GATE

TEXTILE ENGINEERING &

FIBRE SCIENCE
2016-2018
QUESTION PAPER & ANSWER KEY
GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-4

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “When she fell down the _______, she received many _______ but little help.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) stairs, stares (B) stairs, stairs

(C) stares, stairs (D) stares, stares

Q.2 “In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to correct his _________ behaviour.”

The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

(A) rational (B) reasonable (C) errant (D) good

Q.3 For 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2𝜋, sin 𝑥 and cos 𝑥 are both decreasing functions in the interval ________.

𝜋 𝜋 3𝜋 3𝜋
(A) (0, 2 ) (B) ( 2 , 𝜋) (C) (𝜋, ) (D) ( 2 , 2𝜋)
2

Q.4 The area of an equilateral triangle is √3. What is the perimeter of the triangle?

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

Q.5 Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their volumes:
(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm
(ii) A cube of side 8 cm
(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm
(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 An automobile travels from city A to city B and returns to city A by the same route. The
speed of the vehicle during the onward and return journeys were constant at 60 km/h and
90 km/h, respectively. What is the average speed in km/h for the entire journey?

(A) 72 (B) 73 (C) 74 (D) 75

GA 1/2
GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-4
Q.7 A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many
parallelograms are formed?

(A) 20 (B) 48 (C) 60 (D) 72

Q.8 To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total of
6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test. Question A was correctly answered by 3,30,000
candidates. Question B was answered correctly by 2,50,000 candidates. Question C was
answered correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both questions A and B were answered
correctly by 1,00,000 candidates. Both questions B and C were answered correctly by
90,000 candidates. Both questions A and C were answered correctly by 80,000 candidates.
If the number of students answering all questions correctly is the same as the number
answering none, how many candidates failed to clear the test?

(A) 30,000 (B) 2,70,000 (C) 3,90,000 (D) 4,20,000

1
Q.9 If 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − 1 = 0 what is the value of 𝑥 4 + ?
𝑥4

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9

Q.10 In a detailed study of annual crow births in India, it was found that there was relatively no
growth during the period 2002 to 2004 and a sudden spike from 2004 to 2005. In another
unrelated study, it was found that the revenue from cracker sales in India which remained
fairly flat from 2002 to 2004, saw a sudden spike in 2005 before declining again in 2006.
The solid line in the graph below refers to annual sale of crackers and the dashed line refers
to the annual crow births in India. Choose the most appropriate inference from the above
data.

(A) There is a strong correlation between crow birth and cracker sales.
(B) Cracker usage increases crow birth rate.
(C) If cracker sale declines, crow birth will decline.
(D) Increased birth rate of crows will cause an increase in the sale of crackers.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA 2/2
GATE 2018 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 𝑎 𝑏 −1 −3
Let 𝐴 = [ ] and 𝑋 = ( ). If 𝐴𝑋 = ( ), then |𝐴| is equal to
2 −𝑏 1 1
(A) 2 (B) −2 (C) −6 (D) 6

Q.2 1 2
If 𝐴 and 𝐵 are two independent events such that 𝑃(𝐴) = and 𝑃(𝐵) = , then
4 3
𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) is equal to
11 1 3 5
(A) 12 (B) 12 (C) 4 (D) 6

Q.3 Which one of the following is a leaf fibre?

(A) Coir (B) Sisal (C) Jute (D) Hemp

Q.4 The pair of fibres most prone to accumulation of static charge is

(A) Cotton and Polyester
(B) Silk and Polyester
(C) Polyester and Polypropylene
(D) Silk and Polypropylene

Q.5 Heat-setting of melt-spun and drawn Nylon 6 filament yarn under slack condition leads to
increase in its
(A) Tenacity (B) Molecular orientation
(C) Molecular weight (D) Dimensional stability

Q.6 Which one of the fibres, having stress-strain curves as shown in the figure, is the most
suitable for making mountaineering ropes?

P
Q
R
Stress

Strain
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Q.7 The technology that produces yarn with the maximum fibre migration is
(A) Rotor spinning (B) Friction spinning
(C) Air-jet spinning (D) Ring spinning

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GATE 2018 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.8 The cleaning machine, located in the fine cleaning zone of blowroom, uses the following as
the opening element
(A) Roller with saw tooth wire points
(B) Drum with large spikes
(C) Roller with discs having double edged teeth
(D) Drum with large bladed discs

Q.9 The purpose of having grooves or notches in modern flyer tops in speed frames is to
(A) Increase real twist in roving
(B) Insert false twist in roving
(C) Reduce neps in roving
(D) Increase fineness of roving

Q.10 With time, wind per double traverse in a drum-driven winder

(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant
(D) First increases and then decreases

Q.11 In a loom, seven-wheel take-up motion is

(A) Negative and intermittent
(B) Negative and continuous
(C) Positive and intermittent
(D) Positive and continuous

Q.12 The relative humidity (in %) and temperature (in C) of standard testing atmosphere are
respectively
(A) 65 and 25 (B) 65 and 20 (C) 60 and 25 (D) 60 and 20

Q.13 In Stelometer, if F is the force acting on a fibre bundle and  is the angle through which the
pendulum is moved, then F is directly proportional to
(A) sin (B) cos (C) tan (D) cot

Q.14 Yarn diameter varies

(A) Directly with yarn packing density
(B) Inversely with yarn packing density
(C) Directly with square root of yarn packing density
(D) Inversely with square root of yarn packing density

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GATE 2018 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.15 The constant-rate-of-extension type tensile tester is NOT used for

(A) Tongue tear test (B) Wing rip tear test
(C) Elmendorf tear test (D) Trapezoid tear test

Q.16 During bleaching of cotton with hydrogen peroxide, addition of sodium silicate
(A) Reduces the viscosity of bath
(B) Controls the rate of decomposition of perhydroxyl ions (HO−
2)
(C) Reduces the surface tension of bath
(D) Enhances swelling of cotton

Q.17 In dyeing of wool with levelling acid dyes, with time, the pH of dye bath
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant (D) First increases and then decreases

Q.18 The discharging agent used in discharge printing of cotton with reactive dyes is
(A) Citric acid (B) Sodium dithionite
(C) Thio-urea dioxide (D) Sodium formaldehyde sulphoxylate

Q.19 Application of a fluorochemical based finish on a textile fabric imparts

P. Water repellency
Q. Oil repellency
R. Soil repellency
S. Soil release property

(A) P, Q & R only (B) Q, R & S only

(C) P, R & S only (D) P, Q & S only

Q.20 If 𝑎⃗ = −𝑖̂ + 2 𝑗̂ , 𝑏⃗⃗ = −𝑗̂ + 2 𝑘̂ and 𝑐⃗ = 2𝑖̂ − 𝑘̂ are three vectors such that 𝑎⃗ + 𝜆 𝑏⃗⃗ is
perpendicular to 𝑐⃗ , then the value of 𝜆 is ______________

Q.21 If 𝑦(𝑥) is the solution of the differential equation 𝑦 𝑦 ′ = 8 𝑥 , 𝑦(0) = 2 , then the
absolute value of 𝑦(2) is _______________

Q.22 4−𝑥, 𝑥 ≤2
If 𝑓(𝑥) = { is a continuous function for all real values of 𝑥 , then 𝑓(8)
𝑘𝑥 − 4 , 𝑥 > 2
is equal to _______________

Q.23 A twistless polyester yarn has 90 filaments, each of 2 denier. The metric count of the yarn
is ______________

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GATE 2018 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.24 Bottom shaft of a shuttle loom, weaving 2 up 1 down twill weave, is rotating at 90 rpm.
The speed of cam shaft (in rpm) is ____________

Q.25 If wale constant and course constant for knitted fabrics are 4.2 and 5.46, respectively, then
the value of the loop shape factor, accurate to one decimal place, is ______________

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GATE 2018 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The cross-sectional shape of a fibre affects the following properties of yarn

P. Lustre
Q. Torsional rigidity
R. Flexural rigidity
S. Packing density

(A) P & Q only (B) P & R only

(C) P, Q & R only (D) P, Q, R & S

Q.27 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

[a]: The reaction temperature and rate of agitation during polymerization of polyethylene
terephthalate have an important effect on molecular weight of the polymer produced.

[r]: Polymerization of polyester by melt polycondensation is a predominantly diffusion

controlled process.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.28 Group I gives a list of fibres and Group II contains their applications. Match the fibre with its
application.

Group I Group II

P. Polypropylene 1. Fire proof jacket

Q. Carbon 2. Bullet proof jacket
R. Ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene 3. Carpet
S. Meta-aramid 4. Windmill blade

(A) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Q.29 Techniques used to determine the glass transition temperature of textile fibres are

P. X-ray diffraction (XRD)

Q. Differential scanning calorimetry (DSC)
R. Thermogravimetric analysis (TGA)
S. Dynamic mechanical analysis (DMA)

(A) P & Q only (B) Q & R only

(C) Q & S only (D) R & S only

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GATE 2018 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.30 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

[a]: In a carding machine, carding type of wire point configuration is used between cylinder
and doffer.

[r]: Carding type of wire point configuration gives the best fibre transfer without disturbing
the fibre alignment.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.31 Match the spinning technology listed in Group I with the machine component / function
listed in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Wrap spinning 1. False twisting

Q. Rotor spinning 2. Perforated drums
R. Air-jet spinning 3. Back doubling
S. DREF II friction spinning 4. Hollow spindle

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Q.32 Compared to filaments in spunbonded nonwovens, those in meltblown nonwovens have

P. Lower orientation of molecular chains
Q. Higher orientation of molecular chains
R. Lower variability in diameter
S. Higher variability in diameter

(A) P & R only (B) P & S only

(C) Q & R only (D) Q & S only

Q.33 Match the weave in Group I with fabric attribute in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Plain 1. Holes in fabric

Q. 2 up 1 down twill 2. High tear resistance
R. 7 end satin 3. High shear resistance
S. Mock leno 4. Continuous diagonal line

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

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GATE 2018 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.34 Match the test in Group I with fabric property in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Cup test 1. Flexural rigidity

Q. Heart loop test 2. Water vapour permeability
R. Spray rating test 3. Resistance to water penetration
S. Hydrostatic head test 4. Resistance to surface wettability

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Q.35 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

[a]: The work factor of silk fibre is greater than 0.5.

[r]: The work factor is calculated by assuming the following as the stress-strain curve of
silk fibre.

Stress

Strain

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.36 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

[a]: As the concentration of a surfactant in water increases, the surface tension of water
initially decreases and then becomes constant.

[r]: After reaching the Critical Micelle Concentration, additional surfactant molecules do
not further reduce the surface tension.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

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GATE 2018 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.37 A dye is applied on a fibre using Na2S2O4 as an auxiliary. Washing fastness of the dye on
fibre is good. The correct combination of the dye and the fibre is
(A) Cationic dye, acrylic fibre (B) Vat dye, cotton fibre
(C) Acid dye, wool fibre (D) Reactive dye, cotton fibre

Q.38 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

[a]: Emulsion thickener is used in pigment printing of textiles.

[r]: Emulsion thickener has high solid content.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.39 Match the dye-fibre in Group I with the interactions in Group II.

Group I Group II

P. Reactive dye on cotton 1. Van der Waals forces

Q. Disperse dye on polyester 2. Covalent bonds
R. Vat dye on cotton 3. Electrostatic bonds
S. Basic dye on acrylic 4. Mechanical entrapment

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Q.40 Let 𝑋 be a random variable following the binomial distribution. If 𝐸(𝑋) = 2 and
𝑉𝑎𝑟(𝑋) = 1.2 , then 𝑃(𝑋 = 2) , accurate to three decimal places, is equal to
____________

Q.41 The value of the integral

4 √16−𝑥 2
∫ ∫ 𝑦 √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑥
0 0
is ____________

Q.42 Starting from the initial point 𝑥0 = 10, if the sequence {𝑥𝑛 } is generated using Newton
Raphson method to compute the root of the equation 𝑥 4 − 600 = 0, then 𝑥2 , accurate to
two decimal places, is equal to _____________

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GATE 2018 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.43 If 𝐴 = [ 3 1 ] , then the sum of all eigenvalues of the matrix 𝑀 = 𝐴2 − 4 𝐴−1 is equal
1 3
to _____________

Q.44 If the density of 100% crystalline polyethylene is 1000 kgm-3 and that of 100% amorphous
polyethylene is 865 kgm-3, then the mass fractional crystallinity of a polyethylene fibre
with density 970 kgm-3, accurate to two decimal places, is ___________

Q.45 In winding zone of ring spinning, the permissible minimum angle of lead is 30. For a ring
of 40 mm diameter, the minimum diameter (in mm) of bobbin required is _________

Q.46 A sliver of 4.2 kilotex is fed in a rotor spinning machine with opening zone draft of 1400.
The draft in the transport duct is 5 and the sliding draft on the rotor wall till the rotor
groove is 2. If the total back doubling within the rotor is 120, then the linear density (in
tex) of the output yarn is ___________

Q.47 An eight head comber is running at 400 nips/min. The lap fed is 60 kilotex and noil
extracted is 20%. If the feed/nip is 7 mm, then with machine utilization of 80%, the
production rate (in kg/h), accurate to one decimal place, is ____________

Q.48 A shuttle loom having 1.75 m reed width is running at 180 rpm. The shuttle enters and
leaves the shed at 120 and 240 angular positions of crankshaft, respectively. If length of
the shuttle is 0.25 m, then the mean velocity (in m/s) of the shuttle within the shed is
___________

Q.49 The diameter and length of torsion rod used in a projectile loom are increased by 5% and
20%, respectively. If the torque required to twist the rod increases by X%, then the value of
X, accurate to two decimal places, is _____________

Q.50 Cloth cover factor of a square plain jammed cotton fabric, accurate to one decimal place, is
_____________

Q.51 In a vibroscope, a cotton fibre of 25 mm length is clamped at one end, led over a knife-
edge support, tensioned by a weight of 350 mg, and is inclined to vibrate at a fundamental
resonant frequency of 2.6 kHz. The linear density of the fibre (in tex), accurate to two
decimal places, is ____________

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GATE 2018 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.52 The theoretical limit coefficient of variation (Vr in %) of the weight per unit length of cotton
sliver is 𝑉𝑟 = 106/√𝑁, where N is the average number of fibres present in the cross-
section of the sliver. To derive this expression, the coefficient of variation (in %) of the
fibre weight per unit length, accurate to two decimal places, is considered as
______________

Q.53 The bending length of a nonwoven fabric in machine direction is two times the bending
length in cross-machine direction. The ratio of flexural rigidities of this fabric in machine
direction to cross-machine direction is ______________

Q.54 The standard deviation of population P is two times the standard deviation of population Q.
The size of a random sample from population P is four times the size of a random sample
from population Q. If 𝑒P and 𝑒Q denote the standard error of means of the samples from P
and Q, respectively, then the ratio of 𝑒P to 𝑒Q is _____________

Q.55 A crease resist (CR) agent is applied by padding on a fabric of 1 m width and 200 g/m2
areal density. The concentration of CR agent in the pad bath is 100 gpl and the fabric speed
is 50 m/min. The expression is 110% and the specific gravity of the pad liquor is 1.1. In
order to maintain the bath concentration, the rate (in kg/min) at which the CR agent needs
to be added to the bath, accurate to one decimal place, is_______________

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

TF 10/10
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

1 MCQ GA A 1

2 MCQ GA C 1

3 MCQ GA B 1

4 MCQ GA C 1

5 MCQ GA D 1

6 MCQ GA A 2

7 MCQ GA C 2

8 MCQ GA D 2

9 MCQ GA C 2

10 MCQ GA A 2

1 MCQ TF D 1

2 MCQ TF C 1

3 MCQ TF B 1

4 MCQ TF C 1

5 MCQ TF D 1

6 MCQ TF C 1

7 MCQ TF D 1

8 MCQ TF A 1

9 MCQ TF B 1

10 MCQ TF B 1

11 MCQ TF C 1

12 MCQ TF B 1

13 MCQ TF A 1

14 MCQ TF D 1
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

15 MCQ TF C 1

16 MCQ TF B 1

17 MCQ TF A 1

18 MCQ TF D 1

19 MCQ TF A 1

20 NAT TF ‐1 to ‐1 1

21 NAT TF 6 to 6 1

22 NAT TF 20 to 20 1

23 NAT TF 50 to 50 1

24 NAT TF 60 to 60 1

25 NAT TF 1.3 to 1.3 1

26 MCQ TF D 2

27 MCQ TF A 2

28 MCQ TF B 2

29 MCQ TF C 2

30 MCQ TF D 2

31 MCQ TF C 2

32 MCQ TF B 2

33 MCQ TF A 2

34 MCQ TF D 2

35 MCQ TF D 2

36 MCQ TF A 2

37 MCQ TF B 2

38 MCQ TF D 2
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

39 MCQ TF C 2

40 NAT TF 0.325 to 0.365 2

41 NAT TF 64 to 64 2

42 NAT TF 5.95 to 6.25 2

43 NAT TF 17 to 17 2

44 NAT TF 0.79 to 0.81 2

45 NAT TF 20 to 20 2

46 NAT TF 35.0 to 38.0 2

47 NAT TF 51.0 to 52.0 2

48 NAT TF 18.0 to 18.2 2

49 NAT TF 1.27 to 1.31 2

50 NAT TF 22.8 to 23.1 2

51 NAT TF 0.19 to 0.21 2

52 NAT TF 35.00 to 36.00 2

53 NAT TF 8 to 8 2

54 NAT TF 1 to 1 2

55 NAT TF 0.9 to 1.1 2
 Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Textile Engineering and Fibre Science 4th Feb 2017
Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100
Question Number : 1 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 2 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 3 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 4 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 5 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 6 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 7 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 8 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 9 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 10 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 11 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 12 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 13 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 14 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 15 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 16 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 17 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 18 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 19 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 20 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 21 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 22 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 23 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 24 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 25 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 26 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 27 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 28 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 29 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 30 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 31 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 32 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 33 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 34 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 35 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 36 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 37 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 38 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 39 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 40 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 41 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 42 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 43 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 44 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 45 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 46 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 47 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 48 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 49 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 50 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 51 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 52 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 53 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 54 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0

Question Number : 55 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 56 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 57 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 58 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 59 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 60 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 61 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 62 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 63 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 64 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

Question Number : 65 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66
Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ TF B 1
2 MCQ TF D 1
3 NAT TF 3.99 to 4.01 1
4 MCQ TF A 1
5 MCQ TF B 1
6 MCQ TF C 1
7 MCQ TF A 1
8 MCQ TF C 1
9 MCQ TF B 1
10 MCQ TF A 1
11 MCQ TF D 1
12 MCQ TF D 1
13 MCQ TF A 1
14 MCQ TF B 1
15 MCQ TF D 1
16 MCQ TF D 1
17 MCQ TF A 1
18 MCQ TF B 1
19 MCQ TF A 1
20 MCQ TF D 1
21 MCQ TF B 1
22 MCQ TF C 1
23 MCQ TF C 1
24 MCQ TF D 1
25 NAT TF 0.09 to 0.11 1
26 NAT TF 1.25 to 1.27 2
27 NAT TF 1.65 to 1.76 2
28 MCQ TF A 2
29 MCQ TF C 2
30 MCQ TF C 2
31 MCQ TF C 2
32 NAT TF 11299 to 11370 2
33 MCQ TF B 2
34 MCQ TF A 2
35 NAT TF 14.5 to 14.7 2
36 NAT TF 0.380 to 0.420 2
37 NAT TF 121 to 123 2
38 NAT TF 1327 to 1331 2
39 NAT TF 34 to 37 2
40 MCQ TF C 2
41 NAT TF 79 to 81 2
42 MCQ TF A 2
43 NAT TF 117.00 to 119.00 2
44 NAT TF 73.5 to 76.0 2
45 MCQ TF A 2
46 MCQ TF B 2
47 NAT TF 19.9 to 20.1 2
48 NAT TF 2.1 to 2.3 2
49 NAT TF 6.9 to 8.1 2
50 NAT TF -1.01 to -0.99 2
51 MCQ TF D 2
52 MCQ TF B 2
53 MCQ TF A 2
54 NAT TF 3.50 to 4.00 2
55 MCQ TF A 2
56 MCQ GA D 1
57 MCQ GA D 1
58 MCQ GA D 1
59 MCQ GA B 1
60 MCQ GA A 1
61 MCQ GA C 2
62 MCQ GA D 2
63 MCQ GA C 2
64 MCQ GA B 2
65 MCQ GA A 2
 GATE 2016 General Aptitude – GA Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The chairman requested the aggrieved shareholders to _________________ him.

(A) bare with (B) bore with (C) bear with (D) bare

Q.2 Identify the correct spelling out of the given options:

(A) Managable (B) Manageable (C) Mangaeble (D) Managible

Q.3 Pick the odd one out in the following:

13, 23, 33, 43, 53

(A) 23 (B) 33 (C) 43 (D) 53

Q.4 R2D2 is a robot. R2D2 can repair aeroplanes. No other robot can repair aeroplanes.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements?
(A) R2D2 is a robot which can only repair aeroplanes.

(B) R2D2 is the only robot which can repair aeroplanes.

(C) R2D2 is a robot which can repair only aeroplanes.

(D) Only R2D2 is a robot.

Q.5 If |9y−6| =3, then y2 −4y/3 is .

(A) 0 (B) +1/3 (C) −1/3 (D) undefined

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 GATE 2016 General Aptitude – GA Set-8

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 The following graph represents the installed capacity for cement production (in tonnes) and the
actual production (in tonnes) of nine cement plants of a cement company. Capacity utilization of a
plant is defined as ratio of actual production of cement to installed capacity. A plant with installed
capacity of at least 200 tonnes is called a large plant and a plant with lesser capacity is called a
small plant. The difference between total production of large plants and small plants, in tonnes is
____.

Q.7 A poll of students appearing for masters in engineering indicated that 60 % of the students believed
that mechanical engineering is a profession unsuitable for women. A research study on women with
masters or higher degrees in mechanical engineering found that 99 % of such women were
successful in their professions.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph?
(A) Many students have misconceptions regarding various engineering disciplines.

(B) Men with advanced degrees in mechanical engineering believe women are well suited to be
mechanical engineers.

(C) Mechanical engineering is a profession well suited for women with masters or higher degrees
in mechanical engineering.

(D) The number of women pursuing higher degrees in mechanical engineering is small.

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 GATE 2016 General Aptitude – GA Set-8

Q.8 Sourya committee had proposed the establishment of Sourya Institutes of Technology (SITs) in line
with Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) to cater to the technological and industrial needs of a
developing country.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentence?

Based on the proposal,

(i) In the initial years, SIT students will get degrees from IIT.
(ii) SITs will have a distinct national objective.
(iii) SIT like institutions can only be established in consultation with IIT.
(iv) SITs will serve technological needs of a developing country.

(A) (iii) and (iv) only. (B) (i) and (iv) only.

(C) (ii) and (iv) only. (D) (ii) and (iii) only.

Q.9 Shaquille O’ Neal is a 60% career free throw shooter, meaning that he successfully makes 60 free
throws out of 100 attempts on average. What is the probability that he will successfully
make exactly 6 free throws in 10 attempts?

(A) 0.2508 (B) 0.2816 (C) 0.2934 (D) 0.6000

Q.10 The numeral in the units position of 211870 + 146127 × 3424 is _____.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

3/3
GATE 2016 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The following partial differential equation + = 0 is of the type
(A) Elliptic (B) Parabolic (C) Hyperbolic (D) Mixed type

Q.2 Which of the following is a multi-step numerical method for solving the ordinary differential
equation?
(A) Euler method (B) Improved Euler method
(C) Runge-Kutta method (D) Adams-Multon method

Q.3 Let be a normally distributed random variable with mean 2 and variance 4. Then, the mean of
is equal to ___________

Q.4 1
Let = . The determinant of is equal to
1

(A) (B) (C) (D) 2

Q.5 Which of the following amino acids is responsible for relatively higher wet strength in wool fiber?
(A) Threonine (B) Serine (C) Cystine (D) Tryosine

Q.6 Which one of the following stereo structures of polypropylene is (are) used for commercial fibre
manufacture?
(A) Atactic
(B) Syndiotactic
(C) Isotactic & Syndiotactic
(D) Isotactic

Q.7 Acrylic fibre has high glass transition temperature ( Tg ≈ 100oC) primarily due to
(A) Presence of polar side groups
(B) Presence of bulky side groups
(C) High crystallinity
(D) Main chain stiffness

Q.8 In which of the following polymerization methods the rate of reaction is very high and leads to
uncontrolled polymerization ?
(A) Solution polymerization
(B) Suspension polymerization
(C) Bulk polymerization
(D) Emulsion polymerization

Q.9 Which of the following textile strands is the finest?

(A) 30s Ne (B) 30 denier (C) 30 tex (D) 30s Nm

Q.10 In a carding machine, in which of the following zones the fibre alignment is negatively affected to
the maximum extent?
(A) Cylinder to flats carding region (B) Licker-in to cylinder transfer region
(C) Cylinder to doffer transfer region (D) Doffer to calendar roller region

TF 1/7
GATE 2016 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.11 Which of the following is the correct sequence of events which happen in a roller drafting zone?
(A) Fibre elongation-fibre decrimping- fibre sliding
(B) Fibre sliding-fibre elongation-fibre decrimping
(C) Fibre decrimping- fibre sliding- fibre elongation
(D) Fibre decrimping- fibre elongation- fibre sliding

Q.12 In which region of ring spinning, Coriolis force acts?

(A) Lappet to ring cop
(B) Delivery pair of drafting rollers to lappet
(C) Back pair of drafting rollers to delivery pair of drafting rollers
(D) Feed bobbin to back pair of drafting rollers

Q.13 Which of the following shuttleless weaving systems can offer maximum fabric width ?
(A) Air jet (B) Water jet (C) Projectile (D) Rapier

Q.14 The filling yarn density at selvage is doubled in case of

(A) Fringe selvage
(B) Tucked-in selvage
(C) Shuttle selvage
(D) Leno selvage

Q.15 Which of the following shedding mechanisms provides control of individual warp thread during
weaving ?
(A) Crank (B) Tappet (C) Dobby (D) Jacquard

Q.16 The time required (minutes) to wind 10 kg of 40 tex yarn when the winding machine works at
1000 m/min with an efficiency of 90% is ____________

Q.17 The test statistic to be used for carrying out a test of hypothesis on the mean of a normal
distribution with unknown variance is
(A) Z (B) T (C) χ2 (D) F

Q.18 If the length of a confidence interval on the mean of a normal distribution with known variance is to
be halved, the sample size must
(A) increase by 2 times
(B) decrease by 2 times
(C) increase by 4 times
(D) decrease by 4 times

TF 2/7
GATE 2016 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.19 A comb sorter diagram of cotton fibres is shown below:

Y

A' B'

C'
M
D'
N

O A B C D X
where OM=0.5 OY, OA=0.25 OC, AN=0.5 AA', and OB=0.25 OD. The effective length is
(A) AA' (B) BB' (C) CC' (D) DD'

Q.20 A fabric specimen of original length 75 mm is stretched to a length of 120 mm and after removal of
the load the length reduces to 95 mm. The elastic recovery (%) of the fabric specimen is ________

Q.21 A sector-shaped, falling-pendulum type apparatus is suitable for measurement of

(A) Elmendorf tear strength
(B) Tongue tear strength
(C) Trapezoidal tear strength
(D) All of them

Q.22 Sodium persulphate is used in

(A) Bleaching (B) Scouring (C) Mercerization (D) Desizing

Q.23 Polyester is dyed with a disperse dye at 100 oC and 120oC till equilibrium is achieved. If D[f] and
D[s] represent the dye in fibre and dye in solution respectively, then the correct choice for the
dyeing isotherms at the two temperature will be
(A) (B)

120oC 120oC
100oC 100oC
D [f]
D [f]

D [s] D [s]
(C) (D)

100oC 100oC
120oC 120oC
D [f]
D [f]

D [s] D [s]

TF 3/7
GATE 2016 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.24 A dye with dischargeability rating of 1 (one) WILL NOT be suitable for
(A) Resist printing (B) Direct printing
(C) Discharge printing (D) Melt transfer printing

Q.25 The enzyme used for biopolishing of cotton is

(A) Cellulase (B) Pectinase (C) Amylase (D) Lipase

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 3 4
The eigen values and eigen vectors of are
4 −3
1 2 1 2
(A) ±5 and , respectively. (B) ±3 and , respectively.
2 1 2 1
1 2 1 2
(C) ±4 and , respectively. (D) ±5 and , respectively.
2 1 1 1

Q.27 Let ( , , ) = . The value of + + is equal to _________

( )

Q.28 Let be a continuous type random variable with probability density function
−1 ≤ ≤ 3
( )= . When ( ≤ ) = 0.75, the value of is equal to _____________
0 ℎ

Q.29 The integrating factor of (2 cos + 4 ) − sin = 0 is

(A) − (B) (C) (D) −

Q.30 The Fourier series of periodic function ( ) =

−
− < <0
and ( + 2 ) = ( ) is given
0< <
by sin + sin 3 + sin 5 + ⋯ . Then, the value of 1 − + − + ⋯ is equal
to_________

Q.31 Match the fibers listed in Column A with the compounds used in its manufacture listed in Column
B. Choose the right answer from options A, B, C and D.

Column A Column B

P. Polypropylene 1. Carbon disulfide

Q. Polyethylene Terephthalate 2. Water
R. Nylon 6 3. Ziegler Natta catalyst
S. Viscose 4. Antimony trioxide & Antimony triacetate
(A) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3 (B) P-3,Q-4,R-2,S-1
(C) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2 (D) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4

TF 4/7
GATE 2016 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.32 Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the correct alternative from amongst
A, B, C and D.

[a] Both polyester and nylon filaments can be drawn at room temperature to achieve higher
strength, modulus and dimensional stability.

[r] Tg of both polyester and nylon can be lowered to room temperature on absorption of
atmospheric moisture.

(A) [a] is right and [r] is wrong

(B) [a] is right and [r] is right
(C) [a] is wrong and [r] is wrong
(D) [a] is wrong and [r] is right

Q.33 Low pill PET fibres of a given denier can be produced by a combination of any two options listed
below. Choose the right combination from A, B, C and D.

P. Lowering the IV (intrinsic viscosity) of the polymer

Q. Increasing the IV (intrinsic viscosity) of the polymer
R. Increasing the draw ratio
S. Decreasing the draw ratio
(A) P,S (B) P,R (C) Q,S (D) Q,R

Q.34 Which of the following combination of statements from options A, B, C and D is correct ?

1. X-ray Diffraction gives information about crystallinity and crystal size in semicrystalline
polymers.
2. Differential Scanning Calorimetery gives information about Tg, Tm and Tc as well as enthalpy of
melting and crystallization.
3. In Scanning Electron Microscopy the sample has to be coated with silver to make it conducting.
4. Birefringence is a measure of molecular orientation in amorphous phase only.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (D) All are correct

Q.35 Match the fibre in Column A with the spinning technique used to manufacture in Column B.
Choose the correct alternative from options A, B, C and D.

Column A Column B

P. Rayon 1. Dry-jet-wet spinning

Q. Aramid ( Kevlar) 2. Gel Spinning
R. Ultra High Molecular weight Polyethylene 3. Melt spinning
S. Polyester 4. Wet Spinning
(A) P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4 (B) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
(C) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 (D) P-4,Q-1,R-2,S-3

Q.36 If 50 bales of 5 µg/inch, 20 bales of 3.5 µg/inch and 40 bales of 3.0 µg/inch cotton fibres are mixed,
the resultant µg/inch of the mixed cotton is __________

Q.37 A rotor with 48 mm diameter running at 90,000 rpm is producing yarn at 140 m/min. The number
of doublings of fibre layers in the rotor is _________

TF 5/7
GATE 2016 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.38 Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the correct alternative from amongst
A, B, C and D.
[a] Compared to ring spun yarns, rotor spun yarns have better evenness for the same yarn count.
[r] Rotor spun yarns have more number of fibres in the yarn cross section compared to ring spun
yarns of same count.
(A) [a] is right and [r] is wrong
(B) [a] is right and [r] is right
(C) [a] is wrong and [r] is wrong
(D) [a] is wrong and [r] is right

Q.39 The final yarn count required from a ring frame is 36s Ne with 28 TPI. The twist contraction
during spinning is 3%. If the feed roving count is 2s Ne, the mechanical draft required in the ring
frame will be _________

Q.40 The diameter (mm) of a cotton yarn of 50 tex count and 0.45 packing density, assuming cotton fibre
density to be 1.54 g/cm3, is ___________

Q.41 In needle punching process, higher punch density CAN NOT cause
(A) Lower web thickness
(B) Higher change of fabric dimensions
(C) Higher damage of fibres
(D) Higher permeability of fabric

Q.42 Which of the following features IS NOT found in a crepe weave

(A) Highly irregular surface-puckered in appearance
(B) Prominent twill effect on the fabric
(C) Minute spots or seeds spread over the fabric
(D) High twist yarn with controlled shrinkage

Q.43 The crimp% of a square cloth in which thread spacing is equal to the yarn diameter and no jamming
takes place, will be ___________

Q.44 A 38 cm diameter circular knitting machine accommodates 4 needles per cm. The stitch length is 6
mm and wale constant can be assumed to be 42.2. The flat fabric width (cm) in finished - relaxed
form is ___________

Q.45 The least desired feature of fibre in wet laid nonwoven fabric is
(A) High affinity for water (B) Low aspect ratio
(C) High flexural rigidity (D) Low crimpiness

Q.46 The surface area per unit volume (mm-1) of a circular polyester fibre of 1.5 denier fineness and 1.38
g/cm3 density, ignoring the fibre ends, is ____________

Q.47 The fibre packing density in a cotton bale of 170 kg weight and dimensions 1060 mm (L) × 530
mm (W) × 780 mm (H), assuming cotton fibre density to be 1.54 g/cm3, is __________

Q.48 A cotton yarn with 5% breaking elongation needs to be tested for breaking strength in a tensile
tester at 500 mm gauge length. The clamp speed (mm/min) required to break the specimen in 20 s
is _________

TF 6/7
GATE 2016 Textile Engineering and Fibre Science

Q.49 The rotational speed of a card cylinder with locally damaged card clothing is 400 rpm and the sliver
delivery rate is 100 m/min. The wavelength (m) of the periodic mass variation in the card sliver is
_________

Q.50 The flexural rigidity, expressed in 10-4 mg·cm, of a fabric test specimen of 100 g/m2 areal density
and 0.40 mm length of overhang determined using a cantilever test with a standard angle of
deflection of 41.5º, is ___________

Q.51 The volume strength of 1 molar H2O2 solution will be ___________

Q.52 Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the correct alternative from amongst
A, B, C and D.
[a] In dyeing of polyester with disperse dyes, it is easier to obtain dark shades with solvent dyeing
method than with aqueous dyeing method.
[r] The partition coefficient (D[f]/D[s]) of disperse dyes is much lower in aqueous medium than in a
solvent.
(A) [a] is right and [r] is wrong
(B) [a] is right and [r] is right
(C) [a] is wrong and [r] is wrong
(D) [a] is wrong and [r] is right

Q.53 A reactive dye is applied on cotton fabric by continuous method. The achieved shade on fabric is
2% on the weight of fabric. The dyebath concentration is 25 gram per litre and the % expression
after padding is 100. The specific gravity of the solution is 1. The fixation % of the dye on the
fabric is __________________________

Q.54 Consider the following assertion [a] and reason [r] and choose the correct alternative from amongst
A, B, C and D.
[a] In resin finishing of cellulosic textiles, usually the curing stage is carried out in hot dry air and
not in steam.
[r] The acid catalyst used in resin formulation is activated in hot air only.
(A) [a] is right and [r] is wrong
(B) [a] is right and [r] is right
(C) [a] is wrong and [r] is wrong
(D) [a] is wrong and [r] is right

Q.55 Match the printing processes in Column A with print paste components in Column B. Choose the
correct alternative from options A, B, C and D.

Column A Column B

P. Pigment printing 1. Disperse dye

Q. Discharge printing 2. Binder
R. Resist printing 3. High solids content thickener
S. Sublimation transfer printing 4. Sodium formaldehyde sulphoxylate
(A) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 (B) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1
(C) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 (D) P-1,Q-4,R-3,S-2

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

TF 7/7
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA C 1
2 MCQ GA B 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA B 1
5 MCQ GA C 1
6 NAT GA 120 : 120 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA A 2
10 NAT GA 7.0 : 7.0 2
1 MCQ TF A 1
2 MCQ TF D 1
3 NAT TF -0.01 : 0.01 1
4 MCQ TF B 1
5 MCQ TF C 1
6 MCQ TF D 1
7 MCQ TF A 1
8 MCQ TF C 1
9 MCQ TF B 1
10 MCQ TF C 1
11 MCQ TF D 1
12 MCQ TF A 1
13 MCQ TF C 1
14 MCQ TF B 1
15 MCQ TF D 1
16 NAT TF 275 : 280 1
17 MCQ TF B 1
18 MCQ TF C 1
19 MCQ TF B 1
20 NAT TF 55 : 56 1
21 MCQ TF A 1
22 MCQ TF D 1
23 MCQ TF B 1
24 MCQ TF C 1
25 MCQ TF A 1
26 MCQ TF A 2
27 NAT TF -0.01 : 0.01 2
28 NAT TF 1.99 : 2.01 2
29 MCQ TF B 2
30 NAT TF 0.99 : 1.01 2
31 MCQ TF B 2
32 MCQ TF C 2
33 MCQ TF A 2
34 MCQ TF A 2
35 MCQ TF D 2
36 NAT TF 3.70 : 3.85 2
37 NAT TF 96.85 : 97.05 2
38 MCQ TF A 2
39 NAT TF 18.40 : 18.65 2
40 NAT TF 0.29 : 0.31 2
41 MCQ TF D 2
42 MCQ TF B 2
43 NAT TF 56 : 57 2
44 NAT TF 67 : 68 2
45 MCQ TF C 2
46 NAT TF 322 : 323 2
47 NAT TF 0.24 : 0.26 2
48 NAT TF 74.90 : 75.10 2
49 NAT TF 0.24 : 0.26 2
50 NAT TF 0.79 : 0.81 2
51 NAT TF 11.00 : 11.40 2
52 MCQ TF C 2
53 NAT TF 79.90 : 80.10 2
54 MCQ TF A 2
55 MCQ TF B 2