PART–A

In questions 1-5, choose the word most similar in meaning to the given word.

1. Delirious
A) Desperate B) Unsettled
C) Delicious D) Pleasing
SA
2. Solecism
A) Illusion B) Praise
C) Error D) Corroborate
3. Somber
M
A) Serious B) Simple
C) Mischievous D) Waggish
4. Preposterous
PL
A) Unreasonable B) Responsible
C) Proper D) None of the above
5. Aesthetic
A) Ugly B) Beautiful
C) Mediocre D) Prevalent
E
6. That which cannot be corrected is called:
A) Indelible B) Incorrigible
C) Ineligible D) None of the above
TE
7. A person who talks in sleep is called:
A) Oneirocritic B) Philatelist
C) Somnambulist D) Somniloquist
8. The person, who knows everything is called:
ST
A) Omnipotent B) Omnipresent
C) Omniscient D) Oblivious
9. In dictionary, which comes first?
A) Wizard B) Wine
C) Wife D) Wire
PA
10. In dictionary, which comes first?
A) Serene B) Seen
C) Seldom D) Seer
11. Who invented the Microprocessor?
A) Herman H. Goldstein
PE
B) Michael de Bakey
C) Marcian E. Hoff
D) Georges Claude
12. Which amongst the following countries has the least forest cover?
R
A) India B) Bangladesh
C) Malaysia D) Pakistan
13. Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in the year:
A) 1970 B) 1972
C) 1975 D) 1977

[2] RP-QP–08
14. Which of the following is the common source of allergy?
A) Natural Oil
B) Water Vapours
C) Cotton fibres
D) Spores and Pollens
15. The Indian Institute of Science is located at:
SA
A) Bengaluru
B) New Delhi
C) Pune
D) Bhopal
16. Name the capital of United States of America.
M
A) New York
B) Washington
C) Washington DC
D) Los Angeles
PL

17. If ENGLAND is written as 1245526 and FRANCE as 785291, how will GREECE be written in this
coding scheme?
A) 381911 B) 394232
C) 381191 D) 462345
E
18. Complete the series: 13 ........, 26, 34, 43, 53
A) 16 B) 17
C) 19 D) 21
TE
19. Find the odd one out: 23, 43, 53, 63, 73.
A) 23 B) 43
C) 53 D) 63
20. Find the odd one out: 16:14, 24:21, 40:35, 32:27, 56:49
ST
A) 16:14 B) 24:21
C) 40:35 D) 32:27
21. Which of the following is a perfect square?
A) 9210 B) 17466
C) 23435 D) 28561
PA
22. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 km/hr and with stoppages it is 45 km/hr. For how many
minutes the bus stopped per hour.
A) 5 minutes B) 8 minutes
C) 10 minutes D) 11 minutes
23. A man walks at 5 kmph for 6 hrs and 4 kmph for 12 hrs. His average speed is:
PE
1 2
A) 4 kmph B) 7 kmph
3 3
1
C) 8 kmph D) 9 kmph
2
R
24. Average of all Prime numbers between 30 to 50 is:
A) 37 B) 37.8
C) 39 D) 39.8
25. The ratio 5:20 expressed as percentage is equal to:
A) 22% B) 24%
C) 25% D) 40%

[3] RP-QP–08
26. A researcher selects a probability sample of 100 out of the total population. It is a .................
A) Random sample B) Systematic sample
C) Cluster Sample D) Stratified sample
27. A good hypothesis should be
A) Precise, specific and consistent with most known facts
B) Of limited scope and should not have global significance
SA
C) Formulated in such a way that it can be tested by data
D) All the above
28. An example of qualitative variable (s) is/are
A) Observation B) Religions and castes
C) Sex D) All of these
M

29. Bibliography given in a research report

A) Makes the report authentic
B) Shows vast knowledge of the researcher
PL
C) Helps future research in the subject
D) None of these
30. If a sample drawn does not specify any condition about parameters of the population, it is called
A) Census B) Selected Statistics
E
C) Distribution free statistics D) None of these
31. Per capita income of India from 1970 to 2010 is five times. This study is
A) Factorial B) Longitudinal
TE
C) Horizontal D) Social
32. Field study is related to
A) Experimental situations B) Laboratory situations
C) Real life situations D) None of these
33. Ten year old children are taller than seven year old ones. It is an example of
ST
A) Cross-sectional studies B) Vertical studies
C) Experimental studies D) Case studies
34. A researcher divides his population into certain groups and fixes the size of the sample from each
group. It is called
A) Quota Sample B) Cluster Sample
PA
C) Stratified Sample D) All the above
35. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?
A) Area sampling technique
B) Systematic sampling technique
C) Purposive sampling technique
PE
D) None of these
36. In scientific research
A) Only experiments can refute assumptions
B) There are assumptions but experiments cannot verify them
R
C) There are no assumptions
D) None of the above
37. The paradigm change is considered to be
A) Progressive B) Regressive
C) Slow D) Sudden

[4] RP-QP–08
38. The social element in research consists of
A) Introducing human elements
B) Catering for elements of social relevance
C) Caring for cultural elements
D) All the above
39. Research hypothesis, is a
SA
A) Working solution B) Partial solution
C) Knowledge proposal D) Tested solution
40. In a research study, the conclusion should be based upon
A) Data collected B) Analysis of data
C) Relevant literature D) Both A) & B)
M

41. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test?

A) Ambiguity B) Validity
C) Objectivity D) Reliability
PL

42. Which one of the following is not a source of data?

A) GIS B) Sample survey
C) Population census D) Administrative records
43. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data classification?
E
A) Qualitative B) Spatial
C) Normative D) Quantitative
44. Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the distribution of different crops as
TE
provided in the standard classification of crops in India?
A) Isopleth technique B) Pie diagram
C) Chorochromatic technique D) Dot method
45. Computer operations are through-----
ST
A) Decimal B) Reminder
C) Binary digit D) Fractions
46. A product of learning is
A) Skills B) Intelligence
C) Maturation D) Forget fullness
PA
47. Educational implications of the learning process are
A) Interests B) Curiosity
C) Memory D) All the above
48. The parameter used to evaluate the impact of the research of a researcher is
A) h-index
PE
B) Number of articles published by the author
C) Number of awards
D) TRP rating
49. Peer-reviewed journal is
A) In which the articles are evaluated by the relevant exerts
R
B) In which one does not have to pay to publish
C) In which one does not have to pay to read articles
D) None of the above
50. Which portion of the thesis is the last section?
A) Review of literature B) Materials and methods
C) Conclusions D) Results

[5] RP-QP–08
 PART–B

51. (S, <), where< represents “divides” is not a lattice if

A) S= (1, 2, 3, 5, 30) B) S= (1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12)
C) S= (1, 2, 3, 6) D) S= (1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20)
2
52. There are two coins one is fair and other is so weighed that the probability of turning up head is .
SA
3
Probability of getting head when one coin selected and tossed is
1 5
A) B)
12 12
7 1
C) D)
M
12 4
53. If the variance of a poisson variate is 2 and p (x =1) = 0.2706, Then p (x = 2) =
A) 0.1353 B) 0.2706
PL
C) 0.1804 D) 0.0902
lim ⎛ 1 1 ⎞
54. x → 0⎜ – ⎟=
⎝ x sin x⎠
A) 1 B) x
E
C) 2 D) 0

55. If f ( x) = 2 x3 − 6 x , then f has minimum at x =

A) 0
TE
B) 1
C) –1
D) 2
56. The worst case occurs when the keys are already in sorted order in the following sorting method.
A) Bubble sort B) Insertion sort
ST
C) Quick sort D) Heap sort
57. Which one of the following is false?
A) Inheritance represents has a kind of relationship between classes.
B) Inheritance represents is a kind of relationship between classes.
C) Object is an instance of a class.
PA
D) An Object has state, identity and behaviour.
58. The postfix form of the infix expression (a+(b*c)/d-e) is
A) abc*de/-+ B) abc*d/+e-
C) abcde+*/- D) ab*c/d+e-
59. Which of the following statements is not correct?
PE

A) An undirected graph G is biconnected if and only if it contains articulation points.

B) A maximal biconnected subgraph is a biconnected component.
C) Two biconnected components can have at most one vertex in common.
D) Breadth first search can be used to determine whether an undirected graph is connected.
R
60. A sorting technique which guarantees that records with the same primary key will occur in the same
order in the sorted list as in the original unsorted list is said to be
A) Stable
B) Consistent
C) External
D) Internal

[6] RP-QP–08
61. Which of the following algorithm solves the All Pairs Shortest Path Problem using dynamic
programming?
A) Dijkstra’s algorithm B) Prim’s algorithm
C) Kruskal’s algorithm D) Floyd’s algorithm
62. If the node having two children is deleted from the binary search tree then we replace the node (to be
deleted) by
SA
A) The preorder successor of the node B) The postorder successor of the node
C) The inorder successor of that node D) Root node
63. Which of the following statements is not correct in C?
A) Static local variables have default initial values of zero.
B) Static global variables have default initial values of zero.
M
C) Automatic variables have default initial values of zero.
D) When address operator is applied to a variable in C, the value that is generated is the actual
address of that variable inside the computer’s memory.
PL
64. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A) Prim’s algorithm is used to find minimum cost spanning tree fora graph.
B) Kruskal’s algorithm is used to find minimum cost spanning treefor a graph.
C) A stack is used in implementing Depth first traversal method.
D) The DFS traversal is analogous to inorder traversal of a tree.
E
65. The hash function Hash(key) = key % 50 will produce the following range of values
A) 0-49 B) 0-50
C) 1-50 D) 1-49
TE
66. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A) Semaphores provide mechanism for process synchronization.
B) Monitors provide mechanism for process synchronization.
C) Banker’s algorithm is a deadlock avoidance algorithm.
D) A deadlock detection algorithm called wait-for graph is applicable to a resource-allocation system
ST
with multiple instances of each resource type.
67. Which one of the following statements is false?
A) FIFO page-replacement algorithm suffers from Belady’s anomaly.
B) LRU replacement algorithm suffers from Belady’s anomaly.
C) Optimal page-replacement algorithm does not suffer from Belady’sanomaly.
PA
D) Optimal page-replacement algorithm has the lowest page-fault rate.
68. Which one of the following statements is true?
A) Paging avoids internal fragmentation.
B) Paging does not permit the physical address space of a process to be non-contiguous.
C) High paging activity is called thrashing.
PE
D) Segmentation does not suffer from external fragmentation.
69. Which of the following statements is false?
A) The process id of init process is 0.
B) The process id of init process is 1.
C) The init process becomes the parent process of an orphan process.
R
D) The parent process may wait for the termination of a child process by using the wait system call.
70. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A) A major problem with priority CPU scheduling algorithm is starvation.
B) Priority scheduling can be preemptive.
C) Priority scheduling can be non preemptive.
D) Shortest job first algorithm cannot be preemptive.

[7] RP-QP–08
71. Pumping lemma is generally used for proving
A) a given grammar is regular
B) a given grammar is not regular
C) whether two given regular expressions are equivalent
D) whether two terminals are equivalent
72. An FSM can be considered a TM
SA
A) of finite tape length , rewinding capability and unidirectional tape movement
B) of finite tape length ,without rewinding capability and unidirectional tape movement
C) of finite tape length ,without rewinding capability and bidirectional tape movement
D) of finite tape length , rewinding capability and bidirectional tape movement
73. CFG is not closed under
M
A) union B) Kleene star
C) complementation D) product
74. The number of symbols necessary to simulate a TM with m symbols and n states is
PL
A) m+n B) 8mn+4m
C) mn D) 4mn+m
75. The following statement is
S → aαb | bαc | aB
E
S→ aS |b
S → αbb | ab
bα → bdb |b
A) context free B) regular
TE
C) context sensitive D) LR(k)
76. In a compiler, grouping of characters into tokens is done by the
A) scanner B) parser
C) code generator D) code optimizer
ST
77. Which of the following symbol table implementation is based on the property of locality of reference ?
A) Linear list
B) Search tree
C) Hash table
D) Self-organization list
PA
78. YACC builds up
A) SLR parsing table
B) canonical LR parsing table
C) LALR parsing table
D) canonical SLR parsing table
PE
79. Which of the following testing methods is normally used as the acceptance test for a software system?
A) Regression testing
B) Integration testing
C) unit testing
D) Functional testing
R
80. Configuration management is not concerned with
A) controlling changes to the source code
B) choice of hardware configuration for an application
C) controlling documentation changes
D) maintaining versions of software

[8] RP-QP–08
81. The size of MAC address is
A) 24 bits B) 32 bits
C) 64 bits D) 48 bits
82. Which of the following layers are responsible for Error Control as well as Flow Control?
A) Data Link and Physical Layers
B) Transport and Data Link Layers
SA
C) Application and Presentation Layers
D) Data Link and Network Layers
83. The time in seconds to send a packet of size L bits from A to B in given setup if Bandwidth is R bps,
propagation speed is t meter/sec and distance between any two points is d meters is ____. Ignore
processing and queuing delay.
M
A) 3*(L/R + d/t) B) 3*L/R + 2*d/t
C) L/R + d/t D) 2*(L/R + d/t)
84. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___.
PL
A) 16 Bytes B) 32 Bytes
C) 64 Bytes D) 40 Bytes
85. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intra-domain routing Protocol based on the ____ Routing
Protocol.
E
A) Distance Vector
B) Link State
C) OSPF
D) Border Gateway
TE
86. TCP allows the sending process to deliver data as a ____ of bytes and allows the receiving process to
obtain data as a ____ of bytes.
A) Message; Stream
B) Stream; Message
C) Message; Block
ST
D) Stream; Stream
87. In IEEE 802.11 Standard for Wireless LANs, the access method used in the PCF sub-layer is
A) Pull
B) Polling
C) Push
PA
D) Contention
88. Which term means that a sender must not be able to deny sending a message that he sent?
A) Repudiation
B) Authorization
C) Authentication
PE
D) Nonrepudiation
89. Digital signature cannot provide ___ for the message.
A) Authentication
B) Confidentiality
C) Nonrepudiation
R
D) Integrity
90. ___ provides Privacy, Integrity, and Authentication in an e-mail.
A) SSL
B) PGP
C) IPSec
D) TSL

[9] RP-QP–08
91. Which of the following ensures the isolation of the transaction?
A) Concurrency control subsystem
B) Recovery subsystem
C) Application programmer
D) Redundancy subsystem
92. A shared lock exists when concurrent transactions are granted thefollowing access on the basis of a
SA
common lock
A) READ B) WRITE
C) SHRINK D) UPDATE
93. INSERT command of SQL is a
A) data definition language command
M
B) data manipulation language command
C) data control language command
D) data analytical language command
PL
94. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
A) Cascading roll backs can be avoided by the strict two-phase locking protocol.
B) Two-phase locking protocol ensures conflict serializability.
C) Two-phase locking protocol ensures freedom from deadlock.
D) Cascading roll back may occur under two-phase locking.
E
95. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
A) In a B+ tree, the deleted entry may appear in a nonleaf node.
B) In a B-tree, the deleted entry may appear in a nonleaf node.
TE
C) In a B+ tree, the deleted entry always appears in a leaf node.
D) Extendible hashing is one form of dynamic hashing.
96. The time taken to access a particular track is
A) seek time B) latency time
C) access time D) burst time
ST
97. In the following, which is not priority interrupt method
A) Polling
B) Daisy chaining
C) Parallel priority
D) Direct Memory Access
PA
98. A computer’s memory is composed of 8K words of 32 bits each. How many bits are required for
memory address if the smallest addressable memory unit is a word?
A) 13 B) 8
C) 10 D) 6
99. Any Boolean expression can be implemented using
PE
A) only NOT gates
B) only NAND gates
C) only OR gates
D) only AND gates
R
100. The range of numbers that can be stored in 8 bits, if negative numbers are stored in 2’s complement
form is
A) -128 to +128
B) -127 to +128
C) -128 to +127
D) -127 to +127

[ 10 ] RP-QP–08