Quiz 1 Research Methods

1.Jhanahan fears that the observed difference in the dependent variable in his study is not due
his manipulation of the independent variable. Which option best explains whether or not
Jhanahan's fear is appropriate?

A) No—his between-participants design means that his participant groups are not identical, and
may not interact with the IV in the same way.

B) No—his within-participants design has only one group, so differences in the DV must be due
to IV manipulation.

C) Yes—his within-participants design has only one group, so differences in the DV must be due
to IV manipulation.

D) Yes—his between-participants design means that his participant groups are not identical,
and may not interact with the IV in the same way.

2.Shane calculated a p-value of 0.44. Which of the following best describes what Shane can
conclude about the effect of Mega Study on test performance?

A) Even though he has found an improvement in the test scores from his experimental group,
he would have found this result 56% of the time even if the energy drinks have no effect.

B) Even though he has found an improvement in the test scores from his experimental group
and he would find this result 44% of the time if the energy drinks are effective.

C) Even though he has found an improvement in the test scores from his experimental group,
he would have found this result 44% of the time even if the energy drinks have no effect.

D) Even though he has found an improvement in the test scores from his experimental group
and he can be 44% confident that a difference between the groups does, in fact, exist.
3.Garrett believes that financial rewards can be used to motivate chimpanzees. Which of the
following best outlines a good potential hypothesis?

A) If chimpanzees perform better tricks when rewarded with food, fed chimpanzees will be
more successful.

B) If chimpanzees performed well in past circus shows, they were likely given financial rewards.

C) If chimpanzees are given financial rewards, they will become successful circus entertainers.

D) If chimpanzees are financially rewarded, they will perform more circus tricks than
unrewarded chimpanzees.

Incorrect. Hypotheses are testable statements based on theories that make specific
predictions. This prediction is not specific in how it would measure "success" as a circus
entertainer.

4. Which of the following is true regarding measures of central tendency?

A) Measures of central tendency can tell us how our data is spread around its centre, but this
information is useless for statistical analysis.

B) Measures of central tendency can tell us where our data set is centred, but this information
is not useful for statistical analysis.

C) Measures of central tendency can tell us where our data set is centred, but cannot tell us
how the data is spread around that centre.

D) Measures of central tendency can tell us how our data is spread around its centre, but
cannot tell us where our data set is centred.

Incorrect. Measures of central tendency, like mean, median, and mode, can tell us where the
data is centred, but cannot describe how variable the data is. Measures of variability, like the
standard deviation, describe how the data is spread around its centre.
5. Which of the following correctly describes a hypothesis?

A) The conclusion that some people have larger attention spans than other people.

B) The finding that one group tends to take, on average, 0.09 seconds longer to react to a
stimulus than another group.

C) The idea that individuals display varying levels of emotion.

D) The idea that one group, after having practiced, will outperform another group on a facial
recognition task.

6. Which of the following measures of central tendency can be applied to non-numerical data
sets?

A) Median

B) Mean

C) Mode

D) Histogram

Incorrect.  Histograms are not a measure of central tendency.

7. Which of the following is a shortcoming common to all measures of central tendency?

A) They are all affected by outliers.

B) They don't describe how the data points are distributed.

C) None of them can measure non-numerical data.

D) They don't account for all of the data points.

Incorrect.  The mode can be applied to non-numerical data.

8. Which of the following statements about histograms is most correct?

A) It shows each individual participant's data point.

B) It displays the mean results of each experimental/control group.

C) It shows the frequency of occurrence of certain ranges of data points.

D) It displays data through a normal distribution.

9. Piotr conducted a within-subjects design experiment exploring whether participants are

faster to detect targets if they are flashed at the top or bottom of the screen. According to the
textbook, what is the independent variable?

A) Whether the subject has been assigned to the 'Top Flash' condition or the 'Bottom Flash'
condition.

B) The likelihood that participants will respond faster to one type of target.

C) Whether the target is being flashed on the top or bottom of the screen.

D) The amount of time it takes to detect each type of target.

10. Which of the following does NOT exemplify that our perception of the world is guided by
prior experience, biases, and heuristics?

A) John sees a red octagon-shaped sign while driving and immediately stops, even though the
sign says "SHOP".

B) Zhao looked on from Dundas peak and knew that despite appearing small in the distance,
the trees he saw were of normal size.

C) During a discussion of language, Danja heard "How to wreck a nice beach" instead of "How
to recognize speech".

D) At the age of 10, Inika knows that when her parents leave the room they still exist. Her
brother, at an age of 1, does not know this.
Quiz 2 Classical Conditioning

1.Anna routinely injects heroine in both her kitchen and her car. She tends to inject the heroine
while listening to the radio after a long shift at work that finishes around midnight. Which of
the following scenarios would lead to the greatest feeling of withdrawal due to classical
conditioning?

A) Anna returns home from work one night and decides to make a pizza while listening to her
favourite radio station.

B) Anna spends the entire day driving around the city in her car listening to her favourite radio
station.

C) Anna spends the entire day in her kitchen baking several recipes for an upcoming office party
while watching television.

D) Anna encounters an individual injecting heroine while walking home from work one day.

2.A stray cat that roams the neighbourhood often visits the Donaldson house. Mr. Donaldson
always feeds her, while Mrs. Donaldson shoos her away. Which of the following is true
regarding stimulus discrimination?

A) Mr. Donaldson is the CS+ and predicts the absence of the US, while Mrs. Donaldson is the CS-
and predicts the absence of the US.

B) Mr. Donaldson is the CS- and predicts the presence of the US, while Mrs. Donaldson is the
CS+ and predicts the absence of the US.

C) Mr. Donaldson is the CS+ and predicts the presence of the US, while Mrs. Donaldson is the
CS- and predicts the absence of the US.

D) Mr. Donaldson is the CS- and predicts the absence of the US, and Mrs. Donaldson is the CS+
and predicts the presence of the US.
3.Which scenario best describes the learning trend observed during acquisition?

A) Improving the accuracy of your golf swing by a greater amount every time you attend the
range.

B) Your race time improves less and less every time you practice.

C) Improving your score by 2 points every time you take a standardized test.

D) Being able to flip a pancake perfectly after learning how to do it just once.

4.Which of the following is NOT an example of compensatory withdrawal symptoms?

A) Mr. Flitch, an avid smoker, decides to quit smoking. Three days in, he feels a tingling
sensation in his hands while walking by the smoking zone at his work.

B) Edward decides to stroll through a park where he often takes his drugs. While passing by, he
feels himself becoming extremely nauseous and dizzy.

C) To stay awake for her first overnight shift, Jane decides to take an energy drink. While the
drink kept her alert, she finds herself crashing 2-3 hours after taking the energy drink

D) Sally always drinks a cup of coffee at 8 AM, but one busy morning, she misses her daily cup
of coffee. When she arrives at work, she finds herself extremely tired and irritable.

5.Which of the following best describes spontaneous recovery?

A) When spontaneous recovery occurs, this shows that extinction caused the original
contingency to be unlearned.

B) Spontaneous recovery occurs when the unconditioned stimulus is presented after extinction.

C) Spontaneous recovery shows that, after extinction, the original contingency is not
unlearned.

D) Generalization produces more robust spontaneous recovery than does extinction.

Incorrect. Spontaneous recovery occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented after
extinction.
6.Which of the following correctly describes the CS-?

A) It is used in discrimination training and predicts the presence of the US.

B) It is used in extinction training and predicts the presence of the US.

C) It is used in discrimination training and predicts the absence of the US.

D) It is used in extinction training and predicts the absence of the US.

7.When a drug addict enters the room that he regularly takes his drug, his body will respond.
What is the name of this response?

A) Inhibition

B) Homeostasis

C) Unconditioned response

D) Compensatory response

8.Which of the following statements is true regarding acquisition or extinction?

A) Relearning that follows extinction is acquired faster than the original learning.

B) Extinction results in removing the CS-US contingency, causing the UR to fade.

C) Acquisition can be characterized by a positively accelerated increasing curve or function.

D) Acquisition is the process by which a contingency is formed between UR and US.

9.According to the textbook, which of the following correctly identifies the relationship
between extinction and test trials?

A) Extinction trials are presented repeatedly without the US and test trials are the
presentation of just the CS once to see if the association is learned.

B) Extinction trials are used to remove learned associations and test trials present the CS and US
together to test whether the association has been successfu lly reinforced.

C) Extinction trials involve the presentation of the CS without the US and test trials present the
CS and US together to test whether the associations have been removed after unlearning.

D) Extinction trials are the repeated presentation of the US and test trials are the presentation
of just the CS once to see if the association is learned.

10.According to lecture, which of the following is an example of non-associative learning?

A) A golden retriever begins to salivate in anticipation whenever it hears the sound of a dinner
bell.

B) The sensation of a bug on your skin stays the same, despite being there for an extended
period of time.

C) The sound of your brother chewing with his mouth open becomes gradually more
annoying over dinner.

D) A child eats her least favourite vegetables because she knows that she will be awarded
dessert.
Quiz 3 Instrumental Conditioning
1.Your manager recently cancelled free morning coffee after noticing that the majority of
employees were spending too much time playing online games. Additionally, those employees
who exceeded expectations during regular work hours were not required to work overtime on
weekends. Which of the following two training procedures does this scenario best exemplify?

A) Punishment training; Reward training

B) Punishment training; Escape training

C) Omission training; Escape training

D) Omission training; Reward training

2.John is fined for sneaking onto a train without a ticket. Although he typically gets away with it,
this time there were more police officers than usual on board. He makes note to check for
police cars in the parking lot the next time he sneaks onto a train. In this situation a contingency
is forming between what behaviour and consequence?

A) Increased police presence and the ticket.

B) Increased police presence and the fine.

C) Sneaking onto the train and the police cars.

D) Sneaking onto the train and the fine.

3.Which of the following training schedules would STAMP OUT a behaviour in a way that is
most resistant to extinction?

A) VR-3 Omission Training

B) FR-1 Punishment Training

C) VR-4 Escape Training

D) FR-2 Reward Training

4.Which of the following is the best example of omission training?

A) Beth is given a lecture on why it is wrong to swear after saying an offensive word in front of
her parents.

B) Riley is not given her weekly attendance credit if she stays out too late on a school night.

C) Connor does not have to do the dishes if he completes his homework before he plays video
games.

D) James is misbehaving in class, and as a result his teacher tells him to write "I will not
misbehave in class" over and over again.

5.Which of the following is FALSE regarding schedules of reinforcement?

A) Both fixed ratio and variable ratio schedules of reinforcement are concerned with the
number of responses.

B) In both variable ratio and variable interval schedules, the time between responses
fluctuates around a set mean.

C) On a fixed interval schedule, the amount of time after which a reward can be received is the
same across all trials.

D) On a variable ratio schedule, the exact number of responses to yield a reward varies across
trials.

Incorrect. This is true; the number of responses between rewards varies around a fixed mean
on a variable ratio schedule.

6.Which of the following is true regarding Thorndike's Law of Effect?

A) Behaviours will increase in frequency if it results in a positive consequence.

B) Behaviours will decrease in frequency in it is stamped in.

C) Behaviours that result in negative consequences are stamped in.

D) Behaviours that result in positive consequences are stamped out.

7.Which of the following statements about schedules of reinforcement is most correct?

A) A FI-1 schedule is a type of continuous reinforcement schedule.

B) A VI-10 schedule is likely to be more robust than a FI-10 schedule once rewards stop.

C) A VR-1000 schedule would ensure that responses never stopped.

D) A FR-5 schedule means that every time a response is performed, 5 rewards are given.

8.Which of the following is true regarding fixed reinforcement schedules?

A) Continuous reinforcement can have reinforcement delivery determined by either total

responses or elapsed time.

B) A fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement is based on the time elapsed between rewarded
responses.

C) A subject on a FI-1 minute schedule receives a reward for the first response after a 1-
minute period.

D) A fixed interval schedule of reinforcement is based on the number of responses made by a

subject.

9.According to the textbook, which of the following statements best explains the modern
scientific understanding of how observational learning occurs?

A) Observing someone else being aggressive towards a target increases the likelihood that the
observer will also be aggressive to that target.

B) Observing someone else being punished discourages the observer from repeating the
observed behaviour in hopes of avoiding punishment.

C) Observing someone else's behaviour activates certain neurons that help the observer in
duplicating the behaviour being observed.

D) Observing someone else receive a reward motivates the observer to repeat the observed
behaviour to also receive a reward.
Incorrect. Although this may be a contributing factor, it is not a modern scientific
explanation of how the process of observational learning actually occurs. Instead, observing
someone else's behaviour activates brain cells known as mirror neurons, which assist the
observer in duplicating the observed behaviour.
10.A crow performs the following actions in order and gets a treat every time he performs the
specific action: Being around the machine; touching a coin; picking up a coin; picking up and
dropping a coin; picking up and dropping a coin in the coin slot. According to lecture, what type
of learning technique is being used?

A) Shaping

B) Variable ratio shaping

C) Secondary reinforcer shaping

D) Autoshaping

Quiz 4 Problem Solving

1.Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates assimilation according to Piaget?

A) Michael's schema for "tree" includes the knowledge that all trees have big flat leaves that fall
in the winter. When he is told that some trees, like pine trees, have needles and that those
needles stay on the tree through winter, Michael's schema for tree is modified.

B) Pam has an existing mental framework for how to use a computer operating with Microsoft
Windows. She has to drastically alter that schema in order to use her newly purchased
MacBook Pro.

C) Oscar knows that dogs are small, furry and four-legged animals. He sees a breed of dog
that he has never seen before and calls it a "dog", adding this information to his schema for
dogs.

D) Jim is scolded for throwing a ball of paper in class. He was previously unaware that this
behaviour was inappropriate, and now has an adjusted schema for appropriate classroom
behaviour.
2.Which of the following represents a key difference between Spearman's and Gardner's views
pertaining to intelligence?

A) Spearman's view of intelligence tested eight different intelligences, whereas Gardner's view
focused on one level of intelligence.

B) Spearman's view considered each individual level of intelligence, whereas Gardner's view
noted that "G" was the relation between intelligence levels.

C) Spearman focused on math, vocabulary and special abilities, whereas Gardner's view noted
that "G" was the relation between intelligence levels.

D) Spearman focused on math, vocabulary and special abilities, whereas Gardner claimed
there are eight different levels of intelligence.

Incorrect. Spearman stated that intelligence is known as "G", which is the correlation
between all levels of intelligence, whereas Gardner stated there were eight different
intelligences.

3.Sandra thinks that she has developed a questionnaire that, if filled out honestly, will
accurately determine if a given individual is suffering from clinical depression. She tests by
having a group of undergraduate students fill out the questionnaire once per week for two
months, and finds that each student tends to score quite similarly to what they had scored in
previous weeks. Sandra finds, however, that the score on her questionnaire is independent of
whether or not an individual is clinically depressed. Which of the following best describes the
reliability and validity of Sandra's measure?

A) Sandra's measure has strong reliability but weak validity.

B) Sandra's measure has weak reliability and weak validity.

C) Sandra's measure has weak reliability but strong validity.

D) Sandra's measure has strong reliability and strong validity.

4.Which of the following scenarios best outlines assimilation as part of Piaget's Theory of
Cognitive Development?

A) Luke notices an unfamiliar cat in his neighbourhood that behaves very strangely and forms a
new schema for that particular cat.

B) Cheryl is required to memorize several facts about the development of microscopes for her
biology test.

C) Jim possesses a mental framework of how to drive an automatic transmission van, and must
modify this schema when he purchases a standard transmission car.

D) Marta notices several people playing tackle football for the first time in the park and adds
physical contact to her schema for enjoyable activities.

5.What are the two specific abilities psychologists often assume are related to intelligence?

A) Excelling on IQ tests and learning from experience.

B) Excelling on IQ tests and learning new ideas quickly.

C) Performing cognitive tasks and learning new ideas quickly.

D) Performing cognitive tasks and learning from experience.

6.Which of the following lists Piaget's four stages of development in their correct order?

A) Pre-operational, Sensorimotor, Formal, Concrete

B) Sensorimotor, Pre-operational, Concrete, Formal

C) Sensorimotor, Pre-operational, Formal, Concrete

D) Pre-operational, Sensorimotor, Concrete, Formal

7.Which of the following options correctly pairs a stage of cognitive development with the
relevant ability (or inability) to complete a task?

A) Preoperational; organizes objects from biggest to smallest.

B) Formal operational; still limited to thinking in concrete terms.

C) Concrete operational; understands reversible relationships.

D) Sensorimotor; can understand the perspectives of others

Incorrect. A child in the preoperational stage still has trouble with seriation tasks. Only at the
end of this stage do they develop this ability!

8.At one stage in cognitive development, children learn that objects do not disappear if they are
removed from sight. What is this called?

A) objectivism

B) egocentrism

C) conservation

D) object permanence

9.According to the Building Better Brains article, which of the following best describes the
change in neural activity after cognitive training?

A) The prefrontal cortex is more active when performing future cognitive tasks.

B) The prefrontal cortex is less active when performing future cognitive tasks.

C) A smaller region of the prefrontal cortex is active when performing future cognitive tasks.

D) A larger region of the prefrontal cortex is active when performing future cognitive tasks.
10.According to lecture, which of the following best exemplifies the framing bias?

A) Initially presenting the prevalence of a disease as 200 out of 1000 will lead to a larger
personal guess of the prevalence than if the initial prevalence statistic was presented as 10 out
of 1000.

B) If given the decision to administer a drug that would save 200 of 600 lives, or lead to the
death of 400 of 600 lives, people will choose to administer the first drug.

C) An individual wearing glasses is more likely to be convicted of a white collar crime than an
individual not wearing glasses.

D) A reporter writing an article on the ethics of euthanasia will only interview experts who will
support her view.

Quiz 5 Language
1.Which of the following is a correct statement about language development?

A) Segmentation abilities are directly related to the size of future expressive vocabulary.

B) Perceptual narrowing in infants allows them to segment streams of words from foreign
languages.

C) Poor segmentation abilities lead to poor future reading comprehension.

D) Infant-directed speech aids in the ability of infants to segment their native language as well
as foreign languages.
2.Which of the following is an example of an underextension

A) Sarah identifies her German Shepherd as a dog. She also identifies her neighbour's
Chihuahua as a dog.

B) Devin has many dolls at home. He calls his Elmo doll "Elmo" and his Big Bird doll "Big Bird".

C) Claire identifies red apples as apples. She does not identify green or yellow apples as
apples.

D) Blake calls his mom "mommy". He also calls his teacher, his aunt, and his older sister
"mommy".

3.Which of the following examples best supports the social learning theory of language?

A) Monika and her friends designed their own secret sign language during recess.

B) By the time he was 5 years of age, Larry expanded his vocabulary by almost 800 words,
despite being a bit behind in reading at school.

C) 2-year-old Frank gets candy from his parents when he uses words instead of gestures, and,
as a result, his vocabulary has been continuously expanding.

D) While learning to speak in full sentences, Anna told her friend that she 'buyed' a new
goldfish.

4.According to the web module, which of the following observations best counters the social
learning theory of language development?

A) Once children learn to produce words, they combine words in ways that they have heard
previously.

B) Children who experience little to no interactions with other people have significantly limited
language skills.

C) The language of young children often contains errors that would never be heard in adult
speech.

D) Language development in children is far too slow to be driven by imitation and

reinforcement.
5.Which of the following provided evidence in favour of the Whorf-Sapir Hypothesis?

A) Tribe members unfamiliar with arithmetic were poor at categorizing quantities they had
names for.

B) Tribe members were poor at categorizing objects they were not familiar with.

C) Tribe members were excellent at categorizing objects they had names for.

D) Tribe members were poor at categorizing quantities they did not have names for.

6.A sentence can have proper grammar without making sense _________.

A) morphetically.

B) phonetically.

C) semantically.

D) syntactically.

7.Which of the following statements about language development is most correct?

A) The use of classical conditioning to pair the correct imitation of word sounds with praise is a
mechanism proposed by the social learning theory of language.

B) The presence of consistent grammar in the spontaneous sign language developed by

congenitally deaf children is evidence for the social learning theory of language.

C) The innate tendency to continue producing language sounds after being rewarded by praise
is evidence for the innate mechanism theory of language.

D) The innate preference of infants to listen to speech over non-speech sounds may be
evidence for the presence of a language acquisition device.
8.A sentence that follows the rules of grammar but conveys no meaningful information would
be described as which of the following?

A) Containing morphemes, but not phonemes.

B) Syntactically correct, but semantically meaningless.

C) Containing phonemes, but not morphemes.

D) Syntactically incorrect, but semantically meaningful.

9.According to the textbook, which of the following statements regarding a child's developing
vocabulary is most accurate?

A) Boys typically have larger vocabularies around 4 years of age due to social activities that
promote the use of language.

B) A child is more likely to develop a larger vocabulary if they are not the first-born child.

C) Children understand complex words before they are able to use them.

D) Children are able to learn the meaning of a novel word after being exposed to it only a few
times, a concept known as word spurt.

Incorrect. The phenomenon of children learning the meaning of a novel word after only a
few exposures is known as fast mapping, not word spurt. 

10.According to the textbook, which of the following would result from brain injury to the
specific area in the left temporal lobe associated with language?

A) In rare cases, the individual would spontaneously develop a foreign accent while speaking in
their native language.

B) The individual would experience slow mapping, which causes the individual to disregard the
majority of words in their vocabulary while speaking.

C) The individual would have incoherent speech and difficulty understanding some aspects of
language.

D) The individual would have difficulty in the production of fluent speech.

Incorrect. An individual would have difficulty in the production of fluent speech if there was
damage to Broca's area, located in the left frontal lobe. Damage to Wernicke's area in the
left temporal lobe results in speech that does not make sense, as well as difficulty
understanding spoken and written language.