TEST 1
1. For every _______ bags of cement or fraction there of one (1) quality test.
a. 2500 b. 2000 c. 10,000 d. 200
2. For every _______ cu.m. of fine aggregates one (1) grading test.
a. 76 cu.m. b. 74 cu.m. c. 75 cu.m. d. 1500 cu.m.
3. For every _______ cu.m. of fine aggregates or fraction there of one (1) quality test.
a. 1500 cu.m. b. 2500 cu.m. c. 75 cu.m. d. 300 cu.m.
4. For every _______ cu.m. of course aggregates or fraction there of one (1) grading test.
a. 75 cu.m. b. 300 cu.m. c. 1500 cu.m. d. 2500 cu.m.
5. For every _______ cu.m. of course aggregates or fraction there of one (1) quality test.
a. 300 cu.m. b. 1500 cu.m. c. 2500 cu.m. d. 75 cu.m.
6. For every _______ kilograms of reinforcing steel bar of fraction there of one (1) quality test.
a. 5,000 b. 10,000 c. 2,000 d. 1,500
7. For every _______ tons of asphalt per shipment of one (1) quality test.
a. 25 b. 40 c. 20 d. 60
8. How many lots is a 1,000 lm double lane concrete pavement?
a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4
9. How many concrete bore required in one (1) lot?
a. 3 b. 5 c. both a & b d. none of the above
10. Required degree of compaction for item 104.
a. 95% b. 100% c. both a & b d. none of the above
11. Required degree of compaction for item 200.
a. 95% b. 100% c. both a & b d. none of the above
12. Required degree of compaction for item 201.
a. 95% b. 100% c. both a & b d. none of the above
13. Required degree of compaction for item 300.
a. 95% b. 100% c. both a & b d. none of the above
14. A set of concrete cylinder sample shall represent of how many pieces of pipe culvert?
a. 50 b. 25 c. 60 d. 35
15. How many pieces of CHB samples shall be tested for a 5,000 pieces of non-load bearing CHB?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 10 d. none of the above
16. The ideal sample to represent concrete pavement?
a. beam b. cylinder c. concrete core d. none of the above
17. The ideal sample to represent a bridge concrete girder?
a. beam b. cylinder c. concrete core d. none of the above
18. Portland Cement Concrete Pavement is called?
a. Item 104 b. Item 311 c. Item 407 d. Item 504
19. Subgrade preparation is called?
a. Item 104 b. Item 105 c. both a & b d. none of the above
20. Embankment is called?
a. Item 104 b. Item 105 c. Item 311 d. none of the above
21. Base Course is called?
a. Item 200 b. Item 201 c. Item 202 d. Item 203
22. Sub-base Course is called?
a. Item 200 b. Item 201 c. Item 202 d. Item 203
23. Pipe Culvert and Storm Drain is called?
a. Item 500.1 b. Item 500.2 c. Item 500 d. Item 501
24. Structural Concrete is called?
a. Item 311 b. Item 405 c. both a & b d. none of the above
25. Structure Excavation is called?
a. Item 102 b. Item 103 c. Item 201 d. none of the above
26. Clearing and Grubbing is called?
a. Item 101 b. Item 100 c. Item 202 d. Item 203
27. Aggregate surface course is called?
a. Item 310 b. Item 311 c. Item 300 d. Item 201
28. Excavation is called?
a. Item 102 b. Item 104 c. Item 100 d. Item 105
b.
29. Aside from sample splitter, what method should be applied to extract a representative sample
for soil or aggregate material?
a. quartering b. splitting c. both a & b d. none of the above
30. Liquid Limit required for Item 201.
a. >26 b. >25 c. >30 d. >12
31. Ideal concrete slump for Item 311.
a. 50mm – 76mm b. 76mm – 100mm c. 100mm – 150mm d. 0 – 50mm
32. Concrete beam sample should be continuously cured for?
a. 28 days b. 14 days c. 3 days d. 7 days
33. Concrete cylinder sample should be continuously cured for?
a. 28 days b. 14 days c. 3 days d. 7 days
34. Maximum size of fine aggregate for Item 311 and Item 405?
a. 1/2 b. 3/8 c. 1/4 d. none of the above
35. Maximum size of Item 200.
a. 3” b. 2” c. ¼” d. 1”
36. Maximum size of Item 201.
a. 3” b. 2” c. ¼” d. 1”
37. Maximum size of Item 311.
a. 3” b. 2” c. ¼” d. 1”
38. Maximum size of Item 300.
a. 3” b. 2” c. ¼” d. 1”
39. For every ________ sq.m. or fraction there of one (1) situ density test?
a. 400 b. 500 c. 300 d. 75
40. How many holes in situ density?
a. 4 holes b. 3 holes c. 1 hole d. none of the above
41. How many pieces for one (1) set of concrete beam sample?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 7 d. none of the above
42. How many pieces for one (1) set of concrete cylinder sample?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 7 d. none of the above
43. Laboratory compaction of Item 104 tested by AASHTO T99 method C, how many blows per
layer?
a. 56 b. 25 c. 30 d. 63
44. Laboratory compaction of Item 200 tested by AASHTO T180 method D, how many blows per
layer?
a. 56 b. 25 c. 30 d. 63
45. For preparation of concrete beam sample, how may strokes per layer?
a. 56 b. 25 c. 30 d. 63
46. For preparation of concrete cylinder sample, how many layer
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
47. CBR value for Item 200.
a. 25% b. 50% c. 80% d. 45%
48. CBR value for Item 201.
a. 25% b. 50% c. 80% d. 45%
49. Maximum abrasion loss requirement for Item 201.
a. 25% b. 50% c. 80% d. 45%
50. Maximum abrasion loss requirement for Item 200.
a. 25% b. 50% c. 80% d. 45%
51. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200.
a. 30 b. 35 c. 25 d. 12
52. Maximum liquid limit for Item 300.
a. 30 b. 35 c. 25 d. 12
53. Liquid limit of selected borrow material for topping.
a. 30 b. 35 c. 25 d. 12
54. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200.
a. 12 b. 15 c. 10 d. 9
55. Maximum plasticity index for Item 201.
a. 12 b. 15 c. 10 d. 9
56. Maximum size of soil particle for selected borrow for topping of Item 104.
a. 3” b. 2” c. 1” d. none of the above
57. Roadway embankment of Item 104 material shall be placed on horizontal layers not exceeding
______ in loose measurement and shall be compacted before the next layer is placed.
a. 150mm b. 200mm c. 100mm d. none of the above
58. Lifts of materials (Item 104) having >25 mass percent of rocks larger than 150mm in dimension
shall not be constructed above ______ below finished subgrade.
a. 150mm b. 200mm c. 300mm d. none of the above
59. The sampling requirement for paving concrete for 75 cu.m. is:
a. 1 set of 3 cylinder sample
b. 3 sets of 3 cylinder sample
c. 1 set of 3 beam sample
d. 3 sets of 3 beam sample
60. What kind of reinforcing steel is used for dowel bars of a PCCP?
a. Plain square bars b. plain round bars c. deformed bars d. none of the above
61. Unless other sizes are shown in the plans, stones for stone masonry should have a minimum
thickness of:
a. 100mm b. 150mm c. 200mm d. 250mm
62. What is Item 505 in the DPWH Standard Specification?
a. Structural Concrete
b. Pre-stressed Concrete
c. Riprap and Grouted Riprap
d. Stone Masonry
63. What is the equipment used to “proof roll” the subgrade of a road?
a. Pneumatic tired roller
b. Vibrator roller
c. Sheepfoot roller
d. Steel wheel roller
64. The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat (Item 302) should be within the
range of:
a. 0.2 – 0.5 L/sq.m. b. 0.2 – 0.7 L/sq.m. c. 0..15 – 0.7 L/sq.m. d. 0.15 – 0.5 L/sq.m.
65. Embankment material should be laid by layer at a minimum thickness of:
a. 100mm b. 150mm c. 200mm d. 250mm
66. Which of the following equipment should be used for compacting uniformly graded soil material
for embankment?
a. Pneumatic tired roller
b. Vibrator roller
c. Sheepfoot roller
d. Steel wheel roller
67. These materials are generated when asphalt pavements are milled or removed for reuse of
recovered aggregates.
a. Recycled asphalt pavement
b. Recovered asphalt pavement
c. Reclaimed asphalt pavement
d. Removed asphalt pavement
68. The most important factor affecting the strength of concrete is:
a. Quality of aggregates and cement
b. Water - cement ratio
c. Curing condition
d. Duration of mixing
69. Who recommends actions to resolve problem during field implementation of a project?
a. Project Engineer
b. Resident Engineer
c. Project Inspector
d. Materials Engineer
70. Finish on final rolling on newly laid asphalt concrete is required in order to:
a. Remove excess asphalt cement
b. Eliminate roller marks
c. Allow bigger aggregates to penetrate deep
d. Cool the asphalt concrete before opening to traffic
71. For buildings, borings are generally made:
a. One at each corner
b. Two at one corner and one at center
c. One at the center
d. One at each corner and its center
72. For Item 104, existing ground shall be compacted to a depth of:
a. 100mm b. 150mm c. 200mm d. 8”
73. CBR value (soaked) of Item 200, should not less than.
a. 20% b. 25% c. 30% d. 80%
74. Item 200 shall have a liquid limit of not more than.
a. 25 b. 30 c. 20 d. 35
75. Item 200 shall have PI of not more than.
a. 12 b. 15 c. 20 d. 6
76. Aggregate sub-base shall be compacted and have a tolerance of layer thickness of:
a. +/- 20mm b. +/- 10mm c. +/- 15mm d. none of the above
77. For Item 201 under grading B, maximum passing of 1 ½ “ materials is:
a. 60 - 80 b. 100 c. 30 - 55 d. 20 - 50
78. In the conduct of CBR Test AASHTO T-193 maximum size of particle is:
a. 1” b. ¾ “ c. ½ “ d. 1 ½ “
79. Abrasion Test for Item 202 shall have a mass percent of wear not exceeding _______ by Los
Angeles Abrasion Test.
a. 40% b. 45% c. 50% d. 80%
80. What class of structural concrete is generally used for footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts,
pipe bedding and gravity walls?
a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class P
81. Who exercises overall planning, implementation and control in the supervision of field
operations?
a. Materials Engineer
b. Project Engineer
c. Construction Foreman
d. Resident Engineer
82. Before placing concrete, the base of roadway for concreting should be kept in moist condition
and saturated with water for at least.
a. 6 hours b. 1.5 hours c. 2 hours d. 3 hours
83. What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer aggregate base course?
a. +/- 20mm b. +/- 10mm c. +/- 15mm d. none of the above
84. For Mechanically – Stabilized Earth (MSE) retaining wall, concrete shall have a minimum
compressive strength of _______ at 28 days.
a. 24 MPa b. 30 MPa c. 20.7 MPa d. 32 MPa
85. The type of asphalt material that is being referred by penetration grade?
a. Emulsified asphalt
b. Asphalt cement
c. Cutback asphalt
d. Mastic asphalt
86. Which of the following materials has the greatest load carrying capacity?
a. Clay b. Sand c. Silt d. Peat and Muck
87. To facilitate the acceptance of cement, the compressive strength of mortar samples at 3 days
and 7 days can be considered provided that the strength of the samples at 7 days is not less than
____
percent of the compressive strength requirement for 28 days.
a. 75% b. 80% c. 85% d. 90%
88. When should weakened plane joints on concrete pavements be sawed?
a. after the curing period
b. after 14 days, before opening the pavement to traffic
c. as soon as the concrete has hardened sufficiently, usually within 24 hours
d. before removing the formworks
89. Sieve analysis is made after performance of wash test on materials.
a. finer than no. 200 sieve
b. coarser than no. 200 sieve
c. finer than ¾ “ sieve
d. either a or b
90. What test determines the amount of asphalt present in a bituminous mixtures?
a. distillation b. stability test c. ductility test d. extraction test
91. The minimum flexural strength requirement of concrete for Item 311 using third point method
is:
a. 500 psi b. 550 psi c. 650 psi d. 400 psi
92. Describe what happens to the asphaltic core sample while immersed or soaked in water.
a. the asphalt core absorbs water
b. the asphalt core sample floats due to buoyancy
c. water penetrates the voids of the sample
d. bubbles are released from the sample
93. Is it possible to measure the thickness from four – sided rectangular sawed specimen from the
pavement?
a. not allowed
b. allowed
c. absolutely banned
d. upon justification of the Project Engineer
94. An asphalt mix produced and applied at a temperature of around 20°C - 40°C lower than an
equivalent “Hot mix asphalt”. It is a greener process that has less impact on the environment.
a. low temperature asphalt mix
b. warm mix asphalt
c. green asphalt
d. environment friendly asphalt
95. It is the limit of water content between liquid state and plastic state.
a. Shrinkage Limit
b. Plastic Limit
c. Liquid Limit
d. none of the above
96. Slurry seal, micro-surfacing or Slurry Surface Treatment shall not be applied if either the
pavement or air temperature is below _____ °C.
a. 25 b. 20 c. 15 d. 10
97. When polymer – based chemical soil additive is used to improve the properties of soil, the rate
dilution in each layer shall be in range of _______.
a. 1:2 – 1:6 b. 1:3 – 1:7 c. 1:4 – 1:8 d. 1:5 – 1:9
98. In this test, the soil is sheared of failure by moving one part of soil sample to the other part
along a predetermined plane.
a. direct shear test
b. unconfined compression test
c. tri – axial compression test
d. load bearing test
25 Questions (Hard Level)
