attackers should not be able
to discover how the safeguards work, else it will enable them to bypass or get
around the protection. [Security and Risk Management]

9. A - A typical rule to be followed is that a user can access and update non-
sensitive data while sensitive data can only be updated by an administrator. For
example, a user may be allowed to update an email address or address
information while sensitive data such as the expiry date of the login ID cannot
be accessed by the user. [Identity and Access Management]

10. A - A method of hiding data in another media type is known as steganography.

This technique does not use algorithms or keys to encrypt information. Using a
digital watermark to ensure that illegal copies can be detected is also an
instance of steganography. [Asset Security]

11. B - A simulation test requires a lot of planning, and involves more people than
other types of tests. In this test, all employees who participate in operational /
support functions are brought together to practice executing the disaster
recovery plan. It raises the awareness of the people involved. [Security and Risk
Management]

12. A - S/MIME is the security enhancement for the MIME Internet email standard.
It provides several features and includes signed and encrypted email messages.
[Asset Security]

13. D - A dictionary attack uses thousands of words and tries to match them to a
user's password whereas a rainbow table attack uses a table with thousands of
possible passwords already in hash format. The other options listed are
incorrect. [Identity and Access Management]

14. B - The network administrator would use a bridge for this purpose. Bridges are
used to divide overburdened networks into smaller segments. A bridge also
amplifies signals similar to a repeater, however it has more intelligence built in
and is used to extend a LAN. [Communications and Network Security]

15. B - A requirement to have a printout of an email for release of sensitive output

is a poor control. The email can easily be spoofed and a printout is no proof
 that it originated from the person who purports to have sent it. It is better to use
a signature based system, which can then be matched against an existing
database of signatures. [Security Operations]

16. B - Although administrators may have the necessary access rights to view logs
and delete logs, their activities should also be logged. This will ensure that a
trail is available in case of security breaches by administrators or other high-
profile accounts. [Identity and Access Management]

17. A - The actual ring structure used by a system depends on the processor as well
as the operating system. Hardware chips are constructed to provide a certain
number of rings, and operating systems work within this structure. [Security
Engineering]

18. A - Privacy regulations require that the images of individuals other than the
accused, and car number plate information should be blurred. The other choices
are not valid. [Security Operations]

19. A - The onus is on the company to prove that the employee was guilty of
violating its intellectual property rights by emailing the software algorithm. It
must be able to show that it had taken steps to protect the file, had explained to
its employees that the file should not be shared or copied, and the type of
damage that would be caused as a result of loss of the algorithm. [Security and
Risk Management]

20. B - A module with low cohesion means that it carries out multiple tasks,
increasing the complexity of the module. This also makes it difficult to reuse /
maintain. If a module interacts with few other modules, it is said to have low
coupling. In general, high cohesion and low coupling are preferred. [Software
Development Security]

21. C - When users need to use a security scheme to protect messages from being
eavesdropped or modified, both parties (sender and recipient) must use the
same encryption scheme. Additionally, if the security administrator or
professional wants to ensure that all messages between two points are encrypted
and does not want to rely on individual users doing so, he/she can implement a
VPN. [Security Operations]

22. C - As more and more organizations move to VoIP, it becomes important for
them to plan for redundant voice systems. This is because in case of a disaster,
 if the network goes down, both network and voice capability are unavailable.
The other choices listed are impractical. [Security and Risk Management]

23. C - As a general guideline, portable fire extinguishers need to be placed within

50 ft of any electrical equipment. They also need to be placed near exits.
[Security Operations]

24. B - The series of IP addresses from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 are a series

of 256 contiguous class C network addresses reserved for private use. They
may be used within a company but not on the Internet. [Communications and
Network Security]

25. A - If a module interacts with few other modules, it is said to have low coupling.
In contrast, a module with low cohesion means that it carries out multiple tasks,
increasing the complexity of the module. This also makes it difficult to reuse /
maintain. In general, high cohesion and low coupling are preferred. [Software
Development Security]

26. C - Link-state routing protocols build accurate routing tables by building a

topology database of the network. The protocols look at a number of variables
such as packet size, link speed, delay, loading etc as variables in their algorithm
to decide on the best routes for packets. [Communications and Network
Security]

27. C - A covert channel is a way in which an unauthorized entity can receive

information. This is not one of the goals of the integrity models. All the other
choices are valid goals. [Security Engineering]

28. D - The European Union privacy principle does not specify a period for
retention of data. It states that data should only be kept for as long as it is needed
to accomplish the stated task. [Security and Risk Management]

29. D - The 'change of scale test' applies in this case. The professor thinks it is okay
to let his colleague use the software for evaluation purposes even though
specific permission may not have been obtained from the vendor. The other
choices do not adequately cover this scenario. [Security and Risk Management]

30. D - Standby lighting is the least effective in this case. The other three types of
intrusion detection systems listed will detect the presence of an intruder in the
vicinity of the safe. Standby lighting does not specifically help once an intruder
has broken in. [Security Operations]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)15
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)15

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. A new work area is being setup in the conference room of a small commercial
office building. The data cabling is being pulled through the space above the
floating tile ceiling from the wiring closet on the same floor. What rating
should this cabling have?

A. Cat6E

B. UTP

C. Plenum

D. 10BaseT

2. Macmillan Aerospace Engineering is installing a perimeter fence. Which of the

following will provide the best protection?

A. A 7-foot solid wall fence with 3-4 strands of barbed wire at the top, tilted
outward.

B. A 7-foot chain link fence with 3-4 strands of barbed wire at the top, tilted
inward
 C. A 7-foot chain link fence with 3-4 strands of barbed wire at the top, tilted
outward.

D. A 7-foot solid wall fence with 3-4 strands of barbed wire at the top, tilted
inward.

3. Reducing or eliminating risk is accomplished by implementing which of the

following?

A. A quality assurance team

B. An incident response plan

C. A risk management policy

D. Countermeasures

4. A document mandating a) that all corporate email will comply with HIPAA
regulations, and a document mandating b) that a specific email client is to be
used are examples of what types of security measures?

A. a) Security Policy and b) Security Guideline

B. Both documents are security policies

C. a) Security Policy and b) Security Standard

D. a) Security Standard and b) Security Policy

5. An application module checks the values entered by a user to validate they are
within the expected range for the information requested. Once the data is
determined to be appropriate, it is passed to another application module for
further processing. What is this validation process called?

A. Virtual machine

B. Parsing

C. ActiveX controls
 D. Parameter validation

6. Marcom Publishers are implementing a new monitoring tool in their data

center. Corporate security policy places strong limits on the types of inbound
connections that can be made to resources in their network. Which of the
following application features might conflict with this policy?

A. Remote desktop control

B. All of the above

C. Out of band management modems

D. Administrative consoles

7. There are many types of cybercriminals. Which of the following would be most
likely to deface a corporate website?

A. Script kiddies

B. Disgruntled employees

C. Hactivists

D. Advanced persistent threats

8. Bob wants to implement an authentication system that uses both symmetric and
asymmetric key cryptography. Which of the following meet his requirement?

A. AES

B. SESAME

C. Realm

D. Kerberos

9. In which of the following environments would a passive infrared sensor be

least effective?
 A. An art gallery

B. A climate controlled warehouse

C. A storage shed

D. A gymnasium

10. Matthew is developing a data backup plan for his company. It specifies what
data is to be backed up, the frequency, the backup type, and where the backup
media is to be stored. What other critical component should this plan cover?

A. Antivirus management

B. How long backups are to be retained

C. Denial of service attacks

D. Network saturation

11. FM-200 is the most effective replacement for which of the following fire
suppression chemicals?

A. Inergen

B. FE-200

C. FE-13

D. Argon

12. The management of a mid-sized consulting firm is considering using a

qualitative approach to risk management, because it will leverage the
experience and expertise of the company's staff. While this approach has a
number of benefits, it also has a number of cons, including which of the
following?

A. Assessments are subjective.

B. There is not a standard way to compare different vendor's products or

 processes.

C. All of the above

D. It is difficult or impossible to derive dollar values for cost/ benefit

determination

13. The security team at Jones Shipping is configuring the company's IDS to send
an alert to the team when suspicious activity occurs. The team specifies the
activities to be monitored, and the number of times those events can occur
before an alert is sent. What is this alarm threshold called?

A. Policing threshold

B. Audit level

C. Clipping level

D. Active log point

14. Auditing is typically set up in an organization to track events and resource

access. For auditing to be most useful, however, which of the following should
be done?

A. Set appropriate log sizes.

B. Develop an auditing policy and plan.

C. All of the above

D. Audit logs should be reviewed regularly

15. The public library in a small Midwestern city would like to implement a system
that will keep a tally of how many users visit the library on a daily basis. Which
of the following would be the best choice for this scenario?

A. Turnstile

B. RFID tokens
 C. Badge readers

D. Smart cards

16. Mary is a computer forensics consultant who has been called in to testify as an
expert witness in a trial. What type of evidence does she provide?

A. Opinion evidence

B. Secondary evidence

C. Corroborative evidence

D. Best evidence

17. Which of the following statements regarding stream and block ciphers is
correct?

A. Block ciphers use pseudorandom number generators, stream ciphers do not.

B. Stream ciphers typically execute at a higher speed than block ciphers and
have lower hardware complexity

C. Both block and stream ciphers use pseudorandom number generators.

D. Block ciphers typically execute at a higher speed than stream ciphers and
have lower hardware complexity

18. Global Manufacturing has establish a policy prohibiting POTS lines in its
datacenters in an attempt to prevent what type of attack?

A. Ma Bell

B. Operator

C. Brute force

D. Wardialing

19. A major storm has damaged the headquarters of Brighton Industries. Which of
 the following processes should be executed first?

A. Damage assessment

B. Business continuity plan activation

C. Critical systems recovery

D. Site relocation

20. SMC Semiconductor has just completed a thorough review of its facilities and
operations by a third party to assess its compliance with a particular industry
standard. SMC has been declared to be in complete compliance with this
standard, and is recognized by the third party as such. What is this recognition
called?

A. Qualified

B. Certification

C. Registered

D. Accreditation

21. An organization's security officer should report as high in the organization as

possible, to maintain awareness of information security and to ensure accurate
translation of security messages in large or extremely hierarchical
organizations. Exactly which reporting model an organization selects depends
on its culture. Reporting to which of the following entities is most likely to
result in information security being viewed as an enterprise function?

A. CEO

B. CIO

C. CFO

D. COO

22. Western Geology Associates has installed several types of physical security
 measures at their Dallas, Texas facility. These measures include a perimeter
fence with gated access, badge entry system to all buildings, and biometric
controls at the entrance to their data center. This is an example of what security
model?

A. Layered defense

B. Security zone

C. Restricted access

D. Chinese wall

23. In public key cryptography, public keys are exchanged between two parties that
wish to communicate. Which of the following is a key agreement protocol used
to share that key over an insecure network?

A. Elliptic curve Diffie Hellman

B. Cipher block chaining

C. Serpent

D. Twofish

24. Jack is suspected of electronically embezzling several thousand dollars from

his company. Jack has access the company bank accounts and knows how to
setup electronic transfers to other accounts. He has also shared with his co-
workers that he is having financial problems. These details are best described
by which of the following?

A. Motive, opportunity, and means

B. B. Circumstantial evidence

C. Chain of custody

D. Criminal intent

25. The triad of information systems security are confidentiality, integrity, and
 availability. Which access control model provides the best protection for
confidentiality?

A. Clark Wilson

B. Biba

C. Bell- LaPadula

D. Non-interference

26. An electrical fire has broken out in a storage room of an accounting firm. What
classification of fire is this?

A. Class D

B. Class C

C. Class B

D. Class A

27. An accounting firm wants to use an information security framework that is

based on financial reporting and disclosure objectives. Which of the following
will meet their needs?

A. Sarbanes- Oxley

B. ISACA

C. COSO

D. COBIT

28. The website of a bank was taken down for several hours by a denial of service
attack. A group of loosely organized individuals have claimed responsibility.
During the subsequent investigation, the responding law enforcement agency
classifies this crime as which of the following?

A. Organizational modification
 B. Computer assisted crime

C. Cyber graffiti

D. Computer targeted crime

29. Of which of the following would a Nigerian email scam best be categorized?

A. Computer is incidental crime

B. Computer targeted crime

C. Wire tapping

D. Computer assisted crime

30. A software company sends to a customer a quote for several hundred licenses
of one of its products. The customer places an order, claiming that the price
quoted was $1 per license. The vendor however, says that the quote they sent
priced the product at $5 per license, and believes the customer changed the
quote. What function of public key cryptography could prove that recipient
altered the message after it was received?

A. Nonrepudiation

B. Authentication

C. Confidentiality

D. Availability

31. Close interaction between IT and facilities is common in many organizations.

Which of the following areas of information security would be most affected
by environmental issues?

A. Integrity

B. All of the above

C. Availability
 D. Confidentiality

32. A large software company discovers one of its applications has a buffer
overflow vulnerability, and released a patch as a countermeasure. Which of the
following data characteristics is affected by a buffer overflow?

A. Availability

B. Confidentiality

C. Integrity

D. State

33. Bartholomew Systems Inc has implemented a very strong three-factor

authentication system. What are the three factors used?

A. Administrative, technical, and logical

B. Something you know, something you have, something you are

C. Confidentiality, integrity, availability

D. Authentication, authorization, and accounting

34. A new badge access system is being piloted at Western Manufacturing. The
badges used in this system have an onboard antenna that, when activated by the
card reader, powers the chip onboard the card. What type of smart card is this?

A. Contact

B. Contactless

C. RFID

D. Proximity activated

35. What are the key principles, or triad, of information security?

A. Logical, Physical, Administrative

 B. Availability, Integrity, Confidentiality

C. Monitoring, Detection, Prevention

D. Content, Privacy, Consistency

36. A government agency has implemented an access control system that regulates
access based on the agency's security clearance system: Need to Know, Secret,
and Top Secret. What is this type of access control system called?

A. Role-based access control

B. Mandatory access control

C. Discretionary access control

D. Context dependent access control

37. Barnes Manufacturing would like put a fence around their production facility,
but they do not own the property and the landlord will not permit the installation
of a fence. As an alternative to a physical barrier, the company has installed
exterior digital video cameras. This scenario is an example of which of the
following?

A. Compensating control

B. Control gap

C. External controls

D. Delay mechanism

38. Mills Manufacturing has used the slogan “You design it, we manufacture it!” on
their marketing materials and corporate stationery for the last 15 years. Which
of the following would be used to provide protection and redress against
another organization using this slogan?

A. Trademark

B. Copyright
 C. An intellectual property attorney

D. Patent

39. A semiconductor company has invented a new type of integrated circuit. Which
of the following would offer the best protection against another company
reverse engineering one of these circuits in order to manufacture and sell a
copy of it?

A. Trademark

B. Copyright

C. Trade secret registration

D. Patent

40. Several companies have deployed their servers in the data center of a managed
hosting provider. While these servers are logically segregated by VLANs, there
is a management VLAN to which all systems are connected. One of the
companies has delayed implementing a critical OS security patch for several
weeks because they have not finished testing its interoperability with the
applications running on its servers. While the company is completing its
testing, the vulnerability for which the patch is issued was exploited on one of
their servers. As a result, the unprotected servers were used to launch a denial
of service attack against the hosting provider and some of the other servers
connected to the management VLAN. During the course of the incident
investigation, it is determined that the company was negligent in delaying the
installation of the patch, and that it is responsible for service outages to the
service provider and the other companies hosted in the datacenter. Which term
best describes this condition?

A. Criminal trespass

B. Downstream liability

C. Civil liability

D. Criminal negligence
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)15
Answer Key and Explanations

1. C - The space above a dropped ceiling and beneath a raised floor is called the
plenum. In many facilities the building ventilation systems are placed in these
spaces. All wiring, including data cabling, that is placed in these types of spaces
must be plenum rated, to ensure they do not release toxic gasses in case of a
fire. [Communications and Network Security]

2. C - Chain link fences provide visibility for security systems and patrols inside
the perimeter to identify possible intruders outside of the fence. The barbed
wire tilted outward makes it more difficult for an intruder to enter over the top
of the fence. [Security Assessment and Testing]

3. D - Countermeasures are safeguards that are put in place to reduce or remove a

potential risk. Countermeasures include virus scanning software, firewalls,
mantraps, and badge readers. [Security and Risk Management]

4. C - Security policies are general statements from an organization's

management that dictates the role security plays in an organization, while
security standards dictate expected user behavior, or acceptable hardware or
software. [Security and Risk Management]

5. D - By using parameter validation, an application's development team can

ensure that only the correct type or range of information is submitted to an
application for processing. Parameter validation can check data for correct
spelling or that only numeric characters are entered in the zip code field, for
example. It can also be used as a countermeasure against attacks in which data is
maliciously changed prior to processing. [Identity and Access Management]

6. B - All of the above items have the potential to conflict with the company's
security policies. Many applications offer features that allow administrators to
manage or control devices remotely; the manner in which these tools are
implemented either by the application vendor or the purchaser can lower the
security stance of an organization. It is best practice to always examine new
applications for obvious or hidden administrative interfaces and disable or
harden them as appropriate for organizational policy. [Software Development
Security]
 C - Hactivists are groups or individuals that pursue and promote their social or
7. political agenda by means of disabling or defacing the websites of
organizations that support policies or business practices that conflict with the
hactivists' agenda. [Security Assessment and Testing]

8. B - SESAME, the acronym for Secure European System for Applications in a

Multi-vendor Environment, uses both symmetric and asymmetric key
technologies. Developed to reduce vulnerabilities in Kerberos, SESAME uses
Privileged Attribute Certificates (PACs) to contain user identities, access
capabilities, as well as the expiration times and dates of both the PAC itself and
object access capabilities. [Identity and Access Management]

9. C - Passive infrared (PIR) sensors work by detecting changes in the temperature

of the area it is monitoring, which may indicate the presence of an intruder.
Because PIR can detect temperature changes as small as 3 degrees Fahrenheit, it
is best used in areas where the temperature is well controlled. Outdoor spaces
or facilities that are not climate controlled, such as storage sheds, will generate
a high level of false positives from PIR; as a result, this type of system is not
recommended. [Security Assessment and Testing]

10. B - A backup plan should specify how long backups should be retained.
Defining this parameter is best accomplished by consulting each business
department in the organization to discern if there are legal or regulatory
requirements that dictate how long company records must be retained. The
organization's retention duration should then be set to match the longest
requirement identified. [Security Operations]

11. B - Halon, a chlorofluorocarbon harmful to both humans and the ozone, was
banned in 1987. It has not been manufactured since 1992, as per the terms of the
Montreal Protocol. The most effective replacement for this fire suppression
agent is FE-200. [Security Assessment and Testing]

12. D - Qualitative risk analysis does not use numerical or monetary values. Rather,
it develops rankings of threats and countermeasures, based on opinions,
intuition, best practices, experience, and judgment. [Security and Risk
Management]

13. C - The clipping level is the maximum number of times or threshold a specific
activity or event can occur. Activities or events beyond this level are considered
suspicious, and alerts are sent to staff so they can respond with the appropriate
 security posture. [Security Operations]

14. C - A successful auditing program includes all of the above recommendations.

An audit policy and plan defines what will be tracked, while regular log reviews
can reveal trends indicating possible attacks, a need for additional capacity, or
even a need for additional user training. Additionally, configuring an
appropriate log file size- and behavior- is important in order to capture all
audit data for the desired duration. If the maximum log size is reached, audit
data may be overwritten, the system may shut down, or the log will stop
collecting data, depending on how the logging is configured. [Security
Operations]

15. A - A turnstile is a cost effective and easy to implement solution for keeping a
running tally of visitors. Turnstiles could also be used to limit access to patrons
presenting library cards, or to prevent visitors from exiting through portals that
are intended for entry only. [Security Assessment and Testing]

16. A - Expert witnesses provide opinion evidence. Rather than testifying about the
facts of the case, expert witnesses educate the jury, judge, and both sides of the
case about particular subject matter related to the case. [Security Assessment
and Testing]

17. B - Block ciphers encrypt blocks of data, while stream ciphers encrypt plaintext
data one character at a time. As a result, stream ciphers can execute more
quickly than block ciphers, and do not require the complex hardware needed to
encrypt entire blocks of data. [Asset Security]

18. D - Wardialing is a form of dictionary attack, in which an attacker uses long list
of phone numbers with automated dialing program. The goal is to find one
answered by a modem to use as a possible access point to a network or
computer. [Identity and Access Management]

19. A - Following a major event such as fire, storm, or earthquake, the first process
to be executed is the damage assessment. The assessment team will evaluate the
extent of the damage, what processes have been impacted, and if they can be
restored within the maximum tolerable downtime. Once these things have been
determined, the team will decide if the BCP should be activated. [Security and
Risk Management]

20. D - Accreditation is the process by which an organization is assessed for

 compliance with a standard. Certification is the process by which a product,
service, or process meets specific standards. [Security Engineering]

21. D - The COO typically leads the administrative services functions of an

organization, including physical security, human resources, employee safety,
and facilities management. By having the information security officer report to
this executive, there can be a synergistic relationship between these divisions
that permits the security officer to focus on the security of both electronic and
non-electronic information such as paper and oral communications. [Security
and Risk Management]

22. A - The layered defense model uses multiple types of tiered physical controls to
secure a facility or resource. Each layer in this type of architecture serves as a
backup for the layer that precedes it. In this example, the biometric lock serves
as backup against badge entry system failure, and the badge entry system
protects serves as a backup for any breach of the gated fence. [Security
Assessment and Testing]

23. A - In public-private key cryptography, both sender and receiver must exchange
a shared secret, also known as a key. Elliptic curve Diffie Hellman (ECDH) is a
key agreement protocol commonly used to secure keys shared over an insecure
link. ECDH is the basis for key exchange in the SSH transport protocol. [Asset
Security]

24. A - Criminal investigators and attorneys must prove that a suspect has motive,
opportunity, and means in order to have committed a crime. These three
elements describe why a person would have committed a crime, whether the
person has a chance to commit the crime, and his or her ability to have
committed the crime. [Security Assessment and Testing]

25. C - The Bell- LaPadula model is based on the classification of data and users,
with users being permitted to access data only at or below their own level of
classification. [Security Engineering]

26. B - Fires involving electrical equipment and/ or wiring are Class C fires. Fire
suppression systems for these types of fires use carbon dioxide (CO2) or dry
power to extinguish the flames. [Security Assessment and Testing]

27. C - COSO identifies five areas of internal control that are needed for financial
disclosure and reporting. These objectives are: control environment, risk
 assessment, control activities, information and communication, and monitoring.
[Security and Risk Management]

28. D - Computer targeted crimes are those actions that impact a computer or
related device. These crimes include installation of malware, denial of service
attacks, and buffer overflow attacks. [Security Assessment and Testing]

29. A - A computer is incidental crime is a crime in which a computer is used, but

another computer is not attacked, nor is electronic data illegally accessed. In the
case of an email scam, the crime that is attempted is fraud. The email is simply
the vehicle for the scammers' request for money or banking information. These
types of scams were carried out through postal correspondence before the rise
of email, and could still be conducted by means of pen, paper, envelope, and
stamp; thus the computer is simply an incidental mechanism in the crime.
[Security Assessment and Testing]

30. A - Nonrepudiation provides assurance that message integrity and origin cannot
be contested by sender or recipient. A simple hash of the data sent can be
compared to a hash of the data that was received. Hashes that are not identical
show that the message was altered. [Asset Security]

31. C - Environmental controls are critical to protect the availability of corporate

data. Beyond fire suppression and backup power, facilities staff also work to
ensure adequate cooling and conditioning of air in data centers as well as
protecting data cabling installed within walls, ceilings, and subfloors.
Fluctuations in temperature and humidity can cause component failures that
result in outages, while data cables that are not appropriately protected can be
damaged which limits access to data that must be reached by traversing the
cables that are damaged. [Security Operations]

32. C - Buffers are temporary storage areas used by applications to store data. If an
application is written in such a way that the application attempts to store more
data than the buffer can hold, data will overflow into an adjacent buffer. This
overflow can potentially corrupt or overwrite data in the buffer where the
application is attempting to store the extra data. Anytime data is lost or changed
in an unauthorized manner, the integrity of that data is lost. [Security
Engineering]

33. B - Three factor authentication uses three “keys” to authenticate a user:

something you know, such as a password; something you have, such as a
 smartcard; and something you are, such as a fingerprint or retina pattern.
[Security Engineering]

34. B - Smart cards have micro processing capabilities onboard the card, which are
powered when used in conjunction with a reader. The contactless card type has a
multipurpose antenna as well. When waved near a reader, the reader's
electromagnetic field activates the antenna, generating sufficient power to
operate the card's processor. The antenna, once powered, can also broadcast
authentication credentials to the reader. [Identity and Access Management]

35. B - Availability, integrity, and confidentiality of data are the key objectives of
information security. Availability means data is accessible to authorized
individuals in a timely manner. Integrity is the assurance that data has not been
altered in an unauthorized manner. Confidentiality means that data has not been
accessed by an unauthorized party. [Security and Risk Management]

36. B - Mandatory Access Control bases access to resources on organizational

security policy. The security policy is centrally administered and users are not
permitted to override policy for resources he or she owns. [Identity and Access
Management]

37. A - A compensating control is any control that is implemented in place of

another control due to cost, technical, or business reasons. The property owner
prohibition on installing a fencing is an example of a business reason for a
compensating control. [Identity and Access Management]

38. A - Trademarks are service marks such as slogans, logos, symbols, words,
colors or sounds that are used to represent an organization's brand. Registered
trademarks cannot be copied or used by a unauthorized organization. [Security
Assessment and Testing]

39. D - Patents protect the original inventions of the individuals or companies. In

order for the patent to be issued, the invention must be novel, useful, and not
obvious. It is important to note that the patent is awarded to the inventor, not to
the invention itself. [Security Assessment and Testing]

40. B - The failure of a company to ensure that its actions or inactions do not
impact another company is called downstream liability. In this scenario, the
company that failed to implement the patch in a timely manner has caused
service disruptions for a number of other companies, and could be held liable
for their negligence, if one of the impacted companies chose to sue for the
damage caused. [Security Assessment and Testing]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)16
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)16

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. Stephen wants to email a small portion of a contract to the finance manager at

his company for review. He cuts and pastes that text into the body of an email
and sends it. It is imperative that the email containing the message be guaranteed
to have been sent by Steven. Which of the following will provide this
assurance?

A. Transport encryption

B. Digital certificate

C. Digital signature

D. Link encryption

2. A technology startup company is in the process of building their webserver.

The web development team is using server side includes (SSI) to display on
every page of their website a banner showing the number of days remaining
until their product launch. What should the web team do to ensure their SSI
scripts are secure?

A. Disable port 80
 B. Disable the exec function

C. Require administrators to log on through a single sign on portal

D. Install an application level firewall

3. Beth is the administrator of a small network. Several users are reporting that
they were unable to log into the finance application just before lunch, but were
able to log on when they returned to the office about an hour later. After some
investigation, she discovers an attacker is running a brute force attack on the
finance application with known user IDs. Beth had previously implemented a
countermeasure against this type of attack. Which of the following might Beth
have implemented??

A. Setting password expiration dates

B. Configuring account lockout

C. Disabling user accounts

D. Administratively changing the user passwords

4. World Wide Paint and Pigment estimates the likelihood of a flood damaging its
server room is approximately once in 100 years, and the resulting damage
would total $150,000. What is the annualized loss expectancy of this scenario?

A. $150,000

B. $75,000

C. C. $15,000

D. D. $1,500

5. A critical database server has failed, and the backup server did not come online
automatically, causing a three hour outage while the backup server was
manually activated. Without the database, the company is unable to look up
customer files. Which of the following best describes this scenario?

A. Catastrophe
 B. Nondisaster

C. Disaster

D. Failure

6. The promotions manager of Midwest Motors has been made the owner of his
department's printers and other resources. The manager is now able to
designate who in his department has permission to use a large format printer.
This method of access control is known as which of the following?

A. Mandatory

B. Role-based

C. Distributed

D. Discretionary

7. MAC addresses are used to identify systems at the data link layer, while IP
addresses identify systems at the network layer. Which of the following
protocols provide a mapping between MAC addresses and IP addresses, to
enable communication between the network and data link layers?

A. ARP

B. WINS

C. LMHOSTS

D. DNS

8. The network team of a small but rapidly growing company is considering how
to rearchitect the network to alleviate some congestion it is seeing. They
determine that dividing the network into logical groups by department, thereby
keeping interdepartmental traffic grouped together, will improve the overall
network performance. What are these logical divisions called?

A. Subnets
 B. Domains

C. Port maps

D. Realms

9. For security reasons, two different managers are required to log on to a

corporate application in order to launch the quarterly reporting batch process.
Each manager uses one half of a single security key. What is this type of
security mechanism called?

A. Dual control

B. Separation of duties

C. Collusion

D. Split knowledge

10. Acme Tools is implementing a number of security measures to protect its assets
and staff. These measures include badge readers and new remote access
policies and technologies. Acme is performing what type of action?

A. Incident Response

B. Information Protection

C. Due Diligence

D. Due Care

11. In the event the President of the United State is incapacitated, the Vice President
will perform the duties of the President. If the Vice President is also
incapacitated, the Speaker of the House of Representatives will step in. Many
organizations also have some sort of plan that addresses the transfer of
leadership and responsibilities to other personnel in the event the head of the
organization is incapacitated. What is this business continuity concept called?

A. Organizational modification
 B. Delegation of authority

C. Emergency recruitment

D. Executive succession planning

12. Which of the following encryption types offers better protection from
inference attacks as data traverses a network?

A. End to end encryption

B. Payload encryption

C. Transport encryption

D. Link encryption

13. Gary is an undercover agent investigating a cybercrime ring. During the course
of his investigation, he poses as a student looking to make some quick cash to
pay next semester's tuition. Gary is approached by a member of the ring and is
recruited to be a mule, handling money laundering tasks. Gary documents
everything he learns about the gang's operations during his job orientation.
This information, along with the evidence collected by other investigators is
used to convict several members of the gang. What is this investigative
approach called?

A. Exigent circumstances

B. Enticement

C. Entrapment

D. Collusion

14. When developing an application, programmers must specify how memory is to

be managed. Attackers frequently probe applications to determine how memory
management is handled and if there are any vulnerabilities that could be
exploited. One common memory exploit is a buffer overflow. Which memory
management mechanism will alleviate this vulnerability?
 A. Stack registers

B. E-recycling

C. Garbage collectors

D. First In Last Out

15. The security and IT teams at Harvey West Inc. are selecting new electronic door
lock mechanisms for a small closet where the company's IT assets are located.
Because the closet is so small, the rack with the servers and other gear is
positioned so it can be accessed simply by opening the door. There is no room
to close the door with a person inside. Which type of electronic lock will
provide the best level of protection for this closet in the event of a power
outage?

A. Badge reader

B. Fail safe

C. Pin pad

D. Fail secure

16. A new R & D facility has been recently built; the facility buildout included
redundant UPS systems. The UPS systems are inactive until the power fails, at
which time the battery packs are activated. What type of UPS is this?

A. Standby UPS

B. Failover

C. Inline

D. Passive

17. Administrative and technical controls often go hand in hand. Which of the
following could involve interaction between administrative and technical
controls?
 A. Information classification

B. Password changes

C. File backup and recovery

D. Employee terminations

18. Richard is the leader of his company's business continuity planning committee.
They are conducting a business impact analysis of the threats to the company
and mapping them to critical areas of disruption to the business. Which of the
following is an area of potential impact to a business?

A. All of the above

B. Financial considerations

C. Regulatory responsibilities

D. Reputation

19. A large real estate firm has recently implemented a configuration management
system to track and manage changes to its IT environment. Which of the
following items would be a candidate for configuration management?

A. All of the above

B. Operating system patches

C. Firewall changes

D. New anti-virus software

20. Windows, Linux, and Unix operating systems have the capability to use
Kerberos authentication. Which of the following best describes this method of
access control?

A. Enterprise identity management

B. RBAC
 C. Gated cryptography

D. Single sign on

21. All electronically accessible assets of the mergers and acquisitions department
at Wilson Clark Electronics are completely isolated from the rest of the
company. This was done to prevent unauthorized access to confidential
information about business opportunities the company is working on. What is
this this type of separation called?

A. Chinese Wall

B. DMZ

C. VLAN-based security zones

D. Great Divide

22. Many applications use components called modules to perform specific tasks.
This approach, called modular programming, has many benefits, including
using a single module to perform the same function in multiple applications.
Modules can be measured according to how dependent they are on other
modules to perform its tasks. Which of the following indicates a module has
very little need to communicate with other modules?

A. High cohesion

B. Low cohesion

C. High coupling

D. Low coupling

23. A fire has destroyed the headquarters of Western Data Inc. The company has
previously set up a disaster recovery site that can have the company's critical
operations back up and running in just a few hours; this facility is owned and
managed by Western Data. What is this type facility called?

A. Warm site
 B. Redundant site

C. Hot site

D. Cold site

24. Connection Networks and Provance Semiconductor have each agreed to allow
the other company to use their facilities of in the event of a disaster. What is this
type of arrangement called?

A. Tertiary site

B. Reciprocal agreement

C. Alternate facility

D. Hot swap

25. Bill is running data backup program for his company. The type of backup he
has selected backs up all files that have changed since the last full backup, and
the archive bit of the backed up files is not changed. Which of the following
backup types is Bill running?

A. Partial

B. Intermediate

C. Incremental

D. Differential

26. Key stroke logging, shoulder surfing, and social engineering are methods for
thwarting which of the information security principles?

A. Integrity

B. Availability

C. Authorization
 D. Confidentiality

27. Every network interface card manufactured has a unique identifying code. What
is this code called?

A. IEEE code

B. IANA code

C. MAC address

D. IP address

28. Which of the following enables a device with a private IP to communicate with
a device with a public IP?

A. IPv4

B. SIP

C. QoS

D. NAT

29. Which of the following is the most accurate and secure form of biometric
recognition?

A. Iris scanning

B. Retinal scanning

C. Vascular patterns

D. Fingerprints

30. Which enterprise architecture framework is based on a two dimensional

matrix?

A. SABSA
 B. Bell LaPadula

C. ISO 17001

D. Zackman Framework

31. When the development process is complete and the code is compiled into its
final version, Western Data Corporation stores production ready software in a
secure data repository. At that point, the developers have no further interaction
with the code. Only the system administration team responsible for the roll out
of the application has access to this software. What is this security posture
called?

A. Collusion

B. Access control

C. Separation of duties

D. Job rotation

32. Bob and Alice plan to exchange messages using secret keys. However, they
each live in a different country. The most expedient way to exchange secret keys
is over a network. However, the key exchange must take place without yet
having a secret key to encrypt the data, leaving the key exchange transaction
relatively unsecured. Which of the following provides the most secure
workaround to this chicken-and-the-egg problem?

A. Quantum cryptography

B. PKI

C. KDC

D. Digital signature

33. Which of the following can allow unauthorized users to access and alter
software code?

A. Maintenance hooks
 B. Stovepipe implementations

C. Keystroke logging

D. Overflow buffers

34. Ethernet is a collision-based LAN technology. If a large number of systems are

placed on a single network segment, what a possible result?

A. All of the above

B. Latency

C. Packet loss

D. Repeated transmissions

35. Bill is reviewing the laws and regulations that apply to his company's use of
confidential employee data. Which of the following statements is most true?

A. Laws are issued by a legislative body, while regulations are issued by a

government agency.

B. Laws are issued by government agencies, while regulations are issued by a

legislative body.

C. Government agencies can issue laws and regulations.

D. Legislative bodies can issue laws and regulations.

36. A government agency has installed a Class 3 vault to house top secret materials.
How long will this type of vault withstand an attack with common mechanical
tools?

A. 1 hour

B. 30 minutes

C. 2 hours
 D. 15 minutes

37. Matt has just loaded a computer with the operating system, application, patches,
and configuration tweaks that his company uses for all new desktop computer
deployments. What is this standard system setup called?

A. Software inventory

B. Baseline

C. Library

D. Configuration management

38. Bill is testing a newly released operating system update with all supported
versions of his company's software products, to ensure operability. What is this
type of testing called?

A. Localization testing

B. Unit testing

C. Regression testing

D. Validation testing

39. Immediately after a significant earthquake, the manager of an IT group begins

to assess which of his team members were able to evacuate, to determine if any
of his staff may have been trapped in the basement data center. Because the
security policy requires employees to badge in and out of the data center, the
manager is able to check logs to determine which employees were in the data
center at the time of the quake and which ones had badged out prior to that time.
What is this system feature called?.

A. Turnstiling

B. Anti-passback

C. Location logging
 D. Badging out

40. Which of the following would provide the most effective tool for reviewing
and analyzing data for a security event in progress?

A. Log management system

B. Event viewer

C. Incident response plan

D. Security event management system

CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)16
Answer Key and Explanations

1. C - Digital signatures provide authentication of the identity of the sender of a

message. The digital signature is transformed with a hash function and then
both the hashed value- also called a message-digest- and the signature are sent
in separate transmissions to the receiver. Using the same hash function as the
sender, the receiver derives a message-digest from the signature and compares
it with the message-digest it received. Matching message-digests mean the
sender is who she or she says she is. [Asset Security]

2. B - Server side includes can be exploited by an attacker to run malicious

commands that could damage a system or its data. By disabling the exec
function, attackers are effectively blocked from using this vulnerability to
breach a system; some vendor's webserver products have the exec function
disabled by default. [Software Development Security]

3. B - Configuring accounts to be locked out after a set number of incorrect logon

attempts is a common way to foil brute force password attacks. Once the
account is locked out, the user will not be able to attempt to logon again until
the configured time interval has passed, or the administrator unlocks the
account. [Software Development Security]

4. D - Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is calculated by multiplying the

annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) by the single loss expectancy (SLE). In
this example, the ARO is .01, and the SLE is $150,000, yielding an ALE of
$1,500 (.01 x $150, 000= $1,500) [Security and Risk Management]

5. B - A service outage caused by the failure of a device or component, such as

hardware or software is categorized as a nondisaster. A disaster is an event that
causes an entire facility to be unavailable for a day or longer, and typically
involves the use of a backup site while the primary facility is being repaired.. A
catastrophe is an event in which an entire facility is destroyed. [Security and
Risk Management]

6. D - Discretionary access control, which is the basis of most mainstream

operating systems, is a delegated authority model. The owner of a resource
may- at his or her own discretion- specify who may and who may not access
that resource, as well as what actions may be taken on that resource. The creator
 of a file is the owner of that file, but an administrator can assign ownership of
resources to other users. [Identity and Access Management]

7. A - Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) enables a system to create a mapping of

IP addresses to MAC addresses in cache. This mapping is created as the system
“learns” which system owns a specific MAC address and IP address the first
time it broadcasts for a system with those address. Only the system that has that
IP address responds to the broadcast and the initiating system adds this data to
its ARP cache, eliminating the need to broadcast for that system again until the
ARP cache expires. [Communications and Network Security]

8. A - Subnets break networks into segments. By doing so, traffic can be routed
directly between source and destination systems on the same segment, rather
than sending the traffic out over the network as a whole. [Communications and
Network Security]

9. D - Providing each of two user with one half of the key required to access a
resource is called split knowledge. In order for this approach to be completely
secure, however, each user must maintain full control over his or her half of the
key, and it must be protected by a password known only to the holder of the key
half. [Asset Security]

10. D - Due care is the act of developing and implementing security policies,
standards, guidelines, and technologies to eliminate or reduce risks to an
organization's assets. These risks are identified during the due diligence
process. [Security and Risk Management]

11. D - Executive succession plans specify the activities to be executed when the
head of the organization is incapacitated, killed, retires, or is in some material
way unable to fulfill his or her duties for an extended period of time. These
plans may include the terms and conditions under which the leadership changes
are required, and which staff will be called upon to step into the head position.
[Security and Risk Management]

12. D - In link encryption, all of the data along a network communication path is
encrypted, including routing information. Because it hides the source and
destination of the data itself, it is impossible for an eavesdropper to discern
which two parties are sending and receiving data. [Asset Security]

13. B - Because Gary was recruited to play a role in a crime that the gang member
 had already intended to commit, this scenario is best described as enticement.
For this to have been entrapment, Gary would have had to manipulate or trick
the gang member into committing a crime. Entrapment does not establish that a
suspect had prior intent to commit a crime. [Security Assessment and Testing]

14. C - Garbage collectors manage memory by reclaiming old and unused objects
stored in memory that were not released by an application. Attackers can exploit
memory bugs that cause buffer overflows, whereby data exceeds the capacity of
its assigned memory space and overwrites data in adjacent spaces. These
overflows can cause data loss or application crashes, resulting in loss of data
integrity or availability. [Software Development Security]

15. D - In a failure state, devices that fail secure will revert to a most secure stance.
In the case of an electronic lock, the lock would remain closed. Devices
designed to fail safe will revert to a secure posture, but with built in safety
measures; an fail-safe electronic lock would permit some measure of access
for life safety purposes. In this scenario, the server closet would benefit from a
fail secure device, as the area it is protecting does not require an escape
mechanism for staff. [Security Operations]

16. A - A standby UPS offers basic power surge protection and battery backup
power. This type of UPS is not continually powered by utility power, however,
so there is a slight delay between the time its sensor detects a power outage and
the time the battery packs are activated. [Security Assessment and Testing]

17. D - Employee terminations. A human resources department has typically

developed a set of policies and procedures that deal with employees leaving the
company. The policies and procedures are developed collaboratively with
several departments to ensure that all appropriate actions are taken, from
issuing a final check and an exit interview, to disabling user accounts and
remote access and collecting access badges. [Identity and Access Management]

18. A - There are a number of areas in which a disaster can impact a business.
These include operational disruption and productivity, financial considerations,
regulatory responsibilities, and reputation. During a business impact analysis or
BIA, the BCP committee identifies of potential threats to the company, and maps
them to these areas of impact.. [Security and Risk Management]

19. A - Any change to a production environment, whether it is hardware, software,

or documentation, can be placed under configuration management (CM). The
 purpose of CM is to formally track what is being changed, who is requesting
the change and who approved the change, as well as the testing and
implementation of the change. Once a change has been finished, it should be
documented and reported as complete, ensuring that there is a record of the
complete lifecycle of the change. [Security Operations]

20. D - Kerberos is a single sign on access control mechanism. Upon logging in

successfully, users are granted ticket granting tickets (TGTs). TGTs are
presented to Kerberos-aware applications such as email, from which these
applications acquire service tickets. The service tickets authenticate the user to
the application without requiring an additional logon. [Identity and Access
Management]

21. A - Chinese walls are barriers implemented within an organization to prevent

unauthorized access to information by parties who may unduly influence or be
influenced by that data. Insider trading is one type of conflict of interest that this
is intended to protect against. [Security Engineering]

22. D - Modules with low coupling require very little interaction with other
modules to carry out their tasks. Lower cohesion modules are easier to update
and reuse than modules that depend more heavily on other modules to complete
its task. [Software Development Security]

23. B - A disaster recovery site that is fully configured and ready to operate within
a few hours and owned and operated by the organization that will be using it is
called a redundant site. A hot site also provides an organization with the ability
to be back up and running in just a few hours. However hot sites are not owned
by the organization who will be using it; rather they are a rented or leased
facility. [Security and Risk Management]

24. B - Organizations may arrange to allow each company to use the facilities of
the other company in the event of a disaster. This is called a reciprocal
agreement. If offers cost savings over each company maintaining its own
facility, but it may also decrease the efficiency with which each company
operates, as the processes, policies, and resource availability of the hosting
organization may cause conflicts or constraints for the company that relocates
to this site. [Security and Risk Management]

25. D - In a differential backup, all data that has changed since the last full backup is
backed up, without changing the archive bit. [Security and Risk Management]
26. D - The confidentiality of data is breached when unauthorized parties access it.
Confidentiality breaches may be intentional by methods such as shoulder
surfing or social engineering to gather passwords, or unintentional such as by
failing to encrypt data while it is at rest or in transit. [Security and Risk
Management]

27. C - NIC cards are identified by a unique code called a Media Access Control
(MAC) address. While this value can be spoofed by hackers, it is typically
considered to be a permanent identifying code. [Communications and Network
Security]

28. D - Because the available public IPv4 address space is not large enough to
support the number of IP devices in use today, private IP address ranges have
been implemented. These IP addresses are not routable over the internet,
however, so network address translation (NAT) was developed to support
communication between devices on private and public networks.
[Communications and Network Security]

29. B - Retinal scanning offers low false positive rates, and false negative rates of
close to zero. It also has a very small base of outliers, those users who are
unable to be enrolled in the system. Further is much more difficult to defeat this
type of system than other types of biometric readers, including iris scanning.
[Security Assessment and Testing]

30. D - The Zackman Framework is based on a matrix consisting of six

communications questions and 6 reification transformations. [Security
Engineering]

31. C - This division of responsibility is called separation of duties. By restricting

access to software code only to the administration group, Western Data has
prevented members of the development team from accessing and potentially
modifying the code that he or she has written. [Software Development Security]

32. A - Quantum cryptography uses physics rather than mathematics to generate

and distribute secret keys. By relying on the unpredictable nature of quantum
particles- Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principal states it is impossible to know an
object's position and velocity at the same time- keys can be securely transmitted.
In quantum cryptography, the spin direction of polarized photons is mapped to
binary code that represents the key itself. The sender knows the direction of
spin of the photons that are sent; the recipient measures the spin of the photons
 he receives. Then both sender and recipient have an unencrypted message
exchange validating if the spin of each proton sent matches the spin of the
proton received. [Asset Security]

33. A - Maintenance hooks are backdoors left in software during the development
process to provide an easy way to update software, intentionally bypassing
normal security checks. If these maintenance hooks are not removed before
deployment, they become a vulnerability that can be exploited by unauthorized
users. [Security Engineering]

34. A - In a network that has a large number of workstations or other devices on a

single network segment, latency, packet loss, and repeated transmissions are
possible. This is because multiple data collisions occur when many devices
attempt to send data on same network at the same time. Segmenting the network
with subnets, routers, or bridges will decrease the number of systems on a
single segment, reducing the number of collisions occurring on that segment.
[Communications and Network Security]

35. A - Laws are issued by legislative bodies such as the US Congress or the British
Parliament. Regulations are issued by governmental agencies dictating the
manner in which laws will be implemented. For example, the Health Insurance
Portability and Accountability Act legislated by the US Congress, but the
standards and guidelines governing how it is put into practice are issued and
maintained by the US Office for Civil Rights. [Security Assessment and
Testing]

36. C - Underwriter Laboratories has set forth ratings for vault attack resistance.
The lowest rating, Class M, will resist attack for 15 minutes. The highest rating,
Class 3, will withstand attack for two hours. [Security Assessment and Testing]

37. B - A baseline is the list of standard components that make up a system. It

includes hardware, software, specific configurations, or other items, such as
pre-loaded documentation templates. An organization may have more than one
baseline, each one customized for a specific purpose. By only deploying
systems with an approved corporate baseline, the IT team can be assured that all
systems meet whatever security requirements are in place for that organization,
and know which baselines (and systems) need to be updated to be protected
against newly discovered security risks.. [Security Operations]

38. C - Regression testing is the process of testing new software components

 against existing software code, to ensure that all expected and required
functionality is preserved upon the addition of the new code. [Software
Development Security]

39. B - Anti-passback features require users to provide badges, PINs, or other

authentication device every time a user enters and exits specified portals. If an
employee fails to badge-out of a restricted area, he or she will be prohibited
from re-entering that secured area without administrative intervention. This is a
countermeasure against users sharing badges, PINs, etc. [Security Assessment
and Testing]

40. D - Security event management systems provide a platform for assembling,

reviewing, and analyzing log data from multiple sources in real time. Log
management systems provide only historical data for review and trending
analysis. [Security Operations]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)17
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)17

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. An investment bank reassigns certain of its employees to new positions on a

quarterly basis. Further, company policy requires these employees to take 5-
business-day vacations every 6 months. What are each of these types of job
controls called?

A. Job rotation and mandatory vacations

B. Separation of duties and job rotation

C. Separation of duties and mandatory vacations

D. Matrix organizations and mandatory vacations

2. ColdFusion and SQL are examples of a class of programming languages that

enable developers to rapidly create applications for specific purposes with far
fewer lines of code than earlier programming languages. This class of
languages was developed with complex business logic in mind. What is this
language class known as?

A. n-tier

B. 4GL
 C. Middleware

D. 5GL

3. Johnson Brothers, Inc. has deployed a certain word processor on all of its
Windows Vista, Windows 7, and Windows XP workstations,. Which of the
following best describes the process that allows the same application to run on
a variety of hardware and operating system configurations?

A. Minimum system requirements

B. Abstraction

C. Standardized field tools

D. Relocation

4. A company has implemented a firewall to reduce the risk of unauthorized

access to its network. The risk is not completely eliminated, however. What is
the remaining risk called?

A. Transferred risk

B. Mitigated risk

C. Vulnerability

D. Residual risk

5. The network card of an Network Intrusion Detection sensor is set in which

mode?

A. M-node

B. Broadcast

C. Analysis

D. Promiscuous
6. Central Coast Farms grows and sells cut flowers to wholesale customers such
as grocery stores and florists. The company has decided it is time to start
accepting internet orders, and has hired a consultant to design and setup a
webstore that integrates with its existing systems. These applications and
databases run on disparate hardware and software platforms. To meet the
company's integration requirement, the consultant recommends an approach
based on which of the following?

A. CORBA

B. Modular programming

C. Multithreading

D. Symmetric processing

7. Castle Enterprises is evaluating the lighting in the parking deck and other
exterior areas of their campus, to ensure the safety of their employees. The
consultant they have called in has reviewed the layout of the campus and made a
number of recommendations. Which of the following would be the
recommendation for the parking deck, which is a light colored structure?

A. More lighting than needed in areas with darker surfaces

B. Less lighting than needed in areas with darker surfaces

C. The same amount of lighting needed in areas with darker surfaces

D. No special lighting is needed

8. A tile manufacturing company has a large warehouse from which they ship
their products. Their corporate data center is also located in this warehouse.
Which of the following would be used to protect the data center from physical
damage resulting from heavy equipment such as forklifts?

A. Motion detectors

B. Bollards

C. Signs indicating the area is off limits for equipment

 D. Infrared detectors

9. The IT department at Smith Industries has deployed servers with an estimated

lifetime of 33,000 hours. What is this rating called?

A. RPO

B. MTBF

C. MTTR

D. RTO

10. The finance department deployed a very large server with multiple processors
to handle a heavy load of database queries. While some of the queries are easily
executed, others requires dedicated CPU resources. What is this dedicated state
known as?

A. Asymmetric mode

B. Multithreading

C. Symmetric mode

D. Thunking

11. Nancy, the HR manager of WLB, Inc., defines data classification, retention and
backup requirements, and access rights for employee data at her company.
Dave, the system administrator, implements these controls by performing
operational tasks such as setting permissions on files and folders, running
backups. Which of the following correctly matches the roles Nancy and Dave
play?

A. Nancy is the Data Owner and Dave is the Data User

B. Nancy is the Data Custodian and Dave is the Data User

C. Nancy is the Data User and Dave is the Data Custodian

D. Nancy is the Data Owner and Dave is the Data Custodian

12. The business continuity plan of Ingalls Shipyard includes a large list of
resources that must be available in order for the company to continue operating
after a disaster. Which of the following items could be included on this list?

A. Network documentation

B. Communications plan

C. Human resources data

D. All of the above

13. Mike is analyzing the traffic on his network to identify the device that is
saturating a link with traffic. He is looking at the source address information on
a packet. At which network layer are addressing and routing information added,
and what is this specific bundle of data called?

A. Network layer; datagram

B. Transport; segment

C. Network layer; frame

D. Transport; datagram

14. Which of the following is best applied to the Biba model?

A. No read up, no write down

B. Read up, no read down

C. No write up, no read down

D. No read up, write down

15. Nora has embedded a video and photos of her most recent vacation on her
social networking page. The video and photos are actually hosted on two other
websites. Which of the following allows Nora to share on her social
networking page?
 A. XML

B. OLE

C. API

D. HTML

16. Jerry's email application uses SMTP over port 25 to send messages to a mail
server. Email applications, regardless of the application vendor, almost always
use SMTP over port 25. What is this standardized mapping of a specific port
number to a specific protocol called?

A. Access control lists

B. Open standards

C. Well known ports

D. Sockets

17. A mortgage company is evaluating how secure a new operating system is. The
review goes beyond simply checking the default installation configurations; it
also includes a complete review of the security and control capabilities and
features. Additionally, the company is examining how the operating system was
developed. Based on this review, the company deems the operating system to be
highly trusted. What are these review points called?

A. Trusted computing base

B. Operational and lifecycle assurance

C. Orange book

D. SDLC

18. The lack of a fire suppression system in a data center is an example of which of
the following concepts?

A. Threat
 B. Risk

C. OSHA violation

D. Vulnerability

19. Which of the following leaves a corporate server most vulnerable?

A. Weak passwords

B. Out of date virus signatures

C. No firewall

D. Installing it in an unlocked closet

20. Over the last 6 months, an IT group has replaced server and network
components that have mysteriously failed. These failures occurred at intervals
more frequent than the Mean Time Between Failures rating of the affected
components, so the team began to suspect an environmental issue. It was
discovered that the HVAC system had not been receiving annual maintenance
service. Which of the following could be the result of an HVAC system's faulty
performance?

A. Oxidation and corrosion

B. Moisture damage

C. All of the above

D. Mold growth

21. Wilco Systems has implemented two factor authentication for remote access. A
token device is distributed to each employee authorized to have remote access.
Token devices are examples of what type of password system?

A. Password aging

B. Password clipping
 C. Password hashing

D. One time password

22. A small consulting firm has purchased a new accounting software package. The
accounting manager would like to load a copy of the software on her personal
computer so that she can work from home occasionally. Which of the
following would provide information about where and how many times a given
application may be installed?

A. Patent

B. End User License Agreement

C. Copyright

D. Trademark

23. Computer Dynamics is developing an application for one of its customers.

They are using the known vulnerabilities of the platform upon which it will be
run, as well as the vulnerabilities of other applications that are similar to the
application under development, to find potential vulnerabilities in the new
application. What is this approach called?

A. Penetration testing

B. Anomaly based analysis

C. Attack surface analytics

D. Quantum curve analysis

24. Ingalls Electric is developing an incident response policy, and is considering

the type of response team that is best for its organization. Ingalls is a very large
international corporation, and needs a team that can respond very quickly to
incidents as they happen, and supported by staff with particular expertise as
needed. Which type of team would be best for this organization?

A. Virtual
 B. Hybrid

C. Permanent

D. Role based

25. Global Data Systems has a large IT staff located in various corporate offices
throughout the world. Files with data about the organization's network are
regularly sent between the staff members. Which of the following should be
implemented to protect this data while it is in transit?

A. PKI

B. Transport encryption

C. Digital signatures

D. One-way hashing

26. All computer users at a government agency must meet the following
requirements: clearance, documented formal access, and the need to know. This
is what type of security operations mode?

A. Privileged security mode

B. Dedicated security mode

C. Directive mode

D. Trusted mode

27. John is pitching his idea for a new software application to some investors. The
investors stated explicitly that they are cost sensitive and want this application to
his the market as soon as possible, in order to beat out possible competitors as
well as reap a quick return on their investment. In which of the following
software development phases should security be thoroughly considered, in
order to deliver a secure product on time and within budget?

A. Functional design
 B. Project initiation

C. Installation and implementation

D. All of the above

28. A municipal courthouse has several self-service kiosks in its lobby. These
kiosks have limited access to the court's network because they use a standard
internet connection to access the court's web-based applications. However,
because the public has physical access to the systems, an attacker can cause
damage to the kiosk itself. Which of the following options will prevent a user
from accessing the command line?

A. Change the BIOS to enable booting from removable media.

B. Use only wired network connections

C. Implement a constrained user interface

D. Provide only a mouse, no keyboard

29. The business continuity plan team of a regional manufacturing corporation is

discussing what constitutes an appropriate interval for testing its plans. Which
of the following represents best practices for BCP testing?

A. Every 3 years

B. Every 2 years

C. Annually

D. Quarterly

30. Many systems are configured to acquire an IP address from a remote server
rather than using a pre-configured static IP address. What is this remote server
called?

A. RADIUS

B. DHCP
 C. LDAP

D. RRAS

31. Which of the following RAID options mirrors disks first, then stripes data
across the array?

A. RAID 0

B. RAID 1+0

C. RAID 0+1

D. RAID 1

32. Many encryption algorithms mandate the key size, block size, and number of
rounds of encryption to be performed. Which of the following do not mandate
a fixed value for these elements?

A. RC2

B. RC5

C. AES

D. RC4

33. The DES cipher uses a key of what length?

A. 16 bits

B. 64 bits

C. 256 bits

D. 56 bits

34. Installation of dual power generators is an example of what element of a

business continuity plan?
 A. Reactive measure

B. Preventive measure

C. Process automation

D. Operations planning

35. Which of the following is best applied to the Bell-LaPadula model?

A. No read up, no write down

B. Read up, no write up

C. Read up, Write down

D. Read down, write down

36. Which of the following statements is best applied to quantitative analysis?

A. Provides realistic cost/ benefit analyses

B. Relies heavily on subjective information

C. The opinions of experts are used to identify the highest priority issues and
appropriate countermeasures

D. Requires no calculations

37. Which of the following can be used in conjunction with a CCTV system to
eliminate the need for someone to continuously monitor the video feed for
intruders?

A. Pan tilt zoom cameras

B. Two-way radios

C. Annunciator system

D. Remote access system

38. Acme Tools has developed a new security policy regarding access to the
wireless network. The security committee approved the policy, and
documentation has been posted on the company intranet. However the IT group
has noticed that compliance is very low. What can be done to increase
compliance?

A. Conduct an awareness campaign using non-traditional methods such as

prizes to reward compliance.

B. All of the above

C. Require users to sign an acknowledgement that the have read the policy,
understand their responsibilities, and agree to abide by the policy.

D. Conduct user training in the new policy and associated procedures.

39. Developers at Core Graphic Systems are testing the newest version of video
card driver, in preparation for release. This code is located on a shared drive,
but several engineers have saved a copy to their computers. The team discovers
variances in their testing results that are outside the expected range. Upon
further investigation it is discovered that, although the revision level of the
code the testers are using is identical, there are differences in the code running
on each tester's computer. Which of the following would prevent a recurrence
of this scenario?

A. Version control system

B. Revision control

C. Rollback

D. Reversion

40. Protection rings are one of the most common architectures implemented to
guard system functionality and data from malicious behavior and faults. Which
of the following protects the kernel?

A. Ring 0

B. Ring 2
C. Ring 1

D. Ring 3
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)17
Answer Key and Explanations

1. A - Job controls are intended to reduce the risk of internal risks by limiting and
or monitoring access to data. Job rotation is the regular cycling of staff through
a series of positions, with the goal of uncovering irregularities and preventing
collusion between employees. Mandatory vacations allow work to be
temporarily reassigned to other staff, during which time irregularities may be
discovered through the course of normal business processes. [Security and Risk
Management]

2. B - 4GL, also known as fourth generation language, is a programming

language that is highly adapted to business logic and abstracts much of the low
level complexities of those functions, thus requiring fewer lines of code than
earlier 3GL languages. 4GL languages are typically focused on a specific
business problem, such as linking a webpage to a database, or extract specific
data from a database. [Software Development Security]

3. B - Abstraction is the process by which a system hides its own processes and
hardware from an application, and provides only a simple, high level
representation to an application. This allows an application to remain largely
agnostic with regards to the specific implementation details of the system on
which it is installed. Without abstraction, any given application would have to
be rewritten for every single system upon which it is installed, to accommodate
for variations in hardware and operating systems. [Security Engineering]

4. D - Residual risk is the risk that remains after countermeasures have been
implemented. It is calculated by this formula: threats x vulnerability x asset
value x controls gap = residual risk [Security and Risk Management]

5. D - In order to detect possible attacks, Network Intrusion Detection Systems

(NIDS) must examine all network traffic. Promiscuous mode enables a network
card to collect, copy, and send to the NIDS devise every packet on that interface.
[Identity and Access Management]

6. A - The common object request broker architecture, or CORBA, is a standard

of interoperability that enables software and hardware from various
manufacturers to communicate with each other. CORBA is often called
middleware, acting as the agent between a client and a server, retrieving
 requested data. These transactions are carried out using standard protocols and
communications methods which are defined within the CORBA architecture.
[Software Development Security]

7. B - Exterior lighting should provide the highest possible contrast between

possible intruders and the background surfaces in that area. The best contrast is
provided by less light in areas with light colored surfaces and more light in
areas with dark colored surfaces. [Security Assessment and Testing]

8. B - Bollards are concrete or metal pillars that are intended to prevent a vehicle
or other conveyance from being driven through a wall. Typically used to secure
the perimeter of a facility, they may also be used inside facilities. In an active
warehouse, it is possible for a large piece of equipment to be accidentally or
intentionally rammed into a wall, thus permitting unauthorized access to
sensitive areas. Bollards provide a physical barrier against this. [Security
Assessment and Testing]

9. B - Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) is the estimated life of a system or

component. The MTBF may be calculated by either the vendor of the device or
a third party. [Security and Risk Management]

10. A - Work that isn't constrained by time or data processing dependencies can
typically be handed to an available CPU on an as needed basis. In asymmetric
processing, however, CPUs are dedicated to performing specific tasks, and are
not available to perform other types of processing. [Security Engineering]

11. D - Nancy is the Data Owner and Dave is the Data Custodian. The Data Owner is
typically a manager who has ultimate responsibility for the protection of
specific data. However, the Data Owner may delegate some of his or her
responsibilities to another person. The Data Custodian is the staff to whom the
day-to-day maintenance and security of the data has been delegated. [Security
and Risk Management]

12. D - Business continuity plans include any resources an organization needs to

continue its essential functions and processes. All of the above items are
examples of resources that should be included. Other resources an organization
should consider including are spare hardware, equipment and supplies needed
to provide a safe environment for staff, and office furniture and supplies for
staff housed at alternate work sites. [Security and Risk Management]
13. A - As data passes through the layers of the OSI model, different types of
information are added at each layer, in a process called encapsulation. The
resulting data structure at each layer has a name that identifies it as a product of
that layer. Addressing and routing information is applied to a packet at the
network layer; the resulting data structure is called a datagram.
[Communications and Network Security]

14. C - The Biba access model focus is integrity. In order to protect data from
corruption or unauthorized access, users are prohibited from writing data
above their classification label, and from reading data below their classification
level. [Security Engineering]

15. C - APIs, or application programming interfaces, enable two different

applications to seamlessly integrate together without either application needing
to know much about how the other application works. In this example, APIs
enable Nora to share photos and videos on a social networking page, but APIs
can also be used to extend functionality or customize off-the-shelf software
such as email or finance applications. [Security Assessment and Testing]

16. C - Commonly used port- protocol mappings are called well known ports.
Standardization of these mappings enables interoperability between systems and
devices, regardless of vendor. Port numbers between 0 and 1023 constitute the
range of well known ports that have fixed protocol mappings.
[Communications and Network Security]

17. B - In order for a system to be classified as highly trusted, there must be a way
to verify that the system as a whole meets an organization's security
requirements. Operational and lifecycle assurances provide guarantees that a
given system works only as designed, and was developed within a very secure
development and distribution environment. [Security Operations]

18. D - The absence of a protective mechanism, such a as fire suppression system

or door locks, is a vulnerability. A threat is the possibility that a vulnerability
would be exploited, while a risk is the probability of a threat as well as the loss
that could result from the exploit of a vulnerability. [Security and Risk
Management]

19. D - Physical access to a server is the biggest vulnerability. Once an attacker has
physical control or possession of the system, he or she is not subject to time or
resource constraints associated with defeating technical access controls such as
 firewalls, intrusion detection, or access control lists. [Identity and Access
Management]

20. C - HVAC damage is not limited to systems or component breakdown due to

thermal cycling or excessively high heat. Failure to adequately condition the air
to control humidity can cause an increase in moisture, resulting in damage to
equipment as well as the building infrastructure. [Security Assessment and
Testing]

21. D - Token devices are commonly used in two factor authentication to generate a
one time password that is valid for a single use. Token devices provide hashed
values to the user for entry along with his or her user ID. The token is
synchronized with an authentication service either synchronously or
asynchronously. [Security Assessment and Testing]

22. B - End User License Agreements, also known as EULAs, define the acceptable
use, terms, limits and conditions associated with a specific application. For
instance, EULA may state that an application may be installed on a maximum of
two workstations, that it may not be transferred to another party, and that it is
intended only for use in an educational environment. [Security Assessment and
Testing]

23. C - Attack surface analytics are developed by studying known vulnerabilities

and flaws inherent in an application's operating environment, and mapping
those vulnerabilities to possible points of attack in a new application. These
analytics are then used to specify how the application should be developed or
modified in order to prevent or eliminate potential vulnerabilities in the new
application. [Security Assessment and Testing]

24. B - A hybrid incident response team is composed of a core of permanently

assigned staff, who can call in other organizational resources as needed to
support their investigation. This approach combines the permanent and virtual
team types; permanent teams are made up of a dedicated staff, while virtual
teams are composed of staff who have other responsibilities in addition to their
role responding to incidents. [Security Assessment and Testing]

25. B - Encrypting all data as it is sent over the network will protect sensitive data
from interception by an attacker. However, it is recommended that all sensitive
data be encrypted while at rest and in transit. [Security Operations]
26. B - Dedicated security mode, specified in DOD Directive 5200.28, is an
operational mode in which all users have clearance or authorization,
documented formal access approval, and a need to know the information stored
on the system. Dedicated security mode can be implemented with a single or
multiple data classification levels. [Security Assessment and Testing]

27. D - Application security should be considered during every phase of the

software development lifecycle. By doing so, security mechanisms can be
customized for the application as it is developed. Simply bolting-on security
controls after the application is complete can result in loss of functionality due
to conflicts between the application and the controls. These conflicts can in turn
lead to delays and additional costs to test and rewrite the code so the application
works with the security mechanisms. [Security Assessment and Testing]

28. C - Systems provided for public use can be secured with a constrained UI. By
configuring the system to present only the permitted applications, and hiding
access to any other applications or operating system functions, users are unable
to access the directory structure or command line to view, execute, and/ or
delete files. [Security Operations]

29. C - Best practice calls for annual of testing of business continuity plans.
However, it is imperative to update the BCP on a regular basis, to ensure it
includes the most recent changes in organizational polices, processes,
resources, and goals. [Security and Risk Management]

30. B - Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) servers assign IP addresses

from a set pool. These IP address assignments are called leases. DHCP clients
will request the DHCP server to renew its IP assignment when its lease expires.
[Communications and Network Security]

31. B - In a disk array using RAID 1+0, data on a drive in the first array is mirrored
to a matching drive in the second array, then striped across all disks in each
array. In RAID 0+1 data is first striped in an array then mirrored to a second
array. The combination of two different types of RAID in a single redundancy
mechanisms is called nested RAID. [Security Operations]

32. B - RC5 offers variable parameters that can be configured for encryption with
this cipher. Block size may be 32, 64 or 128 bits, key size may be 0 to 2040 bits,
and the number of rounds may be 0 to 255. [Asset Security]
33. D - DES, also known as Digital Encryption Standard, uses a 56 bit key. DES was
originally introduced as a Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) in
1976, but has been replaced in production systems with symmetric encryption
algorithms that offer a longer key length.; the short key length of DES is easily
cracked by the processing power of modern computers. [Asset Security]

34. B - Implementation of equipment, staff, or processes that fortify a company and

protect against a potential loss are preventive measures. In this example, the
installation of two power generators is a safeguard against not only a
prolonged power outage, but the failure of one of the generators as well.
[Security and Risk Management]

35. A - The Bell- LaPadula access model allows users to read resources at or below
their classification level, but they are not permitted to write data in locations
below their access level. [Security Assessment and Testing]

36. A - Quantitative analysis uses numerical data to measure risks, while qualitative
analysis uses a subjective approach to prioritizing risks. Cost/ benefit analyses
are more credible when based on numerical data. [Security and Risk
Management]

37. C - Annunciator systems work in tandem with CCTC systems to alert staff that
some sort of movement has been detected, by means of lights, SMS messages,
sirens, or other mechanism. [Security Assessment and Testing]

38. B - Awareness of all security policies is critical to their success. Making

announcements via email or company meetings, motivational techniques such
as games and prizes, training users in the new policy, and mandating that staff
affected by the policy sign an acknowledgement form are all excellent ways to
maintain high levels of compliance. [Security and Risk Management]

39. A - A version control system provides a formal mechanism or framework for

the centralized control of software code or documentation. Going beyond a
simple revision numbering scheme, a version control system logs the edits that
are made to data stored in the system. By using a version control system as the
master source for all code to be tested, application teams can be assured they
are all working from identical versions of the same file. [Security Assessment
and Testing]

40. A - Protection rings are a form of layered protection to prevent unauthorized

access to system resources:
Ring 0 protects the operating system kernel
Ring 1 protects the remainder of the operating system
Ring 2 protects I/O functions and resources
Ring 3 protects applications and user activities [Security Assessment and
Testing]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)18
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)18

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. Blackstone Realty has been operating at an alternate site following a flood that
caused major damage to their corporate offices. The corporate offices have
now been repaired and restored to a state of operational readiness, and the
company is now preparing to move back into their headquarters. In which phase
of the business continuity plan is Blackstone Realty now operating?

A. Reconstitution phase

B. Restoration phase

C. Salvage phase

D. Recovery phase

2. Richard is the inventory manager at a managed hosting service provider. Some

of his company's clients have SLAs with exceptionally high levels of
availability. In order to provide this level of service, Richard ensures that there
are adequate spares for these customers. For this group, which of the following
would be the best sparing strategy for a failed disk in an server attached storage
array?

A. SAN
 B. NAS

C. RAIT

D. Hot swappable

3. Jones & Dallas Trucking Co. is developing a business continuity plan. With
which of the following corporate initiatives should this plan be most tightly
integrated?

A. Public relations materials

B. OSHA regulations

C. Security policy and program

D. SEC regulations

4. JH Enterprises has implemented a policy mandating that IT staff are to be given

only the rights and permissions necessary for a given job description. What is
this approach called?

A. Dual controls

B. Job rotation

C. Least privilege

D. Separation of duties

5. Which of the following threats represents a significant threat to data

confidentiality

A. Unauthorized disclosure of information by an employee

B. Accidental deletion of critical system files

C. Server side includes

D. Server hardware failure

6. Wilmont Systems has indicated that its data backup systems must support
restoring all financial transactions that happened up to 5 minutes before a
disaster. What type of goal is this?

A. Service level agreement

B. Restore time objective

C. Maximum tolerable downtime

D. Restore point objective

7. Which of the following standards would apply to equipment a police force

deployed as a countermeasure against persons under investigation attempting to
intercept law enforcement data transmitted in electrical emissions?

A. SESAME

B. HAMLET

C. TEMPEST

D. WAVES

8. Tom, a member of Acme Tool's accounting staff downloaded a copy of

Microsoft Office 2007 from his corporate intranet to put on his home computer.
When asked by his wife where he bought it, Tom said “I just copied it from
work. Microsoft is a huge company, and making a copy is not a big deal to their
bottom line.” This scenario represents which ethical fallacy?

A. Candy From a Baby

B. Shatterproof

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

9. An attacker calls a corporate help desk, masquerading as an employee who has

lost his password. The help desk staff resets the password to the company
 default of “password1”. The attacker is then able to use this password to access
the company network and information on it. What is this type of attack called?

A. Shoulder surfing

B. Fraud

C. Social engineering

D. Identity theft

10. What formula is used to calculate total risk?

A. Single loss expectancy x frequency per year

B. Threats x vulnerability x asset value

C. Vulnerability x value x control gap

D. Loss x asset value x threats

11. Mary has deleted the files on her hard drive prior to donating it to the local
library. However, Mary's data may not have been completely deleted, leaving
that information subject to access by unknown parties. What is this vulnerability
called?

A. Slack space

B. Data mining

C. Data remanence

D. Dumpster diving

12. Application layer protocols interface with applications, ensuring that a given
program is able to communicate over a network. Which of the following is an
example of an application layer protocol?

A. FTP
 B. All of the above

C. HTTP

D. SMTP

13. The IT staff at Finkelstein & Smith Distributing notices unusual activity on a
server and discovers the system has been compromised. During the incident
response, it becomes apparent that the attack was the result of an exploit that
changed the order in which lines of code that use the same resource are
executed. Which of the following is this type of attack?

A. Race condition

B. Time of Check/ Time of Use

C. Smurf

D. Teardrop

14. What tool would a hacker use to obtain a password from a hashed value?

A. Social engineering

B. SAM database

C. Encryption salt

D. Rainbow table

15. Five years ago, Marshall Manufacturing implemented a proprietary ERP system
at all 15 of its factories and distribution centers. The software was developed by
a company that recently declared bankruptcy and has gone out of business. A
critical security vulnerability has been discovered by Marshall Manufacturing,
but because they do not have access to the source code, and the company that
wrote the software has closed down, the company is unable to address this
problem. Which of the following would have prevented this situation?

A. Software as a service
 B. Statement of responsibility

C. Service level agreements

D. Software escrow

16. Which of the following is an example of a cybercrime?

A. All of the above

B. Illegally sharing digital materials

C. Software piracy

D. Disseminating offensive materials

17. Federated Freight is developing a new logistics application in-house. During a

review it is discovered that the way the code was written, it is possible for the
authorization process to take place just ahead of the authentication process.
What is this type of vulnerability called?

A. Sequence exploit

B. Stack flow

C. Race condition

D. Authentication failure

18. World Wide Paint and Pigment is relocating to a new facility. Melissa, the
network architect, is designing the backbone of the new network. Which of the
following topologies will provide the best protection from an outage at the
core of the network?

A. Bus

B. Star

C. Ring
 D. Mesh

19. Smith, Klein & Harper has deployed an IDS that can detect a new type of attack
without needing to do regular signature updates. Which of the following IDS
types are capable of this?

A. Anomaly-based

B. Stateful matching

C. Rule-based

D. Signature-based

20. Covert intelligence agents Bob and Alice encrypt all their communications with
each other. Because of the high level of sensitivity of the information they are
sharing, they have implemented a cryptographic mechanism that offers perfect
secrecy of their messages. However, the trade-off of this encryption is that it is
impossible for Bob or Alice to be 100% sure they are communicating with each
other, nor can they be 100% certain of the veracity of the content of the
messages. Which of the following types of encryption methods are Bob and
Alice using?

A. Stream cipher

B. Blowfish

C. One-time pad

D. RSA

21. Three young boys have formed a club, and use a secret code to communicate
with each other. To create the code, they scrambled the 26 letters of the alphabet,
and use the resulting order of letters in place of the standard alphabetical order.
What type of cipher is this?

A. Transposition cipher

B. Stream cipher
 C. Polyalphabetic cipher

D. Substitution cipher

22. The Picket Fence cipher encrypts a plain text message by arranging the letters
of the message rows, and then adding dummy characters. The message is
essentially scrambled and hidden within other text. What is this type of cipher
called?

A. Substitution cipher

B. Transposition cipher

C. Monoalphabetic cipher

D. Homophonic cipher

23. John is replacing a switch and a router in his company's data center. At which
layers of the OSI model do each of these devices function?

A. Switches function at Layer 2, Routers at Layer 3

B. Switches function at Layer 3, Routers at Layer 2

C. Switches function at Layer 3, Routers at Layer 4

D. Switches function at Layer 2, Routers at Layer 4

24. Janet and Steven are using the same encryption software to securely share
information between themselves. Both Janet and Steven have a public key that
they share with each other, and a private key that is used only by the owner of
that key. The shared key is used to encrypt data, the private is used to decrypt
data. By which of the following names is this type of system known?

A. Asymmetric encryption

B. DES encryption

C. AES encryption
 D. Symmetric encryption

25. When modems send data, they include a data string that tells the recipient where
the data starts and stops. What is this method of communication called?

A. Asynchronous communication

B. Baseband

C. Synchronous communication

D. Streaming

26. Which of the following are examples of centralized access control

technologies?

A. Diameter

B. All of the above

C. TACACS

D. RADIUS

27. A large hospital has determined that its disaster recovery site must be located
far enough away from its primary operations site to avoid potential impacts
from a regional disaster. What is the minimum recommended distance from the
primary site?

A. 50-200 miles

B. 5 miles

C. 500 miles

D. 15 miles

28. Which of the following is codified in the ISC2 Code of Ethics, to which all
CISSPs are bound?
 A. Observe and abide by all contracts, expressed or implied

B. All of the above

C. Preserve and strengthen the integrity of the public infrastructure.

D. Take only those jobs you are fully qualified to perform

29. Which of the following protocols would be the best choice for an application
that is not dependent on guaranteed packet delivery?

A. IP

B. TCP

C. UDP

D. FTP

30. A common network model uses seven layers to describe network

communications. What is the name of this model?

A. DoD model

B. ANSI model

C. OSI reference model

D. TCP/IP stack

31. Smith Manufacturing wants to implement a Computer Incident Response Team

(CIRT) to respond to specific types of infosec breaches, evaluate the damage,
restore or repair the systems involved, and collect evidence for legal or
regulatory actions. What staff should be included on this team?

A. Technical staff

B. Legal and HR staff

C. All of the above

 D. Senior and line management

32. A team of hackers has broken the encryption code in use on a law firm's
database by monitoring how much CPU power is used during encryption and
decryption processes, as well as how long these processes take to execute. What
is this type of attack called?

A. Side-channel attack

B. Differential analysis

C. TEMPEST

D. Lands End

33. Which of the following is the most important component of a Kerberos system?

A. PGP

B. KDC

C. Tickets

D. TGT

34. A software development team is reviewing security requirements for a new

application the HR department wants. The team is considering the safety needs
from both a system and data perspective, and want to design an application that
remains secure even when the application has crashed. Which of the following
is the best choice for the application design?

A. The application should automatically restart.

B. The design should require the application to be restarted and users to re-
logon after restart.

C. A security patch

D. The system must be automatically restarted.

35. Josh's laptop is stolen while he is travelling for work. Some of the data on his
computer has been protected with file level encryption, but the majority of the
data has not been secured. There is concern that the private keys used by Josh in
his daily work could be discovered and used to fraudulently access or attack
corporate resources. What should be done to ensure the key is not used by an
unauthorized person?

A. The laptop disk should be formatted remotely

B. Josh should be terminated

C. Josh's password should be reset

D. The key should be revoked

36. Best practices for the organization of information technology specify which of
the following reporting structures?

A. The security administrator should be in the same chain of command as other

administrators.

B. Security administrative functions are part of the executive team.

C. Security administrative functions should be absorbed by other

administrators.

D. The security administrator should be in a separate chain of command from

other administrators.

37. In order to send a message from an email application running on a Windows

workstation to another user receiving email through a browser on a Linux
workstation, the data must be packaged in a way that permits each layer and
intermediary link to direct the data appropriately. What is the process called?

A. Transfers

B. Encapsulation

C. Ethernet
 D. Store and forward

38. The legal counsel of Marbury Enterprises has advised that its incident response
procedures should be well documented in order to stand up in court. As a result,
the team developing the process has decided to base its policy on the six phases
of incidence response identified by ISC2. Which of the following is not one of
theses phases?

A. Tracking

B. Containment

C. Restitution

D. Triage

39. Due to budget cuts, several developers at a small company have been laid off.
Before their access rights were terminated, one of the developers, angry at the
company for his job loss, plants a script intended to delete certain files on a date
approximately 6 weeks in the future. What is this type of attack called?

A. Logic bomb

B. Social engineering

C. Trojan horse

D. Counterclockwise

40. Which of the following accurately represents the state of a trusted computing
base?

A. Trusted but not trustworthy

B. Trusted and trustworthy

C. Two way trust

D. Transitive trust
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)18
Answer Key and Explanations

1. A - Once an organization is able to move from an alternate recovery location to

its original facility, or to the facility that is the permanent replacement for the
original facility, it is considered to be in the reconstitution phase. Until this
time, the company is considered to be operating in an emergency state.
[Security and Risk Management]

2. D - Hot swappable drives will provide the fastest repair path for these
customers. In the event a disk in an external attached drive array failed, it could
be replaced without powering down the system it serves. [Security Operations]

3. C - A business continuity plan is a set of policies, procedures, guidelines, and

standards that are intended to ensure the survival and continued operation of a
business following a disaster. It should be tightly coupled with the corporate
security policy and program for reasons of operational efficiency, cost savings,
as well as providing an overarching framework protecting the business and its
assets from threats to its survival and well being. [Security and Risk
Management]

4. C - Providing a user only the minimum rights and permissions required for his
or her job is known as least privilege. This approach prevents control of or
access to critical resources from being distributed too broadly within an
organization. [Security Operations]

5. A - Many organizations focus significant resources on preventing attacks from

external parties. However, the unauthorized release of data by company
employees is also a significant threat to data confidentiality. Such a release can
cause harm to an organization in many ways: loss of reputation, fines for
violation of regulations regarding the secure storage and use of certain data,
and trade secrets falling into the hands of competitors are all potential
outcomes. [Security Operations]

6. D - A recovery point objective is a goal mandating that functionality or data

access must be restored to a specific moment in time or level of capacity. It
differs from a recovery time objective in that it does not mandate how quickly
this goal must be achieved. [Security and Risk Management]
 C - TEMPEST is a set of technical requirements for the reduction of
7. electromagnetic waves for the purpose of making it very difficult for an
attacker to gather information from those waves.
[Security Assessment and Testing]

8. C - Software piracy is an example of both the Candy From A Baby Fallacy and
the Shatterproof Fallacy. The Candy From A Baby Fallacy is the belief that
because something is easy to do with a computer, it can't be wrong. The
Shatterproof Fallacy is the belief that actions taken with a computer only affect
a few files, without considering the harm that can be caused to others through
those actions. [Security and Risk Management]

9. C - Social engineering is any attempt by a hacker to use non-technical means to

acquire sensitive information such as passwords or PINs, in order to gain
access to secured information.. The best countermeasure for this kind of attack
is a strong security awareness and training program. [Security Assessment and
Testing]

10. B - To determine total risk, one must first identify and quantify threats and
vulnerabilities, as well as the value of assets, and then apply the following
formula: threats x vulnerability x asset value. [Security and Risk Management]

11. C - Data remanence refers to data that remains on a disk or in memory even
after attempts have been made to remove it. [Security Assessment and Testing]

12. B - All of the above protocols are used by applications to transmit data over the
network. Each of these protocols interfaces with a specific type of application to
ensure that data it sends or receives is constructed in a format usable by the
application and the adjacent presentation Layer [Communications and Network
Security]

13. A - In a race condition, two different processes need to use one resource to
perform their tasks, and the processes must follow a specific sequence. In this
type of attack, the order in which code is processed is changed, thereby
allowing an attacker to control the outcome. For example, an attacker could
force an application to process a request for data access first, circumventing the
process for authentication. [Security Assessment and Testing]

14. D - A rainbow table is a precalculated list of possible passwords based on the

hashed value of a password. Rather than using a dictionary or brute force attack
 to crack a password, an attacker can use a previously generated list of possible
passwords that have been hashed. The hashed value of the password is
compared to the rainbow table in an attempt to find a matching value. [Security
Assessment and Testing]

15. D - Contracting with a 3rd party to hold source code, documentation, user
manuals, and other supporting data owned by one company but implemented by
another company is called a software escrow. The interests of both companies
are protected by this type of agreement. The intellectual property of the
software owner is held securely by a 3rd party, and a contract defines the
conditions under which the implementing company may access it. In this
scenario, software escrow would have permitted Marshall Manufacturing to
legally access the source code in order to develop necessary patches, despite the
fact the developing company is defunct. [Security and Risk Management]

16. A - The types of activities classified as cybercrimes extends beyond the theft of
credit card numbers, denial of service attacks, or vandalizing a corporate
website. A cybercrime is any act where digital property such as software or
digital music is used in a manner not authorized by the owner, or where the type
of information disseminated violates local ordinances. Distribution of
unlicensed software, copyrighted movies or music, or pornographic materials
in violation of local laws are all examples of cybercrimes. [Security
Assessment and Testing]

17. C - A race condition results when an application attempts to complete two steps
at the same time, and the completion of one process is dependent on the output
of another process. It is possible that an attacker could exploit the Federated
Freight application by forcing the authorization process to take place first,
bypassing the authentication process. [Security Assessment and Testing]

18. D - Meshed networks provide multiple pathways between devices in a network,

ensuring that if one path fails, all devices will still be able to communicate with
each other over the remaining pathways. [Communications and Network
Security]

19. A - Anomaly-based IDS systems monitor system activity to classify it as either

normal or anomalous. Because it is able to determine from its own analysis if
an attack is underway, it is not dependent on signature updates. [Security
Assessment and Testing]
20. C - Encryption using one-time pads offers perfect security or confidentiality of
messages. Because the key is never reused, never shared, and is randomly
generated, messages encrypted in this manner cannot be broken. However, this
type of mechanism does not offer any sort of authentication of the sender's
identity, nor does it offer any data integrity mechanism. Therefore, a 3rd party
could pose as a legitimate sender, or intercept and modify the message in some
way. [Asset Security]

21. D - Substitution ciphers are based on the simple substitution of cipher

characters for plaintext characters. The code is created by rearranging the order
of the alphabet, and mapping the “real” alphabet to the re-ordered alphabetic
characters. Because of the simplicity of this type of cipher, it is easily cracked,
often by simple frequency analysis of character usage. [Asset Security]

22. B - Transposition ciphers are created by rearranging, or scrambling, the order

of a plaintext message. A numerical key is generated based on the relative
location of the rearranged characters. While this is similar to a substitution
cipher where one letter is used in place of another, a substitution cipher bases
the order of characters in an encrypted message on a separate cipher key, not
the plaintext itself. [Asset Security]

23. A - Switches are Layer 2 (Data link Layer) devices that are intended to simply
transmit data from device to device, while routers are Layer 3 (Network Layer)
devices that are intended to transmit data from network to network.
[Communications and Network Security]

24. A - A public/ private key system is an asymmetric encryption mechanism.

Public keys are shared between users of the same encryption software, while the
private keys are known only by the owner of that key. The sender uses the
public key of the recipient to encrypt the message, while the private key of the
recipient is used to decrypt the message. Asymmetric encryption is more
computationally intensive than symmetric cryptography, and is best used for
small data payloads. [Asset Security]

25. A - When two systems communicate, they must be able to determine where data
starts and stops for processing purposes. Asynchronous communication, used
by modems, terminal services, and serial communication devices, uses data
strings to denote that information. Because these start and stop delimiters add
additional overhead, it is best for communications that involve sending small
amounts of data at one time. [Communications and Network Security]
26. B - In the centralized access control model all authentication, authorization, and
accounting functions are handled by a single entity. RADIUS, TACACS, and
Diameter are all remote access control technologies that are managed by a
single entity. The advantage of a centralized model is consistently applied
access policies. The disadvantage, however, is this model tends to be slower to
respond to requests for changes, adds, or deletes. [Security Assessment and
Testing]

27. A - Industry best practices recommend disaster recovery sites be located a

minimum distance of 50-200 miles from the primary site to avoid potential
impact from regional disasters such as storms or earthquakes. [Security and
Risk Management]

28. B - All of the above responsibilities are part of the ISC2 Code of Ethics. The
Code is composed of 4 major canons, which are intended to guide CISSPs and
information security professionals when ethical dilemmas are encountered.
[Security Assessment and Testing]

29. C - UDP is a transport protocol that offers very fast speed with very low
overhead. However, it is a connectionless protocol, meaning it does not
establish a communications channel with the system with which is
communicating, nor does it offer any sort of guaranteed packet delivery or
sequencing. [Communications and Network Security]

30. C - The OSI reference model compartmentalizes network functions into seven
layers: physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, and
application. [Communications and Network Security]

31. C - Computer Incident Response Teams (CIRT) are composed of staff with a
range of roles, responsibilities, and skills both technical and non-technical.
Depending on the organization and the types of incidents to which the CIRT is
chartered to respond to, these teams include members of legal, human
resources, finance, IT, and senior management. [Security and Risk
Management]

32. A - A side-channel attack uses data gathered from the physical infrastructure
upon which an encryption algorithm runs to crack an encryption key, rather
than brute force or exploiting weaknesses. This can include monitoring CPU
cycles and usage, electromagnetic patterns, power usage, or even the sounds a
device makes as it executes computational functions. [Asset Security]
33. B - The Key Distribution Center (KDC) is the most critical component of a
Kerberos system. Besides containing the secret keys of all users and services,
the KDC provides key distribution and authentication services. [Security
Assessment and Testing]

34. B - When an application fails it should enter a mode called a failed state. Once
an application enters a failed state, it must be restarted and user credentials
presented again. By designing this as the default failure recovery mechanism,
application teams do not have to develop solutions for every possible reason an
application may fail. [Security Assessment and Testing]

35. D - When a private key is lost, it must be revoked to prevent unauthorized

persons from using it. Revocation is performed within the key management
system. [Asset Security]

36. D - Best practice calls for security administrative tasks to be handled by

dedicated staff, and these staff report to a different chain of command than the
other administrative staff. This prevents conflicting priorities between daily
operations management tasks and security management functions, which can
result in a lowered security stance. [Security Operations]

37. B - Encapsulation is the process by which destination and control information is

added to or removed from data as it is passed from layer to layer in a network
model. [Communications and Network Security]

38. C - ISC2 subdivides incident response into 6 distinct phases: triage,

investigation, containment, analysis, tracking, and recovery. [Security
Assessment and Testing]

39. A - A logic bomb is a piece of malicious code that is intended to perform one
or more processes at such time as specific criteria are met. Planting code that is
set to execute a file deletion script on a certain date is an example of this type of
attack. [Security Assessment and Testing]

40. A - A trusted computing base (TCB) is the set of all the hardware, software, and
firmware components that are critical to a system's security. The TCB is trusted
to provide system security within practical limits, but it is understood the TCB
is not trustworthy, can be compromised by defects such as faulty code or
physical failure of the hardware. [Security Assessment and Testing]
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)19
Practice Questions

Test Name: CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)19

Total Questions: 40
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 30 (75.00%)
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes

Test Description

This is a cumulative CISSP Mock Exam which can be used as a benchmark for your
CISSP aptitude. This practice test includes questions from all eight domains of the
CISSP CBK.

Test Questions

1. The security department at Global Storage Technologies is evaluating

fingerprint readers for biometric access to its facilities. They are particularly
interested in systems that have a minimum rate of false errors. Which factor
should the security team scrutinize most closely?

A. Crossover error rate

B. Type II errors

C. Ejection rate

D. Type I errors

2. A development team is designing an application that is dependent on reliable

data delivery. Which transport protocol will best serve their needs?

A. UDP

B. HTTPS

C. FTP
 D. TCP

3. Drafting software in use at an architecture firm is a very CPU intensive

application due to the amount of resources required to support the graphics.
This type of application would run in which mode?

A. User

B. I/O

C. Privileged

D. Protected

4. Fairfield Bay Semiconductor has implemented a backup mechanism that

provides redundancy for database transactions. What is this type of backup
called?

A. Journaling

B. Vaulting

C. Incremental

D. Full

5. Mills Trucking has implemented a special zone to house its corporate network.
This zone is logically situated between two firewalls. One firewall is between
the webserver and the Internet, the other firewall is between the webserver and
the corporate network. What is this zone called?

A. Gateway

B. Subnet

C. VLAN

D. DMZ

6. ActiveX is used to provide extended functionality and interactive content for

 websites. The controls are downloaded onto the system of the user visiting the
website. In which of the following would ActiveX download settings be
configured?

A. IDS

B. Firewall

C. Web server

D. Web browser

7. A user enters a www.acme.com into a web browser, and the request is sent over
the internet to the webserver that hosts that website. Because network traffic is
directed across the internet by means of a destination address, what service is
necessary to translate www.acme.com to its IP address?

A. ARP

B. DNS

C. WIINS

D. Cache

8. The law firm of Ross, Huff, and Wilson is remodeling its single story office
building. The renovation work includes replacing all exterior windows and
doors. Which of the following types of glass is recommended for this
scenario?

A. Bullet resistant glass

B. Tempered glass

C. Laminated glass

D. Wired glass

9. Which of the following is not a type of malware?

 A. Trojan horse

B. Virus

C. Worm

D. Mobile code

10. Which of the Rainbow Series books defines the requirements for testing the
security of a computer system?

A. Blue Book

B. Yellow Book

C. Orange Book

D. Red Book

11. The customer credit card data of PCC Industries has been stolen by hackers who
then used this information to make hundreds of fraudulent credit card
purchases. Several affected customers decide to sue PCC. During the trial their
attorney provides evidence that PCC had a legally recognized obligation to
protect it's customers' data but failed to do so, and the customers' damages were
the result of this failure. What has the plaintiff's attorney established?

A. Criminal intent

B. Malfeasance

C. Negligence

D. Risk

12. What types of risk management are representing in the following scenarios? a)
Implementing an enterprise backup system to reduce the likelihood of data loss
is an example of what type of risk management, and b) acquiring insurance for
the data center in which the backup system resides.

A. Risk Acceptance and Risk Transference

 B. Risk avoidance and Risk Transference

C. Risk Transference and Risk Avoidance

D. Risk Mitigation and Risk Transference

13. Planning for a disaster must include more than just a plan for replacement
facilities and infrastructure. Which of the following is another critical area of
analysis and business continuity planning?

A. Business process recovery

B. Role evaluation

C. Responsibility matrix

D. Resource accountability

14. The city library of Pine Branch would like to provide a computer for the public
to use for internet access. However, the staff wants to prevent users from
accessing critical system files or changing configuration parameters like
screen savers, desktop background, and so forth. Which of the following access
controls would best meet their needs?

A. Discretionary

B. Role-based

C. None of the above

D. Access control lists

15. Joan and Mary each work for a different company, but often collaborate on
projects. Both companies have setup PKI infrastructure, and their employees
have been given certificates authenticating their identities. Joan needs to access
resources in Mary's network, and Mary needs to access resources in Joan's
network. Which of the following would allow Joan and Mary to be
authenticated to access the resources they need?

A. Key distribution server

 B. Cross- certification

C. Root certificate

D. Access control list

16. The administrator of a small office LAN is investigating the cause of slow
performance on the network. It appears that a broadcast storm from a faulty
network card is the cause of the latency. Which of the following devices would
pass this broadcast traffic from one LAN segment to another?

A. Bridges

B. Concentrator

C. Router

D. Repeater

17. Carl wants to send a file securely to Bob. It is important that the encryption
mechanism be fast and provide a high level of confidentiality. Message
integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation are not as important to Carl.
Which of the following encryption mechanisms best meets Carl's needs?

A. El Gamal

B. RSA

C. AES

D. Diffie-Hellman

18. The database administrator at a mid-sized insurance company is implementing

a way to grant different levels of access rights and permissions to different
employees, without assigning those access rights and permissions on a user by
user basis. What is this approach called?

A. Role-based access

B. Group policy
 C. Rule-based access

D. Access control list

19. A New York-based company is acquiring the assets of a company based in

London. They will be sharing sensitive and personally identifiable information
about employees and customers. Which of the following is a framework that
these two companies could use when determining how to secure the data being
shared?

A. Safe Harbor

B. SAFER Barrier

C. PKI

D. X.509

20. Ted is a sales rep for a health club. Once he has closed a sale, he takes payment
for the $80 joining fee. Every so often, Ted tells the new member the joining
fee is $100, charges the customer this amount, but enters $80 into the club's
accounting system and keeps the extra $20 for himself. What is type of data
attack called?

A. Data diddling

B. Embezzlement

C. Superman attack

D. Salami attack

21. Following an information security breach, the incident response team at Lloyd
& Grace, LLP gathers evidence of the attack. The team documents who gathered
the evidence, how it was gathered, to whom the evidence was given for safe
storage, where the storage site is located, and every person that has accessed the
evidence following its collection. What is this documentation called?

A. Chain of custody
 B. Logging

C. Incident report

D. Protocol

22. Tim is a system administrator at his company. In addition to managing the

servers, his duties include non-admin tasks such as creating system
documentation and script development. Which of the following is the most
secure method for Tim to conduct these additional duties?

A. Logging into his workstation with an ordinary user account.

B. Adding admin privileges to his user account.

C. Logging into his workstation with an admin account

D. Disabling his admin account when not in use

23. The property manager of an office building is installing a new video

surveillance system in all public areas. What is the best type of camera lens to
be used in the building's lobby area?

A. Telephoto

B. Auto iris lens

C. Long focal length

D. Short focal length

24. A company has taken out an insurance policy as a countermeasure against loss
due to a material breach in its network. What type of loss could be incurred
from a data breach?

A. Losses related to the cost of recovery from the breach

B. Loss of revenue due to interruption of business

C. Loss of reputation
 D. All of the above

25. Zoey is performing penetration testing on her company's network. What is the
purpose of this type of testing?

A. Vulnerability identification

B. Intrusion prevention

C. Intrusion detection

D. Malware prevention

26. A small business has implemented a security policy mandating the use of 2-
factor authentication to log on to their network, and the encryption of all data
sent into or out of the network. However, limiting their security policies to just
these two protective mechanisms will leave the business exposed to what type of
threat?

A. Man in the middle

B. Spoofing

C. DoS

D. Replay attacks

27. John swipes his badge to open the door to the warehouse of Wilson Lumber and
holds the door for Jane to pass through without swiping her badge. What is this
type of access control circumvention called?

A. Carpooling

B. Proximity access

C. Piggybacking

D. Man in the middle

28. The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) provides a framework to assist

 organizations standardize their approach to software development. There are
five maturity ratings within this framework. Which of the following levels
indicates an organization has budgeted and integrated plans for continuous
process improvement?

A. Managed

B. Optimizing

C. Defined

D. Repeatable

29. The lock on a storage facility uses an electronic keypad for access code entry.
What additional security components should be implemented with this?

A. Solenoid mechanism and adequate area lighting

B. Entry delay and badge reader

C. Mantrap and egress control

D. Keypad shield and battery backup

30. Because of the computational capacities of modern computers, the DES

standard was replaced by the National Institute of Standards and Technologies
by a more cryptographically secure standard. Which of the following
algorithms is the basis for the new standard?

A. Twofish

B. RC6

C. Rijndael

D. MARS

31. Jan is calculating the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) for financial
reporting capabilities for her company's business continuity plan. After
interviewing the company's senior and executive management team, it is
 determined that, because the company operates on a global basis and a disaster
at one location would not necessarily impact operations at another location, the
ability to run these reports should be restored within 24 hours. Which of the
following MTD estimates would apply to reporting capabilities

A. Critical

B. Normal

C. Urgent

D. Important

32. The most recent inventory at McCall's Fixtures shows the level of certain types
of products in storage is lower than expected. In response, management decides
to change the types of locks in use on its storage facilities. They have selected a
type of lock that is resistant to attack for 30 minutes. Which of the following
locks have they selected?

A. Security container key lock

B. Rim Lock

C. Deadbolt lock

D. Cylinder lock

33. Currently, when a sales person at MPC Systems wants to know which customers
purchased a specific product, he or she must run the same query on each of
several databases that contain information from each of the company's
divisions. This approach takes several minutes, and the sales person must then
consolidate the data into a single report before analyzing the data. Which of the
following could streamline this process?

A. Relational database

B. Data warehousing

C. Object oriented database

 D. Data mining

34. McDonald Engineering is developing a physical security plan that incorporates

multiple types of protective elements, including lighting, landscaping, alarms,
badge access systems, and patrols. Which of the following best describes this
approach?

A. Deter-detect-delay-respond

B. Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED)

C. All of the above

D. Defense in depth

35. Dan is reviewing account usage logs and sees that Jan has not logged in for
several weeks. He contacts Jan's supervisor to investigate this inactivity, and
learns that Jan is on maternity leave for the next 60 days. What should Dan's
next step be?

A. Disable Jan's account

B. Change the password on Jan's account

C. Delete Jan's account

D. Rename Jan's account

36. What type of risk assessment includes likelihood determination?

A. OCTAVE

B. PUSH

C. All of the above

D. Delphi

37. A small company has posted links to several files on its public website. Rather
than using a sanitized version of a URL that points to a virtual directory,
 however, the URLs for these files reveal the actual file and folder structure of
the server where the files are housed. Which of the following attacks exploits
this particular vulnerability?

A. Denial of service

B. Spoofing

C. Rainbow tables

D. Directory traversal

38. The Payment Card Industry Security Standards Council has mandated various
security standards for ATM hardware, software, and keypads. Which of the
following encryption algorithms is the PCI standard for ATMs?

A. 3DES

B. Blowfish

C. SSL

D. DES

39. Backing up to tape or other removable media can take a significant amount of
time to complete. Which of the following backup types take the least amount of
time to perform?

A. Partial

B. Incremental

C. Intermediate

D. Differential

40. As an alternative to removable media backups, some organizations opt to use

online backups. Which type of online backup provides faster IO access to files?

A. Journaling
B. Electronic vaulting

C. Differential

D. Disk shadowing
CISSP Mock Exam (LITE)19
Answer Key and Explanations

1. A - The crossover error rate (CER) provides the best insight into a biometric
system's accuracy. It is the point at which Type I errors (false rejection rate)
equal Type II errors (false acceptance rate). When comparing the CER of two
systems, the system with a lower rate is the more accurate of the two. [Security
Assessment and Testing]

2. D - TCP is a connection oriented protocol that sets up a virtual connection

between two systems. This connection, also known as a socket, is built and taken
down when no longer needed by means of a three-way handshake between the
two systems. Additionally, TCP ensures that all data has been received, and the
packets that have been received are assembled in the correct order.
[Communications and Network Security]

3. C - CPU-intensive applications typically run in privileged or kernel mode; this

processing mode allows code to have direct access to all hardware and memory
in the system, including the CPU. [Security Assessment and Testing]

4. A - Journaling provides the ability to recover a database by means of

transaction replay. When a transaction is conducted in the primary database, the
completed transaction is stored on a redundant database system. If the primary
database fails, the transactions stored on the backup system can be replayed,
thus rebuilding the database. This type of backup allows rapid recovery up to
the point of the last completed transaction; a tape backup solution provides a
restore point only as recent as the last tape backup. [Security Operations]

5. D - A DMZ, or demilitarized zone, is a buffer zone between the Internet and a

private network. Firewalls are used to delineate the boundaries of this zone.
Devices and servers placed in the DMZ are vulnerable to attack, so they are
typically hardened and further protected by an intrusion detection system (IDS).
[Communications and Network Security]

6. D - ActiveX download settings are configured at the user level, within the
browser. Users may opt to download ActiveX components automatically (less
secure) or manually (more secure). [Security Assessment and Testing]

7. B - DNS, or domain name service, is used to map friendly names, called

 domain names, to IP addresses. When a user enters www.acme.com into a web
browser, a name request is forwarded to a DNS server, where the name is
mapped to a corresponding IP address. The IP address is returned to the
requester, and the system then sends the original web request to the IP address
of the webserver. [Communications and Network Security]

8. C - Laminated glass is recommended for use in street level windows and doors.
It is composed of two sheets of glass bonded to a middle layer of plastic. When
laminated glass is struck with enough force to break the glass, the plastic layer
prevents the glass from shattering and displacement onto surrounding surfaces.
[Security Assessment and Testing]

9. D - Mobile code is any application that has a remote source but is executed
locally. Examples of this type of threat include java scripts hidden on website,
or applications on removable media that launch and run automatically upon
insertion into a system. Because there is no need for user intervention to launch
these code attacks, it is easy for attackers exploit remote systems that do not
have appropriate countermeasures. [Security Assessment and Testing]

10. C - The Rainbow Books are a series of security guidelines and standards
published by various US government agencies. They are known as the Rainbow
Books because each book has a different color cover. The Orange Book is
called the Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) and sets forth
the requirements for assessing the security of a given computer system.
[Security Assessment and Testing]

11. C - An individual or organization that does not take adequate precautions

against a risk and a 3rd party is injured because of this failure can be held liable
for the damages caused. To prove liability, there must be a legally recognized
obligation to protect the 3rd party, the person or organization must have failed
to implement protective measures, and the injury or damages must be the direct
result, also called proximate causation, of the failure to implement protective
measures. [Security Assessment and Testing]

12. D - Risk mitigation and risk transference is the correct response. Risk
mitigation is the reduction or elimination of a risk by implementing
countermeasures against a threat. Countermeasures include such safeguards as
backup systems, firewalls, or badge readers. Risk transference is the practice of
passing the risk to another party, such as an insurance company or a managed
service provider. [Security and Risk Management]
13. A - Business process recovery is a very important element of a business
continuity plan. The BCP team must identify critical business processes and
analyze the steps in those processes, as well as the staff and resources required
to execute the process. This information is used to create a contingency plan for
recovery in the event of the loss of staff or resources needed to execute the
processes. [Security and Risk Management]

14. C - None of the above is the correct answer. The access control technique the
library staff should implement is called a constrained user interface. This
control prevents or limits access to functions or files by not allowing users to
request prohibited resources. This can be accomplished by providing a menu
that contains limited choices. In the case of the library, the menu could present
only the web browser. [Security Assessment and Testing]

15. B - Multiple organizations that have a need for its users to be recognized by
each of the other organizations can sign each other's public key or root
certificate. This is called cross-certification, and establishes a trust relationship
based on the controls negotiated by the organizations. Cross- certifications can
be peer to peer or hierarchical. [Asset Security]

16. A - Bridges are used to subdivide networks into smaller segments. Because they
have more intelligence than hubs, they are able to forward traffic between
network segments. However, this capability also allows broadcast storms that
occur on one segment to be forwarded to all other segments, potentially
impacting an entire LAN. [Communications and Network Security]

17. C - AES offers the highest level of encryption among the cryptographic
mechanisms listed. It is a symmetric algorithm, and encrypts data very quickly.
However, it does not offer authentication, integrity, or proof of origin controls.
The remaining algorithms are asymmetric algorithms used for exchanging
keys, not the encryption of data. [Asset Security]

18. A - Rather than granting permissions and access rights to individual users,
database administrators can assign these rights and permissions to a role, then
add the user to that role. By managing security at the role level, administrators
can avoid situations whereby individual accounts may, over time, accumulate
more access rights and permissions than required for their specific job within
the organization. [Security Assessment and Testing]

19. A - Safe Harbor is a set of principles that provide guidance on acceptable levels
 of security for personal data transmitted between organizations in Europe and
the US. This framework allows each country to adhere to its own laws,
regulations, and organizational policies, while still providing a meaningful
level of security trusted by other countries. [Security Assessment and Testing]

20. A - Data diddling refers to an attack that alters existing data in some way. In this
scenario, the data was altered between the new member's approval of the $100
fee and Ted entering it as $80 in the accounting application. [Security
Assessment and Testing]

21. A - When evidence is collected during an investigation, documentation is

created to log what was collected, who collected it, to whom it was transferred,
and its current disposition. This paper trail is called the chain of custody, and it
is used in court to prove that the evidence has not been altered or tampered with.
[Security Assessment and Testing]

22. A - Adhering to the principle of least privilege, Tim should have two accounts:
a privileged admin level account for performing systems work, and a non-
privileged account such as an ordinary user or power user to perform non-
administrative tasks. [Security Operations]

23. D - Short focal length lenses provide a wide angle view of an area, which is
ideal in an open area such as a lobby. Long focal length lenses provide a very
narrow view, which is more appropriate for small areas such as entry/ exit
points. [Security Assessment and Testing]

24. D - When the security of an organization's data is breached, both direct and
indirect losses can occur. Direct losses include loss of trade secrets and
intellectual property, while indirect losses can include loss of reputation, lost
productivity during an outage caused by the breach, and the cost of fines and
restitution related to the loss of confidential customer or employee information.
[Security Assessment and Testing]

25. A - Penetration testing can identify vulnerabilities that may be exploited by an

attacker. By proactively discovering these vulnerabilities, an organization can
implement countermeasures to reduce the risk of a successful attack. [Security
Operations]

26. D - Strong authentication and encryption will thwart most man in the middle
and spoofing attacks. However, the data packets in transit may be intercepted
 and used in a replay attack, where the data is resent to the destination at a later
time. Using some sort of timestamp on the packets being sent are an effective
countermeasure to this threat. [Asset Security]

27. C - Piggybacking is the term for two or more persons passing through an
access point on a single access method, such as one card swipe or PIN entry.
This isn't always a malicious intrusion; many times one employee simply holds
the door open for the employee behind him or her. However, this could allow
users without proper authorization to enter highly sensitive or secure areas. A
security awareness program reminding users that every staff member must use
their access control mechanism (e.g. swiping their badge or entering their PIN)
every time they pass through a controlled portal is a company policy is a
countermeasure for this. [Security Assessment and Testing]

28. B - Optimizing is the highest level of maturity in the CMM framework.

Organizations reaching this level have reached a point in their development
processes where continuous improvement of existing processes is the focus.
Less mature levels in the framework place the focus on developing,
implementing, and managing standard, repeatable processes. [Security
Assessment and Testing]

29. D - When using electronic cipher locks, it is highly recommended that the
keypad be shielded from view by anyone but the immediate user, to prevent
unauthorized users from shoulder surfing key codes. These types of locks
should also be connected to a battery backup to ensure continuous operation of
the lock during power outages. [Security Assessment and Testing]

30. C - NIST selected the Rijndael algorithm as the replacement standard for DES.
Also known as the Advanced Encryption Standard or AES, it is a symmetric
block cipher that supports key sizes of 128, 192, and 256 bits. [Asset Security]

31. C - ISC2 provides the following MTD estimates for business continuity
planning: nonessential: 30 days; normal: seven days; important: 72 hours;
urgent: 24 hours; critical: minutes to hours. It is important to note that more
than one estimate will be used within an organization, as various functions and
capabilities much each be MTD-rated. [Security and Risk Management]

32. A - Underwriter Laboratories standard 437 requires that security container key
locks withstand 30 minutes of attack by various means, including picking,
drilling, sawing, prying, and punching. [Security Assessment and Testing]
33. B - Data warehousing could streamline data gathering and reporting for this
organization. A data warehouse consolidates data from different databases and
provides it in a user friendly format. It is important to note the warehouse
contains copies of the data from each source it services; when a user executes a
query, the results returned are from the warehouse's data store. [Security
Assessment and Testing]

34. C - A robust physical security plan includes multiple elements that are layered
in such a way as to act as failsafe measures. Defense in depth, CPTED, and
deter-detect-delay-respond all address this layered approach to security.
[Security Assessment and Testing]

35. A - Personnel policies should be implemented requiring managers to notify IT

of an employee's extended leave or termination. However, as a backup to this
policy, user account activity should also be regularly monitored by IT. In the
event an account is discovered to be inactive for an extended period of time,
best practices dictate the account be temporarily disabled if the account owner
will be returning, or deleted if the account owner has left the organization.
Unused accounts are susceptible to fraudulent use, as the identity of the
perpetrator of such use would not be easily discovered by simple auditing.
[Security Operations]

36. C - OCTAVE, Delphi, and PUSH are qualitative risk assessment methodologies
that use subjective measurements, including likelihood determination and
determination of impact, to determine risk. Quantitative risk assessment
methodologies use numerical values to determine risk. [Security and Risk
Management]

37. D - When an attacker can see the true file path as part of a URL, he or she can
execute a directory traversal attack to navigate into other folders and files. This
is accomplished by inserting a standard comandline directory navigation
command, “../”, into the URL to move upward in the directory structure, then
running other commands to view and change directories at will. This attack is
also known as the “dot slash” attack, named after the characters used to initiate
the directory traversal. [Security Assessment and Testing]

38. A - 3DES, also known as Triple DES is an encryption algorithm that applies the
DES cipher 3 times to each data block, with either 2 or 3 different keys. This is
a very strong cryptographic algorithm, but the tradeoff is that it is also very
computationally intensive. [Asset Security]
39. B - Incremental backups take less time to complete than either full or
differential backups, as only the files with changed archived bits are backed up.
However, incremental backups are more complicated and take more time to
restore, because they must be restored in the precise order in which they were
backed up to avoid missing a file. [Security and Risk Management]

40. D - Disk shadowing uses two complete and identical sets of data on two or
more disks that appear as a single drive to the system. In the event that one of
the disks fails, the data on the remaining set is still available to users. Because
identical data are available on two separate disks, IO performance is improved
when a multiple users attempt to simultaneously access a file. [Security and Risk
Management]
Extra Domain Area Test: Security and Risk Management
Practice Questions

Test Name: Extra Domain Area Test: Security and Risk Management
Total Questions: 15
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 11 (73.33%)
Time Allowed: 25 Minutes

Test Description

This practice test specifically targets your knowledge of the Security and Risk
Management domain area.

Test Questions

1. What criterion must evidence meet to be admissible in a court of law?

A. It must be insufficient and intangible

B. It must be relevant and reliable

C. It must be indisputable and intangible

D. It must be corroborative and conclusive

2. Which of the following is not an ethical fallacy?

A. Survival of the fittest includes accidentally receiving an internal price list

from a competitor.

B. Hackers are only trying to learn and do not make a profit by entering in to
private systems. They should not be penalized.

C. One may encrypt personal information with AES to prevent information

theft or tampering.

D. The creation of computer viruses is an expression of free speech, and

protected by the US Bill of Rights.
3. There are various types of evidence that can be used in a court of law. What
type of evidence is considered incidental?

A. Circumstantial

B. Hearsay

C. Real

D. Opinion

4. There are various types of evidence that can be used in a court of law. What
type of evidence cannot be used on its own, but may be admissible to prove
other, more substantial evidence?

A. Circumstantial evidence

B. Opinion evidence

C. Hearsay evidence

D. Corroborative evidence

5. Alice is the network security administrator for her company. She detects a real-
time attack on a server containing valuable and private records. Which of the
following should she do first?

A. Backup the server

B. Turn off the server

C. Disconnect the server from the network

D. Unplug the electrical connection to the server

6. When investigating business risks, a company exercises __________, but when

the company does all it reasonably can to mitigate the risks, the company
exercises ___________.

A. Due Care / Due Burden

 B. Due Diligence / Due Care

C. Due Care / Due Diligence

D. Due Burden / Due Care

7. A manufacturing design firm comes up with a revolutionary and cost-effective

process to manufacture an item. A few weeks later a competitor comes up with
the same process by using documents recovered from refuse. This type of
industrial espionage is known as:

A. Social Engineering

B. Dumpster Diving

C. Phreaking

D. Black Boxing

8. Nancy is the Chief Information Officer of a bank. In order to deal with

suspicious network, internet, and cyber events; she creates a team of experts.
This team will be responsible for dealing with these events. She assigns
personnel from the WAN group, LAN group, Systems, Network Security, and
Development. What is such a team traditionally called?

A. Cyber Access Team

B. Issue Response Team

C. Standards Drafting Team

D. Incident Response Team

9. A company had to resort to a lawsuit against a former employee who, it

claimed, had stolen a very confidential set of procedures and leaked it to a
competitor after he was fired. In retrospect, how could they have prevented him
from stealing the procedure?

A. By implementing separation of duties

 B. By use of CCTV cameras

C. By asking the employee to sign a non-disclosure agreement.

D. By applying for a patent.

10. Which of the following information gathering techniques is generally regarded

as legal (although questionable)?

A. Firewall Hacking

B. Phishing

C. Dumpster Diving

D. Social Engineering

11. Samuel is a US citizen. He creates a new application that is based upon an

incredibly powerful, new, 512-bit encryption methodology. Where may he
market such a product freely?

A. Within the US and Canada

B. World-wide

C. Within the US and 23 specific other countries

D. Within the US only

12. As part of proper collection of evidence, an attacked system must be properly

handled. The correct sequence of steps would be to:

A. Isolate the system from the network, power down the system, take a memory
dump and make a copy of the attacked system's disk drives.

B. Isolate the system from the network, take a memory dump, power down the
system and make a copy of the attacked system's disk drives.

C. Power down the system, isolate the system from the network, make a copy
of the attacked system's disk drives and take a memory dump.
 D. Power down the system, isolate the system from the network, take a memory
dump and make a copy of the attacked system's disk drives

13. A software product manufacturer wishes to protect a complex algorithm that he

developed. What steps should he take to have complete control over who else
uses the algorithm?

A. He should trademark the algorithm.

B. He should have every user of the product sign an End User Licensing
Agreement (EULA).

C. He should obtain a patent for the algorithm.

D. He should file the algorithm as a trade secret.

14. What law protects company logos from illegal duplication?

A. Trademark

B. Patent

C. Copyright

D. Trade secret

15. A CISSP violates the (ISC)2 Code of Ethics for CISSPs. Another CISSP, who is
his peer, reports this to (ISC)2. What is the next step that may happen?

A. (ISC)2 will give the alleged violator a warning and inform him that the next
occurrence could result in his losing his certification.

B. (ISC)2 will subject the alleged violator to a peer review panel to determine
whether he knowingly or unknowingly committed the violation.

C. (ISC)2 will send the alleged violator an official communication informing

him that his CISSP certification is invalidated.

D. (ISC)2 will place the alleged violator's name on a black-list and inform him
that his certification is no longer valid.
Extra Domain Area Test: Security and Risk Management
Answer Key and Explanations

1. B - All evidence placed before a court of law must have a significant bearing on
a material fact. This data should be reliable and contribute to the proving or
disproving of the disputed issue. [Security and Risk Management]

2. C - Encryption of personal data is the only choice listed that is not an ethical
fallacy. [Security and Risk Management]

3. A - Circumstantial evidence is incidental evidence that may become significant

only when considered along with other facts. [Security and Risk Management]

4. D - Corroborative evidence may support other evidence in order to prove a

theory or idea. This type of evidence is not admissible on its own, but may
supplement a more credible piece of evidence. [Security and Risk Management]

5. C - Disconnecting from the network is the best course of action. Anything that
might interrupt the power to machine will destroy evidence in cache and RAM.
A backup is useless once the damage is done. [Security and Risk Management]

6. B - Due Diligence involves investigating the company's weaknesses and

vulnerabilities whereas due care refers to using reasonable business judgment
to mitigate those possibilities. [Security and Risk Management]

7. B - Dumpster diving is the specific term used for this action. Social engineering
was not used here. Phreaking is a type of telephone hacking to make free calls,
and black boxing is a specific type of phreaking [Security and Risk
Management]

8. D - Such a team is usually called the Incident Response Team. This team works
with a set of procedures to be carried out in the event of actual or suspected
incidents. [Security and Risk Management]

9. A - Implementation of separation of duties could have ensured that no single

individual had access to all aspects of the sensitive procedure. The other
choices do not prevent the ex-employee from possessing critical information
that he leaked. [Security and Risk Management]
 C - In many cases, such as California vs. Greenwood, it has been upheld in
10. court that there is no expectation of privacy for discarded materials. [Security
and Risk Management]

11. C - In October 2000, the US Department of Commerce named a list of 15

European Union countries and 8 additional US trading partner countries to
which high-strength encryption algorithms could be exported. Export outside of
these countries would be a violation of law. [Security and Risk Management]

12. B - The correct sequence of events would be to: Isolate the system from the
network, take a memory dump, power down the system and make a copy of the
attacked system's disk drives. Since primary memory is volatile, its contents
will be lost if the system is powered down. Hence it has to be copied first.
[Security and Risk Management]

13. C - The software product manufacturer should acquire a patent so that he has
full control over the algorithm and who can use it in their products. This will be
typically valid for a specific period of time. [Security and Risk Management]

14. A - Trademarks are a means of identifying and distinguishing a company's

product or goods. A trademark can be a color, device, name, shape, sound,
symbol, word, or a combination of these elements. A company's logo is an
example of a trademark. [Security and Risk Management]

15. B - When a CISSP violates the (ISC)2 Code of Ethics, (ISC)2 will form a peer
review panel to determine whether he knowingly violated the Code of Ethics.
Subsequent actions are decided based on the recommendations of this panel.
[Security and Risk Management]
Extra Domain Area Test: Security Operations
Practice Questions

Test Name: Extra Domain Area Test: Security Operations

Total Questions: 15
Correct Answers Needed to Pass: 11 (73.33%)
Time Allowed: 25 Minutes

Test Description

This practice test specifically targets your knowledge of the Security Operations
domain area.

Test Questions

1. Operational planning involves identifying where a back-up of data should be

stored. Typically, multiple backups are created. One of these is held locally for
day-to-day restores. Which of the following locations is the best choice for
storing the other back-up copy?

A. A backup location within the same city.

B. Another building within the same facility

C. A backup location 100 miles away

D. A backup location 1000 miles away

2. Which of the following is the best option to handle data security for portable
devices such as a laptops?

A. Restrict remote connectivity of laptops to company networks.

B. Encrypt all data stored on a laptop.

C. Stay alert in airports and public places to prevent loss of the laptop.

D. Always carry a laptop in a nondescript carry bag or case.

3. A and B are communicating with each other over a TCP session when an
attacker hijacks the session using Juggernaut. What action should the
administrator take to avoid recurrence of such attacks?

A. The administrator should look at implementing a protocol such as

Kerberos/ IPSec.

B. The administrator should discourage such communication between the two

users.

C. The administrator should look at implementing a protocol such as IMAP/

ICMP.

D. The administrator should ask the users to discuss and introduce a formal set
of protocols known only to them.

4. A computer application that accessed a very critical file server was developed
such that it required two administrator-level users to simultaneously log in for
either of them to gain access to the system. Such a precaution would be termed
as:

A. Separation of duties.

B. Good authentication.

C. Excessive authentication.

D. Joint duties

5. A security administrator reports to the network administrator and provides

weekly security reports on the security functions. You are asked to audit
operations and report your findings to management. One of your key
comments would be:

A. The reporting structure looks flawed. The network administrator should

report to the security administrator.

B. Weekly reports are too far apart and reporting needs to happen daily.

C. It is unnecessary to have weekly reports since they are just an overhead of

 time. A monthly report will suffice.

D. The reporting structure looks flawed. A security administrator should not

report to the network administrator.

6. Which of these is not a control method used in operations security?

A. Supervision

B. Highest privilege

C. Need-to-know

D. Separation of duties

7. As part of object reuse assurance, software tools are used that overwrite sectors
of magnetic media so that the average attacker or hacker is unable to retrieve
information that was stored on it. What is the typical recommendation for such
overwriting?

A. A single overwrite for noncritical information and two rounds of

overwriting for sensitive data.

B. At least two rounds of overwrite for noncritical information and seven

rounds of overwriting for sensitive data.

C. A single overwrite for noncritical information and multiple rounds of

overwriting for sensitive data (ideally 7 times).

D. Multiple rounds of overwriting for all kinds of data. (Ideally this should be
done 7 times).

8. An optical disk was not properly purged, with the result that some of the
company data was leaked out to a competitor. What is the best way to purge an
optical disk?

A. Grinding of the media surface

B. Electroplating the disk surface

 C. Zeroization of the media

D. Degaussing the media

9. An IT services company plans to upgrade its computer systems and donate the
older systems for a social cause. What would your primary suggestion be?

A. All hard disks and digital media should be destroyed and the systems should
be dispatched without the media.

B. The computers should be dispatched only after all data on hard disks has
been deleted by using the basic format functionality of the operating
systems.

C. It is extremely risky to permit computer systems owned by the company to

be used elsewhere, hence it is better to destroy them.

D. All hard disks and digital media should be sanitized before the systems leave
the company premises.

10. What configuration will ensure that received fax documents are kept
confidential and secure?

A. Configure the fax device to only accept faxes when a user is present to
receive it.

B. Configure a fax server to route the received faxes to the appropriate user's
electronic mailbox.

C. Configure the fax device to only accept faxes from known senders.

D. Configure a fax server to print the faxes to the nearest printer and include a
cover page that separates the printed faxes by user name.

11. What type of backup will contain any files that have changed since the last full
backup?

A. Partial

B. Full
 C. Differential

D. Complete

12. The HR director of a company had certain valuable data on her desktop
computer. A hard disk crash wiped out important data that was hard to recreate.
Which could have been done to avoid this?

A. Hard disk crashes are an operational risk. There is not much that can be
done in case of a hard disk crash on a desktop.

B. The user should have avoided working on her desktop computer.

C. It is the user's responsibility to backup data. Nothing much can be done about
such a failure.

D. The operations department should have included critical, identified

directories on the HR director's desktop as part of its backup procedures.

13. During the quarterly audit of software licenses being used in a company, it was
discovered that there were two extra software installations for which no valid
license was available. What should the next step be?

A. An investigation should be launched to ascertain who used those

applications and how they came to be installed.

B. There appears to be a valid requirement for having two additional licenses.

The company should take steps to procure the same.

C. This is an ethical issue. The applications must be immediately deleted from

the computer systems.

D. This is a legal issue. The applications must immediately be deleted from the
computer systems.

14. Ed works for a manufacturing company as a drafting engineer. He narrowly

escapes being terminated for inappropriate Internet browsing. It was discovered
that the inappropriate acts took place only at 2:00 AM when Ed was not at work.
Which of the following would have prevented this confusion?
 A. Night Watchmen

B. Biometrics

C. Personal Firewalls

D. Mandatory Screen Timeouts

15. Which of the following is not true about RAID 10?

A. It does not provide sufficient redundancy.

B. It combines the characteristics of RAID 0 and RAID 1.

C. It is considered as a multi-RAID level.

D. It requires a large amount of storage space.

Extra Domain Area Test: Security Operations
Answer Key and Explanations

1. C - A key consideration while deciding the off-site backup location is that the
location should be sufficiently far enough so that it is not affected by the same
natural calamity; at the same time, it should not be so far away that recovering
the backup becomes difficult. The choice of a location 100 miles away is a
good choice. The choices of a backup within the same facility and city are poor
choices. A backup location 1000 miles away is too far away for quick retrieval.
[Security Operations]

2. B - Although all of the choices listed contribute to better security while

handling a laptop device, the choice of encryption of data on the laptop is the
best and can help prevent loss of information even if the laptop is stolen.
[Security Operations]

3. A - An administrator should look at implementing a protocol such as Kerberos/

ITSec. This will require the two users who are communicating to have mutual
authentication. An attacker will be unable to authenticate to the users and launch
an attack. [Security Operations]

4. A - At first glance, this might seem like a situation where security requirements
have been exaggerated. However, if there is a mission-critical server, it might
be necessary to have two individuals manage the system, thus ensuring that no
one person can misuse it. Hence, this is separation of duties enforced to a very
high degree. [Security Operations]

5. D - Each of the roles of security administrator and network administrator has a

different function and focus. A network administrator focuses on ensuring that
networks and resources are available. This could result in a lower security. In
contrast the security administrator introduces security mechanisms that
decrease the performance and reduce the availability. It is best to have a
different reporting structure to handle this conflict of interest. [Security
Operations]

6. B - Highest privilege is not a valid control method used in operations security.

The other three choices are valid control methods. [Security Operations]

7. C - For non-critical data, a single round of overwriting is considered sufficient.

 For more critical and sensitive data, it recommended that the overwriting
happen several times (the recommendation is seven). [Security Operations]

8. A - Grinding the data side of the optical disk such that the media is rendered
unreadable is a very effective way of destroying it. At a minimum, the grinding
can be used to scratch the surface to such an extent that the media is rendered
unreadable. [Security Operations]

9. D - Not permitting company owned systems to be donated, or destroying hard

disks before giving the systems away is an extreme measure. On the other hand,
using a simple format command to delete files is ineffective and does not fully
delete the contents of files. The best option is to completely sanitize the digital
media, thus ensuring that no old data is retrievable. [Security Operations]

10. B - The best way to ensure that faxed documents are kept confidential is to
implement a fax server. When a fax is received by the fax server, it determines
who the fax is intended for and sends it to the electronic mailbox of that user so
that they can view it with their email client. This ensures that only the user that is
intended to see the fax will actually see it. This overcomes the issue with
traditional fax machines where faxes could be easily compromised. [Security
Operations]

11. C - The differential backup will contain any files that have changed since the
last full backup, regardless of the fact that they have been backed up before.
This is because the archive bit is left on to identify that these files have not yet
been saved to a full backup. [Security Operations]

12. D - The operations department should have included critical, identified

directories on the HR director's desktop as part of its backup procedures. It is
better the operations department implements backup procedures. [Security
Operations]

13. A - Unauthorized installations could range from being a simple oversight to a

serious violation involving deliberate misuse and access to data. When such
unauthorized installations are noticed, a detailed enquiry should be launched.
This would be the first step in the process. [Security Operations]

14. D - When personnel do not lock their console or log out, they may be held
liable for what is done on their equipment in their absence. Biometrics and
firewalls do not help when someone leaves a session unattended. Mandatory
 screen timeouts will help in such cases. [Security Operations]

15. A - RAID 10 is considered a multi-RAID level since it combines the

characteristics of RAID 0 and RAID 1. It provides excellent redundancy and has
a superior performance. On the flip side, it requires a large amount of storage
space. [Security Operations]
ADDITIONAL RESOURCES
Exam Taking Tips

Studying for a multiple choice exam entails preparing in a unique way as opposed
to other types of tests. The CISSP exam asks one to recognize correct answers
among a set of four options. The extra options that are not the correct answer are
called the “distracters”; and their purpose, unsurprisingly, is to distract the test taker
from the actual correct answer among the bunch.

Students usually consider multiple choice exams as much easier than other types of
exams; this is not necessarily true with the CISSP exam. Among these reasons are:

• Most multiple choice exams ask for simple, factual information; unlike the
CISSP exam which often requires the student to apply knowledge and make a
best judgment.

• The majority of multiple choice exams involve a large quantity of different

questions – so even if you get a few incorrect, it’s still okay. The CISSP exam
covers a broad set of material, often times in greater depth than other
certification exams.

Regardless of whether or not multiple choice testing is more forgiving; in reality,

one must study immensely because of the sheer volume of information that is
covered.

Although 6 hours may seem like more than enough time for a multiple choice
exam; time management remains a crucial factor in succeeding and doing well. You
should always try and answer all of the questions you are confident about first, and
then go back to those items you are not sure about afterwards. Always read carefully
through the entire test as well, and do your best to not leave any question blank upon
submission– even if you do not readily know the answer.

Many people do very well with reading through each question and not looking at the
options before trying to answer. This way, they can steer clear (usually) of being
fooled by one of the “distracter” options or get into a tug-of-war between two
choices that both have a good chance of being the actual answer.

Never assume that “all of the above” or “none of the above” answers are the actual
choice. Many times they are, but in recent years they have been used much more
frequently as distracter options on standardized tests. Typically this is done in an
effort to get people to stop believing the myth that they are always the correct
answer.

You should be careful of negative answers as well. These answers contain words
such as “none”, “not”, “neither”, and the like. Despite often times being very
confusing, if you read these types of questions and answers carefully, then you
should be able to piece together which is the correct answer. Just take your time!

Never try to overanalyze a question, or try and think about how the test givers are
trying to lead astray potential test takers. Keep it simple and stay with what you
know.

If you ever narrow down a question to two possible answers, then try and slow
down your thinking and think about how the two different options/answers differ.
Look at the question again and try to apply how this difference between the two
potential answers relates to the question. If you are convinced there is literally no
difference between the two potential answers (you’ll more than likely be wrong in
assuming this), then take another look at the answers that you’ve already eliminated.
Perhaps one of them is actually the correct one and you’d made a previously
unforeseen mistake.

On occasion, over-generalizations are used within response options to mislead test

takers. To help guard against this, always be wary of responses/answers that use
absolute words like “always”, or “never”. These are less likely to actually be the
answer than phrases like “probably” or “usually” are. Funny or witty responses are
also, most of the time, incorrect – so steer clear of those as much as possible.

Although you should always take each question individually, “none of the above”
answers are usually less likely to be the correct selection than “all of the above” is.
Keep this in mind with the understanding that it is not an absolute rule, and should be
analyzed on a case-by-case (or “question-by-question”) basis.

Looking for grammatical errors can also be a huge clue. If the stem ends with an
indefinite article such as “an” then you’ll probably do well to look for an answer
that begins with a vowel instead of a consonant. Also, the longest response is also
oftentimes the correct one, since whoever wrote the question item may have tended
to load the answer with qualifying adjectives or phrases in an effort to make it
correct. Again though, always deal with these on a question-by-question basis,
because you could very easily be getting a question where this does not apply.

Verbal associations are oftentimes critical because a response may repeat a key
word that was in the question. Always be on the alert for this. Playing the old
Sesame Street game “Which of these things is not like the other” is also a very solid
strategy, if a bit preschool. Sometimes many of a question’s distracters will be very
similar to try to trick you into thinking that one choice is related to the other. The
answer very well could be completely unrelated however, so stay alert.

Just because you have finished a practice test, be aware that you are not done
working. After you have graded your test with all of the necessary corrections,
review it and try to recognize what happened in the answers that you got wrong. Did
you simply not know the qualifying correct information? Perhaps you were led
astray by a solid distracter answer? Going back through your corrected test will
give you a leg up on your next one by revealing your tendencies as to what you may
be vulnerable with, in terms of multiple choice tests.

It may be a lot of extra work, but in the long run, going through your corrected
multiple choice tests will work wonders for you in preparation for the real exam.
See if you perhaps misread the question or even missed it because you were
unprepared. Think of it like instant replays in professional sports. You are going
back and looking at what you did on the big stage in the past so you can help fix and
remedy any errors that could pose problems for you on the real exam.