Router R1 has a router-on-a-stick (ROAS) configuration with two subinterfaces of

interface G0/1: G0/1.1 and G0/1.2. Physical interface G0/1 is currently in a

down/down state. The network engineer then configures a shutdown command when
in interface configuration mode for G0/1.1, and a no shutdown command when in
interface configuration mode for G0/1.2. Which answers are correct about the
interface state for the subinterfaces?

G0/1.2 will be in a down/down state.

G0/1.1 will be in an administratively down state.

2. An enterprise uses an MPLS Layer 3 VPN with the company

headquarters connected plus ten remote sites connected to the service.
The enterprise uses EIGRP at all sites, with one router connected to the
service from each site. Which of the following are true about the Layer 3
details most likely used with this service and design?

The WAN uses ten or more IP subnets.

A remote site router would have one EIGRP neighbor.

Imagine that you are told that switch 1 is configured with the dynamic auto
parameter for trunking on its Fa0/5 interface, which is connected to switch
2. You have to configure switch 2. Which of the following settings for
trunking could allow trunking to work?

on

dynamic desirable
4. The example shows an excerpt from the show ipv6 route ospf command
on a router (R1). Which of the answers are correct about the interpretation
of the meaning of the output of this command?

S0/0/1 is an interface on R1.

OI means that the route is an interarea OSPF route.

5. A network engineer takes four 2960-X switches and creates a switch

stack using either FlexStack or FlexStack-Plus stacking from Cisco. Now
consider data plane functions, such as frame forwarding; control plane
functions, such as STP and VTP; and management plane functions, such
as Telnet and SSH support. Once the stack is cabled and working, which of
the following is true about how the stack of four switches works?

The stack acts as one switch for data plane, control plane, and management
plane
functions.

6. Which of the following topology terms most closely describe the topology
created by a Metro Ethernet Tree (E-Tree) service?

Partial mesh

Hub and Spoke

7. Which of the following identifies a next-hop IP address on a feasible

successor route?

10.1.5.4
8. Two routers connect with a serial link, each using its S0/0/0 interface.
The link is currently working using PPP. The network engineer wants to
migrate to use the Cisco-proprietary HDLC that includes a protocol type
field. Which of the following commands can be used to migrate to HDLC
successfully?

encapsulation hdlc

no encapsulation ppp

9. R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25,

with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the ip
address interface subcommand. The routers use an FHRP. Host A and
host B attach to the same LAN and have correct default router settings per
the FHRP configuration. Which of the following statements is true for this
LAN?

If one router fails, both hosts will use the one remaining router as a
default router.

10. Two routers using OSPFv2 have become neighbors and exchanged all
LSAs. As a result, Router R1 now lists some OSPF-learned routes in its
routing table. Which of the following best describes how R1 uses those
recently learned LSAs to choose which IP routes to add to its IP routing
table?

Run some SPF math against the LSAs to calculate the routes.

11. R1 and R2 are routers that connect to the same VLAN. Which of the
answers list an item that can prevent the two routers from becoming
OSPFv3 neighbors?

Mismatched Hello timers

Equal router IDs

One passive router interface (used on this link)
12. A router has been configured with the global command snmp-server
community textvalue1 RO textvalue2. Which of the following statements
are true about the meaning of this command?

The router’s read-only community is textvalue1.

The router filters incoming SNMP messages using IPv4 ACL textvalue2.

13. Examine the output taken from a router using IP SLA. Which of the
following answers list a fact that can be confirmed based on this output?

The probe sends ICMP Echos to address 10.1.1.1.

The output confirms that an Echo Reply was received back as well.

14. Which of the following distance vector features prevents routing loops
by causing the routing protocol to advertise only a subset of known routes,
as opposed to the full routing table, under normal stable conditions?

Split horizon

15. Router R1 has four routes to subnet 2. The one successor route has a
metric of 100, and the one feasible successor route has a metric of 350.
The other routes have metrics of 450 and 550. R1’s EIGRP configuration
includes the variance 5 command. Choose the answer that refers to the
highest-metric route to subnet 2 that will be visible in the output of the show
ip route eigrp command on R1.

The feasible successor route (metric 350)

16. Which of the following QoS marking fields could remain with a packet
while being sent through four different routers, over different LAN and WAN
links?

IPP

DSCP

17. Which of the following features is true of eBGP but not iBGP?

Exchanges routes between an ISP and an enterprise

18. Which of the following interior routing protocols support VLSM?

RIPv2

EIGRP

OSPF

19. An enterprise uses Cisco IOS routers and DSL connections to local
ISPs for their retail locations. The ISPs require the use of PPPoE. The
routers at each retail site use dynamically learned public IP addresses as
learned from the ISPs. Each router uses its F0/0 interface to connect to an
external DSL modem, which then connects to a phone line. Which of the
following is the most likely choice for configuring the router to use the IP
address as assigned by the ISP?

Some dialer interface has an ip address negotiated interface subcommand.

20. In the show ip route command, what code designation implies that a
route was learned with EIGRP?

D
21. A colleague mentions using a client VPN. Which of the following
protocols or technologies would you expect your colleague to have used?

SSL

22. Which of the following best describes a virtual network function in a

public cloud service?

A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer as a

VM that is directly accessible and configurable by the customer

23. ACL 1 has three statements, in the following order, with address and
wildcard mask values as follows: 1.0.0.0 0.255.255.255, 1.1.0.0
0.0.255.255, and 1.1.1.0 0.0.0.255. If a router tried to match a packet
sourced from IP address 1.1.1.1 using this ACL, which ACL statement does
a router consider the packet to have matched?

First

24. Which of the following answers is true of TACACS+ but not true of
RADIUS?

Supports ability to authorize different users to use different subsets of CLI

commands.

25. Which of the following access-list commands permit packets going from
host 10.1.1.1 to all web servers whose IP addresses begin with 172.16.5?

access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www

access-list 2523 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www

26. Routers A and B use EIGRP. How does router A watch for the status of
router B so that router A can react if router B fails?
By using EIGRP Hello messages, with A needing to receive periodic Hello
messages
to believe B is still working.

27. An engineer migrates from a more traditional OSPFv2 configuration

that uses network commands in OSPF configuration mode to instead use
OSPFv2 interface configuration. Which of the following commands
configures the area number assigned to an interface in this new
configuration?

The ip ospf command in interface configuration mode

28. R1 and R2 are routers that connect to the same VLAN. Which of the
answers list an item that can prevent the two routers from becoming EIGRP
for IPv6 neighbors?

Mismatched ASNs

One passive router interface (used on this link)

29. A router has been configured with the following command: snmp-server
group one v3 auth write v1default. Which of the following answers lists a
command that would correctly define a user to associate with this SNMPv3
group to correctly define security parameters to work with an SNMP
manager?

snmp-server user fred4 one auth sha pass1

30. An enterprise uses Cisco IOS routers and DSL connections to local
ISPs for their retail locations. The ISPs require the use of PPPoE. A
network engineer connects to the console of one router at a retail office,
issues the show pppoe session command, and the router just returns a
command prompt, with no lines of output. If you knew the problem was
related to the configuration on the local router, which one of the four
following areas would be the best area to recommend for your colleagues
to investigate in their next troubleshooting step?
Look at the commands on the physical Ethernet interface

31. Which of the following are transitory IEEE 802.1D port states used only
during the process of STP convergence?

Listening

Learning

32. Which of the following controllers (if any) from Cisco uses a mostly
centralized control plane model?

Cisco Open SDN Controller

33. RSTP adds some concepts to STP that enable ports to be used for a
role if another port on the same switch fails. Which of the following
statements correctly describe a port role that is waiting to take over for
another port role?

An alternate port waits to become a root port.

A backup port waits to become a designated port.

34. Which of the following PPP authentication protocols authenticates a

device on the other end of a link without sending any password information
in clear text?

CHAP

35. An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is

considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under
consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company
chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a
different cloud provider instead?

Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider

36. An engineer plans to connect three switches (SW1, SW2, and SW3) in
a lab. Before connecting the switches, he starts by configuring all three
switches as VTP servers, with matching VTP domain name and password.
He then configures some VLANs on each switch so that switch SW3 has a
revision number of 10, switch SW2 has a revision number of 6, and switch
SW1 has a revision number of 8. Only then does the engineer connect the
switches with trunks: first SW1 to SW2, then SW2 to SW3, and then SW3
to SW1. Switch SW1 is elected the STP root switch in VLAN 1. Which
answer most accurately states which VLAN configuration database is used,
and why?

All use SW3’s database because SW3 has the highest revision number.

37. Three redundant IPv6 routes exist on R1 to reach IPv6 subnet 9

(2009:9:9:9::/64), a subnet connected to Router R9’s G0/0 interface. R1’s
current successor route uses R2 as the next hop, with feasible successor
routes through Routers R3 and R4. Then, another engineer makes
changes to the configuration in the network, resulting in R1 having no
routes to reach subnet 9. Which of the answers lists one configuration that
would result in R1 having no routes at all to subnet 9?

Change R1’s EIGRP ASN to some other number, but otherwise keep the same
configuration.

38. Router R1’s EIGRP process knows of three possible routes to subnet 1.
One route is a successor, and one is a feasible successor. R1 is not using
the variance command to allow for unequal-cost load balancing. Which of
the following commands shows information about the feasible successor
route, including its metric, whether as EIGRP topology information or as an
IPv4 route?

show ip eigrp topology

39. An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor

command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the
BDR mean?

Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router.

40. An enterprise uses Cisco IOS routers and DSL connections to local
ISPs for their retail locations. The ISPs require the use of PPPoE. The
following output listed comes from one such router (R1). Which of the
following answers are true about the configuration on Router R1 and its
current PPPoE state?

Dialer interface 1 and virtual-access 1 are bound together.

The PPPoE session is currently working.

41. An enterprise connects 20 sites into an MPLS VPN WAN. The

enterprise uses OSPF for IPv4 routes at all sites. Consider the OSPF area
design options, and the PE-CE links. Which of the following answers is
most accurate about OSPF areas and the PE-CE links?

The PE-CE link may or may not be chosen to be in backbone area 0.

42. In a LAN, which of the following terms best equates to the term VLAN?

Broadcast domain

43. Which of the following RSTP port states have the same name and
purpose as a port state in traditional 802.1D STP?
Listening

Forwarding

44. Which of the following are differences between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?

OSPFv2 uses LSAs, while OSPFv3 uses LSAs but with differences.

OSPFv2 can advertise IPv4 routes, while OSPFv3 can advertise both IPv4 and
IPv6 routes.

45. Which of the following answers list a valid number that can be used
with standard numbered IP ACLs?

1987

87

46. In a router running a recent IOS version (at least version 15.0), an
engineer needs to delete the second line in ACL 101, which currently has
four commands configured. Which of the following options could be used?

Delete the entire ACL and reconfigure the three ACL statements that should
remain in the ACL.

Delete one line from the ACL by entering ACL configuration mode for the ACL
and then deleting only the second line based on its sequence number.

47. Imagine a switch with three configured VLANs. How many IP subnets
are required, assuming that all hosts in all VLANs want to use TCP/IP?

48. An enterprise uses a site-to-site GRE tunnel that runs over the Internet
between two routers (R1 and R2). R1 uses tunnel interface 22. The tunnel
has a source of 1.1.1.1 and a destination of 2.2.2.2. All the answers list
facts that could be true, but which of the following must be true when
Router R1’s tunnel 22 is in an up/up state?

R1 has a working (up/up) interface with address 1.1.1.1.

49. Which of the following is true about the concept of EIGRP feasible
distance?

A route’s feasible distance is the calculated metric of the successor route.

50. Which of the following network commands, following the command

router ospf 1, tells this router to start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP
addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1?

network 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

51. The output of the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command from R2 lists
one neighbor. Which of the following answers is correct about the meaning
of the output of the command in this example?

The neighbor’s link-local address on its common link must be

FE80::FF:FE22:2222.

52. A LAN design uses a Layer 3 EtherChannel between two switches

SW1 and SW2, with Port-Channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1
uses ports G0/1, G0/2, and G0/3 in the channel. Which of the following are
true about SW1’s configuration to make the channel be able to route IPv4
packets correctly?

The ip address command must be on the port-channel 1 interface.

The port-channel 1 interface must be configured with the no switchport

command.

53. With IEEE 802.1x, which role does a LAN switch typically play?

Authenticator

54. Layer 2 switch SW2 connects to several devices: a Layer 2 switch

(SW1), a router, a DHCP server, and three PCs (PC1, PC2, and PC3). All
PCs are expected to use DHCP to lease their IP addresses. A network
engineer implements DHCP snooping on switch SW2. Unknown to the
engineer, a malicious attacker is using PC3. Which of the following is the
most likely DHCP snooping trust state configuration on SW2 for the ports
connected to the listed devices?

The port connected to switch SW1 is trusted.

The port connected to PC1 is untrusted.

55. Which of the following distance vector features prevents routing loops
by advertising an infinite metric route when a route fails?

Route poisoning

56. Which of the following bridge IDs wins election as root, assuming that
the switches with these bridge IDs are in the same network?

4097:0200.1111.1111

57. Switches SW1 and SW2 connect through an operational trunk. The
engineer wants to use VTP to communicate VLAN configuration changes.
The engineer configures a new VLAN on SW1, VLAN 44, but SW2 does
not learn about the new VLAN. Which of the following configuration settings
on SW1 and SW2 would be a potential root cause why SW2 does not learn
about VLAN 44?

VTP domain names of larry and LARRY, respectively

VTP passwords of bob and BOB, respectively

58. An enterprise has 1000 small retail locations and a central site. The
enterprise uses Internet access links to each retail store and DMVPN to
securely create a VPN back to the central site. Which of the following
answers is true about the operation and configuration of DMVPN?

The hub router needs less than 10 tunnel interfaces.

59. Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for matching all IP
packets in subnet 10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.255.0?

0.0.0.255

60. Which of the following OSPF neighbor states is expected when the
exchange of topology information is complete between two OSPF
neighbors?

Full

61. A ping of the IP address on the other end of the link fails. Which of the
following are reasons for the failure, assuming that the problem listed in the
answer is the only problem with the link?

CHAP authentication failed.

The router on the other end of the link has been configured to use HDLC.
62. An engineer configures a switch to put interfaces G0/1 and G0/2 into
the same Layer 2 EtherChannel. Which of the following terms is used in the
configuration commands?

Channel-group

63. A company has a small/medium-sized network with 15 routers and 40

subnets and uses OSPFv2. Which of the following is considered an
advantage of using a singlearea design as opposed to a multiarea design?

Simpler planning and operations.

64. Consider the routes advertised over a typical single-homed Internet

edge connection that uses eBGP. Which of the following answers describe
a route typically advertised by eBGP in this case?

A route for the enterprise’s public IPv4 address block to the ISP

A default route advertised by the ISP to the enterprise

65. Switch SW1 sends a frame to switch SW2 using 802.1Q trunking.
Which of the answers describes how SW1 changes or adds to the Ethernet
frame before forwarding the frame to SW2?

Inserts a 4-byte header and does not change the MAC addresses

66. A switch has just arrived from Cisco. The switch has never been
configured with any VLANs, but VTP has been disabled. An engineer gets
into configuration mode and issues the vlan 22 command, followed by the
name Hannahs-VLAN command. Which of the following are true?

VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show vlan brief command.

VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show running-config command.

67. Which of the following routing protocols use a metric that is, by default,
at least partially affected by link bandwidth?

EIGRP

OSPF

68. In the cabling for a leased line, which of the following usually connects
to a four-wire line provided by a telco?

CSU/DSU

69. Which of the following commands identify switch interfaces as being

trunking interfaces: interfaces that currently operate as VLAN trunks?

show interfaces switchport

show interfaces trunk

70. Which of the following are true about this router’s S0/0/1 interface?

The interface is using PPP.

The link should be able to pass PPP frames at the present time.

71. Which of the following network commands, following the command

router eigrp 1, tells this router to start using EIGRP on interfaces whose IP
addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1?

network 10.0.0.0

network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255

72. Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for matching all IP
packets in subnet 10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.240.0?
0.0.15.255

73. Which of the following is true about the concept of EIGRP reported
distance?

A route’s reported distance is the metric of a route from a neighboring

router’s
perspective.

74. An enterprise uses a dual-stack model of deployment for IPv4 and

IPv6, using EIGRP as the routing protocol for both. Router R1 has IPv4 and
IPv6 addresses on its G0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces only, with EIGRP for IPv4
and EIGRP for IPv6 enabled on both interfaces. Which of the following
answers is a valid way to configure R1 so that it enables EIGRP for IPv6 on
the exact same interfaces as EIGRP for IPv4 in this case?

Adding the ipv6 eigrp asn interface subcommand to interfaces G0/0 and S0/0/0

75. Routers R1 and R2, in two different ASNs, connect directly to each
other over a WAN link, with the two routers in the same subnet. If using the
IP addresses on that common link to define the eBGP neighbors, how
many different BGP neighbor commands would be required on Router R1
to make the eBGP peer work to Router R2?

76. Which of the following answers is true about this router based on this
output?

Address 10.1.5.2 identifi es a working neighbor based on that neighbor’s

interface
IP address on the link between R1 and that neighbor.

77. Host1 and Host2 connect to ports F0/1 and F0/2 on a LAN switch,
respectively, so that frames sent by Host1 to Host2 will enter switch port
F0/1 and exit switch port F0/2. All FastEthernet ports on the switch are
access ports in VL AN 5. A network analyzer connects to port F0/9. A
network engineer wants to use SPAN to direct traffic to the network
analyzer. Which one answer is the best answer for what traffic to direct to
the analyzer with SPAN, if the goal is to gather all traffic sent between
Host1 and Host2, but to avoid gathering multiple copies of the same
frames?

Use a SPAN source port of F0/2 for both directions of traffic

78. On a 2960 switch, which of the following commands change the value
of the bridge ID?

spanning-tree vlan vlan-number root {primary | secondary}

spanning-tree vlan vlan-number priority value

79. An engineer is considering configuring an ACL on Router R1. The

engineer could use ACL A, which would be enabled with the ip
access-group A out command on interface G0/1, or ACL B, which would be
enabled with the ip access-group B in command on that same interface.
R1’s G0/1 interface uses IPv4 address 1.1.1.1. Which of the answers are
true when comparing these options?

ACL B creates more risk of filtering important overhead traffic than ACL A.

A ping 1.1.1.1 command on R1 would bypass ACL A even if enabled.

80. Which of the following VTP modes allow VLANs to be configured on a

switch?

Server

Transparent

81. Which of the following IEEE 802.1D port states are stable states used
when STP has completed convergence?
Blocking

Forwarding

82. An engineer wants to set the OSPFv3 router ID for Router R1. Which of
the following answers could affect R1’s choice of OSPFv3 router ID?

The ip address command on interface Serial0/0/1

83. An engineer configures a point-to-point GRE tunnel between two Cisco

routers, called A and B. The routers use public IP addresses assigned by
ISPs, and private addresses from network 10.0.0.0. Which of the following
answers accurately describes where the addresses could be referenced in
the GRE configuration?

Router A’s private address on an ip address command on Router A’s tunnel

interface

84. Which of the following answers is true about the switch on which this
command output was gathered

The root switch’s MAC address is 1833.9d7b.0e80 and the local switch is the
root.

This switch uses RSTP.

85. A router uses EIGRP to learn routes and adds those to the IPv4 routing
table. That action is an action that occurs as part of which plane of the
switch?

Control plane

86. Which of the following access-list commands matches all packets sent
from hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23?

access-list 1 permit 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255

87. Which of the following are allowed when configuring Local SPAN
sessions?

Using more than one SPAN source port in one SPAN session

Using an EtherChannel port as a SPAN source port

88. Which of the following is the most likely technology used for an access
link to a Metro Ethernet service?

100Base-LX10

89. An engineer compares the output of the show vtp status command on
two neighboring switches. One switch, SW1, acts as VTP server, while the
other, SW2, acts as a VTP client. What items in the command output
confirm that synchronization has completed?

Both list the same “last updater” IP address and timestamp.

Both list the same confi guration revision number.

90. Examine the output. Which of the following statements are true based
on the output of this show command from Router R1?

Neighbor 1.1.1.1 is an eBGP peer.

R1 has a neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 201 command configured.

91. Routers R1, R2, and R3 are internal routers in areas 1, 2, and 3,
respectively. Router R4 is an ABR connected to the backbone area (0) and
to areas 1, 2, and 3. Which of the following answers describes the
configuration on Router R4, which is different from the other three routers,
that makes it an ABR?

The network router subcommands refer to multiple areas, including the

backbone.
92. Which of the following fields cannot be compared based on an
extended IP ACL?

URL

Filename for FTP transfers

93. Which of the following network commands, following the command

router ospf 1, tells this router to start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP
addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1?

network 10.0.0.1 0.0.255.255 area 0

94. Which of the following behaviors is applied to a low latency queue in a

Cisco router or switch?

Round robin scheduling

95. Barney is a host with IP address 10.1.1.1 in subnet 10.1.1.0/24. Which

of the following are things that a standard IP ACL could be configured to
do?

Match the exact source IP address.

Match all IP addresses in Barney’s subnet with one access-list command

without matching other IP addresses.

96. A switch’s G0/1 interface, a trunk that supports VLANs 1–10, has
autonegotiated a speed of 100 Mbps. The switch currently has all default
settings for STP. Which of the following actions results in the switch using
an STP cost of 19 for that interface in VLAN 3?

spanning-tree cost 19

Adding no confi guration

97. Two routers, R1 and R2, connect to each other using three serial links.
The network engineer configures these links to be part of the same
multilink PPP group, along with configuring CHAP configuration, IPv4, and
OSPFv2 using interface configuration. Which of the following answers list a
configuration command along with the correct configuration mode for that
command?

encapsulation ppp while in multilink interface configuration mode

ppp multilink while in serial interface configuration mode

98. Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the
subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding
devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the
APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A
to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by
the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool?

Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to
B

99. Which of the following commands list the OSPF neighbors off interface
serial 0/0?

show ip ospf neighbor

show ip ospf neighbor serial 0/0

100. Which of the following configuration settings on a router does not

influence which IPv4 route a router chooses to add to its IPv4 routing table
when using OSPFv2?

delay

101. Router 1 has a Fast Ethernet interface 0/0 with IP address 10.1.1.1.
The interface is connected to a switch. This connection is then migrated to
use 802.1Q trunking. Which of the following commands could be part of a
valid configuration for Router 1’s Fa0/0 interface?

interface fastethernet 0/0.4

encapsulation dot1q 4

102. Two neighboring LAN switches are connected with an operational

802.1Q trunk. Switch SW1 has been configured with the vtp mode client,
vtp domain fred, and vtp version 2 commands. SW1 has no other VTP
configuration commands configured. Which answer lists a possible reason
why switch SW2, on the other end of the trunk, is not synchronizing its
VLAN database with switch SW1?

SW2 has a vtp password G0BeeZ command confi gured.

SW2 has a vtp domain Fred command confi gured.

103. Routers R1 and R2 attach to the same VLAN with IP addresses

10.0.0.1 and 10.0.0.2, respectively. R1 is configured with the commands
router eigrp 99 and network 10.0.0.0. Which of the following commands
might be part of a working EIGRP configuration on R2 that ensures that the
two routers become neighbors and exchange routes?

network 10.0.0.2 0.0.0.0

network 10.0.0.0

104. What STP feature causes an interface to be placed in the forwarding

state as soon as the interface is physically active?

PortFast

105. An enterprise uses a Metro Ethernet WAN with an Ethernet LAN

(E-LAN) service, with the company headquarters plus ten remote sites
connected to the service. The enterprise uses EIGRP at all sites, with one
router connected to the service from each site. Which of the following are
true about the Layer 3 details most likely used with this service and design?

The WAN uses one IP subnet.

A remote site router would have ten EIGRP neighbors.

106. Which of the following routing protocols is considered to use link-state

logic?

EIGRP

107. Which of the following facts determines how often a nonroot bridge or
switch sends an 802.1D STP Hello BPDU message?

The Hello timer as confi gured on the root switch.

108. Which of the following affect the calculation of EIGRP metrics when all
possible default values are used?

Bandwidth

Delay

109. Which of the following answers is true about the switch on which this
command output was gathered?

The information is about the STP instance for VLAN 3.

110. Switches SW1, SW2, SW3, and SW4 are configured as VTP server,
client, transparent, and off, respectively, all using VTP version 1. A junior
engineer has been told to try to configure the following two commands on
each switch directly from the CLI: vlan 200 and vlan 2000. Which answers
correctly state which commands will be rejected, on which switch?
vlan 2000 will be rejected on SW1 (VTP server).

vlan 200 will be rejected on SW2 (VTP client).

111. Which of the following Internet edge designs include connections to

two ISPs?

Single multihomed

Dual multihomed

112. An engineer hears about DHCP snooping and decides to implement it.
The network includes devices that act primarily as Layer 2 switches,
multilayer switches (that is, they perform both Layer 2 and Layer 3
switching), and routers. Which of the following are the devices on which
DHCP snooping could be implemented?

Layer 2 switches

Multilayer switches

113. Two routers have no initial configuration whatsoever. They are

connected in a lab using a DTE cable connected to R1 and a DCE cable
connected to R2, with the DTE and DCE cables then connected to each
other. The engineer wants to create a working PPP link by configuring both
routers. Which of the following commands are required in the R1
configuration for the link to reach a state in which R1 can ping R2’s serial
IP address, assuming that the physical back-to-back link physically works?

encapsulation ppp

ip address

114. An enterprise router (R1) has a working eBGP peer relationship with
ISP router R2. Both routers use the default setting of no auto-summary.
Examine the following output from R1. Based on that output, which of the
following answers, when added to R1’s BGP configuration, causes R1 to
advertise a BGP route to Router R2?

None of the other answers causes R1 to advertise a route to R2.

115. The answers all mention an interface and the state listed in the Type
column of the output, along with a reason why that port should be listed as
that type of STP port. Which answers list what could be a correct reason for
the interface to be listed as that type of STP port?

Fa0/2 is Shr because Fa0/2 uses half duplex.

Gi0/2 is P2p because the switch had no reason to make it Shr or P2p Edge.

116. Which of the following answers is most accurate about access link
options for an MPLS network?

Uses a wide variety of Layer 1 and Layer 2 networking technologies

117. Which of the following access-list commands permits packets going to

any web client from all web servers whose IP addresses begin with
172.16.5?

access-list 2523 permit tcp 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www any

118. An engineer configures an ACL but forgets to save the configuration.

At that point, which of the following commands display the configuration of
an IPv4 ACL, including line numbers?

show ip access-lists

show access-lists

119. Which of the following attributes do QoS tools manage?

Bandwidth

Delay

Loss

120. Which of the following are available methods of classifying packets in

DiffServ on Cisco routers?

Matching the IP DSCP field

Matching the 802.1p CoS field

Matching fields with an extended IP ACL

121. Think about a policing function that is currently working, and also think
about a shaping function that is also currently working. That is, the current
bit rate of traffic exceeds the respective policing and shaping rates. Which
statements are true about these features?

The policer may or may not be discarding packets.

The shaper is definitely queuing packets to slow down the sending rate.

122. A queuing system has three queues serviced with round robin
scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round
robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round robin queues 2
and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen
to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues
would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management)
tool?

Queue 2

Queue 3

123. A Layer 3 switch has been configured to route IP packets between

VLANs 1, 2, and 3 using SVIs, which connect to subnets 172.20.1.0/25,
172.20.2.0/25, and 172.20.3.0/25, respectively. The engineer issues a
show ip route connected command on the Layer 3 switch, listing the
connected routes. Which of the following answers lists a piece of
information that should be in at least one of the routes?

Interface VLAN 2

124. An engineer has successfully configured a Layer 3 switch with SVIs

for VLANs 2 and 3. Hosts in the subnets using VLANs 2 and 3 can ping
each other with the Layer 3 switch routing the packets. Next week, the
network engineer receives a call that those same users can no longer ping
each other. If the problem is with the Layer 3 switching function, which of
the following could have caused the problem?

VTP on the switch removing VLAN 3 from the switch’s VLAN list

A shutdown command issued from VLAN 2 configuration mode

125. A LAN design uses a Layer 3 EtherChannel between two switches

SW1 and SW2, with port-channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1
uses ports G0/1 and G0/2 in the channel. However, only interface G0/1 is
bundled into the channel and working. Think about the configuration
settings on port G0/2 that could have existed before adding G0/2 to the
EtherChannel. Which answers identify a setting that could prevent IOS
from adding G0/2 to the Layer 3 EtherChannel?

A different speed (speed value)

A default setting for switchport (switchport)

126. R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet

10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively,
configured with the ip address interface subcommand. Host A refers to
10.1.19.1 as its default router, and host B refers to 10.1.19.2 as its default
router. The routers do not use an FHRP. Which of the following is a
problem for this LAN?

If one router fails, the host that uses that router as a default router
cannot send packets off-subnet.
127. R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet
10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively,
configured with the ip address interface subcommand. The routers use
HSRP. The network engineer prefers to have R1 be the default router when
both R1 and R2 are up. Which of the following is the likely default router
setting for hosts in this subnet?

Another IP address in subnet 10.1.19.0/25 other than 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2

128. The following text lists output taken from Router R3, which is using
HSRP. Subnet 10.1.12.0 uses mask 255.255.255.0. Based on the output of
this command, which of the following answers is true?

Hosts with a default router setting of 10.1.12.2 are sending their packets to
Router R3.

129. Two routers, R1 and R2, are configured to be part of an HSRP group.
R1’s configuration includes the standby 1 priority 1 command, and R2’s
configuration includes the standby 1 priority 2 command. R1 powers up. An
hour later, R2 powers up. Which of the following answers is true about
which router is now the HSRP active router?

R2 is active only if R2 is also configured with standby 1 preempt.

130. Which of the answers list an HSRP configuration mistake that would
cause the router to list this message?

The two HSRP routers are configured with different HSRP group numbers.

The two HSRP routers are configured with different HSRP version numbers.

131. Router R1 has a Serial0/0/0 interface with address 2001:1:1:1::1/64,

and a G0/0 interface with address 2001:2:2:2::1/64. The OSPFv3 process
uses process ID 1. Which of the following OSPFv3 configuration
commands enables OSPFv3 on R1’s G0/0 interface and places it into area
0?

An ipv6 ospf 1 area 0 command in G0/0 interface configuration mode

132. An enterprise uses a dual-stack model of deployment for IPv4 and

IPv6, using OSPF as the routing protocol for both. Router R1 has IPv4 and
IPv6 addresses on its G0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces only, with OSPFv2 and
OSPFv3 enabled on both interfaces for area 0 and the router ID explicitly
set for both protocols. Comparing the OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 configuration,
which of the following statements is true?

Both protocols use the router-id router-id router subcommand.

133. Router R1 has been configured as a dual-stack IPv4/IPv6 router,

using interfaces S0/0/0, S0/0/1, and GigabitEthernet0/1. As a new engineer
hired at the company, you do not know whether any of the interfaces are
passive. Which of the following commands lets you find whether G0/1 is
passive, either by the command listing that fact or by that command leaving
passive interfaces out of its list of interfaces?

show ipv6 ospf interface G0/1

134. Which of the following configuration settings does not have a separate
IPv4/EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6/EIGRP for IPv6 setting, instead using one
setting that both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 use?

Interface bandwidth

135. An enterprise uses a dual-stack model of deployment for IPv4 and

IPv6, using EIGRP as the routing protocol for both. Router R1 has IPv4 and
IPv6 addresses on its G0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces only, with EIGRP for IPv4
and EIGRP for IPv6 enabled on both interfaces and the router ID explicitly
set for both protocols. Comparing the EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6
configuration, which of the following statements is true?
The EIGRP for IPv6 configuration uses the ipv6 eigrp asn interface
subcommand.

136. IPv6 access control lists are configured in which of the following
ways?

Using ACL names to uniquely identify each ACL

137. Which of the following statements is true about IPv6 ACLs?

Cisco router interfaces can have both IPv4 and IPv6 ACLs applied inbound and
outbound on a single interface.

138. Which of the following IPv6 ACL entries would match and permit IPv6
packets coming from the Internet destined for the
2001:0db8:1111:0001:0000:0000:0000:0000 prefix with a 64-bit prefix
length?

permit ipv6 any 2001:db8:1111:1::/64

139. Which of the following packet header fields can be filtered using IPv6
extended access control lists?

All of the other answers are correct.

140. The implicit rules at the bottom of IPv6 ACLs are there to permit which
of the following packets?

Neighbor Solicitation (NS) and Neighbor Advertisement (NA) messages

141. A Network Management Station (NMS) is using SNMP to manage

some Cisco routers and switches with SNMPv2c. Which of the following
answers most accurately describes how the SNMP agent on a router
authenticates any SNMP Get requests received from the NMS?
Using either the read-write or read-only community string

142. Which of the following commands primarily lists counters and status
information, instead of configuration settings?

show snmp

143. Which of the following statements is true about ICMP Echo-based IP

SLA?

It can collect and aggregate historical statistics.

144. Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be used for
software development?

PaaS

145. Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be purchased

and then used to later install your own software applications?

IaaS

146. An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is

considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under
consideration. Which options provide good security by keeping the data
private while also providing good QoS services?

Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider

Using an intercloud exchange

147. A Layer 2 switch examines a frame’s destination MAC address and

chooses to forward that frame out port G0/1 only. That action is an action
that occurs as part of which plane of the switch?
Data plane

148. A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized

controller. Which of the following terms describes a function or functions
expected to be found on the switches but not on the controller?

Data plane functions