28/04/2020 CODE-B

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 12

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of XI & XII

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. Young’s modulus of material of a wire can be (1) x > 2 f (2) x = 2 f
determined in laboratory by using
(3) f < x < 2 f (4) x < f
(1) Post-office box
A3 B1/3
(2) Searle’s apparatus 4. If Z= and percentage error in the
C D 3/ 2
(3) Meter bridge
measurement of A, B, C and D are 1%, 3%, 2%
(4) Bomb calorimeter and 4% respectively, then relative error in the
2. Which of the following sets cannot enter into the calculation of Z will be
list of fundamental quantities in any system of
(1) 10 × 10–1
units?
(2) 12 × 10–3
(1) length, time, velocity
(2) length, mass, velocity (3) 1.2 × 10–1

(3) mass, time, velocity (4) 10–3

(4) length, time, mass 5. A particle is projected from ground at an angle θ
3. In an experiment to determine the focal length (f) with the vertical such that its horizontal range R is
of a concave mirror by the U–V method, a related to its time of flight T as R = 6 T2. If
student placed the object pin A on the principal g = 10 m/s2 then value of tan θ is
axis at a distance x from the pole P. The student
3
looks at the pin and its inverted image from a (1) 3 (2)
4
distance keeping his eye in line with PA. When
he shift his eye towards left, the image appears to 6
(3) 4 (4)
the left of the object pin. Then, 5
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Test-12 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

6. The magnitude of uniform magnetic field in a Q

(1) Zero (2)
small region of Helmholtz coils is nearly (N is 2ε0
number of turns in each coil)
Q Q
µ NI µ NI (3) (4)
(1) 0 (2) 0 4ε 0 ε0
2R R
10. A point charge ‘Q’ is placed off centre inside a
2µ0 NI 0.72 µ0 NI
(3) (4) thin conducting shell of radius ‘R’ as shown in the
R R
 1 
7. Equivalent capacitance between points A and B figure. K = 
 4πε0 
as shown in the following circuit will be

Electric field at point ‘P’ in this situation will be

KQ KQ
(1) (2)
25R 2 9R 2
(1) C (2) 2C
KQ
(3) 3C (4) 4C (3) (4) Data insufficient
9R 2 + 25R 2
8. Two small blocks each of mass 2 kg are
11. A long straight thin wire is placed along z-axis.
connected by an inextensible string (light). Blocks
Wire carry a current I along negative
are placed over a fixed smooth wedge as shown
z-direction. Magnetic field at any point ‘P’ having
in the figure and system is released from rest.
coordinates (3, 4, 0) is given by
Magnitude of acceleration of both the blocks will
µ0I ˆ
be (g = 10 m/s2) (1) (4i − 3 jˆ)
50π

µ0I (3iˆ + 4 jˆ)

(2)
50π

µ0I (3 ˆj − 4iˆ)
(3)
25π

(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2 µ0I (3iˆ − 4 jˆ)

(4)
50π
3
(3) m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2
2 12. Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron
(ne) and hole (nh) concentration of 1.7 × 1015 m–3. On
9. A charged particle ‘Q’ is placed outside a hollow
doping with boron hole concentration nh
cone on the axis of a cone at a distance ‘x’ from
increases to 4.7 × 1021 m–3. The doped
the centre of its base. Electric flux linked with the
semiconductor is of
slant surface of the cone due to the charge is
(1) N-type with electron concentration
ne = 3.5 × 1012 m–3
(2) P-type with electron concentration
ne = 6.14 × 108 m–3
(3) N-type with electron concentration
ne = 8.2 × 10 m
9 –3

(4) P-type with electron concentration

ne = 2.89 × 1030 m–3

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-B)

13. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. 17. Current passed through the switch ‘S’ after
Its maximum acceleration and maximum velocity closing it in the circuit shown in the figure is
are ‘P’ and ‘Q’ respectively. Then time period of
oscillation will be
2πQ 2 Q
(1) (2)
P 2πP

Q 2 2π 2πQ
(3) (4)
P2 P
14. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength λ is
(1) 1.77 A (2) 3.23 A
incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible (3) 5.3 A (4) Zero
work function. If the photoelectrons emitted from 18. The escape velocity from a planet is ve. A tunnel
the surface have the de-Broglie wavelength λ0 is dug along the diameter of the planet. If a small
then λ is equal to body of mass m is dropped in to this tunnel then
2mc  2mc  2 the kinetic energy of the body as pass through
(1) λ 0 (2)   λ0 the centre of the planet is
h  h 
1 1
2 (1) mv e2 (2) mv e2
h  2mc  2 4
(3) λ0 (4)   λ0
2mc  h  (3) mv e2 (4) Zero
15. A capacitor is made from two metallic squares 19. Energy level A, B and C of a certain atom
plates having side 1 m and at distance 8.85 mm corresponds to increasing values of energy i.e.
apart. The plates are then lowered vertically in to EA < EB < EC. If λ1, λ 2 and λ3 are wavelengths of
a medium of dielectric constant K = 11 at speed radiations corresponding to transitions C to B,
of 1 mm/s. If neglecting resistance of connecting B to A and C to A respectively, then which of the
wires, the current drawn from the battery during following relation is correct?
the process is λλ
(1) λ 3 = 1 2 (2) λ1 + λ 2 = λ3
(ε = 8.85 × 10–12 farad/m) λ1 + λ 2
1 1
(3) λ 3 = λ12 + λ 22 (4) λ 3 = +
λ1 λ 2
20. Two blocks A and B are connected with the help
of ideal strings and pulleys as shown in the
figure. If the system is released from rest and all
surfaces are smooth then acceleration of block
‘B’ will be

(1) 5 µA (2) 5 nA
(3) 5 A (4) 5 mA
16. A uniform chain of length 4 m is kept on a table
such that 120 cm hangs freely from the edge of
the table. The total mass of chain is
8 kg. The work done in pulling the entire chain on 4g g
the table slowly is (1) (2)
3 3
(1) 9.6 J (2) 3.6 J 3g 2g
(3) (4)
(3) 7.2 J (4) 14.4 J 2 3

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Test-12 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

21. Longest wavelength of balmer series of H–atom from T0 to 2T0, then heat supplied to the gas in
is 6563 Å. Longest wavelength of Lyman series this process is
then, will be 3
(1) 2RT0 (2) RT0
(1) 1215 Å (2) 2245 Å 2
(3) 6000 Å (4) 4560 Å RT0
(3) RT0 (4)
22. The activity of a freshly prepared radioactive 2
sample is 1010 disintegrations per second whose 27. The count rate observed from a radioactive
mean life is 109 second. The mass of an atom of source at t second was N0 and at 4t second it
this radioisotope is 10–25 kg. The mass of the N0 11
radioactive sample is was . The count rate observed at t second
16 2
(1) 1 mg (2) 5 mg will be
(3) 6 mg (4) 9 mg N0 N0
(1) (2)
23. In the following circuit, the current flowing through 48 32
the 1 kΩ resistor will be N0 N0
(3) (4)
64 128
28. In YDSE using a monochromatic light of
wavelength λ, the path difference corresponding
to any point having half of the maximum intensity
(n is any integer)
(1) 15 mA (2) 10 mA
(3) 20 mA (4) 5 mA λ λ
(1) (2n + 1) (2) (2n + 1)
2 4
24. The network shown below is a part of a complete
circuit. If a current of 5 A is flowing through it and λ λ
(3) (2n + 1) (4) (2n + 1)
it is decreasing at a rate of 8 16
10 A/s, then magnitude of potential difference
3
29. A uniform cube of side length l and mass m rests
between the points P & Q will be on a rough horizontal table. A horizontal force F
is applied normal to one of the faces at a point
above the centre of the face as shown in the
figure. Minimum value of F for which the cube
(1) 20 V (2) 15 V begins to tilt about the edge is (Friction is
(3) 10 V (4) 7 V sufficient to stop slipping)

25. The reading of the ammeter and voltmeters

connected in the given circuit are respectively

5
(1) mg
3

(1) 2A, 110 V (2) 2A, 0 V 2

(2) mg
(3) 2A, 55 V (4) 1A, 0 V 3

26. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is 7

(3) mg
P 5
expanded slowly according to the law =
V 4
(4) mg
constant. If the temperature of the gas increased 3

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-B)

30. Three mole of an ideal gas is taken through the GMm GMm
(1) = mω2 r (2) = mω2 R
process ABC as shown in the figure. The total r2 R2
work done by the gas is
GMm GMm
(3) = M ω2 R (4) = mω2 r
(R + r )2 rR
35. An organ pipe ‘X’ open at one end vibrating in its
first overtone is in resonance with another organ
pipe ‘Y’ open at both end vibrating in its third
overtone. These pipes have lengths l1 and l2
l
respectively, then 1 will be
l2

4 3
(1) 2 RT0 ln2 (2) 4 RT0 ln2 (1) (2)
3 8
(3) – 12 RT0 ln2 (4) – 4 RT0 ln2
1 5
31. A particle of mass 10 g is executing SHM (3) (4)
2 6
according to the equation y = 4 sin (4t + π/3),
36. The potential energy of a particle having mass
having time period T. Kinetic energy of the
1 kg is given by U = (4x + 3y) Joule, where
particle at t = T/4, will be
x and y are in metre. If the particle was at rest at
(1) 9.6 unit (2) 0.48 unit (16, 6) at time t = 0, then speed of the particle
(3) 1.92 unit (4) 0.96 unit when it crosses x axis will be
32. A uniform ladder of mass m = 40 kg rests against (1) 10 m/s (2) 5 m/s
a smooth vertical wall making an angle 30º with (3) 2.5 m/s (4) 15 m/s
horizontal. The lower end of ladder rests on a
37. Electromagnetic wave of intensity 1800 W/m2
1 falls on a completely absorbing spherical surface
rough floor having µ = . An electrician having
3 having radius R as shown in the figure
mass 80 kg attempt to climb the ladder to repair
house wiring. Fraction of length than can be
encountered by the electrician before the ladder
begins to slip, will be
Force exerted by beam on the sphere is
1
(1) (2) 1 (1) 108 × 10–10 N (2) 54 π × 10–10 N
2
(3) 216 × 10–10 N (4) Zero
1 1
(3) (4)
4 3 38. Three waves of equal frequency having
amplitudes 12, 4 and 8 unit meet at a point with
33. The equation for a wave travelling in x-direction
π
on a stretched string is given by successive phase difference of . Amplitude of
2
y = (5 cm) sin {(2π cm–1) x – (100π) s–1 t} resulting wave will be
Acceleration of a particle at x = 8 cm and
(1) 24 unit (2) 12 2 unit
t = 0.11 s will be
(3) 4 2 unit (4) 20 unit
(1) 20 π 2 cm/s2 (2) 10 π 2 cm/s2
39. The rate of emission of heat by a black body at
(3) 5 π 2 cm/s2 (4) Zero
temperature T is Q. Rate of emission of heat by
34. Two bodies of mass m and M are revolving under another body having emissivity half unit and
the gravitational force of each other. If they are same surface area at temperature 3T, is
moving in circular orbits of radii r and R
(1) 81 Q (2) 9 Q
respectively, then which of the following option is
correct? (3) 33.5 Q (4) 40.5 Q

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Test-12 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

40. A block of mass 2 kg is projected on a rough 43. A crane machine is used to lift cement slabs of
horizontal surface with momentum 30 kg m/s. If weight w at Delhi metro site. Machine have to lift
block stopped after moving a distance 8 m on the the slabs from rest and have to put them on the
surface then coefficient of friction between the elevated platform at a height ‘h’. If the maximum
block and the surface is tension that the cable of crane machine can
(1) 1.4 (2) 0.4 tolerate is nw (n > 1), then minimum time in which
ascent can be done by the machine is (Tmin = 0)
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.25
1/2 1/2
41. A hemisphere of radius R and of mass 4m is at  2h   2 nh 
rest on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in (1)   (2)  
 (n − 1)g   (n − 1)g 
the figure. A small particle of mass m is released
1/2
from rest at the top of the hemisphere. The  2(n − 1)  2h
angular velocity of the particle relative to centre of (3)   (4)
 n hg  g
hemisphere at an angular displacement θ, when
velocity of hemisphere is v, would be 44. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v
making an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The
magnitude of the angular momentum of the
projectile about the point of projection when the
particle is at its maximum height h is

5v mv 3
(1) (1) (2) m 2gh3
R cos θ 4 2g

2v cos θ mv 3
(2) (3) (4) Both (1) and (2)
R 2 2g
3v sin θ 45. When two waves with same frequency and
(3)
R constant phase difference interfere,
5v (1) There is gain of energy
(4)
R sin θ
(2) There is a loss of energy
42. Magnetic susceptibility for paramagnetic
(3) The energy is redistributed and distribution
substances is in order of
remains constant in time
(1) 10–5 (2) 10–8
(4) The energy is redistributed and distribution
(3) 10–3 (4) 105 changes with time

CHEMISTRY
46. 4 mol of A reacted with 6 mol of B according to 48. Lowest energy among the following for a
the reaction 2A + 3B → 2C. The maximum multielectron atom is
moles of C formed is (1) 5d
(1) 1 mol (2) 2 mol (2) 4f
(3) 4 mol (4) 10 mol (3) 6p
47. The wavenumber of radiation having wavelength (4) 7s
5000 Å is
49. Correct order of ionisation energies is
(1) 2 × 10–7cm–1 (1) Li > Be > B
(2) 2 × 10–6 cm–1 (2) Be > Li > B
(3) 2 × 104 cm–1 (3) Be > B > Li
(4) 2 × 106 cm–1 (4) B > Be > Li

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-B)

50. Select the incorrect statement 58. Which among the following can form stable
(1) Dipole moment of NH3 is greater than NF3 superoxide?
(1) Ba (2) Ca
(2) BF3 is a non polar molecule
(3) Na (4) K
(3) 1D = 3.33564 × 1030 C·m
59. Solvay process is used to prepare
(4) CO2 contains polar bonds
(1) NaHCO3 (2) Na2CO3
51. Shape of SF4 is
(3) K2CO3 (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) See saw (2) Square planer
60. Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution
(3) Tetrahedral (4) Pyramidal forms
52. Equal weights of oxygen and methane are mixed
in an empty vessel at 300 K. The fraction of total
(1) [ Al ( OH)4 ]− (2) [ Al ( OH)6 ]3−
pressure exerted by oxygen is 3+
(4)  Al (H2O ) 
3+
(3)  Al (H2O ) 
 6  4
1 2
(1) (2) 61. Heterocylic aromatic compound among the
3 3
following is
1 2
(3) (4)
2 5
53. 2 mol of an ideal gas compressed reversibly and (1) (2)
isothermally from 10 L to 1 L at 300 K. The work
done during the process is
(1) 1.47 Kcal (2) 2.76 Kcal (3) (4)

(3) 5.52 Kcal (4) 6.9 Kcal 62. Most stable carbocation among the following is
54. Path function among the following is
(1) w (2) U (1) (2)
(3) H (4) G
55. Homogenous equilibrium among the following (3) (4)
is/are
(1)
63. A and B are

(2)
(1) Same molecules (2) Chain isomers

(3) (3) Geometric isomers (4) Position isomers

64. Growth of fish gets inhibited when the
(4) All of these
concentration of dissolved oxygen of water is
56. pH of 0.01 M aqueous solution of CH3COOH is below
(pKa = 4.74)
(1) 6 ppm (2) 10 ppm
(1) 3.37
(3) 17 ppm (4) 5 ppm
(2) 5.05 65. Antiferromagnetic substance is
(3) 6.7 (1) MnO (2) Fe3O4
(4) 6.99 (3) CrO2 (4) MgFe2O4
57. Example of electron deficient hydride is 66. For ideal solution, which of the following is true?
(1) B2H6 (2) LaH2.87 (1) ∆mixH = 0 (2) ∆mix G < 0
(3) MgH2 (4) BeH2 (3) ∆mix S > 0 (4) All of these

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Test-12 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

67. Mass of silver deposited at cathode by passage 76. Maximum magnetic moment is of
of 9.65 A current for 1000 sec is (Ag = 108 u) (1) Ti3+ (2) Cr2+
(1) 27 (2) 54 (3) Mn2+ (4) Ni2+
(3) 10.8 g (4) 216 g 77. Mischmetall contains maximum percent of

68. xI− + yMnO4− + H2O → I2 + MnO2 + zOH− (1) Lanthonoid metal (2) Carbon
(3) Calcium (4) Aluminium
The value of x, y and z for balanced equation
respectively are 78. 1 mol of CoCl3·5NH3 on reaction with excess of
AgNO3 solution gives
(1) 6, 5 and 4 (2) 5, 6 and 4
(1) 1 mol AgCl (2) 2 mol AgCl
(3) 6, 2 and 8 (4) 5, 6 and 8
(3) 3 mol AgCl (4) No AgCl
69. For a first order reaction it takes 15 second for
79. Co (NH3 ) (NO2 )  can show
75% completion. The half life of the reaction is  3 3

(1) 5 sec (2) 7.5 sec (1) Geometrical isomerism

(3) 10 sec (4) 11.25 sec (2) Optical isomerism
70. For a chemical reaction rate constant is nearly (3) Structural isomerism
doubled with 10°C rise in temperature. If r is rate (4) Both (1) and (3)
of reaction at 25°C then rate of reaction at 55°C
80. Which compound, undergoes fastest SN1 reaction
is
among the following?
(1) r (2) 2r
(3) 4r (4) 8r
(1) (2)
71. Which of the following is/are true for
chemisorption?
(3) (4)
(1) Caused by chemical bond formation
81. Which ether cannot be prepared by Williamson’s
(2) It is irreversible
ether synthesis?
(3) Highly specific in nature
(4) All of these (1)
72. In froth floatation process the froth stabiliser used
is
(2) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH3
(1) Pine oil (2) Fatty acid
(3)
(3) Xanthates (4) Cresol
73. Mond process is used for refining of (4)
(1) Ti (2) Ni
(3) Ag (4) Zn
74. In Ostwald process which of the following is/are 82.
formed? The product D is

(1) NO (2) NO2

(3) HNO3 (4) All of these (1) (2)
75. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives
(1) XeOF4 (2) XeO2F2
(3) (4)
(3) XeO3 (4) Xe

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-B)

87. Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of

83. The product B is (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B1
(3) Vitamin B2 (4) Vitamin D
(1) (2) 88. Copolymerisation of 1, 3– butadiene and
acrylonitrile in the presence of peroxide catalyst
(3) (4) gives
(1) Buna–S (2) Buna–N
84. Benzaldehyde on reaction with 50% aq. NaOH
solution forms (3) Bakelite (4) Novolac
(1) Benzyl alcohol (2) Sodium benzoate 89. Which among the following is an antifertility drug?
(3) Phenol (4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Novestrol (2) Salvarsan
85. Which amine does not form sulphonamides on (3) Tetracycyline (4) Luminal
reaction with Hinsberg’s reagent?

90. , A is
(1) (2) CH3NH2

(3) (CH3)2NH (4) (CH3)3N (1) (2)

86. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives
(1) n–Hexane (2) Gluconic acid
(3) (4)
(3) Fructose (4) Saccharic acid

BOTANY
91. Prokaryotic cells do not have (3) Anaphase I – Splitting of centromere
(1) Genetic material (2) Ribosomes (4) Telophase I – Reappearance of nuclear
(3) Cell membrane (4) Nucleolus membrane
95. The taxonomic category that belongs to wheat is
92. Eukaryotic flagella and cilia are similar to each
other as both (1) Poaceae (2) Solanum
a. Have ‘9+2’ organisation of microtubules (3) Sapindales (4) Anacardiaceae
96. Match the following columns and select the
b. Are surrounded by membrane
correct option
c. Help in locomotion
Column I Column II
d. Give cartwheel appearance with no
a. Herbarium (i) Found in schools and
microtubules in the centre.
institutes
(1) Only a and b (2) Only c
b. Botanical garden (ii) Analytical in nature
(3) Only a and d (4) Only a, b and c c. Museum (iii) Quick source of
93. Tubulin protein synthesis occurs in reference
(1) G1 phase (2) S phase d. Key (iv) Ex situ conservation
(3) G2 phase (4) M phase strategy
94. Select the incorrect match. a b c d

(1) Prophase I – Condensation of chromatin (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

material (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) Metaphase I – Formation of double (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
metaphasic plate (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

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Test-12 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

97. Viroids differ from viruses as the former 105. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Volvox is
(1) Have genetic material respectively

(2) Have capsid (1) Haplontic and haplodiplontic

(3) Are parasitic (2) Diplontic and haplodiplontic

(4) Are devoid of protein coat (3) Haplodiplontic and haplontic

98. The sac fungi (4) Haplodiplontic and diplontic

(1) Have aseptate mycelium 106. In active absorption of water

(2) Produce exogenous asexual spores (1) A negative pressure is developed in xylem

(3) Produce exogenous sexual spores (2) OP and energy play the major role

(4) Include yeast, mushrooms and truffles (3) Rate of absorption is high

99. Fungi differ from plants in (4) Movement of water is apoplastic

(1) Being multicellular (2) Having cell wall 107. Water potential of a solution is

(3) Being heterotrophic (4) Being eukaryotic (1) Any positive value (2) Always equal to ψp

100. The correct floral formula for family fabaceae is (3) Negative (4) Zero
108. ______ helps in opening and closing of stomata.
(1)
(1) N (2) K
(2) (3) P (4) Zn
109. N2 fixing microbes can fix nitrogen because
(3)
(1) They all are obligate anaerobes
(4)
(2) They all contain nitrogenase
101. Racemose inflorescence is characterised by (3) They all are heterotrophic
presence of
(4) They all are chemoautotrophs
(1) Younger flowers towards the apex
110. In C4 pathway, the primary accepter of CO2 is
(2) Limited growth of main axis
(1) A 5C compound
(3) Basipetal order of flowers
(2) RuBP
(4) Terminal flower at main axis
(3) First stable product of Hatch and Slake cycle
102. Dicot stem and monocot stem cannot be
(4) PEP
differentiated on the basis of presence of
111. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(1) Pith
(1) There is production of ATP only
(2) Endodermis
(2) External source of electron is required
(3) Endarch xylem
(3) The only reaction centre is P700
(4) Scattered vascular bundles
(4) Only stroma lamellae are involved
103. Ground tissue does not include
112. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Mesophyll tissue (2) Cortex
(1) R. Q of fats is less than unity
(3) Epidermis (4) Endodermis
(2) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs in
104. Select the mismatched option
glycolysis
(1) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(3) Acetyl CoA is completely oxidised via Kreb’s
(2) Marchantia – Monoecious cycle
(3) Pinus – Monoecious (4) Proton gradient is required for
(4) Chara – Multicellular sex organs photophosphorylation in mitochondria

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-B)

113. The site for lactic acid and alcohol fermentation is 120. In which of the following organisms, female is
(1) Inter membrane space of mitochondria responsible for determining the sex of the
progeny?
(2) Cytoplasm
(1) Humans (2) Grasshopper
(3) Matrix of mitochondria
(3) Birds (4) Drosophila
(4) Inner membrane of mitochondria
121. A man whose mother was colourblind marries a
114. Adenine derivative phytohormone normal woman who had colourblind father then
(1) Speed up the malting process what percentage of their daughter would be
(2) Delays senescence colourblind?

(3) Is known as anti-transpirant (1) 25% (2) 75%

(3) 50% (4) 100%
(4) Produce parthenocarpic fruits
122. In pedigree analysis, what is the symbol used for
115. Read the following statements and choose the
sex unspecified?
correct option.
Statement-A : ABA inhibits gibberellin mediated (1) (2)
amylase formation during germination of cereal
grains.
(3) (4)
Statement-B : Gibberellins can delay the
ripening of fruits. 123. Match the given columns and choose the correct
(1) Only statement A is correct option

(2) Only statement B is correct Column I Column II

(3) Both statements A and B are correct a. hnRNA (i) RNA pol I

(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect b. 5.8S rRNA (ii) RNA pol II

116. Which of the following statements is not correct c. 5S rRNA (iii) RNA pol III
w.r.t. life span? a b c
(1) It is a specific trait of each organism (1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Crow has more life span than parrot (2) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) Life span are not necessarily correlated with (3) (ii) (i) (iii)
size or complexity of organisms
(4) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) It is period from birth to the natural death 124. i gene of lac operon
117. Asexual reproduction cannot involve
(1) Synthesizes β galactosidase
(1) Gamete formation (2) Spore formation
(2) Produces repressor which binds to RNA
(3) Syngamy (4) Clone formation polymerase
118. Select the odd one w.r.t. ploidy level (3) Is a constitutive gene
(1) Antipodal cell (4) Cannot express itself in absence of lactose
(2) Central cell with definitive nucleus 125. According to human genome project, the least
(3) Egg cell number of genes are present on

(4) Synergid cell (1) An autosome

119. Pollination by water is not seen in (2) A chromosome present only in females

(1) Hydrilla (2) Zostera (3) An allosome

(4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Vallisneria (4) Water hyacinth

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Test-12 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

126. Atlas 66 131. Exponential population growth curve equation is

(1) Is a variety of wheat represented by

(2) Is fortified with fats dN dN K −N

(1) = rN (2) = rN  
dt dt  K 
(3) Is produced for resistance against hill bunt
(4) Was produced by mutational breeding dN  K  dN
(3) = rN   (4) = dN
127. In order to obtain virus free plants from a dt K +N dt
diseased plant through tissues culture, the best 132. The organisms which convert plant matter into
method is animal matter are called
(1) Protoplast culture (2) Anther culture (1) Primary consumers
(3) Meristem culture (4) Pollen culture (2) Primary carnivores
128. Cyclosporin A is a/an (3) 2nd order consumers
(1) Blood cholesterol lowering agent (4) Primary producers
(2) Clot buster
133. The rate of decomposition of detritus is faster
(3) Immunosuppressive agent when
(4) Protease used for detergent formation (1) It contains lignin, chitin, tannins and cellulose
129. Read the following statements and select the (2) There is reduced aeration
correct option.
(3) There is no moisture
Statement-A : Treatment of waste water is done
by heterotrophic microbes naturally present in (4) Temperature is more than 25°C
sewage 134. Biodiversity increases from
Statement-B : Activated sludge contains flocs. (1) Equator to poles
(1) Only statement A is correct (2) Poles to equator
(2) Only statement B is correct (3) Low latitude to high latitude
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Low altitude to high altitude
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
135. Find the incorrect match
130. In an interaction between two specieses, one
(1) Photochemical smog – PAN, O3 and NO2
species is harmed and other species remains
unaffected. This relationship can be indicated by (2) Bhopal gas disaster – Methyl isocyanate

(1) Commensalism (2) Amensalism (3) Green muffler scheme – Noise pollution
(3) Parasitism (4) Predation (4) Chipko movement – Pandurang Hegde

ZOOLOGY
136. Choose the correctly matched pair 138. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Nose tip – Hyaline cartilage (1) Sucrose is a non reducing disaccharide
(2) Tendons – Areolar tissue (2) Lecithin is a phosphorylated glyceride found
in lung alveoli
(3) Fallopian tube – Ciliated epithelium
(3) Only peptide bonds are involved in stabilizing
(4) Blood vessels – Transitional epithelium tertiary structure of proteins
137. An exclusive feature of neurons is the presence (4) Lipids are not polymeric compounds
of 139. An alcoholic amino acid is
(1) Nucleus (2) Nissl’s granules (1) Glycine (2) Serine
(3) Cell membrane (4) Cytoplasm (3) Alanine (4) Tryptophan

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-B)

140. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. enzyme 145. Match the column I and column II
action
Column – I Column – II
(1) Increasing the concentration of succinate
reverses the inhibition of succinic (a) Pulmonary (i) pO2 = 40 mm Hg
dehydrogenase by malonate artery

(2) Enzymes are usually denatured at high (b) Systemic artery (ii) pCO2 = 45 mm Hg
temperature except in some cases.
(c) Systemic vein (iii) pCO2 = 40 mm Hg
(3) A non competitive inhibitor binds to the active
site of enzyme thus blocking the binding of (d) Aorta (iv) pO2 = 95 mm Hg
substrate (v) pO2 = 104 mm Hg
(4) Formation of E–S complex is mandatory for
Choose the correct option.
all enzymatic reactions
(1) a (ii), b (iii), c (i), d(iv)
141. Which of the following is least likely to occur in
case of parietal cell atrophy in a healthy human? (2) a (i), b (v), c (iii), d(iv)
(3) a (ii), b (v), c (iii), d(iv)
(1) Megaloblastic anaemia
(4) a (i), b (ii), c (iv), d(v)
(2) Impaired protein digestion
146. Atrial depolarisation in an electrocardiograph is
(3) Excessive acidity
represented by
(4) Iron deficiency anaemia
(1) P wave (2) QRS complex
142. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. absorption
(3) S-T interval (4) T wave
of the following products
147. Deposition of calcium, fats and cholesterol
(1) Fructose is absorbed by facilitated transport leading to narrowing of lumen of coronary arteries
(2) Glucose and glycine are absorbed by active is termed
transport (1) Angina
(3) Amino acids are always absorbed only by (2) Heart failure
simple diffusion (3) Atherosclerosis
(4) Long chain fatty acids and glycerol cannot be (4) Hypertension
absorbed directly into blood.
148. Aldosterone secreted by A in response to B
143. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t respiratory
blood pressure, cause C of D from E .
volumes and capacities.
Choose the option that fill the blank correctly.
(1) VC = IC + ERV
(2) FRC = ERV + RV A B C D E

(3) TLC = IC + VC (1) Adrenal High Secretion K+ PCT

medulla
(4) EC = TV + ERV
144. Inspiration occurs when (2) Pituitary Low Reabsorption K+ DCT
gland
(1) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases
(2) Volume of pulmonary cavity increases (3) Adrenal High Secretion Na+ PCT
cortex
(3) Pressure within pulmonary cavity increases
(4) Adrenal Low Reabsorption Na+ DCT
(4) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
cortex
relax

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Test-12 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

149. Excretion in prawns occurs through 154. Choose the correct match w.r.t. receptors and
(1) Malpighian tubules their stimulus

(2) Green glands (1) Nociceptors - Pain

(3) Nephridia (2) Proprioreceptors - Pressure

(4) Kidneys (3) Meissner’s corpuscles - Heat

150. The muscle fibres of muscles of thigh exhibit all (4) Gustatoreceptors - Olfaction
the following except 155. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. hormones
(1) Striations (1) Protein hormones can cross the cell
(2) Syncytium membrane easily and have intracellular
receptors
(3) Spindle shape
(2) Steroid hormones like estrogen regulate the
(4) Voluntary nature gene expression or chromosome function
151. (3) Hormones are produced in large quantities
and their secretion can not be controlled by
feedback mechanisms
(4) Two or more hormones produce same effect
in target cells to bring about antagonistic
action
156. Amino acid tyrosine is the precursor of
(a) Thyroxine (b) Melanin
(c) Adrenaline (d) Melatonin
Choose the correct answer
(1) a only (2) a, b and c
Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. bone (3) a, c and d (4) a and d
marked ‘x’
157. Match column I and column II w.r.t. animals and
(1) It is unpaired their respective phyla
(2) It’s a cranial bone
Column – I Column – II
(3) It’s a facial bone
(4) It is a part of axial skeleton (a) Bombyx (i) Aschelminthes

152. The joint between carpals is (b) Trichinella (ii) Cnidaria

(1) Pivot joint (2) Gliding joint
(c) Gorgonia (iii) Urochordata
(3) Saddle joint (4) Fibrous joint
(d) Ascidia (iv) Cephalochordata
153. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. human eye
(1) Suspensory ligaments attached to ciliary (v) Arthropoda
body hold the lens in place
Choose the correct option
(2) Photosensitive compound of human eye is
(1) a (ii), b (v), c (iv), d(i)
made up of retinal and opsin
(2) a (v), b (i), c (ii), d(iii)
(3) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin-A
(3) a (v), b (i), c (ii), d(iv)
(4) The anterior part of retina contains blind spot
which lack cones and has few rods (4) a (ii), b (iii), c (iv), d(v)

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-12 (Code-B)

158. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. general A B C

characters.
(1) 200 – 300 million 70 30
(1) Reptilia – 3 chambered heart
(2) 200 – 300 million 60 40
(2) Mammalia – Hair on body
(3) 200 – 300 million 40 60
(3) Osteichthyes – Cartilaginous endoskeleton
(4) Amphibia – External fertilisation (4) 200 – 300 million 30 70

159. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. parts of 164. A 28 year old woman whose menstrual cycle is of
reproductive system of male cockroach and their 44 days is trying to conceive. On roughly which
functions day of her cycle should she have sexual
intercourse for maximum chances of fertilisation?
(1) Seminal – Secrete outer layer
(1) 14th day (2) 24th day
vesicles of spermatophore
(3) 30th day (4) 40th day
(2) Mushroom – Provide nutrition to
165. A method of sterilization in which a part of
gland sperms
fallopian tube is cut or tied up is
(3) Testes – Formation of (1) Called vasectomy
sperms
(2) A barrier method of contraception
(4) Vas deferens – Transportation of (3) A method of inhibition of ovulation
sperms (4) Highly effective for birth control
160. Periplaneta americana does not possess 166. All the following are in vivo fertilisation techniques
(1) Chitinous exoskeleton except

(2) Compound eyes (1) AI (2) IUI

(3) Enterocoelom (3) GIFT (4) ICSI

167. Industrial melanism is an example of
(4) Open circulatory system
(1) Directional selection
161. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. organism and
its mode of reproduction (2) Balancing selection

(1) Euglena - Gemmule formation (3) Stabilising selection

(2) Paramoecium - Transverse binary (4) Diversifying selection

168. Choose the incorrect match
fission
(3) Hydra - Budding (1) Eyes of Octopus and Convergent
mammals evolution
(4) Amoeba - Simple binary fission
(2) Bones of forelimbs of Divergent
162. Which of the following processes w.r.t human
vertebrates evolution
sperm does not occur in male reproductive tract?
(1) Spermatocytogenesis (3) Presence of tail in Vestigial organ
human child
(2) Capacitation
(3) Spermiation (4) Hearts of bat, man Homology
and cheetah
(4) Spermiogenesis
169. Which of the following is least likely to make
163. The human male ejaculates about 'A' sperms
changes in a Hardy Weinberg population at
during coitus, of which for normal fertility 'B' % equilibrium?
must have normal shape and size and at least (1) Genetic drift
'C' % of them must show vigorous motility. (2) Random mating
Choose the option that correctly identifies A, B (3) Gene flow
and C. (4) Genetic recombination

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Test-12 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

170. Two mya, an ancestor of Homo sapiens sapiens Choose the correct option
who ate only fruits and hunted with stone (1) a (ii), b (iv), c (iii), d(v)
weapons was
(2) a (ii), b (iii), c (i), d(iv)
(1) Homo habilis
(2) Homo erectus (3) a (iii), b (i), c (ii), d(v)
(3) Australopithecus (4) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d(v)
(4) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis 175. Complete the analogy
171. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t.
Molecular glue : Ligase : : Molecular scissors :
immunoglobulins
(1) Taq polymerase
(1) IgA is present in colostrum
(2) IgM has ten antigen binding sites (2) Restriction endonuclease
(3) IgG is mainly responsible for primary immune (3) Plasmids
response (4) Alkaline phosphatase
(4) Some immunoglobulins can cross placenta
176. Which of the following is not a step of process of
and provide immunity to the foetus
PCR?
172. Choose the correct feature w.r.t. the compound
shown below. (1) Denaturation of DNA
(2) Elution from agar plate
(3) Annealing of primer
(4) Extension using polymerase
177. The most appropriate vector used for cloning
genes into higher organisms is
(1) Bacteriophage (2) E. coli
(3) Retrovirus (4) pBR322
178. Golden rice has been developed to cure
(1) One of its derivatives causes hallucinations if (1) Scurvy (2) Night blindness
taken in large amounts
(3) Rickets (4) Beri beri
(2) Its receptors are not present in CNS
(3) Its acetylation results in the production of a 179. Tobacco plants have been made resistant to
white, crystalline compound nematode infection by a technique called
(4) It acts as stimulant in lower doses (1) RNAi
173. Choose the odd one w.r.t. fresh water fishes (2) Gel electrophoresis
(1) Hilsa (2) Catla (3) PCR
(3) Labeo (4) Cirrhina
(4) Blotting
174. Match column I and column II w.r.t. diseases and
their causative agent 180. If a gene of interest is inserted within the coding
Column – I Column – II sequence of an enzyme β-galactosidase, the
recombinants will
(a) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema
(1) Appear blue in colour
(b) Syphilis (ii) Anopheles
(c) Malaria (iii) Entamoeba (2) Be sensitive to ampicillin

(d) Elephantiasis (iv) Plasmodium (3) Be resistant to tetracycline

(v) Wuchereria (4) Appear white in colour

  

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