Sec : SR AIIMS S60 & MPL NEET PART TEST - 7 Date :07-04-20

SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI, CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR AIIMS SUPER60 & NEET MPL DATE: 07-04-20
SUB: BIOLOGY NEET PART TEST - 7 Max. Marks :720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :

Pattern of the Entrance Examination:-

Paper containing 180 objective type questions ,from Biology, Physics and Chemistry

Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked
with pencil would not be evaluated.

Each item carries 4marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score

1. The essential role of air in the growth of (3) Three

green plants was revealed experimentally by (4) Four
(1) Jan Ingenhousz 4. Salivary glands located in the cheek region
(2) Joseph Priestly are
(3) Engelmann (1) submandibular
(4) Van Niel (2) infraorbitals
2. Paper chromatography is used to (3) parotid
(1) Estimate the amount of assimilatory (4) sublingual
power produced by light reaction of 5. Which of the following do not have
photosynthesis cartilagenous rings ?
(2) Estimate the amount of absorption of (1) tertiary bronchi
light by different pigments (2) trachea
(3) Separate the leaf pigments of any green (3) primary bronchioles
plant (4) tertiary bronchioles
(4) Know the rate of photosynthesis at 6. Choose the incorrect statement
different wave lengths of light (1) optimal pH for the action of pepsin is
3. Photosystems consists of pigments like 1.8
Chlorophyll-a, Chlorophyll-b, Carotenes and (2) parietal cells of gastric glands secrete
Xanthophylls. How many of these types of HCl
pigments are present only in light harvesting (3) optimal pH for the action of ptyalin is
complexes ? 6.8
(1) One (4) Rennin helps in the digestion of milk
(2) Two sugar

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7. Statement-I : Reaction centre of PS I is called (3) I, II, III only
P700 . (4) I, II, III, IV
Statement-II : In PS I , the reaction centre 10. Amount of CO2 delivered to the alveoli by
chlorophyll ‘a’ has an absorption peak at every 100ml of deoxygenated blood is
700nm (1) 3ml
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (2) 4ml
correct (3) 5ml
(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is (4) 7ml
wrong 11. Which component of gastric juice inactivates
(3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is ptyalin ?
correct (1) Rennin
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) Pepsin
wrong
(3) Lipase
8. From the following diagram, identify the
(4) HCl
number of uphill and down hill transport of
12. Contraction of external intercostal muscles
electrons
(1) increases thoracic volume in dorso-
ventral axis
(2) increases thoracic volume in
longitudinal axis
(3) decreases thoracic volume in
longitudinal axis
(4) increases intra pulmonary pressure
13. Identify the correct sequence of events
during non-cyclic electron transport of
(1) One, One photosynthesis
(2) Two, Two A) Reduction of cytochrome complex
(3) One, Two B) Oxidation of pheophytin
(4) Two, One C) Reduction of PS I
9. What are the correct statements with D) Oxidation of PS I
reference to lumen of grana thylakoids for
(1) B→ A→D→C
ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis.
(2) B→ A→C →D
I) Protons are contributed by splitting of
(3) A→B→D→C
H 2O to maintain low pH
(4) A→B→C → D
II) Lumen has higher proton concentration 14. All of the following are only electron carriers
than stroma
except
III) Higher electrochemical potential than
(1) Plastocyanin
stroma
(2) Cytochromes
IV) Lower pH than stroma
(3) Plastoquinone
(1) I, II only
(4) Pheophytin
(2) II, III only
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15. When only ATP is synthesized during cyclic 21. Identify the incorrect match related to the
electron transport of photosynthesis, the layers in the wall of small intestine
following are not involved ? (1) Serosa – made up of mesothelium and
(1) PS II connective tissue
(2) NADP reductase enzyme (2) Muscular layer – has outer longitudinal
(3) Maximum light of 680 nm wavelength and inner circular muscles
(4) All of these (3) Submucosa – made up of loose
connective tissue
16. Peripheral receptors can send necessary
(4) Mucosa – forms irregular folds called
signals to the respiratory rhythm centre for
rugae
remedial actions, by recognizing the changes
22. Which of the following is incorrect about
in
pneumotaxic centre ?
(1) O2 concentration in arterial blood
(1) it moderates the functions of
(2) CO2 concentration in arterial blood
respiratory rhythm centre
(3) H+ concentration is venous blood (2) neural signals from it can alter the
(4) O2 concentration is venous blood respiratory rate
17. Anti pellagra vitamin is (3) it is located adjacent to respiratory
(1) Ascorbic acid rhythm centre
(2) Pantothenic acid (4) neural signals from it reduce the
(3) Nicotinic acid duration of inspiration
(4) Folic acid 23. Number of times phosphorylation occurs in
18. Digestive juice secreted by liver does not each C3 cycle
contain (1) Two
(1) cholesterol (2) Three
(2) lipase (3) One
(3) phospholipids (4) Four
(4) all the above 24. Factor essential for the absorption of
19. Mobile electron carriers of photosynthesis & cyanocobalamine is secreted by
respiration, (1) Neck cells
respectively (2) Oxyntic cells
(3) Peptic cells
(1) Cyt.C1 & PC
(4) Goblet cells
(2) PC & Cyt.C1
25. How many of the following are required to
(3) PC & Cyt.C
operate biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis
(4) Cyt.C & PC
A) ATP B) CO2
20. RuBisCO is not present in
(1) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants C) NADPH + H + D) H 2O

(2) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants (1) Four

(2) Three only
(3) Mesophyll cells of CAM plants
(3) Two only
(4) All these
(4) One only
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26. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and 30. Total volume of air a person can expire after
some air always remains in the lungs which a normal inspiration is
can never be expelled because (1) vital capacity
(1) there is a positive intrapleural pressure (2) functional residual capacity
(2) pressure in the lungs is higher than the (3) expiration capacity
atmospheric pressure (4) expiratory reserve volume
(3) there is a negative pressure in the lungs 31. Most crucial step of the Calvin cycle is
(4) there is a negative intrapleural pressure (1) Carboxylation
pulling at the lung walls (2) Reduction
27. Statement-I: Immediately after light becomes (3) Phosphorylation
unavailable, the biosynthetic phase of (4) Regeneration of RuBP
photosynthesis continues for sometime, and 32. RuBisCO shows oxygenase activity in
then stops. (1) Capsicum
Statement-II : Dark reaction doesn’t depend (2) Tomato
on light directly but is dependent on the (3) Sugarcane
products of light reaction. (4) 1 and 2
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are 33. Paneth cells of crypts of Lieberkuhn secrete
correct (1) somatostatin
(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is (2) lysozyme
wrong
(3) enterocrinin
(3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is
(4) enterokinase
correct
34. Which of the following is characteristic of
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
emphysema ?
wrong
(1) alveoli get filled with fluid
28. Primary carboxylation product is not a three
(2) increased respiratory surface area
carbon compound in how many of the
(3) alveolar walls become more elastic
following plants ?
(4) alveolar walls are damaged
1) Maize 2) Sugarcane
35. Number of ATP and NADPH 2 required in
3) Sorghum 4) Tomato
reduction phase only to produce one
5) Bell pepper 6) Chlorella
molecule of sucrose through Calvin cycle
(1) Four
(1) 36 and 24
(2) Three
(2) 18 and 12
(3) Two
(3) 24 and 24
(4) Five
(4) 12 and 12
29. Digestion of starch takes place in
36. Kranz anatomy is not found in
(1) Stomach and small intestine
(1) Maize
(2) Buccal cavity and small intestine
(2) Sorghum
(3) Small intestine and large intestine
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Buccal cavity and stomach
(4) Datura
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37. Which of the following is not a disorder of 43. Calvin pathway occurs in
alimentary canal ? (1) C3 plants only
(1) constipation (2) C4 plants only
(2) vomiting
(3) CAM plants only
(3) jaundice (4) All of these
(4) diarrhoea 44. Statement-I:Always RuBisCO shows both
38. Which of the following terms describe the carboxylase and oxygenase activity
dentition in humans ? simultaneously.
a) acrodont b) monophyodont Statement-II : Always the active site of
c) thecodont d) homodont RuBisCO can bind to both CO2 and O2
e) diphyodont f) heterodont simultaneously.
(1) bcf (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) cef correct
(3) cde (2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
(4) aef wrong
39. Incorrect statement with reference to C4 (3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is
plants correct
(1) Adapted to grow in dry tropical regions (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) Sugars are synthesized in mesophyll wrong
cells 45. Partial pressure of CO2 in the alveolar air is
(3) They can tolerate higher temperatures (1) same as that in systemic arteries
(2) same as that in pulmonary arteries
(4) They show response to high light
(3) more than that in systemic veins
intensities
(4) more than that in pulmonary veins
40. PEP carboxylase enzyme is never associated
46. Procarboxypeptidase is activated by
with photosynthetic carboxylation process in
(1) enterokinase
(1) C3 cycle
(2) HCl
(2) C4 cycle (3) bile salts
(3) CAM pathway (4) trypsin
(4) Both 2 & 3 47. Identify the correct statement w.r.t. to factors
41. Epiglottis is made up of influencing the rate of photosynthesis
(1) fibrous cartilage (1) Except for plants in shade or in dense
(2) elastic cartilage forests, light is rarely a limiting factor
(3) calcified cartilage in nature
(4) hyaline cartilage (2) Plant factors are dependent on the
genetic predisposition and growth of
42. Submucosal glands are present in
the plant
(1) stomach
(3) The rate of photosynthesis is
(2) duodenum
determined by the factor available at
(3) ileum
sub – optimal level
(4) jejunum
(4) All are correct
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48. Select the correct statement regarding the (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
first stable product formed in Hatch and correct
Slack pathway in C4 plants (2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
(1) OAA is formed by the carboxylation of wrong
PEP in the chloroplast of mesophyll (3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is
cells correct
(2) OAA is formed by the carboxylation of (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
wrong
PEP in the cytosol of mesophyll cells
52. Regarding gaseous exchange, plants can get
(3) PGA is formed in the mesophyll cells
along without respiratory organs because :
(4) PGA is formed in the cytosol of bundle
I) Each plant part takes care of it own gas-
sheath cells
exchange needs.
49. Identify the correct sequence in which CO2
II) There is very little transport of gases from
diffusion takes place in alveoli
one plant part to another
(1) endothelium of alveolar capillaries,
III) Plants donot present great demands for
basement substance, alveolar
gas exchange
epithelium
IV) Roots, stems and leaves respire at rates
(2) endothelium of alveolar capillaries,
far lower than animals do
alveolar epithelium, basement
V) The distance that gases must diffuse even
substance
in large, bulky plants is not great
(3) alveolar epithelium, basement
VI) Most cells of a plant have at least a part
substance, epithelium of alveolar
of their surface in contact with air
capillaries
How many of the above statements are
(4) alveolar epithelium, epithelium of
correct ?
alveolar capillaries, basement
(1) Three
substance
(2) Four
50. Identify the enzymes that act as enzyme
(3) Five
activators (4) Six
a) HCl b) enterokinase 53. Identify the set of factors that promote the
c) trypsin d) bile formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(1) a, b, c (1) less H+ concentration, lower
(2) b, c temperature, low pCO2
(3) a, b, c, d (2) high H+ concentration, high
(4) b, c, d temperature, low pCO2
51. Statement-I : During oxidation within a cell, (3) high pCO2, high pH, low PO2
all the energy contained in respiratory (4) lower temperature, high pCO2, high pH
substrates is not released free into the cell. 54. Choose the incorrect match
Statement-II : During respiration, the energy (1) Frenulum – tongue
is released in a stepwise reactions controlled (2) Cystic duct – gallbladder
by enzymes. (3) Lacteals – villi
(4) Haustra – ileum
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55. Glycolysis doesn’t require 62. Statement-I : All living organisms retain the
(1) Oxygen enzymatic machinery to partially oxidise
(2) Mitochondria glucose without the help of oxygen.
(3) Pyruvic dehydrogenase Statement-II:Glycolysis is a common
(4) All respiratory pathway for both aerobic and
56. Backward flow of the contents from large anaerobic respiration.
intestine into small intestine is prevented by (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) vermiform appendix correct
(2) sphincter of Boyden (2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
(3) ampulla of vater wrong
(4) ileo caecal valve
(3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is
57. This reaction is not observed in glycolysis correct
(1) Dehydration
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) Dehydrogenation
wrong
(3) Dephosphorylation
63. This substance is not phosphorylated during
(4) Decarboxylation
glycolysis
58. Identify the incorrect match related to the
respiratory structures (1) PGAL
(1) frog – moist skin (2) Fructose – 6 - phosphate
(2) molluscs – gills (3) Glucose
(3) earthworm – moist cuticle (4) Fructose – 1 – 6 - bisphosphate
(4) crustaceans – trachea
64. Oxyhaemoglobin curve shifts to the right side
59. Number of phosphorylations required during
when there is a decrease in
the formation of one pyruvic acid from
(1) temperature
glucose including that of oxidation reaction
(1) Two (2) pH value
(2) Three (3) CO2 concentration
(3) Four (4) H+ ion concentration
(4) Five 65. Digestion of proteins in the intestine is
60. Amylase of which digestive juice hydrolyses severely affected in the absence of
the starch in alkaline medium
(1) enterogastrone
(1) succus entericus
(2) HCl
(2) saliva
(3) pancreatic juice (3) enterokinase
(4) both 2 and 3 (4) bile salts
61. The requirement of anaerobic condition is 66. During expiration in humans
compulsory for (1) diaphragm becomes flattened
(1) Obligate aerobes
(2) intrapulmonary volume increases
(2) Facultative aerobes
(3) ribs and sternum are raised up
(3) Obligate anaerobes
(4) Facultative anaerobes (4) diaphragm is arched upwards
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67. During glycolysis, two redox-equivalents are A B C D
removed from Lactic
(1) FADH 2 PEP NAD + Acid
(1) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(2) Lactic
(2) PGAL + PEP NAD +
NADH + H acid
(3) 2-phosphoglycerate
NADH + H + Butyri
(4) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (3) NAD + PEP
c acid
Butyri +
68. Arrange the following enzymes in correct (4) FAD + PEP NADH + H
c acid
sequence of their involvement in glycolysis
72. This is not produced during tricarboxylic
I) Phosphoglyceromutase
acid cycle
II) Phosphohexose isomerase
III) Enolase (1) Succinyl Co.A
IV) Aldolase (2) Acetyl Co.A
(1) II → IV → III → I (3) Oxaloacetic acid
(2) II → IV → I → III (4) Fumaric acid
(3) II → I → III → IV 73. Identify the set of substances that are
(4) IV → II → I → III absorbed into blood from the gut by simple
69. Chylomicrons are formed in diffusion
(1) intestinal lumen (1) fatty acids, glycerol, fructose
(2) intestinal mucosal cells
(2) amino acids, glucose, Na+ ions
(3) lacteals of villi
(3) glucose, chloride ions, aminoacids
(4) capillaries of villi
(4) chloride ions, amino acids,
70. Choose the correct representation about
pulmonary capacities triglycerides
(1) FRC > IC > EC 74. Cartilagenous flap that prevents the entry of
(2) IC > FRC > EC food into trachea during deglutition in
(3) VC > EC > FRC mammals is
(4) VC > FRC > IC (1) glottis
71. Identify A, B, C and D from the following (2) uvula
diagram (3) epiglottis
(4) palate
75. Total number of ATP produced for one
molecule of pyruvic acid through oxidative
phosphorylation only
(1) 15
(2) 14
(3) 13
(4) 12

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76. Identify the correct match from the following (2) pons
w.r.t. to one turn of citric acid cycle (3) medulla oblongata
Column-I Column-II (4) cerebrum
A)No.of decarboxylations I) 1 82. Identify the enzymes secreted by brush
B)No.of ATP formed II) 4 border cells of intestinal mucosa
C)No.of oxidations III) 5 a) maltase b) nucleosidase
D)No.of FADH2 formed IV) 12 c) amylase d) carboxypeptidase
V) 2 e) lactase f) dipeptidase
A B C D (1) abdf
(1) V IV II I (2) abef
(2) IV V II I (3) bcef
(3) V III II I (4) adef
(4) I IV II III 83. A non-enzyme of respiratory electron
77. About 20 – 25% of CO2 is transported in the transport system which carries both electrons
form of and protons together
(1) carboxy haemoglobin (1) Cytochrome - c
(2) carbonic acid (2) Ubiquinone
(3) bicarbonates (3) Cytochrome b − c1
(4) carbamino haemoglobin (4) F0 − F1
78. Glisson’s capsule covers 84. Statement-I : Respiratory pathway is an
(1) hepatic cords amphibolic pathway rather than as a
(2) islets of langerhans catabolic one.
(3) gall bladder Statement-II : Respiratory intermediates like
(4) hepatic lobules acetyl Co.A form the link during the
79. Total number of net gain of ATPs formed for breakdown and synthesis of fats, proteins
the complete oxidation of one glucose etc.,
molecule in aerobic respiration (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) 30 correct
(2) 38 (2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
(3) 32 wrong
(4) 28 (3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is
80. During oxidative phosphorylation, this correct
complex doesnot carry electrons (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) NADH dehydrogenase wrong
(2) Cytochrome – C - oxidase 85. Pyloric sphincter regulates the passage of
(3) Succinic dehydrogenase food from
(4) ATP synthase (1) small intestine into large intestine
81. Chemosensitive area which is sensitive to (2) oesophagus into stomach
CO2 and H+ ion concentration is located in (3) pharynx into oesophagus
(1) cerebellum (4) stomach into duodenum
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86. Identify the correct statements about carbonic 91. Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of
anhydrase enzyme 720 . The number of images of a point object
a) high concentration of the enzyme is placed between them will be
present in RBC (1) 2
b) it facilitates the formation of carbonic (2) 3
acid
(3) 4
c) it facilitates the dissociation of
(4) 5
carbonic acid
92. 'Mirage' is a phenomenon due to
d) minute quantities of the enzyme is
(1) Reflection of light
present in plasma
(2) Refraction of light
(1) a, b, d only
(3) Total internal reflection of light
(2) a, c, d only
(3) a, b, c only (4) Diffraction of light
(4) a, b, c, d 93. In a concave mirror experiment, an object is
87. All are correct except placed at a distance x1 from the focus and
(1) Fermentation involves only partial the image is formed at a distance x 2 from
breakdown of glucose
the focus. The focal length of the mirror
(2) In fermentation, there is a net gain of
would be
only two molecules of ATP for each
(1) x1 x2
molecule of glucose
(3) In fermentation, NADH is oxidized to (2) x1 x2
NAD + rather slowly x1 + x2
(3)
(4) In fermentation, more than seven 2
per cent of the energy in glucose is x1
(4)
released x2
88. RQ value is more than one for
94. A virtual image three times the size of the
(1) Malic acid
object is obtained with a concave mirror of
(2) Oxalic acid
radius of curvature 36 cm .The distance of
(3) Palmitic acid
the object from the mirror is
(4) 1 and 2
(1) 24 cm
89. Digestive juice secreted by pancreas contains
(2) 12 cm
(1) Trypsinogen, steapsin, chymotrypsin
(2) Nuclease, chymotrypsin, trypsin (3) 15 cm
(3) Lipase, maltase, amylase (4) 20 cm
(4) chymotrypsinogen, lipase, nuclease 95. A concave mirror of focal length f (in air) is
90. Formation of carbamino – haemoglobin is immersed in water ( µ=4/3 ). The focal length
promoted by of the mirror in water will be
(1) high PO2 , low H+ concentration (1) f
(2) high pCO2 , low PO2 (2) 4f/3
(3) low pCO2, high PH (3) 3f/4
(4) high PO2, low pCO2 (4) 7f/3
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96. Light travels through a glass plate of (3) + 6.5 D
thickness t and having refractive index n. If (4) + 6.67 D
c is the velocity of light in vacuum, the time 101. A convex lens makes a real image 4 cm long
taken by the light to travel this thickness of on a screen. When the lens is shifted to a new
glass is position without disturbing the object, we
(1) t/nc again get a real image on the screen which is
(2) tnc 16 cm tall. The length of the object must be
(3) nt/c (1) 1/4 cm
(4) tc/n (2) 8 cm
97. When a light wave goes from air into (3) 12 cm
water,the quantity that remains unchanged is (4) 20 cm
its 102. A point object O is placed at 15 cm in front
(1) Speed of a glass rod having spherical end of radius
(2) Amplitude of curvature 30 cm. The image would be
(3) Frequency formed at (for glass m = 1.5 )
(4) Wavelength O Air
Glass
98. An under water swimmer is at a depth of 12
30 cm
m below the surface of water. A bird is at a 15 cm
height of 18 m from the surface of water, (1) 30 cm left
directly above his eyes. For the swimmer, (2) Infinity
the bird appears to be at a distance from the (3) 1 cm to the right
surface of water equal to (Refractive Index of (4) 18 cm to the left
water is 4/3) 103. A plano-convex lens of refractive index 1.5
(1) 24 m and radius of curvature 30 cm is silvered at
(2) 36 m the curved surface. Now this lens has been
(3) 18 m used to form the image of an object. At what
(4) 9 m distance from this lens an object be placed in
99. A point source of light is placed 4 m below order to have a real image of the size of the
the surface of water of refractive index 5/3. object
The minimum diameter of a disc which (1) 20 cm
should be placed over the source on the (2) 30 cm
surface of water to cut–off all light coming (3) 60 cm
out of water is (4) 80 cm
(1) 2 m 104. A thin prism P1 with angle 4 0 and made from
(2) 6 m glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined
(3) 4 m with another thin prism P2 made from glass
(4) 3 m of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion
100. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in without deviation. The angle of prism P2 is
contact with a concave lens of focal length (1) 2.6 0
25 cm. The power of combination is (2) 30
(1) – 1.5 D (3) 40
(2) – 6.5 D
(4) 5.33 0
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105. Angle of a prism is 30 0 and its refractive 110. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of
intensities I and 4 I are superposed. The
index is 2 and one of the surface is
maximum and minimum possible intensities
silvered. At what angle of incidence, a ray
in the resulting beam are
should be incident on one surface so that
(1) 5 I and I
after reflection from the silvered surface, it (2) 5 I and 3 I
retraces its path (3) 9 I and I
(1) 30 0 (4) 9 I and 3 I
(2) 60 0 111. In Young's experiment, the distance between
(3) 45 0 the slits is reduced to half and the distance
between the slit and screen is doubled, then
(4) sin −1 1.5
the fringe width
106. A person cannot see objects clearly beyond (1) Will not change
2.0 m. The power of lens required to correct (2) Will become half
his vision will be (3) Will be doubled
(1) + 2.0 D (4) Will become four times
(2) – 1.0 D 112. Two beams of light having intensities I and
(3) + 0.5 D 4I interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a
(4) – 0.5 D screen. The phase difference between the
107. A convergent lens of power 8D is used as a π
beams is at point A and π at point B.
simple microscope. When the final image is 2
formed at least distance of distinct vision, the Then the difference between the resultant
magnification produced is intensities at A and B is
(1) 2 (1) 2I
(2) 4I
(2) 4
(3) 5I
(3) 3
(4) 7I
(4) 5
113. In a Young's double slit experiment, the
108. The focal length of objective and eye lens of fringe width is found to be 0.40mm. If the
a astronomical telescope are respectively 2 m whole apparatus is immersed in water of
and 5 cm. Final image is formed at (i) least refractive index 4/3 without disturbing the
distance of distinct vision (ii) infinity. The geometrical arrangement, the new fringe
magnifying power in both cases will be width will be
(1) – 48, – 40 (1) 0.30 mm
(2) – 40, – 48 (2) 0.40 mm
(3) – 40, 48 (3) 0.53 mm
(4) – 48, 40 (4) 450 micron
109. One face of a rectangular glass plate 6 cm 114. A thin mica sheet of thickness 2×10-6 m and
thick is silvered. An object held 8 cm in refractive index (µ=1.5) is introduced in the
front of the first face, forms an image 12 cm path of the upper wave. The wavelength of
behind the silvered face. The refractive index
the wave used is 5000 A0 . The central bright
of the glass is
maximum will shift
(1) 0.4 (1) 2 fringes upward
(2) 0.8 (2) 2 fringes downward
(3) 1.2 (3) 10 fringes upward
(4) 1.6 (4) None of these
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115. Figure here shows P and Q as two equally 118. A parallel monochromatic beam of light is
intense coherent sources emitting radiations incident normally on a narrow slit. A
of wavelength 20 m. The separation PQ is diffraction pattern is formed on a screen
placed perpendicular to the direction of
5.0 m and phase of P is ahead of the phase of
incident beam. At the first minimum of the
Q by 90o. A, B and C are three distant points diffraction pattern, the phase difference
of observation equidistant from the mid-point between the rays coming from the edges of
of PQ. The intensity of radiations at A, B, C the slit is
will bear the ratio (1) 0
π
B (2)
2
(3) π
(4) 2π
P Q 119. A telescope of diameter 2m uses light of
wavelength 5000 Å for viewing stars. The
C A minimum angular separation between two
(1) 0:1:4 stars whose image is just resolved by this
telescope is
(2) 4:1:0
(1) 4 ×10−4 rad
(3) 0:1:2
(2) 0.25 ×10−6 rad
(4) 2:1:0 (3) 0.31×10−6 rad
116. In Young's double slit experiment, white light (4) 5.0 ×10−3 rad
is used. The separation between the slits is b. 120. The angle of polarisation for a medium is
The screen is at a distance d (d>> b) from the 60 0 , what will be critical angle for this
slits. Some wavelengths are missing exactly (1) sin −1 3
in front of one slit. These wavelengths are (2) tan −1 3
(3) cos −1 3
b2
(1) λ= 1
3d (4) sin −1
3
2b 2
(2) λ= 121. Two polarizers are oriented with their
d
principal planes making an angle of 60 0 . The
3b 2
(3) λ= percentage of incident unpolarized light
d
which passes through the system is
2b 2
(4) λ= (1) 50 %
3d (2) 100 %
117. A slit of size 0.15 cm is placed at 2.1 m from
(3) 12.5 %
a screen. On illuminated it by a light of (4) 37.5 %
wavelength 5×10-5 cm. The width of central 122. In the propagation of electromagnetic waves,
maxima will be the angle between the direction of
propagation and plane of polarisation is
(1) 70 mm
(1) 0 0
(2) 0.14 mm
(2) 45 0
(3) 1.4 mm
(3) 90 0
(4) 0.14 cm
(4) 180 0
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13
123. If i = t 2 ; 0<t<T , then r.m.s. value of 127. The output current versus time curve of a
current is rectifier is shown in the figure. The average
value of output current in this case is
T2
(1)
2

Current
T2
(2)
2 I0
2
T Time
(3)
5 (1) zero
(4) None of these I0
(2)
124. An alternating voltage is represented as 2
E = 20sin(300t.) . The average value of 2I0
(3)
voltage over one cycle will be π
(4) I0
(1) 20 2 V
128. Which of the following curves correctly
20
(2) represents the variation of capacitive
2
reactance XC with frequency f
(3) 10 V (1)
(4) Zero Xc
125. The potential difference V and the current i
flowing through an instrument in an ac
circuit of frequency f are given by
(2) f
V=5cosω t volts and I = V = 2sinω t Xc
amperes (where ω =2πf ). The power
dissipated in the instrument is
(1) 10W f
(3)
(2) 5W
Xc
(3) 2.5W
(4) zero
126. An alternating current is given by the equation
(4) f
i = i1cosω t + i 2sinω t . The r.m.s. current is
Xc
given by
1
(1) (i1 + i2 )
2
1 f
(2) (ii + i2 ) 2 129. A choke coil has
2 (1) High inductance and low resistance
1 2 2 1/ 2 (2) Low inductance and high resistance
(3) (i1 + i2 )
2 (3) High inductance and high resistance
1 2 2 1/ 2 (4) Low inductance and low resistance
(4) (i + i )
2 1 2
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14
130. Same current is flowing in two alternating 134. For the series LCR circuit shown in the
circuits. The first circuit contains only figure, what is the resonance frequency and
inductance and the other contains only a the amplitude of the current at the resonating
capacitor. If the frequency of the e.m.f. of ac frequency
is increased, the effect on the value of the 8 mH
current will be
(1) Increases in the first circuit and
decreases in the other 220 V ~ 20µ F

(2) Increases in both the circuits

(3) Decreases in both the circuits
44 Ω
(4) Decreases in the first circuit and
increases in the other (1) 2500 rad − s −1 and 5 2 A
131. In a LCR circuit the pd between the terminals
(2) 2500 rad − s −1 and 5A
of the inductance is 60 V, between the
terminals of the capacitor is 30V and that (3) 2500 rad − s −1 and 5 / 2 A
between the terminals of resistance is 40V. (4) 25 rad − s −1 and 5 2 A
the supply voltage will be equal to
135. The power factor of LCR circuit at resonance
(1) 50V
is
(2) 70 V
(1) 0.707
(3) 130 V
(2) 1
(4) 10 V
132. In a series LCR circuit, resistance R=10Ω (3) zero

and the impedance Z=20Ω. The phase (4) 0.5

difference between the current and the 136. The electro chemical equivalent of an
voltage is element is 0.0006735 gram/coulomb. Its
(1) 30o equivalent weight is

(2) 450 (1) 65

(2) 67.35
(3) 600
(3) 130
(4) 900
(4) 32.5
133. When 100 volt dc is applied across a coil, a
current of 1 amp flows through it. When 100 137. On passing 3F electricity through three cells
containing fused Na2CO3, fused Cu ( NO3 )2
volt ac at 50 cycle s - 1 is applied to the same
coil, only 0.5 ampere current flows. The and fused Al ( NO3 )3 , the no. of moles of the
impedance of the coil is metals deposited are in the ratio
(1) 100 Ω
(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 200 Ω
(2) 3 : 2 : 1
(3) 300 Ω
(3) 6 : 3 : 2
(4) 100 3 Ω
(4) 3 : 4 : 2

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15
138. At 25 0C the molar conductances at infinite 142. For a fuel cell involving 2 electron transfer,
dilution for the strong electrolytes NaOH cell potential is 1.25volts. The reaction is
,NaCl and BaCl2 are 248 × 10-4 , 126 × 10-4 exothermic to an extent of 300kJ, then the
-4 2 -1
280 × 10 Sm mol respectively. Molar efficiency of the fuel cell is:
conductance of Ba(OH)2 at infinite dilutions (1) 50%
2 -1
in S.m .mol is: (2) 80%
-4
(1) 274 × 10 (3) 70%
-4
(2) 402 × 10 (4) 60%
-4
(3) 262 × 10 143. SRP values of Ni, Cl electrodes are -0.25 &
-4
(4) 524 × 10 1.36 V respectively. Then the EMF of the
139. Silver is electrodeposited on a metallic vessel following cell is
2
of total surface area 900 cm by using a Ni | Ni +2 ( 0.01M )
Cl− ( 0.01M ) | Cl2 | Pt
current of 0.5 amp for 2 hrs. Then thickness
(1) 1.79 V
of silver deposited is (density of silver = 10.5
(2) -1.79 V
g/c.c)
(3) 1.17 V
(1) 2.13 x10+4 cm
(4) 1.11 V
−4
(2) 2.13 x10 cm 144. The pressure of Hydrogen required to make
+4
(3) 4.26 x10 cm the potential of H2 – electrode zero in pure
water at 250C is:
(4) 4.26 x10−4 cm
(1) 10-14 atm
140. How much will be the change in reduction
(2) 10-7 atm
potential of hydrogen electrode when its
(3) 10-6 atm
solution initially at pH = 0 is neutralised to
(4) 107 atm
pH = 7 ?
145. The cost of electricity required to deposit 6
(1) increase by 0.059 v
grams of magnesium is Rs.50/-, then which
(2) decrease by 0.059 v
of the following cost less to deposit?
(3) decrease by 0.41 v
(1) 10g Na
(4) increase by 0.41 v
(2) 10g Al
141. Which of the following is incorrect for dry
(3) 10g Ag
cell ?
(4) 10g Fe
(1) Reaction at cathode,
146. 1 litre of 2.1M HCl solution is taken and
MnO 2 + NH+4 + e− → MnO (OH) + NH3
965 ampere of current is passed for 200
(2) Mn is reduced from +5 to +4 seconds. What is the pH of residual solution?
(3) cell potential is 1.5 volts (1) 1.0
+2
(4) NH3 form complex with Zn to give (2) 7.69
+2
 Zn ( NH 3 )  (3) 6.30
 4 
(4) 7.0
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147. Structure of mixed oxide is cubic close 24 3
(2) πr
packed (ccp). The cubic unit cell of mixed 3
oxide is composed of oxide ions. One fourth 12 3
(3) πr
of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by 3
divalent metal A and all the octahedral voids 16 3
(4) πr
are occupied by a monovalent metal B. The 3
formula of the oxide is 151. AgI crystallizes in the cubic close packed

(1) ABO2 zincblend structure. Assuming that the iodide

(2) A2BO2 ions occupy the lattice points, fraction of

tetrahedral sites occupied by silver ions are:
(3) A2B2O2
(1) 50%
(4) AB2O2
(2) 25%
148. Which of the following statements is not
(3) 75%
correct ?
(4) 12.5%
(1) The number of carbon atoms in a unit
152. A solid AB has NaCl structure. It radius of
cell of diamond is 8
cation A+ is 120 pm. The maximum possible
(2) The number of Bravais lattices in which
value of the radius of the anion B– is
a crystal can be categorized is 14
(1) 60 pm
(3) The fraction of the total volume
(2) 50 pm
occupied by the atoms in a primitive
(3) 290 pm
cell is 0.48
(4) 240 pm
(4) Molecular solids are generally volatile 153. Anti ferromagnetic alignment is
149. A metal has a fcc lattice. The edge length of
(1)
the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the
metal is 2.72g cm–3. The molar mass of the (2)
metal is
(3)
(1) 20g mole-1
(2) 40g mole-1 (4)
(3) 30g mole-1 154. What is the concentration of cation vacancies
(4) 27g mole-1 when NaCl is doped with 10-3 mole % of
150. Total volume of atoms present in a face- SrCl2
centred cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is (1) 6.023 x 1018
atomic radius) (2) 6.023 x 1019

20 3 (3) 12 x 1018
(1) πr
3 (4) 12 x 1023
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155. The empty space and number of atoms in (3) Dia, para
h.c.p unit cell is (4) Dia, dia
(1) 26%, 6 160. Which of the following is not correct
(2) 32%, 6 combination ?
(3) 28%, 12 (1) Cs > Rb > Na > K > Li – Density
(4) 28%, 4 (2) Li + > Na + > K + > Rb + > Cs + - (Ionic
156. Monoclinic crystal has dimension radii in aqueous sol)
(1) a ≠ b ≠ c, α = γ = 90 0 , β ≠ 90 0 (3) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs – (SRP values)
(4) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs – (B.P and M.P)
(2) a = b = c, α = β = γ = 90 0
161. The wrong statement among the following
(3) a = b = c, α = β = 90 0 , γ = 120 0 are
(4) a ≠ b = c , α = β = γ = 1200 (1) The alkali metals dissolve in liquid

157. List – I List – II ammonia giving deep blue solution

a) Network solid 1) Cu which are conducting in nature due to

b) Metallic solid 2) Ice ammoniated electrons.

c) Hydrogen bonded solid 3) Dry ice (2) Ammoniated solutions of alkali metals

d) Non polar solid 4) SiC are paramagnetic

The correct match is (3) In the concentrated solution of

A B C D ammoniated alkalimetals the blue

(1) 1 2 3 4 colour changes to bronze colour and

(2) 4 1 3 2 becomes dia magnetic

(3) 4 1 2 3 (4) Na in liquid NH 3 acts as oxidizing

(4) 4 2 1 3 agent
158. Select the false statement 162. The low solubility of LiF in water is due to
(1) Solid LiHCO 3 does not exist _______ and the low solubility of CsI is due

(2) LiCl is soluble in pyridine to ______

(3) Li 2SO 4 cannot form alum (1) High lattice enthalpy, high lattice
enthalpy
(4) Li 2CO3 cannot decompose on heating
(2) High lattice enthalpy, low hydration
∆
159. Li NO3 
→ Li2O + X ↑ +Y ↑ enthalpy
∆ (3) Low lattice enthalpy, high hydration
NaNO3  → NaNO2 + Y ↑
enthalpy
The magnetic nature of X and Y respectively
(4) Low lattice enthalpy, low hydration
(1) Para, para
enthalpy
(2) Para, dia
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163. Among the following correct statements 167. Which of the following should be kept only
A. Sodium chloride is deliquescent due to in the atmosphere of CO 2 to be stable ?
impurities of MgCl2 and CaCl2
(1) BeCO3
B. The solubility of NaCl does not change
(2) MgCO3
appreciably with increase of the
temperature (3) CaCO3
C. Gas evolved at anode of Castner – (4) BaCO3
Kellner cell is hydrogen 168. At temperature below 1200K in vapour state
D. Carbonate part of Na2CO3 gets
BeCl2 exist as
hydrolysed in water to form alkaline
(1) trimer
solution
(2) tetramer
(1) only A, B, C
(3) dimer
(2) only A, B, D
(4) polymer
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) only A, C 169. Suspension of slaked lime in water is known

164. Which is more soluble among the as

following (1) lime water

(2) quick lime
(1) BeO
(3) milk of lime
(2) MgO
(4) aqueous solution of slaked lime
(3) CaO
170. For best sample of cement the ratio of
(4) BaO
165. A metal readily forms water soluble sulphate CaO % : (SiO2 % + Al2O3 % + Fe2O3 % )
MSO 4 , water insoluble hydroxide should be x :1 . What is ‘ x ’ ?
M ( OH )2 and oxide MO which becomes (1) 2.5
(2) 4
inert on heating. The hydroxide is soluble in
(3) 2
NaOH. The metal is
(4) 1
(1) Be
(2) Mg 171. The correct order among the following is
(3) Ca (1) Basic nature - Be ( OH )2 < Mg ( OH 2 )
(4) Sr
< Ca ( OH )2 < Sr ( OH )2 < Ba ( OH )2
166. The best method for the preparation of BeF2
(2) Solubility - BeSO4 > MgSO 4 > CaSO 4
is
∆ > SrSO 4 > BaSO 4
(1) Be + F2  →
∆
(3) Thermal stability - BeCO3 < MgCO3
(2) BeO + C + F2  →
< CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3
(3) ( NH 4 )2 BeF4 
∆
→ (4) All are correct
(4) All
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172. BeCl2 exhibits different structures in the 176. White fumes appear around the bottle of

vapour and solid states. The hybridization of anhydrous AlCl3 due to the formation of
Be in vapour and solid states respectively (1) HCl
(1) sp, sp 2 (2) Al ( OH )3

(2) sp 2 , sp3 (3) Cl2

(3) sp3 , sp (4) Al2 O3

177. The number of electrons shared between the
(4) sp3 , sp 2
two boron atoms directly in the formation of
173. Aluminium liberates dihydrogen gas with
bonds in diborane molecule
both dil. HCl and aqueous NaOH. The
(1) 4
volume ratio of dihydrogen gas evolved from
(2) 2
equal amounts of aluminium in these
reactions is (3) 0

(1) 1 : 2 (4) 8

(2) 2 : 3 178. Boron cannot form which of the following

−
(3) 1 : 3 (1) B ( OH )4
(4) 1 : 1
(2) BO −2
174. Orthoboric acid behaves as a weak

monobasic acid giving H 3O + and (3) BF63−

(1) H 2 BO +2 (4) BH −4
179. Wrong match is
(2) H 2 BO −2
− (1) Na 2  B4 O5 ( OH )4  .8H 2O – borax
(3)  B ( OH 4 ) 
(2) Ga > Al – atomic size
+
(4)  B ( OH )4  (3) Borax bead – B2 O3 + NaBO 2
175. In dimeric aluminium chloride respective (4) Ga – wide liquid range temperature
bond lengths are given below. The relation 180. The number of isomers possible when two
between X and Y is hydrogens of B3 N 3H 6 are replaced by two
Xp
Cl Cl m m Cl
Yp ‘Cl’ atoms is
Al Al (1) 2
Cl Cl Cl (2) 3
(1) X =Y (3) 4
(2) X >Y (4) 5
(3) X <Y
(4) 2X = Y
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 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI
SR AIIMS S60 & NEET MPL Date : 07.04.20
NEET PART TEST – 7 KEY

BOT:- 1,2,3,7,8,9,13,14,15,19,20,23,25,27,28,31,32,35,36,39,40,43,44,47,48,51,52,55,57,59,61,62,
63,67,68,71,72,75,76,79,80,83,84,87,88
ZOO: 4,5,6,10,11,12,16,17,18,21,22,24,26,29,30,33,34,37,38,41,42,45,46,49,50,53,54,56,58,60,64,
65,66,69,70,73,74,77,78,81,82,85,86,89,90

BIOLOGY
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 3 5) 4 6) 4 7) 1 8) 2 9) 4 10) 2

11) 4 12) 1 13) 1 14) 3 15) 4 16) 2 17) 3 18) 2 19) 3 20) 2

21) 4 22) 3 23) 1 24) 2 25) 1 26) 4 27) 1 28) 2 29) 2 30) 3

31) 1 32) 4 33) 2 34) 4 35) 3 36) 4 37) 3 38) 2 39) 2 40) 1

41) 2 42) 2 43) 4 44) 4 45) 1 46) 4 47) 4 48) 2 49) 1 50) 2

51) 1 52) 4 53) 1 54) 4 55) 4 56) 4 57) 4 58) 4 59) 2 60) 3

61) 3 62) 1 63) 4 64) 2 65) 3 66) 4 67) 2 68) 2 69) 2 70) 2

71) 2 72) 2 73) 3 74) 3 75) 2 76) 1 77) 4 78) 4 79) 2 80) 4

81) 3 82) 2 83) 2 84) 1 85) 4 86) 4 87) 4 88) 4 89) 4 90) 2

PHYSICS

91) 3 92) 3 93) 2 94) 2 95) 1 96) 3 97) 3 98) 1 99) 2 100) 1
101) 2 102) 1 103) 1 104) 2 105) 3 106) 4 107) 3 108) 1 109) 3 110) 3
111) 4 112) 2 113) 1 114) 1 115) 4 116) 1 117) 3 118) 4 119) 3 120) 4
121) 3 122) 1 123) 3 124) 4 125) 4 126) 3 127) 3 128) 2 129) 1 130) 4
131) 1 132) 3 133) 2 134) 2 135) 2

CHEMISTRY

136) 1 137) 3 138) 4 139) 4 140) 3 141) 2 142) 2 143) 1 144) 1 145) 3

146) 1 147) 4 148) 3 149) 4 150) 4 151) 1 152) 3 153) 2 154) 1 155) 1

156) 1 157) 3 158) 4 159) 1 160) 3 161) 4 162) 2 163) 2 164) 4 165) 1

166) 3 167) 1 168) 3 169) 3 170) 3 171) 4 172) 2 173) 4 174) 3 175) 2

176) 1 177) 3 178) 3 179) 2 180) 3

 Features and summary of the SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS
question paper(BOTANY)  360   360 
91. n= − 1 ⇒ n =  − 1 = 4
Question NCERT Book  θ   72 
Numbers Page No.
1 - Vol. I - 208 92. Theory point
2 - Vol. I - 210
3 - Vol. I - 211
4 - Vol. I - 211 93. Given u = (f + x1) and v = (f + x 2 )
5 - Vol. I - 212
6 - Vol. I - 214 uv ( f + x 1 )( f + x 2 )
The focal length f = =
7 - Vol. I - 213 u + v (f + x1 ) + (f + x 2 )

8 - Vol. I - 214
On solving, we get f 2 = x1 x 2 or f = x1 x 2
9 - Vol. I - 213
10 - Vol. I - 214 R
94. Image is virtual so m = + 3. and f = = 18 cm
11 - Vol. I - 216 2
12 - Vol. I - 216
So from
13 - Vol. I - 215
14 - Vol. I - 215 f (−18 )
m= ⇒3=
15 - Vol. I - 216 f −u (−18 ) − u
16 - Vol. I - 216 ⇒ u = − 12 cm .
17 - Vol. I - 220
18 - Vol. I - 217 95. Focal length of the mirror remains unchanged
19 - Vol. I - 218
distance t nt
20 - Vol. I - 218 96. time = = =
21 - General speed c/x c
22 - Vol. I - 220 v c/µ c
23 - Vol. I - 220 97. ν′ = = = =ν
λ′ λ / µ λ
24 - Vol. I - 222
25 - Vol. I - 218 h' 4
26 - Vol. I - 227 98. µ= ⇒ h ' = µ h = × 18 = 24 cm
h 3
27 - Vol. I – 227-228
1 3 3 r
28 - Vol. I - 228 99. Here sin i = = and hence tan i = =
µ 5 4 4
29 - Vol. I - 229
30 - Vol. I - 229 This gives r = 3m , hence diameter = 6m
31 - Vol. I - 228
32 - Vol. I - 228 100. Focal length of the combination can be
33 - Vol. I - 228 calculated as
34 - Vol. I - 228
35 - Vol. I - 228 1
=
1
+
1
⇒
1
=
1
+
1
⇒F=−
200
cm
36 - Vol. I - 230 F f1 f2 F (+40 ) (−25 ) 3

37 - Vol. I - 232 100 100

38 - Vol. I - 235 ∴P = = = −1 . 5 D
F − 200 / 3
39 - Vol. I - 232
40 - Vol. I - 232 101. O = I1I 2 = 4 × 16 = 8 cm
41 - Vol. I - 233
µ2 µ1 µ 2 − µ1
42 - Vol. I - 233 102. By using formula − =
v u R
43 - Vol. I - 235
44 - Vol. I - 235 1.5 1 (1 . 5 − 1)
⇒ − = ⇒ v = − 30 cm .
45 - Vol. I - 236 v (−15 ) + 30
 Negative sign shows that, image is obtained on x

the same side of object i.e. towards left.

Object Image
103. Focal length of the system (concave mirror)
R 30
F= = =10 cm 8 cm 12 cm
2µ 2 × 1 .5
12 +(6–x)
In order to have a real image of the same t = 6 cm

size of the object, object must According to property of plane mirror

be placed at centre of
x + 8 = 12 + 6 – x ⇒x = 5 cm
curvature u = (2f).
t 6
Also µ = ⇒ µ = = 1.2
A (µ ′ − 1) x 5
104 For dispersion without deviation =
A′ (µ − 1)
110. I max = ( I1 + I 2 ) 2 = ( I + 4 I ) 2 = 9 I
4 (1 . 72 − 1) 0 . 72 4 × 0 . 54
= = or AF = = 3o
AF (1 .54 − 1) 0 . 54 0 . 72
I min = ( I1 − I 2 ) 2 = ( I − 4 I ) 2 = I
105. A = r + 0 ⇒ r = 30 o
λD
111. β= ⇒ If D becomes twice and d becomes
d
From Snell’s law at surface AB
half so β becomes four times.
sin i
µ=
sin r
112 At point A, resultant intensity
sin i
⇒ 2 = ⇒ i = 45 o I A = I1 + I2 = 5 I; and at point B
sin 30 o

1 1 1 I B = I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I 2 cos π = 5 I + 4 I
106. P = = =−
f −(defected far point) 2
IB = 9 I so I B − I A = 4 I.
100 100
107. P = \ f = cm λD
f 8 113. β= ; ∴B ∝ λ
d

D 25 ´ 8 λ ' 0.4
m = 1+ = 1+ =3 = ⇒ λ ' = 0 . 3 mm .
f 100 λ 4/3

β β
108. When the final image is at the least distance of 114. Shift = (µ − 1) t = (1 .5) × 2 × 10 − 6 = 2 β
λ (5000 × 10 −10 )

distinct vision, then i.e., 2 fringes upwards.

fo  f  200  5  200 × 6 115. Since P is ahead of Q by 90o and path
m=−  1 + e  = 1 + = = − 48
fe  D 5  25  5×5
difference between P and Q is λ / 4 . Therefore
When the final image is at infinity, then
at A, phase difference is zero, so intensity is
−f 200
m= o = = − 40
fe 5 4I. At C it is zero and at B, the phase

109. Let x be the apparent position of the silvered difference is 90o, so intensity is 2I.

surface. (2 n − 1)λ
116. S1 P − S 2 P =
2

b (2n − 1)λ b2
= ⇒λ =
2d 2 (2n − 1)d
 b 2 b2 1 1 1
Where n = 1, 2............, λ = , 128. X C = = i.e. X C ∝
d 3d ωC 2π fC f
2 λD 129. Theory point
117. Width of central maxima =
d
V V
2 × 2 . 1 × 5 × 10 −7
130. For the first circuit i= =
= = 1 . 4 × 10 − 3 m = 1 . 4 mm . Z R 2 + ω 2 L2
0 . 15 × 10 − 2
∴ Increase in ω will cause a decrease in i.
118. The phase difference (φ ) between the wavelets
V
from the top edge and the bottom edge of the For the second circuit i=
1
R +
2

2π ω 2C 2
slit is φ= (d sin θ ) where d is the slit width.
λ
∴ Increase in ω will cause an increase in i.
The first minima of the diffraction pattern
λ 2π  λ 131. V = VR2 + (VL − VC )2
occurs at sin θ = so φ=  d ×  = 2π
d λ  d
= (40) 2 + (60 − 30) 2 = 50V
119. Minimum angular separation
R 10 1
∆θ =
1
=
1 . 22 λ 132. cos φ = = = ⇒ φ = 60o
R. P. d Z 20 2
1 . 22 × 5000 × 10 −10 133. When dc is supplied R=
V 100
= = 100 Ω
= = 0 . 3 × 10 −6 rad
2 i 1

120. By using µ = tan θ p ⇒ µ = tan 60 = 3 , V 100

When ac is supplied Z= = = 200 Ω
i 0 .5
1  1 
also C = sin − 1   ⇒ C = sin − 1  
 134. Resonance frequency
µ
   3
1 1
ω= = = 2500 rad / sec
121. Intensity of polarized light from first polarizer LC 8 × 10 −3
× 20 × 10 −6
100
= = 50 V 220
2 Resonance current = = = 5A
R 44
50
I = 50 cos 2 60 ° = = 12 .5 135. At resonance, LCR circuit behaves as purely
4
resistive circuit, for purely resistive circuit
122. A plane which contains E and the propagation
power factor = 1
direction is called the plane of polarization.

1 T 2 T2
T ∫0
123. irms = i dt =
5
124. Thoery point
125. Power = Vr.m . s. × ir.m . s. × cos φ =0
π π
(Since φ= , therefore cos φ = cos =0)
2 2

i12 + i22 1 2 2 1/ 2
126. irms = = (i1 + i2 )
2 2
T /2

127. Iav =
∫0
i dt
=
2I 0
∫
T /2
dt π
0