CIVIL AVIATION AGENCY

REPUBLIC OF SLOVENIA

SAMPLE OF
WRITTEN EXAMINATION
QUESTIONS

PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE - AEROPLANE

PPL(A)

LIGHT AIRCRAFT PILOT LICENCE - AEROPLANE

LAPL(A)

December 2018
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (K)

AICRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (K)

K-01 The cylinder inlet of a reciprocating engine is connected to the:

a) oil cooler.
b) fuel reservoir.
c) carburetor diffusor.
d) exhaust collector.

K-02 Compared to the crankshaft speed the camshaft of a reciprocating

four-stroke engine rotates:

a) at half speed.
b) at the same speed.
c) two times faster.
d) four times faster.

K-03 If the alternator fails in flight, the aircraft engine:

a) keeps running normally.

b) keeps running however unevenly and roughly.
c) keeps running provided the magnetos receive electrical power from the
battery.
d) stops running.

K-04 Compared to the current flow through the starter circuit that
connects the battery to the starter motor, the current flow through the
ignition switch in the START position is:

a) low.
b) high.
c) the same.

K-05 The battery master switch should be turned to OFF after the engine
is stopped to avoid the battery discharging through the:

a) magnetos.
b) alternator or generator.
c) electrical services connected to it.
d) ignition switch.

K-06 What would be the effect of a faulty or broken magneto ground wire
during a flight?

a) The engine would stop instantaneously.

b) The engine speed would drop approximately 100 RPM.
c) The alternator output would decrease.
d) No effect on engine operation.

Page 2 of 50
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (K)

K-07 The accelerator pump on a carburetor is used to:

a) control the fuel/air mixture during the cruise.

b) shut the engine down.
c) prevent an over-lean mixture, or even a "weak-cut", if the throttle is opened
quickly.

K-08 Can carburetor icing occur when the ambient temperature is +20°C?

a) No, it´s to warm.

b) Yes, at high altitudes.
c) Yes, if the air is humid.
d) Yes, always.

K-09 The fuel priming pump operated by the pilot delivers fuel:

a) through the carburetor to the induction manifold or inlet valve ports.

b) through the carburetor and directly into each of the cylinders.
c) to the induction manifold or inlet valve ports, bypassing the carburetor.

K-10 An abnormally high oil temperature indication in case of a four-

stroke engine may be caused by:

a) the oil level being too low.

b) operating with a too high viscosity oil.
c) excessively rich mixture.
d) the oil level being too high.

K-11 As the throttle is advanced, what happens to the constant-speed

propeller of an aircraft?

a) Angle of attack will increase.

b) Angle of attack will not change.
c) RPM will increase.
d) Angle of attack will decrease.

K-12 When does a P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

a) When at low angles of attack.

b) When at high angles of attack.
c) When at high airspeeds.

Page 3 of 50
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (K)

K-13 What is the function of a shimmy dumper on an aircraft

undercarriage?

a) To dumpen bouncing.
b) To decrease main leg piston travel.
c) To decrease shocks on direction pedals.
d) To prevent nose wheel vibrations.

K-14 A turnbuckle on the control cable:

a) has strong friction in the thread itself and doesn't need to be secured against
opening.
b) must be properly secured against opening.
c) is secured against opening by a special crown nut.

K-15 An oil on the windscreen of an aircraft may be removed by:

a) the alcohol.
b) water with an added mild liquid detergent.
c) the acetone.
d) the gasoline or kerosine.

K-16 Besides the altimeter, which instruments are connected to the static
pressure line?

a) Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, and turn-and-skid indicator.

b) Airspeed indicator only.
c) Airspeed indicator and external temperature indicator.
d) Airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator.

K-17 The operational principle of a vertical speed indicator with the

capsule is measurement of the:

a) difference between the pressure in the capsule and pressure in the housing
of the instrument.
b) difference between the total pressure and static pressure.
c) difference between the dynamic pressure and static pressure.
d) static pressure in the housing of the instrument.

K-18 What is the maximum structural cruising speed of the given aircraft?
(see Figure 8!)

a) 100 mph.
b) 165 mph.
c) 198 mph.
d) 65 mph.

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AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (K)

K-19 What causes the true airspeed of an airplane to differ from its
indicated airspeed?

a) The forward wind component.

b) Pitot error caused by flow losses in the pitot tube.
c) Yaw error caused by the yawing movement in cruise flight.
d) Variations in temperature and air density.

K-20 What does the green color band on the airspeed indicator of an
aircraft indicate?

a) Dangerous area.
b) The landing gear and flaps operating speed range.
c) Normal operating speed range.
d) Maximum allowed speed.

Page 5 of 50
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (K)

K-21 Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 ft? (see Figure 7!)

a) A, B and C.
b) A and B.
c) A only.
d) B only.

K-22 What would be the indication of an aircraft altimeter if the pilot fails
to set QNH during descent, and therefore lives the instrument set to the
standard pressure?

a) Zero.
b) The airport elevation.
c) The indication is not usable.
d) The airport heigh above the pressure plane 1013.2 hPa.

K-23 When parking an aircraft at night, the altimeter correctly indicates

the height of the airport (1,000 ft MSL). The next morning, the altimeter
indicates 1,200 ft. If the altimeter setting has not been changed, what is
the most likely reason for the indicated change of altitude?

a) The altimeter setting has increased.

b) The barometric pressure has increased.
c) The barometric pressure has decreased.

K-24 Altimeter A indicates: (see Figure 7!)

a) 500 ft.
b) 1,500 ft.
c) 10,500 ft.
d) 15,000 ft.

Page 6 of 50
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (K)

K-25 The rotor of a vacuum-driven-gyroscope is protected against

excessive speed by the:

a) air filter.
b) vacuum relief valve.
c) suction gauge.

K-26 Besides of pilot´s feeling the indication of side slipping or skidding

is:

a) displacement of the turn-and-slip pointer.

b) displacement of the turn-and-slip ball or displacement of the string on the
canopy at gliders.
c) bank of the phantom airplane at an artificial horizon.
d) compass spinning.

K-27 How long will an aircraft take to complete the 360° turn if the turn
coordinator shows the indication as shown? (see Figure 10!)

a) 30 seconds.
b) 60 seconds.
c) 120 seconds.
d) 240 seconds.

Page 7 of 50
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (K)

K-28 The term "magnetic dip" stands for the:

a) angle between the direction to the magnetic north and direction to the true
north.
b) angle between the longitudinal axis of an aircraft and the direction to the
true north.
c) angle between the direction of the magnetic field and the horizontal plane.
d) deviation of a compass caused by electrical fields.

K-29 When turning on a heading of due East in the Northern Hemisphere,

the pilot should start stopping the turn?

a) 10°-20° after the desired heading.

b) 20°-30° before the desired heading.
c) when the compass indicates E.

K-30 Where has the turning error of a magnetic compass zero value?

a) At the magnetic equator.

b) Over large water areas.
c) At the magnetic poles.
d) Over large desert areas.

K-31 When turning through East in the Northern Hemisphere, the direct
reading compass will?

a) Indicate correctly.
b) Show an exaggerated turn when turning either left or right.
c) Show an exaggerated turn when turning left, but under-indicate a right turn.
d) Show an exaggerated turn when turning right, but under-indicate a left turn.
e) Under-indicate turns both left and right.

K-32 If set to QNH, what will be aircraft altimeter reading after landing?

a) Zero.
b) Airfield height above the mean sea level.
c) Airfield height above the pressure plane 1013,2 hPa.
d) Airfield pressure altitude above the standard value.

K-33 Under what conditions is the indicated altitude the same as the true
altitude?

a) If the altimeter has no mechanical error.

b) When under standard conditions.
c) When above 5,500 m with the altimeter set at 1013.2 hPa.
d) If the altimeter indication is corrected for a non-standard pressure and
temperature at sea level.

Page 8 of 50
PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT (A)

PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT (A)

A-01 A symmetrical airfoil:

a) does not produce any lift.

b) has minimum induced drag at positive angle of attack.
c) center of pressure position is practically unindependent of the angle of
attack.
d) has high lift-drag ratio.

A-02 The angle of incidence is:

a) the angle between direction of relative airflow and the chord line of the wing.
b) the angle between horizontal stabilizer and the chord line of the elevator.
c) distance between wing leading edge and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
d) the angle between the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the
aircraft.

A-03 If the velocity of an airstream is doubled the drag coefficient will:

a) double.
b) not change.
c) increase 4-times.
d) increase 6-times.

A-04 Extended wing flaps increase wing curvature. How does this affect
lift and drag?

a) Both increase.
b) Both decrease.
c) Lift increases, drag decreases.
d) Lift decreases, drag increases.

A-05 How does increased wing loading affect the stalling speed of an
aircraft?

a) Stalling speed is greater.

b) Stalling speed is least.
c) Stalling speed remains unchanged because it depends exclusively on bank
angle.
d) Stalling speed remains unchanged because it depends on bank angle and
flaps position only.

Page 9 of 50
PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT (A)

A-06 Compared to a straight-and-level flight, which basic flight maneuver

increases the load factor on an aircraft? (see Figure 2!)

a) Climbs.
b) Turns.
c) Stalls.

A-07 What is the maximum allowed bank angle when flying an aircraft
with limiting load factor of +3,8 G? (see Figure 2!)

a) 75°.
b) 71°.
c) 67°.
d) 63°.

A-08 While turning, if a pilot:

a) lowers wing flaps, the stalling speed will increase.

b) retracts wing flaps, the stalling speed will increase.
c) retracts wing flaps, forward pressure on the control column or the stick
should be applied.

Page 10 of 50
PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT (A)

A-09 The wing of a powered aircaft stalls when:

a) the nose is high against the longitudinal axis.

b) the airspeed is too low for a given angle of incidence.
c) engine power is too low.
d) the angle of attack approaches the stalling angle.

A-10 A wing shape with the angle of incidence at the wingtip lower than
the angle of incidence at the wingroot is called:

a) geometrically twisted wing.

b) dihedral.
c) swept wing.
d) aerodynamically twisted wing.

A-11 Which adverse effect is caused by elevator deflection during level

flight?

a) No effect, because elevator deflection affects movement around the lateral

axis only.
b) Banking to the left.
c) Banking to the right.
d) Banking to the right and rotation around the vertical axis to the right.

A-12 What determines the stability around the longitudinal axis (lateral
stability) of an aircraft?

a) The angle of sweepback.

b) The aerodynamic washout of a wing.
c) The aerodynamic balancing of ailerons.
d) The angle that each wing makes with the horizontal and a low position of
the center of gravity.

A-13 When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

a) When at low angles of attack.

b) When at high angles of attack.
c) When at high airspeeds.

A-14 What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

a) The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.

b) The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab.
c) The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.

Page 11 of 50
PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT (A)

A-15 When the trim tab on the elevator is deflected downward, the
position of the trim lever in the cockpit is:

a) neutral.
b) forward.
c) rearward.

A-16 What is the effects of slotted flaps on the aircraft's flight

characteristic?

a) Increased stability around the longitudinal axis.

b) Increased directional stability.
c) Increased maximum gliding distance.
d) Improved flight characteristic at slow flight, because of a delayed separation
of the air stream from the wing surface.

A-17 What is the overall tendency of an aircraft to return to its original

position, following a series of dampening oscillations?

a) Positive dynamic stability.

b) Pitch stability.
c) Static stability.
d) Choice a) and b).

Page 12 of 50
FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING (P)

FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING (P)

P-01 Determine if the aircraft mass is inside the limits (normal category)!
(see Figure 5!)

item mass (lb) moment/1000 (lbxin)

Empty mass 1,350 51.5
Pilot and front passenger 360 ………….
Rear passengers 280 ………….
Fuel 30 US gal. ……….. …………
Oil, 8 qt ……….. -0.2

a) Forward of the forward limit.

b) Inside limits, close to the forward limit.
c) Inside limits.
d) Aft of the aft limit.

P-02 Basic reason for calculating the density altitude is determining:

a) the pressure altitude.

b) the aircraft performance.
c) the flight levels above the transition altitude.
d) the safe altitude over mountainous terrain.

P-03 What is the standard (ISA) temperature value at pressure altitude

10,000 ft?

a) -5°C.
b) -10°C.
c) -15°C.

P-04 What is the approximate pressure altitude if an altimeter is set to

1010 hPa and indicates 1,380 ft?

a) 1,200 ft.
b) 1,300 ft.
c) 1,400 ft.
d) 1,470 ft.

P-05 What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff

performance?

a) Increases takeoff speed.

b) Increases takeoff distance.
c) Decreases takeoff distance.

Page 13 of 50
FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING (P)

P-06 What influence does the wind have on an airplane's or powered hang
glider's angle-of-climb?

a) No effect.
b) A headwind will steepen the angle-of-climb.
c) A headwind will lessen the angle-of-climb.
d) A tailwind will steepen the angle-of-climb.

P-07 Which maximum range factors decreases as weight decreases?

a) Altitude.
b) Airspeed.
c) Angle of attack.

P-08 Determine the ground roll distance after landing. (see Figure 4!)

pressure altitude ................................. 0 ft

temperature ...................................... 10°C
mass ................................................ 2300 lb
wind ................................................. head 10 kt
surface ............................................. grass, dry

a) 510 ft.
b) 765 ft.
c) 1,110 ft.
d) 1,850 ft.

Page 14 of 50
FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING (P)

P-09 Determine the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle under the
following conditions: (see Figure 3!)

pressure altitude ................................ 2,000 ft

temperature ...................................... 30°C
mass ................................................. 2100 lb
wind ................................................. head 18 kt
surface ............................................. grass, dry

a) 1,350 ft.
b) 1,555 ft.
c) 1,565 ft.
d) 2,945 ft.

Page 15 of 50
FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING (P)

P-10 The forward speed for minimum rate of descent of an aircraft,

compared with its best glide speed, is:

a) always higher.
b) often higher.
c) always lower.
d) often lower.

P-11 What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the

tower reports the wind as 220°/30 kts?

a) 19 kts.
b) 23 kts.
c) 30 kts.
d) 34 kts.

P-12 What are the headwind and crosswind components with the
reported wind of 130°/20 kts for a runway with the magnetic
direction 040°? (see Figure 12!)

a) 15 kts headwind and 10 kts crosswind.

b) Zero headwind component; crosswind component 20 kts.
c) 10 kts headwind and 15 kts crosswind.
d) 20 kts headwind; zero crosswind component.

Page 16 of 50
FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING (P)

Page 17 of 50
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES (O)

OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES (O)

O-01 Official data regarding operating limitations and allowed mass of

your aircraft could be found in:

a) Maintainance Log.
b) Aircraft's Flight Manual.
c) Certificate of Airworthiness and in Certificate of Registration.
d) Official Gazette of Civil Aviation Authority.

O-02 What is the proper pilot procedure in case of a popped-out circuit

breaker?

a) Push the circuit breaker and hold it firmly in by finger until land.
b) Not to push in the circuit breaker in any case.
c) Push the circuit breaker in with the related electrical equipment switched
off.
d) Wait until the circuit breaker cools and push it in; if it popes up again, do
not push it again.

O-03 Which fuel contaminant is the most difficult to isolate with simple
filter systems?

a) Water.
b) Fine rust or dirt particles.
c) Grease or oil.
d) Ice.

O-04 What is the specific mass of aviation gasoline?

a) 0.60 kg/liter.
b) 0.72 kg/liter.
c) 1.00 kg/liter.
d) 1.72 kg/liter.

O-05 If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified
for the engine, it will most likely cause:

a) a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.

b) lower cylinder head temperatures.
c) detonation.

Page 18 of 50
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES (O)

O-06 When an engine is started up, the pilot should monitor oil pressure.
If the engine is cold prior to start up, it should be:

a) shut down immediately if oil pressure does not rise immediately upon start
up.
b) shut down, if oil pressure is not seen to rise within approximately 30 seconds
of start up.
c) shut down, if oil pressure has not reached normal limits by the time the
airplane is ready for takeoff.
d) operated normally, since it may take 10 minutes for oil pressure to rise.

O-07 When should the pressure in the barometric subscale of an aircraft

altimeter be set?

a) Yearly.
b) Monthly.
c) Before each flight and in the air, if necessary.
d) Each morning before flying.

O-08 Where should the elevator be positioned when taxiing a nose-wheel

aircraft in a strong wind blowing from behind?

a) Positioned to create a substantial down-force on the main landing gear as

recommended by a manufacturer.
b) Forward control.
c) Aft control.
d) Neutral.

O-09 Which aileron position should a pilot generally use when taxiing in
strong quartering headwinds?

a) Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.

b) Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
c) Aileron neutral.

O-10 While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly
adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without
readjusting the mixture?

a) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

b) There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal
combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
c) The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures
and may cause detonation.
d) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively reach.

Page 19 of 50
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES (O)

O-11 How should the mixture control be set for takeoff at sea level?

a) Forward (FULL RICH).

b) Aft (FULL RICH).
c) Aft (FULL LEAN).
d) Forward (FULL LEAN).

O-12 When transiting an airplane with a constant-speed propeller from a

cruise to a climb, the pilot should:

a) increase the manifold pressure with the throttle first, and then increase the
RPM with the propeller control.
b) increase the PRM with the propeller control before advancing the throttle.
c) increase the RPM with the throttle first, and then increase the manifold
pressure with the propeller control.
d) decrease the manifold pressure with the propeller control first, and then
increase the RPM with the throttle.

O-13 In flight you notice the orange light glowing on the instrumental
panel. What does this mean?

a) Too high output voltage.

b) Flat battery.
c) Overheated alternator.
d) Alternator does not deliver any electrical current.

O-14 When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake
turbulence by staying:

a) above the large aircraft's final approach flightpath and landing beyond the
large aircrafts touchdown point.
b) below the large aircraft's final approach flightpath and landing before the
large aircraft s touchdown point.
c) above the large aircraft's final approach flightpath and landing before the
large aircraft's touchdown point.

O-15 Choose the correct action for steep spiral recovery.

a) Apply full rudder opposite to direction of rotation, move control column

forward to break a stall, and ease out of ensuing dive.
b) Apply opposite ailerons, ease control column forward, and ease out of
ensuing dive.
c) Level wings with ailerons, and ease out of ensuing dive.

Page 20 of 50
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES (O)

O-16 During landing close to the surface and at low airspeed, it could be
dangerous to retract wing flaps, because of:

a) drag increase and resulting rapid decrease of the airspeed.

b) rapid increase of the airspeed and resulting rapid climb.
c) rapid decrease of lift and resulting sink into runway.
d) great decrease in effectivness of wing flaps.

O-17 Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a: (see Figure 18!)

a) stabilized area.
b) multiple heliport.
c) closed runway.

Page 21 of 50
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES (O)

O-18 Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by

a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall:

a) maintain a 3° glide to the runway.

b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
c) stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.

O-19 Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is: (see Figure 20!)

a) below the glide slope.

b) on the glide slope.
c) above the glide slope

O-20 What radionavigation aid is located in the middle of the airport and
what is its feature? (see Figure 17!)

a) VOR; it is being switched on by the pilot's request.

b) TACAN; civil aircraft use it the same way as an ordinary VOR is being used.
c) TACAN; civil aircraft receive DME information only.

Page 22 of 50
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES (O)

Page 23 of 50
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES (O)

O-21 A white cross, placed horizontally on the beginning of the taxiway

(picture G), means: (see Figure 25!)

a) Taxiway unserviceable!
b) Caution, you are approaching the intersection with the runway!
c) Helicopter landing area!
d) Caution, you are approaching the intersection with other taxiway!

O-22 What is the light signal that means "CLEARED TO TAXI"?

a) Steady green light.

b) Steady red light.
c) Alternating red and green light.
d) Flashing green light.

Page 24 of 50
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES (O)

O-23 In addition to the required lights on the wing tips, a glider operating
at night must have installed the tail light, which color is:

a) green.
b) red.
c) orange.
d) white.

O-24 Waving the red flag over the head on the aerotow takeoff spot
means:

a) GLIDER READY FOR DEPARTURE, RUNWAY CLEAR.

b) STOP - DISCONTINUE TOWING!
c) FLYING TERMINATED.
d) TAUTEN THE ROPE!

O-25 To which position should the ELT switch be set before takeoff?

a) ON.
b) ARM or AUTO.
c) OFF.

O-26 When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

a) Anytime.
b) At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.
c) During the first five minutes after the hour.

O-27 Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency

locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?

a) Turn off the aircraft ELT after landing.

b) Ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal.
c) Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.

Page 25 of 50
NAVIGATION (N)

NAVIGATION (N)

N-01 The circumference of the Earth along the Equator is approximately:

a) 21,600 NM.
b) 40,075 km.
c) 30,000 NM.
d) 24,000 km.

N-02 The shortest distance between two points on the Earth's globe is
called:

a) rhumb line.
b) great circle.
c) lambodrome.
d) small circle.

N-03 What is the characteristic of the Rhumb Line?

a) It cuts meridians under various angles.

b) It is the shortest distance between two points on the Earth's globe.
c) It cuts meridians under constant angle.
d) It is the Great Circle.

N-04 An aircraft over Ljubljana is headed exactly to the south. It is 1200

UTC. What is the relative bearing of the Sun?

a) Exactly straight-in.
b) Left of the aircraft's nose.
c) Right of the aircraft's nose.
d) May be left or right of the aircraft's nose, with regard to the season.

N-05 The geographic coordinates of the point A are:

(see Figure 14!)

a) N 49° 11,0' and E 21° 18,0'.

b) N 50° 11,0' and E 20° 12,0'.
c) N 50° 49,0' and E 20° 12,0'.
d) N 49° 49,0' and E 21° 18,0'.

Page 26 of 50
NAVIGATION (N)

Page 27 of 50
NAVIGATION (N)

N-06 The distance of 1 NM equals to:

a) 1,111 m.
b) 1,432 m.
c) 1,609 m.
d) 1,852 m.

N-07 The scale of the chart is 1:500 000. How many centimeters
represents the distance 105 km?

a) 10.5 cm.
b) 21.0 cm.
c) 42.0 cm.
d) 84.0 cm.

N-08 What is the distance of the route segment F-D on the chart?
(see Figure 15!)

a) 29 km.
b) 21 NM.
c) 29 SM.
d) 29 NM.

Page 28 of 50
NAVIGATION (N)

Page 29 of 50
NAVIGATION (N)

N-09 On a chart we read the obstacle altitude 275 meters. Regarding the
rule of height clearance 1,000 feet over obstacles, what is the lowest
altitude for overflying the obstacle?

a) 2,230 ft.
b) 2,130 ft.
c) 1,900 ft.
d) 1,230 ft.

N-10 You are flying at pressure altitude 500 ft with an indicated airspeed
(IAS) of 110 kts, the outside air temperature is minus 25°C (IAS=CAS).
Determine the true airspeed (TAS).

a) 103 kts.
b) 110 kts.
c) 112 kts.
d) 115 kts.

N-11 Wind velocity 5 kts is approximately:

a) 10 km/hour.
b) 5 statute miles/hour.
c) 20 m/sec.
d) All of the above is correct.

N-12 100 kg is how many pounds?

a) 180 lbs.
b) 200 lbs.
c) 220 lbs.
d) 250 lbs.

N-13 Which mark on the wind triangle represents a wind correction angle?
(see Figure 13!)

a) Mark 2.
b) Mark 3.
c) Mark 4.
d) Mark 5.

Page 30 of 50
NAVIGATION (N)

N-14 Which azimuth corresponds to the general direction WNW?

a) 247.5°.
b) 292.5°.
c) 337.5°.
d) 202.5°.

N-15 Lines on geographical charts joining points of a zero magnetic

variation, are called:

a) izogonic lines.
b) izoclinic lines.
c) ag aclinic lines.
d) onic lines.

N-16 Which element of the wind triangle has a null value if a magnetic
heading equals compass heading?

a) Magnetic dip.
b) Compass deviation.
c) Drift.
d) Magnetic variation.

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NAVIGATION (N)

N-17 The true course of the route segment E-F is:

(see Figure 15!)

a) 260°.
b) 100°.
c) 080°.
d) 070°.

N-18 The magnetic course of the route segment F-D is:

(see Figure 15!)

a) 087°.
b) 187°.
c) 198°.
d) 209°.

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NAVIGATION (N)

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NAVIGATION (N)

N-19 An aircraft overflies point A at time 14:30 with TAS 95 kts. If the
wind in this area is reported as 090°/20 kt what will be ETA at point B?
(see Figure 14! – SEE PAGE 27)

a) 14:35.
b) 14:40.
c) 14:44.
d) 14:49.

N-20 Which statement is true about homing when using ADF?

a) Homing is a practical navigational method, usable for flying to and away

from the NDB station.
b) Homing allows flying along curved path only, which leads to the NDB station.
c) Homing requires an ADF with the automatic or at least manually adjusting
compass rose.

N-21 As shown by ADF F, the relative bearing TO the station is:

(see Figure 21)

a) 090°.
b) 180°.
c) 270°.

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NAVIGATION (N)

N-22 What is the magnetic bearing FROM the station of an aircraft with
an ADF indication, depicted in figure A? (see Figure 22!)

a) 030°.
b) 150°.
c) 180°.

N-23 VOR radials are:

a) magnetic directions.
b) compass directions.
c) true directions.
d) relative bearings.

N-24 An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication one-
fifth deflection, this represents a course centerline deviation of
approximately:

a) 6 miles.
b) 2 miles.
c) 1 mile.

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NAVIGATION (N)

N-25 Which distance is displayed by a DME indicator?

a) Slant-range distance in statute miles.

b) Slant-range distance in nautical miles.
c) The distance from the aircraft to a point at the same altitude directly above
the DME ground facility.

N-26 What is the shortest route distance between ILB VOR and the
intersection ISTRI south of KFT VOR? (see Figure 16!)

a) 45 NM.
b) 45 km.
c) 57 NM.
d) 69 NM.

N-27 When flying in the vicinity of Klagenfurt airport, a pilot will normally
obtain a meteo data for the surrounding airports by:
(see Figure 16!)

a) listening to the voice transmittion of the VOR KFT.

b) questioning Klagenfurt Tower.
c) questioning the radar.
d) listening to the VOLMET broadcast at frequency 122.27 MHz.

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NAVIGATION (N)

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NAVIGATION (N)

N-28 A GPS signal reception in great extend depends on the aircraft's

altitude. This statement is:

a) true.
b) false.

N-29 A GPS signal may be interrupted when transmitting on VHF

frequencies:

a) 121.15 MHz, 121.17 MHz in 121.20 MHz.

b) 131.25 MHz in 131.30 MHz.
c) Both answers are correct.

N-30 In a RNAV mode, the lateral deflection of the CDI indicates:

a) degrees left or right of course.

b) statute miles left or right of course.
c) nautical miles left or right of course.

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METEOROLOGY (M)

METEOROLOGY (M)

M-01 What air temperature may we expect at 7,000 ft if the air

temperature at 1,500 ft is 15°C?

a) +4°C.
b) +3°C.
c) 0°C.
d) -2°C.

M-02 The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature

inversion is that which is produced by:

a) terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.

b) the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air
over cold air.
c) warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.

M-03 What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the

atmosphere?

a) Actual lapse rate.

b) Surface temperature.
c) Atmospheric pressure.

M-04 What is the approximate base of cumulus clouds if the surface air
temperature is 27°C and the dewpoint is 15°C?

a) 1.000 m.
b) 1.500 m.
c) 1.500 m.
d) 2.700 m.

M-05 Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the:

a) mature stage.
b) downdraft stage.
c) cumulus stage.

M-06 During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized

predominately by downdrafts?

a) Cumulus.
b) Mature.
c) Dissipating.

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METEOROLOGY (M)

M-07 In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have

the highest accumulation rate?

a) Freezing drizzle.
b) Freezing rain.
c) Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.

M-08 What was the observed temperature accordingly to the following

METAR report?

METAR LSZH 131630Z 24008KT 0600 R16/1000U FG DZ FEW003 SCT010 OVC020 17/16 Q1018
BECMG TL1700 0800 FG BECMG AT1800 9999 NSW=

a) Between 10°C and 18°C.

b) 17°C.
c) 16°C.
d) Between 16°C and 17°C.

M-09 The airport meteorological observation station has recorded the

following subsequent weather development:

180450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA BR FEW008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG=
180650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BRK090 18/14 Q1014 RERA NOSIG=
180850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG=
181050Z 24008 KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG=
181250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG=
181450Z 23016 KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 24020G40KT TS=
181650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA BR FEW006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG=
181850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG=

What can we conclude?

a) Early in the morning the station was passed by a warm front and by a cold
front during the afternoon.
b) Early in the morning the station was passed by a cold front and by a warm
front during the afternoon.
c) Local thunderstorms appeared.

M-10 When can we expect the weather conditions convenient for visual
flying?

TAF EDDM 160000Z 160624 13010KT 9000 BKN020 BECMG 0608 SCT015CB BKN020
TEMPO 0812 17012G22KT 1000 TSRA SCT010CB BKN020 FM12 15006KT 9999 BKN020
BKN100=

a) All the time of validity of weather forecast.

b) After 12:00 UTC only.
c) Between 08:00 UTC and 12:00 UTC only.
d) Between 06:00 UTC and 08:00 UTC and after 12:00 UTC.

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METEOROLOGY (M)

M-11 During a summer day the airport meteorological observation station

has recorded the following subsequent weather development:

260450Z 24009KT 7000 SCT040 SCT120 15/12 Q1024 NOSIG=

260650Z 24010KT 6000 SCT040 SCT120 17/13 Q1014 NOSIG=
260850Z 23014KT 8000 BKN100 19/13 Q1009 BECMG 26020G35KT TS=
261050Z 28022G33KT 4000 TS SCT015 SCT050CB OVC080 16/14 Q1006 BECMG NSW=
261250Z 31016 KT 9999 SCT025 BKN030 13/09 Q1009 NOSIG=
261450Z 30012KT 9999 -SHRA OVC020 14/10 Q1011 NOSIG=
261650Z 30009 9999 SCT025TCU SCT035 13/10 Q1013 RERA NOSIG=
261850Z 28006KT 9999 FEW040 11/09 Q1014 NOSIG=
262050Z 26004KT CAVOK 10/08 Q1015 NOSIG=

From the meteorogical observations above we can conclude that in the

morning the station was passed by:

a) a warm front and by a cold front during the afternoon.

b) a cold front and by a warm front during the afternoon.
c) a cold front and that a weather of warm sector was prevailing during the
afternoon.
d) a cold front and that a postfrontal weather was prevailing during the
afternoon.

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COMMUNICATION (R)

AIR LAW (Z)

Z-01 What is the minimum age for a student pilot for solo flying an
airplane?

a) 14.
b) 15.
c) 16.
d) 17.

Z-02 At least how many hours of flying experience as a pilot of airplanes

must have an applicant for a Private Pilot Licence?

a) 50 hours.
b) 45 hours.
c) 40 hours.
d) 35 hours.

Z-03 Flight time during which the flight instructor will only observe the
student acting as pilot-in-command and shall not influence or control the
flight of the aircraft is:

a) solo flight time under supervision.

b) flight time as student pilot-in-command (SPIC).
c) flight time as pilot-in-command.
d) solo flight time.

Z-04 With the respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category

of aircraft?

a) Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.

b) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
c) Single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

Z-05 Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of
an airport, shall include:

a) the designation of an alternate airport.

b) a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.
c) an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

Z-06 What does "AAL" mean?

a) Above aerodrome level.

b) Angle of attack limitation.
c) Acknowledge.
d) Aerodrome altitude level.

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COMMUNICATION (R)

Z-07 What is the definition of a term "Control Zone"?

a) An airspace immediately above an airport.

b) An airspace of defined dimensions within which all air traffic is controlled.
c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth.

Z-08 A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified height

above the earth is:

a) control area.
b) aerodrome traffic zone.
c) control zone.
d) de-conflicted zone.

Z-09 The minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR
flight in class G airspace at altitudes above 300 m from ground or 900 m
MSL, whichever is higher, is:

a) 300 m.
b) 600 m.
c) 1,500 m.
d) 8,000 m.

Z-10 Which of the cruising flight level listed is appropriate for a VFR flight
over 3,000 ft MSL, while maintaining true course 170° and if the local
variation value is 20°W?

a) FL 55.
b) FL 40.
c) FL 30.
d) FL 65.

Z-11 What action should the pilots of an airplane and a glider take if on a
head-on collision course?

a) The airplane pilot should give way.

b) The airplane pilot should give way, because his aircraft is more controllable.
c) Both pilot should give way to the right.
d) The glider pilot should give way, because a glider is more controllable than
an airplane.

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COMMUNICATION (R)

Z-12 Aircraft A with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a

control area. Aircraft B with no ATC clearance is approaching at
approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has
the right of way?

a) Aircraft A regardless of the direction which B is approaching.

b) Aircraft B regardless of the direction A is approaching.
c) Aircraft B if A is on its left.
d) Aircraft A if B is on its right.

Z-13 When flying an aircraft without a night rating inside the terithory of
the Republic of Slovenia, which is the latest time for landing if the sunset
is at 20:15?

a) 19:45.
b) 20:15.
c) 20:45.
d) 21:15.

Z-14 How often is a glider or an aeroplane state of airworthiness inspected

by the authorized person?

a) Regularly every two years and after a hard landing.

b) Regularly each year and in case if changing ownership or after repairs.
c) One year after the last regular inspection and in case of changing ownership.
d) Regularly each year before beginning of a flying season.

Z-15 An ATC clearance provides:

a) priority over all other traffic.

b) adequate separation from all traffic.
c) authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled
airspace.

Z-16 After an aircraft has been intercepted in flight, the intercepted

aircraft is rocking its wings. This means:

a) Understood.
b) NO.
c) You are not to enter this airspace.
d) Will comply.

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COMMUNICATION (R)

COMMUNICATION (R)

R-01 Which of the following messages have priority number one over
other messages?

a) Flight regularity messages.

b) Flight safety messages.
c) Meteorological messages.
d) Distress messages.

R-02 The pilot tests the readability of transmission using the phrase:

a) RADIO TEST.
b) REQUEST READABILITY OF TRANSMISSION.
c) RADIO CHECK (FREQUENCY).
d) REQUEST RADIO CHECK (FREQUENCY).

R-03 What is the meaning of the term "IMC"?

a) Flight according to instrumental flight rules.

b) Flight according to visual flight rules.
c) Visual meteorogical conditions.
d) Instrumental meteorogical conditions.

R-04 What is the meaning of the phrase "ROGER"?

a) I have received all of your last transmission.

b) I understand your message and will comply with it.
c) My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
d) Permission for proposed action granted.

R-05 What is the meaning of the phrase "VERIFY"?

a) I hereby indicate the separation between two portions of the message.

b) Check and confirm with the originator.
c) No, or permission not granted or that is not correct.
d) Repeat all or the following part of your last transmission.

R-06 What does "QNH" mean?

a) Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation.

b) Non-directional radio beacon.
c) Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on ground.
d) A specific geographical location at which the position of an aircraft is
reported.

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COMMUNICATION (R)

R-07 A pilot may file a flight plan with an ATC unit during the flight using
the phrase:

a) REQUEST FILE FLIGHT PLAN.

b) CANCELING MY FLIGHT PLAN.
c) REQUEST FILL IN FLIGHT PLAN.
d) READY TO COPY.

R-08 ATC will give a climb instruction by using the phrase:

a) MAINTAIN FL...
b) CLIMB TO FL...
c) LEAVE FL... FOR FL...
d) CLEARED FL...

R-09 If a pilot may start climb/descent at his convenience, an ATC will

use the phrase:

a) WHEN READY CLIMB/DESCEND TO FL...

b) CLIMB/DESCEND TO FL... AT YOUR CONVENIENCE.
c) CLIMB/DESCEND TO FL...
d) CLIMB/DESCEND TO FL... AT ANY TIME.

R-10 An altitude of 4,500 ft QNH should be pronounced as:

a) FORTY-FIVE-THOUSAND.
b) FOUR POINT FIVE.
c) FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET ABOVE SEA LEVEL.
d) FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET.

R-11 That portion of the airport traffic circuit identified by the letter E is
called: (see Figure 24!)

a) LINE-UP.
b) DOWNWIND POSITION.
c) CROSSWIND LEG.
d) BASE LEG.

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COMMUNICATION (R)

R-12 How will a pilot manage to follow the radar controller's instruction
"SQUAWK ALFA FOUR FOUR"? Switch the transponder to mode?

a) A, code 0044.
b) A, code 4400 and mode C.
c) A, code 0440.
d) A, code 4444.

R-13 What is the transponder mode and code for radio communication
failure?

a) A 7700.
b) A 7500.
c) A 0077.
d) A 7600.

R-14 During overflying a remote forest area you notice a hang glider on
tree canopies and it seems to you that the pilot hangs on his harnesses.
You decide to call the nearest airport and report the accident. The phrase
with which you should begin your radiotelephony message is:

a) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.

b) MEDICAL, MEDICAL, MEDICAL.
c) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
d) PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN.

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COMMUNICATION (R)

R-15 When being intercepted by a military aircraft, the pilot of the

intercepted aircraft should try to establish radio contact with the
intercepting aircraft on the frequency?

a) 126.7 MHz.
b) 122.8 MHz.
c) 121.5 MHz.
d) 123.5 MHz.

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HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (L)

HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (L)

L-01 If advice is needed concerning possible flight with an illness, a pilot

should contact:

a) an Aviation Medical Examiner.

b) their family doctor.
c) the nearest hospital.

L-02 Which statement best defines hypoxia?

a) A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.

b) An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed.
c) A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles.

L-03 Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result

in:

a) tightness across the forehead.

b) loss of muscular power.
c) an increased sense of well-being.

L-04 If an individual has gone scuba diving which has not required a
controlled ascent and will be flying to cabin pressure altitudes of 8,000
feet or less, the recommended waiting time is at least:

a) 4 hours.
b) 12 hours.
c) 24 hours.

L-05 What is an effective way to prevent a collision hazard in the traffic

pattern?

a) Enter the pattern in a descent.

b) Maintain the proper traffic pattern altitude and continually scan the area.
c) Rely on radio reports from other aircraft who may be operating in the traffic
pattern.

L-06 Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if:

a) they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear.

b) body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.
c) eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight
instruments.

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HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS (L)

L-07 What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with

ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

a) Duck-under syndrome.
b) Continual flight into instrument conditions.
c) Getting behind the aircraft.

L-08 Risk management, as a part of aeronautical decision making (AMD)

process, relies on which features to reduce the risk associated with each
flight?

a) Application of stress management and risk element procedures.

b) The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and
making a timely decision on what action to take.
c) Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.

L-09 What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as
"Impulsivity"?

a) It could happen to me.

b) Do it quickly to get it over with.
c) Not so fast, think first.

L-10 To avoid missing important steps, always use the:

a) appropriate checklists.
b) placarded airspeeds.
c) airworthiness certificate.

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