Gurugram Metropolitan

Development Authority
GMDA

Recruitment test –2019 / 2

Engineer Level-I (Network)

SET CODE - A

Duration 90 Minutes

Maximum Marks 100

Total Questions 100

Deenbandhu Chhotu Ram University of Science and

Technology Murthal –Sonepat
1. Which of this is not a network edge device?
a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch

2. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in

a) broadcast network
b) unicast network
c) multicast network
d) none of the mentioned

3. A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing
information included in the packet.
a) bridge
b) firewall
c) router
d) all of the mentioned

4. HFC contains
a) Fiber cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Both Fiber cable and Coaxial cable
d) None of the mentioned

5. Home Access is provided by

a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) Cable
d) All of the mentioned

6. These factors affect transmission rate in DSL

a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line
b) Degree of electrical interfernece
c) Shadow fading
d) Both The gauge of the twisted-pair line and Degree of electrical interfernece

7. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model

a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) None of the mentioned
8. Which address identifies a process on a host?
a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address

9. CRC stands for

a) cyclic redundancy check
b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check
d) cyclic repeat check

10. Socket-style API for windows is called

a) wsock
b) winsock
c) wins
d) none of the mentioned

11. This topology requires multipoint connection

a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus

12. The DoS attack is which the attacker sends deluge of packets to the targeted host
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Connection flooding
d) All of the mentioned

13. Packet sniffers involve

a) Active receiver
b) Passive receiver
c) Both Active receiver and Passive receiver
d) None of the mentioned

14. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of
circuit this TDM is _________
a) 32kbps
b) 500bps
c) 500kbps
d) None of the mentioned
15. If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC-n, generally the link speed equals (in Mbps)
a) n*39.8
b) n*51.8
c) 2n*51.8
d) None of the mentioned

16. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of the packet is 32bits, the transmission delay is (in
microseconds)
a) 3.2
b) 32
c) 0.32
d) 320

17. Most packet switches use this principle ____________

a) Stop and wait
b) Store and forward
c) Both Stop and wait and Store and forward
d) Stop and forward

18. If there are N routers from source to destination, a total end to end delay in sending packet P
is ( where L-> number of bits in the packet and R-> transmission rate)
a) N
b) (N*L)/R
c) (2N*L)/R
d) L/R

19. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

a) base 64 encoding
b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
d) base 8 encoding

20. FTP server listens for connection on port number

a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23

21. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is

a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
22. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the remote computer.
a) public-key cryptography
b) private-key cryptography
c) any of public-key or private-key
d) both public-key & private-key

23. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.
a) 66
b) 67
c) 68
d) 69

24. WPA2 is used for security in

a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi
d) None of the mentioned

25. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________

a) Invisible from public networks
b) Logically separated from other traffic
c) Accessible from unauthorized public networks
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec

26. How do Storage administrators ensure secure access to storage devices:

a) By using Zoning
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage device
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in use
d) By keeping devices when used

27. Telnet protocol is used to establish a connection to

a) TCP port number 21
b) TCP port number 22
c) TCP port number 23
d) TCP port number 24

28. Communication offered by TCP is

a) Full-duplex
b) Half-duplex
c) Semi-duplex
d) Byte by byte

29. What allows TCP to detect lost segments and in turn recover from that loss?
a) Sequence number
b) Acknowledgment number
c) Checksum
d) Both Sequence & Acknowledgment number

30. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if the source host is ……
a) NTP
b) Echo
c) Server
d) Client

31. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?

a) Offset
b) Flag
c) TTL
d) Identifier

32. In subcategories of reserved address in IPv6, address that is used by a host to test itself
without going into network is called
a) Unspecified address
b) Loopback address
c) Compatible address
d) Mapped address

33. As a system administrator, you want to debug IGRP but are worried that the
“debug IP IGRP transaction” command will flood the console. What is the command
that you should use?
a) Debug IP IGRP event
b) Debug IP IGRP-events
c) Debug IP IGRP summary
d) Debug IP IGRP events

34. You type debug IP rip on your router console and see that 172.16.10.0 is being advertised to
you with a metric of 16. What does this mean?
a) The route is 16 hops away Debug IP rip
b) The route has a delay of 16 microseconds Debug IP route
c) The route is inaccessible
d) The route is queued at 16 messages a second

35. Which two routing protocols can be redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router?
a) IP EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP
b) AppleTalk EIGRP and RIPv2
c) RIPv2 and IP EIGRP
d) IPX RIP & AppleTalk EIGRP

36. What is data encryption standard (DES)?

a) block cipher
b) stream cipher
c) bit cipher
d) none of the mentioned

37. Network layer firewall works as a

a) Frame filter
b) Packet filter
c) Both Frame as well as Packet filter
d) None of the mentioned

38. MIB is a collection of groups of objects that can be managed by

a) SMTP
b) UDP
c) SNMP
d) TCP/IP

39. Ping sweep is a part of

a) Traceroute
b) Nmap
c) Route
d) Ipconfig

40. If you want to find the number of routers between a source and destination, the utility to be
used is.
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute

41. What do you use the Aux port for?

a.) Console
b.) Terminal editing
c.) Modem
d.) Backup logging

42. The CSMA/CD Ethernet IEEE committee is defined as which of the following?
a.) 802.2
b.) 802.3
c.) 802.4
d.) 802.5

43 How many Frame-relay encapsulation types are available with Cisco routers?
a.) Four
b.) Two
c.) Five
d.) Three
44. What is the maximum hop count for Link-State protocols?
a.) 15
b.) there is no hop count limit
c.) 256
d.) 16

45. What information can you get from CDP info

a.) Hardware platform & Software platform
b.) One address per protocol and Hostname
c.) Incoming/outgoing port
d.) All the above

46 How does the cut-through switching technique work?

a.) By using broadcast address as source addresses
b.) The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address
and starts forwarding the packets
c.) The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its onboard buffers and then looks up the
destination address in its forwarding, or switching, table and determines the outgoing interface
d.) By using a Class I repeater in a collision domain

47. Which of the following are Presentation Layer standards?

a.) JPEG and PICT
b.) MPEG and MIDI
c.) ASCII and EBCDIC
d.) All of the above

48. IP standard access lists use which of the following as a basis for permitting or
denying packets?
a.) destination address
b.) port
c.) protocol
d.) source address

49. If a frame is received at a switch and only the destination hardware address is read
before the frame is forwarded, what type of switching method is this?
a.) Store-and-drop
b.) Latency
c.) Store-and-forward
d.) Cut-through

50. What is the purpose and default value of the CDP timer command?
a.) 90 seconds; interval before an entry expires
b.) 60 seconds; interval between updates
c) 60 seconds; interval before an entry expires
d.) 90 seconds; interval between updates
51. When discussing static routes, what is the gateway parameter used for?
a.) Determining the dynamic route
b.) Defining the subnet
c.) Defining the Administrative Distance
d.) Determining the next hop

52. What is convergence time?

a.) The update time
b.) The time it takes to reload a router
c.) The time it takes for a packet to reach its destination
d.) The time is takes for all routers update their tables after a change takes place

53. What is the IP extended access list range?

a.) 1000-1099
b.) 100-199
c) 1-99
d.) 101-200

54. Define Poison Reverse?

a.) To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down
b.) Packets sent out that are not destined for a network go to the default network
c.) Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same interface
d.) When a network goes down, that network is advertised with an infinite metric

55. What is the default interval for SAP updates?

a.) 60 seconds
b.) 15 seconds
c.) 30 seconds
d.) 120 seconds

56. What does a router do with a packet that it does not have a destination network for?
a.) Sends it to the Serial port
b.) Drops the packet
c.) Sends it back out the same interface it received it in
d.) Forwards the packet to the next hop

57. What type of frame does CDP use to gather information about it's neighbors?
a.) TCP/IP
b.) Novell-ether
c) Subnetwork Access Protocol (SNAP)
d.) Ethernet_II

58. Which protocol is used for booting diskless workstations?

a.) IP
b.) ARP
d.) RARP
d.) TCP

59. Which is true regarding half duplex Ethernet operation?

a.) Half Duplex ethernet technology provides a transmit circuit connection wired directly to the
receiver circuit at the other end
b.) Half duplex transmission between stations is achieved by using point to multipoint Ethernet
and Fast Ethernet
c.) With Half Duplex transmission logically circuits feed into a single cable creating a situation
similar to a one way bridge
d.) Half Duplex transmission between stations is achieved using Point to Point Ethernet & Fast
Ethernet

60. When would you use ISDN?

a.) To connect LANs using POTS
b.) To support applications requiring voice, data, and video
c.) When you need a consistent and very high rate of data speed
d.) To connect to IBM mainframes

61. Developed the first laser

a. Charles Townes
b. Theodore Maiman
c. Gordon McKenzie
d. Albert Einstein

62. The band of light wavelengths that are too long to be seen by the human eye
a. Amber
b. Visible
c. Infrared
d. Ultraviolet

63. Which color has the shortest wavelength of light?

a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Green

64. The core of an optical fiber has a

a. Lower refracted index than air
b. Lower refractive index than the cladding
c. Higher refractive index than the cladding
d. Similar refractive index with the cladding

65. The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is called
a. Dispersion
b. Scattering
c. Absorption
 d. Attenuation

66. The bandwidth of optical fiber

a. 900M Hz
b. 900 PHz
c. 900 THz
d. 900 EHz

67. Which theory states that the light wave behaves as if it consists of many tiny particles?
a. Huygen’s theory
b. Wave theory of light
c. Nyquist theory
d. Quantum theory

68. Fiber optic cables operate at frequencies near

a. 20 MHz
b. 200 MHz
c. 2G Hz
d. 800 THz

69. When a beam of light enters one medium from another, which quantity will not change?
a. Direction
b. Speed
c. Frequency
d. Wavelength

70. Luminance efficiency is minimum for a

a. Fluorescent tube
b. High wattage light bulb
c. Mercury vapor lamp
d. Low wattage light bulb

71. An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an _____ image.
a. Inverted
b. The same in size
c. Virtual
d. Smaller size

72. What is the average insertion loss of fusion splice in fiber optics?
a. 0.09 dB
b. 0.9 dB
c. 0.19 dB
d. 0.009 dB

73. Photodiodes used as fiber optic directors are

a. Unbiased to generate a voltage same as a solar cell
 b. Forward bias
c. Reversed bias
d. Thermoelectrically cooled

74. Laser light is ______ emission.

a. Coherent
b. Stimulated
c. Spontaneous
d. Coherent and stimulated

75. Which of the following is used as an optical transmitter on the Fiber Optical
Communications?
a. APD
b. LSA diode
c. PIN diode
d. LED

76. Which of the following is used as an optical receiver in fiber optics communications
a. APD
b. Tunnel diode
c. Laser diode
d. LED

77. The inner portion of the fiber cable is called

a. Cladding
b. Coating
c. Inner conductor
d. Core

78. The operation of the fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of

a. Refraction
b. Reflection
c. Dispersion
d. Absorption

79. Which of the following is not a common type of fiber-optic cable?

a. Single-mode step-index
b. Multimode graded-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode step-index

80. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of

a. Loss per foot
b. dB/km
c. intensity per mile
d. voltage drop per inch
81 . What is the name of the device that allows four surveillance camera images to be viewed on
a monitor at the same time?
a. A video splitter
b. A modulator
c. A quad switcher
d. A photoelectric sensor

82. Which type of jack is required to be installed to allow the security system to seize the line
when an alarm condition exists?
a. RJ-11x
b. RJ-45
c. RJ-12
d. RJ-31x

83. Which TIA/EIA standard describes the requirements for residential security system cabling?
a. 568-A
b. 568-B
c. 570-A Addendum 1
d. 570-A Addendum 3

84. What is the term used to describe the amount of light required to obtain a reasonable image
with a surveillance video camera?
a. Lux rating
b. Candlepower rating
c. Resolution
d. Pixels

85. How many wires are normally required for connecting a passive sensor to the control panel?
a. 1
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3

86. Which type of sensor is used for door installations?

a. PIR
b. Contact sensor
c. Active
d. Magnetic switch

87. Which types of cable are used when installing video surveillance components?
a. RG-6 and RG-58
b. RG-8 and RG-59
c. RG-59 and RG-6
d. RG-59 and RG-58
88 . What is the minimum separation required between security wiring and AC power wiring
when they are installed in parallel wire runs?
a. 18''
b. 2 feet
c. 6''
d. 12''

89. Which type of residential location is typically classified as a perimeter security location
when designing a security system?

a. Windows and Doors

b. Basements and Driveways
c. None of the above
d. Both A and B

90. Which of the following is true regarding the use and installation of smoke detectors?

a. For all new residential construction, battery-powered smoke detectors are acceptable for
some locations.
b. For all new home construction, fire alarm sensors must be powered by the home AC power
electrical wiring.
c. Smoke detectors must be installed near windows and doors to provide alerts for escape
routes in case of fire.
d. None of the Above

91. Which aspects are described in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

a) The costs and expected revenue of the services offered
b) The technological developments that can affect the services offered
c) The quality, expressed in quantity and costs, of the services offered
d) The company strategy

92. Which of the following statements about the Service Catalogue is correct?
a) It is necessary in order to draw up an SLA
b) It describes only those services that are also included in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
c) It can be used instead of an SLA
d) It describes all services that can be supplied by the IT management organization

93. The Service Level Manager requires confirmation that the internal Service Desk can answer
Customer calls within 10 seconds. In which document might the Service Desk’s agreement to
this requirement be recorded?
a) Internal Specification Sheet
b) Operational Level Agreement
c) Service Level Agreement
d) An underpinning third party contract
94. Nitin calls the Service Desk and reports that the system is slow. He asks whether he can be
given another PC like his colleague’s, which is much faster. Which term is applicable to this
situation?
a) Problem
b) Incident
c) Request for Change
d) Classification

95. Which of the concepts below belongs to IT Service Continuity Management?

a) Maintainability
b) Resilience
c) Vulnerability
d) Serviceability

96. According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed repeatedly in
order to ensure good performance. Which of the following answers specifies the correct
sequence for these steps?
a) Check – Plan – Act – Do
b) Act – Check – Do – Plan
c) Do – Plan – Check – Act
d) Plan – Do – Check – Act

97. What does Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) mean?

a) Average downtime of a service
b) Average uptime of a service
c) Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period
d) Average time between two consecutive incidents

98. Which of the following is responsible for keeping accurate information for the organization’s
services in transition to a live environment?
a) Availability Management
b) Asset Management
c) Service Level Management (SLM)
d) Service Catalogue Management

99. Which of the following is the single point of contact for IT users on a day-by-day basis?
a) Service Desk
b) IT Operations
c) Process Manager
d) Incident Manager

100. Your organization is in the process of developing multi-level service agreements. Which of
the following is NOT a layer within a multi-layer service level agreement?
a) Customer Level
b) Corporate Level
c) Service Level
d) Strategic Level