eee errr rn PIENTR BIE-E ar CR) her 2096 Cierirs =carnaes gay AGE oT LIB) IRS Z Car YR) (BEZBE ~ her Hee PA ao daante 2018 sengficenr era A meee 205005 srergficrat ~ 11 WRN WH: 100 aa 1 (um ae ara quararcira variate / famakaieart = ger qu: 100 =r () Be HETyferie_ 100 sifted wa ona, sean wate aa fofkoares qeara aware a weaghtata wd we ante far aes ara ent wer eal ws ara at em sree iu wr (2) aren terse eee : 2 Rear afr foe sara sant bisialhie @) Render wergtecan serie Goren sabia fare anit seafasate arta y RereTAT TAG TAT. @) ( avegatdte were werner 4 vet sat qatach ore vara 1, 2,3 SP 4 od aber ROS on. TA eC anita wala ara saws ani saMTate PATA TTT SAM TE FI. AM THR seeafibat sreonnics ae aaa ah Sa fl wea TN Brice HA eater RS aA aera TA, “areata re arrose vga aise area, Sees ar age oa aT Te, (a) arate er Ferrera art aera gH rear Rel Sees OMe, TIT Pere west HT HTT aT ore ereorigSs faint Pater rear vient sreara, Seay Beha WET oretttes were aga waren, ©) sewer ear yy sired, arc wd esi scents, unbyes ae eo rete ae ere ate ea Fra] wet eT TH ATT WEA HAT EET RTT AST UAT TA Berek meee sen rca ene here er Ree tee EH UT Tee (6) seca rt eR BR se he one Me SS ae TA TR RTT A THO OTE TE, Wie sean aegis aguatet eamarem vette ere a sea ata ae serrapTarT| aye wets. seat afer WH UH Ga TATA CHT WETS Tor aa | rue van weraverdh ator fate Sri San sele meefces nce mre are Uterenanra Biaanren whee arnwara auara aa atk. Gt aw deta vat weTUPe ST wa/aet, feo wax verghcaddte ard aera Hore eae UeteT aT seaeaeTaUt mrorendt seria pent, wee was act Bt I aT sett gett aoTar oraRtaT wTAATT wrt @oer “wtatae gorea teenie wien acoarararen afetrer-s2" anit TGRER ara wales aren aadiqer ara awa age @ ahi oad ae oH en oeratsarers aawararet & weagitren afer ara ett aren reife sae anfremargare errand aoa ages a ete et fer ora eke witerniean qatar & die sre 7a2 A ‘wea HITE APT/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 3 N12 1. wide faur fran ea : wre Beare Prise afi (@) ada wares TeqelgaR ata Fev Tet a, (&) Feren Saree) fra SRTeSara AYET TA aA, () Fer dante were weiter Aorien sixeararenite del saree ae Teva sre. aie faarsitat sr’ faears/3 aia sea? Q) @) anf) Q) FTO) 8) @ afr) (4) @), ) sa) Consider the following statements : In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee - (a) Is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India, (b) Prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area. (©) Has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area, Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (@) @) and (b) (2) ) only @) @and (©) (4) (@), ®) and () 2. SRA archer saree wea Here ifs wwe LTT eT? Q) aa (2) eee @) sera (4) Yad Which among the following cities the First Municipal Corporation was set up in India 7 (i) Madras (2) Delhi (@) Calcutta (4) Mumbai 3. WTS wa wee wer Frakes ard fit ara sere set SoaAK Heat ame? (Q) 242 (K) (2) 344 (Ky (3) 243 (K) (4) 324 According to which of the following Article of the Constitution, the State government has created the State Election Commission at the state level ? (1) 242 (K) (2) 344 (K) (3) 243 (K) (4) 324 em Hara AI/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.NIZ 4 A 4, we fafinicoren fernfierraad aMtotat sro four gaits oe? (1) a faieisoren wenyercn arreere Bent dor safer sO are Dare OTA WH faftvisary fats afar fee onea, Q) Tre 2 tds 1 fafvisarr wafer aM seca Ware wa ud fafinigers Faas oaftran fee arta. (3) RAPPER wep arp ere YRreT sre rove Sal Seas ace Ae AT. (4) reat ene set Which one of the following statements regarding the privileges of the State legislature is false ? (1) The Constitution has extended the privileges of the State legislature to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of the State legislature. (2) The Constitution has also extended the privileges of the state legislature to the governor who is also an integral part of the State legislature. @) No person can be arrested within the precincts of the House without the permission of the presiding, officer. (4) None of the above 5, fara (A): Feri Wa arenen Hoe Teer GFR er. faurt (R): Fert wr tieizara wp sr. (1) rete (a) suftr (Ry farer attere ara snfin (RY & fare (A) A ates exter sa, (2) Sete (A) sun (Ry farm stat area eg (RR) @ Fae (A) Sas ere ATA, @) FUR (A) ata Tg (Re AITAL (4) fava (A) SRT ig (RY @ FIT, Statement (A) : The Chief Minister can dismiss a minister of the State government. Statement (R) : ‘The Chief Minister is the head of the State Council of ministers. (1) Both (A) and (R) statements are true and (R) is the cosrect explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) statements are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). (3) Statement (A) is true but (R) is false. (4) Statement {A) is false but (R) is true. ‘area srATETSt SIET/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK6. arial aia fart eae ome? () far ade eaeict ene den feareien wp ager deren cH TdaiT ora. Q) unde walt fauna Vets eect faa deem 40 fad Hoch ane, @) few auger doe aes aware ofiran weeds one. 4) See oearen aereagan way snfiy aifsrcen fae gees 36 AGRA sea, ‘Which one of the following statements is false ? (1) The maximum strength of the legislative council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the Assembly. 2) The minimum strength of the legislative council is fixed at 40 by the Constitution of India. @) The President is authorised to modify the scheme of composition of a legislative Council. (@) The Legislative Council of Jammu and Kashmir has 36 members under the provision of its ovin state Constitution. 7. ‘sifas ura Safa’ ora em? Q) Wet sae Ae 2) FER ay we 3) Satan sitea (4) SL wig wae ‘Who is the father of ‘All India Services’ ? (2) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehra (2). Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel @) Dr. BR. Ambedkar (4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 8. Ror aie deh afePeagER sae Caren wea wan aviten safes arorardt wee TT Wawa? 0) 4a a after deer sf 1978 (2) 48 a1 afar Seem afafrary 1984 (3) 59 aT afar detent after: 1988 (4) 62 a afar deter safer 1989 Under which Constitution Amendment Act the President can introduce President's rule for more than one year in a Slate ? (i) 44" Constitution Amendment Act, 1978 2) 48" Constitution Amendment Act, 1984 (3) 59 Constitution Amendment Act, 1983 (4) 624 Constitution Amendment Act, 1989 ‘WAT HUTA AM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO.NI2 6 A 9. ardetat amen anise arava ware 42 oT werebettgh wee ATE? (1) senior Frit fromrerendt Bet fata act QQ) Tafa gerd a are deat ect oat a a Fete ay deer wea, Q) 3, Ta, del-eaen anfor cei ante fasaa ait act @) shetfie errant armen aoa aftcaa see Tei we, Which one of the following Directive Principles was not added through the 42"4 Constitutional, Amendment ? (1) To secure opportunities for healthy development of children. (2) To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life. (3) To minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities. (4) To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries, 10, Bren ace a, wala =r PKR eae nfo testes aed Gt ere anf anes Severe wars Bord 3 Gian yO ware wee Sa aa saree’. Ser efter feerarcen Ba? Q) tema weer Q) Seevig wrett weet @) wad Fer fa, aR BER (4) fad eens oar FS. st TT In which case did the Honourable Supreme Court take the view that the ‘Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are the two wheels of the chariot as an aid to make social and economic democracy a truism’ ? (1) Golak Nath Case (2) Keshavananda Bharati Case (3) Shankari Prasad Vs Union of India (4) _Jilubhai Nanbhai Khachar Vs State of Gujarat Vi. fad aiprerara are fast (a) SRE safes earrTeTs Behe res SUTETST ars HO TE, (b) 6 More anf gee te Ferien Ga area a, (9 atatrsn-aeerict Tae weudiags Beha oT, (@) Fer 280 oy Tgetgar Fatih. wait sat: Q) ©, af) Q © SIE —_@B)_ (@),) af (©) (4) (@) af (ay ‘The correct statements about Finance Commission (a) It is an act, as the balancing wheel of Indian fiscal federalism. (&) It consists of a Chairman and three other members. : (©) Qualifications of the members of the Commission are determined by the President. (dj It is constituted under the provision of article 280. Answer options : (1) and) (2) (b) and (©) 8) @), (b) and (©) (4) (@) and (@) wreat cArararat HIT/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 12, 7 Ni2 ra Galilei Ag ara faa ae ee: (2) WOTaA agua 20a er wR Fe at aGaite Fay a Utaged Tea TAS RK Q) swt eh qian age ae ae i BS Hh aged fas wo ode AES FAS TH @) Fe TETR arte fee a @) a hice aa aeoard ofa a The Central Government can legislate on subject of State list (1) If Parliament declares a state list subject to be a subject of national importance by majority vate. (2) If Rajya Sabha declares a state subject to be a subject of national importance by 2/3 majority. (3) If President issues an order. (4) If Union Council of Ministers decided to do so. 13. 14, Sania afarars 30a gas aeerart recon wfseart aes sea, (1) 120 2) 90 3) 50 (4) 150 No-Confidence motion, to be admitted in the Lok Sabha, needs the support of members. @) 120 @ 99 @) 50 (4) 150 erdiotsh wim} Afirew anfir care wha & Yoo wet? (Q) Sree srfirr - tater waren Q) BEM Bigs fee vad - fafen waren (3) arent ara wed - ites ore @) =ein qaftces - ottéer TEA Which of the following features and their source is wrongly matched ? (Q) Rule of Law - British Constitution (2) Procedure Established by Law - _British Constitution B) Due Process of Law - US. Constitution 4) Judiciat Review - US. Constitution ‘Weal WTA BMT/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.O,NI2 15. 8 A fare (A) afin aaccur (Ry etre gata rarer — feat (A): aria waren and iaewarare om, SAT (R) + wri GAR or waar he oar afters sara sere HS He. watet wat (2) (a) Safa (Ry SE UR ata area nin (QB fae (A) aT aera airy greta Te, (2) (A) Safer (R) aaa fark aetae ones Hea (R) @ fae (A) aT aera aq eet are. (3) (A) 8 Faure ater ont ra (Ry % faery RTA one, (4) (A) 2 fa gate ome Wg (R) @ fur ataz or. Assertion (A) and Reason (R), Choose the correct option : Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India is quasifederal. Reason (RJ: It has given more powers to the Central Government than to the State Governments. Answer options : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). 3) (A) is true but (R) is false. (4) (A) is false but (R) is true. 16. feral tart astten era farmed wfea Tr sieeve sree enh are __ Q) aden gait ofan ie ade Bet (2) Aidt sara ge (3) fretes aarirar ae arewartast ait are 4) Fe wd During the Third Five Year Plan period, the development process ran into serious difficulties because of a (1) the process of agricultural growth had slowed down (2) large trade deficit (3) _ net saving rate, instead of rising further slumped down (4) all the above ‘wear waa APT /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 9 NI2 17, \2ea Waenfias atrrar ae ae ee, (1) SHH ON) Meh Feds Q) Free eos Tear afin wef aA (3) safaeraa ware sf war eT TAS HTT (4) Rew 12 Five Year Plan emphasises on (1) inclusiveness as poverty eradication (2) inclusiveness as group equity and regional balance (3) focus on income inequality and inclusiveness as empowerment (4). all the above 18. WA Gar Galwtan sme sreratiardl geet aenftes aor odie Hct? Q) 1980-85 (2) 1979-84 @) 1978-83 (4) 1977-82 For which of the following period, VI‘ Five Year Plan was armounced by Janata Party ? (1980-85 2) 1979-84 @) 1978-83 (4) 1977-82 19, ter teenie art qlotat short steed set? @ Salas get 0) waa () arate =r watet sat: @) FR (a) orf (b) 2) aR (a) safc) @) FR) anf @) ate wd Which of the following were the objectives of IV* Five Year Plan ? (a) Growth with stability (b) Self-reliance (©) Social Justice Answer Options : QQ) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (@) and (c) 3) Only (b) and (0) (4) Allof the above ‘wee wIMTATs STT/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.N12 10 A 20, area ofecaian serdar safer meee ferare 8 sfixe forarea Soar se. Q) 10 ah decaf at Q) 11 at aah ator @) 7 at dente ater (4) 12 & dante aisar =* the first plan which states the objectives of inclusiveness and sustainability of growth, (1) 10 Five Year Plan (2) 11" Five Year Plan (3) 7! Five Year Plan (4) 12" Five Year Plan 2. omits and San arch can cacti we stem 3d Weed declare a daetet ea 1839 at arta aa. (1) fader Q) Aer (3) afar safetdtes (4) Afracaanter Anti-slavery International, one of the world’s oldest international human rights organisation was founded in 1839 by activists, (1) British (2) Belgian (3) South African (4) Mexican 22. 24 site 2018 toi dawert te Ate at wanna Boea ‘oreesh A er’ a TRA Saw FT area? @) fasta th @ afraw @) wean fie @) fade Har fT Who is the author of the book ‘Atal Ji Ne Kaha’ that was released by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 24 August, 2018 ? (@) Brijendra Rehi 2) Sumit Rawat (@) Ranveer Sinha (4) Vivek Kumar Singh ‘wreat wrATaTst APM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA ee N12 FERAa 2019 safe 2020 aret srearh weer FU Fes ge se? (1) Sein, ete, Be, Aiea sata Feat 2) charm antic, gq, we, atten ont diss (3) Fae, Fhe, Stier fess, eH anf ater 4) fim sifra, afesrs, wit, deter ont Stefan feafeoas Which of the following five countries are elected for the two years term i.e. 2019 and 2020 as a non-permanent members of UN Security Council ? (Q) Ethiopia, Indonesia, Peru, Belgium and Italy (2) South Africa, Kuwait, Germany, Bolivia and Poland @) Kawait, Indonesia, Dominican Republic, Germany and Sweden (4) South Africa, Belgium, Germany, Indonesia and Dominican Republic 24. wert sift fama teaion wedtardt store Tet sea sn aA ATH aT Fare ainda qafinta nf fara (BRD) sien Fat 420 crea sas Sed WEST aTTAT SRA He TET? Q) werry Q sac vea @ wer (@) maser Which State Government and Government of india has signed agreement with World Bank's International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) a US $ 420 million project to help small and marginal farmers ? (2) Maharashtra (2) Uttar Pradesh (3) Rajasthan (4): Madhya Pradesh. 25. sifent srar$q-2018 (90 A) Faden araa Grete? aro set atte aT? 0) igs afr - wre deere Q) Rape aerae sf — fear opt Q) Fake afta - at shes @ Wipe cere afr - gal giteat Which of the following pairs is mismatched about Oscar Award Winners-2018 (90%) 2 (1) Best Actress Frances McDormand. (2) Best Supporting Actress - Allison Janney (3) Best Actor - Gary Oldman (4) Best Supporting Actor - Woody Harrelson ‘wea arrest HPM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK bra TO.N12 12 : A 26, afeorsa (ater 2018) fet ca ai err ag Feu Praaet aware are. () ser (2) afer dae (@) atfem @) aRds Recently (September 2018) Hima Das was appointed as the sports ambassador of (2) Assam (2) West Bengal (3) Odisha (4) fharkhand 27. ‘aRaea eckrS' arad reset ated fers genta Te? 28. QC) Soe stccrsia o-geata den args et ere 1995 art we one, fora eres Yas, were BA on’, (2) at weran sracr Preaie wafer eda are, G) 2017 31, FeviegeR sleds w wire wala fara we fH one. (4) 2017 ar write wera srner freiaTGEK WTA TIF 81 8 sue, ‘Which one of the following statements is incorrect about “Transparency International’ ? (2) Iis an international non-governmental organisation founded in 1995, which is based in Paris, France. (2) It publishes the corruption perception index. (3) As per index for 2017, New Zealand is the least corrupt country in the world. (4) India ranked 81° in the global corruption perceptions index 2017 “ord geri quepey’ aradia ares fae fara eA: (a) wari erat 2001 aret ret. () Be Rar Tieeierdt aden eeatea are BAIT Fa TTS TTA. (date aff start afer fearon fattrert 8 ard teh weeds aere Aer sie, aietst ated faari/3 aera sik /a? Q) FT (a) 2) @) HAG) TF () (4) @), (b) afer @) Consider the following statements with regard to ‘Nari Shakti Putaskar’ : (a) it was established in 2001 (b) _ Ibis known as India's highest civilian honour for women. (0) It is conferred by the President on the occasion of International Women’s Day on March 8, every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (1) Only (a) 2) (and () @) @and © (4) @), (b) and (©) ‘Hea HUMVEE APT/ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 29, 13 NI2 aR anf ana state sharaan @ yee RTT ATR. (1) Atirge Q) Heures we (3) Fare (4) fagtar Zokhawthar land ismigration centre between Myanmar and India border is in state. (8) Manipur 2) Arunachal Pradesh (3) Meghalaya (Mizoram 30. wets ava fama vier, a) sifrarg Gaia feist ‘siete sitae atte ura’ a daon ae. (&) 2018 =r snfveng Gara uigesins ‘fas! a wie Ga Bava sre, ©) fra a Gerard aera sre ae, (qd) Afra) Fete 2020 wr aiifeliaas Gorm frat a were Basta TAM award Fo ST. watt ait: Q @0H0@ 2 %OM 8 @OO @ O&@) Find out the correct statements from below. (a) Olympic Council of Asia governs the Asian Games. (b) The Bridge Card game is introduced for the first time in Asian Games 2018, (©) There is no age limit for this bridge game. (d) The Bridge Card game will be introduced at Tokyo Olympics 2020. Answer Options : Q @HO@ @ 0,@) 8 @, © @ ©, @) 31, Ye feed foun fears Yan calor srenfta arf frend fede vetaigg Freer, Shaaa 3 arn seen TaRSH Wes Ta BET sa, SA MERIT sta cafes sea warm PerareTg Aah ae, Sea Ser vara Wenfea goer sre. Q) San seca darstiacen mfeds eearasitan eee ara. Q) Siem varanie yeist cea careT tisaa, (3) 33 sages yeni wOra ad garda wis daw faewfad FOS agA 3 gelato wa aadish dak areas va Fea (4) Jetty seq danea W Hagel Faq se. Consider the following statements given below and select sensible conclusion based on this, from the given options. Some claim to have seen UFOs (unidentified flying object). Life on other galaxies is considered to be the possibility. Space travel is now an established fact @) Information about UFO's is not yet documented. (2) UFO's are sent on earth by intelligent extra-terrestrials. (3) Some species living in other heavenly bodies have developed advanced technologies and are trying to communicate with saintly persons on the earth. (8) UFO's are heavenly bodies like earth. ‘weet ATA TTI/ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO.N12 4 A 32, Fafeatah us sree an aren aR dafecict ticheianga Bea Tre ag ome. TOR Uae far We ote a arent Fret, art: Taga HS, ah: A ae. arg: Sel migra omtty ata We seta, Ht: what doy, watt at Q) wt 2) Q wt @ Four suspects, one of them is the guilty party, are being interrogated by the police. Select the culprit if just only one of the statements is true. Ani : Dadu did it, Bani : It wasn’t me. Dadu : Ani is lying when he accuses me. Eni : Bani is telling the truth, Answer Options : (Q) Bani 2) Dadu GB) Ani (4) Bai 33. 2H, rene‘ a’ Sates 3B’ Gale Ake, ata Umisien Yard See sea, @) (A a arey fee oid ws sist ae a a Gad fares Pots Sel fred ome. Roeaidest UH Ps fred w GR sine oi. (bo) Ba aM Gar wae fees Ge Viet fea amt, ees sleatel war stehte fare, Tuite we cast a us fed T GT sights fares Teitat us sd We Get ist ore. 6) FWA Toe ont Ba fia Ts tao wae Hea aa sf A’ 9 fas AB’ A aI are 33 (ren gan sande ay 8 Aen Wa GSA aT fra Pern Be? waht a: (1) wae 2) afard fear feed (3) diet (4) idk Feber fara ‘Two cubes are placed near to each other in front of you in such a way that ‘A’ is to your left and 'B’ is to your right, {a) One pair of opposite faces of cube ‘A’ is red and another pair of opposite faces is blue. One of the remaining faces is yellow and other one is violet, (8) Only two opposite faces of cube ’B’ are blue, One of the remaining pairs of opposite faces is brown and green and one of the other pair of opposite faces is black and white. (0) _Ifred surface of A’ and blue of ’B’ are touching the table and yellow of ‘A’ and black of “B are facing you, then whick coloured side of ‘B’ is facing blue side of ‘A’ ? Answer options : (1) Brown (2) Either green or brown, () White (4) Either white or green ween wd WM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 15 NI2 34. ‘P,Q, 'R, ‘8,7, U' safe Vv’ ar ae oad fafae tnd weg Gur ke anes - vist, ore, ra, Ware, feces onfin safe wriran ea anf fonts aie tH & Gerd HAA (order) FAA sre A. Ht SRT war tr we safe Farad afters Foea area, 3 oe tre vd Ua Fee ag ar as Fira freon 1 seer Faro Gf hea aT. 18 Veen crate sah afth THR faaK ahaa Het ae. “Parser safer year farargter 1 UST Te, “TATE afer “Re aH Fara & don aT nee “VA Prear traraE anf “TA Fro tard faa each ome. “U' 9 shored freer Gren dere aia Sere, (PA siee we geet Sere, sored orate we ont fare ait wre o tea to arett Shh ae. Ue eat oT Brora? Q) iver = (2) ew (3) Tea frat sister (4) Hafecth geet set 'P,'Q,'R,'S,'T,,U' and V’ are the seven persons wearing a different colour shirts - white, red, black, green, yellow, blue and violet and different colour trousers - blue, red, white, black, grey, yellow and orange. The person's colour of the shirt and the colour of the trousers above are not necessarily in the same order. No person is wearing shirt and trousers of same colour, ‘Q is wearing red colour shirt and is not wearing grey or yellow colour trousers. ’S' is wearing green colour shirt and arange colour trousers. Colour of ‘P’s shirt and ‘V's trousers is same. Colour of ‘T's shirt and ‘R’s trousers is same. “V’ is wearing blue shirt and’ is wearing blue trousers. ‘U’ is not wearing any yellow dress. ‘P’ is not wearing a white shirt. Red and blue is not the combination of shirts and trousers of any of the persons. What is the colour of ‘U’s shirt ? (1) Violet (2) White (3) White or Violet (4) Data inadequate 35. U8 aR art fae o cag’ Frat RS outa, are fread far, ‘ad HINs @ PINS 37a. ‘rg SINS? RINS sia, WAZINS SINS oe. ‘wd PINS @ZINS 31a, (1) 1é ZINS @ PINS sta. (2) F4ZINS RINS oe. (3) FA4RINS @ SINS aa. (4) BA HINS? RINS arta. Four true statements are given below and conclusions follow. Select the conclusion that makes sense. All HINS are PINS Some SINS are RINS All ZINS are SINS All PINS are ZINS (1) Some ZINS are PINS (2) AllZINS are RINS @) AILRINS are SINS (4) AILHINS are RINS ‘eM arererét WIN/ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.N12 16 A 36. ‘aang! snfer ‘are! ararcen Aten each softer emer sree woe we zen AA, A IT Waren, ‘Prat was en Pauciten faarui 8 ag amrei are one', ate aifraS at g fret ei ae auntie frat’ ord crear Giana’ A andi aaftendl ord aire sed. et gal are sare A eg cree sifire sree fae wea ae tt aw Aire avddt wae aed, toad ot “U fredt vei wen factor Pree! & yon ra soa eatin Ud fear 8 for TIA SRT foferrena ait, SATAN TAM: sald, AAR a Seas Fars antl +R ere a. wad Teo ordh ard arrive afore cane tact are & qraacara aH aT AMT, ye fedeaiqa aie afarorera ges Prat ae wait aiftroraa arora vata fers (1) wrehrt GATS ont ard ee er as TERA ora FeOAT oH AT oT, 2) See Fited aerdtet ata ons ord vfesiea aaa Gee | aerated BRaTeA aA. (3) ‘Fated wad sean Farorcten formal & gel aret age sare" al rel Han ‘¢ frat wad een Peart face’ wacra sire. () waaite ine ae w Macht we TeATH STA ALS HU Ae. ‘The presence of an ethical indicator, such as ‘right’ and ‘wrong’, add nothing to its factual content. If I say to someone, “You acted wrongly in selling stale fruits at exorbitant price’, I am not stating anything more than if | simply said, "You sold stale fruits at exorbitant price’. In adding that this action is wrong I ain not making any further statement about it Tam simply evincing moral disapproval. Itisas if {had said, “You sold stale fruits atexorbitant price’ ina tone of horror, or written it with exclamation marks after it. The tone or exclamation mark adds nothing to the literal meaning of the sentence. It merely serves to show that the expression is attended by certain feelings in speaker. Select from following options that best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument. (1) Saying that something is wrong is just a way of showing disapproval. (2) When somebody states that something is wrong, they are making statement of facts. @) ‘You acted wrongly in selling stale fruits at exorbitant price’, just means ‘You sold stale fruits at exorbitant price’ (4) Adding to a statement the words ‘right’ or ‘wrong’ does not alter its factual content. 37. a0, aifehe, Bay, gfe safe Bar ura Greats Hecha Gis she Aa ses, arrester Id GMA eT a faa chy wala Saat Soaw, Sar gee Hae Tere TI fre Sa YMA qae, Sada Sara Sy ares wet aa AA oo FA Sarena sha Tose, sili Sake artes Sra see, woe Bere safes cena ere safer frat Hae WPA WET FHC. SR alle fect Ber oe a Yintat wet se waa TEL oes aa CoH aT FTST. Q) wie adaey are (QQ) Se artten ara at (3) fern aieleten Arar Sat (4) Bar feed set ; Kali, Arthur, Hema, Fatitna and Lena do a treasure hunt with five clues to find. Kali got all the clues right but finished last. Lena got back second, but got two clues wrong. Hema got feo more questions right than Lena, but finished after her, Arthur wasn’t faster than Lena. Fatima was faster than’ Hema, and only got one question wrong. If these statements are true, select only one of the sentences given below that cannot be true. (1) Fatima got back first (2) Hema was faster than Kali (8) Fatima was faster than Arthur (4) Lena came third ‘area Haast WPM/ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 7 N12 38. Ye feoen aren 3 eRer pl wien Mivaren ween vite wage fae when Fears, QO2VYD®Y ORORORO) CD CID ‘ 3 8 8 (1) (2) (3) (4) © = logeally appropriate image for the fifth place of simple and continuous series of images aR QY QJ YEE i ‘areem Sra AM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKN12 39. 18 A othr de, wien scleral caer aifie at AAS waren arate Sait A Teo FEET HateraTA, Tien der td, WI ews ame a TTA Afra aT see sae B area Al chara aan are Ba, aa BAT ee aie oe Sal FS Hg AAT TOMAS I ST VS Wee. RLS isn ord -aieitl fear sisi-snstait ata ae aM aaa Af ares Fafa et uafeda, 25 aviade aud ae weed a8 ao YER PareRsee sD wIsde MOS sTeTITT, waien fear aia argh Sordatiten ghee wre aera 8 Carer ATER wTTe SoaTITTT witsifad ao ang eupTa Talon Stree Prarsaia arte sel aeoer are. ate gferrera wala ara qe Frenf sferad Bom fas Fras, () 25 aulate ard Foe Afra frens Freel oka, 2) 25 aNlartes Aart afte ara fafa were ella 3) Fre As ste a ara dh wag Teo fading User ame, (4) Re Teuiare aaa TTS oT aA. Many people criticise what they call ‘the younger generation’ for what their seniors regard as immoral behaviour. These critics need to realise that because the world has changed, ‘moral standards have changed with it. In fact, technology is advancing so rapidly that it is, only the young who understand the world in which they live. It is they, not their parents or grandparents, who should be setting moral standards. Anyone over the age of 25 cannot help but be blinded by what they learned in the past. Their education has prevented them from perceiving and responding to the demands of the modern day, and so their moral judgements have no validity. Select one of the following that best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument, (1) Moral judgements made by people over the age of 25 are not valid. 2) Moral standards should be set by people under the age of 25. @) The younger generation is guilty of what older people regard as immoral behaviour. (4) Young people are the only ones who understand the contemporary world. ‘ween Haast SPT/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 19 NI2 40, fre wre ven francerardt aH, ser aT ee wiaer, -enftemiengs care Gale HIfet frac. arrn arten Ge at, fen Sor Ti ae. St araaren charter are. BE Siren verter se. Wer qua es Yen stata wet VaaTE aa td ew. a edgar qWietat aye ay Fem Ake 38 ue fares Free (Q) wera alates ard Waa aA. FOU sater a Ta ont oa wafers arate frat tatenel aa. Q) FATE are ATA TS STR. @ Fe ater ore ae sre om Safad A ae Tele ae, Damu stopped ina village called Aina, to ask the way to Etum. He got following iriformation from locals, Aina is to the east of Bori, Etum is to the north of Kurde. Donge is to the south of Aina, Kurde is to the west of Donge. Assuming that cast means, as near as it matters, “due cast”, select the one of the following that can be said by Damu with certainty. (1) Ineed to go due west (2) Ineed to go to the west but it may be north-west or south-west @) need to go to north-west (4) Ineed to go to north but it may also be a bit west 4. Mex ay am detigeeay ware RAT 1 ara 15 PaPE APTA waa Bee anf Seta Wes eT 30 fafie aiat. ara eh datiguan da Ba sade ciacaeeT Fa 45 APE gears oft pearl 4 15 fae eer aad, ae Shai ore Taal 07 : 30 TX sat Bea sete aE qaiotat arama far frre : () Baer Weer oe wearin ye CH AAPA Brea aA. Q) 12.15 arse ate 3 daca @ art ares Y dens sect. @) Fer rdaen oa Rearigca Ta As TEA seat aT. @) Sea ginger fram oat y aqua wae tan ated 34 ae. The ferry operating between ports X and Y is at sea for 1 hour and 15 minutes and is at its berth at either end for 30 minutes. The hovercraft service between two ports takes only 45 minutes and is berthed for 15 minutes before returning. If they both leave port X at 07 : 30 am, select false statement from the following (1) There is exactly one hour between two successive departures of the hovercraft. (2) At 12.15 ferry and hovercraft both are at Y. (3) There is exactly three hours duration between two successive departures of the ferry. (4) When hovercraft returns for third time at port Y boat will also returns there, ‘weal @MTA HT/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Bro:Ni2 20 A 42. Ten waph signa tte fra 10% aact me wala Tre dis Fa ares Tre Tae TAT oni caant Fras. 1 TT In the new domestic budget, the price of a petrol rose by 10%, select the percentage by which one must reduce the consumption so that the expenditure does not increase. (10% @ 6% (64% () 94% 1 1 a @) 10% @) 65% @ 6g 95% 43. are 10 fea. wel ste fos Saat craft 8 fas. A oT Sera TST HRI Sag. aT Ne ifearen 100 Wet YS sre w doer TESTA Hisar erm ws Hae : (Q) 2 fae 2) 3 fae (3) 4 fare (6 fafie AA thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by police person who's speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 m ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be : (1) 2 minutes Q) 3 minutes Q) 4 minvtes (4) 6 minutes FM aera! fate Ta! 7: 00 asta FIA Ea, Saray (49 rear sickle weaaHS ee, Feepamrera ue act areca fee are fafreiat ator wteo arava Trost, fii facaiqa aden ws aie anf ered ae TTaCAMee oT TEA sete Mer Trea fer art yee, rer Farry areita are Pere Seite sre Bre S crear ale Pers, @) 1:59 @) 2:35 @) 2:59 (4) 1:39 | I ee Sylvia wanted to wake up at seven O'clock in the morning for dance practice. After waking up she looked at her digital clock. She saw accompanying display of hours and minutes as a result of lowering of batteries. She saw light outside the window so she was sure that she cannot be more than twelve hours late after seven O’clock in the morning. Select greatest amount of time that she could be late in waking up. QQ) 1:59 (2) 2:35 @) 2:59 (4) 1:39 ‘weal BTA WPM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 21 N12 45, eae wera crea Tom Sear ON TET 96 TS UTA, EH SAPS ArT seLTATATSY Te VATA AT ‘we retiardl rere Sop ante ager wren ane SAAT UT one, AA gga ETE HTT an dah aia fra ea anf a ara Terai Frade sah wigh gear ane. wets TaRTe Q) aera steer seen waldt den fare saenqS aioe GAR aes He edi BAe, Q) 12 anf 7, @) 13 anf 7, (7 snf 13, ‘This year my new mango tree had 96 fruits for the first time. To celebrate this joy I wish to hand out most of these to some of my neighbours as per our village tradition by leaving five fruits on the tree for birds. All neighbours including my family must get the same number of, mangoes and I wish to give these to as many neighbours as possible. Each neighbour should get at least five mangoes. Select the number of neighbours that would receive a bag of mangoes and number of mangoes that each bag contains respectively, (1) Its difficult to distribute mangoes equally as number of fruits available distribution is odd. 2) Wand7. @) 13 and7. (4) Zand 13. 46. ae: 10-19 15 145 5 @ 6 Q 10 @) 8 (@) 144 Simplify : 10-19 145 1 5 a) 6 (2) 10 3) 8 (4) 144 ‘Seal BATTS GM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO,NI2 47. 22 A afehars ate tear fide 2 HEY a 38 he crv. fat daft gue aad aT. qpler ta atearae fareten 47 Sake sre ora. Sher HUTT aa Frat, Q) 6 fife; 3 ae Q) 2 FRE; 6 tbe (3) 3 fae; 25 Gabe (4) 5 fafie; 3 See Milo solves an Olympiad equation in 2 minutes 38 seconds. ilo does it twice as fast. Gulo needs 47 seconds mote than Jilo. Select the time that Gulo needs. (BG minutes: 9 seconds (2) 2 minutes; 6 seconds 3) 3 minutes; 25 seconds (4) 5 minutes; 3 seconds Bn MB iP D Cc AB=40 of, snfet BC=30 ot, on arara chant aes Hers ant, nde fray areata ont Serer sive aT HRS, APA Tae Aeraa ABCDA aren 2H bn anf TET AM, MN, NC, CP, PQ anf A Wid OF Sn arTaeH Bie, MN@ PQs WET Ga seater anftn sR BC ACD ait sale sate Aer eter al UT UPRTAL sed, (ara sree ater supa sq.) Z fete Hifedton acuta aire yaig rarer, Q) Aa omen afer stax creer, (2) 3m aeten after stat are. (3) 3 af da war sine are, 4 ae aA ABE siewroM fe sir ATE, A B P D Cc ‘There is a rectangular playground with AB=40 m and BC=30 m. The physical director saw Sam and Jag yawning. “He asked Sam to go round the playground ABCDA twice and Jag to go along AM, MN, NC, CP, PQ and to A twice. MN and PQ are walking tracks perpendicular to each other and parallel to sides BC and CD respectively and touch the boundary of playground. (Study accompanying figure if necessary.) Select the correct option with respect to given information. (2) Sam covered more distance than Jag. (2) Jag covered more distance than Sam, @) Jag and Sam covered equal distances. th (4) Jag covered 2” more distance than that covered by Sam. ‘wean @rmreat SM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 23 N12 49. Xam aa denZ w fren volte sya 20% suf 28% Fett sma, we Y a ee x am fic eae CRM SIE? @) 8% Q 10% Q) 24% (4) 48% ‘Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than the third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X ? (1) 8% (2) 10% @) 24% (4) 48% 50, aaitart quiten sare eagdiaia an, CaM aa quiada Fea sega dae aa t ere ear feaue ome, Frain aa deta of orga ct starter ara aah war me, we Acie aa Fact? Q) 244 Q 3248 @) Lat @) 1634 ‘Age of Vedant is one-third times of Sushant, Heena’s age is half of Sushant and Beena’s age is one and half times of the Heena’s age. Nishant is twenty four years old, he is younger than Beena by twelve years. Then what is age of Vedant ? (1) 24 years 2) 32 years (3) 12 years (4) 16 years 51. Tar arrange verre wie a ech 3:2 A TUT ae, Ua STRCRAR Te 12 fA aR a veto ws ht 8 fare qo ai. wom Fis danas fat? (1) 15360 ri. (2) 153600 Wat. (3) 30720 that. = (4): 307200 AA. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 3:2. Ifa man cycling along the boundary of the park at a speed of 12 km/hr completes one round in 8 minutes, then what is the area of the park ? (1) 15360 sq.m. (2) 153600 sqm. (3) 30720 sq.m. (4) 307200 sq.m. 52, wer grad Pare exhil faua % 47,500 orga faatet fara F 43,700 sme. ae SwST YE FIST. (1) 38% 2) 8% (3) 9% (4) 8.5% A television set marked at % 47,500 was sold for ® 43,700. Find the rate of discount. (1) 38% (2) 8% (3) 9% 4) 8.5% ‘wea Haast WMT SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK riaN12 24 A 53. Wh FANT 100 Sam F 80 War AVANT fea Sea a caret wotes fea F 100 we aT Sac, @P 60 salen Randa a Oe TAT 10% Be onite fasta IATA PHC. Te A SHAT ever fart ae eT? _ a) 15% 2) 25% 3) 20% (4) 10% A shopkeeper purchased 100 umbrellas at € 80 each ard marked them at % 100 each. He sold 60 umbrellas at the market price and remaining by providing 10% discount on market price, Find the net percentage profit earned by him. Q) 15% 25% @) 20% (4) 10% 54. 90 180 aantat erred @ 80 F160 sition aeedtten Frcs ser ome? a) 80 (2) 20° (3) 15 (4) 90 How much more is the average of numbers from 90 to 180 than average of numbers from 7 80 to 160 ? (1) 80 (2) 20 @) 15 (4) 90 55. Grete Ueiteh far rat = (0.96)° — (0.1)° (0.967? + 0.096 + (0.17 () 0.86 (2) 0.95 @) 0.97 (4) 1.06 Find the value of : (0.96)? - (0.)° (0.96)? + 0.096 + (0.1) @) 0.86 (2) 0.95 (@) 0.97 (4) 1.06 wea HMA AM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 235 N12 56. war serea arta wa aiaton 4 wn Praeeera 17 som 8, ae ate see? a 5 @7 @) 4 @ 9 qh A sum of square of number and its 7 part is 17, What is a number ? a 5 Q 7 @ 4 a) 9 57. Undena 3 aetna Ti 4 12 34,51 a Seren OLAS, ame we at He Bord? (ly 136 (2) 170 (8) 154 (4) 200 ‘A number when increased by 4 it becomes the LCM of 4, 12, 34, 51, find that number, (l) 136 2 170 8) 154 (4) 200 58. wer aruiara Sq caren sete 4 Arar am. wa agufaren sige 11 foams a Sarg 1 a0 cera froma argent fina 2 a, yore anys aoe? a 2 @ 4 @ 3 (4) tat at The denominator of a fraction is greater than the numerator by 4. If 11 is added to the rd ‘umerator and 1 is subtracted from the denominator, the value of the fraction obtained is =. Then what is the original fraction ? 5 a) 9 Q) 3 @) 3 (4) None of these 59. p anf OTe Were Se, Feet p=7 teat q=13 saa TK p= 14 ASR gq A feu Frat. 13 7 a) 98 A > eo 5 4) 26 pand q are inversely proportional when p=7 then q=13, so when p=14, find the value of q. 13 7 fl) 98 Aa > Bo 4) 26 ‘weonl BHUTAN SAT/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 7 .T.O.N12 26 A 60, 84x 144 = 69696, Fy = 44 (ly 48.4 2) 4.84 (@) 222 (4) 2.2 i (69.696 If 484 x 144 = 69696, then Va = (Q) 48.4 (2) 4.84 (3) 2.22 (4) 2.2 61, aaa ad TH ER om. (1) HI@raT Qe (3) Sart arene 7a ane 4) Sra areas sn ans Outstanding expenses is an item of . (Q) assets (2) liabilities (8) trading account debit side (4) trading account credit side 62, HART aden HRCI si, (1) Bre aoa Fava ater wire (2) medal ariamar fete (3) Area Araias Feit iH (4) arta are at Depreciation is charged to (1) Ascertain true Profit or Loss (2) Maintenance of asset in a state of efficiency (3) Valuation of asset (4) None of these 63. whharan atate feos aeqE ET 2000 SERS ae. (1) aaa er (2) Aer ont ara ear @) via ea (4) Bar ear Freight of @ 2000 paid on the purchase of Furniture charged to __ Account. (2) Trading Account (2) Profit and Loss Account 3) Furniture Account (4) Depreciation Account wren sma A1/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 27 N12 64, Seem Be waded aera a SAH see (1) Werden ys oer (2) HR en yerst yet @) Frente arants yeast @) Feat yea fran arenets yea arta ae sree AeA ARIAT In case of Diminishing Balance Method the Depreciation is charged on (1) Original cost of assets (2) Book value of the assets (3) Market value of the assets (4) Book value or market value whichever is less value of Assets 65. order fuewa Te Ves ae AER erafarwens Aa ons a, wae ie a, Q) sarrtare QQ) wea tera G) aaele (a) ert art a ada If the closing stock is appearing in the Trial Balance it is shown in the (1) trading account (2 _ profit and loss account (3) _ balance sheet (4) trading account and balance sheet 66, ae gee adereTT, afta ae. (1) sizadharor (2) Ser BTS / PET EH @) Bh ane wr, G@) Gated 35 Entrance fees are generally ) capitalised (2) taken as income (3) treated as a liability (4) taken as expenses 67. a aisrard freer @ tas wan fat tes Yen oe wed exited, QQ wate ae Q) ae shh ea aa (@) 7H Safi dara (4) arta ret art Balance at the year end of _____ represents cash in hand or cash overspent. (1) Receipt and Payment Account (2) Income and Expenditure Account (8) Profit and Loss Account (4) None of these ‘wea arererdt SUT/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.Ni2 68. 28 A as ae EE BUI yer 84 Gide wat sia, (@) ed aaravt atcaien fremrenct () wee eer WaT Aiden Foeaect attotat sted faa ater ort? Q) @ anf (&) FR 2) @) aif (c) aa ©) @), ©) af (a) Fa (4) (a), (b) anor (a) Hae Following are the main objectives of preparation of Trial Balance. (2) To have balances of all ledger accounts (©) To have a proof of single entry of each transaction (©) To have arithmetic accuracy of the books of account (@) To have material for preparing final Accounts Which of the statements giver above are correct ? Q) @and &) only (2) (@) and (©) only 3) (a), () and (d) only (4) @), (b) and (d) only 69, Gite at SRST As BAM SUAS, WR GTC a age Ads ear aspen Tease SEA RS TH RAT Tama. Q) 7a att Q) WHat @) free at @) agar While balancing the Account, if the total of Debit side is greater than the total of credit side, the difference is known as : (1) Debit Balance (2) Credit Balance (3) Nil Balance (4) Current Balance 70, facies tere frg ween a fare arf’ a, () Ward ain ters fad (2) Hae wont (3) ga aie wore (4) gta iu tems fare The Petty Cash Book is usually maintained on the basis of ____ (1) Single Column Cash book (2) Imprest System (3) Double Entry System (4) Double Column Cash Book ‘wear TEISt AM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 29 NI2 71. a Yeah waar ate yam Tere fer are. (a) tes fad wh freee & 5,80,000 (e) feter go ae fer 3 sneer eT 2,00,000 () aqcrardt aH ade vig TRH AAS a BIST TART % 1,50,000 @ 4 gah deter eras 78 agg amdearet Geet Fat % 20,000 Trem Yetta wT, Cara WAT) fereom fad arte? (1) = 650,000 (2) %5,50,000 (3) % 5,10,000 (4) & 6,10,000 Following are the particulars of Bank Reconciliation statement given {a) Balance as per Cash Book % 5,80,000 (©) Cheque issued but not presented for payment % 2,00,000 (c) Cheque sent for collection but not collected ¥ 1,50,000 (d) The Bank had wrongly debited the account of the firm by % 20,000 which was rectified What is the Balance as per Bank Passbook ? (@) % 650,000 Q) & 550,000 @) 7 5,10,000 (4) & 610,000 72, Teal WENT 3,90,000 faerie UH aa SS Fe. dard sree aia aR a ane, arf aah Ta safe yea Z 40,000 ame, eer wan Tat sara GR arch one ward GH aaa’ Freres Gere apse. (1) 2% 2,15,000 (2) 7 1,95,000 (3) %1,75,000 (4) 7 3,02,500 A firm purchased a machine - for % 3,90,000. The useful life of machine is four years and its residual value is % 40,000 at the end of the mentioned period. Depreciation is to be provided on straight line method. The net book value of machine after two years is : Q) 245,000 — @)-% 195,000 = (3) - 175,000 = (4).-—«&3,02,500 ‘EM HATA GPM / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P. .T.0.N12 73. 30 Q) saad are Q Fagen we aE (G3) we agen ier ae @ Wada ae Donation received for a special purpose will be taken to the (1) Income and Expenditure Account (2) Assets side of the Balance sheet | (8) Liabilities side of the Balance sheet (4) Profit and Loss Account 74. arcitstat sore recent az et sen aftr ere SeorEe een FOU Tel? * (a) SR what feet (b) ga vifaven faxtatte ater () atk te free (2) sts Froese Ayer YEE atest atm ferry Faer wrtare ort? Q) @ rH 2) FHT (3) @) sift (by Hae (4) (a), (©) sa (a) ae Which of the following item should not be entered in Receipts and Payments Account ? (a) Sale of old furniture (b) Loss on sale of old furniture (6. Opening Cash Balance (4) Membership fee received in advance Which of the statement given above is/are correct ? (1) @) Only (2) (b) Only 3) @) and (b) Cnly 4) @), ©) and (a) Only ‘area Baraat ArM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 31 N12 75, HORTA HET STROH / SA STAT STE, (a) Hrenten seater arrays tone ae (&) ene ara a ears fdia ae ee © dite fremrangS opt rere Frere ee (@) mesa Seren ame quod sechera sams aA wate ait: a) @ re 2) (b) sift (¢) aa ® @rR @) @: ©), (¢) sf (a) Following is/are cause/causes of Depreciation charged on Assets. (a) The loss of utility of an assets due to its use {b) An Aisets is not used its value falls over a period of time (Q) Due to technological development old assets become outdated (@) An asset may get exhausted through constant working, Answer options : (Q) @ only (2) (b) and (¢) only @) @) only (4) @), (b), (and (a) 76. 31 4r§, 2000 arden Surac-aui Tey 30 BF, 2000 wea wr KS ome, YS AT arent sear ie gua ol gee (Q) arene oy Q) erat ser (3) ams fader ard 4) ss frases Ter During the accounting year ending 31° March 2000, rent paid up to 30* jnne 2000, The rent of April to June will be recorded as (1) Outstanding Expenses 2) Outstanding Income @) Pre-paid Expenses (4) Income received in advance ea MTA GMM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO,N12 32 a 77. Se aad ore ait geo dae ao are. Q) 7A fae Q) we faecr 3) fares Ta (4) Reta areidet art The Income and Expenditure Accounts begins with : (1) debit balance (2) credit balance 8) no balance (4) none of the above 78. Fast Haat Gar STR. Q) cepa fasta wd + QQ) aR fata ad - das te @) daeTH ~ seen feta ad (4) Seas Tom — Freres aH Sales are equal to (1) Cost of goods sold + Profit (2) Cost of goods sold - Gross profit @) Gross profit ~ Cost of goods sold (4) Gross profit — Net profit 79, Terran Hepa soaye ellen feet THA Fes 7. QQ) sisied Weer Yrs (2) Fe @ | ar @ Fa is the amount given to a non-trading concern as per the wilf of a deceased person. (1) Life Membership Fees (2) Honorarium 3) Legacy (4) Entrance Fees ‘wren BME AWM SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 33 Ni2 80. sraery eaaenrem iat eee (1) FeTRITEM agar A Q) seas @) Safe (4) Aigaren tad Business transactions are recorded . (1) In chronological order (2) Weekly (3) Daily (4) At the end of the month 81. 1990 =H ewaTeD quanta Fain aden wm sale onftery er sae FT 7, () Warehta srt 2) AREF araercte feet Q) wearer cara @ Aiea What is the main cause of economic crisis of early 1990s ? (1) Fiscal imbalance (2) Fragile balance of payment situation (@) Inflationary pressure (@) Allthe above 82, RATA fat we adaey Sura aT OT] LOA rT? () 1905 1935 @) 1939 4) 19st In which year, Sales Tax was imposed First time in India ? @) 1905 (2) 1935 @) 1939 (4) 1951 83. sia enon deste atoll stove see Tar aeereret alter ore? () We (GATT) =) HRGATS) «A CTRIPS). 4) USILT (AOA) Which of the following agreement of WTO is related to agreement on services ? (@) GATT (2) GATS (3) TRIPS (4) AOA 84. ydietat wun wemian aade sete at? fa) Shit oar ze, (b) aaa Sigaet aa exciton gt (c) Sela mae 7a wercaten anfedts Prades wre wate a: () FF @) afr (2) Fat () sat (¢) @) FAA (a) anf) ® aioe Which of the following factors are included in Liberalisation ? (@) Abolishing Industrial Licensing (b) Automatic clearance for imported capital goods. (©) Filling information only of new projects by entrepreneurs. Answer options : (1) Only (@) and (b) 2) Only (&) and () (3) Only (@) and () (4) All the above ‘eM HATS AM/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.N12 34 A 85. eee ne ee ee eee eee ee ee ee ? (a) 6c () 12 ca (c) 18 ce (a) 20 ear ‘watet sat : (1) FAT (a), (b) suf () (2) aR (a), (b) Safer (d) G3) FR (b) stn «| 4) stead Which of the following tax rates were recommended by Vijay Kelkar Task Force for Centre Government ? (2) 6 percent (b) 12percent (©) ‘18 percent ~—(d)_‘20 percent Answer options : (1) Only (a), (b) and (c) (2) Only (@), (b) and (d) (3) Only (b) and (c) (3) All the above 86. data wa Fee ATED. ae arraary ant snfly SIR Tey WTHIET AT STR ? () Fas Wafers sere Q) IRR meats yal Yeh G8) as Ue @) Ade wd Which of the following items are excluded from the GST regime and to be taxed by the State Government ? (1) alcohol and petroleum products (2) stamp duties on real estate (3) electricity duties (4) all the above 87, Sher fare ara (ret SAeerN) ERT TAT A. QO) Fernden vita Beet gear Q) Fito (3) wafer surfer ETT HR) 4) ate ad Doha Development Agenda (Doha Declaration) consists __ (Q) Launch of a new round of negotiations (2) Agricultural subsidies (3) Environment and labour issues (4) Allabove wean Haast BM/ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKi 35 N12 88, ‘usta eam fae oh core gates aren a cea och? (@) 1991 2) 2000 @) 2005 (4) 2015 Which of the following year, ‘National Investment Fund’ was established ? @) 1991 2) 2000 @) 2005 (4) 2015 89, Gaeta arma mae sities Saran Arete waft aa? @) Aiifaare ae (b) aifaer doerdatira cara wae (© Fed 3 errata aval aA wate sat: (1) (a) aan (b) (2) FAT (a) Gat (c) B) HAT) SAT (C) (a) atte a Which of the following agreements are related to World Trade Organisation ? (a) Agreement on Agriculture (b) Trade-Related Intellectual Property Rights (©) Multilateral Agreements on Trade in Goods Answer options : (1) Only (@) and (b) (2) Only (@) and (c) (3) Only (b) and (c) (4) All the above 90. Hadar a wicsiereres cara TEA HA, 1969 XE ae Got Shor HMAC HTT STH? (1) fate suffer a racy, 2005 (2) aah Fatma racer are, 1999 (3) fata seraart @ sierra eraeerTy BTA, 2002 (4) aut err, 2002 Which of the following act passed by cancelling Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 ? (1) Special Economic Zone Act, 2005 (2) Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (3) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2002 (4) Competition Act, 2002 ‘HEM AMT WUMT/ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK °. PTO.N12 36 iz 91. Sirf aan deere eareT Fiotat sted fae aE sat? Q) 15 fader, 1993 (2) 30 fedaz, 1904 @) 1 sara, 1995 (4) 1 aera, 1995 On which of the following day, World Trade Organisation was established ? (2) 15th December, 1993 (2) 30 December, 1994 (3) 1 January, 1995 (4) 1 February, 1995 92. fing qeret a ara ehh. Q) SaaR san asa auc isis (2) Sara Safin eae vitor aber wale (3) Brand dans oreatara ont exrcreTeN Sra RATA @) wea Singapore issue consists (1) Relationship between trade and investment (2) Interaction between trade and competition policy (8) Transparency in Govt. purchase and trade facilitation (4) All the above 93. YR eRe Reape TT sakes Peerdtereor archer ay Bree START BATA ta Q) waaIE Freier (2) facta wera Q) Saendte feria gare @) aew ‘The macroeconomic stabilisation programme adopted by the government of India consists measures like (1) Control of inflation (2) Fiscal adjustment (3) _ Improve the balance of payment position (4) All the above ‘areal Saat w/ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKn 37 NI2 94, staersa a dateat (WTO) wade aria frags yo sen salt squire GeeT anietst Hone aqyRe SET? Q) frrtio a (2) Facet er @) wa awed ae (4) send wore Serenata Due to extreme inequality within the structure of WTO, basic agreements and subsequent amendments are stacked in favour of which of the following ? (1) developing countries (2) developed countries (3) all member countries (4) not any member country 95, atoren saat sea yet afta aa? 0) Sent ward eerduftrers sieardia arard derme a8 Yes Sea TAP BA, (2) Sata ae fatto era Fela Sah, 3) seta ga sical aM Tere a: yea safest qarait fe STA, (4) eta storerel aT, - What makes currency fully convertible ? (1) Allow currency to determine it's own exchange rate in international market without any official intervention (2) The Central Bank have control on exchange rate (3) All. currency to determine it’s own exchange rate in international market by politically (4) None of the above 96. Tintern gétotet aoa yeast delta one? (a) AIR sreeeainey are (b) Aisceran aaa wae (c) daar yaa sae (@) afer gat ware wate sat: (1) FF 0), (c) aT a) (2) Ft @), &) safe) (8) FF @), (o) sad) (ate ad Globalisation is related to which of the following factors ? (@) Reduction in Trade Barriers (b)_Free Flow of Capital (©) Free Flow of Technology (d) Free Flow of Labour Answer options : (1) Only (b), (©) and (d) (Only (@), (6) and (¢} (3) Only (a), (¢) and (d) (4) Allof the above eA AAT APM /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK oy 1.0.N12 38 A 97, anf getataga srafeatee waren Ta aaa Bi, Q) sea dain ora Q) visser aerare (3) Tisaery wae (4) atte ae From an economic point of view channels of globalisation consists (2) Trade in goods and services (2) Movement of capital (3) Flow of finance (4) All the above 98. ydtetla ao aitast aaq a dar ac arava farmer fara Grane afc Ae? (a) Baez (CENVAT) (b) Higa (MODVAT) @ ara (a) fat a wale at : (1) FR (a) safe) (2) FT (a) SAT). (9) HRT (c) GAPE (a) GG) Te aE Which of the following taxes were replaced by Goods and Services Tax by the recommendation of Vijay Kelkar Committee ? (a) CENVAT (ot) MODVAT (©) Service Tax (@) Sales Tax Answer options : (2) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (a) and (©) (3) Only (¢) and (d) (4) All the above 99. rquren we pres UNG CI are eer aM SSA (1) ges arftteae sar alee aa, @) Siete seni wed sere wala ore at (@) raaRs vata sift oats a8 aie wd During the pre-tax reform period, India had become a country (1) with the uncertain and complex customs duties (2) _ with the highest level of customs tariff in the world (8) _ with the flexible and elastic customs duties (4) all the above arean Breast FT/ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKA 39 Ni2 100, Padre anita 9 aeraeron sficzinely Geto ween aera ehh? (a) Faqs daten Frais dower (©) acupsta shearer iQ ae RRR (@) Ten aft Frere wate aa: () RG) suf &) 2) Fa (c) saftr (a) (3) at (&) sar (o) () ate wd Which of the following objectives are included in Special Economic Zone Act ? (a) Promotion of exposts of goods and services (6) Promotion of investment (©) Creation of employment opportunities (@ Development of infrastructure facilities Answer dptions : (1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (¢) and (4) @) Only (b) and (6) (4) Allof the above -000- ‘eal SIMTAS STTI/ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO.NI2 40 A Ya — (ye 1 wer Ge...) 8) wergferind fates hoe fafre wri ee ay (xR ah) aa, weTyfecthoafaftan soeafaaat aT Fat SME Fe aH Free | wie evan Bt HS om, oa AM Hks a AMEN BigaTAC Mey wot Ree ‘adetret dorm Aenea wide ReoaeTaTa shaH-s2" adie weg BAL FCAT Aiea ahh oad anne ua aaten sroararea Sufi Oe UH GR Taten ZereT fda wa as, () RRC TETVp ATE sae feta BA Aas Hacerine Bearer A weyers Trea aDeraTAI As Sree Tarr sme. Hr wiergene arvaTyat saga sae. SoU ETT ARITA A Farerea Treat aaa sare peraR ST, Wm. 201. GT et adhd wer Fe wears Beh Ap: WIT A? Q) av care aeeatt Q) tarde faerarn Q) Tan TT a Qi crac ao yer’ aa sae (a) Tar Te Ga" oF oT, SMS TFET aT)" AES, re arson Ww, 201 Witter sai “G)" Fades ied arate wer crate TT ae. /O@@@ ren a ep eyes We ea GT TAR a eT TRIN eae FET TAHA aa Tees dfs ae eta oraifns eA TEEN, went wae eT eT afeirr area, Afar at enga 8a ars wa. wear BMT GH/ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK