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Question Paper For Lab Assistant-Exam 2016 Code-23 PDF

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100% found this document useful (5 votes)
28K views46 pages

Question Paper For Lab Assistant-Exam 2016 Code-23 PDF

Uploaded by

kishan
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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r

!,--_AL_-2_0_16_l
J1"~~RaCfjI / QUESTION BOOKLET
W'll ~ /
• /CODE:23 SR.No.

111145
~ij~~~/
Number of Pages in Booklet: 48

~ it !f~;ft~ ~ /
Number of Questions in Booklet: 150

~ / Time: 3.00 ~ / Hours ~ / Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS ~~T
I. At the start of the examination before attempting the question l. m"-q?[ ~ m n wf '1"fuIT qw~ ffi\ m lT~.,-q?[~ ~ m.
paper kindly check your test booklet and OMR Answer Sheet Q;li.01R. ~ 'lit 'lR'fr-'l11fc! ~ 'f){ ~ ~ ~ R; :-
and ensure that:- ~ lTH-q?[ ~ ~m.Q;li01R. ~ if, ~ r;9i WlR ~ I
~ The serial numbers of test booklet and OMR answer sheet are ~ j;[~"-q?[ ~ ~ m.Q;li.01R. ~.31J1:f5ICl1 if, "fl'4t T"" @
same. ~ ~ ~~ % M '4t l!'fi!\ 'lit m ~ ~ ~I lT~.,-q?[
~ All pages of test booklet & OMR answer sheet are properly ~if,"fl'4tT'5~~1 -o

printed and test booklet is not damaged in any manner. No page M '4t II'liR 'lit ~ rn l:jj ~ iF '1\ lT~"'l-q?[~ l:(Ci
of test booklet is missing. m.Q;li.31R. ~ '!iT ~ ~ 0~ n llM 'f){ z'fl wm
In ease of any discrepancy/defect the candidate should immediately lTW'l1 iF if, 5 fl:Rc ;Ji 'P'illQ iffir ft~.W,r if ~ fcj-c.rIT ~ fiDn
report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of test booklet & ~ I ~ BlfA DiUjGIII 31Vc:rm 'lit ;?rTI 1
OMR answer sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after 2. n..n >p-;j'f if, ~ ~ 1
five minutes of start of examination. Candidate will be liable for it. 3. n..n f,j~-;j'f if,:W1o B'1R % 1

2. Answer all questions.


3. All questions carry equal marks.
4. m lT~"'l'!iT m r;9i m ~ c!lliil( 1
5. r;9i n:m1rcf; ~ ~ otr G~n if f,j~"'l cj; ~ of,[ 'RC[ 11RT JfWn I
4. Only one answer is to be given for each question.
6. ~ lTH if, 'Cll\ ~ ~ W't 'lil %, ~ if,l1~T 1,2,3,4
S. If more than one answers are marked, it would be treated as 3#m fiDn 'T'1T% 1 31"'lm of,[ "Btt 3'iR ~. m ~ '3"'lil n
wrong answer. m ~ >Tri't 31"f'lT ~ of,[ ~ -'-R'li '1\ ;fu'toj'ffi ~ q;,
6. Each question has four alternative responses marked serially as it ~ ~ ~l
1,2,3,4. You have to darken only one circle or bubble indicating
7. m 'TITl ~ '!iT f,js., 3:fqo'!iT 113 1irT 'ET"T ~ 1'RC[ '3Tfl:
the correct answer On the Answer Sheet using BLUE BALL
POINT PEN.
n C!T0Pl 01~F" ~ l:jj 00 f,jH if, Q,i'f, B 01filq-; '3TlT B~1 00
'l1'\ f,js., n $rrft >Tri't l:jj ~ of,[ ~ ~ 'RC[ '3TlT 'TIft '1RT
7. ]/3 part of the mark(s) of each question will be deducted for ;;nirn I
each wrong answer, (A wrong answer means an incorrect answer
8. ~ qiR/~q ~31"f'lT ~ <R '!iT wm lffi'f if
or more than one answers for any question. Leaving all the
m gufcr:rr ~ ~ 1 '1ft M 01"'lm if, '1TG W~ ~
relevant circles or bubbles of any question blank will not be
considered as wrong answer.)
ff111lfr ~ ~ ill m fc1!"'G clli dPJ ~ onm ~
otr ~I v

8. Mobile PhonefBluetooth Devices or any other electronics gadget


in the examination hall is strictly dealt as per rules.
9. ~3:r:RT m ~3n. Q;li31T': '-R'li '1\ mqqAj wf'lJ mft
'>IT 1 ~ l:jj.~ m~ m 'IT 53:fqo 'fjR ~ if n
'f"1' n W 'ill0t I
9. Please correctly fill your Roll Number in O.M.R. Sheet 5 Marks
.~
will be deducted for filling wrong or incomplete Roll Number.
10.l:lR M T;[H if; ~ QCj.3TItm ~ if M llW 9it
10. If there is any sort of ambiguity/mistake either of printing or
factual nature in Hindi and English Version of the question, the
em. Ff 'TT (1~ llW 9it ~ m 'ill T;[H 'liT ~
~ 11RT tWIT I
English Version will be treated as standard.
~ : '3i'R em.3i'Rl1TI ~ ~ I:filJST ~ ~ 'TT ~
Warning: If a candidate is found copying or if any unauthorized
material is found in hislher possession. ELK would be lodged against
tfTl.1 item. ~~~'JfT\'!t~, ~ ·3f~if;~

himlher in the Police Station and he/she would liable to be prosecuted


qfi:rn if m~ c;;;f ~ ~ JfR ~ ~ ~ <i\T
~ ~, 1992 9it tffiT ~ QCj oiTi ~~R if; ~
under Section 3 of the State Prevention of Unfair means Act,
1992 and Board Regulations. Board may also debar him/her ~ 9it "lfcMt 1 mq m oiTi itB·3f"'l1TI '!it ~ if m
permanently from all future examination of the Board. cnW oiTi 9it wwr it ~ wm:m Cj){ Wfi(lT ~ I

~ Wm ~ qi't a<! If9i l' m ;;rq If9i %T l' "fill: I / Do not open this test booklet until you are asked to do

23-~ 1

I
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AL

1) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disorder of man. If the frequency of affected newbom


infants is about 1 in 14,000 assuming random matting, what is the frequency of heterozygotes ?

1) 0.017 2) 0.009 3) 0.018 4) 0.001

1) 0.017 2) 0.009 3) 0.018 4) 0.001

2) Match the terms (type of inflorescence) in column I with their example (plant name) in column II
andchoose the correct option :-
Column I Column II
(a) Cyathium (i) Candy tuft
(b) Verticillaster (ii) Ficus species
(c) Hypanthodium (iii) Salvia
(d) Corymb (iv) Euphorbia
CODE:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)


2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

~I ~II
(a)~~ (i) &5lklfC
(b)~ (ii)~~
<J.
(c)~~ (iii) fllf0;j;qI 0

(d) wn$rer (iv) ~il\1f;q1


c8s :
(a) (b) (c) (d)

1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)


2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

23-.6. 3
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3) Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:

1) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
4) If both the assertion and reason are false

Assertion: Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol
Reason : Lead in the petrol activates the catalyst

3) FP'''1Mf@d ~~~ if ~~ (Assertion) ~ CfCI'\lClf ~ q~"'Cffi1 Cf)RUT (Reason) CflT ~ % I >W'1" cn1 'alA
B~ 3ffi -;fffl Rir ~ ~ it -B ~ ~
1) m~ 3ffi Cffi1JT ~ 00 % .3fu:Cf,RUf ~~ q)f 00 «lceICfl{OI ~ % I
2) m~ 3ffi Cf,RUf ~ 00 % ~ Cf,RUf ~~ q)f 00 (qtZICh~OI~ ~ % I
3) m~ BtT %~ Cf,RUf 1Wf(l % I
4) ~~.3fu: Cffi1JT ~ 1Wf(l % I

m~ :~ qf{qrfCh ~ ~ cmAT it mm ~fgd ~ q)f ~ ~ ~ I


Cffi1JT : mm ~ ~ j61{Cf1 ciT ~ ~ % I

4) The most common HIV SUbtype in India is :

1) C 2) E 3) H 4) D

4) 'l1ffil B~ HIV jQ5F·W. (?JCl" ~) ~trCfI cnm 'JWf[ % :-


1) C 2) E 3) H 4) D

5) Highly repetitive DNA is seen in :-


(a) Telomere
(b) Microsatellite DNA
(c) Centromere
(d) Cloning of DNA

1) (a), (b),(e), Cd) 2) (a), (b) 3) (c), (d) 4) (a), (b), (c)

4
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AL
5) ~ g;'"HlqTd m 1:f'1 ~ ~ ~ \JlTill % :-
(a) €l~~IJ4I£j{(~)
(b) ~~~ m 1:f'1 ~
(c) B~~"I£j{ (~~)
(d) if ~ ~ qIT cwi'rRrr
1) (a), (b),(c), (d) 2) (a), (b) 3) (e), (d) 4) (a), (b), (c)

6) Urea cycle and Kreb's cycle are linked at :-

1) . Oxaloacetate 2) Fumarate 3) Arginine 4) Omithine


6) ~ ~ ~ ~ cnr ~ ~ ~ %:-
1) ·31Tcro~IQBI~c 2) ~ 4) 31TRf$f
7) A vector (cloning vector) is a carrier DNA molecule to which the human DNA fragment is attached
in DNA transfer the vectors used from smallest to largest is :-
1) Bacteriophage, Plasmids, BAC (Bacterial Artificial Chromosome), Cosrnids
2) Cosmids, P1asmids, Bacteriophage, BAC (Bacterial Artificial Chromosome)
3) Plasmids, Bacteriophage, Cosmids, BAC (Bacterial Artificial Chromosome)
4) BAC (Bacterial Artificial Chromosome), Cosmids, Plasmids, Bacteriophage

7) ~ ~ (#iIH11 ~), 1J;CI?CfWf) efT~ ~31DI ~~, ~ BT2-T l1RCr it ~ ~ cnr SGtJ$1 ~.qlfJ1d
~ \JlTill % I it ~ ~ ~~I'"ll'"fHOI ~ ~ ~ ~ 'l~~ B crQ~ ..~ eFT .3ffi % :-
1) ~~, ~I~~fl, en 1:1; m (filc.nftlqCfj ¥-5r1 ~). q)TfJ+j~fl
2) Chlfi:y~J:j, ~;:IIR"Y~(i, ~rm, en ~ m (v1lqlrJqCfj cpf~Lj ~)
3) ~lfi:y~11, ~~, GtJm'J:j~B en ~ m (JIC1lr1q1'J ~ ~)
4) G/T 1:1; m (sl'iqlrJCj1'J ~ ~), 1'J1T41~fl. lfrIlR"y~G. ~

8) Choose the elements name which have negative effect on flowering if their concentration in plants
is low:
1) Sulphur 2) Molybdenum 3) Nitrogen 4) All of the above
8) 3IJ ~ cnr ~ ~ 0TI ~ fuJqr tR iilJllrli1'J w:n-q fu<m-rfT%, ~ ~ if j~1chl BRill ~ ~ :

1) ~ 3) '""lls~IJF"I

9) If a four nucleotide sequence code for an amino acid instead of three theoretically how many
unique amino acids could be coded by such a system:-

1) 256 2) 128 3) 16 4) 1024


9) ~ 1J;CI?fcrf~T"C .~ ~ ~ m ill1 '"1fChcl<:jicl$~1~ ;f)l1 in P-n;=[ tR W '"''ifCWidlcl$il CN:wr ~
~ ill {~~iR1Cf)~ Bj{lB fc8R ~T"C .~ .31'Vf GfiW%iiiflT

1) 256 2) 128 3) 16 4) 1024

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10) Human braili:iij;,~re intelligent than monkeys brain due to :-

1) More blood supply

2) Larger brain
3) Increased brain area compared to body surface area

4) Increased convulsion

10) 1=fACT ~ g<1 '11 <:YCh ffi B JTI'CTcflC!R; liI 'i % ~ c€T "Wf'iT if ~ CflPlJT :-

1) JTI~ (Gfil c€T ~


2) ~ ChT ~ Cf9T ~
3) ~rtR~ ~ c€T ITM'i1 it ~ ~ ~ ~
4) ·:mtTcfl ~

11) Chemical formula of heroin (smack) is :-

12) Pick out the correct statements:-

(a) Cuticle is absent in roots


(b) The stomata are more on lower surface of dorsi ventral leaf

(c) Number of x'y1~JII_bundles vary from 2 to 6 in dicoty lcdonous root


(d) The vascular cambium in a dicotyledonous stem is completely secondary in origin
1) (a), (b) and (c) arc correct 2) (a) and (d) are correct

3) (b) and (d) are correct 4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

J 2) mfr CfJ2T'i" ~ :-

(a) ~ if Cf~Cf)~rl "'itf glr-ll %-


(b) ~ CTUf if i'a ~ ~ en: .31f~ m# ~
(c) f& q! Jjq{! ~ if ~ 9,<1-1·B-&:rr 2
B 6 i"fCf) ~ g

(d) fgCj"I'i1 q:fl ~ if ~ qm 'mfu ~ ~ B~ g~ iFil %-


1) (a), (b) i3W: (c) BtT %; 2) (a) .3fr- (d) mfr %
3) (b) .3fR (d) BtT %; 4) (a), (c) .3fn: (d) Bit %

6
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13) Pick out the correct statements :-
a) The first hormone discovered was a substance named secretin
b) The adrenal cortex arises from endoderm
c) Angiotensin II stimulates vasoconstriction, causing rise in blood pressure
d) The posterior lobe of pituitary gland arises from pharyngeal epithelium as an invagination called
Rathke's pouch
1) (b) and (d) are correct 2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
3) (a) and (c) are correct 4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

13) Btr Cf)~ ~ :-

a) >f~ ~ ~ ~ fBUiCl'1 t-
b) ~ ~ c8 ~ ~Sh54M %
c) Qf.:s1'!Xlb41'1~ ~ 'tifC\?of'i chl ~ CJmIT % ,3ffi 0Fl zy.r chl ~ %
d) ~ W~ "tt Lf~-:q LfRfIT ~ ~ B~ 0Ff14M'1 (~;@jM1B'i), fGffi ~~ c8 qAT %TI %, iT
~~%
1) (b) ,3fR Cd) Btr % 2) (b), (c) 0ffi: (d) ~ %
3) (a) 0ffi: (c) Btr % 4) (a), (b) 0ffi: Cd) ~ %

14) Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:-

1) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
3) If the assertion is true but the reason is fal se
4) If both the assertion and reason are false

Assertion: Cardiac muscle look like syncytium but histologically it is not syncytium
Reason : Cardiac muscle fibers branch and interdigitate, but each is a_SQ_mpleteunit surrounded
by cell membrane with a centrally located single nucleus -

14) f'"i+'iMfulCl >f!i-;fl if m~ (Assertion) ~ ~ ~ Lf!iqm ~ (Reason) Cf)T~ % I >f!i"'1"q5T UfR


B ~3ffi ~ Wr <m: ~ if B 3W ~
1) m~ ,3ffi ~ cil'11' ~ ~ .3ffi CflPlJT ~~ CI?TBtr ~tiIChJUI t=rr % I
2) m~3ffi ~ Btr
a:"'I'1~1 %~ CflPlJT ~~ CI?T~ f1tiICh{Oi ~ t=rr % I
3)m~ ~ % ~ ~ TWffi % I
4) m~ ,3ffi ~ -zynTfffil %1
mq;{ : ~ m-mT Bchl~T ~ 1nfr ~ tfr % ~ ,~ ~ '~ iT Bcim -.,m %
tr~m ~
CfiRUT : ~ ~11@IjClf1 ~ ..~ ~ ~ %~ ~, ~m ~ B ~, ~~ if
~~tWt~~~~·~%

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15) Match the terms in column I with their description in column II and choose the con-ect option
Column I Column II
a) Bibliophobia i) Fear of fire
b) Limnophobia ii) Fear of lakes
c) Pyrophobia iii) Fear of old age
d) Gerontophobia iv) Fear of books
CODE:
(a) (b) (c) Cd)
1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

15) ~ I $ ~~ ciT ~ II if ~ TIit ~ cruR B ~ ~ TIm 00 fcrcm;q ~


~I ~II
( . (a) ~~ICfilfCp-li (i) .31fT;:r Cf)T ~
(b) RrISTj)q?)~~1 (ii) ~ Cf)T ~
(c )ql(OH}:hlR1~1 (iii) q~-$l..:n Cf)T ~
(d)~4Viep:hlfCl~1 (iv) ~ c.nT ~
q'!I·3 :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

2) (i) (i i i) (ii) (iv)

3) (ii) (i) (iv) (i ii)

4) (iv) (ii) (i) (ii i)

16) Find the correct match:-


i) Cellular contents leak out
a) Apoptosis
ii) Passive process
iii) Plasma membrane intact
b) Necrosis
iv) Death of single cell

CODE:
(a) (b)

1) (ii), (iii) (i), (iv)

2) (iii), (iv) (i), (ii)

3) (i), (iii) (ii), (iv)

4) (i),(iii), (iv) (ii)

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16) Btt ~ ~ q~illH~ -
----'~-,-~-'-~----~-------~-~--.---------~---~-- .. ---
~-ra!2m-?T.::r~m
a) ltq"lz'llBB
i) ~. ~<..n'J~"
!'N C'TT?J
-.,,-W?'
,:nT::IT
Vli'll 'I!
ii)
iii)
b) qpJIFH
ivy
I
~:
(a) (b)

1) (ii), (iii) (i), (iv)

2) (iii), (iv) (i), (ii)

3) (i), (iii) (ii), (iv)

4) (i),(iii), (iv) (ii)

17) Which of the following is the most likely inheritance pattern in the pedigree given below.-
CJ---.----~()

?
~ I I
~l 6 6 0
1) Mitochondrial 2) X - linked dominant

3) Autosomal recessive 4) Autosomal dominent

Of--- I-----c) '~,


i

2) X -~ >f'HTcD

18) Cell type which lacks HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) is -

1) Red hlood cell 2) Thrombocyres 3) Hepaiocytes 4) Neutrophil

1) ~ <lfm wm 2) W.qTm~W

3) Igl~klBl~cB r_._~

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19) Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table:-
Virus Nuclic Acid
1) Pox virus ds DNA
2) Myxo virus ss RNA
3) TMV ss RNA

4) Adeno virus ss DNA

19) -.fr€t -&t 1l7it ~ it TfWl ~ ~ ~ c5r ~ :-


c:rrtm1 ¥rt6f) .~

1) tTICfB cm:ITB dsDNA


2) RCR1~ICjI~W ss RNA
3) TMV ss RNA
4) I.J•.5H~ICjI(P'8 ss DNA

20) Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table


Lichen Forms of lichens
1) Parmelia Foliose
2) Cladonia fruiticose
3) Haemotomma Crustose
4) Peltigcra Leprose

20) ;jl~ efT~ ~ if T[rifi1 ~ 1lir ~ COT ql'1i1 :-


~ ~~Wf,R

3) f~111 ci 111
4) qrr21JIJI

21) Which type of microscope used to study of living cell

1) Compound microscope 2) Oil immersion microscope


3) Phase - Contrast microscope 4) Electron microscope

2) #R fcr:rJR ~~~Tr
~~~Tr
4) ~MCf!:'~H

22) Example of nuclear stain is :-

1) Eosin 2) Safranin 3) Haematoxylin 4) Borax-carmine

23~A 10

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22) Cn'"9:ctlll~ cnr dG:If';{OI %
1) ~Jffi:fR 2) ~
23) Hematopoietic stem cells can be found in :-
(a) Peripheral blood vassels
(b) Bone marrow
(c) Umbilical cord

1) In(a)and(b)only 2) In (b) only

3) In (a), (b) and (c) 4) In (c) only

23) ~ZI~IC:CfJ ~ ~1W ~ ~ \if[ ~ ~ :-

(a) wmil ~ qlmCfJIQ


(b) i3ffi~ ~~
(c) ~ (0-'1
1) ~ (a) '3W: (b) it 2) ~ (b) if
3) (a), (b) '3W: (c) if 4) ~ (c) it
24) Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table :-
Genetic code Amino acid
1) GCA Alanine
2) CGA Proline
3) ACG Threonine
4) GAC Aspartic acid

24 ) ~ tt Tf'fr r=nfW:nT it Tf{r!fl r=nrrrn Tf'fr ~ eN -g~lrl ~ :-..

·~rcn ¥ :wfRT ~
1) GCA nyRR
2) CGA ~.

3) ACG w3ffi;B
r-f
4) GAC lVJ~! [(Cf) 3fI'i'Cf

25) A plant of genotype AABbCC is selfed, Phenotypic ratio of Fe generation would be :-

1) 9:3:4 2) 3: I

3) 9: 3 : 3 : 1 4) 27: 9 : 9 : 3 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

1) 9:3:4 2) 3: 1
3) 9: 3 : 3 : 1 4) 27: 9 : 9 : 3 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

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26) Longest cranial nerve is :-

1) X 2) VII 3) II 4) IV

1) X 2) VII 3) II 4) IV

27) Select the correct matching of the clotting factors and their serial number :-
Clotting factor Number
1) Hagman XIII

2) Thromboplastin II

3) Christmas VI
4) Proconvertin VII

27) BtT ~ eN~, ~m ~'tR ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ Writ


W~~ ~
1) ~ XIII

2) ~"'IR;("'I'"«1{€H II
3) ~ VI
4) ~\Cfj~~.2H VII

28) Example of artficial auxins are :-


IPA
(b) PAA
(c) NAA
(d) 2.4,5 - T
(c) 2A - D

1) (a) (d) (e) 2) (b) (c) (e)

3) (a) (0) (d) 4) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(a) IPA
(b) PAA
(e) NAA
(d) 2A,5 - T
(e) 2A - D

1) (a) (d) (e) 2) (b) (e) (e)

3) (a) (b) (d) 4) (a) (b) (e) Cd) (e)

12
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29) What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species
with 8 chromosomes in its synergids cell :-

1) 32 2) 16 3) 8 4) 24
29) t:;cfl ~, ~ ~ ~ (fu1\M~ ~TCflT) if 8 ~ ~, c€T Qf1{~''i 1;ffif ctr ~IrETJTI if
~ c€T B&:rr CR:IT irfr?
1) 32 2) 16 3) 8 4) 24
30) Lateral root of higher plants arise from :-

I) Endodermis 2) Cortex 3) Pericyc1e 4) Epidermis


30) ~ ~ rm 'CJT~cT~ ~ ~ mill ~ -
1)3lo:~~ 2) ~ 3) ~ 4),~

31) Consider a sphere of uniformly distributed mass of 1 kg/m" and radius 1 m. Its moment of intertia
about one diameter is :-
1) 0.33 kg m? 2) 0.50 kg m? 3) 1.40 kg rrr' 4) l.67 kg m?

31) 1 fcBm./ 4t. 3 ~ ~ ~ B~ ~ ,dR 1 4t. ~ ~ .Tj'rR rm J1cf~ ~ I Q;Cfl ClITB ~


~~ ~ ~ '31TqOl ~ :

1) 0.33 fcBm./ 4t.2 2) 0.50 fctm./ BT.2 3) 1.40 fctm./ 4t.2 4) 1.67-fctm./ 4t.2

32) Consider a circular ring of mass 1 kg and diameter 0.2 m. It is making 10 rotations per second about
an axis passing through its centre and norma] to the surface. The value of angular momentum is :-

1) 2.512 kg mvsec 2) 0.4 kg mvsec 3) 1.256 kg mvsec 4) 0.2 kg mvsec

32) ] fr:t~11. ~ .3ffi 0.2 1fT.CLffB~ ~ ~ ~ iT31Cfl'zroT ~ I~ ~ B~ ~ .3ffi ;::wr


~ ~ Q!.Fi31a1"~ mi1~% 10 ~ ~ J~Ct;<O)iT ?:' B ~ Cf7 ~ ~ I chl~lt:j BirT GflT'iFf ~ :
1) 2.512 fu?m.1fT.2;B. 2) 0.4 fctm.4t. ;B.<··
2

3) 1.256 fu?m.4t.2;B. 4) 0.2 fr.tm.1fT.2;B.

33) A rod oflength I and uniformly distributed mass m per unit length is undergoing rotational motion
about a perpendicular axis passing through its mid-point. If the angular speed of the rod changes
from 0 to CD in t sees, the applied torque is :-

1) m [2 wi (12 t) 2) mPwl(l2t) 3) m /2 wi (3 t) 4) m P wi (3 t)

33) I ~dR -B fuffit=r m ~ $Cflli


BliFf ~ ~ ~ ~ q5T t:;cfl ~ .3f1Fr 11'U:f ~ B ~ CTfiYIT
~31a1 t mi1~~ Cf7 -it ~ I -qfu- (9g iT ~ TJf.::r t B-Ctus if 0 B CD q5T~ ~ ill wR CfTffi
GWf·~~:

1) m [2 wi (12 t) 2) m P w/ (12 t) 3) m [2 wi (3 t) 4) mPw/(3t)

23-'" 13
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34) For a perfect gas the specific heat at constant pressure Cp and that at constant volume C, are related
as :-
1) Cp = C y
2) Cp =C y
+R 3) Cp =C v
-R 4) Cp = Cv + log R

1) Cp =C v
3) Cp = C - Rv

35) Efficiency of a reversible heat engine working between a sink at temperature 30° C and source at
temperature 90° Cis ;-

1) 1/3 2) 2/3 3) 20/]21 4) 10/121

1) 1/3 2) 2/3 3) 201121 4) 101121

36) In adiabatic expansion of a system in which its temperature changes from a value T to 1
the
entropy will :
1) Increase
2) Decrease
3) Remain unchanged
4) May increase or decrease depending upon the ratio T/f=

1) G1iMt
2) cft1Tr
"3) ~~
4) ~ T/f2 0/ R*/Cn? ~ % ?:D c:rc ~ % I

14
23-"
il
---L
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37) A body executes simple harmonic motion. Choose from the followings the correct graph representing
relationship the kinetic energy, Ek, of the body and its distance from the centre of oscillation:
Ek Ek

1) 2)

0 Distance 0 Distance

Ek Ek

3) 4)

0 Distance 0 Distance

Ek

l) 2)

0 ~-ft o

Ek Ek

I // 4)
3) I /
1/
r,i/ --.---~.---
~.~.-
..

o ~l 0

38) A vertical spring is suspended from one end and carries a mass of 1 kg at its lower end. It is made to
oscillate in vertical plane. Amplitude of the oscillation is 0.1 m and at t = 0, the displacement is

0.1/ .J2 m. Taking the force constant of the spring as 10 N/m and assuming the frictional forces to
be zero, the relation between displacement and time is:

1) x=(O.1 I j2)sin(n t + n12) 2) x = (O.l!.j2)sin(n t+ n/4)

3) x - (O.l)sin(n t + n/2) 4) x = (O.I)sin(lIt+nI4)

23- J.. 15
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38) ~ ~ W;M 0f1=A D:Ctl tm: "fr ~ % \3ffi ~ ~ tm: <n: 1 fctm. CfiT ~ ~ %I~ ~

m<f it~
fcl?m \JfTill% I ~ CfiT ~ 0.1 ~. % ~ ~ t = 0 <n: ~ o.l/fi 4T % I mr-r CfiT
GWf H4diCh : 10 ~;m.
#lit £Q: \3ffi ~ ~ cir ~p:rl=fFffi £Q: ~, ~ ~ t ~ ~ %:
1) x=(0.11 .j2)sin(n t + nl2) 2) x = (0.1I-fi)sin(nt+1If4)

3) x = (0.1 )sin( n t + nl2) 4) x = (0.I)sin(nt+nI4)

39) A 2 m long weightless spring having a force constant 25 N/m hangs from ceiling. At its lower end
is suspended a mass of 1kg. If it is pulled down by 10 cm and released then the kinetic energy when
the spring has moved 5 em up is:

1) 0.125 Joule 2) 0.0312 Joule 3) 0.0624 Joule 4) 0.0938 Joule

39) 2~. WGIT~ 'lfR ~ fuM ~ CfiYT H4diCh 25 ~mr. % mf "fr ~ % .Jfu: ~ ~ <n:rot
1 fu;J.-m CfiT ~ ~ % 1 qfu 3B 10 "fr. ~. ~ ~ ~ Km \Jffiff % m~
fil..TrT 5 "fr. "41. ~
\Jf[ ~ m-m %~ \3Wtr l@M 0lGlf % :
1) 0.125 ~ 2) 0.0312 ~ 3) 0.0624 ~ 4) 0.0938 ~

40) A body is undergoing simple harmonic motion with frequency an oscillatory force of frequency (Do and

(D is applied on it. Damping constant representing the damping force is b. Consider the following
statements regarding resonance condition when the amplitude of oscillation is maximum:
i): It occurs at CD = 000 for all b values.
ii) It occurs at (D = 0\) only for b = O.
iii) It occurs at (D < (I)() for non-zero b values.
iv) It occurs at 0) > (Do for non-zero b values.
Choose the correct statement from the followings:

I) (i) is correct.
2) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
3) (ii) and (iv) are correct.
4) None of the four is correct. Resonance always occurs 0)=0)/2

40) ~ fqu-g 00
0
.3Wffi=1 "fr BTiil .mq;=fr 11frr "C.f)l m % .3lR ~ <n: (D3Wffi=1 CfiT ~ ~ qiTf ~ 'J!Ti1T % 1
~ cir
GfVf Ht-'F'1'1 P CWfT .~ f;'JiO:I'1iCf) b % I ~ ctT~-:n, -:nq citrA CfiT ',3Wn11
..~ ~ %, ?n ~ if f.l9 Ch~ ~ mun- ~
i) b?n Bm ~ ?n fAir % (0 =(1)0 ~ ~ ~ % I
ii) ~ b =0 ~ ~ % (I) =(1)0 ~ ~ 61'11 % I
iii) b ~ fn: ~~ 11FIT ~ fW1 ~ (I) < (1)0 ~ trft:r ~ % I
iv) b?n 1n:-~~ 11FIT ~ fAir ~ (D>(Do ~ ~ 61'11 % I

1) (i) %t %
2) (ii) .3fR (iii) %t %
3) (ii) ~ (iv) %t %
4) ~ it "fr ~ %t 1tt % I ~ ~ (D = (DJ2 ~ ~ ~ % I

23-. 16

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41) At a certain point two waves create pressure variations as PI = P sin (211: ut) and P2 = P sin 211: (UHp).
Amplitude of resultant wave at this point when <p = 114 is

1) 2P 2) p 3) pJ2 4) 0

41) M ~ ~ 1:11?J ntTt <mf qRClct'l P, = P sin (211: ut) .Jffi P2 = P sin 2n (ut-(p! ~ m~I VfCl
cp = 114 ~1ill ~ ~ \:R qRUlllOj"l ~ ~ % :
1) 2P 2) P 3) pJ2 4) 0

42) Intensity ratio ImaxlIminin a pattern produced by interference oftwo coherent light sources of intensity
100 and 1 is
1) 101 : 99 2) 11 : 9 3) 121 : 81 4) 10: )

, ,.
42) 100 i3ffi 1 illwrr ~ crt ~ ~ >rCflT:!T arm ~ Cll fd Cf) ~uI ~ j("q I i{ (1 m~o:r I~· ~ 31]1:ffi1
I0lT~/I~ %:
1) 101 : 99 2) 11 : 9 3) 121 : 8] 4) 10 : 1

43) Two trains are approaching each other with a relative speed of 50 km/hr, Engine of one of the trains
whistles at a frequency of 100 Hz. Apparent frequency of the whistle heard by a passenger in the
second train, after the trains cross each other, will be:

1)9l.9 Hz 2) 108.8 Hz 3) 73.7 Hz 4) 152 Hz

43) c:J 'h"llllf;@;[!1 Q[-fJ-~{1{'Cfit ,3ffi 50 f?n.<frltii:. % ~aT 'lfCl B31T ~ ~ I~ B Q[-fJ 'J,W1I51 q:)f tJR 100
$ Cfit ,3W{ffi Cfit mtr CMTill % I )riPllf-32ii % Q[-fJ-~:(J c5T m ~ ~ CTIG. q,J:1il 'J,WI!sl if n:-n '"11~1
mTI ~ ~ mtr Cfit J1Tlillit ,:mcrfu ill Ii :
1) 91.9 Hz 2) 108.8 Hz 3) 73.7 Hz 4) 152 Hz

44) Distance between the electron and the proton in a hydrogen atom is about 0.5 x 1OIU meter. Vahle of
coulomb force between the electron and the proton is:

1) 9.2 x 108 Newton 2) 9.2 X 1Oi8 Newton


3) -9.2 x 10-8 Newton 4) -9.2 x 10-18 Newton

44) ~ ~1~iISj'i crrrfTU!~ ~<1tf~H Jffi >friR ~ l1'af r?r i"fTfB'T 0.5 x 1010 ~ 'is I ~~rJCf~I'ijfr- miFf ~
l1'af ~ q(if q:)f l1R ~ :

1) 9.2 x lO-s "'ic"l 2) 9.2 X 1O-1~ .-',-),.61

3) -9.2 x 10-8 ~ 4) -9.2 x 10-18 ~

45) Total charge on a sphere of radius 10 ern is 1 micro coulomb. Maximum electric field due to this
sphere is :
1) 9 x 10-5 Newton/Coulomb 2) 9 x 105 Newton/Coulomb

3) 9 X 103 Newton/Coulomb 4) <) x 1015 Newton/Coulomb

17
23-~

_I
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1) 9 X

3) 9x103~/~
10-5 ~ I~ 2) 9x 105
4) 9xl015~/~
~ I~
I
Electric flux entering a closed surface is 2x103 Neuton-m-Coulomb and the flux coming out from
the same surface is 8x 103 Neuton-mvCoulomb. The value of charge inside the surface is:

1) 0.106 micro Coulomb 2) 1.06 micro Coulomb


3) 0.53 micro Coulomb 4) 0.053 micro Coulomb

46) ~ ~ ~ it >fct~T CflB crrB ~ ~ CfiT 11R 2 X 103 ~-~.~ %$ ~ TSO-B ~ i31R
c:mi'r ~ CfiT l1Gl 8 X 10 3 ~-~.~ % I~ ifl ~3Wt~T CfiT l1frf % I

1) O.106~ ~ 2) L06~ ~

3) O.53~ ~ 4) O.053~ ~
47) Consider two parallel plane surfaces with equal but opposite charges. Choose the correct statement:

1) Resultant electric field between the planes is =: but outside the planes it is zero
2) Resultant electric field between the planes is cr/2£o but outside the planes it is zero
3) Resultant electric field between the planes and also outside is cr/co
4) Resultant electric field between the planes and also outside is cr/2£0

47) T:fl=fR q3g fcrqfu:,31"fcr~iTctt m~ ~ TiT c8 ~~ ~ I 00 Cf)~ ~ :

1) ~ ifl 11UT qf~ulIl"fi ~ 8{:;r (5/£0 % ~ ~ if; CTTP ~ ~~ % I


2) ~ ifl 11UT qpuwfi fcrgrr ~ncr/2Eu % ~ ~ ifl Cll0J % ~~ % I

3) ~ if; 11UT 0fp- ~ m qpull41 ~ ~ % I


cr/Eo
4) ~ ifl 11\'21 .3W- q!i'J '.:fr qpuWll lC-lq"i ~ftcr/2Eo % I

48) In the following circuit, asslU:l1s~.{lojnt


X to be at zero potential. Choose the correct option for
potential at point Y (intemal resistance of the cell is negligible):

1A 2A 2V
y
r---~~------.---~--~+
~----.

20
R

2A

J) 3V 2) 2V 3) 1V 4) Zero Volt

23-A 18

-
IL-
AL

48) R-9 '1ftq~ it ~ x c€r ~p:r fu11cflR ~ I~ Y lR rcr'lfCl ~ fRQ: Btt fcmwq ~ (~CfiT ~
m~~%I)
2V
lA 2A
+ - y

~
20
R Rl

- + 2A
IV

1) 3V 2) 2V 3) IV

49) In the following circuit the resistance Rx is unknown and Rvar can be varied. When Rvar is 12 ohms,
there is zero current through the ammeter. The unknown resistance Rx is:
c

9V

Rvar Rx

1) 1.5.Q 2) 0.75.Q 3) 3.0 Q 4) 48.Q

49) it
R-9 cfftys:;r >TfrPT~R,3:rsnr1 i .3fp- Rar qc;rrn :m %CD % I 0fq RIal 12Q irm i rTI::~ it mry ~P1
% I 3TITI<l~~--T R x % :
c

J A
~v
Ammeter
7S
.t:i

Rvar Rx

1) 1.5 Q 2) 0.75.Q 3) 3.0Q 4) 48 Q

23-£. 19
In the following meter bridge circuit. balance point is obtained at J with AJ =
L em. When the
values of R and X are doubled and then interchanged the position of balance point is:
R x

+ -

1) (100 - L) em 2) Lcm 3) (L - 100) em 4) 2Lcm

50) R9 >f1c~-Bg-qftq2:f if ~ fd:!'1 J, AJ = L ern. ~ m9" imT '€'; I ~ R3lR X in l1R ~ ~ fc:i:t
~ ~3W fTt7 if cm=q( qzyr fc:i:t ;:;ffir ~ rrq ~ ~ eFt W.:rm % :
R x
r---~I\,/\I\v-----r--J.----A,Jy

~)

A+-.--L_
i B
J

+ -

1) (100 ~ L) itm. 2) L -B.m. 3) (L - 100) -B.m. 4) 2L U.m.

51) In the following circuit current is flown through a ceil of 4.5 V (with negligible internal resistance).
When another cell of emf E is connected across resistance 3Q there is no change in the value of the
current. Value of E is:
4.5 V

[:~~l---:i
~I t--------±j ~~
E

1) 4.5 V 2) 1.5 V 3) i.o v 4) 3.0 V

23-"&,, 20
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51) f.:r;:rttWiq if ~ 4.5 V ~ ~ (~~ >ffin1~"fTTU<:f %) ~ &m mu ~ mill % I ~ ~
cnw; C@ E ~ ~ ~ mrr cf,j 3n ~ 1R vIT?r \ilTill% ill mn ~ '1R if ~ qf<Cld'1 ~ ~ % I
Eq)f'1R%:

4.5V
+, -

/\
\

20 30 40
lAw

~~
E

1) 4.5 V 2) 1.5V 3) 1.0 V 4) 3.0 V

52) Necessary condition for obtaining an interference pattern when light waves (of same frequency)
from two points S 1 and S2 superpose is :
Intensity of two waves Phase difference between the two
waves at 81 and 82 must be
1) Must be equal Zero
2) Must be equal n
3) Must be equal Constant with time but not necessarily zero
4) Need not be equal Constant with time but not necessarily zero

52) ~ iT Idl'"13TI Sj 3fu S, if ~ m (T-f1=lM.:mqfu c€t) >TCfi1ST ;=p-ii31Ulljlfyi'j ~ % I riT 21f'iChJOI ~


>l19"n ~fr1(J,3WT~~ ~TIf %:
m dirTI cf,t ~ 81 .3fR ~2 l1{ m cWil ~ llUl ~ iFrr ~
1) T-f1=lM iil ril ~ s~
2) T-f1=lM ~I;:jl illl~21 n
3) T-f1=lM il;J1 ?:.1lfg21 ~ ~ Bm ~ qi.Si3Wf~~ m ~ ~FT m
4) T-f1=lM il·fl3W-T~~ m ~ ~ mq ~ lIi:g::mcp~ ~ if ~FT~

).
, 53) Consider diffraction of light from a single slit. Ratio of the intensity of central maximum to that of
the first maximum lying on either side of the central maximum is

1) 3: I 2) 9: 1 3) 25: 9 4) 1: 9

53) ~ ~ fR:rc if w.m~T~ ~ c€t ..31cf'tmlJTT ~ I Cn~\i:ljR-i!GO cfr illwn 0WJ{ICh ir;:ff .3W ~
~ ~l'.Pi X.ci! GO c8 ~ Cf)T .31fi1'l % :
1) 3: 1 2) 9: 1 3) 25: 9 4) 1: 9

23-£' 21
o o

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54) Refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 1.54 and 1.33 respectively, Polarizing
angle for a beam entering from glass to water is
1) tan" (1.54/1.33) 2) tan:' (1.33/1.54)

3) tan:' {(1.S4-1)/(1.33-1)} 4) tan:' {(1.54+1)/(1.33+1)}

54) ~ ~ mtTaf ~ .3fR :srM ~ .JlQClJ"1iCh Cf)q~r 1.54 q 1.33 % I CI?fq # \i'Wf if ~~T ~ ~ Q;Cfi ~
~ ~ WfUT ci\ur % :
1) tan I (1.5411.33) 2) tan:' (1.33/1.54)

3) tan 1 {(1.54-l)/(1.33-1)} 4) tan:' {(1.54+1)/(1.33+1)}

55) Let the focal length of an eye-piece be 2.5 ern. For a telescope of magnification 100, the focal length
of the objective should be:

1) 250 cm 2) 40 em 3) 2.5 X 10-2 em 4) 100 em

55) Q,Cn ~ c5T ~ ~ 2.5 #At.!flf¥:r .3Wl¢:r ~ (~''{]fLb&l~R) 100 c5T Q,Cn ~ ~ ~
'~~<:r WB c5T ~ ~ ~ ~:
1) 250 #.'41. 2) 40 #.'41. 3) 2.5 X 10-2 #_'41.
56) Ionization energy of the electron in Hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. For electron in deuterium atom it is
.,
1) 13.6 eV 2) 6.8 eV 3) 3.4 eV 4) 27.2 -v

1) 13.6 eV 2) 6.8 eV 3) 3.4 eV 4) 27.2 eV

57) According to Bohr model, the orbital angular momentum of electron in the orbit n = 2 is
1) h 2) hl2n 3) hln 4) h/4n

1) h 2) h/2n 3) h/n 4) h/4n


58) Radius of the Bohr orbit for n = 2 state of tritium (IT") atom is

1) 0.53 x 1010 m 2) 2.12 X 10-10 m 3) 0.27 X 10-10 m 4) 0.13 X 10-10 m

1) 0.53 x 10-10'41. 2) 2.12 x 1O-10 m. 3) 0.27 x lO-lo m. 4) 0.l3 x lO-lom.

59) Given that masses of neutron, proton and helium (2He4) nucleus are 1.008665, 1.007825 and 4.032980
(all in amu) respectively), choose the correct statement from the following

o 1) Removal of a nucleon from helium nucleus gives at an average 7 MeV energy.


2) Average energy required for removing a nucleon from helium nucleus is 7 MeV.
3) Removal of a nucleon from helium nucleus gives at an average 14 MeV energy.
4) Average energy required for removing a nucleon from helium nucleus is 14 MeV.

22
AL
59) ~, illeR 0fR ~ (2He4) ~ ~ ~ ~!:iT: 1.008665, 1.007825 ..3ffi- 4.032980 (B1-TI
a.m.u, B) Rit g::; ; I R9 if B Bit Cfj~ ~ :

1) ~f8V"P"l ~ B "B" ~ 'ilfi:Jchi;q q)Uf CfiT HCfilM4 1:11 ~ 7 MeV w:nT ~ ~ ~ 1


2) ~ ~ if"B" ~ 'ilfiiiltl q)Uf CfiT HCf)10T'1 % ~ .~ 7 MeV w:nT c@ J1TCf!:i~ iTffi ~I
3) ~fM;q~ ~ B "B" T:JCf) 'ilfi'lchl;q q)Uf CfiT HCfiIM~ 1:11 ..~ 14 MeV ~ >TT9" mill ~ I
4) ~ 'llfi:1cp B "B" T:JCf) 'iIMc&l;q CJ?UT eN HCfiIM~ ~ ~ ,~ 14 MeV 'j-)\Jjl~ JiTCf!:i~ M %1

60) 92 Um undergoes nuclear fission as follows


n + 92U23S -1 42Mo" + 54Xe136 + 2n
Energy released in fission of 1 gm of 92U235 is (masses of n, Um, 42Mo98,and 54Xe]36are 1.0087,
92

235.0439,97.9054 and 135.9170 (all in amu) respectively)

1) 5.06 X 1023] 2) 5.06 x 1026J 3) 8.1 X 107 J 4) 8.1 x lOlO]

60) nU23S Cf)f 'ilf~il;q ~ ~ ~ ;?rrn- %


n+ U235-1 Mo98+ Xe[36+2n
92 42 54

1 ml1 92 U235 %~ "B" =


"-..i::1 '-1\ I,
m-2r cwITJ-iJiI % (n , 92 U
m ' 42 Mo'" 3W"4Xe]:lG %j
~ ~!:iT: 1.0087 ...
235.0439,97.9054 .3ffi 135.9170 (B'lTI a.m.u. it ;)) :
1) 5.06 X 1023 ~ '~2) 5.06 x 1026~ 3) 8.1xl07~ 4) 8.1 x lO[O~

61) Consider the following as a possible nuclear reaction

[
H2+ [H2-1 2
He"
Given the energy per nucleon of the [He and 2He.J nuclei as 1.1 MeV and 7 Mev respectively. choose
the correct statement:

1) The reaction is not possible


2) The reaction can occur if H2 nuclei are given a total of 23.6 MeV energy.
[L L.

3) The reaction occurs with a release of 25.8 MeV energy


4) The reaction occurs with a release of 23.6 MeV energy

1
H2+ ] H2-1 2
He"
~ '2:311 % >Tfu
cT"-T'i'J-i'oil ~ CJ?UT ]H2 q 2He4 ~ %~ 1.1 MeV 3ffi 7 MeV ~~T: ~ 1@
Cfj~ ~ :

1) ~ ~'lit% 1
2) ~ iT ~ % \JjCf]H2 ~ cir ¥f 23.6 MeV ·j-)'.lil~ ~ I

3) ~ it 25.8 MeVJ-i:J1fj('l~fYirr ildl ~


4) ~ it 23.6 MeV \j):J1fj~~f}jct m%

23-~ 23
AL

62) In the process of formation of a p-n junction which of the following is true:

1) Diffusion does not take place


2) Diffusion of electrons and holes goes on infinitely
3) There is zero electrical potential across the junction
4) Charges establish an electric field across the junction

62) P - n mil" t TfO'1 em ~ if R9 if B q:m ~ ~ :

1) >fmUT qtf Bill ~


2) ~MCf~H ~ ~ Cf)[ mRUf ,~ "furr ~
3) -Bfu t \3W -em ~ fc:rqg ~p:riTill ~
4) mil" t \31R-\ffi \31fcr~T~ ~ ~ ~~ ~ 'It

63) In the following figure if V CE == O.2V then Ic(satl will be:

10V

4.7 kO
f-----0 Vout

~DC = 200

1) 0.050 mA 2) 2.085 mA 3) 2.130 mA 4) 1.065 mA

10V

4.7 kO

~DC = 200

1) 0.050 fi:rffi "Q;. 2) 2.085 fiwfr "Q;. 3) 2.130RBt"Q;. 4) 1.065 fi:ri:;IT D:.

23-. 24
AL
64) The circuit given below represents a logic block diagram for the gate:

A
B
c

1) OR 2) NOR 3) NAND 4) Exclusive OR

A
B
c

1) OR 2) NOR

3) NAND 4) Exclusive OR (QCfBCR1fBQ OR)

65) A 5:1 transformer is connected to a half-wave rectifier circuit with a 50 kQ load. Input voltage is
220 V pk • Ide will be:

1) 280.1 ~A 2) 440llA 3) 880 uA 4) 4.4 mA

65) ~ 5: 1 Gf)f <i1jCfjIY{~3~-¥rr fd.'=CChIJI % T.TWri!.T i{ ~ls1 % f;r=ri:i 50 kQ Gf)f Ml5 % I ~Ef ~
220 VI'k %1 Ide (~lllt : -

1) 280.1 ~~. 2) 440~ n. 3) 880 lil~~l TT 4) 4.4 fi'wIT ~.


66) Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not permissible -

1) 11 =3. 1=I, m=+ 3 2) n =3. 1=1. 111=+1 3) 11 =3.1=0.111=0 4) 11 =3, /=2, m=-2.,

1) 11 =3, l=1, m=+3 2) II =3. 1=1. m=+ 1


3) n =3. 1=0, m=O 4) n =3. 1=2, m=-2

67) Which one is correct statement


1) J9 K40 and 20ca40 are Isobars 2) J7cl3) and 17
c137 are Isotopes

""j) 54
xeJ'o and ,6
Ba!3Oare Isobars 4) All of the above

1)
19
K40lJCf'20 ca'" (Isobars)." Bli'l1lfMl ~ I
2) 17CP5Q;Ct J7cl37(Isotopes) ?Jl=R.9~ % I
3)
-)4
_xel3()~ 56
Ba13°(Isobars) Bli~ % I

4) ~ tr4T

25
23-~
AL
,
1

68) Electronic configuration Is2 2S2 2p/ 2p/ 2Pzois not obeying the law -

1) Pauli's exclusion principle 2) Hund's rule

3) Anfbau rule 4) Bohr-Bury's rule

68) ~(ijCfS;:lf~Gf) FcRnB 1S2 2S2 2p/ 2p/ 2pz fuJB ~ o G@ ~ -.:mi CF«lT %-
1) ~ G@ ~ ~ 2) ~ Cf)f Fr:P1

69) Which one of the following is correct outermost electronic configuration of most electronegative
element :-

. 1) ns? np ' 3) ns? np"

70) The magnitude of successive Ionization potential of an atom increases due to increase in
1) Effective nuclear charge 2) Ionic radius

3) Number of electrons 4) All of the above

70) M ~ ~ en ~ ..~ fu'l1CT ~ "I1R if ql.f. H9 if -B~ if ~ ~ GflRUT ilMI % -


1) -sr'q"[Cft -;:ffi~:mit~T 2) .~ ~

3 ) ~ (ij Cf<;:;1 T"j i eFT B"&:rT 4) ~ T:Nr

71) Which one is interstitial hydride :-

1) LiH 2) PH; 3) CuH

1) LiH 2) PH] 3) CuH 4) CaH"

72) Why gypsum is added to cement :-

1) To make cement light coloured

2) To slow down the process of setting of cement


3) To obtain shining surface
4) None of the above
72) tfri:r;:c if ~ c8 cpj-[~ ~ % I

1) 3T:fGflT -M ~ CflB ~ fW1:


2) miR: ~ m eFT mw.n c8 tfr:rr CflB ~ fW1:
3) -qliGf)~I( ~ ~ CflB ~ ~

4) ~ if -B ~ ~

23-.6. 26
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73) Which one of the following is acidic in nature :-

1) Al (OH)3 2) Mg (OR)3 3) Be (OR)3 4) B (OH\

1) Al (OH)3 2) Mg (OH\ 3) Be (OH)3 4) B (OR)3

74) Silicones are the polymers of silicon. The chain length of polymer can be controlled by adding :-

74) mWhl'i, fBWlCfi'1 ~ ~ mi1 % I ~ ~ ~ rtt ~ riT R9 i:i B fcti.t fil<1ICfi{ ~ ~


0ff fIC.f)ill %-

75) The most commonly used reducing agent is :-

4) AleL
"'

76) At a particular temperature and pressure, the solid and liquid phases of a pure substance can exist in
equilibrium. Which of the following defines this temperature -

1) Melting point (normal)


2) Freezing point
3) Boiling point
4) Both melting point & Freezing point

76) fc-:fJr1'1 ~ rrrq r:M Q:qliogiYl'I<01 GJGf \:[7, M '1GJti rtt iro ~ ~ ~~ BRl cr: m BCflifr % I ~
('ffq Chl ~ c::JlT ~~-

1) ~ (T:Tr1Rl) 2) ~
3) ~~ 4) ~~~cil;:ji

77) Which of the following are equal for a chemical system at equilibrium?

1) The concentration of reactant and products.


2) The rate of the forward and reverse reactions
3) The rate constants for the forward and reverse reactions
4) Both 2 & 3

23 ..•• 27
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77) M m:lIl1HCfJ ~ ~ (11R:tlql?~ if ~ q{ f.r9 if it cp:rr Bl1R M-
1) UblllCfJI<c€i ~ ~ c8 "BRill
2) 0ffi ~ ~ ~ ~i3TI cBt i:i:
3) 0ffi ~ ~ ~·m ~ irT HlIdiCfJ
4) ~2~3~

78) By the addition of Ar gas to the system 2H1~H2 + 12, the degree of dissociation of HI will be -
1) Suppressed at constant pressure and constant volume both
2) Increased at constant pressure and decreased at constant volume.
3) Decreased at constant pressure and increased at constant volume.
4) Not altered at both constant pressure and constant volume

..
?il 78) 2HI ¢ H2 + 12 ~ if Ar fTB fi:wrR q{ HI Chl fCj~'I\JF1
U 1) fun: ffi ~ fun: ~ ~ q{ (iCf) ~ I
2) W-n: ffi q{ cWn ~ fun: .3WRR q{ Cfi11 m-rn I
3) W-n: ffi q{ Cfi11 iPn \JfClfcI:l W-n: ~ q{ cWn I

4) ftm ffi ~ W-n:'~ ci:AT tR ~ ~ I

79) While analysis of II group radicals H2S is passed in presence of HCL. Why HN01 or H2S04 not
-
used instead of HCL.
1) These acids oxidizes hydrogen sulphide to sulphur
2) These acids are weaker acids than HCL
3) Use of these acids may precipitate sulphides of group III & IV
4) All of the above

79) furW:r ~ ~ ~ q;)1 fu~~ ~~. HCL ~ ~qpj)-TR if H2S 1m ~ cBt"'JWIT % I'<:tf,r HCL
~ "\j)-..lT1 tR HNO, lIT H2S0.f CllT >m1TT cp:rr ~ Cf){"i1 I

1) it ~ ~f\JFf (1(+Cf)I~s c@ ~ if31Tcp::{llld CfiJ ~ % I

2) it HCL cBt gwrr if ~ .3%f %


3) ~ .~ -iJ III -iJ IV (11fii ~ ~1(+Cf)1~5
'4t31CT~ it ~ ~ I
4) ~ B'IfT

80) The compound whose aquous solution has lowest pH

1) NaN03

28
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81) The solubility of Ca3 (PO 4)2 in water is x moles/litre. Its solubility product is

1) 36 2) 108 x 3) 64 x;

1) J6x4 2) 108 x~ 3) 64 x5

82) Which one is incorrect match :-


TITRATION INDICATOR
1) Strong acid vis strong base Phenolphthalein & methyl Orange
2) Weak acid vis strong base Phenolphthalein
3) Strong acid vis weak base Methyl orange
4) Weak acid vis weak base Methyl Red

82) R9 if it ctRm ~ Btr -;:@ % -


;jij4IQ'1 ~
1) ::fGWf .~ q ~ ~w fCb'ili1Qm ~ TW'B ~
2) ~.JRil q ~ ~ fch'"lIi1Qm
3) ~.JRil q ~ ~ ~,~

4) ~JRil
C

q ~
r

~ iWwr~

83) Critical temperature of a gas depends upon the magnitude of the intermolecular forces. Following
are the critical temperatures of some gases-
H, (33.2K), CO, (304.1 K). NR (40S.SK). 0, (lS4.3K)
"'- L . . _, ~

What would be the order of the tendency of liquification of gases

1) H?> 02> CO2> NH3 2) H2>02>NH3>CO~


3) NH,> CO2> 02> H2 4) NH>, CO,> H,>
.'-
.:...
0,-

83) fu;B'r 1nJ q:)f ~ ill'1,YiCt)31D];m Ct! c11f.l CflT7:f c.nB crWr '3f'FR3~ CWTcir lff5!T 1:fJ f~'i,ry q:)TCTI
% ~ llBi Ct! ~
I ?J)0 ~ ~ C::~TIirT[1:T, %-
H, (33.2K), CO, (304.1 K), NR
.•. L _,
(405.SK). 0, (lS4.3K)
L

1) H2> 02> CO2> NH3 2) H2> 02> NHj> CO2

3) NH 3> CO2> ° > H2 2


4) NH3>C02>H2>02

84) A gas is filled in a cylinder at pressure P. choose the correct statement -

1) Pressure would be 3P if we triple the kelvin temperature at constant volume.


2) Pressure would be P/3 if we reduce the amount of gas by 1/3 at constant temperature and volume,
3) Pressure would be 1.8P if we decrease the volume by 45% at constant temperature
4) All of the above

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84) ~ P 1:11 ~ if ~ frt:r 'l1fT st % I R-9 if B ~ Cflll.R ~ -

1) ftw ~ 1:17: ¢rm:H (lTq cR frrTn ~ 1:11 ~ 3P iT "Jf[irn


2) RJi-R'~ D;Cf illl:T 1:17: frB ct1 ~ ~ ~ G"i~ I~ en';" ~l: CDGT P/3 iT ~ I
3) W~ illl:T 1:17: .~ cR 459(, ~ 1:11 ~ 1.8P iT ::mirTI I·t:
4).jQ('ICRi ~

85) What are the relative rates of diffusion of the three naturally occurring isotopes of neon
20Ne, liNe, 22Ne

2) 22Ne > 21Ne > 2°Ne

4) 21Ne> 22Ne > 2°Ne

1) 2cNe > liNe> 22Ne 2) 22Ne> liNe> lONe

3) 22Ne> lONe> liNe 4) 2iNe > 21Ne > 20Ne

86) With the increase in the temperature of a liquid :-


1) Surface tension increases and viscosity decreases
2) Surface tension and viscosity both decreases
3) Surface tension and viscosity both increases
4) Surface tension decreases and viscosity increases

86) \q-A! 9Cf ~ (lTq ij: QI"2. Cf; JA qJ -


1) gIG il1fCf if '11(;;CftIT ~~ if ,tAim %
2) tp'.(') mrc:r ~ ~<:rR.1l' C:Frr B q-AI ..3Wfr 'El
- -
. ... ..~.
'-
~. --.±::--- .__
::P~[1'lT er-n
s:<, '"'

3) 'YG ~ ~ ;:r 1_1~-:;~::1T~ I


4) 'YG ~ B cJ,il=n CftIT ~i~ il '1f~ $li-f1 % I

87) At 293k viscosity of which liquid is maximum?

1) Water Mercury 3) Ether 4) Glycerine

3) g~

88) Which statement is incorrect

I) More volatile liquids have higher vapour pressure


2) The rate of evaporation increases with increase in temperature
3) The vapour pressure of the liquid decreases with increase in temperature.
4) Dimethyl ether evaporates at faster rate than ethyl alcohol.

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88) R9 if B "~ Cf)~ % -
1) \31ftrcn CWIl~furr -wiT em CWIl c:w G1T~ rn %- I
2) if ~
"ffi"q ~ m2l cJlfsqICfl~O! ctT ~ if '4T '1f~ mill % I
3) ffiCl if ~ ~ m~ -wiT em CWIl ~ CVl ~ % I
4) ~~ ~m, rU~ Q;f'chIQIM ctT g:;RT if ~Tm~ Nrn- % I

89) Example of molecular solid is

1) Sulphur, s, 2) Iodine, I2

3) Both sulphur s, and Iodine, 12 4) Germanium Ge and silicon Si

89) ~ iTB emjG"~(OI %-


1) ~, Sg 2) 31ltil.£H , 12

3) ~ s, ~ ,~ 12 ~ 4)v'1~A;qli Ge ~ fBWlCflI'i Si ~

90) Which of the following match is incorrect


1) A grey, lustrous solid, melting at 149SO, both solid & liquid are
electrical conductors IODINE
2) A very hard, black solid, subliming at 2700°C Sic

3) A white solid, melting at 613°C, solid is not but liquid is


electrically conducting Lid

4) A yellow solid with a characteristic odour having a melting point 120°C - CHIc

90) R9 if B c5Rm fiFrR '1ir 'iif ~ -


1) {~ijtl. -qliCf)~I{ irB. ~ 149YC, irB 'QCf ~ dl~1 :;W.9-Tf3TI i:i
~em~ IODINE

2) ~ CfiiTr. CfmilTiTB. 2700°C q7 3~ Sic

3) ~ iTB. ~ 613°C ~ fqqrj CfJT ~ Sf)Tcff ~ ~ im 'iif Lic!


4) t:\TIrrriTB. Pcrf~TGC <it:[ ~ 120°C CHI,

91) Which of following compounds shows both Schottky as well as Frenkel defect -

1) AgF 2) AgBr 3) Agcl 4) Nacl

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1) AgF 2) AgBr 3) Agel 4) Naci

92) 1.135m solution of KBr in water could be prepared by dissolving :-


1) 1.190g of KBr in 1 L of water
2) l.l35gofKBrinlLofwater
3) 1.135 mol of KBr in 500g of water
4) 1.135 mol of KBr in lkg of water

92) KBr GfiT 1.135m ~ CArn \Jf[ BCfiffi ~ -


1) 1.190 ml1 KBr cir 1~ \Jl0 if c:itrr Cf)"{
2) 1.135mB KBr cir 1~ \Jl0 if cffi;; Cf)"{
3) 1.135 ~ KBr c€r 500mB iJWf if c:iTIrT Cf)"{
4) 1.135 ~ KBr cir 1 fcf,m ~ if cffi;; Cf)"{

93) Choose the correct match of items given in column I with the type of solutions given in column II
COLUMN I COLUMN II

1) Carbonated water a solution of solid in liquid


2) Gasoline a solution of gas in liquid
3) German silver a solution of solid in solid
4) Sea water a solution of liquid in liquid

93) ~ I if fu1:; TTT:J: .~ ~ ffi11 II if ~ TTT:J: f~[1qril ~ >r:fJP GfiT Bir ~qf'ilJ. -
~I ~n
1) CflIElHlqJd \Jl0

2) flBIMH fr:1 r.t)f ~ if ~1


.-
-
3)m~ 61 (1 GfiT ir:r if ~
4) ~ \Jl0

94) Colligative properties of a solution depends on the -


1) Nature of solvent particles.
2) Number of solute particles.
3) Nature of solute particles.
4) Physical properties of solute particles.

94) M~~ ~ TTwf ~cnm ~-


1) fCl<'l1 [lCfl "CfllJTi $t ~ tIl: 2) ~ CfilJTI if,[ -msm tIl:

3) ~ cvm $t ~ tIl: 4) ~ CflUTi ~ ~ ~ q~

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95) In the first step of following addition reaction intermediate Z would be
CH,-CH=CH2+H ~Z

1) Sec-Carbocation 2) Pri -Carbocation

3) Sec-Carbanion 4) Pri-Carbanion

95) ~ it TT3: <:llll1cl1Cfl .31ftrfu1m ~ >TW1 ~ if l1mc.rffi Z ~ -


CH ,-CH = CH 2+H(!) ~ Z

1) f~J\;qch CfllclIH<:!11 .~

96) Tautomerism is a special type of

1) Chain isomerism 2) Position isomerism

3) Stereo isomerism 4) Functional group isomerism

96) -qMlq<:!qC11 ~ mm WflR ctr -


1) ~ fil1lq;qCldl % 2) W~ (il1lq;QWII %
3 ) f5rfcr:1 fil1l CI<:!CI<:"II % 4) f?b[jI,I1CfJ Bl1? fil1lq[jClctl %
97) The following reaction is a type of
CH3CH=Br+aq.KOH ~ CH}CH 20H + KBr

1) Addition reaction
2) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
3) Electrophilic substitution reaction
4) Free radical substitution reaction

97) R93n;~ ~ WflR ~ -


CH,CH 2Br+aq.KOH ~ CH3CH=O}-Lt1<Br
1) ~r+1CfJ ..~ ChT

2) ~ ·~il sWr?-ll'R31f~ ChT


3) ~r1Cfi;;! 'i Btt ~-ll'R31f~ ChT

4) ~1:f) 'Af"ll~:m~ ChT

98) How many moles of CO2 will be formed by the combustion of 1 mole of alkane, alkene and
separately

1) n from alkane, 2n from alkene & 3n from alkyne


2) 3n from alkane, n from alkene & 2n from alkyne
3) 11 from all
4) 2n from all

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98) 1~«C},'i, ~ ~ Q~I~'i ~ ~ 1 ~ ~ ~ B- CO) ~ ~ ~ ~ iliT-
1) ~ B- n, ~ B- 20 ~m q~iCf)I~'i B- 3n
2) ~ ~ 30, ~ B- n ~m qfiC!?I~'1B- 2n
3) wn B- n

4) "B'lt B 2n

99) Benzoic acid reacts with A and phenol reacts with B to form benzene. A and B respectively are -

1) Sodalime and Zn powder 2) Zn powder and sodalime


3) Zn powder and NaOH 4) Sodalime and copper

99) ~~JiI~Cf) \3Nf A ~ m~ ~ B ifl m~~ ~ ~ ~ ~I A ~ B :q)q~T: ~ I

1) B):sli+jf$l""l ~ f;JfCf) ~ 2) f;JfCf)~ ~ \1Igl«lI~~

3) ~ ~ ~ NaOH 4) (1'igl«lI~~ ~ ~

100) An alkene on ozonolysis forms acetone and formaldehyde. Alkene would be -

1) but-I-ene 2) but-2-ene

3) 2-methyl but-2-ene 4) 2-methyl propene

1) 9C-l-~ 2) G<fC-2-~

3) 2-irfWrr GlJ:C - 2-~ 4) :2..iTIS::.A ::TriA


e
10 I)Who is the author of book 'Veer- Vinod'?

1) Suryamal Mishran 2) Kesri Singh Barhath

3) Shyamal Das 4) Gauri Shankar Ojha


101) ~ 'em- fcRTc' ~ ~ fA@ TTt tiT ?

102) The term 'Misolithic' in its real literal sense means:

1) Middlcstone age 2) Middle Palaeolithic era


3) Upper Palaeolithic era 4) Lower Palaeolithic limes

102)'~-TCf!' ~~ Cfi1 cll{cifClCf) ~llf&Cf) ;6T31ci % -


1) l1'FJ:f QIISlIOICf)IMH~ 2) 1=j\'...IT 3, J I'.oW'll 0 I c.rMi1'1 TT

3)jC."q ~.FIQllSllol ~ 4) f~ 'iJlqlGJllJi cwrr

103) Who among the rulers of the following place adopted the title of rawal and maharawal -

1) Jodhpur 2) Dungarpur 3) Kota 4) Bikaner

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103) f..r9 ~ if -B ~ ~ ~"fR1Chl;rmT 7JClfff ~m '"l~I<I'*'1 ctt ~ %Uf -ctt ~ m-
1) \llt~ 2) ~1~3/ 3) ~ 4) ~

104) Who amongst the following was the founder of Kota State?

1) Rao Mukand Singh 2) Rao Madho Singh

3) Rao Ratan 4) Zalim Singh

3) m~
105) Which of the following Mughal ruler confirmed the title of 'Raj Rajeshwar' on Sawai Jai Singh?

1) Aurangzeb 2) Shahjahan

3) Bahadurshah 4) Muhammad Shah

4) ~ :m-g

106) Which one of the foUowing pairs is not correctly matched:


1) Rana Pratap - Sisodia 2) Raja Man Singh - Hada

3) Jaswant Singh - Rathore 4) Maharana hammir - Guhil

1) TfOT[ >Tt-=JTq - p~1.1'lld.2:!r 2) TfSfT l1R m - 01'31


7JfJTcfrr m - )161 J 4) l1Wlol1 *- ljfi!,M

107) Here is list of wars which were fought during medieval Rajasthan:
i) Tarain-I war ii) Khanwa
iii) Sarnel iv) Bhatwara
Their Chronological order is :
- .
1) i, iii. ii, iv 2) i, ii, iii, iv 3) iv, iii, ii, i 4) 111,11, I, IV

107) ~ ~ ~ c5r ftSI <fr ~ % :sIT li'UlChIMH TI3W-Tfl if rrr% 'lit 0" -
i) ~ - >Ti!fJ1 <F~ ii) @RCTf
iij)~ iv) ~
YfCm ChI@f)4OO! r'191'i~W ~ -
. . ..... .......
1) i, iii, ii, iv 2) i, ii, iii, iv 3) IV, Ill, II, 1 4) lll, 11, I, IV

23-~ 35

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108) With the correct name of the fortIDurgs against the places given below

1 ) Jaisalrner Mehrangarh

2) Jodhpur Junagarh

3) Shergarh Koshwardhan

4) Bikaner Sonargarh

108) ~~ 1:-l'.wIT $ '31PT ~ Bcifmr ~Jii.1IT· it ~ ~ ~ ~. % I


1) ;~~ ~Q~I;:PIq;

2) m'fJiY ~
3) ~TIT1G ~~
-,
4) cn~ '81'11 Jllq;

The main devotees of Saint Pabuji are -

1) Rebaris 2) Jats 3) Chhipa 4) Gurjar

2) \JfTC 3) tWn 4) ~

I) 2) Gitar 3) Veena 4) Sarangi

2) -rfrc;n- 3) cfrurr 4) T.fP1TI

The most celebrated examples of kota paintings are the -

fights scenes 2) Hunting scenes

scenes 4) Festive scenes

~1rrfr ~ IqCl'-1cH"ij 'j,@rt: '€; -


1,
1 : ~ ~ ~~<:{ 2) f~TChIT ~ ~~<:{
4) '3(Bq ~9<:{

11
1 1 with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below:
..I List - II
Hamiduddin Mitthe Mahabali i) Jaipur
Ziauddin ii) Gagraun
c) Najmuddhi iii) Khatu
Baba Ishaque iv) Fatehpur

... ..
I r, i, V. 111 2) i, ii, iii, iv 3) 111, 11, 1, lV 4) iv, iii, ii, i

----.-.--~--.-.---------------------------------
36

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112) ~ >f~ ~ ~-~ ciT~ l:lCi ;:fr€)- m 7]"it ciTs ~ i}fT~ 1:J1 B#r ~ CflT ~ ~ -

~-! wft-II
a) ~ i'll"j"'I§'iH ~ 1ii'lIGll:ri)1 i) ~
b) ~ fVj<:JI3?{H ii) 1JTlTfR

c) !?T& 'i\l'l:iil'i iii) ~


"\
d) !IT@~~ iv) ~

1) ii, i, iv, iii 2) i, ii, iii, iv 3) iii, ii, i, iv 4) iv, iii, ii, i

113) Which one of the following fort is the best example of water fort?
1) Kota 2) Achalgarh 3) Gagraun 4) Shahbad

113) A-9 ~ it "B ~ ,*'19,11 CflT 3nl1 :)(::10'01 % I

1) ciTa 2) ..~ 3) ~ 4) !I~

114) The ruler and Saint Peepa was associated which place?

1) Amber 2) Varanasi 3) Jayal 4) Gagraun

3) ~ 4)~

115) Which one of the following statement regarding the Sringar Chanvari is right?
1) It is a shrine which was built by mandan in 1489 AD.
2) It is a secular movement built by Rana Kumbhain 1448.
3) It is a temple built by Vimal Jain at Delwara in 1402 AD.
4) It is a shrine built by Bhandari Velka in 1448-49AO.

115) ~W ~ it "Bctt:[ if f:-i ~ fVi ft:~i'i riA TITCf)~ Btt:r % I


1) % ~'Cf) ~"{0'f g fJif4 ~ ~ 1489 t it ~ m 1
2) % ~ ~
(~Q1 ~~ g L'1ij 'lDTf ~
',. ..--.;>
-2r 1448 t. -qG~
,
2.TT I
3) % ~ l=jfu %" f~'1{4 ~ ~ -2r 1402 if ~Mq,,?, if ~ en I
4) % ~ tllRCfl T~ g ~1il "ius,SI ~{"'1l1 ~ 1448-49 t if ~ 2.TT I

116) The famous 'Sita Bari' fair is celebrated in the district of

1) Kota 2) Barrner 3) Baran 4) Chi ttorgarh

1) ciTa .2)~ 3) qm

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117) Raniji-ice-Baori was constructed by .in during the reign of Raja .

1) By Hadi rani in 1680 AD during of the reign of Rao Aniruddh Singh


2) By Bhimsingh in 1705 AD during the period of Buddsingh
3) By Lad Kunwari in 1708 AD during the reign of Ramsingh
4) By Lad kunuwari in 1700 AD during the reign of Buddhsingh

117) ?FIT-:sfr-riT-~ COT~ ----------- it £mT fA ----------- ii TIGlT ?t s~ CfWf if ~ TPn m -

1) ~?FIT £mT 1680 t ii m .~ ffu; it CfiWr ii


2) ~ £mT 1705 ~. if m~ ~ it Cf)TIif if
3) (1l9 m £mT 1708 ~.iT nq fin';it qm;'f if
4) ~ m &m 1700 t if ~ ffif; it ~ ii
1] 8) Who was the first chancellor of 'Chamber of Princes'?
1) Maharao Bhim Singh 2) Karni Singh

3) Gaj Singh 4) Ganga Singh

118) '~m fSffi;sr' cpr >T~' ~ etA m ?


4) rrn- m
119) The treaty between the Mewar and British was signed on -

1) 8 March, 18] 8 2) 12 January, 1818

3) 10 March, 1817 4) 10 March. 1818


] 19) £jell,? ~ ~ it -qu.r m~~
1:)7 ~wn: ~::f)2t Tfir if -
1) 8 l1TCf. 1818 2) J2 J1+-1 S'!, 1818 3) 10 1:fl7i, 1817 4) ]O~, 1818

Bharatpur and Alwar States signed a treaty with British East India company in -

1) Sept - Nov, 1803 2) Aug - OcL 1804

3) Jan - Feb, 1804 4) March - May, 1806

1) ~ - ~ 1803 ii 2) 3:rT0 -}jCf~cF. 1804 if


-:fA - ~. 1804 ii 4) rwJ -~, 1806 if

12l) The Rajputana Agency was established in at .

1) 1835, Nagaur '"')


1. 1
> Jodhpur 3) 182(), Jaipur 4) 1832, Ajmer
(0.:

121) '(\Ji\{oi'il ~ ctr ~ -------.---- if .3fr: --------------- if rt tit -


1) 1835, ~ 2) 1830, ir~ 3) ]829, ~ 4) 1832, ~

23 ~ A. 38

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122) Mewar Rajya Praja mandaI was established in by .

1) 20 April, 1938 by Balwant Singh Mehta


2) 24 April, 1940 By Manakyalal Verma
3) 24 April, 1938 by Balwant Singh Mehta
4) 20 April, 1938 by Jamnalal Bajaj

122)~ ~-~ ~ em "{~ ---------- "# ----------- % &m ctr ~ m-


1) 20 ..~ 1938, ~ ~ n ,91~.1
2) 24 ..~ 1940, l1I01Cf''lMIM cp:rf ,91~1

3) 24 ~ 1938, ~ ~ nal~1
4) 20 ~ 1938, Jll1"1IMIM CfJlTJj" al~1

123) Which one of the following incident was called as 'dyrism double distilled' by Mahatma Gandhi?
1) Neemuchana incident of May, 1925
2) Chandaval incident of March, 1942
3) Dabda incident of March, 1947 •
4) Barda incident of June, 1922

1) 4'll1-q I011 'C1Oi[, ~ 1925 iT


3) 51"1$1 iT~, ~. 1947

124) The famous 'Akki movement' was led

1) Govindgiri 2) MOlilal

3) Sadhu Sitaram 4) Keshari Singh Barhat

125) To finalize the issue of the capital of new Rajasthan a committee was constituted under the
presidentship of -

1 ) Lt. colonel. TC. Puri 2) B.P. Menon


3) B.R. Patil 4) Shankar Rao

125) -;::rq ~ em TIG1~ CfiTTff (;iiT ChJ~~ 'f5 1J~tl CfiT'TUl f:h~ JI"~I!i.HG-H"1Cn}fl'E,1tT ~ -

1) #T. m it.m. Tt 2) cfr.<Tr. ~


. .
4) ~TC57JfCf Gq

39
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In terms of area how many times larger is the Jaisalmer district than the Dholpur district of Rajasthan?

1) 15.22 times 2) 16.66 times 3) 12.66 times 4) 11.22 times

126) ~~'if ~JR CfJT dhwlq{ ~ ~ 8m"fr ~ GfST %?

1) 15.22"TlTT 2) 16.66 "TlTT 3) 12.66:rm 4) 11.22:rm

127) Arrange the following mountain peaks of Aravallis in descending order of their height-
1) Jarga, Achalgarh, KumbhaJgarh, Raghunatbgarh
2) Jarga, Raghunathgarh, Kumbhalgarh, Achalgarh
3) Achalgarh, Raghunathgarh, Jarga, Kumbhalgarh
4) Kumbhalgarh, AchaJgarh, Jarga, Raghunathgarh

127):w:TcwTI c8 F'"l9R1fuld ~ -~ c€r ~~:ql{ ~ ·wRttr ~ it ~ ~ -


I) ~-rrrrr, .~, ~~, ~~
2) ~, ~~, ~~,~~
3) .~, ~~, \JP1TI, Cfl~
4) ~~, ~, \JflTTT, ~~

128) Which one of the following pairs correctly denotes latitudinal-longitudinal extent of Rajasthan?
Latitudinal Extent Longitudinal Extent
1) 23°31 to 30 121N 0
70°461 to 77° 171E
2) 23°3Ito30012iN 69°301 to 78° 171 E
3) 24°3 to 30°11 N
1 1
69°31 to 78° 171 E
1

23"3! to 30°11 N 1
70°451 to 79° J 71 E

f~fMPsF1 if B 1~!+BT 1<1i Tf3f{~m ~3im~TN - GJ~ fcr:<w- eN @ 'k'q -B G:~1trr %'-';
3lm~fu:i fcr«m ~~l'R1fmfcrttm
1) 23°31 -B 30° 121~ 70°461 it 77° 17! 'ti
2) 23°31 -B 30° 121 3W 69°301 it 78°171 ~
3) 23°3i-B 3(JOlll 0Ti7 69°31 78'17 Tf
1 ~ 1

4) 23°31 B 30°111 ~ 7oo4Si -B 79°171 qcT

) 29) Structurally, the physical features of Rajasthan form part of which of the following relief regions of
India?
1) Northern Great Plains. Peninsular Plateau
2) Northern Mountain Region, Northern Great Plains
3) Coastal Plains, Peninsular Plateau
4) Peninsular Plateau, Northern Mountain Region

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129) B{ill'1I(41Cf) ~ if ~ it ~ ~ 'lffi(f it H9mfu!Cl it if fclR3-cilICJ-q ~~iT ClJTfre:rr ~ I
1) \3nfr ~ ifa:R, SlI<uil41~ tfOR
2) \3nfr ~ ~~T, \3nfr ~ ifa:R
3) ~ ftG:R, !>l1~tl41~ tfOR
4) !>l1~&1Y"I<:j
CfOIT, ;:mil ~ ~~T

130) Which one of the following plateaus is not connected with Aravalli mountain -

1) Lasadia Plateau 2) Oria Plateau

3) Baghelkhand Plateau 4) Bhorat Plateau

2) ~ CfOIT

131) The river which after entering Rajasthan from south flows westwards and again turns southwards is

1) Mahi 2) Kali Sindh 3) Chambal 4) Luni

131) %~~~ itGfuar-B~T m~~~~ CfiT·3ffi ~ ~Tf: Gf~ CfiT.3ffi~ ~t-


.1) ~ 2) ~ fu-.-u 3) ~ 4) ~

132) Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?


1) Chambal Project - Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh
2) Narmada Project - Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh
3) Mahi Bajaj Sagar Project-Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
4) Beas Project - Rajasthan, Haryana

"_L~2) 1<1'TJf(ijfu!\iif if ~-m <Fl B#t ~ %: ?

1) ~ R"'
q~'4l\l1'11 - ~..TT'1", ~~T •
2) ~ qP'41\i1'11 - ~..TT'1", ~~T
3) l:JTtt ~ B"f1l1 QR'4liHI, ~..TT'1", B~:1T

4) C2:ffi1 qR~'I\i1'11 - ~..TT'1", 6Pi:Jlull

133) River Khari Originating from the Bijral Hills form part of which one of the following drainage
systems?

1) Bay of Bengal 2) Arabic Ocean


3) Uncertain drainage 4) Internal drainage

2) 3RGf ~ 4) .~ .:w::rclm

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134) Which one of the following climatic regions proposed by Koppen is not correctly matched int
Rajasthan?
1) Aw Southern part of Rajasthan
2) Cwg Northern part of Rajasthan
3) BWhw - Arid desert
4) BShw - Semi-arid desert

134) ~ &m >RWl ~ ~~if if ~ ~ if ctR-m ~ %i % ?


1) Aw - ~ C!?T c:f&lDfr 'lWT
2) Cwg - ~ C!?T ~ 'lWT
3) BWhw- ~~
r
4) BShw -. i3l8:-~ ~

135) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?


1) Udaipur - Chittorgarh - Red - black soils
2) Alwar - Jaipur - Loam soils
3) Sri Ganganagar - Hanumangarh - Grey Sandy soils
4) Kota - Jhalawar - Black soils

1)jd<493 - f-2l-ciI~ll~ - fiWil-~ F@


2) .~-~-~F@
3) -31Pj11H11J - ~j111"Plif - "ifr Glr1{ R{r
4) ill - $1 1«11q Iis - CfiTffi F@

136) What is the root cause responsible for scarce rain in western Rajasthan?
1) Location of the region in rain shadow zone
2) Sudden incoming of south-east moisture-ladden winds over an intensely heated landmass
3) Mechanism of the Indian Monsoon
4) Orientation of the Aravalli mountain range

136) qf~~ ~ if ~ cr:n- ~ ~ sCj /.d.l4"1~ 0T~m CflRUT cp:rr %- ?

1) ~ t9Tm ~~T if ~ em·~


2) .31ffi 31JJT ~-@Jg 1:R GfzyJT-~ ·3iI~dlqltl QClT.3ft ::m31IChR'""iCh ~~T
3) ~ ~ CfiT ~f2h<QIc1';1
c

4)·~~~em~

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137) How much area of Rajasthan would get the benefit of irrigation by Indira Gandhi Canal on its
completion?

1) 17.41 lacs hectare 2) 11.63 lacs hectare


3) 15.17 lacs hectare 4) 19.65 lacs hectare

1) 17.41 ffi@ ~ 2) 11.63 ffi@ ~

3) 15.17 ffi@ ~ 4) 19.65 ffi@ ~

138) How are the soils of western Rajasthan get impregnated with acid and alkaline elements?

1) By water flow in soils


2) By water capillary action through cells from lower layers to upper layers of soils
3) By leaching of soils
4) By percolation of water from upper layers to lower layers of soils

1) ~ ~ ~ (flow of water) ft
2) ~ em ~ ~ ft ?i)o/ em .~ crn~m:mill1T ~ fn:nq (capillary action of water through
cells) B
3) 114~1 ~w=r~ (leaching) B
4) ~ em ~ ~ B -11-i:l "ir .3W- ~ fn-wT (water percolation) B

139) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of forest types in Rajasthan in descending order
-c.,

of area occupied by each?

1) Dry deciduous - mixed deciduous - tropical thorn - sub-tropical evergreen


2) Mixed deciduous - dry deciduous - tropical thorn - sub-tropical evergreen
3) Sub-tropical evergreen - mixed deciduous - dry deciduous - tropical thorn
4) Tropical thorn - sub-tropical evergreen - mixed deciduous - dry deciduous

139) ~~ ~ ,~ ~ -# TIJR~ -# Cfl ~ "ir cFR-m 0111Cj 11 c '1iT %?


1) sJXfJ qOlql~1 f1:rf~ ~ - jWIChlecHit-q ~ - ?iTmT ChlcqrUV-r i=jcli?r(1
2) f?ff~ qorqlJI - ~ ~ - .jWIChfcqrUV-r ~ - '3'iTmT ~'i'ir:r J1CIi?I~'i
3) ~ Ch\2C1rtTm- flG:ltPd - fi:rP-fCf ~ - s~ ~ - ?;OJ[ ChlcClrtTm- 4JiC:ciJ.
4)
~r:+::l9>r.=r::"ft.:n- ~
2,w I Cbfc3h-ll Y '.of II '--'" I' - ~
-, ~
enI C Gl~
r>.
nGI i?f··I 'i -
~>
I +i I J?;f<l
C r-. r
trJTl:lTrlT - ~l1Lfl qur::r[rff
r

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140) In which of the following wildlife ecosites in Rajasthan bio-diversity and genepool conservation
programme is currently in progress?

1) Bundi, Tal chhapar, Phulwari-ki-Nal, Band Baretha


2) Nahargarh, Sajjangarh, Sariska, Mt. Abu
3) Sitamata, Kumbhalgarh, keladevi, keoladeo Ghana
4) Keoladeo Ghana, laisammand Lake, Mukundarrah Hills, Ranthambhor

140) ~-WT if H9WtRsl<1if B fcrn ClMQu-fIClcnfm~ - ~--Tffi rn: ~ if ;Jrq fufc:rmn ~ ~ m~


r~ ~?
q)f ~ ~'II\l tR t? •

1) ~, (ffiff ~, ~w:lIfl ctr-~. GPWor


2) "l1t\{JI\1>, flJ\J1'-PI\1>, ~. <=rf31JC31~
3) B'ii:1Ilil<1l,~~, 'tn01~cll, ChCl01dCj CFIT
4) ChC!MI~Cj"t:fTI, \J1<:!W"I;e: ~. :l,~ qt\l$i, "VJT~~

141) The districts of Rajasthan where the perfumed grass Khas is grown in abundance -

1) Jhalawar, Bundi, Kota


2) Bhilwara, Ajmer, Chittorgarh
3) Bharatpur, Tonk, Sawai Madhopur
4) Karauli, Alwar, Dholpur

141) TIJW-WT ~ ~ fJWr ~ iSPJ ~ ctr i.j} 11~'Q0 t:rTB >rpill if ~ :g -


1) $lIMql'$. ®, c8cr 2) iiINjCjI,?I.~. fT~ril?%
3) ~. ifcF;. ~ 11IJI9/ 4 )en J I ~;jl.~. tiwr:p-
142) Where is the 'hurnpbelt' infested with the problem of tluol-esces located in Rajasthan?

1) Nagaur - Ajmer 2) Banswara - Dungarpur

3) Bharatpur - Alwar 4) Tonk - Dausa

. .
1) ~-~ 2) cW1ClI::1 - ~

3) ~-.~ 4) eien - dl{"ll

143) What is the root cause of desertification in Rajasthan?

1) Salinity of underground water 2) Uncontrolled mining


3) Scarcity of rainfall 4) Climatic changes
)

143) 7J\fR~ if ~~MICf){OI q)f ~ cmror CfaT :g ?


1) ~ 'JRif c8 ~ 2)3"lf1af~ii ~
3) crsTIttt ~ 4) :-;:r,:;r;::n-r
v""'1I:j
qPCld'i
\

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144) Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists -
List - I List - II
(Areas in Rajasthan) (Animal Breeds)
i) North-western Rajasthan a) Rathi
ii) South-western Rajasthan b) Kankrej
iii) Westem Rajasthan c) Tharparkar
iv) South-east central Rajasthan d) Gir
Code
1) (i) c (ii) b (iii) a (iv) d 2) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d

3) (i) a (ii) b (iii) d (iv) c 4) (i) b (ii) c (iii) d (iv) a

144) ~ I ~ II B~ ~ ~m ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ CfiT m q){ Btt ~ ~ -


~I ~II
(~~~) (~~~)
i) ~-<m~ ~'4R a) utr
. '\
ii) c::mUf-1mT.f4t ~~ b) Cf')1Cf')N'1

iii)~~~ c) ~1{ql{Cf){

iv) ~fUT-~ ~ ~ d) rn-


~-

1) (i) c (ii) b (iii) a (iv) d 2) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d

3) (i) a (ii) b (iii) d (iv) c 4) (i) b (ii) c (iii) d (iv) a

145) Of the following National Highways passing through Rajasthan which National Highway is the
longest within Rajasthan territory?

1) NH 11 2) NH 12 4) NH 8

145) ~-T\rf ir <prR cnir f'i9fi1llo/f ~ {1~'1Ii(l"tl if "# ~-BT ~ ~ ~ ~'l1rT if ~


~% ?

1) ~~ 11 2) ~~ 12
3) ~~ 15 4)~~8

146) American cotton in Rajasthan is produced in which of the districts?


1) Kota, Bundi, Baran
2) Ihalwara, Ajmer, Sirohi
3) Rajsarnmand, Udaipur, Chittorgarh
4) Banswara, Hanumangarh, Sriganganagar

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146) ~ it 0li:'tRCfi'i cmm "CfiT3(q~ fclr:f ~ it mw ~?
1) ~, ~, cn-ti 2) ~1\'1lql!$, ~, ~

3) < I\iPA11'<; , ~, R1Jp$JI<:? 4) CliflC4191, 6j/WPIq>, .l3Tllj111'iJH

147) Minerals in which Rajasthan holds monopoly in the country -

1) Gamet, Wollastonite, Granite, marble


2) Jasper, Gamet, Feldspar, Gypsum
3) Jasper, Gamet, Emerald, Wollastonite
4) Jasper, Gamet, Marble, Lead-Zinc

147) if &R\if fiR·if ~-lR cnT:e:~T it ~ ~-


1) ~, ~#1+iHI~c, ~, fjJII1{I1{

2) ~, ffil191, tn08QI{, ~

3) -,
\iW=ITI, ffil191, \FIT, ':1«1"'RH I~c
4) ~, ffil191, ~jll1<I1{, BruT-\Jf@

148) The first irrigation project of Rajasthan in which sprinkler irrigation system has been adopted to
conserve water -
1) Yamuna Water Irrigation Project
2) Narmada Canal Project
3) Siddhmukh Nohar Project
4) Bhikhabhai Sagwara Canal Project

148) <~ c€l % >f~ ~ qfJclisFtI M{1~' ~ W~ %Q 1:f)Cqffi ~ ~ cit ':w:RTm 1FTI ~ -
1) ~ ~ fW.nt qn£il\iHI 2) m ~ qP£i)\Ji'il

149) What is the length of roads per 100 square kilometers in Rajasthan?

1) 56 kilometers 2) 50 kilometers 3) 60 kilometers 4) 72 kilometers

149) ~ it >ffil 100 cpf f2i?(f1~I41c~ ~ r:r: ~ c€r ~~ ~ % ?


1) 56 f2!:wiP4IcJ 2) 50 f~"C?: 3) 60 fctwi'P4lcJ,
150) Which one of the following statements regarding contribution in mineral production of Rajasthan
is not true?
1) Rajasthan produces cent-per cent Wollastonite of India
2) Rajasthan produces 96 per cent Fluorite of India
3) Rajasthan produces 75 per cent Rock-phosphate of India
4) Rajasthan produces 90 per cent Jasper of India

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150) ~ C@ ~ ~ it ~ it ~ H9WtRS!" ti B riR-m Cf)~ ~ % ?
1) U\JR~ mm C@ ~m-~~"Rf i'i~(-il'1I~c \ffi4 ClffiTI ~
2) ~ 'I1ITC1 96 ~~Kl CRTi>HI~c i30Ff CRffi %
3) U\IW.:wf 'l1mf Cl5T 75 ~~"Rf ~ ~ ~ ~ ~

4) ~ 'q"f@ C@ 90 ~~"Rf -&wm: ~ Cfm[T %

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