SENIOR
REVISION FIITJEE JEEM
GRAND TEST -1
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 300
INSTRUCTIONS:
Instructions to the Candidates
1. This Test Booklet consists of 75 questions.
Use Blue/Black ball Point Pen only for writing particulars. Use Pencil for all responses in OMR
sheet.
2. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry). Each part
consists of two sections.
3. Section I contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which Only One Option is correct.
4. Section II contains 5 Numerical questions.
Marking Scheme
5. For each question in Section I contain multiple choice questions; you will be awarded 4
marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. -1 mark
for wrong answer. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded.
6. For each question in Section II contains Numerical correct type; you will be awarded 4
marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all
other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded.
Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.
If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.
NAME:
ENROLLMENT NO.:
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JEEM- REVISION GT-1 MPC-2
MATHEMATICS
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
x y x y x y
1. If 1 be any line through the intersection of lines 1 and 1, then
c d a b b a
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) a+b=c+d
a d b c b d c a c d a b
2 2 2
2. Let AB be a chord of the circle x +y =r subtending a right angle at the centre. Thus the locus of the centroid
of the triangle PAB as P moves on the circle is
(A) a parabola (B) a circle (C) an ellipse (D) a pair of straight lines
3. Let PQ and RS be tangents at the extremities of the diameter PR of a circle of radius r. If PS and RQ
intersect at a point X on the circumference of the circle, then 2r equals
PQ RS 2PQ.RS PQ 2 RS 2
(A) PQ.RS (B) (C) (D)
2 PQ RS 2
4. If line y = x + 2 do not intersect any member of family of parabolas y ax a R
2
at two distinct points,
then maximum value of latus rectum is
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 32
5. Let P be any point on a directrix of an ellipse with eccentricity e. S be the corresponding focus and C the
centre of the ellipse. The line PC meets the ellipse at A. The angle between PS and tangent at A is ,
then is equal to
(A) tan e
-1
(B)
2
(C) tan
1
1 e
2
(D) None of these
6. The number of roots of the equation 3xlog5 2 2log5 x 64 is /are
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 0
1
7. If 1 x then sin 1 3x 4 x3 equals
2
1 1 1
(A) 3sin x (B) 3sin x (C) 3sin x (D) None of these
x x x
8. The Period of 5 sin 4sin cos is
4 3 2
(A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 6
9. The variance of first 50 even natural number is
833 437
(A) (B) 833 (C) 437 (D)
4 4
(1/ x ) (1/ x )
e e
x 1/ x 1/ x ; x0
10. If f(x) = e e , then which of the following is true
0 ; x0
(A) f is continuous and differentiable at every point
(B) f is continuous at every point but is not differentiable everywhere
(C) f is differentiable at every point
(D) f is differentiable only at the origin
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11. If f(x) = 2x + cot
1
x log
1 x 2 x , then f(x)
(A) increases in [0, ) (B) decreases in [0, )
(C) neither increases nor decreases in (0, ) (D) None of these
dx
12. 1/ 2
x1/5 1 x 4/5
5 1/2 2
(A) 1 x 4/5 c (B) 1 x 4/5 c (C) x 4/5 1 x 4/5 c (D) 1 x 4/5 c
2 5
2 sin x dy
13. If y = y(x) and cos x, y 0 1 , then y equals
y 1 dx 2
1 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
3 3 3
14. Let a 2iˆ ˆj kˆ; b iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ and c iˆ ˆj 2 kˆ . A vector in the plane of b and c whose
2
projection on a is of magnitude
3
(A) 2iˆ 3 ˆj 3kˆ (B) 2iˆ 3 ˆj 3kˆ (C) 2iˆ ˆj 5kˆ (D) 5iˆ 6 ˆj 7 kˆ
15. The plane passing through the point (-2, -2, 2) and containing the line joining the points (1,1,1) and (1, -1,2)
makes intercepts on the coordinate axes, the sum of whose lengths is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 12
p q r
16. If p,q,r are negative and distinct, then the determinant = q r p is
r p q
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 0 (D) > 0
17. There are 4n things of which n are alike and all the rest different. Then the number of permutations of 4n
things taken 2n at a time, each permutation containing the n like things
4n ! 4n ! 4n ! 3n !
(A) 2
(B) (C) (D) 2
n ! 2n ! n! n !
2 x
18. The number of solutions of the equation sin .sin x 1 0 is
2
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
19. Let A , B be two n x n matrices such that A + B = AB , then
(A) AB = BA (B) AB = In (C) A I n or B I n (D) None of these
20. If P is a point on the hyperbola x 2 y a 2 , C is its centre and S, S are two foci, then SP. S P=
2 2 2 2
(A) a (B) (CP) (C) (CS) (D) (SS’)
FIITJEE Limited. (Hyderabad Centres): SAIFABAD KUKATPALLY DILSUKHNAGAR NARAYANAGUDA MADHAPUR
JEEM- REVISION GT-1 MPC-4
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value type. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place.
(e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 0.33, .30, 30.27, 127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
21. Area of the figure bounded by y 3 | 3 x | and y | x 3 | is equal to
22. Three integers are chosen from 1 to 20 without replacement. Probability that their product is even, is
23. Let a,b and c from a G.P. of common ratio r, with 0 < r < 1. If a, 2b and 3c form an A.P. then r equals ……
24. If z1 and z2 both satisfy the curves 2|z+3|= |Rez | and arg
z 3
, then arg
z1 3
is equal to t,
i 1 2 z2 3
then |t|
/3
2
25. If f(x) is an integrable function in
6 , 3 and I1 sec f 2sin 2 d
/6
/3
2 I1
I2 cos ec f 2sin 2 d
/6
then
2I 2
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PHYSICS
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. A particle is fired from a point on the ground with speed u making an angle with horizontal. The
smallest radius of curvature of the path followed by the projectile is
u2 u 2 sin 2 u 2 cos 2 u 2 tan 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2g 2g g g
27. Each division on the main scale is 1mm. Which of the following vernier scales give least count
equal to 0.01 mm?
(A) 9mm divided into 10 divisions (B) 90 mm divided into 100 divisions
(C) 99 mm divided into 100 divisions (D) 9 mm divided into 100 divisions
28. A particle of mass m is made to move with uniform speed vo along the perimeter of a regular
hexagon, inscribed in a circle of radius R. The magnitude of average acceleration of the particle
during its motion from midpoint of a side till the midpoint of the adjacent side is
v02 3v02 3v02 3v02
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R 2R R 4R
29. A tangential force F acts at the top of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R placed on a smooth
surface. The horizontal acceleration of the point on sphere where force is applied is
6F 10 F 5F 7F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5M 7M 2M 2M
30. 1
The gravitational field in a region is given by g 2iˆ 3 ˆj Nkg . What is the work done in moving a
1
particle of mass 2kg from 2m, m to (1m, 1m) along the line joining them?
2
(A) Zero (B) +20 J (C) -15J (D) 5J
31. The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when
the same tension is applied ? (Length = l, diameter = D]
(A) l = 1.0m, D=1.0 mm (B) l = 2.0 m, D = 2.0 mm
(C) l=3.0 m, D=3.0mm (D) l=0.5m, D=3.0 mm
32. Water (density ) flows steadily through a horizontal pipe of variable cross-section. If the pressure
of water is P at a point where flow speed is v, then the pressure at another point where the area of
cross-section is double that of the previous point is
3 v 2 v2 3 v 2
(A) P - (B) P (C) P (D) P- v2
2 2 8
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33. The ends of a stretched wire of length L are fixed at x = 0 and x = L. in one experiment, the displacement of
x
particles of the wire is given by y1 A sin sin t and energy of wire is E1. In another experiment it is
L
2 x
y2 A sin sin 2t and energy is E2. Then
L
(A) E2 E1 (B) E2 2 E1 (C) E2 4 E1 (D) E2 16 E1
34. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed (1/5)th of the speed of sound. The
wavelength and frequency of the source emitted are and f respectively. The apparent frequency and
wavelength recorded by the observer are respectively
(A) 1.2 f and (B) f and 1.2 (C) 0.8f and 0.8 (D) 1.2f and 1.2
2
35. The area of cross-section of the wider tube shown in fig. is 800 cm . If a mass of 12kg is placed on the
massless piston, the difference in heights h in the level of water in the two tubes is : (Density of water =
3 2
1000 kg/m , g=10 m/s )
(A) 10cm (B) 6 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 2cm
36. A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at 300 K. The ratio of the
average rotational kinetic energy per O2 molecule to the average kinetic energy per N2 molecule is
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 1:5 (D) 2:5
37. A black body is at temperature of 2880K. The energy of radiation emitted by this object with wavelength
between 499 nm and 500 nm is U1, between 999 nm and 1000 nm is U2 and between 1499 nm and
1500 nm is U3. The Wein’s constant b = 0.28 cmK. Then
(A) U2 =0 (B) U3 =0 (C) U1 > U2 (D) U2 > U1
38. A motor car is fitted with a convex driving mirror of focal length 20cm. A second motor car 2.01 m broad and
1.005 m high is 40m behind the first car. The breadth and height of image of the second car seen in the
mirror of the first are respectively
(A) 8 cm, 4 cm (B) 1 cm , 0.5 cm (C) 12cm, 6 cm (D) 14 cm, 7 cm
39. A rod with linear charge density is bent in the shape of circular ring., The electric potential at the centre
of the circular ring is
2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 0 2 o o o
40. In the figure, a capacitor of plate area A is charged to a charge q. The mass of each plate is m2 . The lower
plate is rigidly fixed and the distance between plates is small. The value of m1 if the system remains in
equilibrium is
q2 q2 q2
(A) m2 (B)( m2 (C) m2 (D) m2
o Ag o Ag 2 o Ag
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41. A 2.0 V potentiometer is used to determine the internal resistance of 1.5V cell. The balance point of the cell
in the open circuit is 75 cm. When a resistor of resistance 10 is connected across the cell, then the
balancing point shifts to 60 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.0 (C) 2.5 (D) 3.5
42. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for
(A) Paramagnetic materials only (B) Diamagnetic materials only
(C) Ferromagnetic materials only (D) Para and Ferromagnetic materials
43. In an ideal transformer an alternating current of 2A is flowing in the primary coil. The number of turns in the
primary and secondary coils are 100 and 20 respectively. The current in the secondary coil is
(A) 0.08A (B) 0.4A (C) 5 A (D) 10 A
h
44. The angular momentum of an electron in the hydrogen atom is , where h is Planck’s constant. The
potential energy of this electron is
(A) -13.6 eV (B) -6.8 eV (C) -3.4 eV (D) -27.2 eV
45. A P- type semi conductor is
(A) Positively charged (B) Negatively charged (C) Electrically neutral (D) Has free protons
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value type. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place.
(e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 0.33, .30, 30.27, 127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
46. A refrigerator with coefficient of performance 1/3, releases 20 J per second of heat to a hot reservoir, then
the work done on the working substance in one minute is ………
47. Two particles are performing identical SHM along the same line with time period T and amplitude A. One of
A A
them is at x = and moving towards positive x-direction and other at x = moving towards
2 2
nT
–vex-direction. The time after which they will collide is . Find n.
12
48. A beam of natural light falls on a system of 5 polarizers, which are arranged in succession such that the pass
0
axis of each polarizer is turned through 60 with respect to the preceding one. The fraction of the incident
1
light intensity that passes through the system is . Find n
2n
0 0
49. If 30 and 45 are the angled of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other then the
true dip angle is tan-1(n) . Find the value of n ?
50. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2 hours emits radiation of intensity which is 64 times the
permissible safe level. The minimum time after which it would be safe to work safely with the source is ……
hours
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CHEMISTRY
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
Br
51. At what does the following cell have its reaction at equilibrium?
2
CO3
Ag s | Ag2CO3 s | Na2CO3 aq ||KBr aq | AgBr s | Ag s
K SP 8 10 12 for Ag2CO3 and K SP 4 10 13 for AgBr
(A) 1 10 7 (B) 2 10 7 (C) 3 107 (D) 4 10 7
52.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
53. Dimethyl glyoxime forms a square planar complex with Ni2+. This complex should be:
(A) diamagnetic (B) paramagnetic having 1 unpaired electron
(C) paramagnetic having 2 unpaired electrons (D) ferromagnetic
54. In the following set of reactions X, Y and Z are respectively.
HC NOH CONH2 NO2 Cl CONH2
Cl
OMe
(A) OMe OMe (B) OMe OMe OMe
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CONH 2 CN NO 2
(C) MeO MeO MeO
CN OOC NH4 Cl
OMe
(D) OMe OMe
55. Which of the molecules below will reduce Tollen’s Reagent?
(A) (i), (iii) and (v) (B) (ii) and (iv) (C) (iv) and (vi) (D) (i), (ii),(iii) and (vi)
56. Select True (T) and False (F) statements about barbiturates and select the correct answer from the
codes given
I. Hypnotics or sleep producing drugs
II. Tranquilizers
III. Pain reducing without disturbing the nervous system
IV. Non-narcotic analgesics.
Codes.
I II III IV
(A) T F T F
(B) T T F F
(C) F F T T
(D) T F F T
57. The complex with a maximum number of stereoisomers is:
2
(A) PtC 3 C2H4 (B) CuBr2C 2
3 3
(C) Co C2O4 3 (D) Cr NH3 2 en 2
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58. In the following,
Product X and T respectively are
(A) B3N3H6 and Me3B3N3H3 (B) Me3B3N3H3 and B3N3H6
(C) B3N3H6 and B3N3H6 (D) Me3B3N3H3 and Me3B3N3H3
59. Consider the following disintegrate in at equilibrium
t 100 min t 10 min
A
50
B
75
C
NA NB
At equilibrium NA / NB is
(A) 20 (B) 0.05 (C) 10 (D) 0.10
Room temperature
60. Consider the following transformation 2CuX2 2 CuX X2 .
Then X can be
(A) F ,Br (B) C ,Br (C) CN ,I (D) C ,F
61. 2-Phenylcycloprop-2-en-1-one is allowed to react with phenylmagnesium bromide and the reaction
mixture hydrolysed with perchloric acid. The product formed is
Ph Ph
Ph
HP O
Ph C C CHO ClO 4
Ph
(A) O OH (B) Ph (C) Ph (D) Ph
62. The acid strength order is:
OH
O OH
HO OH H3C CH3
C C
O O
O OH
I II III IV
(A) I > IV > II > III (B) III > I > II > IV (C) II > III > I > IV (D) I > III > II > IV
63. Identify the pair of enantiomers amongst the given pairs:
COOH CH3 Ph CH3
D OH , HOOC OH HO CH3 , HO Ph
(A) CH3 D (B) H H
COOH OH CH 3 CH3
H CH3 , HOOC CH3 H OH , HO H
OH H CH 3 CH 3
(C) (D)
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64.
CHBr3 Me3 COK
KOH aq.(i) LiAH4 (ii)H
conc.H2 SO 4
A
B C
D
addition
product
Identify structure of compound (D):
CH3
Br
Br CH2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
65. A reaction with respect to X is zero order till the concentration is reduced to half of initial
concentration. Then the reaction become first order with respect to it. If the value of rate constants
for the zero order and first order are equal to k (in magnitude), then find the time taken to reduce
1
the concentration of X to th of its original concentration X0.
16
1 3n2 x 3n2 x 4n2 1 4n2
(A) (B) 0 (C) 0 (D)
2k k 2k k 2k k 2k k
66. Ratio of frequency of revolution of electron in the 2nd excited state of He+ and 2nd of hydrogen is:
32 27 1 27
(A) (B) (C) (D)
27 32 54 2
67. Which one of the following crystals does not exhibit Frenkel defect?
(A) AgBr (B) AgCl (C) CsCl (D) ZnS
68. Which of the following is true in respect of chemical adsorption?
(A) H 0, S 0, G 0 (B) H 0, S 0, G 0
(C) H 0, S 0, G 0 (D) H 0, S 0, G 0
69. Identify salt (A) satisfying above chemical property:
(A) Cu NO3 2 (B) NaNO3 (C) AgNO3 (D) Pb NO3 2
70. The oxide of a metal (R) can be reduced by the metal (P) and metal (R) can reduce the oxide of
metal (Q). Then the decreasing order of the reactivity of metal (P), (Q) and (R) with oxygen is:
(A) P > Q > R (B) P > R > Q (C) R > P > Q (D) Q > P > R
FIITJEE Limited. (Hyderabad Centres): SAIFABAD KUKATPALLY DILSUKHNAGAR NARAYANAGUDA MADHAPUR
JEEM- REVISION GT-1 MPC-12
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question is numerical value type. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to second decimal place.
(e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 0.33, .30, 30.27, 127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
71. How many moles of KMnO4 are needed to oxidized a mixture of 1 mole of each FeSO4 & FeC2O4
in acidic medium?
72. 30 ml of 0.06 M solution of dibasic acid methonine (H2A) is treated with 0.09 M NaOH. Calculate
pH after addition of 20 ml of base. pKa1 = 2.28 and pKa2 = 9.2.
73. Substance A2B(g) can undergoes decomposition to form two set of products:
If the molar ratio of A2(g) to A(g) is 5 : 3 in a set of product gases, then the energy involved in the
decomposition of 1 mole of A2B(g) is:
74. Amongst the following compounds
(I) H5P3 O10 (II) H6P4 O13 (III) H5P5 O15 (IV) H7P5 O16
Total non-cyclic phosphates are:
75. Consider the reaction 2 X g 3 Y g
Z g . Where gases X and Y are insoluble and insert to
water and Z is soluble in water, it forms a basic solution. In an experiment 3 mole each of X and Y
are allowed to react in 15 lit flask at 500 K. When the reaction is complete, 5L of water is added to
the flask and temperature is reduced to 300 K. The pressure in the flask is (neglect aqueous
tension)
(R = 0.0821 L atm mol–1 K–1)
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