PART 1

APTITUDE TEST: ABSTRACT REASONING

This part is composed of 30 questions designed to assess your ability to

understand patterns and find logic rules. You will be presented with sets of

patterns, which maybe in sequence, puzzle grid, or sets of patterns with odd one

out, similarities and even codes. Further instructions are given within the test.

Below is a sample of this part.

1. Find which one of the figures on the right should come next.

Answer: D

On your answer sheet, shade the letter corresponding to the correct

answer, as shown below:

1.
The test is time limited. You need to finish this part in not more than 15

minutes.

DO NOT PROCEED to next part until the examiner tells you to do so.

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 PART I. APTITUDE TEST

For questions 1-6, which image should replace the question mark ( ).

1.

2.

3.

A. B. C.

D. E.

4.

A. B. C.

D. E.

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5.

A. B. C.

D. E.

6.

A. B. C.

D. E.

For questions 7-12, choose which does not belong or which is the odd one out.
7.

8.

9.

3
10.

11.

12.

For questions 13-18, identify which image comes next to the series.

13.

14.

15.

4
16.

17.

18.

For questions 19-24, choose the image that completes the pattern.

19.

20.

5
21.

22.

23.

24.

25. Which of the shapes below completes the grid?

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26. Which figures on the right is similar to the figures on the left

27. Which two squares are missing?

28. Which is the missing square?

29. Which figure completes the grid?

30. Analogy: Which shape or figure on the right completes the second pair in a similar way as
in the first pair.

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- END OF PART 1 -
 PART II
LANGUAGE USAGE

This part consists of 80 questions aimed at assessing your ability to apply

your knowledge of English language forms and functions and to comprehend
passages. Specifically, this test is composed of test items for grammar and syntax,
vocabulary and spelling, paragraph organization, literature, and reading
comprehension. Further instructions are given in the test.
Below is a sample test question.

Direction: Choose the sentence that best combines the underlined sentences.

1. Art is not only found in the museum or concert hall. Art can be found in the expressive
behavior of ordinary people, as well.

A. Art can be found not only in the museum or concert hall, and it can be found in the
expressive behavior of ordinary people, as well.
B. In the museum or concert hall, art can be found not only there and in the expressive
behavior of ordinary people, as well.
C. Although in the expressive behavior of ordinary people, as well, art can be found not
only in the museum or concert hall.
D. Art can be found not only in the museum or concert hall, but in the expressive
behavior of ordinary people, as well.

Answer: D

On your answer sheet, shade the letter corresponding to the correct answer,
as shown below:

1.

This test is time-limited. You need to finish this part in not more than 45
minutes.
Do not proceed to the next part until the examiner tells you to do so.

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 PART II
LANGUAGE COMPONENT

Direction: Read carefully the instructions before answering the following items. Shade the letter of
your answer on the answer sheet.

Choose the answer that shows the best punctuation for the underlined part of the sentence.
1. The employees asked whether the company would be offering tuition reimbursement within the
next three years?
A. reimbursement within the next three years! D. reimbursement, within the next three years.
B. reimbursement within the next three years. E. reimbursement, within the next three years?
C. correct as is

2. Most residents of the building have air conditioners however I’ve always found that a ceiling fan is
sufficient.
A. air conditioners however: I’ve D. air conditioners, however, I’ve
B. air conditioners however, I’ve E. air conditioners; however, I’ve
C. correct as is

For the following questions, choose the underlined part of the sentence that contains a grammatical
error.
3. We knew Lawrence must of missed the appointment
A B
because train service was disrupted for three hours this
C
morning. No error.
D E
4. Every year, a few committed citizens exceeds our
A B
expectations and work tirelessly to improve our community
C D
programs in significant ways. No error.
E
5. Each of the employees have had a half-hour evaluation
A B C
meeting with his or her supervisor. No error.
D E

Identify the correct verb form suitable to the sentence.

6. Last week, Tracy and Shane were honored at a luncheon for their part in rescuing a child who
_________________ into an icy pond.
A. falls B. would fall C. had fallen D. has fallen
7. The noise from the lawn mowers ______________ louder as the morning progresses.
A. gets B. get C. have gotten D. are getting

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Replace the underlined words with the phrase that best completes the sentence. If the sentence is
correct as is, choose A.
8. I have a cross-training exercise program: I swim laps, play tennis, the weight machines, and bicycle
riding.
A. I swim laps, play tennis, the weight machines, and bicycle riding.
B. I swim laps, play tennis, lift weights, and ride a bicycle.
C. I swim laps, play tennis, I lift weights, and bicycle riding is a change.
D. swimming laps, tennis, lifting weights, and the bicycle.
E. swim laps, play tennis, lifting weights, and riding a bicycle.

9. In classical economic theory, the relationship between supply and demand determines the price of a
commodity.
A. between supply and demand determines
B. among supply and demand determines
C. among supply and demand determine
D. between supply and demand determine
E. with supply and demand determine

10. A corporation created by the federal government during the Great Depression, the Tennessee Valley
Authority (TVA) is responsible for flood control, must generate electric power, and soil conservation.
A. flood control, must generate electric power, and soil conservation.
B. flood control, generating electric power, and for soil conservation.
C. controlling floods, generating electric power, and soil conservation.
D. flood control, the generation of electric power, and soil conservation.
E. flood control, for the generation of electric power, and conserving the soil.

Replace the underlined words with the phrase that best completes the sentence. If the sentence is
correct as is, choose A.
11. When two angles have the same degree measure, it is said to be congruent.
A. When two angles have the same degree measure, it is said to be congruent.
B. When two angles has the same degree measure, it is said to be congruent.
C. Two angles with the same degree measure is said to be congruent.
D. They are congruent when the said two angles has the same degree measure.
E. When two angles have the same degree measure, they are said to be congruent.

12. The friendship between Andre and Robert began when he and his family moved to Ohio.
A. The friendship between Andre and Robert began when he and his
B. Andre and Robert’s friendship began when he and his
C. The friendship among the two boys began when he and his
D. The friendship between Andre and Robert began when Robert and his
E. Andre and Robert’s friendship began when their
Read the following sentences and try to choose the best definition for the italicized word by searching
for context clues in the sentence.
13. The designer window treatments in her house, installed 17 years ago, were outmoded.
A. unnecessary B. pointless C. out-of-date D. worthless

14. Although the professor’s lectures were regarded by many as so wearisome that they regularly put
students to sleep, he ignored all criticism and refused to make any changes.
A. modest B. unpleasant C. boring D. objectionable
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15. The baseball player’s malice toward the referee was revealed in his spiteful remarks to the media,
which almost ruined the referee’s career.
A. vindictive B. crazy C. rude D. unpleasant

Answer the items based on the given paragraph.

Rhesus monkeys use facial expressions to communicate with each other and to enforce
social order. For example, the “fear grimace,” although it looks ferocious, is actually
given by a __________ monkey who is intimidated by a __________ member of the
group.
16. What is the meaning of the underlined word grimace as it is used in the passage?
A. wrinkle B. contortion C. shriek D. simper

17. Which pair of words, if inserted into the blanks in sequence, makes the most sense in the context of
the passage?
A. calm . . . aggressive B. dominant . . . subordinate
C. confident . . . fearless D. subordinate . . . dominant

In prolonged space flight, besides the obvious hazards of meteors, rocky debris, and
radiation, astronauts will have to deal with muscle atrophy brought on by
weightlessness; therefore, when they return to Earth, they face a protracted period of
weight-training to rebuild their strength.

18. What is the most likely meaning of the underlined word debris as it is used in this passage?
A. fragments B. decay C. bacteria D. alien life

19. The underlined word atrophy, as used in the paragraph, most nearly means
A. pain. B. wasting. C. weakening. D. cramping.

Most of the women in the orchestra wore conventional black skirts and white shirts
during concerts and had their hair neatly pulled back. Robin, with her brightly colored
clothing and unusual hairstyles, was considered quite eccentric.

20. What is the meaning of the underlined word eccentric as it is used in the sentence?
A. unconventional B. joyful C. unreliable D. proud

Choose the letter containing the correct pair of words analogous to the given pair.
21. TAILOR : SUIT
A. scheme : agent B. edit : manuscript
C. revise : writer D. mention : opinion E. implode : building
22. CONDUCTOR : ORCHESTRA
A. jockey : mount B. thrasher : hay
C. driver : tractor D. skipper : crew E. painter : house

23. JAUNDICE : LIVER

A. rash : skin B. dialysis : kidney
C. smog : lung D. valentine : heart E. imagination : brain

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Choose the correct meaning of the underlined idiom.

24. Do not trust a man who blows his own trumpet.

A. praises others B. flatters
C. praises himself D. admonishes others
25. Sobhraj could be easily arrested because the police were tipped off in advance.
A. Toppled over B. Given advance information
C. Bribed D. Threatened
26. I am afraid he is burning the candle at both ends and ruining his life.
A. becoming overgenerous B. wasting his money
C. losing his objectives D. overtaxing his energies
27. Although he has failed in the written examination, he is using backstairs influence to get the job.
A. Political influence B. Deserving and proper influence
C. Backing influence D. Secret and unfair influence

Which sentence avoids faulty parallelism?

28. A. Differing expectations for marriage can lead not only to disappointment but also to angering the
couple.
B. Differing expectations for marriage can lead not only to disappointment for the couple but also to
anger.
C. Differing expectations for marriage can lead not only to a disappointment but also to anger.
D. Differing expectations for marriage can lead not only to disappointment but also to anger.

29. A. You come to understand what to expect when you tease a cat, or tossing a pebble in a pool, or
touch a hot stove.
B. You come to understand what to expect when you tease a cat, or toss a pebble in a pool, or
touching a hot stove.
C. You come to understand what to expect when you tease a cat, or toss a pebble in a pool, or touch
a hot stove.
D. You come to understand what to expect when you are teasing a cat, or toss a pebble in a pool, or
touch a hot stove.

Fill in the blank with the word that creates the most logical sentence.
30. My neighbor is deathly afraid of dogs; ___________, I never let my Golden Retriever, Sandy, outside
without a leash.
A. moreover B. yet C mainly D. consequently

31. The wedding quilt was designed as a sentimental way to make use of fabric taken ______________
blankets and bedding that belonged to older couples in her family.
A. from B. with C. in D. at
Choose the sentence that best combines the underlined sentences.
32. She never responded to the invitation we sent. We assumed she wasn’t coming.
A. She never responded to the invitation we sent; however we assumed she wasn’t coming.
B. While we assumed she wasn’t coming, she never responded to the invitation we sent.
C. She never responded to the invitation we sent, whether we assumed she wasn’t coming.
D. Because she never responded to the invitation we sent, we assumed she wasn’t coming.

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33. My friends loved the restaurant. I thought it was overpriced.
A. That my friends loved the restaurant, I thought it was overpriced.
B. My friends loved the restaurant, whereas I thought it was overpriced.
C. My friends loved the restaurant, when I thought it was overpriced.
D. My friends loved the restaurant, or I thought it was overpriced.

34. Having several cavities filled during a dental appointment is definitely unpleasant. It is not as
unpleasant as having a root canal.
A. Having several cavities filled during a dental appointment is definitely unpleasant, so it is not as
unpleasant as having a root canal.
B. Having several cavities filled during a dental appointment is definitely unpleasant, and it is not
as unpleasant as having a root canal.
C. Having several cavities filled during a dental appointment is definitely unpleasant, but it is not as
unpleasant as having a root canal.
D. Having several cavities filled during a dental appointment is definitely unpleasant, or it is not as
unpleasant as having a root canal.

Identify which among the underlined word(s) needs to be altered. Then choose the letter that contains
the correct word(s).
35. Ancient Egyptians spent their entire lives preparing for their death and burial. Today, however,
people are thinking that such arrangements are morbid and impolite to discuss.
A. were spending B. think C. would be D. no change is necessary.
36. We would have bite marks on our ankles and scratches on our thighs ever since adopting Nelson,
our feisty kitten.
A. had B. have C. will have D. no change is necessary.

For each of the following paragraphs, choose the topic sentence that best fits the rest of the paragraph.

37. Residents have been directed to use the new plastic bins as their primary recycling containers. These
new containers will make picking up recyclables faster and easier.
A. The city has distributed standardized recycling containers to all households.
B. Recycling has become a way of life for most people.
C. While most Americans recycle, they also use more resources than residents of other countries.
D. Even small cities have begun recycling to pick up used glass, plastic, and paper.

38. You must imitate as closely as possible the parents’ methods of feeding. First, hold the beak open
using thumb and forefinger. Then, introduce food into the beak with tweezers or an eyedropper.
A. Recently, I read an article about baby birds.
B. Hand-rearing wounded or orphaned baby birds requires skill.
C. Baby birds are very special creatures, and they are also very small.
D. I have been told that you should not touch a baby bird that has fallen out of its nest.
39. All waves, though, have common characteristics that govern their height. The height of a wave is
determined by its speed, the distance it travels, and the length of time the wind blows.
A. Currents, unlike waves, are caused by steady winds or temperature fluctuations.
B. Tsunamis used to be called tidal waves.
C. Ocean waves can vary from tiny ripples to powerful, raging swells.
D. A breaker is when a wave gets top-heavy and tips over.

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40. When people respect the law too much, they will follow it blindly. They will say that the majority has
decided on this law and therefore I must obey it. They will not stop to consider whether or not the
law is fair.
A. Some people say there is too little respect for the law, but I say there is too much respect for it.
B. Sometimes, a judge will decide that a law is unfair.
C. I believe that the majority of the people in this country do not understand what it means to
have respect for other people.
D. Most of the laws passed at the end of the twentieth century are fair laws.
Choose the answer that best develops the topic sentence given.
41. In the Middle Ages, red hair was associated with evil, so to have red hair was to be in constant danger.
A. People with red hair are sometimes singled out and called unflattering nicknames.
B. The Middle Ages was a time of great turmoil and people were often summarily executed by
being burned at the stake.
C. During that time period, people with red hair were sometimes killed because they were thought
to be witches.
D. Red hair is passed on genetically from parent to child.
42. Before we learn how to truly love someone else, we must learn how to love the face in the mirror.
A. Don’t be shy about meeting members of the opposite sex.
B. No one can really love you the way you can love yourself.
C. Love is not something that lasts unless one is very lucky.
D. Learning to accept ourselves for what we are will teach us how to accept another person.
43. Ginkgo biloba extract is the most commonly prescribed plant remedy in the world.
A. There are many plant remedies, including the ones that can be purchased in health food stores.
Not all plant remedies have been approved.
B. It is a highly refined compound produced from the leaves of the ginkgo tree. Many people take
ginkgo to treat conditions such as headaches, asthma, and hearing loss.
C. Ginkgo has also been widely prescribed in Europe. It has been approved by the German
government for the treatment of memory loss.
D. A 1977 study with ginkgo was conducted with twenty patients. These patients ranged in age
from 62 to 85.
44. Life on Earth is ancient and, even at its first appearance, unimaginably complex.
A. Scientists place its beginnings at some 3,000 million years ago. This is when the first molecule
floated up out of the ooze with the unique ability to replicate itself.
B. The most complex life form is, of course, the mammal. The most complex mammal is us.
C. It is unknown exactly where life started. It is unknown exactly where the first molecule was “born.”
D. Darwin’s theory of evolution was an attempt to explain what essentially remains a great
mystery. His theory, of course, has been discounted by some people.

For each of the following paragraphs, choose the sentence that does NOT belong.

(1) The park was empty, except for a child who stood just on the other side of the fence, a little
girl about seven years old, thin and pale, with dark eyes and dark hair—cut short and ragged.
(2) The statistics on neglected children in our country probably fall short of the actual numbers.
(3) The child wore no coat, only a brown, cotton skirt that was too big for her—pinned at the
waist with a safety pin—and a soiled, long-sleeved yellow blouse with rhinestone buttons. (4)
Her fingernails were dirty and broken, the tips of her fingers bluish with cold.
45. A. Sentence 1 B. Sentence 2
C. Sentence 3 D. Sentence 4
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 (1) Ratatouille is a dish that has grown in popularity over the last few years. (2) It features
eggplant, zucchini, tomato, peppers, and garlic, chopped, mixed together, and cooked slowly
over low heat. (3) Zucchini is a summer squash and has a smooth, dark green skin. (4) As
the vegetables cook slowly, they make their own broth, which may be extended with a little
tomato paste.

46. A. Sentence 1 B. Sentence 2

C. Sentence 3 D. Sentence 4

(1) An odd behavior associated with sleep and dreaming is somnambulism, commonly
known as sleepwalking. (2) Sleepwalkers suffer from a malfunction in a brain mechanism
that monitors the transition from REM to non-REM sleep. (3) REM sleep is vitally important
to psychological wellbeing. (4) Sleepwalking episodes diminish with age and usually cause
no serious harm—the worst thing that could happen would be a fall down the stairs.

47. A. Sentence 1 B. Sentence 2

C. Sentence 3 D. Sentence 4

(1) Lyme disease is sometimes called the “great imitator” because its many symptoms mimic
those of other illnesses. (2)When treated, this disease usually presents few or no lingering
effects. (3) Left untreated, it can be extremely debilitating and sometimes fatal. (4) One
should be very careful when returning from a trek in the woods to check for deer ticks.

48. A. Sentence 1 B. Sentence 2

C. Sentence 3 D. Sentence 4

(1) The harp is a musical instrument that has an upright triangular frame. (2) Its strings are
positioned perpendicular to the sounding board. (3) Harps are found in Africa, Europe, North
and South America, and a few parts of Asia. (4) Its beautiful sound, which is capable of
stirring great emotion, might bring tears to your eyes.

49. A. Sentence 1 B. Sentence 2

C. Sentence 3 D. Sentence 4

For each of the following groups of four numbered sentences, choose the sentence order that would
result in the best paragraph.
(1) Figures have the power to mislead people. (2) Mathematics tells us about economic trends, patterns
of disease, and the growth of populations. (3) Math is good at exposing the truth, but it can also
perpetuate misunderstandings and untruths.
50. A. 1, 2, 3 B. 2, 3, 1 C. 3, 1, 2 D. 3, 2, 1

(1) If these new policies are any indication, employees will have much less freedom than they did
before. (2) The handbook also states that employees must give at least three weeks notice before taking
a personal day. (3) The new employee handbook states that anyone who is out sick for more than three
days must provide a doctor’s note.
51. A. 2, 3, 1 B. 3, 1, 2 C. 3, 2, 1 D. 1, 3, 2

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(1) In some areas, the salt is combined with calcium chloride, which is more effective in below-zero
temperatures and which melts ice better. (2) After a snow or icefall, city streets are treated with
ordinary rock salt. (3) This combination of salt and calcium chloride is also less damaging to foliage along
the roadways.
52. A. 2, 1, 3 B. 1, 3, 2 C. 3, 2, 1 D. 2, 3, 1

(1) Yet the human brain is the most mysterious and complex object on Earth. (2) It has created poetry
and music, planned and executed horrific wars, devised intricate scientific theories. (3) It thinks and
dreams, plots and schemes, and easily holds more information than all the libraries on Earth. (4) It
weighs less than three pounds and is hardly more interesting to look at than an overly ripe cauliflower.
53. A. 1, 3, 4, 2 B. 2, 1, 4, 3 C. 3, 1, 2, 4 D. 4, 1, 2, 3

Answer questions 54-55 on the basis of the following passage.

(1) Whether or not you can accomplish a specific goal or meet a specific deadline depends
first on how much time you need to get the job done. (2)What should you do when the
demands of the job precede the time you have available. (3) The best approach is to
correctly divide the project into smaller pieces. (4) Different goals will have to be divided in
different ways, but one seemingly unrealistic goal can often be accomplished by working on
several smaller, more reasonable goals.

54. Which of the following sentences has an error in the underlined verb infinitive?
A. Part 1 B. Part 2 C. Part 3 D. Part 4

55. Which of the following words should replace the underlined word in Part 2 of the passage?
A. exceed B. succeed C. supercede D. proceed

Read the following paragraphs and carefully determine what the main idea is for each. From the five
choices, select the one statement that best supports the author’s point.

56. This paragraph best supports the statement that

Critical reading is a demanding process. To read critically, you must slow down your reading
and, with pencil in hand, perform specific operations on the text. Mark up the text with your
reactions, conclusions, and questions. When you read, become an active participant.
A. critical reading is a slow, dull, but essential process.
B. the best critical reading happens at critical times in a person’s life.
C. readers should get in the habit of questioning the truth of what they read.
D. critical reading requires thoughtful and careful attention.
E. critical reading should take place at the same time each day.

Mathematics allows us to expand our consciousness. Mathematics tells us about economic

trends, patterns of disease, and the growth of populations. Math is good at exposing the
truth, but it can also perpetuate misunderstandings and untruths. Figures have the power to
mislead people.
57. This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. the study of mathematics is dangerous.
B. words are more truthful than figures.
C. the study of mathematics is more important than other disciplines.
D. the power of numbers is that they cannot lie.
E. figures are sometimes used to deceive people.
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 Human technology developed from the first stone tools about two and a half million years
ago. In the beginning, the rate of development was slow. Hundreds of thousands of years
passed without much change. Today, new technologies are reported daily on television and
in newspapers.

58. This paragraph best supports the statement that

A. stone tools were not really technology.
B. stone tools were in use for two and a half million years.
C. there is no way to know when stone tools first came into use.
D. In today’s world, new technologies are constantly being developed.
E. none of the latest technologies are as significant as the development of stone tools.

For the following questions, choose the topic sentence that best fits the paragraph.
59. It weighs less than three pounds and is hardly more interesting to look at than an overly ripe
cauliflower. ___________________________. It has created poetry and music, planned and
executed horrific wars, and devised intricate scientific theories. It thinks and dreams, plots and
schemes, and easily holds more information than all the libraries on Earth.
A. The human brain is made of gelatinous matter and contains no nerve endings.
B. The science of neurology has found a way to map the most important areas of the human brain.
C. Nevertheless, the human brain is the most mysterious and complex object on Earth.
D. However, scientists say that each person uses only 10% of his or her brain over the course of a
lifetime!
60. Gary is a distinguished looking man with a touch of gray at the temples. Even in his early 50s, he still
turns heads.He enjoys spending most of his time admiring his profile in the mirror. In fact, he
considers his good looks to be his second-most important asset. The first, however, is money. He is
lucky in this area, too, having been born into a wealthy family. __________.He loves the power his
wealth has given him.He could buy whatever he desires, whether that be people, places, or things.
Gary checks that mirror often and feels great delight with what he sees.
A. Gary’s gray hair is his worst characteristic.
B. Conceit is the beginning and the end of Gary’s character; conceit of person and situation.
C. Gary feels blessed to be wealthy and the joy consumes his every thought.
D. The only objects of Gary’s respect are others who hold positions in society above him.

For the following questions, a topic sentence is given. Try choosing the sentence that best develops or
supports it.
61. Life on Earth is ancient and, even at its first appearance, unimaginably complex.
A. Scientists place its beginnings at some three billion years ago, when they hypothesize that the
first molecule floated up out of the ooze with the unique ability to replicate itself.
B. The most complex life form is, of course, the mammal—and the most complex mammal is
humankind.
C. It is unknown exactly where life started, where the first molecule was “born” that had the ability
to replicate itself.
D. Darwin’s theory of evolution was one attempt to explain what essentially remains a great
mystery.
62. Cosmetic plastic surgery is one of the fastest growing segments of U.S. medicine.
A. Cosmetic plastic surgery can have dangerous side effects, some of which can be fatal.
B. Americans are eager to make their bodies as perfect as possible and to minimize the visible signs
of aging.
C. The price of cosmetic plastic surgery is also on the rise.
D. This increase in cosmetic plastic surgery says something quite disturbing about our culture.
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63. The Greek ideal of the hero most closely resembles today’s free-agent superstar.
A. A superstar is an athlete who commands a great salary based on his individual skills.
B. The Greek warrior’s focus was on grasping at immortality, and he did this by ensuring that his
name would live on, long after he died.
C. The Greek hero valued self-interest above loyalty to a cause, his king, or to his army, just as the
free-agent superstar values his contract salary above any special team, coach, or the game.
D. The Greek hero was impressive in his performance on the battlefield as well as in the sports
arena.

Some of the questions following the passages ask you to make inferences from the passages. If you
are told to infer something from a passage, you are basically being asked what conclusions can be
drawn from the content of the story.
The use of desktop computer equipment and software to create high-quality documents such as
newsletters, business cards, letterhead, and brochures is called Desktop Publishing, or DTP. The
most important part of any DTP project is planning. Before you begin, you should know your
intended audience, the message you want to communicate, and what form your message will take.

64. The paragraph best supports the statement that

A. Desktop Publishing is one way to become acquainted with a new business audience.
B. computer software is continually being refined to produce high-quality printing.
C. the first stage of any proposed DTP project should be organization and design.
D. the planning stage of any DTP project should include talking with the intended audience.

More and more office workers telecommute from offices in their own homes. The upside of
telecommuting is both greater productivity and greater flexibility. Telecommuters produce, on
average, 20% more than if they were to work in an office, and their flexible schedule allows them
to balance both their family and work responsibilities.

65. The paragraph best supports the statement that telecommuters

A. get more work done in a given time period than workers who travel to the office.
B. produce a better quality work product than workers who travel to the office.
C. are more flexible in their ideas than workers who travel to the office.
D. would do 20% more work if they were to work in an office.

Daffodil bulbs require well-drained soil and a sunny planting location. They should be planted in
holes that are 3–6 inches deep and there should be 2–4 inches between bulbs. The bulb should be
placed in the hole, pointed side up, root side down. Once the bulb is planted, water the area
thoroughly.

66. According to the above directions, when planting daffodil bulbs, which of the following conditions is
not necessary?
A. a sunny location B. well-drained soil
C. proper placement of bulbs in soil D. proper fertilization

67. According to the above directions, which of the following is true?

A. Daffodils do best in sandy soil.
B. Daffodil bulbs should be planted in autumn for spring blooming.
C. It is possible to plant daffodil bulbs upside down.
D. Daffodil bulbs require daily watering.

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 In criminal cases, the availability of readable fingerprints is often critical in establishing evidence
of a major crime. It is necessary, therefore, to follow proper procedures when taking fingerprints.
In major cases, prints should be obtained from all persons who may have touched areas
associated with a crime scene, for elimination purposes.

68. The main idea of the paragraph is that

A. because fingerprints are so important in many cases, it is important to follow the correct course
in taking them.
B. all fingerprints found at a crime scene should be taken and thoroughly investigated.
C. if the incorrect procedure is followed in gathering fingerprints, the ones taken may be useless.
D. the first step in investigating fingerprints is to eliminate those of non-suspects.
69. The paragraph best supports the statement that
A. no crimes can be solved without readable fingerprints.
B. all persons who have touched an area in a crime scene are suspects.
C. all fingerprints found at a crime scene are used in court as evidence.
D. all persons who have touched a crime scene area should be fingerprinted.

Firefighters are often asked to speak to school and community groups about the importance
of fire safety, particularly fire prevention and detection. Because smoke detectors reduce the risk of
dying in a fire by half, firefighters often provide audiences with information on how to install these
protective devices in their homes.
Specifically, they tell them these things: A smoke detector should be placed on each floor of
a home. While sleeping, people are in particular danger of an emergent fire, and there must be a
detector outside each sleeping area. A good site for a detector would be a hallway that runs between
living spaces and bedrooms.
Because of the dead-air space that might be missed by turbulent hot air bouncing around
above a fire, smoke detectors should be installed either on the ceiling at least four inches from the
nearest wall, or high on a wall at least four, but no further than twelve, inches from the ceiling.
Detectors should not be mounted near windows, exterior doors, or other places where drafts
might direct the smoke away from the unit. Nor should they be placed in kitchens and garages,
where cooking and gas fumes are likely to cause false alarms.
70. Which organizational scheme does this list of instructions follow?
A. hierarchical order B. comparison-contrast
C. cause-and-effect D. chronological order by topic
71. What is the main focus of this passage?
A. how firefighters carry out their responsibilities
B. the proper installation of home smoke detectors
C. the detection of dead-air space on walls and ceilings
D. how smoke detectors prevent fires in homes
72. The passage implies that dead-air space is most likely to be found
A. on a ceiling, between four and twelve inches from a wall. C. near an open window.
B. close to where a wall meets a ceiling. D. in kitchens and garages.
73. The passage states that, compared with people who do not have smoke detectors, persons who live
in homes with smoke detectors have a
A. 50% better chance of surviving a fire. C. 50% better chance of preventing a fire.
B. 75% better chance of detecting a hidden fire. D. 100% better chance of not being injured in a fire.
74. A smoke detector should NOT be installed near a window because
A. outside fumes may trigger a false alarm.
B. a draft may create dead-air space.
C. a draft may pull smoke away from the detector.
D. outside noises may muffle the sound of the detector.
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 75. The passage indicates that one responsibility of a firefighter is to
a. install smoke detectors in the homes of residents in the community.
b. check homes to see if smoke detectors have been properly installed.
c. develop fire safety programs for community leaders and school teachers.
d. speak to school children about the importance of preventing fires.

76. A smoke detector must always be placed

a. outside at least one of the bedrooms on any level of the home.
b. outside all bedrooms in a home.
c. in all hallways of a home.
d. in kitchens where fires are most likely to start.

Choose the letter of the correct answer to the following questions.

77. What does the falling of the plums in this excerpt from the
Book of Songs mean?
Ripe plums are dropping,
Now there are only seven.
May a fine lover come for me
Now while there is yet time.

A. Getting older C. Overripe fruits

B. Fewer men D. Lost opportunities

78. What do the following lines from Freneau’s The Wild Honeysuckle exhort?

From morning suns and evening dews/ At first thy little being came;
If nothing once, you nothing lose,/ For when you die you are the same;
The space between is but an hour,/ The frail duration of flower.

A. Humans experience the transience of life.

B. Life is short; it must be lived meaningfully.
C. People are as frail as wild honeysuckles.
D. Everyone must prepare for the inevitable.

79. What do the following lines from Wordsworth’s Psalm of Life reveal about heroes and heroism?

Lives of great men all remind us

We can make our lives sublime,
And, departing, leave behind us
Footprints on the sands of time;

A. Anybody can be a hero. C. Heroes are easy to find.

B. Heroes are often forgotten. D. It is easy to do heroic acts.
80. What figure of speech is used in the following lines From A Dream Deferred
written by Langston Hughes? Langston Hughes
A. Simile C. Personification
What happens to a dream deferred?
B. Metaphor D. Apostrophe Does it dry up/ like a raisin in the sun?
Or fester like a sore-- /And then run?
Does it stink like rotten meat?
Or crust and sugar over-- /like a syrupy
sweet?
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END OF PART II
 PART III
MATHEMATICS

This part consists of 40 questions aimed at assessing your ability to

apply your knowledge in Mathematics. Specifically, this test is composed of
test items that fall under general mathematics which includes topics in
algebra, trigonometry, geometry, statistics and probability and calculus.
Below is a sample of this part.

1. Solve the equation for 𝒂.

𝟏
𝒅 = 𝒗𝒕 + 𝟐 𝒂𝒕𝟐
𝟐𝒅 𝟐𝒅−𝒗𝒕
A. 𝒂 = 𝒗𝒕𝟑 C. 𝒂 = E. 𝒂 = 𝒅𝒗𝒕
𝒕𝟐
𝒅−𝒗𝒕 𝟐(𝒅−𝒗𝒕)
B. 𝒂 = D. 𝒂 =
𝒕𝟐 𝒕𝟐

Answer: D

On your answer sheet, shade the letter corresponding to the correct

answer, as shown below:

1.

This test is time-limited. You need to finish this part in not more than
40 minutes.
Do not proceed to the next part until the examiner tells you to do so.

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