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WASTEWATER ENGINEERING
1. Grit chambers are usually designed so that
A) Horizontal velocities are proportional to the flows.
B) All settleable solids are removed.
C) The BOD load on the primary units is reduced.
D) Coarse inorganic/mineral matter is settled and organic matter remains in suspension

2. Sludge should be deposited in the drying beds at a depth not greater than……...
A) 0.10 to 0.20 m. C) 0.30 to 0.40 m. E) 0.50 to 0.60 m.
B) 0.20 to 0.30 m. D) 0.40 to 0.50 m.

3. Extended aeration plants are generally designed to provide a BOD reduction of about……...
A) 30 to 40% C) 75 to 90%
B) 50 to 60% E) 100 %

4. At a properly designed and operated wastewater treatment plant incorporating primary and secondary
treatment, what percent of BOD reduction may be expected
A) 95% C) 70% E) 100%
B) 35% D) 20%

5. Carbon dioxide, one of the gases given off by the decomposition of sludge, is not poisonous, but it may
cause
A) Combustion C) Burns E) None of the above
B) Corrosion D) Asphyxiation

6. Grit chambers designed to remove grit without the putrescible organic matter have a velocity of..
A) Less than 0.20 m/sec C) 0.60 to 1.20 m/sec
B) 0.20 to 0.30 m/sec D) 1.20 to 1.80 m/sec

7. The BOD of secondary effluent from an activated sludge plant discharging to a Class 'C' water normally
will be in the range of
A) 80 to 100 mg/l C) more than 50 to 60 mg/l
B) 60 to 80 mg/l D) less than 50 mg/l

8. The rock in most trickling filters is placed

A) Directly on the ground C) On a system of tile underdrains
B) Directly on the flat concrete floor slab D) On a rubber tile floor

9. The suspended solids concentration in the mixed liquor in an activated sludge plant, for best operation,
should be
A) 10 to 25 mg/l C) 500 to 3,000 mg/l
B) 50 to 300 mg/l D) Over 5,000 mg/l

10. The activated sludge process

A) Is an aerobic treatment process and therefore requires free oxygen
B) Is an anaerobic process and therefore does not require free oxygen
C) Is a chemical treatment process
D) Uses activated carbon to purify wastewater

11. The valves used in sludge and scum lines are mostly of the plug type. The reason a gate or butterfly valve is
not used is because it
A) Is more expensive C) Is susceptible to operating problems
B) Requires less power to operate D) Is bulky

12. Which of the following is more toxic to biological treatment plant organisms?
A) Iron C) Copper
B) Aluminum D) Calcium
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13. To protect the health of downstream water users, treatment plant effluents must be
A) Free of microorganisms C) Sterilized E) Dyed a disinfected
B) Free of BOD D) Disinfected color

14. Bacteria perform a vital role in wastewater treatment. Those that require free oxygen for their life process
are called
A) Anaerobic bacteria C) Hypertonic bacteria E) Amoebic bacteria
B) Protozoic bacteria D) Aerobic bacteria

15. The decomposition by microorganisms of waste organic matter in wastewater in the absence of DO is
classed as
A) Aseptic C) Cyclic E) Anaerobic
B) Sterile D) Aerobic

16. Killing of pathogenic organisms is called

A) Endogenous oxidation C) Sterilization E) Disinfection
B) Liquidation D) Pasteurization

17. Algae are

A) Phytoplankton C) Bacteria E) Worms
B) Insects D) Virus

18. Bacteria are divided into two main groups. One is parasitic. The other lives off the dead material and is
known as
A) Saprophytic C) Epidemic E) Dogmatic
B) Dienophilic D) Aerobic

19. Coliform bacteria are

A) More resistant to chlorination than pathogenic bacteria
B) Less resistant to chlorination than pathogenic bacteria
C) A group of pathogens causing hepatitis
D) A group of pathogens causing typhoid

20. Anaerobic bacteria are bacteria that

A) Are unable to live without air or free oxygen
B) Are harmful to man but harmless or even beneficial to lower animals
C) Have the power of robbing dead animal tissue of the living principal
D) Have the power of living without air or free oxygen
E) Are harmful to lower animals but harmless to man

21. The organisms in a sand filter are known to be aerobic organisms. This means that they live and multiply
A) Only in a nitrate-free environment
B) Only in the absence of oxygen
C) Only when hydrogen sulfide is being liberated
D) Only in the presence of free oxygen

22. Aerobic organisms give end products of

A) CO2 and H2S C) CO2 and H2O
B) methane and H2O D) CO2 and methane

23. Coliform group bacteria are

A) Measured by the settleability method.
B) Measured by the multiple aeration technique
C) Measured by the modified Winkler procedure
D) Harmful to humans
E) Indicative of the presence of bacteria originating in the intestines of warm-blooded animals.

CORRELATION: B Wastewater Engineering | QCompilation_2 2 |6

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24. A centrifugal pump is pumping 1090 m3/day against a 12 meters total pumping head. The output power of
the pump is about ______ horsepower.
A) 0.5 C) 15
B) 2 D) 121

25. Air flow through a trickling filter when the influent is warmer than the air temperature is
A) Upward through the filter C) Inadequate and may require forced air ventilation.
B) Downward through the filter D) Improved by decreasing the recirculation.

26. The method of sludge handling resulting in a supernatant with the highest BOD is
A) Aerobic digestion. C) Centrifugation
B) Anaerobic digestion. D) Vacuum filtration.

27. The quantity of volatile solids in the content of the sludge is an indirect measure of the
A) Amount of the sample that will evaporate upon standing.
B) Number of bacteria in the digester
C) "Food" available for the bacteria in the digester
D) Primary effluent suspended solids.

28. Which solids cannot be removed by vacuum filtration?

A) Dissolved solids. C) Suspended solids
B) Settleable solids. D) Mixed solids

29. Belt filter presses are operated as a _________ process.

A) Batch C) Either batch or continuous depending on circumstances
B) Continuous D) Rotary

30. Given the following data, calculate the desired kilograms of mixed liquor suspended solids (MLSS) in the
aeration tank.
Data :
Primary effluent suspended solids = 120 mg/l Aeration tank = 30m x 14m x 4m
Influent flow = 7560 m /d
3 Influent BOD =235 mg/l
Desired sludge age = 5.0 days Effluent suspended solids = 15 mg/l
A) 2724 kg C) 4536 kg
B) 3632 kg D) 6230 kg

31. Given the following data, calculate the approximate desired mg/l of mixed liquor suspended solids (MLSS)
in the aeration tank.
Data :
Primary effluent suspended solids = 120 mg/l Aeration tank = 30m x 14m x 4m
Influent flow = 7560 m /d
3 Influent BOD =235 mg/l
Desired sludge age = 5.0 days Effluent suspended solids = 15 mg/l
A) 1500 mg/l C) 3200 mg/l
B) 2700 mg/l D) none of the above

32. An incubator for the BOD test should be kept at a temperature of ________ C
A) 15 C) 25
B) 20 D) 30

33. Which is the least objectionable to receiving waters from an industrial waste plant?
A) Nickel C) H2SO4
B) CN D) CO2 and Nitrogen

CORRELATION: B Wastewater Engineering | QCompilation_2 3 |6

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34. Given the data below, what is the most likely cause of the activated sludge diffused aeration system
problem?
Data: Blower air rate output high. Borderline low dissolved oxygen.
Organic load normal. Low turbulence throughout aeration tank.
Hydraulic load normal.
A) Aeration system piping leaking.
B) Under aeration due to low blower speed.
C) Excessive air bubble shearing by diffusers.
D) Return activated sludge rate too high.

35. For what purpose would you add alum (Al2(SO4)3) to a sludge going to a drying bed?
A) Reduce flies. D) Easier to pick.
B) Gives a pretty color. E) All of the above.
C) Aids in drying.

36. At what temperature and how many days do you perform a BOD test and what procedure?
A) 20° F in a lighted incubator for 5 days.
B) 40° C in a dark closet for 10 days.
C) 20° C in a constant temperature structure for 5 days in the light.
D) 20° C in a constant temperature structure for 5 days in the dark
E) None of the above.

37. What is the color of good extended aeration mixed liquor?

A) Black C) Brown
B) Tan D) Gray

38. Which of the following wastes would reduce the biological activity in a trickling filter?
A) Metal plating. C) Meat packing. E) All of the above.
B) Brewery. D) Dairy wastes.

39. Which of the following wastes would be readily biodegraded in a trickling filter?
A) Metal plating. C) Brewery. E) B, C, and D
B) Meat packing. D) Dairy.

40. At what pH range is an anaerobic digester most efficient?

A) 4.4 - 5.6 C) 6.8 - 7.2 E) None of the above.
B) 6.2 - 6.5 D) 7.4 - 7.8

41. Which of the following is not used for phosphorus removal?

A) Lime. C) Potassium permanganate E) Ferric chloride.
B) Salt or iron. D) Salts of aluminum.

42. The BOD of a waste stream entering a treatment has a BOD of 250. Primary treatment removes 18% of
the BOD and the secondary treatment removes 40%. What is the BOD of the plant effluent?
A) 205 mg/l C) 145 mg/l E) 107 mg/l
B) 123 mg/l D) 100 mg/l

43. NaHCO3 is?

A) Sodium bicarbonate C) sodium hydroxide E) None of the above
B) Sodium carbonate D) sodium carbonate trioxide

44. The flow to an activated sludge plant is 7570 m3/d. The BOD from the primary clarifier is 180 mg/l. The
aeration tank holds 3406.5 m3 and the MLVSS was found to be 3000. What is the F/M ratio at this plant?
A) 0.13 C) 0.20 E) Incomplete information
B) 0.26 D) 0.17
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VA
45. In the formula of sludge age (SA) = ,
QC
V = the volume of the aeration tank
A = MLSS
Q = the flow
What is C?
A) BOD on influent. D) Suspended solids in primary effluent.
B) BOD in primary effluent. E) Concentration of the return activated sludge.
C) Suspended solids in plant influent.

46. What is the molecular weight of CaCO3. The atomic weights are C-12 0-16 and Ca-40.
A) 50 C) 100 E) 68
B) 84 D) 120

47. Which of the following processes would give you the driest sludge?
A) Rotary kiln C) Open drying bed E) Centrifuge
B) Filter press D) Closed and ventilated drying bed

48. Prior to using a burette for titration, the beret should be rinsed out with which of the following?
A) Distilled water C) A portion of the sample E) Sulfuric acid
B) Tap water D) The solution being titrated (titrant)

49. Which of the following would be the least toxic when introduced into an anaerobic digester?
A) Phenol C) Cyanide E) Copper
B) Chromium D) Sodium hydroxide

50. Which of the following would be the least likely to be found in the waste from a chrome plating industry.
A) Phenol C) Sodium chromate E) Cyanide
B) Chromic acid D) Hydrogen cyanide

51. What is the first step in the physical-chemical treatment of chromium wastes?
A) pH adjustment C) Dilution E) Precipitation
B) Aeration D) Concentration of the wastes

52. A representative from the LLDA monitoring division can inspect a wastewater treatment facility:
A) anytime.
B) only when the certified operator is on duty.
C) only when the plant is manned.
D) only during working hours.
E) at any reasonable time.

53. Which of the following is not the equipment used for a Suspended Solids test?
A) Buchner funnel C) Membrane filter
B) Evaporating dish D) Gooch crucible

54. Which of the below is not a process control procedure for the activated sludge process?
A) F/M C) COD
B) MCRT D) Solids balancing

55. What dewatering aid is generally used in a centrifuge?

A) Ferric chloride C) Lime
B) Polymer D) Alum

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56. A Buchner funnel is used to:

A) measure coliform bacteria. C) measure colloidal solids.
B) measure settleable solids. D) measure mixed liquor suspended solids.

57. A dark greasy foam on the aeration tank probably indicates what situation?
A) Young sludge C) Over-aeration
B) Old sludge D) Low MLSS

58. Which of the types of solids below would have the closest concentration in the effluents in the influent?
A) Colloidal solids C) Suspended solids
B) Settleable solids D) Dissolved solids

59. What type of sample would be most representative of a daily flow of wastewater?
A) Grab sample C) Flow proportioned 24 hour composite
B) 24 hour composite D) 12 hour composite sample

60. After sludge thickening the supernatant has a solids content slightly higher than the primary effluent. What
would be the best area to return that supernatant to?
A) Secondary clarifier C) Primary clarifier influent
B) Primary clarifier effluent D) Chlorine contact chamber

61. What is the purpose of a trickling filter?

A) To filter wastewater C) To contact wastes with microorganisms
B) To remove only settleable solids D) To remove heavy metals

62. Which of the below information is not needed to calculate an SVI?

A) BOD C) MLSS E) Both a and d
B) 30 min. reading on settleometer D) Influent TSS

63. What would the BOD’s of the following sample be, given the following data:
Data:
Initial D.O. = 7.6 mg/l
Final D.O. = 4.6 mg/l
ml of sample used = 3 ml
A) 4.6 mg/l C) 200 mg/l
B) 30 mg/l D) 300 mg/l E) 900 mg/l

64. What is the common name for CaO?

A) Calcium carbonate C) Quicklime
B) Hydrated lime D) Calcium hydroxide

65. According to occupational safety, which of the following oxygen-in-air concentration is the lowest safe
concentration for humans to breathe in order to avoid the hazard of oxygen deficiency?
A) 7.5% oxygen. C) 21% oxygen. E) 55% oxygen.
B) 19.5% oxygen D) 33% oxygen.

66. Which of the following is a group of hazardous gases or vapors that might be found in sewers?
A) Ammonium sulfate, nitrogen and oxygen.
B) Hydrogen sulfide, oxygen and nitrogen.
C) Hydrogen sulfide, gasoline vapor and methane.
D) Methane, sodium chloride and nitrate.
E) Oxygen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide.

CORRELATION: B Wastewater Engineering | QCompilation_2 6 |6