Pharmacology past papers 6th Semester LUMHS
Q) 1. Sedative and hypnotics drugs induce the formation of the
liver microsomal enzymes that metabolize other drugs
includes ?
a) phenobarbital
b) Diazepam
c) Buspirone
d) Flumazenil
e) Alprazolam
Q) 2. Diazepam benzodiazepine enhances the activity of
neurotransmitter which include ?
a) GaBa
b) Histamine
c) Adrenaline
d) Glycine
e) Glutamine
Q) 3. Contraindications of caster oil include ?
a) Pregnancy
b) Myocardial infarction
c) irritable bowl disease
d) Prior to surgery
e) Before proctascopy
Q) 4. Antifungal agents bind to ergosterol in fungal cell
membrane and forming pores includes ?
a) Amphotericin B
b) Flucytosine
c) Terbinaline
d) Ketoconazole
e) Fluconazole
Q) 5. Drugs that inhibit mycolic acids of myobacterial cell walls
and used in treatment of tuberculosis include ?
a) Pyrazindamide
b) Streptomycin
c) Ethambutol
d) Rifampin
e) Isoniazid
Q) 6. Ulcer healing drugs most likely to cause gynaecomestia
in male patients include ?
a) Esomeparazole
b) Fomatadine
c) Ranitidine
d) Nizatidine
e) Cemetidine
Q) 7. Gingival hyperplasia is an adverse effect of one of anti -
epileptic drugs like ?
a) Gabapentin
b) Topirammate
c) Vigabatrin
d) Phenytoin sodium
e) Carbamazapine
Q) 8. Site of dissociative anesthesia is produced by ?
a) Halothane
b) Ketamine
c) methoxflurane
d) Nitric oxide
e) Thiopental
Q) 9. Long acting ester local anesthetic agent include ?
a) Benzococaine
b) cocaine
c) Lidocaine
d) Procaine
e) Tetracaine
Q) 10. Propyl thio uracil ( PTU ) is concentrated in thyroid
where it acts by ?
a) Converting T3 into T4 peripherally
b) Inhibiting thyroid peroxidase reactions
c) Enhancing iodination of thyroid globulin
d) Destroying thyroid parenchyma
e) Stimulating coupling of DIT and MIT
Q) 11. Nystatin is an example of which class of antifungal ?
a) Azoles
b) Polyenes
c) Allamines
d) Antimetabolism
e) Antimicrobial
Q) 12. Clinical use of phenobarbital include ?
a) Induction of anesthesia
b) Breathing related sleep disorder
c) sedation
d) Porphyria
e) Epilespsy
Q) 13. General anesthetic agent increases cardiac output and
heart rate include ?
a) Ketamine
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Propofol
d) Thiopental
e) Halothane
Q) 14. Sedative and hypnotics drugs which belong to
barbiturates group include ?
a) Alprazolam
b) Clonazepam
c) Diazepam
d) Temazepam
e) Thiopental
Q) 15. Drugs classified as an antagonist at benzodiazepine
receptor include ?
a) Alprazolam
b) Buspirone
c) Diazepam
d) Flumazenil
e) Thiopental
Q) 16. Anxiolytic drug interacts with 5 - HTA subclass of Brain
serotonin receptors as a partial agonist include ?
a) Alprazolam
b) Buspirone
c) Diazepam
d) Flumazenil
e) Phenobarbital
Q) 17. Which of the following is not an antipsychotic ?
a) Chlopramazine
b) Haloperidon
c) Resperidone
d) Promithazone
e) Atenolol
Q) 18. Which of the following is local anesthetic ?
a) Paracetamol
b) Procaine
c) Tetracycline
d) Nitrous oxide
e) Ketamime
Q) 19. Lidocaine belonga to ?
a) Ester local anesthetic
b) NSIADS
c) Amide local anesthetics
d) Inhalational anesthetics
e) Intravenous general anesthetics
Q) 20. Antiparkinson's drugs include all except ?
a) Propranolol
b) Levodopa
c) Amantadine
d) Bromocryptine
e) Deprenyl
Q) 21. In motion sickness following drug is effective ?
a) odansteron
b) Hyocine
c) Aspirin
d) Paracetamol
e) Ibuprofen
Q) 22. Anti emetic - drug used to treat ?
a) Darrhea
b) Constipation
c) Vomiting
d) Hypotension
e) Headache
Q) 23. Treatment of dipression usually involves the
administration of ?
a) Paracetamol
b) Pilocarpine
c) Fetanyl
d) Aspirin
e) Imiparamine
Q) 24. The pencillin having longest duration of action ?
a) Procaine pencillin
b) Pencillin G
c) Amoxicillin
d) Ampicillin
e) Benzathiepencillin
Q) 25. Select the 3rd of cephalosporin among following ?
a) Cefazoin
b) Cefotaxime
c) Cefotetan
d) Cefepime
e) Cefaclor
Q) 26. Levodopa is used to treat ?
a) Peptic ulcer
b) Allergy
c) Headache
d) Epilepsy
e) Parkinson disease
Q) 27. Which of the following is an H2 receptor blocker ?
a) aspirin
b) cyclizine
c) Atropine
d) Cimetidine
e) Promethazine
Q) 28. Drug which is contraindicated in asthma ?
a) Ipratropium
b) Terbutaline
c) Aminophyline
d) Corticosteroids
e) Propranolol
Q) 29. Folic acid analogue include ?
a) Flurouracil
b) Methotrexate
c) Chlorambucil
d) Cisplastin
e) Vincristine
Q) 30. Which of the following aminoglycosides is used orally to
prevent hepatic encephalopathy in patients of liver cirrhosis ?
a) Amikacin
b) Kanamycin
c) Neomycin
d) Tobramycin
e) Gentamycin
Q) 31. Bactericidal action of aminoglycoside antibiotic is most
likely due to ?
a) Alteration of bacterial cell membrane
b) Damage to bacterial DNA
c) Damage to bacterial cell wall
d) Inhibition of bacterial oxidative metablism
e) Inhibition of protein synthesis
Q) 32. Which antibiotic is commonly associated with Gray
baby syndrome ?
a) Cloramophenicol
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Gentamycin
d) Tetracyclin
e) Neomycin
Q) 33. Which of the following best explain interaction between
tetracycline & dairy products ?
a) Decreased bacterial permeability to drug
b) Decreased drug binding to bacterial ribosome
c) Decreased drug bioavailability
d) Increased drug elimination
e) Increased drug toxicity
Q) 34. Asymptomatic cyst carriers are best treated with ?
a) Metronidazole
b) Iodoquinol
c) Dehydroemetine
d) Emetine
e) Chloroquine
Q) 35. Which of the following anti - malarial drug causes
cinchonism as adverse drug reaction ?
a) Chloroquine
b) Pyrimethamine
c) Proguanil
d) Quinine
e) Primaquine
Q) 36. Cystic haemorrhage is commonly seen with which of
following ?
a) Busulfan
b)Biomycin
c) Cyclophosphamide
d) Mercaptopurine
e) Methotrexate
Q) 37. An antifungal drug that binds to ergosterol "pores" that
disrupt fungal membrane integrity is ?
a) Amphotericin B
b) Caspofungin
c) Fluconazole
d) Flucystosine
e) Terbinafine
Q) 38. The antihelminthic agent which is alternative drug to
praziquantel for infection caused by Tapworm ?
a) Niclosamide
b) Mebendazole
c) Albendazole
d) Bethionol
e) Pyrantalpymoate
Q) 39. Bleeding disorder can be caused by which of the
following cephalosporin agent ?
a) Cefepime
b) Ceftroline
c) Cefomanadole
d) Cephalexin
e) Ceazolin
Q) 40. Patient taking anti - tuberculosis drug complains of
aggravation of symptoms of his gouty arthritis, Identify the
drug ?
a) Pyrazindamide
b) Ethambutol
c) Isoniazid
d) Rifampicin
e) Streptomycin
Q) 41. Drug of choince of enteric fever include ?
a) Tetracycline
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Minocin
d) Cephradine
e) Nalidixic acid
Q) 42. The very narrow spectrum pencillinase susceptible
pencillin agent is ?
a) Methicillin
b) Ampicillin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Pencillin G
e) Pencillin V
Q) 43. Tolerance does not develop to opoid induced ?
a) Constipation
b) Euphoria
c) Analgesia
d) Sedation
e) Respiratory dipression
Q) 44. The only atypical antipsychotic drug indicated to reduce
the risk of suicide is ?
a) Quetipine
b) Clozapine
c) Resperidone
d) Olanzapine
e) Ziprasidone
Q) 45. Extrapyramidal reactions occurring treatment with
older typical anti psychotics does not include ?
a) Parkinson's disease
b) akathisia
c) Acute dystonias
d) Tardive dyskinesia
e) Tics
Q) 46. A novel hypnotic drug which act on melatonin receptor
?
a) Diazepam
b) Phenobarbitone
c) Zolpidem
d) Ramelteon
e) Zaleplon
Q) 47. The widely used drugs for the management of acute
anxiety state and rapid control of panic attacks are ?
a) 5HT1A receptor agonist
b) Barbiturates
c) Benzodiazepines
d) 5HT reuptake inhibitors
e) Azapirones
Q) 48. mu receptor activation is responsible for all of the
following actions, one action which is not produced by this
activation is ?
a) Analgesia
b) Hypothermia
c) Physical dependence
d) Respiratory dipression
e) Euphoria
Q) 49. The most effective drug in status epilepticus in adult is ?
a) Carbamazpine
b) Ethosuximide
c) Diazepam
d) Zonisaminde
e) Valporic acid
Q) 50. The drug of choice in treatment of myoclonic seizure is ?
a) phenobarbital
b) Sodium valporate
c) Ethosuximide
d) Carbamazpine
e) Phenytoin
Q) 51. Drug used in asthma by reducing the synthesis of
leukotreines include ?
a) Cromolyn
b) Mountelukast
c) Nadocromil
d) Zafirlukast
e) Zileuton
Q) 52. Fourth generation cephalosporins include ?
a) Cefazolin
b) Cefepime
c) Cefixime
d) Cefoxitin
e) Cephalexin
Q) 53. Third generation drugs are commonly referred to as
respiratory fluoroquninolones include ?
a) Norloxacin
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Oflaxacin
d) Moxifloxacin
e) Cefoxitin
Q) 54. Which of the following is not an indication of Laxatives
?
a) Prior to proctoscopy
b) Prior to Labour
c) Prior to colonoscopy
d) In cases of hemorrhoids
e) Prior to endoscopy
Q) 55. Which of the following ulcer healing drug ,
bioavailability is more than 90% ?
a) Cimetidine
b) Ranitidine
c) Formatadine
d) Nizatidine
e) Omeparazole
Q) 56. Chemotherapy induced vomiting is better treated &
prevented by ?
a) Anti - cholinergic
b) Per chlorperazine
c) 5H3 Antagonists
d) Domperindone
e) H1 receptor blocker
Q) 57. Which of the following is not a cephalosporin ?
a) Streptomycin
b) Cefaclor
c) Cefixime
d) Ceftriaxone
e) Cefamamdole
Q) 58. The commonest adverse effect of aminoglycosides ?
a) Acne
b) Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
c) Arthritis
d) Hepatitis
e) Git disturbances
Q) 59. Which of the following is used in diabetes ?
a) Atropine
b) Pilocarpine
c) Morphine
d) Aspirin
e) Insulin
Q) 60. Which one of the following is an adverse effect of
insulin therapy ?
a) Fever
b) High B.P
c) Headache
d) pain in abdomen
e) Hypoglycemia
Q) 61. Which one of the following is correct regarding Pencillin
?
a) They act by inhibitory cell wall synthesis
b) They bind with 30s
c) They bind with 50s
d) They inhibit protein synthesis
e) They inhibit DNA Gyrase
Q) 62. Which of the following drug used for treatment of
malaria ?
a) Gentamycin
b) penicillin
c) ciprofloxacin
d) Streptomycin
e) Chloroquine
Q) 63. Which one of the following is not used for treatment of
tuberculosis ?
a) Isoniazid
b) Aspirin
c) Ethambutol
d) Rifampicin
e) Streptomycin
Q) 64. Which of the following is fluroquniolones ?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Isoniazid
c) Pyrazinamid
d) Streptomycin
e) Rifampicin
Q) 65. Long acting tetracycline is ?
a) Thiopental
b) Ethyl chloride
c) Desflurane
d) Doxycycline
e) Halothane
Q) 66. Which of the following is macrolide ?
a) Pilocarpine
b) Pencillin
c) Rifampicin
d) Erythromycin
e) Ketamine
Q) 67. The most important side effect of pencillin is ?
a) Anaphylaxis
b) Fever
c) Headache
d) Hypotension
e) Hypertension
Q) 68. Laxatives are commonly used for constipation to
accelerate the movement of food through GIT. Balk Laxative
causing water retention and intestinal distention which
include ?
a) Methyll cellulose
b) Biaccdyl
c) Cautor oil
d) Lactolose
e) Mineral oil
Q) 69. Drugs which polymerizes in acid environment of
stomach and forms a protective coating over ulcer beds
include ?
a) Misoprostol
b) Omeparazole
c) Ranitidine
d) Metoclopramide
Q) 70. Cytoprotective agents which forms a protective coating
over ulcer beds include ?
a) Ranitidine
b) Omeparazole
c) Misoprostol
d) Bismuth subsalicylate
e) Metoclopramide
Q) 71. Appropriate agents for the prophylaxis of malaria in
travelerdiarrhea resistant P. Falciparum include ?
a) Halothane
b) Mefloquine
c) Primaquine
d) Quinine
e) Chloroquine
Q) 72. Neurologic effect like peripheral neurotoxicity is
common Isoniazid can be alleviated by administration of ?
a) Ethambutol
b) Rifampin
c) Pyrazindamide
d) Pyridoxine
e) Streptomycin
Q) 73. Competitive inhibitor of glucocorticoid receptor include
?
a) Dexamethasone
b) Ketaconozole
c) Spironolactone
d) Prednisone
e) Mefpristone
Q) 74. Long acting glucocorticoid include ?
a) Dexamethasone
b) Ketoconazole
c) Spironolactone
d) Prednisone
e) Mefpristone
Q) 75. Adverse effects most likely caused by term use of
prednisone include ?
a) Adrenal hyperplasia
b) Hepatic dysfunction
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Osteopoesis
e) Vaginal bleeding
Q) 76. Yellowish discloration of teeth in child id most likely an
adverse effect of ?
a) Streptomycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Pencillin
d) Ciprofloxacin
e) Tetracycline
Q) 77. Red greeen colour blindness is common adverse effect
of ?
a) Pyrazindamide
b) Isoniazid
c) Ethambutol
d) Rifampin
e) Streptomycin
Q) 78. Tissue amebicides for amebiasis undergoes a reductive
bioactivation of its aitro group by ferredoxin present in
parasites to form reactive cytotoxic product include ?
a) Chloroquine
b) Emetines
c) Iodoquinol
d) Metronidazole
e) Paromomycin
Q) 79. Neuromuscular blockade at high doses is an adverse
effect of ?
a) Tetracycline
b) Streptomycin
c) Pencillin
d) Ciprofloxacin
e) Erythromycin
Q) 80. Gray baby syndrome is adverse effect of ?
a) Calvulanic
b) Erythromycin
c) Cloramophenicol
d) Ciprofloxacin
e) Tetracycline
Q) 81. A - glucosidase inhibitor drugs used for treatment of
diabetes include ?
a) Metformin
b) Glipizide
c) Acarbose
d) Sitagliptin
e) Gliburide
Q) 82. Route of administration of insulin would the most likely
Suitable for diabetic patients in cordinary maintenance
regimens ?
a) Oral
b) I/M
c) I/V
d) S/L
e) S/C
Q) 83. Member of biguanide group reduces Postprandial and
fasting glucose level include ?
a) Gliburide
b) Glipizide
c) Acarbose
d) Sitagliptin
e) Metformin
Q) 84. Polyene antifungal include ?
a) Fluconazole
b) Flocytosine
c) Terbinafine
d) Amphotericin B
e) Ketoconazole
Q) 85. Pure opoid receptor antagonist include ?
a) Buprenorphine
b) Codeine
c) Lopramide
d) Morphine
e) Naloxone
Q) 86. Acute pharmacologic effect of morphine which does not
develop tolerance include ?
a) Analgesia
b) Constipation
c) Respiratory depression
e) Sedation
e) Gingival hyperplasia
Q) 87. Drug used for the prophylactic treatment of bronchial
asthma include ?
a) Albuterol
b) Ipratropium
c) Cromolyn
d) Salmeterol
e) Theophyline
Q) 88. Antipsychotic which suppresses IP3 and DAG signaling
include ?
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Lithium
c) Haloperidol
d) Clozapine
e) Thioridazine
Q) 89. A 29 years old man use secobarbital to satisfy his
addiction to barbiturate. During the past week, he is
imprisoned and is not able to obtain the drug. He is brought to
prison medical ward because of the onset of severe anxiety
and generalized tremors. Which of the following agents
should be given to diminish his withdrawal symptoms ?
a) Buspirone
b) Chloral hydrate
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Dizepam
e) phenytoin
Q) 90. Lithium carbonate bipolar is usefull in the treatment of
?
a) Petetans seizure
b) Bipolar disorder
c) Neurosis
d) Trigeminal neuralgia
e) peptic ulcer
Q) 91. Which one of the following is anti - Pseudomonas
antibiotic ?
a) Cefotetan
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Cefotaxime
d) Cefatazidime
e) Cefepime
Q) 92. Which of the following opoid analgesic is used in the
treatment of acute pulmonary edema ?
a) Morphine
b) Codeine
c) Fentanyl
d) Loperamide
e) Levodopa
Q) 93. The mechanism of action of carbidopa action is ?
a) Inhibition of dopa decarboxylase
b) Stimulating the dopamine receptor
c) Selective inhibition of Catecol - o - methyl
d) Block voltage gated sodium channel opening
e) Cell wall synthesis inhibition
Q) 94. Moderate agonist opoid drugs include ?
a) Morphine
b) Naloxone
c) Codeine
d) Propxyphene
e) Buprenorphine
Q) 95. Drugs classified as an antagonist at opoids receptors
include ?
a) Morphine
b) Naloxone
c) Propxyphene
d) Buprenorphine
e) Codeine
96. Benzodiazepine overdosage is treated by ?
a) Aspirin
b) Pilocarpine
c) Flumazenil
d) atropine
e) Disulfiram
Q) 97. Which of the following is dissociative general anesthetic
?
a) Pilocarpine
b) Pencillin
c) Rifampicin
d) Mannitol
e) Ketamine
Q) 98. When Levodopa is used for the management of
parkinsonism, it is combination with another drug which dopa
carboxylases is ?
a) Bromocriptine
b) Entacapone
c) Carbidopa
d) Levodopa
e) Selegiline
Q) 99. Antidote of morphine is ?
a) Aspirin
b) Paracetamol
c) Norepinephrine
d) Epinephrine
e) Naloxone
Q) 100. Antidote of benzodiazepine is ?
a) Atropine
b) Neostigmine
c) Epinephrine
d) Flumazenil
e) Naloxone
Q) 101. Which of the following Local anesthetics is useful for
topical administration only ?
a) Benzocaine
b) Bupvicaine
c) Lidocaine
d) procaine
e) Tetracaine
Q) 102. Which of the following antidepressants is approved to
treat chilhood enuresis ?
a) Sertraline
b) Fluxetine
c) Fluvoxamine
d) Amitryptylin
e) Haloperidol
Q) 103. The drug of choice in the treatment of myoclonic
seizures of children is ?
a) Flurazepam
b) Diazepam
c) Clonazepam
d) Quazepam
e) Ramelteon
Q) 104. Which of the following antihelminthic agent ethanol
consumption should be avoided for 24 to 48 hours ?
a) Albendazole
b) Mebendazole
c) Niclosamide
d) Pyrantalpamoate
e) Metrifonate
Q) 105. A Drug which is used orally in patients suffering from
chronic hepatitis C - infection ?
a) Peglylated interferon on Alpha 2 - a
b) Peglyated interferon on Alpha 2 - b
c) Interferon on Alpha 2 - b
d) Ribavarin
e) Interferon Alfacon
Q) 106. Which one of the following is cell cycle non specific
drug ?
a) Methotrexate
b) Vinblastine
c) 5 - Fluorouracil
d) Cyclophosphamide
e) Mercaptopurine
Q) 107. Resistance to pencillin is caused by the following
mechanism except ?
a) Inactivation of antibiotics by beta lactamase
b) Modifications of target PBPs
c) Production of an altered reductase with reduced binding
d) Impaired penebration of drug to target PBPs
e) Efflux
Q) 108. All are effective against erythrocytic forms of malarial
parasite, Except ?
a) Artemisnin
b) Mefloquine
c) Pyrimethamine
d) Quinine
e) Primaquine
Q) 109. A luminal agent given after treatment of intestinal or
extra intestinal amebic disease. Choose from the following ?
a) Metronidazole
b) Tinidazole
c) Diloxanide furoate
d) Choloroquine
e) Emetine
110) which of the following antidepressants is useful for
smoking cessation ?
a) Trazodone
b) Buspropion
c) Imipramine
d) Phenelzine
e) Fluoxetine
Q) 111. Antidepressants of choice for the treatment of
enuresis ( Bed wetting ) in children is ?
a) Citalopram
b) Desvenlafaxine
c) Buspropion
d) Imipramine
e) Selegiline
Q) 112. Selective GaBatransminase inhibitor from following
anti - epileptic drug ?
a) Ethosuximide
b) Carbamazpine
c) Sodium valporate
d) Tiagabine
e) Phenytoin
Q) 113. Which of the following is GaBa reuptake inhibitors ?
a) Methosuximide
b) Vigabatrin
c) Tiagabine
d) Clonazepam
e) Pyrimidone
Q) 114. Combination of alcohol and Disulfiram results in nusea
and hypotension as a result of accumulation ?
a) Methanol
b) NADH
c) Acetaldehyde
d) Pyruvate
e) Acetate
Q) 115. At NMDA receptor antagonist and GABA agonist used
in the treatment of chronic alcoholism is ?
a) Naltrexone
b) Disulfiram
c) Acomprostate
d) Formepizole
e) Flumazenil
Q) 116. Lithium ?
a) Has rapid onset of action
b) Is partially excreted by the kidney
c) Has no neurologic side effect
d) Has no contraindications to be given in conjunction with
NSAIDs
e) Is Contraindicated in sick sinus syndrome
Q) 117. Which of the following side effect for given drug is
wrong ?
a) Phenytoin --- Gum hypertrophy
b) Ethosuximide --- Hirustism
c) Phenobarbital --- Enzyme induction
d) Valporate --- Idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity
e) Carbamazapine --- Ataxia
Q) 118. All of the following drugs are correctly matched with
their adverse effects except ?
a) Buspirone ---- Palpitation
b) Diazepam ---- Retrograde amnesia
c) Phenobarbitone ---- Cardiovascular depression
d) Ramelteon ---- Dizziness
e) Zolpidem ---- Rebound insomnia
Q) 119. Long acting glucocorticoids include ?
☆ dexamethasone
Q) 120. Adverse effect most likely caused by term use of
prednisone include ?
☆ osteoporosis
Q) 121. yellowish discloration of teeth in children mostl likely
an adverse effect of ?
☆tetracyclin
Q) 122. Red green colour blindness is common adverse effect
of ?
☆ethambutol
Q) 123. tissue amebicides for amebiasis undergoes a reductive
bioactivation of its aitro group by ferrodoxin present in
parasites to form reactive cytotoxic product include ?
☆chloroquine
Q) 124. Neuro muscular blockade at high doses is an adverse
effect of ?
☆ streptomycin
Q) 125. Gray baby syndrome is adverse effect of ?
☆choramphenicol
Q) 126. A - glucosidase inhibitor drugs inhibiotor drugs used
for treatment of diabetes include ?
☆Acarbose
Q) 127. route of administration of insulin ?
☆ subcutaneous
10) member of biguanide group reduces postprandial and
fasting glucose level include ?
☆ metformin
Q) 128. polyene antufungal include ?
☆ amphotericin B
Q)129. pure opoid receptor anatgonist include ?
☆ naloxone
Q)130. acute pharmacoligic effect of morphine which does not
develop tolerance include ?
☆ constipation
Q) 131. drugs used for prophylactic treatment of bronchial
asthma include ?
☆salmeterol
Q) 132. antipsychotics which suppresses ip3 and DAG signaling
include ?
☆ lithium
Q) 133. which one of the following is anti pseudomonas
antibiotics unclude ?
☆cefotaxime
Q) 134. lithium usefull in ?
☆ bipolar disorder
Q) 135. Which of the following opoid analgesic is used in the
treatment of acute pulmonary edema ?
☆ morphine
Q) 136. the mechanim of action of carbidopa action is ?
☆ inhibition of dopa decarboxylase
20) the mechanism of barbiturates action inducation (at
hypnotic doses) ?
☆ncreasing the duration of GABA-mediated cl-channel
opening
Q) 137. the most important side effect of pencillin is ?
☆ anaphylaxis
Q) 138. which of the following is dissociate anesthetic ?
☆ ketamine
Q) 139.which of the following is not a cephalosporin ?
☆ streptomycin
Q) 140. the commonest adverse effect of aminoglycosides ?
☆ nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Q) 141. moderate agonist opoid drugs include ?
☆ codeine
Q) 142. benzodiazepine ovardosage is treated by ?
☆ flumazenil
Q) 143. route of administation of prednisone ?
☆ oral
Q) 144. mechanism of action of cromolyn ?
☆ mast cell stabilizer
Q) 145. mechanism of action of montelukast is ?
☆ leukotriene receptor blocker
Q) 146. mechanism of action of fucytosine ?
☆ inhibit DNA and RNA polymerase
Q) 146. the most accurate drug interaction is ?
☆ lithium......inhibit cycling of inositole
Q) 147. galactorrhea and amennorhea is side effect of ?
☆resperidone
Q) 148. peptic ulcer healing drug is ?
☆sucralfate
Q) 149. stalvo is anti parkinson drug combination of ?
☆levodopa,carbidopa,entacapone
Q) 150. isoniazid cause peripheral neuropathy overdose
prevent ?
☆ prednisone
Q) 151. oral contraceptive effect is ?
☆ decrease ovarian cancer
Q) 152. antiemtic inhibit by D2 agonist is ?
☆ metoclopramide
Q) 153. drugs effect beta lactamase ?
☆calvulanic acid
Q) 154. P. falciparum malaria drug ?
☆artimether
Q) 155. long acting benzodiazepine ?
☆quazepam
Q) 156. gynecomstia ?
☆cemetidine
Q) 157. penicillin side effect ?
☆ anaphylactic shock
Q) 158. ginguval hyperplasia is side effect of ?
☆ phenytoin
Q) 159. orange tear in which drug ?
☆rifampin
Q) 160. intereferon ?
☆ hepatitis B
Q) 161. which is status epilepticus drug ?
☆ diazepam
Q) 162. primary dug of tuberculosis ?
☆ethambutol
Q) 163. Red green colour blindness ?
☆ethambutol
Q) 164.metformin route ?
☆ oral
Q) 165. metformin belong to which group ?
☆biaguanide
Q) 166. which is benzodiazepine receptor binding site ?
☆ alpha 1 and beta 2
Q) 167. which topical surface action local anesthetic ?
☆ Benzocaine
Q) 168. Tuberculosis 1st line drug ?
☆ isoniazid
Q) 169. ototoxicity is ?
☆ irreversible
Q) 170. Long acting beta2 agonist ?
☆formeterol
Q) 171. mountelukast mechanism of action ?
☆ ltd4
Q) 172. not antipsychotic ?
☆dyskinesis
Q) 173. topical corticosteriod ?
☆ cortisone
Q) 174. which is drugs therapy drug ?
☆ halothane
Q) 175. Which drug is used parkinsonmangement ?
☆ levodopa
Q) 176. coating on ulcer bed ?
☆sucralfate
Q) 177. decrease glucose production ?
☆ metformin
Q) 178. vagus stimulation ?
☆ ipratropium
Q) 179. peripheral neuritis effect by ?
☆ethambutol
Q) 180. drug which is contraindicated in asthma ?
☆ propranolol
Q) 181. blood tisseshezanticide ?
☆primaquine
pharma key regular 2017
1)metformin
2)biguanide
3)amebicides
☆chloroquine
4)neuromuscular blockade
☆ aminoglycoside
5)irreversible
☆ ototoxicity
6)orange tear
☆rifampin
7)amphotericin B
☆ergosterol
8)topical surface action local anesthetic
☆ benzocaine
9)pencillin
☆ anaphylactic shock
10)cemitidine
☆gynaecomastia
11)tetracycline
12)gingival
☆phyenytoin
13)P. Flaciparum
☆artimether
14)isoniazid
15)quazepam
☆ long bezodiazepine
16)alpha 1 and beta 2
☆ benzodiazepine recport binding site
17)lactulose
18)PTU
☆ inhibit thyroid peroxidase reaction
19)peptidoglycan
☆ cephalosporin
20)nedocromil
☆ mast cell stabilizer
21)formetrol
☆ long acting
22)albuterol
23)montelukash
☆ ltd4
24)antiarrythmic
☆ lidocaine
25)not antiphyscotic
☆dyskinesis
26)topical corticosteriod
☆ cortisone
27)halothane
☆parkinson therapy
28)parkinsonmangement levodopa
29)interferon A
☆ hepatitis B
30)morphine poisoning
☆ respiratory
31)5HT3
32)primaquine
33)methicillin
☆ gastric
34)status epilepticus
☆ diazepam
Regular 2016 2015
1) Gray baby syndrome is side effect of which of the following
drugs ?
☆ Chloramphenicol
2) Galactorrhea and amenorrhea is side effect of which of the
following ?
☆Resperidone
3) which of the following anti - fungal drug form leaky pore ?
☆ Amphotericin B
4) which of the following is peptic ulcer healing drug ?
☆Sucralfate
5) Stalvo is an anti - parkinson drugs combination of following
?
☆ Levodopa ~ cabidopa ~ Entacapone
6) Route of administration of insulin is ?
☆ S/C
7) The most accurate drug interaction is ?
☆ Lithium ~~~ Inhibit cycling of inositol
8) The mechanism of action Mountelukast is ?
☆Leukotreine receptor antagonist
9) The mechanism of action Cromolyn is ?
☆ Mast cell stabilizer
10) The mechanism of action of Mebendazole is ?
☆ Inhibit microtubule synthesis
11) Mechanism of action of pyrantelpamoate is ?
☆ Paralysis of nematodes
12) Anti - emetic Inhibit by D2 agonist is ?
☆ Metoclopramide
13) Oral contraceptive effect is ?
☆ Decreases ovarian cancer
14) Travelerdiarrhea and not resistant to P. Flaciparum which
drug is ?
☆Chloroquine
15) Phenytoin and Cimetidine intraction is ?
☆ Increases plasma half life of phenytoin
16) The drug of choice for urinary tract infection is ?
☆Norfloxacin
17) The drug use for induce peptic ulcer is ?
☆Esomeparazole
18) General anesthetics has intrinsic antiemetic properties ?
☆Propofol
19) Which general anesthetic has inhilation route of
administration ?
☆ Halothane
20) Liver dysfucntion result in increase plasma level is ?
☆ Lidocaine
21) Antiparkinson's drug in which LFT shows elevated enzyme
?
☆Tolcapone
22) Anti - epileptic drug which induce other drug is ?
☆Valporic acid
23) Benzodiazepine under entero hepatic metabolism but does
not metabolism into active product ?
☆ Lorazepam
24) Disulfiram like reaction of alcohol side effect of ?
☆ Metronidazole
25) Mechanism of action of omalizumb is ?
☆IgE antibody receptor blocker
26) Route of administration of prednisone is ?
☆ Oral
27) Mechanism of action of Flucytosine is ?
☆ Inhibit DNA and RNA polymerase
28) Cytotoxic products mechanism of action is reduction of
nitro group by ferrodoxin in which drug ?
☆ Metronidazole
29) Skeleton muscle tremor is side effect of ?
☆Albuterol
30) Inhibition of formation of arabinogalactin is mechanism of
action of ?
☆Ethambutol
31) which one of the following effect Beta Lactamase ?
☆Calvulanic acid
32) Peripheral neuritis side effect of ?
☆Ethambutol
33) Mycolic Acid synthesis by ?
☆ INH
34) Coating over ulcer bed involved which drug ?
☆Sucralfate
35) Route of administration of metformin is ?
☆ Oral
36) The mechanism of action of metformin is ?
☆ Decrease glucose production
37) Salt retaining is side effect of which of the following drug ?
☆ Cortisol
38) Mechanism of action of phenytoin is ?
☆ Voltage gatted sodium channel blocker
39) which one of the following is H2 Blocker ?
☆ Cimetidine
40) Red green colour blindness is side effect of which of the
following drug ?
☆Ethambutol
41) which of the following drugs is primary drug of
Tuberculosis (T.B) ?
☆Ethambutol
42) Ototoxicity is adverse effect of which of the following ?
☆ Streptomycin
43) Histamine release prevention is by which of the following
drug ?
☆Cromolyn
44) which of the following anti - parkinson drug is D3 Agonist
?
☆Pramipexole
45) which of the following is 3rd generation respiratory
flouroqunilones ?
☆Moxifloxacin
46) which one is side effect of insulin ?
☆ Weight gain
47) Mechanism of action Lithium is ?
☆ IP3 and DAG signaling
48) Phenytoin ia replaced by which of the following drug ?
☆Valporate
49) which of the following general anesthetic dissociative ?
☆ Ketamine
50) which of the following is short acting local anesthetic ?
☆ Procaine
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