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AM Mock Test 4 Key

The document provides a 50 question multiple choice mock test for aviation meteorology. It includes questions about cloud types, icing conditions, stability, pressure systems, fog formation, and other meteorological topics. The instructions state to not write on the paper, answer all parts of multi-part questions, read questions carefully, and note any insufficient or incorrect questions.

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సాయి కశ్యప్
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168 views

AM Mock Test 4 Key

The document provides a 50 question multiple choice mock test for aviation meteorology. It includes questions about cloud types, icing conditions, stability, pressure systems, fog formation, and other meteorological topics. The instructions state to not write on the paper, answer all parts of multi-part questions, read questions carefully, and note any insufficient or incorrect questions.

Uploaded by

సాయి కశ్యప్
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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GSTO AVIACONS

Mock Test 4 Duration 02:00

Read the Instructions carefully


1. Do not write or mark on the question paper.
2. Some questions contain multiple answers and all the answers should be written.
3. Read questions carefully and answer to the question
4. Data insufficient and wrong questions should be mentioned in the answer sheet.

1. When would a rotor cloud be ahead of a Cb?


a. Mature stage
b. Cumulus stage
c. Dissipating stage
d. Initial stage
2. What are the conditions under which advection fog will be formed?
a. Warm moist air over cold surface
b. Cold dry air over warm surface
c. Warm dry air over cold surface
d. Cold moist air over warm surface
3. What cloud does hail fall from?
a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Cu
d. Ci
4. What is Relative Humidity dependent upon?
a. Moisture content and temperature of the air
b. Temperature of the air
c. Temperature and pressure
d. Moisture content of the air

5. If the ELR is 0.65°C/100m


a. Atmosphere is conditionally stable
b. Atmosphere is stable
c. Atmosphere is unstable
d. Atmosphere is stable when dry

6. Where are you most likely to find moderate to severe icing?


a. In upper levels of Cumulonimbus Capillatus
b. Nimbostratus
c. Stratus
d. Cirrus
7. Height of the tropopause at 50°N
a. 11 km
b. 16 km
c. 5 km
d. 20 km

8. A characteristic of a stable air mass


a. Lapse rate of 1°C/100m
b. Rising air slows down and dissipates
c. Lapse rate of 0.3°C/100m
d. Good visibility and showers

9. ELR is 1°C/100m
a. Neutral when dry
b. Absolute stability
c. Absolute instability
d. Conditional stability

10. Flying conditions in Ci cloud and horizontal visibility


a. Less than 500m vis, light/mod clear icing
b. Greater than 1000m vis, light/mod rime ice
c. Less then 500m vis, no icing
d. Greater than 1000m vis, no icing

11. Description of radiation fog


a. Marked increase in ground wind speed
b. Marked increase in wind speed close to the ground
c. Ground cooling due to radiation
d. Warm air over warm surface

12. What is the composition of Ci cloud?


a. Super cooled water droplets
b. Ice crystals
c. Water droplets
d. Smoke particles

13. What cloud types are classified as medium cloud?


a. Ns + Sc
b. Ac + As
c. Cb + St
d. Ci + Cs

14. Fair weather cumulus gives an indication of


a. Poor visibility
b. Thunderstorms
c. Turbulence
d. Smooth flying below

15. What cloud type are you least likely to get icing from?
a. Ci
b. Cu
c. St
d. Ns
16. A steep pressure gradient is characterised by
a. Isobars close together, strengthened wind
b. Isobars far apart, decreased wind
c. Isobars close together, temperature increasing
d. Isobars far apart, temperature decreasing

17. If you fly with left drift in the Northern Hemisphere, what is happening to your true
altitude?
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Stays the same
d. Cannot tell

18. Sublimation is
a. Solid to vapour
b. Vapour to liquid
c. Liquid to vapour
d. Liquid to solid

19. What is the coldest time of the day?


a. 1hr before sunrise
b. 30 min before sunrise
c. at exact moment of sunrise
d. 30 min after sunrise

20. Which of the following would lead to the formation of Advection fog
a. warm moist air over cold surface, clear night and light winds
b. cold dry air over warm surface, clear night and light winds
c. cold moist air over warm surface, cloud night with strong winds
d. warm dry air over cold surface, cloudy night with moderate winds

21. Which of the following would lead to the formation of Steaming fog
a. cold air over warm sea
b. warm air over cold sea
c. cold sea near coast
d. warm air over land

22. When is diurnal variation a maximum?


a. Clear sky, still wind
b. Clear sky, strong wind
c. OVC, still
d. OVC, windy

23. ATC will only report wind as gusting if:


a. Gust speeds exceeds mean by >15kts
b. Gusts to over 25kts
c. Gusts exceed mean by 10kts
d. Gusts to over 25kts
24. In temperate latitudes in summer what conditions would you expect in the centre of a
high pressure system?
a. TS, CB
b. calm winds, haze
c. TS, SH
d. NS

25. Above a stable layer in the lower troposphere in an old high pressure system is called:
a. radiation inversion
b. subsidence inversion
c. frontal inversion
d. terrestrial inversion

26. If the pressure level surface bulges upwards, the pressure system is a:
a. cold, low
b. warm, low
c. cold, high
d. warm, high

27. What is a land breeze?


a. From land over water at night
b. From land over sea by day
c. From sea over land by night
d. From sea over land by day

28. Why does air cool as it rises?


a. It expands
b. It contracts
c. The air is colder at higher latitudes
d. The air is colder at higher altitudes

29. Dew point is defined as:


a. The lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure
b. The lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative
humidity
c. The temperature below which the change of state for a given volume of air will
result in absorption of latent heat
d. The temperature to which moist air must be cooled to reach saturation

30. FL180, Northern Hemisphere with a wind from the left, what can you say about
temperature with a heading of 360°?
a. Not possible to tell without a pressure
b. Increases from South to North
c. Increases from North to South
d. Nothing

31. From which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?

a. surface pressure
b. surface temperature
c. DALR
d. ELR

32. How do you define convection?

a. Horizontal movement of air


b. Vertical movement of air
c. Same as advection
d. Same as conduction

33. When heading South in the Southern Hemisphere you experience Starboard drift:
a. You are flying towards a lower temperature
b. You are flying away from a lower temperature
c. You are flying towards a low pressure
d. You are flying out of a high

34. When the latest time radiation fog is is most likely?


a. Just after dawn
b. Late afternoon
c. Midday
d. Midnight

35. How does the level of the tropopause vary with latitude in the Northern Hemisphere?
a. Decreases North - South
b. Decreases South - North
c. Constant
d. It varies with longitude not latitude

36. What is the tropopause?


a. The layer between the troposphere and stratosphere
b. The boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere
c. Where temperature increases with height
d. Upper boundary to C.A.T.

37. Where do you find the majority of the air within atmosphere?
a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Tropopause
d. Mesosphere

38. What are Lenticularis clouds a possible indication of?


a. Mountain waves
b. Instability
c. Developing Cu and Cb
d. Horizontal wind shear in the upper atmosphere

39. What are the factors affecting the Geostrophic wind?


a. PGF, θ, Ω, ρ
b. θ, Ω, ρ
c. Ω, ρ
d. d.ρ

40. What is the Bora?


a. Cold katabatic wind over the Adriatic
b. Northerly wind blowing from the Mediterranean
c. Warm anabatic wind blowing to the Mediterranean
d. An anabatic wind in the Rockies

41. Where is the 300mb level approx. in ISA?


a. 30,000ft
b. 39,000ft
c. 18,000ft
d. 10,000ft

42. In what cloud is icing and turbulence most severe?


a. Cb
b. Ns
c. Sc
d. Ci

43. What will snow most likely fall from?


a. Ns
b. Ci
c. Cs
d. Ac

44. Rime ice is caused by:


a. Large Super cooled water droplets
b. Small Super cooled water droplets
c. Slow freezing of water droplets onto the wing
d. Rapid re-freezing of large water droplets

45. What is the most severe form of icing?


a. Dry Ice
b. Hoar frost
c. Clear ice
d. Rime ice

46. What causes the Geostrophic wind to be stronger than the gradient wind around a
low?
a. Centrifugal force adds to the gradient force
b. Centrifugal force opposes the gradient force
c. Coriolis force adds to the gradient force
d. Coriolis force opposes the centrifugal force

47. When the upper part of a layer of warm air is advected:


a. Stability increases within the layer
b. Stability decreases within the layer
c. Wind speed will always decrease with increase in height in the Northern
Hemisphere.
d. Wind will back with increase in height in the Northern Hemisphere.

48. Which of these would cause your true altitude to decrease with a constant indicated
altitude?

a. Cold/Low
b. Hot/Low
c. Cold/High
d. Hot/High

49. The QNH at an airfield 200m AMSL is 1009 hPa; air temperature is 10°C lower than
standard. What is the QFF?
a. Not possible to give a definite answer
b. Less than 1009
c. 1009
d. More than 1009

50. When would you encounter hoar frost?


a. Climbing through an inversion
b. Ns
c. Cb
d. Ac

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