1.

Circumvallate placenta

Complications of pregnancy associated with the above type of placenta is

1. Abortion
2. Antepartum hemorrhage
3. Preterm labour
4. All of the above

ANSWER : 4

Circumvallate placenta is a type of placental abnormality wherein the peripheral edge of the placenta is covered
by a circular fold of amnion and chorion and the fetal surface has a central depression
This condition can lead to abortion, IUGR, APH and preterm labour.

2.

Identify the abnormality

1. Circumvallate placenta
2. Vilamentous insertion of cord
3. Battledore placenta
4. Furcate placenta
ANSWER : 3

Marginal insertion of the cord to the placenta is seen in battle dore placenta. This condition is not
associated with any maternal or fetal complications.

3.

Identify the abnormality

1. Circumvallate placenta
2. Vilamentous insertion of cord
3. Battledore placenta
4. Furcate placenta

ANSWER : 4

The normal umbilical cord has 2 arteries and one vein at term and they insert into the placenta as a
single unit. In furcate placenta the blood vessels divide before reaching the placenta

4.

All of the following statements are true about the following condition except
1. Vilamentous insertion of cord
2. Can cause antepartum hemorrhage
3. Blood is of maternal origin
4. Alkali denaturation test is used for diagnosis
ANSWER : 3

Velamentous insertion- the cord inserts into membranes at some distance from the placenta. Fetal
vessels traverse the membrane, hence can rupture and result in vasa previa- fetal hypoxia

Blood is of fetal origin and is diagnosed by singer’s alkali denaturation test.

5.

A primigravida had a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery without complications. The placenta was
removed fully and was intact. She starts to bleed profusely after ½ an hour. Physical examination
reveals a boggy uterus and USG showed placental tissue. The most probable diagnosis is

1. Succenturiate placenta
2. Placenta accreta
3. Membranaceous placenta
4. Fenestrated placenta

ANSWER : 1

Extra lobe of placenta separate from the actual mass of placenta is called succenturiate placenta when there is a
communicating vessel between the main placental mass and the additional lobe and it is called as placenta
spuria when the communicating vessel is absent

6.

All of the following are true about the above procedure except
1. Fetal heart rate is recorded
2. Uterine activity is recorded
3. No need of anesthesia
4. Used only for high risk pregnancies
ANSWER : 4

• Continuous Electronic Monitoring Of fetal Heart and uterine activity in labour is

cardiotocogram. This can be done for all the woman in labour including low risk woman.
• Reactive – 2 Or More Accelerations Of More Than 15 Bpm/Longer Than 15 Seconds In
Duration Are Present In 20 Minutes Observation. Perinatal Death 5/1000.
• Non Reactive- Absence Of Fetal Reactivity. Perinatal Death 40/1000.

7.

Interpret the above picture

1. early deceleration
2. late deceleration
3. variable deceleration
4. Reactive NST

Answer: 4

Non stress test

.
o Reactive NST – 2 or more accelerations of more than 15 bpm/longer than 15 seconds in
duration are present in 20 minutes observation. Perinatal death 5/1000.

8.
The above deceleration is due to

1. Head compression

2. Placental insufficiency

3. Cord compression

4. Hydrops fetalis

Answer: 1

Deceleration patterns in heart-decrease in FHR > 15 beats/ minute

FHR pattern Features Seen in

Early deceleration Coincides with uterine Head compression
contraction.
Uniform onset and recovery
Late deceleration Begins at or after contraction. • Maternal hypotension
Peaks and touches base only • Maternal DM/HTN/
after contraction. collagen vascular
diseases
• Acute late
deceleration is
placental disruption
Variable deceleration Ragged waveform Cord compression

The given deceleration in the picture is an example of early deceleration and is due to head compression

9.

Interpret the above picture

1. early deceleration
2. late deceleration
3. variable deceleration
4. Reactive NST

Answer: 2

Deceleration patterns in heart-decrease in FHR > 15 beats/ minute

FHR pattern Features Seen in
Early deceleration Coincides with uterine Head compression
contraction.
Uniform onset and recovery
Late deceleration Begins at or after contraction. • Maternal hypotension
Peaks and touches base only • Maternal DM/HTN/
after contraction. collagen vascular
diseases
• Acute late
deceleration is
placental disruption
Variable deceleration Ragged waveform Cord compression

10.

The above deceleration is due to

1. Head compression

2. Placental insufficiency

3. Cord compression

4. Hydrops fetalis

Answer: 4

The above abnormality is called as sinusoidal pattern where in variability is constant throughout the
tracing. Sinusoidal pattern is seen in fetal anemias as in hydrops and parvo virus infections.
11.

Identify the abnormality

1. Anencephaly
2. Encephalocele
3. Downs syndrome
4. CTEV

Answer: 1

Anencephaly is the most severe neural tube defect. This condition is incompatible with life characterized
by absent vault, frog like eyes, exposed brain tissue and polyhydramnios.

12. Identify

1. banana sign
2. lemon sign
3. ladin sign
4. key hole sign

Answer: 2

Classic intracranial signs of spina bifida include the lemon and banana sign.
Lemon sign refers to the shape of the skull in transverse plane caused by the scalloping of the frontal bones
when viewed at the level of BPD. and the banana sign refers to the shape of the cerebellum which is drawn
posteriorly and inferiorly obliterating the cistern magna as part of chiari type 11 malformation.

The other intracranial signs are ventriculomegaly and small cerebellum

13.

Tubal ring sign is a feature of

1. ectopic pregnancy

2. Choriocarcinoma

3. Pelvic inflammatory disease

4. Genital tuberculosis

Answer: 1

Colour doppler sonography can identify the placental shape (ring of fire pattern) and enhanced blood
flow pattern outside the uterine cavity in tubal pregnancy.

14.
Most common site for ectopic pregnancy is

1. Isthmus

2. Interstitium

3. Ampulla

4. Infundibulum

Answer: 3

Sites of ectopic pregnancy

Extra uterine
Tubal (m/c)
• Ampulla (55%)
• Isthmus (25%)
• Infundibulum (18%)
• Interstitial (2%)
Ovarian (0.5%)
Abdominal(1%)
• Primary ( rare)
• Secondary
- Intraperitoneal
- extraperitoneal
- Broad ligament

15.
. Identify the procedure

1. Amniocentesis
2. Culdocentesis
3. Chorionic villi sampling
4. Hysterosalpingography

Answer : 2

Culdocentesis is done to aspirate the fluid or blood in the pouch of douglas. Presence of blood in the
POD is suggestive of ruptured ectopic pregnancy or ruptured corpus luteal cyst. Presence of purulent
material may suggest active PID.

16.

False about the above procedure is

1. Can be done vaginally

 2. Miscarriage rates are less

3. Can be done only in the second trimester

4. Can be used to assess lung maturity

Answer: 1

• Amniocentesis is an abdominal procedure done in the second trimester. It can be done between
14-16 weeks

• Early amniocentesis- 12-14 weeks

Indications

• Trophoblast cells studied.

• Sex linked disorders

• Neural tube defects

• Inborn errors

• Karyotyping

• Down syndrome

• Fetal lung maturity

17.

All of the following are complications of the above condition except

1. Hypertension

2. Hyperemesis
 3. Hyperthyroidism

4. Hyperglycemia

` Answer: 4

Suspect hydatiform mole in any women with

o Bleeding in first half of pregnancy
o Passage of vesicles
o Hyperemesis gravidarum
o Onset of preeclampsia prior to 24 weeks
o Absent fetal heart sounds.
o Too large uterus for estimated GA.
o theca lutein cysts in ovary ( 25-60%)
o Thyrotoxicosis ( rare)

18.

Snowstorm appearance is a feature of

1. Ectopic pregnancy

2. Molar pregnancy

3. Serous cystadenoma

4. Dermoid cyst

Answer: 2

Diagnosis of hydatiform mole

o Ultra sound- snow storm appearnce
o Serum beta HCG- are very high. > 40,000
o Chest X ray- to see for lung mets
o CT scan- to r/o brain and liver mets.
19.

Identify the type of pregnancy

1. Dichorionic diamniotic twin

2. Monochorionic diamniotic twin

3. Monochorionic monoamniotic twin

4. Conjoint twin

Answer: 1

Depending on division of fertilized ovum

 < 72 hours of fertilization( 3 days)- diamniotic dichorionic
 4th- 8th day – diamniotic monochorionic
 >8 days- monoamniotic monochorionic
 After development of embryonic disc after 2 weeks- conjoined (Siamese) twins

Lambda or twin peak sign

 USG at 6-9 weeks To diagnose the chorionicity of placenta will show thick septum of 4 layers
between the chorionic sacs in dichorionic diamniotic twins.
 Best seen at the base where there will be a triangular projection known as lambda or twin peak
sign.

20. Identify the type of pregnancy

1. monochorionic monoamniotic twin
2. dichorionic diamniotic twin
3. trichorionic triamniotic triplet
4. monochorionic diamniotic twin

ANSWER : 3

21.

Identify the type of conjoint twin

1. Syncephalus

2. Cephalophagus

3. Craniophagus

4. Thoracophagus

Answer: 2
Types of conjoint twins

Ventral types

Omphalopagus – fusion at umbilicus

Thoracopagus – fusion at chest

Cephalopagus – Single head with 2 trunk

Ischiopagus – fusion at pelvis

Dorsal types

Craniopagus – fusion of skull bones

Rachipagus – fusion of back

Pyopagus – fusion of gluteal region

22.

Identify the abnormality

1. Meningocele
2. Encephalocele
3. Anencephaly
4. Craniophagus

Answer: 4

23.
Identify the type of conjoint twin
1. Thoracopagus
2. Rachipagus
3. Omphalopagus
4. Ischiopagus

ANSWER : 2

24.

In case of the above abnormality the mother is likely to be a

1. Diabetic on insulin

2. Epileptic on phenytoin

3. Hypertensive on enalapril

4. SLE on steroids

Answer: 1

Major birth defects in infants of Diabetes mothers

CNS and skeletal Cardiac Renal GI others
 • Neural tube • VSD/ASD • Renal agenesis • Du atresia Single
defects • Coarctation of • Hydronephros • Anorectal umbilical
• Anencephaly aorta • Ureteral atresia artery
• Microcephaly • TGA duplication
• Sacral agenesis • Cardiomegaly

Most common system involved in diabetes is cardiovascular system and the most common lesion is VSD

Caudal regression syndrome shown in the picture is the least common and the most specific anomaly of
diabetes.

25.

All of the following statements are true about the above picture except

1. Over lapping of skull bones

2. Called as spalding sign

3. Sign of intra uterine death

4. Also seen in neural tube defects

Answer: 4

Intra uterine death

 Death of fetus in utero after the period of viability ( after 28 weeks in developing countries and
20 weeks in developed countries)

Clinical features
 Size of uterus decreased
 Liquor decreased
 FHS absent
 Fetal movements absent
 Egg shell crackling feel of fetal head( late feature)
  Earliest diagnosis is possible by USG.
USG – features
 Absent fetal cardiac activity
 Decreased liquor amnii
 Spalding’s sign ( overlapping of skull bones) due to shrinkage of cerebrum after fetal death.
X ray features
 Robert’s sign- presence of gas in fetal large vessels( earliest sign- within 12 hours of death)
 Ball sign- hyper flexion of spine
 Spalding’s sign

26.

The type of placenta previa shown in the picture is

1. Type 1

2. Type 2

3. Type 3

4. Type 4

Answer: 4

Degrees of placenta previa: ( Browne’s classification)

Type 1- (Low lying). Major part of placenta is attached to upper segment and only the lower margin
encloses onto lower segment. But not upto os.
Type 2- (Marginal)-placenta reaches to the margin but not covers the os.
Type 3- (Incomplete or partial central)- covers the internal Os when closed, but not so when fully
dilated.
Type 4- (Central or total)- Placenta completely covers the internal os even on full dilatation.

Grading of Placenta previa

Mild- type 1 and type 2 anterior
Major- type 2 posterior and type 3 and type 4

27.

The above condition is a complication of

1. Placenta accreta

2. Abruptio placenta

3. Vasa previa

4. Uterine artery embolisation

Answer: 2

Couvelaire uterus:
( Utero placental Apoplexy)
 Massive extravasation of blood into uterine musculature.
 A complication of abruption placenta
 Can be diagnosed only by laparotomy.
 The myometrial hematoma does not interfere with uterine contraction and hence it is not an
indication for hysterectomy while doing LSCS

28.
The ideal management for the fetus lying in Zone 3 of lileys curve is

1. Doppler of middle cerebral artery

2. Repeat amniocentesis 2 weekly

3. Intra uterine transfusion

4. Immediate delivery

Answer: 3

Liley’s chart
Zone Management

Zone 1 ( fetus mild affected) Repeat amniocentesis at 2-4 weeks

Or Deliver at 38-40 weeks
Zone 2 ( fetus is moderately affected) Repeat amniocentesis 1-2 weeks
Or deliver at 38 weeks
Zone 3 (fetus is severely affected) Cordocentesis Intrauterine transfusion if hematocrit
<30%
deliver at 34 weeks

29.
The most non immune cause of the above condition is

1. Cardiovascular abnormalities

2. Thalessemia

3. Infections

4. Downs syndrome

Answer: 1

The above picture shows hydrops fetalis. It can be immune or non immune in origin. Most common
cause of immune hydrops is eryhtroblastosis fetalis due to Rh compatability. Most common cause of
immune hydrops is cardiovascular abnormalities.

30.

What is the diagnosis?

1. Twin pregnancy
2. Hydrops fetalis
3. Anencephaly
4. Caudal regression syndrome

Answer: 2
Hydrops fetalis can be immune and non immune type. Condition is characterized by severe fetal anemia,
congestive cardiac failure, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, ascites and edema of the scalp ( Budha
position ).

31.

Identify the instrument

1. sims speculum
2. cuscos speculum
3. allis forceps
4. valsellum

Answer: 2

32. Identify

1. Menstrual regulation syringe

2. Manual vacuum aspiration syringe
3. karmans cannula
4. kelly’s syringe

Answer: 3

33. Identify
1. Menstrual regulation syringe
2. Manual vacuum aspiration syringe
3. karmans cannula
4. kelly’s syringe

Answer: 1

34.
Identify

1. Menstrual regulation syringe

2. Manual vacuum aspiration syringe
3. karmans cannula
4.kellys syringe

ANSWER : 2

35. Identify the instrument

1. ovum forceps
2. sponge holding forceps
3. allis forceps
4. valsellum

ANSWER : 4

36.

Identify the instrument

1. Ovum forceps
2. Sponge holding forceps
3. Allis forceps
4. Uterine sound

Answer: 1

Ovum forceps is used to remove retained products of conception in case of incomplete abortion.

37. Identify the instrument

1. Cusco’s speculum
2. Hawkin’s dilator
3. Hegars dilator
4. Fenton dilator
Answer: 3

38.

Identify the instrument

1. Ovum forceps
2. Sponge holding forceps
3. All is forceps
4. Uterine sound

Answer: 4

Uterine sound is an instrument used to measure the length of the uterine cavity

39.

Identify the instrument

 1. Ovum forceps
2. Sponge holding forceps
3. Uterine curette
4. Uterine sound

Answer: 3

Uterine curette is used for

1. Incomplete abortion

2. Diagnostic fractional curettage

3. Therapeutic curettage in dysfunctional uterine bleeding

40. Identify the procedure?

1. Encirclage procedure
2. Colposuspension
3. Fothergills stitch
4. Amniocentesis

ANSWER : 1

The procedure shown in the above picture is Mc Donald type of encerclage. It is a type of purse string suture used
in cervical incompetence

41.
Identify the procedure done
1. Uterine artery ligation
2. B Lynch suture
3. Internal iliac artery ligation
4. Ovarian artery ligation

ANSWER : 2

42.

In Friedman’s curve phase of maximum slope includes

1. 0-3cm

2. 3-5cm

3. 5-8 cm

4. 4-9 cm

Answer: 4

Friedman curve
The pattern of cervical dilatation during latent phase and active phase of normal labour is sigmoid curve.
Active phase is divided into
1. Acceleration phase- 3-4 cm dilatation
2. Phase of maximum slope- 4-9 cm dilatation
 3. Deceleration phase- 9-10 cm
Latent phase is mainly concerned with cervical effacement and active phase with cervical dilatation

43.

Not a component of partogram

1. Maternal pulse rate

2. Fetal heart rate
3. Cervical dilation
4. AFI

ANSWER : 4

Components of partogram
Fetal heart rate
Colour of the liquor
Moulding
Cervical dilatation
Descent of the fetal head
Contractions
Oxytocin infusion
Maternal pulse,BP,temperature,
Maternal urine volume,acetone and protein

44.
Identify the slide

1. Anterior asynclitism
2. Posterior asynclitism
3. Medial asynclitism
4. Lateral asynclitism

Answer: 1

Deflection of head in relation to pelvis: Asynclitism.

o Posterior asynclitism (Litzman’s obliquity)/posterior presentation: when the sagittal
suture lies anteriorly, the posterior parietal bone becomes the leading part. (primigravida)
o Anterior asynclitism (Naegele’s obliquity)/anterior parietal presentation: when the
sagittal suture lies posteriorly, the anterior parietal bone becomes the leading part.
(Multigravida)
o Severe degrees of asynclitism indicate CPD)

45.
.

True about frank breech is

1. Thighs flexed, knee extended

2. Thighs extended, Knee extended

3. Thighs and knees extended

4. Thighs and knees flexed

Answer: 1`

46. Identify the type of breech

1. Complete breech
2. Frank breech
3. Footling presentation
4. Knee breech
Answer: 2

Types of breech
Complete breech Incomplete breech
The normal attitude of full flexion is maintained Types :
Frank- thighs flexed on trunk but legs are extended at
knee.
Footling – both thighs and legs are partially extended
bringing the legs to pelvic brim
Knee- thighs extended bringing knees down to pelvic
brim.

47.

All of the following statements are true about the above procedure except

1. External version is always cephalic

2. Can be done without anesthesia

3. Abruptio placenta is a complication

4. Should not be repeated after failure of a single attempt

Answer: 4

External cephalic version:

 Done after completed 35 weeks
 Ideal time 36 weeks
 Can be done without anesthesia
 Can be repeated once if single attempt fails
Contraindications for ECV
 APH
 Pre eclampsia
 Multiple pregnancy
 Obesity
 BOH
 Elderly primi gravida
 Ruptured membranes
 Oligohydramnios
 CPD
 Congenital anomalies of uterus
 Significant fetal anomalies/ dead fetus
 IUGR

48.

The following is false about the above procedure

1. Transverse lie of the second twin is the only indication

2. Can be done without anesthesia

3. Membranes should be ruptured prior to the procedure

4. Rupture uterus is a complication

Answer: b

INTERNAL PODALIC VERSION

 After anaesthetizing the patient by introducing the hand in uterine cavity and fetus is turned
manually.
 High incidence of uterine rupture associated with it.
 In modern world the only indication is IPV for 2nd twin
49.

Identify the technique

1. Marshall burns
2. Mariceu smellie viet
3. Pinards
4. Lovsets

ANSWER : 1

Marshall burns technique is used to deliver after coming head in breech presentation. Obstetrician catches hold
of the fetal legs and throws it over the mothers abdomen to promote flexion of the head.

50. Identify the maneuver

1. Marshall burn’s
2. Mauriceau smellie veit technique
3. Leopold maneuvre
4. Ritgen maneuver

ANSWER : 4

Ritgen maneuver is used to deliver the head in normal vaginal delivery. This maneuver can prevent perineal
injuries and complete perineal tear in the mother.
51. Identify the maneuver

1. Marshall burn’s
2. Mauriceau smellie veit technique
3. Leopold maneuvre
4. Ritgen maneuver

ANSWER : 2

Mauriceau smellie veit technique is used to deliver the head in breech presentation. It promotes flexion of the
fetal head by giving pressure in the malar eminence.

52.

Identify the instrument

1. Keillands forceps
2. Pipers forceps
3. Das forceps
4. Wrigleys forceps
ANSWER : 2

Pipers forceps is a forceps with long shanks used to deliver the after coming head in breech.

53.

Identify the maneuver

1. Marshall burn’s
2. Mauriceau smellie veit technique
3. Pinards maneuver
4. Ritgen maneuver

ANSWER : 3

Pinards maneuver is used to deliver the legs in extended breech. It is used to promote flexion at the
level of knees by giving pressure in the popliteal fossa.

54.
Identify the maneuver
1. Pinards maneuver
2. Mauriceau smellie veit technique
3. Lovsets maneuver
4. Ritgen maneuver

ANSWER : 3

Lovsets manouvre is used to deliver extended arms in breech presentation. Lovsets is similar to wood cork
screw maneuver wherein the shoulder is rotated to 180 degree to make the posterior shoulder anterior
and vice versa.

55.
Identify the maneuver
1. Mc Roberts maneuver
2. Mauriceau smellie veit technique
3. Leopold maneuvre
4. Ritgen maneuver

ANSWER : 1

Management of shoulder dystocia

 Discourage maternal push..
 Apply liberal episiotomy
 No fundal pressure as it may result in uterine rupture.
 Moderate supra pubic pressure can be applied. This reduces the bis acromial diameter and
rotates the shoulder into oblique pelvic diameter.
 Manoeuveres – Robert’s, woods, rubins, zavanelli..
Mc Robert’s manoeuver
 Flexion and abduction of maternal thighs on her abdomen.
 It straightens the lumbo sacral angle, rotates the maternal pelvis cephalad and is associated with
an increased uterine pressure and amplitude of contractions.
 Causes injury to lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

Wood’s manoeuver
 If the above measures fails
 Progressively rotate the posterior shoulder to 180 so that the impacted anterior shoulder is
released.
Rubins- reverse Woods

56.
Identify the maneuver
1. Marshall burn’s
2. Wood cork screw maneuver
3. Leopold maneuver
4. Ritgen maneuver

ANSWER : 2

57.
Identify the procedure

1. Munroker muller method

2. Ian Donald method

3. Williams method

4. Reeds method

Answer: 1

Munroker muller method is a bimanual method of assessing cephalo pelvic disproportion.

58.

Identify the procedure

1. Munroker muller method

 2. Ian Donald method

3. Williams method

4. Reeds method

Answer: 2

Ian Donald method is an abdominal method of assessing CPD wherein patient is put in supine position
and left hand of the examiner is used to hold the head and index and middle finger of the right hand is
kept over the pubic symphysis. Head is pushed into the pelvis and the degree of overlapping is assessed.

59.

Identify the procedure

1. Amniocentesis
2. Hegar’s sign elicitation
3. Bimanual compression
4. Ritgen maneuver

Answer: 3

Bimanual compression is the first step in managing atonic PPH.

60.
Identify the procedure

1. Amniocentesis
2. Hegar’s sign elicitation
3. Bimanual compression
4. Ritgen maneuver

Answer: 2

Hegar’s sign
 Because of softening of the isthmus in pregnancy on bimanual palpation fingers can be
opposed.
 Seen at 6- 10 weeks of gestation.

61.

Identify the instrument

1. Keillands forceps
2. Pipers forceps
3. Das forceps
4. Wrigleys forceps

ANSWER : 1
Keillands forceps is a rotational forceps used to rotate the fetal head in DTA and to correct asynclitism.

62.

Identify the instrument

1. Keillands forceps
2. Pipers forceps
3. Das forceps
4. Wrigleys forceps

ANSWER : 4

Wrigleys forceps is the other name for outlet forceps.

63.

The above types of pelvis are classified based on

1. sher classification

2. Statland classification

3. Caldwell & moloy classification

4. Page classification
 Answer: c

CALDWELL MOLOY CLASSIFICATION

 Gynaecoid (50%)
 Anthropoid (25%)
 Android (20%)
 Platypelloid (5%)

Features Gynaecoid Anthrapoid Android Platypelloid

Inlet Round AP - oval Triangular Transversely oval
Sacro- sciatic Wide and More wide and Narrow and deep Slightly narrow
notch shallow shallow and small
Ischial spines Not prominent Not prominent Prominent Not prominent
Pubic arch Curved Long and curved Long and straight Short and curved
Sub pubic angle Wide (85˚) Slightly narrow Narrow Very wide (more
than 90˚)
Bi-tuberous Normal Normal or short Short wide
diameter

64. 2 in the given picture measures

1. 10.5 cm

2. 11.5 cm

3. 9.5 cm

4. 12.5 cm
 Answer: 1

Anterior posterior diameters of inlet:

 Obstetric Conjugate- distance between midpoint of sacral promontry to pubic symphysis

prominence on the inner surface.
Shortest diameter- AP: 10 cm
 Diagonal Conjugate- distance between lower border of pubic symphysis to midpoint of sacral
promontry.
Diameter – 12 cm, can be measured clinically
 True conjugate – distance between the mid point of sacral promontry and to the inner margin
of the upper border of pubic symphysis.
Also called as anatomical conjugate- 11 cm.

65.

The above conjugate measures

1. 9 cm
2. 10 cm
3. 11 cm
4. 12 cm

ANSWER : 4

Diagonal conjugate is the only clinically measurable AP conjugate of inlet and it measures 12 cm

66.
 point 4 in the picture measures

1. 12 cm
2. 13 cm
3. 14 cm
4. 15 cm

Answer: 3

Diameter From To Measure Attitude of the head Present

ment -ation
Sub Nape of the neck Centre of the 9.5 cm Complete flexion Vertex
occipito-bregmatic bregma
Sub Nape of the neck Anterior end of 10cm Incomplete flexion Vertex
occipito-frontal the anterior
fontanelle or
centre of the
sinciput
Occipito-frontal Occipital Root of the nose 11.5cm Marked deflexion Vertex
eminence (Glabella )

Mento-vertical Midpoint of the Highest point on 14cm Partial extension Brow

chin the sagittal
suture

Submento-vertical Junction of the Highest point on 11.5cm Incomplete extension Face

floor of the the sagittal
mouth and neck suture

Submento- Junction of the Centre of the 9.5cm Complete extension Face

bregmatic floor of the bregma
mouth and neck
67.

Attitude of the head in picture B is

1. Complete flexion

2. Incomplete flexion

3. Partial extension

4. Incomplete extension

Answer: 2

68.

Which of the following is the presenting diameter for the following presentation?

1. Suboccipito bregmatic
2. Submento bregmatic
3. Mento vertical
4. Occipito frontal

Answer: 2
69.

. What does the fetal umbilical artery Doppler show?

1. Normal systolic and normal diastolic flow

2. Normal systolic, reduced diastolic flow
3. Normal systolic, absent diastolic flow
4. Normal systolic, reversed diastolic flow

Answer: 4

70.

Identify the maneuver

1. Marshall burn’s
2. Mauriceau smellie veit technique
3. Leopold maneuvre
4. Ritgen maneuver

ANSWER : 3