100% found this document useful (3 votes)
642 views

Rusayl Institute: Ultrasonic Testing - Level Ii Ut Q Bank - 5

The document contains 33 multiple choice questions that test knowledge of ultrasonic testing concepts and techniques. The questions cover topics like wave propagation properties, probe selection, calibration, defect detection and sizing, and instrumentation functions. Correct answers are required to demonstrate an understanding of how to apply ultrasonic testing principles to inspect different material types and component geometries.

Uploaded by

kingston
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOC, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
100% found this document useful (3 votes)
642 views

Rusayl Institute: Ultrasonic Testing - Level Ii Ut Q Bank - 5

The document contains 33 multiple choice questions that test knowledge of ultrasonic testing concepts and techniques. The questions cover topics like wave propagation properties, probe selection, calibration, defect detection and sizing, and instrumentation functions. Correct answers are required to demonstrate an understanding of how to apply ultrasonic testing principles to inspect different material types and component geometries.

Uploaded by

kingston
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOC, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 16

1

RUSAYL INSTITUTE
ULTRASONIC TESTING – LEVEL II
UT Q BANK – 5

1. The velocity of Raleigh waves in a material depends on

a. The frequency of the waves


b. The wavelength of the waves
c. The elastic properties of the material
d. The method of generation of the Raleigh waves

2. Lamb waves can be used for testing

a. An aluminum plate 50 mm thick


b. A low alloy steel pipe with 50 mm OD and 47 mm ID
c. A stainless steel casting 300 mm thick
d. All of the above

3. Angle of beam divergence will change if

a. Frequency and size of the probe are changed


b. Type and length of the able are changed
c. Gain and pulse voltage of the flaw detector are changed
d. All of the above

4. When normal beam testing from the end face of a long bar of square cross section was carried out,
small echoes were obtained immediately after the first back echo. These echoes are most probably
due to

a. Poor coupling
b. Resonance
c. High frequency
d. Side wall reflection

5. To detect axially oriented cracks on the inner wall of a tube of 30 mm ID and 60 mm OD, one can
use

a. 60º angle probe


b. 45º angle probe
c. 35º angle probe
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
2

6. Resolution of two defects lying close to each other in the thickness direction depends on

a. The range for which the flaw detector is calibrated


b. The flaw detector alone
c. The probe alone
d. The combination of flaw detector and probe

7. A copper bar and a brass bar have same grain size. When inspected by 2 Mhz longitudinal waves,
the two bars will have, in general

a. Same attenuation coefficient


b. Different attenuation coefficients
c. Same attenuation coefficients if their diameter are same
d. Same or different attenuation coefficient depending on the probe diameter

8. When calibration was re-checked during inspection, it was found that the gain had decreased by 10
dB. In this case which of the following is true?

a. The recorded data are not valid and re-inspection should be done
b. The recorded data are valid, in case highly damped probe was used
c. The recorded data are valid, provided that the echo heights are recalculated
d. The recorded data are valid, provides the defect metal paths are recalculated
e. Only the recorded indications on to be rechecked and re-erahiakd

9. A 90 mm thick mild steel plate is overlaid with 10 mm stainless steel. To detect lack of bond,
inspection is done from the carbon steel side. The most suitable metal path range for this case will
be

a. 0 – 150 mm
b. 0 – 100 mm
c. 85 – 95 mm
d. 90 – 100 mm

10. ASTM distance – amplitude set of blocks is primarily meant for obtaining

a. DAC curve
b. Area – amplitude curve
c. Resolving power
d. Vertical linearity
3

11. Fig Q-001 shows DAC and defect echo A. The code states that any defect exceeding 25% of DAC
is recordable and exceeding 50% of DAC is reject able. Defect echo A is

DAC Figure Q-0011

a. Acceptable, not recordable


b. Acceptable and recordable
c. Recordable and not acceptable
d. Not recordable and not acceptable

12. The smallest range (steel) for which the flaw detector can be calibrated for angle beam using V-2
block is

a. 25 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 75 mm
d. 100 mm

13. For setting of metal path range for angle beam using V-1 or V-2 blocks, one should have previous
knowledge of

a. The probe index point


b. The beam angle
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
4

14. Which of the following is/are service induced defects

a. Lamination
b. Fatigue cracks
c. Corrosion cracks
d. None of the above
e. Both b and c

15. Which of the following displays gives a top view or plan view of the defect

a. A scan
b. B scan
c. C scan
d. D scan

16. The size of the flaw determined by using DGS diagram is

a. The exact size of the flaw


b. The size of the flat disc shaped defect situated at the same depth as the flaw which would give
same height of echo as the natural flaw
c. The size of a cylindrical shaped defects situated at the same depth as the flaw which would
give same height of echo as the natural flaw
d. None of the above

17. For accurate sizing of a flaw based on comparison of echo heights, the instrument should have

a. Good sweep linearity


b. Good amplifier linearity
c. Good resolution
d. Good penetration power

18. To detect root cracks in a single-V but weld, which of the following is most suitable?

a. A high frequency normal beam probe


b. A highly damped probe
c. A 45º angle beam probe
d. A 60º angle beam probe

19. An ultrasonic flaw detector was calibrated using normal beam to represent 0 – 100 mm of steel (V
= 6000 m/s). While testing a different material which was 85 mm thick, the first back echo was
obtained at 9.0 scale divisions. The velocity of the material is:

a. 6000 m/s
b. 6350 m/s
c. 5670 m/s
d. 5400 m/s
5

20. During normal beam inspection, a severe reduction of back echo without any defect indication was
obtained. This may be due to:

a. Large defect parallel to the scanning surface


b. A large defect inclined at a angle to the scanning surface
c. A small cavity
d. All of the above

21. An ultrasonic flaw detector is calibrated for a particular metal path range using angle beam. This
range calibrated will be significantly affected if

a. Probe angle is changed from 45º to 60º


b. Probe frequency is changed
c. The material of inspection is changed
d. All of the above

22. Which of the following will give best resolution?

a. Highly damped probe


b. Low frequency probe
c. Large angle probe
d. Probe with hard protective coating

23. Quality of very thin plates (where dead zone is the problem) can be assessed using normal probe
technique by observing.

a. First back echo pattern


b. First defect echo pattern
c. Multiple echo patter
d. Loss of back echo patter

24. In the far field of a probe a 2 mm dia. FBH gives a 50% FSH echo. At the same metal path a 4
mm dia FBH in the same material will give an echo whose height will be

a. 100 %
b. 25%
c. 200%
d. 12.5%

25. When the gain of the flaw detector is increased by 16dB

a. Heights of echoes will increase by 6 times


b. Heights of echoes will decrease by a factor of 6.
c. Heights of echoes will increase 2 times
d. Small grass echoes will disappear.
6

26. To detect lamination type of defects at the mid-section of 175 mm thick steel slabs, the best probe
will be:

a. A 2 MHz normal probe


b. A 2 MHz double crystal probe
c. A highly damped probe
d. A 45º angle beam probe

27. The advantage of partial range calibrated is

a. detection of smaller flaws


b. ability to locate flaws more accurately
c. reduction of noise echoes
d. all of the above

28. The ultrasonic flaw detector is calibrated for 0 – 150 mm “surface distance” range using a 60º
angle beam probe. A defect indication was obtained at a surface distance of 70 mm. If the
thickness of the plate tested was 30 mm, the depth of the defect would be

a. 20 mm
b. 25 mm
c. 35 mm
d. 40 mm

29. Fig. Q-0029 shows back echoes pattern when a 40 mm thick plate is inspected by normal beam.
The CRT is set for a range of
Figure Q-0029
BE-1

BE-2

BE-3

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

a. 0 – 100 mm
b. 10 – 110 mm
c. 30 – 130 mm
d. 40 – 140 mm
e. None of the above
7

30. The electronic circuitry that allows selections and processing of signals arising from selected
regions of the test object is called

a. A selector circuit
b. An electronic gate
c. A recorder
d. A partial range circuit

31. While inspection 70 mm thick plate 45º angle beam, defects are to be noted only if they occur in
the second leg of the beam path. For this case which of the following metal path range will be
preferable?

a. 0 – 100 mm
b. 0 – 200 mm
c. 100 – 200 mm
d. 75 – 225 mm

32. The ‘backing material’ inside a probe helps to

a. Improve sensitivity
b. Improve resolution
c. Improve penetration power
d. Improve sweep linearity
e. Protect the piezo-electric element

33. Normal beam testing of single-V butt welds will detect

a. Slag inclusions
b. Lack of side-wall fusion
c. Under-cut
d. All of the above

34. When a 4 MHz, 70º shear wave angle beam probe meant for steel is applied to an aluminum plate,
it will produce in aluminum

a. A 4 MHz 70º shear wave angle beam


b. A 3.2 MHz 70º shear wave angle beam
c. A 4 MHz 65º shear wave angle beam
d. A 4 MHz 77º shear wave angle beam
e. A 4 MHz 65º longitudinal wave angle beam
8

35. The DAC for a 2 mm dia hole in steel using a 20 mm probe is shown in fig Q-0035. The
frequency of the probe is close to

DAC

Figure Q-0035
0 2 4 6 8 10

a. 2 MHz
b. 4 MHz
c. 6 MHz
d. Frequency cannot be judged from the information given

36. Fig Q-0036 shows CRT patterns on a spot while doing normal beam inspection of a 80 mm thick
plate. If the range set is 0 – 100 mm, the possible number of defects at this spot is
9

Figure Q-0036

O 2 4 6 8 10

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

37. Which one of the following controls of an ultrasonic flaw detector can affect the frequency
characteristics of the probe connected to the flaw detector?

a. Frequency selector control


b. Pulse repetition frequency control
c. Reject control
d. None of the above
e. Both a and b above

38. For the case shown in fig Q-0038, the ultrasonic beam will
10

TRANSDUCER

TRANSDUCER BEAM

WATER

COPPER BAR
80 mm DIA

Figure Q-0038

a. Converge inside the test object


b. Diverse inside the test object
c. Travel as parallel beam inside the test object
d. Any of the above three, depending upon the diameter of the test object

39. When longitudinal waves are incident on a Perspex – copper interface from Perspex side, the
second critical angle is approximately (VL (Perspex) = 2730 m/s and VL (Cu) = 4700 m/s)

a. 36º
b. 56º
c. 76º
d. None of the above

40. In fig Q-0040, a vertical crack at T will be best detected by

SIDE A
Figure Q-0040

T S

SIDE B
11

a. Dual probe from side A


b. Normal probe from side B
c. Tandem scan from side A
d. Angle beam scan from side B

41. Excessive couplant applied to the surface can seriously affect test results while employing

a. Twin probe technique


b. Raleigh wave technique
c. Automated technique
d. Resonance technique

42. Longitudinal waves are rarely used for angle beam ultrasonic inspection because

a. Longitudinal waves cannot travel in solids


b. Longitudinal waves are refracted at lower angles than shear waves in the same medium
c. longitudinal waves are almost always accompanied by shear waves due to refraction and mode
conversion
d. it is not possible to propagate longitudinal waves at an angle

43. An important advantage of twin probe over single element probe is

a. Reduced dead zone


b. Better resolution
c. Faster inspection
d. None of the above

44. ‘Dead Zone’ is define as

a. The distance in front of the probe in which fluctuation in ultrasonic intensity can occur
b. The zone of material not inspected by the ultrasonic beam
c. The distance covered by the front surface pulse on an A – scan display plus the amplifier
recovery time
d. The region between the near field and far field.

45. Highly damped probes will have


12

a. Very high sensitivity


b. High resolution
c. Low band width
d. Both b and c
e. None of the above

46. Skip distance for a particular job depends on

a. The ultrasonic beam angle


b. The test frequency
c. The thickness of the test object
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c

47. The mode of ultrasonic waves traveling within the Perspex wedge of the angle beam probe is

a. Longitudinal waves
b. Shear waves
c. Surface waves
d. Lamb waves

48. A 60º 4 MHz probe is used for testing a 30 mm thick plate. A defect indication is obtained at a
beam path of 80 mm. The depth of the flaw from the scanning surface would be

a. 10 mm
b. 20 mm
c. 30 mm
d. 40 mm

49. A 60º 4 MHz probe is used for testing a 30 mm thick plate. A defect indication is obtained at a
beam path of 80 mm. All other conditions remaining same, if the frequency is changed to 2 MHz
the metal path will be

a. 40 mm
b. 80 mm
c. 160 mm
d. none of the above

50. Aluminum bars 150 mm OD are to be inspected by shear waves traveling in circumferential
direction using immersion technique. If the beam angle is to be 45º, the off – set distance will be
closest to:
13

a. 75.0 mm
b. 37.5 mm
c. 25 mm
d. 12.5 mm

51. A normal beam probe has a near field length of 40 mm in steel (V = 6000 m/s). Therefore, its near
field length in water (V = 1500 m/s) will be

a. 10 mm
b. 20 mm
c. 160 mm
d. Information on probe size and frequency is required for this calculation

52. Ultrasonic waves cannot pass through air because air has

a. Low acoustic impedance


b. Low physical density
c. Low velocity for ultrasound
d. None of the above statements is true, ultrasound can pass through air.

53. If the acoustic impedance of a material is high

a. Ultrasonic waves will be highly attenuated in the material


b. Ultrasonic waves will travel slower in the material
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

54. Wavelength of ultrasonic waves depends on


a. Frequency of the waves
b. Wave mode
c. The material in which they travel
d. Only a and b
e. All of the above

55. The velocity of shear waves in a material is 3.25 mm/microsecond., what will be the wavelength
of shear waves at a depth of 100 mm in the same material if the frequency is 5 MHz?

a. 6.5 mm
b. 0.65 mm
c. 1.5 mm
d. 16.5 mm

56. When ultrasonic waves travel from steel into aluminum

a. Its velocity changes, but frequency remains same


14

b. Its frequency changes, but velocity remains same


c. Both velocity and frequency will change
d. Either velocity or frequency will change depending upon the angle of incidence.

57. Sound waves are incident from water onto an aluminum component. When refracted shear waves
travel at 60º what is the incident angle? (V (water) = 1500 m/s; V(AL – longitudinal) = 6300 m/s;
V (Al – shear) = 3100 m/s)

a. 66º
b. 28º
c. 25º
d. 12º

58. At the first critical angle, the refracted longitudinal wave

a. Is totally absorbed in the test material


b. Has a refracted angle of 0º
c. Is transmitted across the interface along with a shear wave
d. Is refracted along the interface between the two media

59. Which of the following modes of vibrations will produce he shortest wavelength at a given
frequency and in a given material?

a. Surface wave
b. Shear wave
c. Longitudinal wave
d. Cannot say because wavelength depends on the probe diameter also

60. The divergence angle of ½ “ dia 10 MHz probe in a certain material is 2º Therefore, the
divergence angle of a 1 in. dia. 5 MHz probe in the same material is:

a. 2º
b. 4º
c. 8º
d. 16º
e. Velocity in the material is needed for calculation

61. Of the following sound wave modes, which one has multiple or varying wave velocities?
15

a. Lamb waves
b. Raleigh waves
c. Shear waves
d. Longitudinal waves

62. The acoustic impedance of a material is used for

a. Determining the angle of refraction at an interface]


b. Determining the attenuation in the material
c. Determining the relative amounts of sound energy transmitted through and reflected at an
interface
d. Determining the beam spread within the material

63. The length of the zone adjacent to a transducer in which fluctuations in sound pressure occur is
mostly affected by

a. The frequency of the transducer


b. The diameter of the transducer
c. The length of the transducer
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b

64. In order to find the smallest discontinuity during a test, one should use

a. The lowest frequency possible


b. The highest frequency possible
c. The smallest probe possible
d. The probe with smallest near zone
e. Through transmission technique
f. Assess the maximum power of the equipment and probe combination.

RUSAYL INSTITUTE
ULTRASONIC TESTING – LEVEL II
UT Q BANK – 5

ANSWERS :
1c, 2b,3a,4d,5e,6d7b,8a,9c,10a,1c,12a,13d,14e,15c,16b,17b,18c,19c,20b
16

21c,22a,23c,24c,25a,26a,27b,28a,29c,30b,31d,32b,33a,34c,35d,36a,37d,38b,39d,40d,
41b,42c,43a,44c,45b,46e,47a,48b,49b,50c,51c,52d,53d,54d,55b,56a,57c, 58d,59a,
60a,61a,62c,63e,64b

You might also like