2/22/2021 Mock Test 2-complete-test

Mock Test 2
English
Instruction: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The other day, a student asked me what exactly the word  ‘liberal’ mean. She wanted to know whether
‘liberalisation’ promotes ‘liberal’ values. She had noticed that institutions of higher education, which are
supposed to promote liberal values, were finding it difficult to resist ideological and commercial
pressures triggered by the process of economic liberalisation. So, was economic liberalism different from
political liberalism? And what do people mean when they refer to neo-liberal policies? The questions she
was asking could hardly be addressed without invoking the political economy that has emerged over the
last three decades.

When liberalisation of the economy started to receive common consent in the mid-1980s, few people
thought of examining what it would mean for education. Then, in 1991 came the dramatic announcement
of a new economic policy, accompanied by a package of steps to be taken for ‘structural adjustment’ of the
Indian economy. The purpose of ‘adjustment’ was to facilitate India’s integration into the global economy.
Even then, education didn’t receive specific attention. Some critics of the new economic policy expressed
anxiety about the consequences of state withdrawal from its prime role and responsibility in sectors like
education and health. The national policy on education drafted in 1986 had mostly adhered to the
established state-centric view. A major review in the early 1990s vaguely resonated the new discourse of
liberalisation, but offered little evidence of change in the basic perspective. The Programme of Action,
announced in 1992, stopped short of admitting that the state’s role in education was about to change.
Nobody could imagine at that point that over the following decades, the state’s role in education would
change so much that the Constitution would begin to sound like rhetoric.

In order to examine what happened, we must make a distinction between school and higher education.
When Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao spoke about liberalisation as the central theme of the new
economic policy, he also referred to the ‘structural adjustment programme’. Under this programme, the
World Bank offered a ‘safety net’ for primary education. It meant additional resources and policy guidance
to enable the system to expand its capacity for enrolling children. The District Primary Education
Programme (DPEP), which later mutated into Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), symbolised the ‘safety net’
approach. It was designed to cushion the harsh effects that ‘structural adjustment’ under liberalisation
was expected to cause in welfare sectors like children’s education and health. The DPEP and SSA
efficiently served this role, creating an ethos in which children’s education seemed to have become a
major priority of the state. The success of these programmes emboldened the government to push the
Right to Education (RTE) law through Parliament. Governments of many States registered their anxiety
over their capacity to fund the implementation of RTE after the Central assistance provided under SSA
runs dry.

In higher education, the new economic policy designed on the principles of liberalisation offered no safety
net. From the beginning, the assumption was that higher education ought to generate its own resources.
An accompanying idea was that higher education should respond to market demands in terms of
knowledge and skills. Over the last three decades, these two guiding ideas have dented the established
system of higher education in all parts of the country. Both Central and State universities have been
starved of financial resources. Cutting down on permanent staff, both teaching and non-teaching, has
emerged as the best strategy to cope with financial crunch. A complex set of outcomes, specific to different

https://courses.edutap.co.in/admin/products/all-questions/178220 1/130
2/22/2021 Mock Test 2-complete-test

universities, makes any general analysis difficult. In some, self-financed courses, mostly vocational in
nature, have provided a means of income. In others, such courses have been resisted by teacher unions.
However, these unions have gradually lost their power and say because they are broken from within.

Q.1) Which of the following offered a safety net for primary education? 

[A] Government of India

[B] World economic forum

[C] World bank

[D] The District Primary Education Programme (DPEP)

[E] None of these

Instruction: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The other day, a student asked me what exactly the word  ‘liberal’  mean. She wanted to know whether
‘liberalisation’ promotes ‘liberal’ values. She had noticed that institutions of higher education, which are
supposed to promote liberal values, were finding it difficult to resist ideological and commercial
pressures triggered by the process of economic liberalisation. So, was economic liberalism different from
political liberalism? And what do people mean when they refer to neo-liberal policies? The questions she
was asking could hardly be addressed without invoking the political economy that has emerged over the
last three decades. When liberalisation of the economy started to receive common consent in the mid-
1980s, few people thought of examining what it would mean for education. Then, in 1991 came the
dramatic announcement of a new economic policy, accompanied by a package of steps to be taken for
‘structural adjustment’ of the Indian economy. The purpose of ‘adjustment’ was to facilitate India’s
integration into the global economy. Even then, education didn’t receive specific attention. Some critics of
the new economic policy expressed anxiety about the consequences of state withdrawal from its prime role
and responsibility in sectors like education and health. The national policy on education drafted in 1986
had mostly adhered to the established state-centric view. A major review in the early 1990s vaguely
resonated the new discourse of liberalisation, but offered little evidence of change in the basic perspective.
The Programme of Action, announced in 1992, stopped short of admitting that the state’s role in
education was about to change. Nobody could imagine at that point that over the following decades, the
state’s role in education would change so much that the Constitution would begin to sound like rhetoric.
In order to examine what happened, we must make a distinction between school and higher education.
When Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao spoke about liberalisation as the central theme of the new
economic policy, he also referred to the ‘structural adjustment programme’. Under this programme, the
World Bank offered a ‘safety net’ for primary education. It meant additional resources and policy guidance
to enable the system to expand its capacity for enrolling children. The District Primary Education
Programme (DPEP), which later mutated into Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), symbolised the ‘safety net’
approach. It was designed to cushion the harsh effects that ‘structural adjustment’ under liberalisation
was expected to cause in welfare sectors like children’s education and health. The DPEP and SSA
efficiently served this role, creating an ethos in which children’s education seemed to have become a
major priority of the state. The success of these programmes emboldened the government to push the
Right to Education (RTE) law through Parliament. Governments of many States registered their anxiety
over their capacity to fund the implementation of RTE after the Central assistance provided under SSA
runs dry. In higher education, the new economic policy designed on the principles of liberalisation offered
no safety net. From the beginning, the assumption was that higher education ought to generate its own
resources. An accompanying idea was that higher education should respond to market demands in terms
of knowledge and skills. Over the last three decades, these two guiding ideas have dented the established
system of higher education in all parts of the country. Both Central and State universities have been
https://courses.edutap.co.in/admin/products/all-questions/178220 2/130
2/22/2021 Mock Test 2-complete-test

starved of financial resources. Cutting down on permanent staff, both teaching and non-teaching, has
emerged as the best strategy to cope with financial crunch. A complex set of outcomes, specific to different
universities, makes any general analysis difficult. In some, self-financed courses, mostly vocational in
nature, have provided a means of income. In others, such courses have been resisted by teacher unions.
However, these unions have gradually lost their power and say because they are broken from within.

Q.2) Which of the following statement is/are true according to the passage?

i. The purpose of ‘adjustment’ was to facilitate India’s integration into the global economy.

ii. It was designed to cushion the harsh effects that ‘structural adjustment’ under liberalisation was not
expected to cause in welfare sectors like children’s education and health.

iii. The national policy on education drafted in 1986 had mostly adhered to the established state-centric
view.

[A] Only i

[B] Only i and iii

[C] Only iii

[D] Only ii

[E] All i, ii and iii

Instruction: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The other day, a student asked me what exactly the word  ‘liberal’  mean. She wanted to know whether
‘liberalisation’ promotes ‘liberal’ values. She had noticed that institutions of higher education, which are
supposed to promote liberal values, were finding it difficult to resist ideological and commercial
pressures triggered by the process of economic liberalisation. So, was economic liberalism different from
political liberalism? And what do people mean when they refer to neo-liberal policies? The questions she
was asking could hardly be addressed without invoking the political economy that has emerged over the
last three decades. When liberalisation of the economy started to receive common consent in the mid-
1980s, few people thought of examining what it would mean for education. Then, in 1991 came the
dramatic announcement of a new economic policy, accompanied by a package of steps to be taken for
‘structural adjustment’ of the Indian economy. The purpose of ‘adjustment’ was to facilitate India’s
integration into the global economy. Even then, education didn’t receive specific attention. Some critics of
the new economic policy expressed anxiety about the consequences of state withdrawal from its prime role
and responsibility in sectors like education and health. The national policy on education drafted in 1986
had mostly adhered to the established state-centric view. A major review in the early 1990s vaguely
resonated the new discourse of liberalisation, but offered little evidence of change in the basic perspective.
The Programme of Action, announced in 1992, stopped short of admitting that the state’s role in
education was about to change. Nobody could imagine at that point that over the following decades, the
state’s role in education would change so much that the Constitution would begin to sound like rhetoric.
In order to examine what happened, we must make a distinction between school and higher education.
When Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao spoke about liberalisation as the central theme of the new
economic policy, he also referred to the ‘structural adjustment programme’. Under this programme, the
World Bank offered a ‘safety net’ for primary education. It meant additional resources and policy guidance
to enable the system to expand its capacity for enrolling children. The District Primary Education
Programme (DPEP), which later mutated into Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), symbolised the ‘safety net’
approach. It was designed to cushion the harsh effects that ‘structural adjustment’ under liberalisation
was expected to cause in welfare sectors like children’s education and health. The DPEP and SSA

https://courses.edutap.co.in/admin/products/all-questions/178220 3/130
2/22/2021 Mock Test 2-complete-test

efficiently served this role, creating an ethos in which children’s education seemed to have become a
major priority of the state. The success of these programmes emboldened the government to push the
Right to Education (RTE) law through Parliament. Governments of many States registered their anxiety
over their capacity to fund the implementation of RTE after the Central assistance provided under SSA
runs dry. In higher education, the new economic policy designed on the principles of liberalisation offered
no safety net. From the beginning, the assumption was that higher education ought to generate its own
resources. An accompanying idea was that higher education should respond to market demands in terms
of knowledge and skills. Over the last three decades, these two guiding ideas have dented the established
system of higher education in all parts of the country. Both Central and State universities have been
starved of financial resources. Cutting down on permanent staff, both teaching and non-teaching, has
emerged as the best strategy to cope with financial crunch. A complex set of outcomes, specific to different
universities, makes any general analysis difficult. In some, self-financed courses, mostly vocational in
nature, have provided a means of income. In others, such courses have been resisted by teacher unions.
However, these unions have gradually lost their power and say because they are broken from within.

Q.3) What was the central theme of new economic policy according to the given passage? 

[A] SarvaShikshaAbhiyan (SSA)

[B] Education and health.

[C] New economic policy

[D] Right to Education (RTE)

[E] Liberalization

Instruction: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The other day, a student asked me what exactly the word  ‘liberal’  mean. She wanted to know whether
‘liberalisation’ promotes ‘liberal’ values. She had noticed that institutions of higher education, which are
supposed to promote liberal values, were finding it difficult to resist ideological and commercial
pressures triggered by the process of economic liberalisation. So, was economic liberalism different from
political liberalism? And what do people mean when they refer to neo-liberal policies? The questions she
was asking could hardly be addressed without invoking the political economy that has emerged over the
last three decades. When liberalisation of the economy started to receive common consent in the mid-
1980s, few people thought of examining what it would mean for education. Then, in 1991 came the
dramatic announcement of a new economic policy, accompanied by a package of steps to be taken for
‘structural adjustment’ of the Indian economy. The purpose of ‘adjustment’ was to facilitate India’s
integration into the global economy. Even then, education didn’t receive specific attention. Some critics of
the new economic policy expressed anxiety about the consequences of state withdrawal from its prime role
and responsibility in sectors like education and health. The national policy on education drafted in 1986
had mostly adhered to the established state-centric view. A major review in the early 1990s vaguely
resonated the new discourse of liberalisation, but offered little evidence of change in the basic perspective.
The Programme of Action, announced in 1992, stopped short of admitting that the state’s role in
education was about to change. Nobody could imagine at that point that over the following decades, the
state’s role in education would change so much that the Constitution would begin to sound like rhetoric.
In order to examine what happened, we must make a distinction between school and higher education.
When Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao spoke about liberalisation as the central theme of the new
economic policy, he also referred to the ‘structural adjustment programme’. Under this programme, the
World Bank offered a ‘safety net’ for primary education. It meant additional resources and policy guidance
to enable the system to expand its capacity for enrolling children. The District Primary Education
Programme (DPEP), which later mutated into Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), symbolised the ‘safety net’
https://courses.edutap.co.in/admin/products/all-questions/178220 4/130
2/22/2021 Mock Test 2-complete-test

approach. It was designed to cushion the harsh effects that ‘structural adjustment’ under liberalisation
was expected to cause in welfare sectors like children’s education and health. The DPEP and SSA
efficiently served this role, creating an ethos in which children’s education seemed to have become a
major priority of the state. The success of these programmes emboldened the government to push the
Right to Education (RTE) law through Parliament. Governments of many States registered their anxiety
over their capacity to fund the implementation of RTE after the Central assistance provided under SSA
runs dry. In higher education, the new economic policy designed on the principles of liberalisation offered
no safety net. From the beginning, the assumption was that higher education ought to generate its own
resources. An accompanying idea was that higher education should respond to market demands in terms
of knowledge and skills. Over the last three decades, these two guiding ideas have dented the established
system of higher education in all parts of the country. Both Central and State universities have been
starved of financial resources. Cutting down on permanent staff, both teaching and non-teaching, has
emerged as the best strategy to cope with financial crunch. A complex set of outcomes, specific to different
universities, makes any general analysis difficult. In some, self-financed courses, mostly vocational in
nature, have provided a means of income. In others, such courses have been resisted by teacher unions.
However, these unions have gradually lost their power and say because they are broken from within.

Q.4) Which two guiding ideas have dented the established system of higher education in the country? 

[A] The DPEP and SSA should serve their role efficiently

[B] Higher education should respond to market demands in terms of knowledge and skills.

[C] Cutting down on permanent staff, both teaching and non-teaching

[D] Additional resources and policy guidance to enable the system to expand its capacity

[E] None of these

Instruction: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The other day, a student asked me what exactly the word  ‘liberal’  mean. She wanted to know whether
‘liberalisation’ promotes ‘liberal’ values. She had noticed that institutions of higher education, which are
supposed to promote liberal values, were finding it difficult to resist ideological and commercial
pressures triggered by the process of economic liberalisation. So, was economic liberalism different from
political liberalism? And what do people mean when they refer to neo-liberal policies? The questions she
was asking could hardly be addressed without invoking the political economy that has emerged over the
last three decades. When liberalisation of the economy started to receive common consent in the mid-
1980s, few people thought of examining what it would mean for education. Then, in 1991 came the
dramatic announcement of a new economic policy, accompanied by a package of steps to be taken for
‘structural adjustment’ of the Indian economy. The purpose of ‘adjustment’ was to facilitate India’s
integration into the global economy. Even then, education didn’t receive specific attention. Some critics of
the new economic policy expressed anxiety about the consequences of state withdrawal from its prime role
and responsibility in sectors like education and health. The national policy on education drafted in 1986
had mostly adhered to the established state-centric view. A major review in the early 1990s vaguely
resonated the new discourse of liberalisation, but offered little evidence of change in the basic perspective.
The Programme of Action, announced in 1992, stopped short of admitting that the state’s role in
education was about to change. Nobody could imagine at that point that over the following decades, the
state’s role in education would change so much that the Constitution would begin to sound like rhetoric.
In order to examine what happened, we must make a distinction between school and higher education.
When Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao spoke about liberalisation as the central theme of the new
economic policy, he also referred to the ‘structural adjustment programme’. Under this programme, the
World Bank offered a ‘safety net’ for primary education. It meant additional resources and policy guidance
https://courses.edutap.co.in/admin/products/all-questions/178220 5/130
2/22/2021 Mock Test 2-complete-test

to enable the system to expand its capacity for enrolling children. The District Primary Education
Programme (DPEP), which later mutated into Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), symbolised the ‘safety net’
approach. It was designed to cushion the harsh effects that ‘structural adjustment’ under liberalisation
was expected to cause in welfare sectors like children’s education and health. The DPEP and SSA
efficiently served this role, creating an ethos in which children’s education seemed to have become a
major priority of the state. The success of these programmes emboldened the government to push the
Right to Education (RTE) law through Parliament. Governments of many States registered their anxiety
over their capacity to fund the implementation of RTE after the Central assistance provided under SSA
runs dry. In higher education, the new economic policy designed on the principles of liberalisation offered
no safety net. From the beginning, the assumption was that higher education ought to generate its own
resources. An accompanying idea was that higher education should respond to market demands in terms
of knowledge and skills. Over the last three decades, these two guiding ideas have dented the established
system of higher education in all parts of the country. Both Central and State universities have been
starved of financial resources. Cutting down on permanent staff, both teaching and non-teaching, has
emerged as the best strategy to cope with financial crunch. A complex set of outcomes, specific to different
universities, makes any general analysis difficult. In some, self-financed courses, mostly vocational in
nature, have provided a means of income. In others, such courses have been resisted by teacher unions.
However, these unions have gradually lost their power and say because they are broken from within.

Q.5) Which of the following statement is not true according to the passage? 

i.  The questions she was asking could hardly be addressed without invoking the political economy that
has emerged over the last three decades.

ii. Some critics of the new economic policy expressed anxiety about the consequences of state withdrawal
from its prime role and responsibility in sectors like education and health.

iii.  In 1991 came the dramatic announcement of a new economic policy, accompanied by a package of
steps to be taken for ‘structural adjustment’ of the Indian education.

iv. All are true.

[A] Only (i)

[B] Only (ii)

[C] Only (iii)

[D] (ii) and (iii)

[E] (i), (ii) and (iii)

Instruction: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The other day, a student asked me what exactly the word  ‘liberal’  mean. She wanted to know whether
‘liberalisation’ promotes ‘liberal’ values. She had noticed that institutions of higher education, which are
supposed to promote liberal values, were finding it difficult to resist ideological and commercial
pressures triggered by the process of economic liberalisation. So, was economic liberalism different from
political liberalism? And what do people mean when they refer to neo-liberal policies? The questions she
was asking could hardly be addressed without invoking the political economy that has emerged over the
last three decades. When liberalisation of the economy started to receive common consent in the mid-
1980s, few people thought of examining what it would mean for education. Then, in 1991 came the
dramatic announcement of a new economic policy, accompanied by a package of steps to be taken for
‘structural adjustment’ of the Indian economy. The purpose of ‘adjustment’ was to facilitate India’s
integration into the global economy. Even then, education didn’t receive specific attention. Some critics of
https://courses.edutap.co.in/admin/products/all-questions/178220 6/130
2/22/2021 Mock Test 2-complete-test

the new economic policy expressed anxiety about the consequences of state withdrawal from its prime role
and responsibility in sectors like education and health. The national policy on education drafted in 1986
had mostly adhered to the established state-centric view. A major review in the early 1990s vaguely
resonated the new discourse of liberalisation, but offered little evidence of change in the basic perspective.
The Programme of Action, announced in 1992, stopped short of admitting that the state’s role in
education was about to change. Nobody could imagine at that point that over the following decades, the
state’s role in education would change so much that the Constitution would begin to sound like rhetoric.
In order to examine what happened, we must make a distinction between school and higher education.
When Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao spoke about liberalisation as the central theme of the new
economic policy, he also referred to the ‘structural adjustment programme’. Under this programme, the
World Bank offered a ‘safety net’ for primary education. It meant additional resources and policy guidance
to enable the system to expand its capacity for enrolling children. The District Primary Education
Programme (DPEP), which later mutated into Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), symbolised the ‘safety net’
approach. It was designed to cushion the harsh effects that ‘structural adjustment’ under liberalisation
was expected to cause in welfare sectors like children’s education and health. The DPEP and SSA
efficiently served this role, creating an ethos in which children’s education seemed to have become a
major priority of the state. The success of these programmes emboldened the government to push the
Right to Education (RTE) law through Parliament. Governments of many States registered their anxiety
over their capacity to fund the implementation of RTE after the Central assistance provided under SSA
runs dry. In higher education, the new economic policy designed on the principles of liberalisation offered
no safety net. From the beginning, the assumption was that higher education ought to generate its own
resources. An accompanying idea was that higher education should respond to market demands in terms
of knowledge and skills. Over the last three decades, these two guiding ideas have dented the established
system of higher education in all parts of the country. Both Central and State universities have been
starved of financial resources. Cutting down on permanent staff, both teaching and non-teaching, has
emerged as the best strategy to cope with financial crunch. A complex set of outcomes, specific to different
universities, makes any general analysis difficult. In some, self-financed courses, mostly vocational in
nature, have provided a means of income. In others, such courses have been resisted by teacher unions.
However, these unions have gradually lost their power and say because they are broken from within.

Q.6) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the
passage: Triggered.

(i)Started

(ii) Stooped

(iii) Arrested

[A] Only (i)

[B] Only (ii)

[C] Only (iii)

[D] (ii) and (iii)

[E] (i), (ii) and (iii)

Instruction: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The other day, a student asked me what exactly the word  ‘liberal’  mean. She wanted to know whether
‘liberalisation’ promotes ‘liberal’ values. She had noticed that institutions of higher education, which are
supposed to promote liberal values, were finding it difficult to resist ideological and commercial

https://courses.edutap.co.in/admin/products/all-questions/178220 7/130
2/22/2021 Mock Test 2-complete-test

pressures triggered by the process of economic liberalisation. So, was economic liberalism different from
political liberalism? And what do people mean when they refer to neo-liberal policies? The questions she
was asking could hardly be addressed without invoking the political economy that has emerged over the
last three decades. When liberalisation of the economy started to receive common consent in the mid-
1980s, few people thought of examining what it would mean for education. Then, in 1991 came the
dramatic announcement of a new economic policy, accompanied by a package of steps to be taken for
‘structural adjustment’ of the Indian economy. The purpose of ‘adjustment’ was to facilitate India’s
integration into the global economy. Even then, education didn’t receive specific attention. Some critics of
the new economic policy expressed anxiety about the consequences of state withdrawal from its prime role
and responsibility in sectors like education and health. The national policy on education drafted in 1986
had mostly adhered to the established state-centric view. A major review in the early 1990s vaguely
resonated the new discourse of liberalisation, but offered little evidence of change in the basic perspective.
The Programme of Action, announced in 1992, stopped short of admitting that the state’s role in
education was about to change. Nobody could imagine at that point that over the following decades, the
state’s role in education would change so much that the Constitution would begin to sound like rhetoric.
In order to examine what happened, we must make a distinction between school and higher education.
When Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao spoke about liberalisation as the central theme of the new
economic policy, he also referred to the ‘structural adjustment programme’. Under this programme, the
World Bank offered a ‘safety net’ for primary education. It meant additional resources and policy guidance
to enable the system to expand its capacity for enrolling children. The District Primary Education
Programme (DPEP), which later mutated into Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), symbolised the ‘safety net’
approach. It was designed to cushion the harsh effects that ‘structural adjustment’ under liberalisation
was expected to cause in welfare sectors like children’s education and health. The DPEP and SSA
efficiently served this role, creating an ethos in which children’s education seemed to have become a
major priority of the state. The success of these programmes emboldened the government to push the
Right to Education (RTE) law through Parliament. Governments of many States registered their anxiety
over their capacity to fund the implementation of RTE after the Central assistance provided under SSA
runs dry. In higher education, the new economic policy designed on the principles of liberalisation offered
no safety net. From the beginning, the assumption was that higher education ought to generate its own
resources. An accompanying idea was that higher education should respond to market demands in terms
of knowledge and skills. Over the last three decades, these two guiding ideas have dented the established
system of higher education in all parts of the country. Both Central and State universities have been
starved of financial resources. Cutting down on permanent staff, both teaching and non-teaching, has
emerged as the best strategy to cope with financial crunch. A complex set of outcomes, specific to different
universities, makes any general analysis difficult. In some, self-financed courses, mostly vocational in
nature, have provided a means of income. In others, such courses have been resisted by teacher unions.
However, these unions have gradually lost their power and say because they are broken from within.

Q.7) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the
passage: Liberal. 

(i)Kind

(ii) Generous

(ii) Narrow-minded

[A] Only (i)

[B] Only (iii)

[C] (i) and (ii)

[D] (i) and (iii)

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2/22/2021 Mock Test 2-complete-test

[E] (i), (ii) and (iii)

Instruction: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The other day, a student asked me what exactly the word  ‘liberal’  mean. She wanted to know whether
‘liberalisation’ promotes ‘liberal’ values. She had noticed that institutions of higher education, which are
supposed to promote liberal values, were finding it difficult to resist ideological and commercial
pressures triggered by the process of economic liberalisation. So, was economic liberalism different from
political liberalism? And what do people mean when they refer to neo-liberal policies? The questions she
was asking could hardly be addressed without invoking the political economy that has emerged over the
last three decades. When liberalisation of the economy started to receive common consent in the mid-
1980s, few people thought of examining what it would mean for education. Then, in 1991 came the
dramatic announcement of a new economic policy, accompanied by a package of steps to be taken for
‘structural adjustment’ of the Indian economy. The purpose of ‘adjustment’ was to facilitate India’s
integration into the global economy. Even then, education didn’t receive specific attention. Some critics of
the new economic policy expressed anxiety about the consequences of state withdrawal from its prime role
and responsibility in sectors like education and health. The national policy on education drafted in 1986
had mostly adhered to the established state-centric view. A major review in the early 1990s vaguely
resonated the new discourse of liberalisation, but offered little evidence of change in the basic perspective.
The Programme of Action, announced in 1992, stopped short of admitting that the state’s role in
education was about to change. Nobody could imagine at that point that over the following decades, the
state’s role in education would change so much that the Constitution would begin to sound like rhetoric.
In order to examine what happened, we must make a distinction between school and higher education.
When Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao spoke about liberalisation as the central theme of the new
economic policy, he also referred to the ‘structural adjustment programme’. Under this programme, the
World Bank offered a ‘safety net’ for primary education. It meant additional resources and policy guidance
to enable the system to expand its capacity for enrolling children. The District Primary Education
Programme (DPEP), which later mutated into Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), symbolised the ‘safety net’
approach. It was designed to cushion the harsh effects that ‘structural adjustment’ under liberalisation
was expected to cause in welfare sectors like children’s education and health. The DPEP and SSA
efficiently served this role, creating an ethos in which children’s education seemed to have become a
major priority of the state. The success of these programmes emboldened the government to push the
Right to Education (RTE) law through Parliament. Governments of many States registered their anxiety
over their capacity to fund the implementation of RTE after the Central assistance provided under SSA
runs dry. In higher education, the new economic policy designed on the principles of liberalisation offered
no safety net. From the beginning, the assumption was that higher education ought to generate its own
resources. An accompanying idea was that higher education should respond to market demands in terms
of knowledge and skills. Over the last three decades, these two guiding ideas have dented the established
system of higher education in all parts of the country. Both Central and State universities have been
starved of financial resources. Cutting down on permanent staff, both teaching and non-teaching, has
emerged as the best strategy to cope with financial crunch. A complex set of outcomes, specific to different
universities, makes any general analysis difficult. In some, self-financed courses, mostly vocational in
nature, have provided a means of income. In others, such courses have been resisted by teacher unions.
However, these unions have gradually lost their power and say because they are broken from within.

Q.8) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the
passage:

Rhetoric. 

(i)Mispronouncement

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(ii) Oratory

(iii) Silent

[A] Only (i)

[B] (i) and (iii)

[C] Only (iii)

[D] (ii) and (iii)

[E] Only (iii)

Instruction: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in
it.

Q.9) Rita was in the courtyard (1) / when the burglars (2) / entered into her house (3) /No error (4)

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

Instruction: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in
it.

Q.10) Our teacher 1)/ emphasised on the use 2)/ of correct grammar. 3)/ No error 4)

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

Instruction: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by
a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

Countries are (Q11) species to move to new places by enabling climate change, and at the same time,
making it harder for them to move. Across geologic time, the Earth has apparently survived five mass
extinctions, and we are on the verge of the Sixth. We don’t believe humanity can survive this wave, unless
we make rapid (Q12). There has been a rising tide of ignorance in the face of absolute facts in the global
arena. The very science that the world is (Q13) to reach the moon, Mars and beyond, is now telling us that
we might have to abandon ship if we keep polluting and (Q14) the environment and have leaders who
ignore science. Large corporations, especially energy corporations, release carbon emissions into the
atmosphere. Factors that have been influencing these emissions are very much within our control. One of
them is consumerism which (Q15) climate change. The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United

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Nations, in its report titled ‘Livestock’s Long Shadow’, argues that livestock is a major stressor on many
ecosystems and on the planet as a whole. It is one of the largest sources of greenhouse gases, and these
gases will only increase if we, as consumers, don’t make conscious (Q16).

Q.11) Which of the following words should fill in the blank (11) to make a contextually correct and
meaningful sentence?

[A] carrying

[B] abandoning

[C] forcing

[D] finding

[E] ensuring

Instruction: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by
a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

Countries are (Q11) species to move to new places by enabling climate change, and at the same time,
making it harder for them to move. Across geologic time, the Earth has apparently survived five mass
extinctions, and we are on the verge of the Sixth. We don’t believe humanity can survive this wave, unless
we make rapid (Q12). There has been a rising tide of ignorance in the face of absolute facts in the global
arena. The very science that the world is (Q13) to reach the moon, Mars and beyond, is now telling us that
we might have to abandon ship if we keep polluting and (Q14) the environment and have leaders who
ignore science. Large corporations, especially energy corporations, release carbon emissions into the
atmosphere. Factors that have been influencing these emissions are very much within our control. One of
them is consumerism which (Q15) climate change. The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United
Nations, in its report titled ‘Livestock’s Long Shadow’, argues that livestock is a major stressor on many
ecosystems and on the planet as a whole. It is one of the largest sources of greenhouse gases, and these
gases will only increase if we, as consumers, don’t make conscious (Q16).

Q.12) Which of the following words should fill in the blank (12) to make a contextually correct and
meaningful sentence?

[A] proceeds

[B] amends

[C] plots

[D] gauge

[E] atone

Instruction: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by
a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

Countries are (Q11) species to move to new places by enabling climate change, and at the same time,
making it harder for them to move. Across geologic time, the Earth has apparently survived five mass
extinctions, and we are on the verge of the Sixth. We don’t believe humanity can survive this wave, unless
we make rapid (Q12). There has been a rising tide of ignorance in the face of absolute facts in the global

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arena. The very science that the world is (Q13) to reach the moon, Mars and beyond, is now telling us that
we might have to abandon ship if we keep polluting and (Q14) the environment and have leaders who
ignore science. Large corporations, especially energy corporations, release carbon emissions into the
atmosphere. Factors that have been influencing these emissions are very much within our control. One of
them is consumerism which (Q15) climate change. The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United
Nations, in its report titled ‘Livestock’s Long Shadow’, argues that livestock is a major stressor on many
ecosystems and on the planet as a whole. It is one of the largest sources of greenhouse gases, and these
gases will only increase if we, as consumers, don’t make conscious (Q16).

Q.13) Which of the following words should fill in the blank (13) to make a contextually correct and
meaningful sentence?

[A] daunting

[B] craving

[C] heartening

[D] scraping

[E] using

Instruction: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by
a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

Countries are (Q11) species to move to new places by enabling climate change, and at the same time,
making it harder for them to move. Across geologic time, the Earth has apparently survived five mass
extinctions, and we are on the verge of the Sixth. We don’t believe humanity can survive this wave, unless
we make rapid (Q12). There has been a rising tide of ignorance in the face of absolute facts in the global
arena. The very science that the world is (Q13) to reach the moon, Mars and beyond, is now telling us that
we might have to abandon ship if we keep polluting and (Q14) the environment and have leaders who
ignore science. Large corporations, especially energy corporations, release carbon emissions into the
atmosphere. Factors that have been influencing these emissions are very much within our control. One of
them is consumerism which (Q15) climate change. The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United
Nations, in its report titled ‘Livestock’s Long Shadow’, argues that livestock is a major stressor on many
ecosystems and on the planet as a whole. It is one of the largest sources of greenhouse gases, and these
gases will only increase if we, as consumers, don’t make conscious (Q16).

Q.14) Which of the following words should fill in the blank (14) to make a contextually correct and
meaningful sentence?

[A] outgrowing

[B] illustrating

[C]  warping

[D] abusing

[E] depraving

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Instruction: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by
a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

Countries are (Q11) species to move to new places by enabling climate change, and at the same time,
making it harder for them to move. Across geologic time, the Earth has apparently survived five mass
extinctions, and we are on the verge of the Sixth. We don’t believe humanity can survive this wave, unless
we make rapid (Q12). There has been a rising tide of ignorance in the face of absolute facts in the global
arena. The very science that the world is (Q13) to reach the moon, Mars and beyond, is now telling us that
we might have to abandon ship if we keep polluting and (Q14) the environment and have leaders who
ignore science. Large corporations, especially energy corporations, release carbon emissions into the
atmosphere. Factors that have been influencing these emissions are very much within our control. One of
them is consumerism which (Q15) climate change. The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United
Nations, in its report titled ‘Livestock’s Long Shadow’, argues that livestock is a major stressor on many
ecosystems and on the planet as a whole. It is one of the largest sources of greenhouse gases, and these
gases will only increase if we, as consumers, don’t make conscious (Q16).

Q.15) Which of the following words should fill in the blank (15) to make a contextually correct and
meaningful sentence?

[A] amplifies

[B] misemploys

[C] expounds

[D] elucidates

[E] clucks

Instruction: In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by
a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

Countries are (Q11) species to move to new places by enabling climate change, and at the same time,
making it harder for them to move. Across geologic time, the Earth has apparently survived five mass
extinctions, and we are on the verge of the Sixth. We don’t believe humanity can survive this wave, unless
we make rapid (Q12). There has been a rising tide of ignorance in the face of absolute facts in the global
arena. The very science that the world is (Q13) to reach the moon, Mars and beyond, is now telling us that
we might have to abandon ship if we keep polluting and (Q14) the environment and have leaders who
ignore science. Large corporations, especially energy corporations, release carbon emissions into the
atmosphere. Factors that have been influencing these emissions are very much within our control. One of
them is consumerism which (Q15) climate change. The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United
Nations, in its report titled ‘Livestock’s Long Shadow’, argues that livestock is a major stressor on many
ecosystems and on the planet as a whole. It is one of the largest sources of greenhouse gases, and these
gases will only increase if we, as consumers, don’t make conscious (Q16).

Q.16) Which of the following words should fill in the blank (16) to make a contextually correct and
meaningful sentence?

[A] illuminates

[B] transitive

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[C] choices

[D] reasoning

[E] prophecies

Instruction: Find out the meaning of idioms and phrases mentioned below.

Q.17) End in smoke

[A] catch fire

[B] become smoky

[C] fruitful

[D] come to nothing

[E] none of the above

Instruction: Find out the meaning of idioms and phrases mentioned below.

Q.18)   Stand in good stead

[A] happy and amazed

[B] prove useful

[C] full of attitude

[D] with a feeling to help

[E] perception

Instruction: Find out the meaning of idioms and phrases mentioned below.

Q.19) A slap on wrist

[A] Harsh punishment

[B] Mild punishment

[C] No punishment

[D] Pain in wrist

[E] mechanically poor

Instruction: Find out the meaning of idioms and phrases mentioned below.

Q.20)   Down to the wire.

[A] something that ends at the last minute

[B] something outstanding

[C] desperate actions

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[D] to urge somebody

[E] hollow

Instruction: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The digital economy is carving out new divides between capital and labor, by allowing one firm, or a small
number of firms, to capture an increasingly large market share. With “superstar” companies operating
globally, and (Q21) markets in multiple countries simultaneously, market concentration throughout the
Group of 20 developed and major emerging economies has increased considerably in just the past 15
years. To address this phenomenon, the G20 should create a World Competition Network to restore
competition and address income inequality between capital and labor. As a larger share of total income
shifts to capital across many G20 countries, the World Competition Network would seek to (Q22) the
decline in labor’s share of GDP. During the period after World War II, 70% of national GDP went to labor
income, and the remaining 30% to capital income. John Maynard Keynes described the (Q23) of the labor
share as something of a “miracle.” But the rule has since broken down. Between the mid1980’s and today,
labor’s share of world GDP declined to 58%, while capital’s share rose to 42%.The digital economy is
carving out new divides between capital and labor, by allowing one firm, or a small number of firms, to
capture an increasingly large market share. With “superstar” companies operating globally, and
dominating markets in multiple countries simultaneously, market (Q24) throughout the Group of 20
developed and major emerging economies has increased considerably in just the past 15 years. To
address this phenomenon, the G20 should create a World Competition Network to restore (Q25) and
address income inequality between capital and labor.

Q.21) Fill in the blank (21).

[A] letting up

[B] alleviating

[C] dominating

[D] accessorizing

[E] attributing

Instruction: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The digital economy is carving out new divides between capital and labor, by allowing one firm, or a small
number of firms, to capture an increasingly large market share. With “superstar” companies operating
globally, and (Q21) markets in multiple countries simultaneously, market concentration throughout the
Group of 20 developed and major emerging economies has increased considerably in just the past 15
years. To address this phenomenon, the G20 should create a World Competition Network to restore
competition and address income inequality between capital and labor. As a larger share of total income
shifts to capital across many G20 countries, the World Competition Network would seek to (Q22) the
decline in labor’s share of GDP. During the period after World War II, 70% of national GDP went to labor
income, and the remaining 30% to capital income. John Maynard Keynes described the (Q23) of the labor
share as something of a “miracle.” But the rule has since broken down. Between the mid1980’s and today,

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labor’s share of world GDP declined to 58%, while capital’s share rose to 42%.The digital economy is
carving out new divides between capital and labor, by allowing one firm, or a small number of firms, to
capture an increasingly large market share. With “superstar” companies operating globally, and
dominating markets in multiple countries simultaneously, market (Q24) throughout the Group of 20
developed and major emerging economies has increased considerably in just the past 15 years. To
address this phenomenon, the G20 should create a World Competition Network to restore (Q25) and
address income inequality between capital and labor.

Q.22) Fill in the blank (22).

[A] extricate

[B] reverse

[C] dis-cumber

[D] stagnate

[E] typify

Instruction: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The digital economy is carving out new divides between capital and labor, by allowing one firm, or a small
number of firms, to capture an increasingly large market share. With “superstar” companies operating
globally, and (Q21) markets in multiple countries simultaneously, market concentration throughout the
Group of 20 developed and major emerging economies has increased considerably in just the past 15
years. To address this phenomenon, the G20 should create a World Competition Network to restore
competition and address income inequality between capital and labor. As a larger share of total income
shifts to capital across many G20 countries, the World Competition Network would seek to (Q22) the
decline in labor’s share of GDP. During the period after World War II, 70% of national GDP went to labor
income, and the remaining 30% to capital income. John Maynard Keynes described the (Q23) of the labor
share as something of a “miracle.” But the rule has since broken down. Between the mid1980’s and today,
labor’s share of world GDP declined to 58%, while capital’s share rose to 42%.The digital economy is
carving out new divides between capital and labor, by allowing one firm, or a small number of firms, to
capture an increasingly large market share. With “superstar” companies operating globally, and
dominating markets in multiple countries simultaneously, market (Q24) throughout the Group of 20
developed and major emerging economies has increased considerably in just the past 15 years. To
address this phenomenon, the G20 should create a World Competition Network to restore (Q25) and
address income inequality between capital and labor.

Q.23) Fill in the blank (23).

[A] stability

[B] auxiliary

[C] diffusion

[D] amelioration

[E] despite

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Instruction: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The digital economy is carving out new divides between capital and labor, by allowing one firm, or a small
number of firms, to capture an increasingly large market share. With “superstar” companies operating
globally, and (Q21) markets in multiple countries simultaneously, market concentration throughout the
Group of 20 developed and major emerging economies has increased considerably in just the past 15
years. To address this phenomenon, the G20 should create a World Competition Network to restore
competition and address income inequality between capital and labor. As a larger share of total income
shifts to capital across many G20 countries, the World Competition Network would seek to (Q22) the
decline in labor’s share of GDP. During the period after World War II, 70% of national GDP went to labor
income, and the remaining 30% to capital income. John Maynard Keynes described the (Q23) of the labor
share as something of a “miracle.” But the rule has since broken down. Between the mid1980’s and today,
labor’s share of world GDP declined to 58%, while capital’s share rose to 42%.The digital economy is
carving out new divides between capital and labor, by allowing one firm, or a small number of firms, to
capture an increasingly large market share. With “superstar” companies operating globally, and
dominating markets in multiple countries simultaneously, market (Q24) throughout the Group of 20
developed and major emerging economies has increased considerably in just the past 15 years. To
address this phenomenon, the G20 should create a World Competition Network to restore (Q25) and
address income inequality between capital and labor.

Q.24) Fill in the blank (24).

[A] scattering

[B] vivisection

[C] severance

[D] concentration

[E] dissemination

Instruction: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The digital economy is carving out new divides between capital and labor, by allowing one firm, or a small
number of firms, to capture an increasingly large market share. With “superstar” companies operating
globally, and (Q21) markets in multiple countries simultaneously, market concentration throughout the
Group of 20 developed and major emerging economies has increased considerably in just the past 15
years. To address this phenomenon, the G20 should create a World Competition Network to restore
competition and address income inequality between capital and labor. As a larger share of total income
shifts to capital across many G20 countries, the World Competition Network would seek to (Q22) the
decline in labor’s share of GDP. During the period after World War II, 70% of national GDP went to labor
income, and the remaining 30% to capital income. John Maynard Keynes described the (Q23) of the labor
share as something of a “miracle.” But the rule has since broken down. Between the mid1980’s and today,
labor’s share of world GDP declined to 58%, while capital’s share rose to 42%.The digital economy is
carving out new divides between capital and labor, by allowing one firm, or a small number of firms, to
capture an increasingly large market share. With “superstar” companies operating globally, and
dominating markets in multiple countries simultaneously, market (Q24) throughout the Group of 20
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developed and major emerging economies has increased considerably in just the past 15 years. To
address this phenomenon, the G20 should create a World Competition Network to restore (Q25) and
address income inequality between capital and labor.

Q.25) Fill in the blank (25).

[A] assuagement

[B] dispersion

[C] subservience

[D] acquiescence

[E] completion

Instruction: Find the synonyms for the words given below in bold.

Q.26) Nandu used guile, not intelligence, to win the competition.

[A] innocence

[B] simplicity

[C] artfulness

[D] native

[E] none of the above

Instruction: Find the synonyms for the words given below in bold.

Q.27) The ladies at the ball were too genteel to accept our invitation to the wrestling match.

[A] aggressive

[B] Affecting refinement

[C] commanding

[D] correspondence

[E] none of the above.

Instruction: Find the synonyms for the words given below in bold.

Q.28) Harry gesticulated wildly on the other side of the theater in an attempt to get out attention.

[A] gastric issues

[B] unemployment

[C] boost in the economy

[D] making gestures instead of speaking

[E] none of the above

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Instruction: Find the synonyms for the words given below in bold.

Q.29) The international oil shortage turned into an international oil glut with surprising speed.

[A] overabundance

[B] as smooth as butter

[C] vanishing into the ocean

[D] over the moon

[E] feasible

Instruction: Find the synonyms for the words given below in bold.

Q.30) Their attack against us was gratuitous. We had never done anything to offend them.

[A] seriousness

[B] unprovoked

[C] talkative

[D] void

[E] shrill

Quant
Instruction: Directions (1-2): In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as Quantity I and another
as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option.

Q.1) ABC and CDE are two identical semicircles and B and D are the midpoints of the arc ABC and CDE
respectively. AE is a straight line of length 40 cm.

Quantity I: Area of the shaded region.

Quantity II: 75 cm2.

[A] Quantity I > Quantity II

[B] Quantity I < Quantity II

[C] Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

[D] Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

[E] Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

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Instruction: Directions (1-2): In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as Quantity I and another
as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option.

Q.2) Train A with 80 km/h of speed started from point P for Q and another train B with 100 km/h of speed
started simultaneously from point Q for P. They irst met at point R. After reaching Q and P respectively, train A
continued its journey from point Q to S in the same direction while train B started its return journey from P to
Q without any delay. This time, they reached at point S and Q at the same time. The distance between point P
and Q is 360 km.
Quantity I: The distance between point R and Q.

Quantity II: The distance between point Q and S.

[A] Quantity I > Quantity II
[B] Quantity I < Quantity II

[C] Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

[D] Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

[E] Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

Instruction: Directions (3-5): The following questions are accompanied by three statements A, B and C. You
have to determine which statement(s) is/are necessary/suf icient to answer the question.

Q.3) How many times does the ef iciency of a man exceed that of a woman?

A. 3 women and 2 men working together complete a work in 6 days.

B. 3 men do the same work 5 days sooner than 9 women.
C. Ratio of the ef iciencies of 8 women and 4 men is 1 : 3.

[A] Any two of the three together

[B] All the three together

[C] Only C
[D] Only A and B together

[E] Either C alone or A and B together.

Instruction: Directions (3-5): The following questions are accompanied by three statements A, B and C. You
have to determine which statement(s) is/are necessary/suf icient to answer the question.

Q.4) Find out the length of train A.

A. Train A crosses another train B moving in same direction in 72 sec.

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B. Speed of train A is 25km/h more than that of train B.

C. Length of train B is 20% less than that of train A.

[A] All the three together are not suf icient

[B] Only A and C together

[C] All the three together
[D] Only A and B together

[E] Only B and C together

Instruction: Directions (3-5): The following questions are accompanied by three statements A, B and C. You
have to determine which statement(s) is/are necessary/suf icient to answer the question.

Q.5) Find lateral surface area of a cylinder.

A. Volume of a cone with base same as that of the cylinder and height 30 cm is equal to volume of the cylinder.
B. Circumference of base of the cylinder is 132 cm.

C. Volume of the cylinder is 13860 cm3.

[A] Only A and B together

[B] Only A and C together

[C] All the three together
[D] Any two of the three together

[E] Either A and B together or A and C together

Instruction: Directions (6-10): Given below are the two pie charts. Pie chart I shows the percentage
distribution of different models of bike sold in year 2015 and pie chart II shows the distribution of sale of
these models of bike in 2016 in degree.

PIE CHART -I

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PIE CHART - II

Q.6) If ratio of total sale in 2015 to total sale in 2016 is 5 : 8 then ind the ratio of sale of pulsar and splendor
together in 2015 to the sale of Suzuki and Bullet together in 2016.

[A] 47 : 93
[B] 75 : 98

[C] 58 : 69
[D] 23 : 43

[E] 53 : 84

Instruction: Directions (6-10): Given below are the two pie charts. Pie chart I shows the percentage
distribution of different models of bike sold in year 2015 and pie chart II shows the distribution of sale of
these models of bike in 2016 in degree.

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PIE CHART -I

PIE CHART - II

Q.7) If total sale in 2015 is 42000 and total sale in 2016 decrease by over previous year then ind the
difference in sale of Bullet in 2015 and 2016.

[A] 4400

[B] 5500

[C] 8200
[D] 6400

[E] 5800

Instruction: Directions (6-10): Given below are the two pie charts. Pie chart I shows the percentage
distribution of different models of bike sold in year 2015 and pie chart II shows the distribution of sale of
these models of bike in 2016 in degree.
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PIE CHART -I

PIE CHART - II

Q.8) If ratio of pulsar sold in 2015 to Discover sold in 2016 are in ratio 15 : 7 then Suzuki sold in 2015 is what
percent of Bullet sold in 2016. (approximatly)

[A] 80%

[B] 90%
[C] 85%

[D] 95%

[E] 100%

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Instruction: Directions (6-10): Given below are the two pie charts. Pie chart I shows the percentage
distribution of different models of bike sold in year 2015 and pie chart II shows the distribution of sale of
these models of bike in 2016 in degree.

PIE CHART -I

PIE CHART - II

Q.9) If ratio of total sale of bikes in 2015 to total sale in 2016 is 5 : 12 and selling price of Pulsar per bike in
2015 in 36000 and selling price of bullet per bike in 2016 is 72000 then what is the ratio of total selling price
of Pulsar in 2015 to total selling price of Bullet in 2016.

[A] 75 : 287

[B] 12 : 383
[C] 17 : 288

[D] 19 : 360

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[E] 13 : 269

Instruction: Directions (6-10): Given below are the two pie charts. Pie chart I shows the percentage
distribution of different models of bike sold in year 2015 and pie chart II shows the distribution of sale of
these models of bike in 2016 in degree.

PIE CHART -I

PIE CHART - II

Q.10) If total sale in 2015 and 2016 is equal then pulsar sold in 2015 is what percent more or less than
Discover sold in 2016. (approximately)
[A] 95%

[B] 75%

[C] 80%

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[D] 84%

[E] 92%

Q.11) A trader marks his goods such that he can make 32% pro it and after giving 12% discount. However a
customer availed 20% discount instead of 12%. What is the new pro it percentage of trader ?
[A] 20%

[B] 44%

[C] 30%

[D] 28.8%
[E] none of these

Q.12) A and B working together, can do a piece of work in hours. B and C working together can do it in 3
hours. C and A working together can do it in hours. All of them begin the work at the same time. Find how
much time they will take to inish the piece of work?

[A] 3 hours

[B] 2 hours

[C] 2.5 hours

[D] 1 hours

[E] None of these

Q.13) The length and breadth of a plot are 35 m and 16 m respectively. If the rate of fencing is Rs. 7 per metre,
what is cost of its fencing around the perimeter?
[A] Rs. 3920

[B] Rs. 602

[C] Rs. 714

[D] Rs. 357

[E] none of these

Q.14) P and Q started a business by investing Rs. 45,000 and Rs.54,000 respectively. After four months R
joined the business with a capital of Rs. 30,000. After two more months Q left the business with his capital. At
the end of the year P got a share of Rs. 13,500 in the pro it. What is the total pro it earned?

[A] Rs 26800
[B] Rs 27600

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[C] Rs 28600

[D] Rs 29200
[E] none of these

Q.15) Two types of alloy possess gold and silver in the ratio of 7 : 22 and 21 : 37. In what ratio should these
alloys be mixed so as to have a new alloy in which gold and silver would exist in the ratio 25 : 62?

[A] 13 : 8

[B] 8 : 13
[C] 13 : 12

[D] 6 : 9

[E] None of these

Q.16) One man and six women working together can do a job in 10 days. The same job is done by two men in
‘p’ days and by eight women in p + 5 days. By what percentage is the ef iciency of a man greater than that of a
woman?

[A] 300%

[B] 500%
[C] 600%

[D] 700%

[E] None of these

Q.17) A trader marked his goods at 20% above the cost price. He sold half of the stock at marked price. One
quarter at a discount of 20% on marked price and rest at a discount of 40% on marked price, then his gain
percentage is
[A] 2.5 %

[B] 2.2 %

[C] 2 %
[D] 1.9 %

[E] None of these

Q.18) A person invests money in 3 different schemes for 6 years, 10 years and 12 years at 10%, 12% and
15% simple interest respectively. At the completion of each scheme, he gets the same interest. The ratio of his
investments is

[A] 2:3:5
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[B] 2:5:6

[C] 6:5:2

[D] 6:5:3

[E] None of these

Q.19) In a class the average age of 40 students is 15 years .If 10 new students include then the average age of
students increase by 0.2 , ind the average age (in years) of new students.

[A] 16 yr

[B] 20 yr

[C] 17 yr
[D] 19 yr

[E] 18 yr

Q.20) The S.I on certain sum of money for 15 months at rate of 7.5% per annum exceed the S.I on same sum
at 12.5% per annum for 8 months by Rs 3250 ind sum(in Rs)?
[A] 160000

[B] 20000

[C] 170000

[D] 18000
[E] 312000

Instruction: Directions (21-25): Study the table and answer the following questions

Given below is the table which shows the books published and sold by two company X and Y.

Books Published by % of books sold Books published by % of books sold

Company X company Y

Jan – 25% – 25%

Feb – 40% 500 22%
Mar 250 40% 300 35%
April – 25% – 20%
May 300 – 240 60%

Q.21) What is the average no. of books sold by company Y in the month of Jan, March & April if total books
published in Jan & April by company Y is 540 and books sold by Y in Jan & April is equal?

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[A] 72.5

[B] 77.5

[C] 80
[D] 70

[E] 75

Instruction: Directions (21-25): Study the table and answer the following questions

Given below is the table which shows the books published and sold by two company X and Y.

Q.22) If books sold by company X in Feb is equal to books sold by company Y in May. Then, what is total no. of
books sold by company X & Y in the month of Feb?
[A] 250

[B] 252

[C] 254

[D] 256
[E] 258

Instruction: Directions (21-25): Study the table and answer the following questions

Given below is the table which shows the books published and sold by two company X and Y.

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Q.23) What is the total no. of books sold in the month of March & April by company X & Y if there is an
increment of 20% & 25% in books published by X & Y in April relative to the previous month respectively?

[A] 350

[B] 355
[C] 340

[D] 345

[E] 360

Instruction: Directions (21-25): Study the table and answer the following questions
Given below is the table which shows the books published and sold by two company X and Y.

Q.24) What will be the average no. of books sold by company X in Jan, Feb & March. if the average no. of
books published by X in Jan, Feb & March in 450 and books sold in Jan is equals to books sold in March.?

[A] 150

[B] 155

[C] 165
[D] 160

[E] 170
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Instruction: Directions (21-25): Study the table and answer the following questions
Given below is the table which shows the books published and sold by two company X and Y.

Q.25) If the total books sold by company Y in March, April & May are 300, then what is the ratio of books
published in the month of March & April by company Y.?
[A] 17 : 20

[B] 20 : 17

[C] 20 : 13

[D] 6 : 5
[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (26-30): What should come in the place of question mark in the following number
series?
Q.26)

[A] 2165
[B] 1986

[C] 1976

[D] 1875
[E] 2023

Instruction: Directions (26-30): What should come in the place of question mark in the following number
series?

Q.27) 325, 314, 292, 259, 215, ?

[A] 126
[B] 116

[C] 130

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[D] 160

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (26-30): What should come in the place of question mark in the following number
series?

Q.28) 45, 46, 70 ,141 , ? , 1061.5

[A] 353

[B] 353.5
[C] 352.5

[D] 352

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (26-30): What should come in the place of question mark in the following number
series?

Q.29) 27, 110, 420, 1245, ?, 2475

[A] 2480

[B] 2350
[C] 2355

[D] 2340

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (26-30): What should come in the place of question mark in the following number
series?
Q.30) 85, 89, 187, 577, ?, 11701

[A] 2373

[B] 2275
[C] 2380

[D] 2290

[E] 2333

General Awareness
Q.1) Recently (December 2020), the Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare has inaugurated the first
of its kind Virtual Agri Hackathon 2020. Under the hackathon winners will get seed-stage funding of Rs _______

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[A] 5 lakhs
[B] 25 lakhs
[C] 15 lakhs
[D] 10 lakhs
[E] 30 lakhs

Q.2) Recently (January 2021), who has been elected as President of the Central African Republic?
[A] Augus n Agou
[B] Faus n-Archange Touadera
[C] Reboas Aris de
[D] Serge Djorie
[E] None of the Above

Q.3) Recently (February 2021), who among the following has become the oldest cricketer to register for IPL 2021
Auc on?
[A] Harbhajan Singh
[B] Nayan Doshi
[C] Khrievitso Kense
[D] Dilip Doshi
[E] Mahendra Singh Dhoni

Q.4) Recently (December 2020), which of the following companies has contributed Rs 75 lakhs to PM Cares Fund
to combat Covid-19 under its CSR ini a ve?
[A] Ar ficial Limbs Manufacturing Corpora on of India
[B] Na onal Fer lizers Limited
[C] South Eastern Coalfields Limited
[D] Indian Medicines & Pharmaceu cals Corpora on Limited
[E] Mahanadi Coalfields Limited

Q.5) The headquarters of ECGC bank is located in which of the following ci es?
[A] Kolkata

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[B] Thrissur
[C] Chennai
[D] Mumbai
[E] Bengaluru

Q.6) Recently (January 2021), which of the following organiza on has released a composite Digital Payments
Index (DPI)?
[A] SBI
[B] RBI
[C] SEBI
[D] ECGC
[E] SIDBI

Q.7) Which one of the following countries’ embassy in India has recently (October 2020) decided to have a
separate 'Water Attaché' from January 2021?
[A] Israel
[B] UAE
[C] Philippines
[D] Thailand
[E] Singapore

Q.8) Recently (February 2021), an Indian app named ____ is going to be launched by the government to compete
against WhatsApp.
[A] Sandesh
[B] Khat
[C] Samachar
[D] Paigam
[E] Soochna

Q.9) Recently, Universal Health Day or Universal Health Coverage Day (UHC Day) was celebrated on ______
globally.
[A] December 12th

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[B] December 10th

[C] January 15th
[D] December 7th
[E] January 24th

Q.10) Recently (January 2021), who has been named in the Queen Elizabeth II’s 2021 New Year’s Honours list for
raising awareness about breast cancer?
[A] Dr Raghu Ram Pillarise
[B] Professor Partha Sarathi Kar
[C] Nina Wadia
[D] Dipanwita Ganguli
[E] None of the Above

Q.11) Recently (February 2021), India’s homegrown app MapMyIndia es up with _____ to build an alterna ve
to Google Maps.
[A] IISC
[B] BARC
[C] ISRO
[D] IIT Delhi
[E] IIT Bombay

Q.12) Gugamal Na onal Park is located in which of the following states?

[A] Rajasthan
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] U ar Pradesh
[D] Bihar
[E] Maharashtra

Q.13) Recently (January 2021), Brian Urqhuhart who played a central role in developing the United Na ons
prac ce of peacekeeping, has passed away. He belonged to which of the following country?
[A] Germany
[B] Britain
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[C] France
[D] UK
[E] Canada

Q.14) Recently (February 2021), which of the following ministries has launched the Mahatma Gandhi Na onal
Fellowship (MGNF) programme in partnership with nine Indian Ins tutes’ of Management (IIM) across India?
[A] Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
[B] Ministry of labour and employment
[C] Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
[D] Ministry of Educa on
[E] 1 & 4

Q.15) Recently (December, 2020), Union Cabinet approved a MoU for exchange of informa on in the electricity
sectors between India and ________.
[A] Indonesia
[B] China
[C] Vietnam
[D] Mexico
[E] USA

Q.16) Recently (January 2021), who has been named as digital director of the First Lady of the USA, Jill Biden?
[A] Varsha Joshi
[B] Utpal Kumar Singh
[C] Rajeev Chaudhary
[D] Kuldeep Handoo
[E] Garima Verma

Q.17) Recently (February 2021), who among the following has penned a new book tled “The Terrible, Horrible,
Very Bad Good News”?
[A] Peter Mukerjee
[B] R. Kaushik
[C] Romila Thapar
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[D] Roopa Chari

[E] Meghna Pant

Q.18) Which of the following is the capital of Indonesia?

[A] Bali
[B] Canberra
[C] Thimphu
[D] Jakarta
[E] None of the above

Q.19) Recently (December 2020), the construction work of the new Parliament building started under the
government's ambitious Central Vista redevelopment plan by which of the following companies?
[A] L &T Engineering & Construction
[B] Reliance Construction
[C] Tata Projects Ltd
[D] GMR Group
[E] Hindustan construction company

Q.20) Recently (January 2021), International Film Festival of India (IFFI) has honored cinematographer Mr.
Vittorio Storaro with the prestigious Lifetime Achievement award. He belongs to which of the following country?
[A] Luxembourg
[B] Russia
[C] Britain
[D] Italy
[E] Spain

Q.21) Recently (February 2021), Nigeria’s Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala has become first woman and the first African to
head which of the following Organiza on?
[A] World Bank
[B] IMF
[C] WHO
[D] WTO
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[E] None of the Above

Q.22) Recently (December, 2020), Haldibari-Chilahati rail link was inaugurated between India and _________.
[A] Pakistan
[B] Bangladesh
[C] Bhutan
[D] Tibet
[E] Nepal

Q.23) Recently (January 2021), Which institution has announced that it will offer a free IDN (Internationalized
Domain Name) in any of the 22 official Indian languages?
[A] India International Exchange (India INX)
[B] National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI)
[C] Metropolitan Exchange
[D] Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
[E] None of the above

Q.24) Recently (February 2021), Tyre manufacturer CEAT Tyres has signed which Bollywood actor as its brand
ambassador for promo ng the ‘Puncture Safe’ range of bike tyres across media pla orms?
[A] Prabhas
[B] Akshaya Kumar
[C] Rana Dagguba
[D] Amitabh Bachchan
[E] Ranveer Singh

Q.25) Recently (January 2021), Which of the following bank has become the first urban co-opera ve bank (UCB)
in India to transi on to a Small Finance Bank (SFB) under the voluntary transi on scheme.
[A] Ahmedabad Mercan le Coopera ve Bank
[B] Solapur Janata Sahakari Bank Limited
[C] Telangana State Coop Apex Bank
[D] Abhyudaya Coopera ve Bank Limited
[E] Shivalik Mercan le Co-opera ve Bank (SMCB)
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Q.26) In December, 2020, India has conducted a Defence Cooperation Webinar with a theme, Exploring
Synergies and Strengthening Defence Cooperation with _________.
[A] Australia
[B] Mauritius
[C] Singapore
[D] Malaysia
[E] Nepal

Q.27) Who has recently won the Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Telecom Skill Excellence Award in December,
2020?
[A] Dr. Harsh Vardhan
[B] Shripad Naik
[C] Sreenivas Karanam
[D] Subrat Kar
[E] None of the Above

Q.28) Recently (January 2021), Which bank has contributed to the National Sports Development Fund to fulfill
the needs and requirements of elite athletes for training and coaching?
[A] Punjab National Bank
[B] State Bank of India
[C] Bank of Baroda
[D] Reserve Bank of India
[E] None of the Above

Q.29) Recently (December 2020), DRDO lifetime Achievement Award 2018 has been given to _________.
[A] G Satheesh Reddy
[B] NV Kadam
[C] K Sivan
[D] Avinash Chander
[E] None

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Q.30) Recently (January 2021), which among the following judge has sworn in as the first Woman Chief Justice
of High Court of Telangana?
[A] Indu Malhotra
[B] Indira Banerjee
[C] Fathima Beevi
[D] Gita Mittal
[E] Hima Kohli

Q.31) Recently (February 2021), who among the following has sworn in as the Prime Minister of Italy?
[A] Joel McHale
[B] Mario Balotelli
[C] Luciano Pavaro
[D] Mario Draghi
[E] Donatella Versace

Q.32) According to Economic Survey 2020-21, India is expected to have Current Account Surplus of what percent
of GDP in FY 21?
[A] 2%
[B] 0.5%
[C] 2.5%
[D] 3%
[E] 1%

Q.33) Which Indian politician has recently (December 2020) been awarded with the Legion of Merit, a US based
award?
[A] Piyush Goyal
[B] Rajnath Singh
[C] Manmohan Singh
[D] Pranab Mukherjee
[E] Narendra Modi

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Q.34) Recently (January 2021), Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has set up a Working Group (WG) to study all aspects
of digital lending ac vi es in the regulated financial sector as well as by unregulated players. Who is the
chairman of this group?
[A] Jayant Kumar Dash
[B] Tapan Ray
[C] Bimal Jalan
[D] Urjit Patel
[E] Shak kant Das

Q.35) Which of the following has recently (February 2021) become first EU country to use Russia’s Sputnik
Vaccine?
[A] Austria
[B] Belgium
[C] France
[D] Bulgaria
[E] Hungary

Q.36) Which organization has recently (December 2020) been awarded the prestigious Golden Peacock
Environment Management Award for 2020?
[A] NPCI
[B] SAI
[C] SAIL
[D] IOCL
[E] None of the Above

Q.37) Recently (January 2021), Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) and Thales have signed a Teaming Agreement
to work in partnership on which of the following projects?
[A] STAR Ground Security
[B] STARStreak Air Defence system
[C] Gold Naval Shipyards
[D] Bharat Naval Frigates
[E] None of the Above

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Q.38) Recently (December 2020), Reserve Bank has announced opening of Second Cohort under the Regulatory
Sandbox. What is its theme?
[A] Promote Fintech
[B] Worldwide Payments
[C] Tech for Payment
[D] Cross Border Payments
[E] None of the above

Q.39) The Headquarters of United Na ons Security Council (UNSC) is located in _______.
[A] Paris, France
[B] Geneva, Switzerland
[C] Washington DC, USA
[D] New York, USA
[E] Brussels, Belgium

Q.40) Who among the following won the men’s singles tle of French open 2020?
[A] Rafael Nadal
[B] Novak Djokovic
[C] Kevin Krawietz
[D] Dominic Thiem
[E] Alexander Zverev

Q.41) Recently (February 2021), which of the following job portals is launched by the Technology Informa on,
Forecas ng and Assessment Council (TIFAC), for mapping the skills of workers as per requirements of MSMEs?
[A] Sankalp
[B] Suvidha
[C] Saksham
[D] Shramdaan
[E] Samadhan

Q.42) Recently (January 2021), who has been honored with Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award at the 16th Pravasi
Bharatiya Divas?
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[A] Chandrika Parsad Santokhi

[B] Eugene Rhuggenaath
[C] Priyanca Radhakrishnan
[D] Mukhesh Aghi
[E] All of the Above

Q.43) Recently (December 2020), RBI has announced to introduce the ‘Posi ve Pay System’ for cheque
transac ons above Rs ________ from 1st Jan 2021 in a bid to enhance safety and eliminate frauds.
[A] 20000
[B] 75000
[C] 25000
[D] 50000
[E] 10000

Q.44) Recently (December 2020), the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has asked which of the
following bodies to take appropriate action in the honey adulteration issue?
[A] Food Corporation of India
[B] Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
[C] National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories
[D] All of the Above
[E] 2 & 3

Q.45) Recently (December 2020), CBIC has amended rules to make it mandatory for businesses with monthly
turnover of over Rs 50 lakh to pay at least ____ per cent of their GST liability in cash?
[A] 3
[B] 2.5
[C] 1
[D] 1.5
[E] 2

Q.46) World Wetlands Day is celebrated annually on _______.

[A] 3rd February
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[B] 29th January

[C] 2nd February
[D] 16th February
[E] 30th January

Q.47) In partnership with Mastercard, which of the following banks has recently (December 2020) announced the
launch of its first metal credit card - ‘PIONEER Heritage’?
[A] ICICI Bank
[B] IndusInd Bank
[C] Axis Bank
[D] HDFC Bank
[E] Yes Bank

Q.48) Recently (January 2021), which of the following State Governments/ UT’s has directed all schools in the
State/UT capital to implement a new ‘school bag policy’ to reduce the weight of school bags for students of
primary, secondary and senior secondary schools?
[A] Puducherry
[B] Assam
[C] Delhi
[D] Chandigarh
[E] Maharashtra

Q.49) Which of the following e-commerce companies has recently (December 2020) partnered with NPCI to
allow buyers to make QR-based digital payments at the time of accepting delivery of their orders?
[A] Flipkart
[B] Snapdeal
[C] Amazon
[D] Myntra
[E] TATA CLiQ

Q.50) Recently (February 2021), Star Health Insurance Partnered with ____ to offer Digital Health Insurance.
[A] Google Pay

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[B] PhonePe
[C] WhatsApp Pay
[D] Yono SBI
[E] Amazon Pay

Q.51) Which of the following State Government’s/UT’s has recently launched the Kisan Kalyan Mission in January
2021?
[A] Bihar
[B] Haryana
[C] Delhi
[D] Madhya Pradesh
[E] U ar Pradesh

Q.52) As per the Union Budget 2021-22, the Gig and pla orm workers are to be covered under which
organisa on?
[A] EPFO
[B] NPS
[C] LIC
[D] PFRDA
[E] ESIC

Q.53) Recently (December 2020), the EPFO has started credi ng ______ % interest on Employees’ Provident
Fund (EPF) for 2019-20?
[A] 8.15
[B] 8.25
[C] 8.5
[D] 8.0
[E] 7.5

Q.54) Recently (January 2021), from which of the following Ins tute, scien sts have produced an ultra-high
mobility 2d-electron gas capable of speed up transfer of quantum informa on and signal from one part of a
device to another?

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[A] IIT, Bombay

[B] INST, Punjab
[C] IISc, Bangalore
[D] IIT, Delhi
[E] None of the Above

Q.55) Na onal Produc vity day is celebrated annually on _______.

[A] February 12th
[B] February 16th
[C] February 15th
[D] February 10th
[E] February 11th

Q.56) According to the BFSI Movers and Shakers 2020 report, released recently in December 2020, which of the
following bank is not one of the top-10 banks of 2020?
[A] Canara Bank
[B] HDFC Bank
[C] ICICI Bank
[D] SBI Bank
[E] Yes Bank

Q.57) Recently (January 2021), the first Indigenously designed & developed Driverless Metro Car has been
dedicated to which of the following Regional Development Authority?
[A] Goa
[B] Kolkata
[C] Delhi
[D] Mumbai
[E] None of the above

Q.58) Recently (February 2021), the 16th ‘Yudh Abhyas’, a joint military exercise of India and the
_____commenced in Rajasthan.
[A] UAE
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[B] USA
[C] France
[D] Australia
[E] Russia

Q.59) Recently (January 2021), India ranks ____ in ‘Asia-Pacific Personalised Health Index’ released by Economist
Intelligence Unit (EIU).
[A] 7th
[B] 10th
[C] 4th
[D] 9th
[E] 8th

Q.60) According to the new stress parameters, issued by the SEBI recently (December 2020), price movements of
how many years will be scanned for stress testing?
[A] 5 years
[B] 20 years
[C] 15 years
[D] 25 years
[E] 10 years

Q.61) Recently (January 2021), India and _____ have signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) to enhance
cooperation in the field of Information and Communications Technologies.
[A] Australia
[B] New Zealand
[C] Pakistan
[D] Japan
[E] Canada

Q.62) According to the RBI’s paper titled “Asset Quality and Credit Channel of Monetary Policy Transmission in
India”, the growth rate in credit off take has steeply declined to ______% in November 2020.
[A] 3.1

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[B] 4.2
[C] 2.4
[D] 5.8
[E] 6.2

Q.63) Who among the following authors the book tled “Flying Blind: India’s Quest for Global Leadership”?
[A] Bibek Debroy

[B] Hussain Zaidi

[C] Ramchandra Guha

[D] Mohamed Zeeshan

[E] Shobhaa De

Q.64) As per the recently (January 2021) released “The Global Firepower Index 2021 (GFI 2021)”, India has been
ranked ____ in military strength.
[A] 3rd
[B] 4th
[C] 5th
[D] 2nd
[E] 6th

Q.65) Recently (February 2021), Indian Army Na onal Seminar-cum-Webinar, named as “________” on Mul -
Domain Opera ons: Future of Conflicts organised by Centre for Land Warfare Studies (CLAWS).
[A] Divya-Shak -2021
[B] Divya-Drish 2021
[C] Divya-Prakrama-2021
[D] Shahas-2021
[E] None of the Above

Q.66) Recently (January 2021), Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujib Dhaka Marathon 2021 has taken place at the Dhaka
Army Stadium. Who has won the men's Full Marathon (SAAF Elite)?
[A] Ram Singh Yadav
[B] Bahadur Singh
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[C] Hari Chand

[D] Lal Chand
[E] None of the Above

Q.67) Recently (January 2021), which Indian Private bank has launched an API Banking portal with the highest
number of virtual Applica on programming interfaces?
[A] ICICI Bank
[B] HDFC Bank
[C] Axis Bank
[D] IDBI Bank
[E] IDFC First Bank

Q.68) F/A-18 Super Hornet fighter jets, recently (December 2020) seen in news belong to which among the
following country?
[A] Russia
[B] UK
[C] USA
[D] France
[E] China

Q.69) Recently (December 2020), Tamil Nadu government has inaugurated which of the following Schemes to
provide various health facili es to the people by se ng up 2000 mini-clinics in the state?
[A] Karunya Health Scheme
[B] CM’s Amma Mee Arogyam Scheme
[C] Mohalla Clinic Scheme
[D] CM’s Amma Mini Clinic Scheme.
[E] Mamta Clinic

Q.70) Recently (February 2021), an IIT Madras-incubated start-up Pi Beam, has launched the electric two-
wheeler called ‘_____’.
[A] PiEO
[B] PiBe

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[C] PiMO
[D] PiBi
[E] PiNO

Q.71) Recently (January 2021), who has been named as the administrator of the United States Agency for
International Development (USAID)?
[A] Samantha Power
[B] John Barsa
[C] Nikki Haley
[D] John R Bolton
[E] None of the Above

Q.72) According to budget 2021-22, the fiscal deficit for Budget estimate for 2021-22 is estimated to be _____ %
of GDP.
[A] 6.8
[B] 7.3
[C] 5.8
[D] 6.5
[E] 9.5

Q.73) Recently (January 2021), who has been appointed as new chairman of All India Gem & Jewellery Domestic
Council (GJC), the national apex body of the gems and jewellery industry?
[A] Shankar Sen
[B] Ashish Pethe
[C] Nitin Khandelwal
[D] Madan Kothari
[E] None of above

Q.74) Which of the following ministries has recently (February 2021) launched the third edi on of the Indian Sign
Language (ISL) Dic onary?
[A] Ministry of Home Affairs
[B] Ministry of Culture

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[C] Ministry of Social Jus ce and Empowerment

[D] 1 & 2
[E] 2 & 3

Q.75) Recently (January 2021), an all-women cockpit crew of Air India has completed the longest flight from San
Francisco to Bengaluru. Which among the following has been the cap an of the flight?
[A] Avani Chaturvedi
[B] Bhawana Kanth
[C] Ashima Aggarwal
[D] Zoya Aggarwal
[E] None of the Above

Q.76) Recently (December 2020), Union Health Minister has addressed an event by Disaster Resilient
Infrastructure (CDRI) and UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduc on (UNDRR). Which of the following is the theme of
the event?
[A] Next is Now
[B] Vaccine and Innova on
[C] Reform is the new medicine
[D] Build Back Be er: building resilient health infrastructure and supply chains
[E] None of the above.

Q.77) Recently (February 2021), the Prime Minister Narendra Modi has virtually laid the founda on stone of the
Maharaja Suheldev Memorial in which of the following States?
[A] Bihar
[B] Rajasthan
[C] U ar Pradesh
[D] U arakhand
[E] Madhya Pradesh

Q.78) Recently (February 2021), who among the following has been appointed as Execu ve Secretary of United
Na ons Capital Development Fund (UNCDF)?
[A] Preethi Sinha

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[B] Bhavya Lal

[C] Nima Kulkarni
[D] Niraj Antani
[E] Kesha Ram

Q.79) According to Union budget 2021-22, what amount of funds has been allocated for PM Aatma Nirbhar
Swasth Bharat Yojana?
[A] Rs. 64,180 crore
[B] Rs 54,180 crores
[C] Rs 72,250 crores
[D] Rs 70,180 crores
[E] Rs 52,050 crores

Q.80) Recently (January 2021), who has been appointed as Google Cloud’s new leader for Asia Pacific?
[A] Rick Harshman
[B] Rob Enslin
[C] Sam Curran
[D] Karan Bajwa
[E] None of the above

Reasoning
Instruction: Directions (1-5): Read the following information and answer the questions.

Eight players E, F, H, M, D, J, S, & V play for three different teams MDR, DV and PTV and like eight different colours viz. Violet,
Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red and White not necessarily in the same order. At least two and not more than three
players play for the same team. F plays for DV and likes Violet. H likes Green but do not play for MDR. No one from PTV likes
White. The only other person in same team with F likes Blue. D likes White and J likes Indigo. V does not like Blue and plays for
the same team with D. E and S both play for PTV. The one who plays for PTV does not like Orange. S does not like Red.

Q.1) Which colour does S like?

[A] Red

[B] Yellow

[C] Orange

[D] None of these

[E] Cannot be determined

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Instruction: Directions (1-5): Read the following information and answer the questions.

Eight players E, F, H, M, D, J, S, & V play for three different teams MDR, DV and PTV and like eight different colours viz. Violet,
Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red and White not necessarily in the same order. At least two and not more than three
players play for the same team. F plays for DV and likes Violet. H likes Green but do not play for MDR. No one from PTV likes
White. The only other person in same team with F likes Blue. D likes White and J likes Indigo. V does not like Blue and plays for
the same team with D. E and S both play for PTV. The one who plays for PTV does not like Orange. S does not like Red.

Q.2) Who likes Blue?

[A] M

[B] S

[C] V

[D] M or S

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (1-5): Read the following information and answer the questions.

Eight players E, F, H, M, D, J, S, & V play for three different teams MDR, DV and PTV and like eight different colours viz. Violet,
Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red and White not necessarily in the same order. At least two and not more than three
players play for the same team. F plays for DV and likes Violet. H likes Green but do not play for MDR. No one from PTV likes
White. The only other person in same team with F likes Blue. D likes White and J likes Indigo. V does not like Blue and plays for
the same team with D. E and S both play for PTV. The one who plays for PTV does not like Orange. S does not like Red.

Q.3) Which team has only two of the eight players?

[A] MDR

[B] PTV

[C] DV

[D] PTV or MDR

[E] Cannot be determined

Instruction: Directions (1-5): Read the following information and answer the questions.

Eight players E, F, H, M, D, J, S, & V play for three different teams MDR, DV and PTV and like eight different colours viz. Violet,
Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red and White not necessarily in the same order. At least two and not more than three
players play for the same team. F plays for DV and likes Violet. H likes Green but do not play for MDR. No one from PTV likes
White. The only other person in same team with F likes Blue. D likes White and J likes Indigo. V does not like Blue and plays for
the same team with D. E and S both play for PTV. The one who plays for PTV does not like Orange. S does not like Red.

Q.4) Which of the following group of persons play for PTV?

[A] MES

[B] ESJ

[C] EHD

[D] EHS

[E] None of these

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Instruction: Directions (1-5): Read the following information and answer the questions.

Eight players E, F, H, M, D, J, S, & V play for three different teams MDR, DV and PTV and like eight different colours viz. Violet,
Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red and White not necessarily in the same order. At least two and not more than three
players play for the same team. F plays for DV and likes Violet. H likes Green but do not play for MDR. No one from PTV likes
White. The only other person in same team with F likes Blue. D likes White and J likes Indigo. V does not like Blue and plays for
the same team with D. E and S both play for PTV. The one who plays for PTV does not like Orange. S does not like Red.

Q.5) Which of the following combinations of team, person & colour is correct?

[A] PTV – E – Orange

[B] DV – F – Blue

[C] MDR – V – Violet

[D] MDR – S – Yellow

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (6-10): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, even if they are at variance with the commonly known facts. Then
consider the two conclusions together ignoring the commonly known facts and decide which of them logically follows beyond a
reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement give answer.

Q.6) Statement: Some Judges are reluctant to provide right information to the Government about their property.

Conclusion:

I. They have earned black money and they do not want to make their property public.

II. It’s their hard-earned money and it is up to their will to disclose it or not. Nobody can force them to do so.

[A] If only conclusion I follows.

[B] If only conclusion II follows.

[C] If either I or II follows.

[D] If neither I nor II follows.

[E] If both I and II follows.

Instruction: Directions (6-10): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, even if they are at variance with the commonly known facts. Then
consider the two conclusions together ignoring the commonly known facts and decide which of them logically follows beyond a
reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement give answer.

Q.7) Statement: Sanskrit should be the of icial language in all the states of India, only Uttarakhand is not responsible for making
us aware of the language.

Conclusion:

I. Sanskrit is the mother of Hindi and other national language of India.

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II. Sanskrit will spread the knowledge to Hindu mythology in the world, which will result in more and more people taking up
Hindu culture.

[A] If only conclusion I follows.

[B] If only conclusion II follows.

[C] If either I or II follows.

[D] If neither I nor II follows.

[E] If both I and II follows.

Instruction: Directions (6-10): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, even if they are at variance with the commonly known facts. Then
consider the two conclusions together ignoring the commonly known facts and decide which of them logically follows beyond a
reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement give answer.

Q.8) Statement: India is seeking partnership with Germany in aeronautical engineering and space exploration. Earlier, India
entered into partnership with some other countries in aeronautical engineering.

Conclusion:

I. It is high time for joint venture between the Germany and India, because Germany is developing State of-the-art technologies
in aeronautical engineering.

II. Both India and Germany, have core competence in the give area.

[A] If only conclusion I follows.

[B] If only conclusion II follows.

[C] If either I or II follows.

[D] If neither I nor II follows.

[E] If both I and II follows.

Instruction: Directions (6-10): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, even if they are at variance with the commonly known facts. Then
consider the two conclusions together ignoring the commonly known facts and decide which of them logically follows beyond a
reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement give answer.

Q.9) Statement: Now days a number of telecommunication companies are providing better services in the market to compete
with foreign companies.

Conclusion:

I. They want to India become number one in the ield of telecommunication. At the same time they want to fetch more and more
money from the other countries.

II. Company want increase customers and become no. I position.

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[A] If only conclusion I follows.

[B] If only conclusion II follows.

[C] If either I or II follows.

[D] If neither I nor II follows.

[E] If both I and II follows.

Instruction: Directions (6-10): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, even if they are at variance with the commonly known facts. Then
consider the two conclusions together ignoring the commonly known facts and decide which of them logically follows beyond a
reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement give answer.

Q.10) Statement: Unity is hindered by gaps among the people on the basis of economy, culture religion and language.

Conclusion:

I. Unity is a must for the Country.

II. Any country where there are such gaps will ind it dif icult to stay united.

[A] If only conclusion I follows.

[B] If only conclusion II follows.

[C] If either I or II follows.

[D] If neither I nor II follows.

[E] If both I and II follows.

Instruction: Directions (11-15): Study the following information and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

'global recession is critical phase' is written as 'su zo ti ra mo',

'recession affects economy' is written as 'chi mo nic',

'global economy going down' is written as 'fa nic ti ye',

'hiked rates down growth' is written as 'phi ye koo da'

and 'critical rates' is written as 'su phi'.

Q.11) What is the code for 'phase'?

[A] su

[B] zo

[C] ra

[D] Either zo or ra
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[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (11-15): Study the following information and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

'global recession is critical phase' is written as 'su zo ti ra mo',

'recession affects economy' is written as 'chi mo nic',

'global economy going down' is written as 'fa nic ti ye',

'hiked rates down growth' is written as 'phi ye koo da'

and 'critical rates' is written as 'su phi'.

Q.12) What does 'fa' stand for?

[A] global

[B] down

[C] economy

[D] going

[E] Can't be determined

Instruction: Directions (11-15): Study the following information and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

'global recession is critical phase' is written as 'su zo ti ra mo',

'recession affects economy' is written as 'chi mo nic',

'global economy going down' is written as 'fa nic ti ye',

'hiked rates down growth' is written as 'phi ye koo da'

and 'critical rates' is written as 'su phi'.

Q.13) Which of the following is the code for 'critical rates affects growth'?

[A] koo da phi chi

[B] phi su re chi

[C] ti da zo chi

[D] su phi chi pa

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (11-15): Study the following information and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

'global recession is critical phase' is written as 'su zo ti ra mo',

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'recession affects economy' is written as 'chi mo nic',

'global economy going down' is written as 'fa nic ti ye',

'hiked rates down growth' is written as 'phi ye koo da'

and 'critical rates' is written as 'su phi'.

Q.14) Which of the following is represented by the code 'mo ye su phi'?

[A] economy is critical down

[B] recession affects down rates

[C] critical recession down rates

[D] down economy growth rates

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (11-15): Study the following information and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

'global recession is critical phase' is written as 'su zo ti ra mo',

'recession affects economy' is written as 'chi mo nic',

'global economy going down' is written as 'fa nic ti ye',

'hiked rates down growth' is written as 'phi ye koo da'

and 'critical rates' is written as 'su phi'.

Q.15) Which of the following may be the code for 'world is overcome through critical phase'?

[A] nic zo su ra mo pic

[B] pic zo ra su vo bi

[C] su pic ye zo ra fa

[D] ti ra su chi mo zo

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: joy far 35 27 16 96 height star

Step I: 96 joy far 35 27 16 height star

Step II: 96 far joy 35 27 16 height star

Step III: 96 far 35 joy 27 16 height star

Step IV: 96 far 35 height joy 27 16 star

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Step V: 96 far 35 height 27 joy 16 star

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, ind out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Q.16) Input : organise 19 12 stable room 35 72 house

How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement?

[A] Five

[B] Six

[C] Seven

[D] Four

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: joy far 35 27 16 96 height star

Step I: 96 joy far 35 27 16 height star

Step II: 96 far joy 35 27 16 height star

Step III: 96 far 35 joy 27 16 height star

Step IV: 96 far 35 height joy 27 16 star

Step V: 96 far 35 height 27 joy 16 star

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, ind out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Q.17) Input : bake never store 51 26 33 age 49

Which of the following will be step V?

[A] 51 age 49 bake 33 never 26 store

[B] 51 age 49 bake never store 26 33

[C] 51 age bake never store 26 33 49

[D] 51 bake never store 26 33 age 49

[E] There will be no such step

Instruction: Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

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Input: joy far 35 27 16 96 height star

Step I: 96 joy far 35 27 16 height star

Step II: 96 far joy 35 27 16 height star

Step III: 96 far 35 joy 27 16 height star

Step IV: 96 far 35 height joy 27 16 star

Step V: 96 far 35 height 27 joy 16 star

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, ind out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Q.18) Input : always go there 39 62 47 time 24

Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

[A] VI

[B] VII

[C] VIII

[D] IX

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: joy far 35 27 16 96 height star

Step I: 96 joy far 35 27 16 height star

Step II: 96 far joy 35 27 16 height star

Step III: 96 far 35 joy 27 16 height star

Step IV: 96 far 35 height joy 27 16 star

Step V: 96 far 35 height 27 joy 16 star

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, ind out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Q.19) Step II of an input is : 67 ask 34 12 46 for my date

Which of the following is de initely the input?

[A] 34 12 46 for my date ask 67

[B] 34 12 46 for my date 67 ask

[C] 12 34 67 ask 46 for my date

[D] Cannot be determined

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[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: joy far 35 27 16 96 height star

Step I: 96 joy far 35 27 16 height star

Step II: 96 far joy 35 27 16 height star

Step III: 96 far 35 joy 27 16 height star

Step IV: 96 far 35 height joy 27 16 star

Step V: 96 far 35 height 27 joy 16 star

Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, ind out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Q.20) Step III of an input is : 84 for 56 29 17 won loss game

Which of the following steps will be the last?

[A] VIII

[B] II

[C] VII

[D] V

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (21-25): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Ten Indian persons are working in NASA as a scientist. They all are seating in a decagon arrangement in such a way that there is
an equal distance between adjacent persons.

Ten persons are P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y. All are facing outside (Opposite to the center) but Not necessary in the same order.
All have different height but not necessary in same order.

They also like different colour viz. Pink, Grey, Black, Magenta, Purple, Violet, Green, Red, White and Orange, but not necessary in
the same order.

It is also known that X is sitting third to the left of 3rd tallest person and R is not the third tallest. X is not the shortest person. Q
is taller than P and R but shorter than Y and U and is immediate neighbor of Y and S. 7th tallest person is immediate neighbor of
X. P who likes red colour sits second to the right of the person who likes green colour. R and T is not the neighbor of P. V sits
immediate right of the person who likes white colour. V is 9th tallest person. Only ive persons are taller than Q, who likes Pink
colour and sits third to the left of P. S and Y are immediate neighbor of the person who likes Grey and Magenta respectively. W
sits 4th to the left of the person who likes green colour. Neither P nor Q is an immediate neighbor of the person who is 3rd tallest
who likes Violet colour. The one who likes grey colour sits fourth to the left of the one who is shortest. Neither S nor W is the
shortest and S likes Green colour. S is just taller than W but just shorter than X and W is not the neighbor of P. Immediate
neighbor of V and W does not like either black or orange.

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Q.21) What is the possible height of W if X’s height is 177 cm. and Y’s height is 172 cm?

[A] 176 cm

[B] 169 cm

[C] 156 cm

[D] Can’t be determined

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (21-25): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Ten Indian persons are working in NASA as a scientist. They all are seating in a decagon arrangement in such a way that there is
an equal distance between adjacent persons.

Ten persons are P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y. All are facing outside (Opposite to the center) but Not necessary in the same order.
All have different height but not necessary in same order.

They also like different colour viz. Pink, Grey, Black, Magenta, Purple, Violet, Green, Red, White and Orange, but not necessary in
the same order.

It is also known that X is sitting third to the left of 3rd tallest person and R is not the third tallest. X is not the shortest person. Q
is taller than P and R but shorter than Y and U and is immediate neighbor of Y and S. 7th tallest person is immediate neighbor of
X. P who likes red colour sits second to the right of the person who likes green colour. R and T is not the neighbor of P. V sits
immediate right of the person who likes white colour. V is 9th tallest person. Only ive persons are taller than Q, who likes Pink
colour and sits third to the left of P. S and Y are immediate neighbor of the person who likes Grey and Magenta respectively. W
sits 4th to the left of the person who likes green colour. Neither P nor Q is an immediate neighbor of the person who is 3rd tallest
who likes Violet colour. The one who likes grey colour sits fourth to the left of the one who is shortest. Neither S nor W is the
shortest and S likes Green colour. S is just taller than W but just shorter than X and W is not the neighbor of P. Immediate
neighbor of V and W does not like either black or orange.

Q.22) What is the position of person who likes purple with respect to 3rd tallest person?

[A] Immediate right

[B] Second to the left

[C] Immediate left

[D] Can’t be determined

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (21-25): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Ten Indian persons are working in NASA as a scientist. They all are seating in a decagon arrangement in such a way that there is
an equal distance between adjacent persons.

Ten persons are P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y. All are facing outside (Opposite to the center) but Not necessary in the same order.
All have different height but not necessary in same order.

They also like different colour viz. Pink, Grey, Black, Magenta, Purple, Violet, Green, Red, White and Orange, but not necessary in
the same order.

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It is also known that X is sitting third to the left of 3rd

tallest person and R is not the third tallest. X is not the shortest person. Q
is taller than P and R but shorter than Y and U and is immediate neighbor of Y and S. 7th tallest person is immediate neighbor of
X. P who likes red colour sits second to the right of the person who likes green colour. R and T is not the neighbor of P. V sits
immediate right of the person who likes white colour. V is 9th tallest person. Only ive persons are taller than Q, who likes Pink
colour and sits third to the left of P. S and Y are immediate neighbor of the person who likes Grey and Magenta respectively. W
sits 4th to the left of the person who likes green colour. Neither P nor Q is an immediate neighbor of the person who is 3rd tallest
who likes Violet colour. The one who likes grey colour sits fourth to the left of the one who is shortest. Neither S nor W is the
shortest and S likes Green colour. S is just taller than W but just shorter than X and W is not the neighbor of P. Immediate
neighbor of V and W does not like either black or orange.

Q.23) Which of the following person likes Black colour?

[A] Y

[B] Q

[C] P

[D] Can’t be determined

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (21-25): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Ten Indian persons are working in NASA as a scientist. They all are seating in a decagon arrangement in such a way that there is
an equal distance between adjacent persons.

Ten persons are P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y. All are facing outside (Opposite to the center) but Not necessary in the same order.
All have different height but not necessary in same order.

They also like different colour viz. Pink, Grey, Black, Magenta, Purple, Violet, Green, Red, White and Orange, but not necessary in
the same order.

It is also known that X is sitting third to the left of 3rd tallest person and R is not the third tallest. X is not the shortest person. Q
is taller than P and R but shorter than Y and U and is immediate neighbor of Y and S. 7th tallest person is immediate neighbor of
X. P who likes red colour sits second to the right of the person who likes green colour. R and T is not the neighbor of P. V sits
immediate right of the person who likes white colour. V is 9th tallest person. Only ive persons are taller than Q, who likes Pink
colour and sits third to the left of P. S and Y are immediate neighbor of the person who likes Grey and Magenta respectively. W
sits 4th to the left of the person who likes green colour. Neither P nor Q is an immediate neighbor of the person who is 3rd tallest
who likes Violet colour. The one who likes grey colour sits fourth to the left of the one who is shortest. Neither S nor W is the
shortest and S likes Green colour. S is just taller than W but just shorter than X and W is not the neighbor of P. Immediate
neighbor of V and W does not like either black or orange.

Q.24) What is the possible rank of Y and U if they all are counted in decreasing order according to their heights?

[A] 1st and 2nd

[B] 2nd and 3rd

[C] 3rd and 4th

[D] 4th and 5th

[E] None of these

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Instruction: Directions (21-25): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Ten Indian persons are working in NASA as a scientist. They all are seating in a decagon arrangement in such a way that there is
an equal distance between adjacent persons.

Ten persons are P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y. All are facing outside (Opposite to the center) but Not necessary in the same order.
All have different height but not necessary in same order.

They also like different colour viz. Pink, Grey, Black, Magenta, Purple, Violet, Green, Red, White and Orange, but not necessary in
the same order.

It is also known that X is sitting third to the left of 3rd tallest person and R is not the third tallest. X is not the shortest person. Q
is taller than P and R but shorter than Y and U and is immediate neighbor of Y and S. 7th tallest person is immediate neighbor of
X. P who likes red colour sits second to the right of the person who likes green colour. R and T is not the neighbor of P. V sits
immediate right of the person who likes white colour. V is 9th tallest person. Only ive persons are taller than Q, who likes Pink
colour and sits third to the left of P. S and Y are immediate neighbor of the person who likes Grey and Magenta respectively. W
sits 4th to the left of the person who likes green colour. Neither P nor Q is an immediate neighbor of the person who is 3rd tallest
who likes Violet colour. The one who likes grey colour sits fourth to the left of the one who is shortest. Neither S nor W is the
shortest and S likes Green colour. S is just taller than W but just shorter than X and W is not the neighbor of P. Immediate
neighbor of V and W does not like either black or orange.

Q.25) Which of the following combination is correct?

[A] Y – Black – 4th

[B] V – Orange – 9th

[C] T – Violet – 7th

[D] Q – Pink – 5th

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are employees of different company. Each of them works on different loors numbered from I to VII, but not
necessarily in the same order. Each of them wears a shirt of a different colour, viz Blue, Green, Yellow, Sky Blue, Purple, Red and
Pink but not necessarily in the same order.

B works on loor IV but he does not wear either Purple or Sky Blue shirt. C wears Blue shirt but he does not work on loor II or
VI. E works on loor V and he wears a Red shirt. The one who wears a Green shirt works on loor VII. D works on loor I. G
wears a pink shirt. A does not work on VII. The one who wears sky Blue shirts works on loor II.

Q.26) G works on which of the following Floors?

[A] II

[B] III

[C] VI

[D] VII

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
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A, B, C, D, E, F and G are employees of different company. Each of them works on different loors numbered from I to VII, but not
necessarily in the same order. Each of them wears a shirt of a different colour, viz Blue, Green, Yellow, Sky Blue, Purple, Red and
Pink but not necessarily in the same order.

B works on loor IV but he does not wear either Purple or Sky Blue shirt. C wears Blue shirt but he does not work on loor II or
VI. E works on loor V and he wears a Red shirt. The one who wears a Green shirt works on loor VII. D works on loor I. G
wears a pink shirt. A does not work on VII. The one who wears sky Blue shirts works on loor II.

Q.27) A wears a shirt of which of the following colours?

[A] Sky Blue

[B] Blue

[C] Purple

[D] Yellow

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are employees of different company. Each of them works on different loors numbered from I to VII, but not
necessarily in the same order. Each of them wears a shirt of a different colour, viz Blue, Green, Yellow, Sky Blue, Purple, Red and
Pink but not necessarily in the same order.

B works on loor IV but he does not wear either Purple or Sky Blue shirt. C wears Blue shirt but he does not work on loor II or
VI. E works on loor V and he wears a Red shirt. The one who wears a Green shirt works on loor VII. D works on loor I. G
wears a pink shirt. A does not work on VII. The one who wears sky Blue shirts works on loor II.

Q.28) Which of the following combinations is/are true?

[A] F - Yellow – VII

[B] D – Purple - I

[C] A – Green - I

[D] Both a) and c)

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are employees of different company. Each of them works on different loors numbered from I to VII, but not
necessarily in the same order. Each of them wears a shirt of a different colour, viz Blue, Green, Yellow, Sky Blue, Purple, Red and
Pink but not necessarily in the same order.

B works on loor IV but he does not wear either Purple or Sky Blue shirt. C wears Blue shirt but he does not work on loor II or
VI. E works on loor V and he wears a Red shirt. The one who wears a Green shirt works on loor VII. D works on loor I. G
wears a pink shirt. A does not work on VII. The one who wears sky Blue shirts works on loor II.

Q.29) Who among the following wears a shirt of Green colour?

[A] A
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[B] F

[C] D

[D] Can’t be determined

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are employees of different company. Each of them works on different loors numbered from I to VII, but not
necessarily in the same order. Each of them wears a shirt of a different colour, viz Blue, Green, Yellow, Sky Blue, Purple, Red and
Pink but not necessarily in the same order.

B works on loor IV but he does not wear either Purple or Sky Blue shirt. C wears Blue shirt but he does not work on loor II or
VI. E works on loor V and he wears a Red shirt. The one who wears a Green shirt works on loor VII. D works on loor I. G
wears a pink shirt. A does not work on VII. The one who wears sky Blue shirts works on loor II.

Q.30) Who among the following works on loor II?

[A] F

[B] C

[C] A

[D] G

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions: (31-35) Study the information and answer the questions given below?

Q.31) In which of the following expression will the expression K>I be de initely true.

[A] G≥H, H=I, I≥J, J< K

[B] G≥H, H=I, I>J, J

[C] G≥H, K>J, I≤J, I=H

[D] J≥I, K

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions: (31-35) Study the information and answer the questions given below?

Q.32) Statements : A< B ≤ C = E ≥ D

Conclusion:

(I) E = B

(II) B < E

(III) A ≤ C

[A] Only I is true

[B] Either I or II is true

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[C] Only III is true

[D] Only I and II are true

[E] only II is true

Instruction: Directions: (31-35) Study the information and answer the questions given below?

Q.33) Statements : A ≤ B, C < D , E > C, C < F , B = C

Conclusions:

(I) F > E (II) E ≥ F (III) C ≥ A

[A] Only I is true

[B] Only III is true

[C] Only III and either I and II is true

[D] None is true

[E] Either II or I is true

Instruction: Directions: (31-35) Study the information and answer the questions given below?

Q.34) Statements : P < Q, R = D, Q > R

Conclusions:

(I) P < Q (II) Q ≥ P (III) D < Q

[A] Only III is true

[B] Either I or III is true

[C] None is true

[D] Either I or II and III is true

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions: (31-35) Study the information and answer the questions given below?

Q.35) In which of the following expressions will the expression A > E be de initely true.

(I) A ≥ B > D ≥ E (II) A ≥ B < D > E (III) A ≥ B > D < E

[A] Only II IS true

[B] Only III is true

[C] Only I is true

[D] Only I and II are true

[E] NONE IS TRUE

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Instruction: Directions (36-40): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. Read all conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer-

Q.36) Statements: Some poor are rich.

All rich are doctors.

Some intelligent are doctors.

Conclusions: I. At least some poor are intelligents.

II. All intelligents being rich is a possibility.

[A] If only conclusion I follows

[B] If only conclusion II follows

[C] If either conclusion I or II follows

[D] If neither conclusion I nor II follows

[E] If both conclusions I and II follows

Instruction: Directions (36-40): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. Read all conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer-

Q.37) Statements: Some poor are rich.

All rich are doctors.

Some intelligent are doctors.

Conclusions: I. All intelligents being doctors is a possibility.

II. Some poor are doctors.

[A] If only conclusion I follows

[B] If only conclusion II follows

[C] If either conclusion I or II follows

[D] If neither conclusion I nor II follows

[E] If both conclusions I and II follows

Instruction: Directions (36-40): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. Read all conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer-
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Q.38) Statements: All fans are bulbs.

All wires are holders.

Some wires are bulbs.

Conclusions: I. At least some fans are wires.

II. All holders being fans is a possibility

[A] If only conclusion I follows

[B] If only conclusion II follows

[C] If either conclusion I or II follows

[D] If neither conclusion I nor II follows

[E] If both conclusions I and II follows

Instruction: Directions (36-40): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. Read all conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer-

Q.39) Statements: No savings account is a current account.

Some ixed deposits are savings accounts.

Some current accounts are recurring deposits.

Conclusions: I. All savings accounts being current accounts is a possibility.

II. All ixed deposits being current accounts is a possibility.

[A] If only conclusion I follows

[B] If only conclusion II follows

[C] If either conclusion I or II follows

[D] If neither conclusion I nor II follows

[E] If both conclusions I and II follows

Instruction: Directions (36-40): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. Read all conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer-

Q.40) Statements: No savings account is a current account.

Some ixed deposits are savings accounts.

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Some current accounts are recurring deposits.

Conclusions: I. All current accounts being ixed deposits are a possibility.

II. All savings accounts being recurring deposits is a possibility

[A] If only conclusion I follows

[B] If only conclusion II follows

[C] If either conclusion I or II follows

[D] If neither conclusion I nor II follows

[E] If both conclusions I and II follows

Instruction: Directions (41-45): Read the following information carefully and answers the questions given below it-

Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, P, R and S like different movies – A , B, C, D, E, F, G and H. All of them are seated around a square table
(two on each side) facing the centre.

L sits third to the right of K. K likes C. R is sitting second to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbour of L or K. The one who
likes A is an immediate neighbour of P. Three people sit between K and the person who likes F. K, L and also their immediate
neighbour do not like D. Only one person sits between the person who likes D and M. The persons who like E and H are
immediate neighbour of each other. L likes neither H nor E. K is facing L. Only one person sits between J and the person who
likes B. J does not like D or E. N does not like D.

Q.41) Which of the following is true regarding R?

[A] R like the B

[B] S and M are immediate neighbours of R

[C] One person sits between R and the person who likes H

[D] R sits second to the right of J

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (41-45): Read the following information carefully and answers the questions given below it-

Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, P, R and S like different movies – A , B, C, D, E, F, G and H. All of them are seated around a square table
(two on each side) facing the centre.

L sits third to the right of K. K likes C. R is sitting second to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbour of L or K. The one who
likes A is an immediate neighbour of P. Three people sit between K and the person who likes F. K, L and also their immediate
neighbour do not like D. Only one person sits between the person who likes D and M. The persons who like E and H are
immediate neighbour of each other. L likes neither H nor E. K is facing L. Only one person sits between J and the person who
likes B. J does not like D or E. N does not like D.

Q.42) Who amongst the following likes movie E?

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[A] L

[B] R

[C] M

[D] N

[E] Cannot be determined

Instruction: Directions (41-45): Read the following information carefully and answers the questions given below it-

Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, P, R and S like different movies – A , B, C, D, E, F, G and H. All of them are seated around a square table
(two on each side) facing the centre.

L sits third to the right of K. K likes C. R is sitting second to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbour of L or K. The one who
likes A is an immediate neighbour of P. Three people sit between K and the person who likes F. K, L and also their immediate
neighbour do not like D. Only one person sits between the person who likes D and M. The persons who like E and H are
immediate neighbour of each other. L likes neither H nor E. K is facing L. Only one person sits between J and the person who
likes B. J does not like D or E. N does not like D.

Q.43) How many person sit between S and the person who likes H, when counted from the left hand side of the person who likes
H?

[A] None

[B] One

[C] Two

[D] Three

[E] Four

Instruction: Directions (41-45): Read the following information carefully and answers the questions given below it-

Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, P, R and S like different movies – A , B, C, D, E, F, G and H. All of them are seated around a square table
(two on each side) facing the centre.

L sits third to the right of K. K likes C. R is sitting second to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbour of L or K. The one who
likes A is an immediate neighbour of P. Three people sit between K and the person who likes F. K, L and also their immediate
neighbour do not like D. Only one person sits between the person who likes D and M. The persons who like E and H are
immediate neighbour of each other. L likes neither H nor E. K is facing L. Only one person sits between J and the person who
likes B. J does not like D or E. N does not like D.

Q.44) Which of the following is true?

[A] Only one person is sitting between the person who likes H and G brand.

[B] S likes D brand.

[C] The person who likes E is an immediate neighbour of K.

[D] One person sits between K and the person who likes D brand.

[E] None is true

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Instruction: Directions (41-45): Read the following information carefully and answers the questions given below it-

Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, P, R and S like different movies – A , B, C, D, E, F, G and H. All of them are seated around a square table
(two on each side) facing the centre.

L sits third to the right of K. K likes C. R is sitting second to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbour of L or K. The one who
likes A is an immediate neighbour of P. Three people sit between K and the person who likes F. K, L and also their immediate
neighbour do not like D. Only one person sits between the person who likes D and M. The persons who like E and H are
immediate neighbour of each other. L likes neither H nor E. K is facing L. Only one person sits between J and the person who
likes B. J does not like D or E. N does not like D.

Q.45) Who amongst the following represent immediate neighbour of M?

[A] J, N

[B] P and the person who likes D

[C] K and the person who likes G

[D] P, R

[E] J, S

Instruction: Directions (46-50): Do as directed in each of the following questions.

Q.46) The committee on sexual discrimination in the workplace has highlighted Maestro Company as a chief offender. Of the
twenty senior executives in the irm, only one is a woman. And of the forty junior executives, only ive are female.

Maestro could best defend itself against the charges by showing that

[A] Male and female executives at the same level have the same quali ications.

[B] They pay the same salary to senior men and senior women.

[C] Ten times more men than women apply for jobs with the company.

[D] The work pressures and long hours make jobs with the company unattractive to married women.

[E] All job applicants who were rejected had fewer quali ications than those accepted.

Instruction: Directions (46-50): Do as directed in each of the following questions.

Q.47) Twenty percent of all energy consumed in the country is consumed by home appliances. If appliances that are twice as
energy-ef icient as those currently available are produced, this igure will eventually be reduced to about ten percent.

The argument above requires which of the following assumptions?

[A] Home-appliance usage would not increase along with the energy ef iciency of the appliances.

[B] It would not be expensive to produce home appliances that are energy-ef icient.

[C] Home-appliance manufacturers now have the technology to produce appliances that are twice as energy-ef icient as those
currently available.

[D] The cost of energy to the consumer would rise with increases in the energy ef iciency of home appliances.

[E] None of these

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Instruction: Directions (46-50): Do as directed in each of the following questions.

Q.48) In a recent report, the gross enrolment ratios at the primary level, that is, the number of children enrolled in classes one to
ive as a proportion of all children aged 6 to 10, were shown to be very high for most states; in many cases they were way above
100 percent! These igures are not worth anything, since they are based on the of icial enrolment data compiled from school
records. They might as well stand for ‘gross exaggeration ratios’.

Which one of the following options best supports the claim that the ratios are exaggerated?

[A] The de inition of gross enrolment ratio does not exclude, in its numerator, children below 6 years or above 10 years
enrolled in classes one to ive.

[B] A school attendance study found that many children enrolled in the school records were not meeting a minimum attendance
requirement of 80 percent.

[C] A study estimated that close to 22 percent of children enrolled in the class one records were below 6 years of age and still to
start going to school.

[D] Demographic surveys show shifts in the population pro ile which indicates that the number of children in the age group 6 to
10 years is declining.

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (46-50): Do as directed in each of the following questions.

Q.49) Kapil has twelve years of typing experience behind him; therefore, if you are looking for an ef icient typist to enter your
data into the new system, you need look no further.

The speaker assumes that:

[A] Twelve years of practice ensures typing ef iciency

[B] The type of typing required for the new system is identical to what Kapil has been doing

[C] Kapil’s job pro ile is the best that the new employer is going to get

[D] Kapil is an outstandingly fast and accurate typist

[E] Kapil will it well into the new of ice

Instruction: Directions (46-50): Do as directed in each of the following questions.

Q.50) Most of the private companies have decided against awarding annual increase in the salaries of their employees for the
previous year due to current economic situations.

Which of the following assumptions is/are implicit in the statement?

(I) Majority of the employees may leave their job to protest against the decision.

(II) These companies may announce hike in salaries next year.

[A] Only I

[B] Only II

[C] Both I and II

[D] Either I or II

[E] Neither I nor II

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Instruction: Directions (51-53): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.

If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’.

If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is brother of B’.

If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’.

If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is son of B’.

Q.51) How is Q related to P, if ‘P ÷ R × T – Q’?

[A] Granddaughter

[B] Mother-in-law/Father-in-law

[C] Grandmother

[D] Grandmother/Grandfather

[E] None of the above

Instruction: Directions (51-53): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.

If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’.

If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is brother of B’.

If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’.

If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is son of B’.

Q.52) How is P related to R, if ‘P – Q + R ÷ T’?

[A] Brother/Sister

[B] Niece

[C] Sister

[D] Nephew/Niece

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (51-53): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.

If ‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’.

If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is brother of B’.

If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’.

If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is son of B’.

Q.53) How is T related to P, if ‘P × Q – T + R’?

[A] Mother

[B] Father-in-law

[C] Mother-in-law

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[D] Mother-in-law/Father-in law

[E] None of the above

Instruction: Directions (54-55): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Point B is 12 m South of Point A. Point C is 24 m East of Point B. Point D is 8 m South of Point C. Point D is 12 m East of Point E
and Point F is 8 m North of Point E.

Q.54) If a man has to travel to Point E from Point A (through these points by the shortest distance), which of the following
points will be pass through irst?

[A] Point C

[B] Point D

[C] Point F

[D] Point B

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (54-55): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Point B is 12 m South of Point A. Point C is 24 m East of Point B. Point D is 8 m South of Point C. Point D is 12 m East of Point E
and Point F is 8 m North of Point E.

Q.55) If a man is standing facing North at Point C, how far and in which direction is Point F?

[A] 12 m, West

[B] 24 m, East

[C] 12 m, East

[D] 24 m, West

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions (56-60): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twelve friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in such a way that there is equal distance between
adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing north and in row 2 P, Q, R, S, T and U, are
seated and are facing south, but not necessarily in the same order.

R’s daughter is immediate neighbor of the one, who faces R. Q is married to F. There are four persons sits to the right of R. R’s
son-in-law sits third to the left of the one, who faces the person, who is immediate left of A’s brother. Two persons sit between S
and T. R’s brother sits second to the right of R’s sister. S does not sit one of the extreme ends. A is brother-in-law of B. There are
one person sits between R’s son and R’s daughter. A’s father sits second to the right of A’s brother. E is married to S. only one
person sits between A’s brother and R’s mother. R’s son-in-law does not sit one of the extreme ends. P faces E, who sits one of
the extreme left end. B sits third to the right of E. Q sits immediate right of the person, who faces R’s wife. R’s mother sits third to
the left of the one, who faces the one, who sits immediate right of R’s son-in-law. R’s brother-in-law sits fourth to the left of R’s
wife. C sits diagonally opposite to the one, who is immediate right of U. A is son-in-law of D. A’s sister-in-law faces S. A’s sister-in-
law sits third to the left of R’s daughter.

Q.56) Who is grandmother of B?

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[A] T

[B] D’s mother-in-law

[C] Person sits one of the extreme left end.

[D] E’s mother-in-law

[E] All are true

Instruction: Directions (56-60): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twelve friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in such a way that there is equal distance between
adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing north and in row 2 P, Q, R, S, T and U, are
seated and are facing south, but not necessarily in the same order.

R’s daughter is immediate neighbor of the one, who faces R. Q is married to F. There are four persons sits to the right of R. R’s
son-in-law sits third to the left of the one, who faces the person, who is immediate left of A’s brother. Two persons sit between S
and T. R’s brother sits second to the right of R’s sister. S does not sit one of the extreme ends. A is brother-in-law of B. There are
one person sits between R’s son and R’s daughter. A’s father sits second to the right of A’s brother. E is married to S. only one
person sits between A’s brother and R’s mother. R’s son-in-law does not sit one of the extreme ends. P faces E, who sits one of
the extreme left end. B sits third to the right of E. Q sits immediate right of the person, who faces R’s wife. R’s mother sits third to
the left of the one, who faces the one, who sits immediate right of R’s son-in-law. R’s brother-in-law sits fourth to the left of R’s
wife. C sits diagonally opposite to the one, who is immediate right of U. A is son-in-law of D. A’s sister-in-law faces S. A’s sister-in-
law sits third to the left of R’s daughter.

Q.57) Who sits second to the left of the one, who faces the person, who sits second to the left of P?

[A] R’s brother

[B] Q

[C] None are true

[D] A

[E] S’s husband

Instruction: Directions (56-60): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twelve friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in such a way that there is equal distance between
adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing north and in row 2 P, Q, R, S, T and U, are
seated and are facing south, but not necessarily in the same order.

R’s daughter is immediate neighbor of the one, who faces R. Q is married to F. There are four persons sits to the right of R. R’s
son-in-law sits third to the left of the one, who faces the person, who is immediate left of A’s brother. Two persons sit between S
and T. R’s brother sits second to the right of R’s sister. S does not sit one of the extreme ends. A is brother-in-law of B. There are
one person sits between R’s son and R’s daughter. A’s father sits second to the right of A’s brother. E is married to S. only one
person sits between A’s brother and R’s mother. R’s son-in-law does not sit one of the extreme ends. P faces E, who sits one of
the extreme left end. B sits third to the right of E. Q sits immediate right of the person, who faces R’s wife. R’s mother sits third to
the left of the one, who faces the one, who sits immediate right of R’s son-in-law. R’s brother-in-law sits fourth to the left of R’s
wife. C sits diagonally opposite to the one, who is immediate right of U. A is son-in-law of D. A’s sister-in-law faces S. A’s sister-in-
law sits third to the left of R’s daughter.

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Q.58) Who sits immediate left of the one, who is sister-in-law of A?

[A] B

[B] C’s brother

[C] Q’s brother

[D] E’s brother-in-law

[E] Q

Instruction: Directions (56-60): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twelve friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in such a way that there is equal distance between
adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing north and in row 2 P, Q, R, S, T and U, are
seated and are facing south, but not necessarily in the same order.

R’s daughter is immediate neighbor of the one, who faces R. Q is married to F. There are four persons sits to the right of R. R’s
son-in-law sits third to the left of the one, who faces the person, who is immediate left of A’s brother. Two persons sit between S
and T. R’s brother sits second to the right of R’s sister. S does not sit one of the extreme ends. A is brother-in-law of B. There are
one person sits between R’s son and R’s daughter. A’s father sits second to the right of A’s brother. E is married to S. only one
person sits between A’s brother and R’s mother. R’s son-in-law does not sit one of the extreme ends. P faces E, who sits one of
the extreme left end. B sits third to the right of E. Q sits immediate right of the person, who faces R’s wife. R’s mother sits third to
the left of the one, who faces the one, who sits immediate right of R’s son-in-law. R’s brother-in-law sits fourth to the left of R’s
wife. C sits diagonally opposite to the one, who is immediate right of U. A is son-in-law of D. A’s sister-in-law faces S. A’s sister-in-
law sits third to the left of R’s daughter.

Q.59) Who is the niece of P?

[A] B

[B] T’s son

[C] Q’s wife

[D] Q’s sister-in-law

[E] Q

Instruction: Directions (56-60): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

Twelve friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in such a way that there is equal distance between
adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing north and in row 2 P, Q, R, S, T and U, are
seated and are facing south, but not necessarily in the same order.

R’s daughter is immediate neighbor of the one, who faces R. Q is married to F. There are four persons sits to the right of R. R’s
son-in-law sits third to the left of the one, who faces the person, who is immediate left of A’s brother. Two persons sit between S
and T. R’s brother sits second to the right of R’s sister. S does not sit one of the extreme ends. A is brother-in-law of B. There are
one person sits between R’s son and R’s daughter. A’s father sits second to the right of A’s brother. E is married to S. only one
person sits between A’s brother and R’s mother. R’s son-in-law does not sit one of the extreme ends. P faces E, who sits one of
the extreme left end. B sits third to the right of E. Q sits immediate right of the person, who faces R’s wife. R’s mother sits third to
the left of the one, who faces the one, who sits immediate right of R’s son-in-law. R’s brother-in-law sits fourth to the left of R’s
wife. C sits diagonally opposite to the one, who is immediate right of U. A is son-in-law of D. A’s sister-in-law faces S. A’s sister-in-
law sits third to the left of R’s daughter.

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Q.60) If P related to A’s sister-in-law in the same way as Q related to R’s daughter. Which of the following is U related to,
following the same pattern?

[A] R’s brother

[B] C’s brother

[C] F

[D] A

[E] None of these

Mock Test 2
Answers

English

Q.1)C Q.2)B Q.3)E Q.4)B Q.5)C Q.6)A Q.7)C Q.8)B Q.9)C Q.10)B Q.11)C Q.12)B Q.13)E

Q.14)D Q.15)A Q.16)C Q.17)D Q.18)B Q.19)B Q.20)A Q.21)C Q.22)B Q.23)A Q.24)D Q.25)E

Q.26)C Q.27)B Q.28)D Q.29)A Q.30)B

Quant

Q.1)B Q.2)B Q.3)E Q.4)C Q.5)D Q.6)B Q.7)E Q.8)C Q.9)A Q.10)D Q.11)A Q.12)B Q.13)C

Q.14)B Q.15)A Q.16)B Q.17)C Q.18)E Q.19)A Q.20)E Q.21)E Q.22)C Q.23)B Q.24)D Q.25)B

Q.26)E Q.27)D Q.28)B Q.29)A Q.30)E

General Awareness

Q.1)B Q.2)B Q.3)B Q.4)A Q.5)D Q.6)B Q.7)A Q.8)A Q.9)A Q.10)A Q.11)C Q.12)E Q.13)B

Q.14)C Q.15)E Q.16)E Q.17)E Q.18)D Q.19)C Q.20)D Q.21)D Q.22)B Q.23)B Q.24)C Q.25)E

Q.26)E Q.27)C Q.28)B Q.29)B Q.30)E Q.31)D Q.32)A Q.33)E Q.34)A Q.35)E Q.36)C Q.37)B

Q.38)D Q.39)D Q.40)A Q.41)C Q.42)E Q.43)D Q.44)B Q.45)C Q.46)C Q.47)B Q.48)C Q.49)B

Q.50)B Q.51)E Q.52)E Q.53)C Q.54)B Q.55)A Q.56)A Q.57)D Q.58)B Q.59)B Q.60)C Q.61)D

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Q.62)D Q.63)D Q.64)B Q.65)B Q.66)B Q.67)A Q.68)C Q.69)D Q.70)C Q.71)A Q.72)A Q.73)B

Q.74)C Q.75)D Q.76)D Q.77)C Q.78)A Q.79)A Q.80)D

Reasoning

Q.1)B Q.2)A Q.3)C Q.4)D Q.5)E Q.6)A Q.7)D Q.8)E Q.9)E Q.10)D Q.11)D Q.12)D Q.13)E

Q.14)C Q.15)B Q.16)D Q.17)A Q.18)E Q.19)D Q.20)D Q.21)A Q.22)C Q.23)D Q.24)D Q.25)E

Q.26)C Q.27)A Q.28)B Q.29)B Q.30)C Q.31)C Q.32)B Q.33)C Q.34)E Q.35)C Q.36)B Q.37)E

Q.38)B Q.39)D Q.40)E Q.41)E Q.42)D Q.43)D Q.44)B Q.45)C Q.46)E Q.47)A Q.48)C Q.49)A

Q.50)E Q.51)D Q.52)E Q.53)B Q.54)D Q.55)A Q.56)E Q.57)E Q.58)C Q.59)D Q.60)B

Mock Test 2
Explanations

English

Q.1) Explanation:

Option (c) is correct. The World Bank offered a ‘safety net’ for primary education.

Q.2) Explanation:

Option (b) is correct. The purpose of ‘adjustment’ was to facilitate India’s integration into the global
economy. It was designed to cushion the harsh effects that ‘structural adjustment’
under  liberalisation  was expected to cause in welfare sectors like children’s education and health. The
national policy on education drafted in 1986 had mostly adhered to the established state-centric view. 

Q.3) Explanation:

Option (e) is the correct answer.  Liberalisation is the central theme of new economic policy.

Q.4) Explanation:

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The answer is (b). Higher education should respond to market demands in terms of knowledge and skills.
Over the last three decades, these two guiding ideas have dented the established system of higher
education.

Q.5) Explanation:

The answer is (c). In 1991 came the dramatic announcement of a new economic policy, accompanied by a
package of steps to be taken for ‘structural adjustment’ of the Indian economy.

Q.6) Explanation:

(a) is correct option. Triggered: started.

Q.7) Explanation:

The correct answer is (c).

Q.8) Explanation:

Option (b) is correct.

Q.9) Explanation:

Option (c) is correct.  ‘Enter’ is not followed by into when it is used for a physical space (courtyard, room,
place etc) . But when ‘enter’ is used for an agreement, we use ‘into’ after it. 

Q.10) Explanation:

The answer is (b). ‘Emphasized’ is not followed by ‘on’.

Q.11) Explanation:

Option (c) is the correct answer. The meanings of the words are: Abandoning: desert or leave something or
someone. Ensuring: make sure something will happen. The statement talks about how countries are
making the animals move, and ironically, they are not making it easy for their movement. The word which

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fits in the first blank is ‘forcing’ as climate change forces one to make necessary action. The other words
won’t fit here.

Q.12) Explanation:

The answer is (b). The meanings of the following words are: Amends: compensate or make up for a
wrongdoing Plots: a plan made in secret by a group of people to do something illegal or harmful Gauge: an
instrument that measures and gives a visual display of the amount, level, or contents of something Atone:
make amends or reparation The statement talks about making things right as soon as possible or we
won’t be able to save humanity. Thus, the words which can go in the second blank is ‘atone’ or ‘amends’.
However, the phrase ‘make amends’ fits appropriately in the given blank.

Q.13) Explanation:

The correct option is (e). The meanings of the following words are: Daunting: seeming difficult to deal with
in prospect Craving: powerful desire to do something Heartening: increasing cheerfulness Scraping: the
action or sound of something scraping or being scraped The only ‘word’ which fits the blank is ‘using’. The
rest of the options are invalid.

Q.14) Explanation:

Option (d) is correct. The meanings of the following words are:

Outgrowing: grow too big for

illustrating: explain with examples

Warping: to make or to become bent or twisted out of shape, typically as a result of the effects of heat or
damp

Abusing: misuse repeatedly

Depraving: make someone immoral

Q.15) Explanation:

Option (a) is correct. The meanings of the following words are:

Amplifies: make (something) more marked or intense

misemploys: employ or use (something) wrongly or improperly

expounded: present and explain (a theory or idea) in detail

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elucidates: make something clear

clucks: (of a person) make a short, low sound with one's tongue to express concern or disapproval

As we are talking about thing which increases climate change, option A fits in the blank perfectly.

Q.16) Explanation:

Option (c) is correct.

The meanings of the following words are:

Illuminates: to light up Transitive: ability to pass across or through

Choices: an act of choosing between two or more possibilities

Reasoning: to do or think something in a logical way

Prophecies: predictions about what will happen in the future

Out of the given options, option C fits the blank as one has to make conscious ‘choice’. The other words
do not fit contextually.

Q.17) Explanation:

Option (d) is correct.

Q.18) Explanation:

Option (b) is correct.

Q.19) Explanation:

Option (b) is the right choice.

Q.20) Explanation:

The correct answer is (a).

Q.21) Explanation:

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The correct answer is (c). Dominating (verb) means have power and influence over. The concept of market
dominance is used here for a measure of the strength of a brand, product, service, or firm, relative to
competitive offerings. Hence, option C is the right answer.

Q.22) Explanation:

The correct answer is (b). Reverse (verb) - move backwards. It is contextually the most suitable response
as the given context is all about creating a network which would help in reversing the labour's share in
GDP.

Extricate - free (someone or something) from a constraint or difficulty.

Dis-cumber - to free from that which cumbers or impedes. Stagnate - cease developing; become inactive or
dull. Typify - represent; symbolize. Hence, option B is the correct response.

Q.23) Explanation:

The correct answer is (a). Stability (noun) - the state of being stable. "Stability" is used in the sentence for
labors share which has been described by the author as "miracle". Auxiliary - providing supplementary or
additional help and support. Diffusion - the spreading of something more widely. Amelioration - the act of
making something better; improvement. Respite - a short period of rest or relief from something difficult
or unpleasant. Hence, option A is the correct response.

Q.24) Explanation:

The correct answer is (d).

Q.25) Explanation:

The correct answer is (e).

Q.26) Explanation:

The correct answer is (c).

Q.27) Explanation:

The correct answer is (b).

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Q.28) Explanation:

The correct answer is (d).

Q.29) Explanation:

The correct answer is (a).

Q.30) Explanation:

The correct answer is (b).

Quant

Q.1) Explanation:

Quantity I:

Let F and G be the centers and r be the radius of the semicircles ABC and CDE respectively.

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∵ F and G are the centers of the semicircles ABC and CDE and B and D are the midpoints of the arc ABC and
CDE respectively,
∴ ∠BFC = ∠DGC = 90°

∴ FB = FC = GC = GD = r = = 10 cm

And, ∆BFC and ∆DGC are right angled isosceles triangles.

Area of shaded region

= 2 × (25π – 50)
= 50 × (π – 2)

≈ 57.08 cm2
Quantity II > Quantity I

Q.2) Explanation:

Quantity I:
Time taken by the trains to meet for the irst time

= 2 hours
Distance between point R and Q

= Distance travelled by train B in 2 hours

= 100 × 2

= 200 km
Quantity II:

Time taken by the train B to travel from Q to P and then return to Q = = 7.2 hours

Train A took the same time as train B in traveling from P to Q and then Q to S.
∴ Distance between P and Q + Distance between Q and S = Distance travelled by train A in 7.2 hours

⟹ 360 + Distance between Q and S = 80 × 7.2 = 576

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⟹ Distance between Q and S = 576 – 360 = 216 km

Quantity II > Quantity I

Q.3) Explanation:

Let time taken to complete the work by a man and a woman are ‘M’ and ‘W’ days respectively.

A→

B→

C→

Ratio of ef iciencies is required to answer the question which can be obtained from either C alone or A and B
together.
Hence, the question can be answered by using either C alone or A and B together.

Q.4) Explanation:

Length of train B is 20% less than that of train A.

A → Train A crosses another train B moving in same direction in 72 sec.

∴ Time taken = 72 sec

B → Speed of train A is 25km/h more than that of train B.
∴ Speed of train A – Speed of train B = 25km/h.

C → Length of train B is 20% less than that of train A.

∴ Let the lengths of trains A and B be 5x and 4x meters respectively.

From all the three statements,

Since the trains are moving in the same directions,
∴ Relative speed = Speed of train A – Speed of train B = 25km/h

Sum of lengths of trains = 5x + 4x = 9x

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Hence, the question can be answered by using all the three statements together.

Q.5) Explanation:

A → Cone has same base as that of the cylinder (same radius) and height 30 cm.

Volume of cone = Volume of cylinder

⟹ × π × (rcone)2 × hcone = π × (rcylinder)2 × hcylinder

⟹ × hcone = hcylinder (∵ rcone = rcylinder)

⟹ hcylinder = 10 cm

B → Circumference of base of the cylinder = 132 cm

⟹ 2 × π × rcylinder = 132 cm
⟹ rcylinder = 21 cm

C → Volume of cylinder = 13860 cm3

⟹π × (rcylinder)2 × hcylinder = 13860 cm3

Radius and height of the cylinder can be obtained from any two statements.
Hence, the question can be answered by using any two of the three statements together.

Q.6) Explanation:

Let total sale in 2015 and 2016 is and respectively

Sale of Suzuki and bullet in 2016=

Q.7) Explanation:

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Q.8) Explanation:

Let pulsar sold in 2015 =

Let Discover sold in 2016 =

Q.9) Explanation:

Let total sale of bike in 2015 =

Let total sale of bike in 2016 =

Q.10) Explanation:

Let total sale in both years =

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So, total sale of pulsar in 2015

Total sale of Discover in 2016

Q.11) Explanation:

       

        

            

Q.12) Explanation:

Total ef iciency =

Time = 2 hours

Q.13) Explanation:

Perimeter of plot m

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Total cost of fencing Rs. 714

Q.14) Explanation:

P — 45000 × 12

Q — 54000 × 6

R — 30000 × 8
Ratio of their pro it = 45 : 27 : 20

Total pro it earned

Q.15) Explanation:

Gold Silver

Gold : Silver =

Q.16) Explanation:

Let the work done by a man and a woman is one day be M and W respectively. Total work (in units)

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on putting we get

or

ef iciency of man is greater by 500%.

Q.17) Explanation:

Let total number of goods = 100

With CP of each good = Rs. 1

Total CP = Rs. 100

SP for half of the goods =

SP for th of the goods =

SP for th of the goods =

Total SP = Rs. 102

Percent pro it =

Q.18) Explanation:

(6×10%)of A = (10 × 12%) of B = (12 × 15%) of C

(A, B, C are the investments)

0.6 A = 1.2 B = 1.8 C

A:B:C: = 6:3:2

Q.19) Explanation:

Let average age of new students yr.

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yr.

Q.20) Explanation:

Let sum

Q.21) Explanation:

Let, books published in Jan = x

Books published in April = y

Given, x + y = 540 …(i)

& 25% of x = 20% of y

5x = 4y

Put in eq. (i)

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Q.22) Explanation:

Books published in Feb by Company X = a

a × 40% = 240 × 60%

a = 360

Total books sold by X & 4 in Feb = 360× 40% + 500× 22%

= 254

Q.23) Explanation:

Books published by X in April

= 300

Books published by Y in April = 300+ 300

Total no. of books sold in March & April by X & Y

Q.24) Explanation:

Books published in Jan = x

Books published in Feb = y

Q.25) Explanation:

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Q.26) Explanation:

The series is

so

Q.27) Explanation:

Series is

Q.28) Explanation:

Series is

Q.29) Explanation:

Pattern is ………..

Q.30) Explanation:

Pattern is 22 , 2, 2……………..

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General Awareness

Q.1) Explanation:

· Recently, Union Minister of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare has inaugurated the Virtual Agri-hackathon
2020, organized by the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation and Farmers’ Welfare in association with
IARI, Pusa.

· It is a first of its kind & the largest virtual event in the history of Indian agriculture

· Winners will get a cash prize of Rs 1,00,000 and the winning innovations will get pre-seed & seed-stage
funding of 5 Lakhs & 25 Lakhs.

Q.2) Explanation:

· Recently, President Faustin-Archange Touadera has won the Central African Republic’s presidential
election again by securing more than 53% of votes.

· About Central African Republic

Capital: Bangui
Currency: Central African Franc

Q.3) Explanation:

· Nayan Doshi, aged 42, is the oldest player to feature in the pool of 292 players shortlisted for the Indian
Premier League (IPL) auction.

· The youngest player overall is Afghanistan's Noor Ahmad, aged 16.

Q.4) Explanation:

· Recently, Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment has informed that Artificial Limbs Manufacturing
Corporation of India (ALIMCO) has contributed Rs 75 Lakhs towards Prime Minister CARES Fund under its
CSR Initiative to fight against the COVID pandemic.

Q.5) Explanation:

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· The ECGC Limited (Formerly Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd) is a company wholly
owned by the Government of India with headquarters located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

· It provides export credit insurance support to Indian exporters and is controlled by the Ministry of
Commerce.

Q.6) Explanation:

· The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constructed a composite Digital Payments Index (DPI) to capture the
extent of digitisation of payments across the country.
About the Index:

· The RBI-DPI comprises 5 broad parameters that enable measurement of deepening and penetration of
digital payments in the country over different time periods.

· 5 Parameters:

o Payment Enablers (weight 25%),

o Payment Infrastructure – Demand-side factors (10%),

o Payment Infrastructure – Supply-side factors (15%),

o Payment Performance (45%) and

o Consumer Centricity (5%).

· It has been constructed with March 2018 as the base period, i.e. DPI score for March 2018 is set at 100.

· It will be published on RBI’s website on a semi-annual basis from March 2021 onwards with a lag of 4
months.

Q.7) Explanation:

· Recently, Israel Embassy in India will have a separate 'Water Attaché' from January 2021 to help share
their country's best practices and technologies for advancements in India's water management and agriculture
sectors.

· Israel will soon nominate an honorary Consul in the North-East with the aim to increase its presence and
collaboration in the region.

· Israel’s Capital: Jerusalem, Currency: Israeli Shekel.

Q.8) Explanation:

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· Recently an Indian app named “Sandesh” is going to be launched by the government soon to compete
against WhatsApp.

· This is an indigenous instant messaging app.

· However, this app is going to be launched by the government soon for common users.

Q.9) Explanation:

· Recently Universal Health Day or Universal Health Coverage Day (UHC Day) was celebrated on 12th
December as a point of convergence to stand for health for all.

· The UHC Day aims to raise awareness of the need for strong and resilient health systems and UHC with
multi-stakeholder partners.

· Theme - “Health for All: Protect Everyone”

Q.10) Explanation:

· Recently, Dr Raghu Ram Pillarisetti has been named in the Queen Elizabeth II’s 2021 New Year’s Honors
list for his immense contribution in raising awareness about breast cancer.

· He is the Director of KIMS-USHALAKSHMI Centre for Breast Disease and has been honored with OBE
(Order of British Empire)- Officer of the Most Excellent Order of British Empire.

· OBE is the second highest ranking order of the British Empire.

Q.11) Explanation:

· India’s homegrown app MapMyIndia ties up with ISRO to build an alternative to Google Maps.

· The agreement between ISRO and MapmyIndia is suggested to become an alternative to Google maps and
similar platforms.

· The collaboration with MapMyIndia will turn out to be a benefit for users because it will use digital maps of
MapmyIndia and satellite imagery and earth observation data of ISRO.

Q.12) Explanation:

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· Gugamal National Park was built in 1974.

· This park is located in Chikhaldara and Dharni Tehsils of Amravati District, Maharashtra, India.

· It is part of Melghat Tiger Reserve.

Q.13) Explanation:

· Recently, British diplomat Brian Urqhuhart, an early leader of the United Nations who played a central
role in developing the U.N. practice of peacekeeping, has passed away.

Q.14) Explanation:

· The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship has launched the Mahatma Gandhi National
Fellowship (MGNF) programme in partnership with nine Indian Institutes’ of Management (IIM) in Bengaluru,
Ahmedabad, Lucknow, Kozhikode, Visakhapatnam, Udaipur, Nagpur, Ranchi, and Jammu.

· Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Minister Mahendra Nath Pandey chaired the event on
‘Transforming skilling through strategic partnerships under SANKALP’ and rolled out the MGNF and other
initiatives.

· The two-year government-funded programme has been launched under the World Bank loan assisted
programme SANKALP (Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion).

· The selected fellows under the programme will be given a stipend of about Rs 50,000 per month during the
first year and Rs 60,000 per month during the second year.

· Initially, the fellows will be imparted training by the nine top IIMs of the country and after that, the fellows
will work on strengthening the District Skill Committees and the District Skill administration.

Q.15) Explanation:

· Recently, Union cabinet approved a Memorandum of Understanding between Central Electricity Regulatory
Commission (CERC), India and Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC), USA for “exchange of informa on
in the electricity sectors”.

· It will help in improving whole sale power market and enhancing grid reliability.

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Q.16) Explanation:

· Recently, the incoming First Lady of USA, Jill Biden has named Indian-American Garima Verma as her
digital director and Michael La Rosa as the press secretary to the Office of the First Lady.

Q.17) Explanation:

· Award-winning writer, journalist and speaker, Meghna Pant has penned a new book “The Terrible,
Horrible, Very Bad Good News”.

· The book will be released in April 2021, and soon be seen as a major motion picture under the title Badnam
Ladoo.

Q.18) Explanation:

· About Indonesia:
o Capital: Jakarta

o Currency: Indonesian Rupiah

· Recently, the 4thBilateral Joint Working Group (JWG) meeting between the Narcotics Control Bureau
(NCB) India and the National Narcotics Board (BNN), Indonesia was held virtually.

Q.19) Explanation:

· The construction work of the new Parliament building started under the government's ambitious Central
Vista redevelopment plan by Tata Projects Ltd.

Q.20) Explanation:

· The 51st edition of the International Film Festival of India (IFFI) has honored the Italian cinematographer
Mr. Vittorio Storaro form ITALY with the prestigious Lifetime Achievement award.

Q.21) Explanation:

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· Nigeria’s Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala was appointed the seventh Director-General of the World Trade
Organization.

· She has become the first woman and the first African to head the multilateral trade body from March 1,
2021 to August 31, 2025.

Q.22) Explanation:

· Recently, Prime Minister of India, Shri Narendra Modi and Prime Minister of Bangladesh, Ms.Sheikh
Hasina jointly inaugurated a railway link between Haldibari in India and Chilahati in Bangladesh.

Q.23) Explanation:

· Recently, the National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) announced that it will offer a free IDN
(Internationalized Domain Name) in any of the 22 official Indian languages.

· Aim: This offer has been created to stimulate the adoption of (IDN) domain name and to increase local
language content.

Q.24) Explanation:

· Tyre manufacturer CEAT Tyres has signed Bollywood actor Rana Daggubati as its brand ambassador for
promoting the ‘Puncture Safe’ range of bike tyres across media platforms.

· As part of an integrated marketing campaign across all five southern states of India, Rana Daggubati will
feature in the new commercial for ‘Puncture Safe’ tyres to be aired across TV and digital platforms.

· The new commercial will also be aired during the ongoing India-England Test series.

Q.25) Explanation:

· Recently, the Shivalik Mercan le Co-opera ve Bank (SMCB) has received the commercial banking license
from banking regulator Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

· SMCB is the first urban co-opera ve bank (UCB) in India to transi on to a Small Finance Bank (SFB) under
the voluntary transi on scheme.
· SMCB will start its banking opera ons from April 2021.

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Q.26) Explanation:

· A webinar on India-Nepal Defence Coopera on Webinar and Expo has been held recently.

· Theme of webinar- “Exploring Synergies and Strengthening Defence Coopera on with Nepal”.

· Organized by- Department of Defence Produc on, Ministry of Defence, through Society of Indian
Defence Manufacturers (SIDM).

Q.27) Explanation:

· Recently, Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Telecom Skill Excellence Awards have been awarded to –
o First Prize - Sreenivas Karanam from Bangalore

o Second Prize - Subrat Kar from Delhi

Q.28) Explanation:

• State Bank of India has made a contribution of Rs. 5 crores to NSDF with the primary aim of meeting the
need and requirements of elite athletes supported under the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS).

Q.29) Explanation:

· Recently, DRDO Lifetime Achievement Award – 2018 was given to Shri N V Kadam for his contributions
for developing control and guidance schemes for missiles.

Q.30) Explanation:

• Judge Hima Kohli was sworn in as the Chief Justice of Telangana High Court becoming the first woman to
hold the position.
• She is also the only woman Chief Justice across 25 high courts of India.

Q.31) Explanation:
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· The former Chief of European Central Bank Mario Draghi has recently, sworn in as the new Prime
Minister of Italy, against the backdrop of the deadly pandemic and crippling economic recession.

Q.32) Explanation:

· According to Economic survey 2020-21 India is expected to have a Current Account Surplus of 2 per cent
of GDP in FY21- after a period of 17 years.

Q.33) Explanation:

· Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi was awarded with the ‘Legion of Merit’ by U.S. for his
leadership in elevating the U.S.-India strategic partnership.

· The award was also presented to Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe and Australian Prime Minister
Scott Morrison.

Q.34) Explanation:

· Recently, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has set up a Working Group (WG) to study all aspects of digital
lending activities in the regulated financial sector as well as by unregulated players.

· Chaired by - Jayant Kumar Dash

Terms of reference

· Evaluate digital lending activities and assess the penetration and standards of outsourced digital lending
activities in RBI regulated entities

· Identify risks posed by unregulated digital lending to financial stability, regulated entities and
consumers.

Q.35) Explanation:

· Hungary has become the first European Union member to start using Russia’s Sputnik V coronavirus
vaccine and hopes to deploy China’s Sinopharm vaccine soon, despite neither having received approval from the
EU’s medicines regulator.

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Q.36) Explanation:

· Recently, Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) was awarded with the prestigious Golden Peacock
Environment Management Award for the year 2020 in the Steel Sector.

· World Environment foundation instituted the award and is given to organizations on achievements in the
field of Environment Management.

Q.37) Explanation:

• Recently, Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) under the Ministry of Defence and Thales have signed a
“Teaming Agreement”; to work in partnership on the “STARStreak Air Defence system”.
• Agreement has been signed with the support of both the Governments of India and the United Kingdom.
• It will be developed under the ‘Make in India’ programme and it is touted to be the fastest missile in its
category.

Q.38) Explanation:

· Recently, Reserve Bank announced opening of Second Cohort under the Regulatory Sandbox with ‘Cross
Border Payments,’ as its theme.
Eligibility of Targeted Applicants as per Second Cohort

· FinTech companies, including start-ups, banks, financial institutions, and any other company.

· Now, Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) and partnership firms are also eligible.

· Net worth requirement are also reduced from the existing ₹25 lakh to ₹10 lakh.

Q.39) Explanation:

· The Headquarters of United Na ons Security Council (UNSC) is in New York, USA.

· It was established in 1945.

Q.40) Explanation:

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· The men's singles title of French open was won for the 13th time by Rafael Nadal, who won his 20th
Grand Slam title, defeating Novak Djokovic in the final.

· The women's singles title was won by Iga Świątek, who won her maiden WTA singles title, defeating Sofia
Kenin in the final.

Q.41) Explanation:

· Recently, Technology Information, Forecasting and Assessment Council (TIFAC) —SAKSHAM (Shramik
Shakti Manch) - a dynamic job portal for mapping the skills of Shramiks vis-à-vis requirements of MSMEs to
directly connect Shramiks with MSMEs and facilitate placement of 10 lakh blue-collar jobs and a Seaweed
Mission for commercial farming of seaweeds and its processing for value addition towards boosting national
economy.

Q.42) Explanation:

· Recently, President RamNath Kovind presented the Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award at the 16th Pravasi
Bharatiya Divas celebrations held virtually.

· List of awardees is as follows:

o Suriname President Chandrikapersad Santokhi

o Curacao Prime Minister Eugene Rhuggenaath

o New Zealand minister Priyanca Radhakrishnan

o MukheshAghi, president and CEO of US-India Strategic Partnership Forum

· List of organizations conferred with the award:

o NGO Cultural Diversity for Peaceful Future in Armenia

o SaiPrema Foundation in Fiji

o Indian Cultural Association in Nigeria

o Federation of Indian Associations of New York, New Jersey and Connecticut

· Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award is the highest honour conferred by the President of India on a Non-
Resident Indian (NRI), Person of Indian Origin (PIO), and organisation or institution established and run by NRIs
or PIOs.

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Q.43) Explanation:

· Recently, RBI announced to introduce the ‘Positive Pay System’ for cheque transactions above Rs
50,000 from 1st Jan 2021 in a bid to enhance safety and eliminate frauds.
What is the Posi ve Pay System?

· The concept of Positive Pay involves a process of reconfirming key details of large-value cheques.

· Under this process, the issuer of the cheque submits electronically, through channels like SMS, mobile app,
Internet banking and ATM, certain minimum details of that cheque (like date, name of the beneficiary, or payee
and amount) to the drawee bank, details of which are cross-checked with the presented cheque by Cheque
Truncation System (CTS).

· Any discrepancy is flagged by CTS to the drawee bank and presenting bank, who then take redressal
measures.

Q.44) Explanation:

· Recently, the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has asked the Food Safety and
Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) to take appropriate action in the honey adulteration issue.

Q.45) Explanation:

· CBIC had amended rules to make it mandatory for businesses with monthly turnover of over Rs 50 lakh (6
crores annually) to pay at least 1 per cent of their GST liability in cash.

· Accordingly, the rule applies only to about 45,000 taxpayers out of the GST taxpayer base of 1.2 crore and
genuine dealers and businesses would not be impacted.

· The new rule restricts the use of input tax credit (ITC) for discharging GST liability to 99 per cent,
effective January 1, 2021.

Q.46) Explanation:

· World wetlands Day is celebrated annually on February 2.

· Theme 2021 - 'Wetlands and Water'

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Q.47) Explanation:

· Recently, IndusInd Bank in partnership with Mastercard announced the launch of its first metal credit
card - ‘PIONEER Heritage’.
Key benefits of the Card

· Unlimited complimentary access to participating international and domestic airport lounges

· Lost baggage insurance of ₹1,00,000 & Loss of travel document insurance of ₹75,000

· Complimentary personal air accident cover of ₹2.5 crores

· Waiver on card annual fee if the cardholder meets the minimum spends criteria of ₹10,00,000 or more

Q.48) Explanation:

· Recently, Delhi government has directed schools in the capital to implement the new 'school bag policy'
to reduce the weight of school bags for students of primary, secondary and senior secondary schools.

· Recommended maximum bag weight - 3.5-5kg

Q.49) Explanation:

· Recently, Snapdeal has partnered with National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to allow buyers
to make QR-based digital payments at the time of accepting delivery of their orders.

· The facility is aimed at new or first-time users who are not comfortable in pre-paying for the goods at the
time of purchase.

· The facility will work with all UPI-payment options, including Bhim, Google Pay, Whatsapp Pay,
PhonePe, Paytm and UPI apps from private & public sector banks like HDFC, SBI, ICICI and others.

Q.50) Explanation:

· Star Health Insurance Partners with PhonePe to offer Digital Health Insurance.

· PhonePe-digital payments account in India.

· Star Health Insurance, insurtechStar Health and Allied Insurance, a standalone health insurance company
in India, announced the launch of its Arogya Sanjeevani policy on Indian digital payments platform, PhonePe.

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Q.51) Explanation:

· Recently, the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh has launched the “Kisan Kalyan Mission” in every
development block of all the districts.

· Started from - Dadupur village, Lucknow.

· Aim: Doubling of Farmers Income in Uttar Pradesh by 2022.

Q.52) Explanation:

· As per Union Budget 2021-22, the law on minimum wages would now apply to workers of all categories
including gig workers and platform workers.

· Such workers would now be covered by the Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC).

Q.53) Explanation:

· Recently, the Employees Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) has started crediting 8.5% interest on
employees' provident fund (EPF) for 2019-20.

· Estimated cost to provide 8.5% interest for 2019-20: Rs 60,700 crores.

· 8.5% interest comprises 8.15% (debt income) and 0.35 % (capital gain) from the sale of ETFs (exchange
traded funds) investments.

Q.54) Explanation:

● Recently, the scien sts at Ins tute of Nano Science and Technology (INST), Mohali (Punjab), have
produced an ultra-high mobility 2d-electron gas (2DEG).
● The gas can speed up transfer of quantum informa on and signal from one part of a device to another and
increase data storage and memory.

Q.55) Explanation:

· National Productivity day is celebrated annually on 12th February.

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Q.56) Explanation:

· Recently, the BFSI (banking, financial services and insurance) Movers and Shakers 2020 report has
been released by Wizikey.
Key Highlights of Report

· HDFC, ICICI, SBI, Yes Bank, PNB, HSBC Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank, Bank of Baroda, Deutsche
Bank and IDBI are the top-10 banks of 2020.

· Google Pay and PhonePe were the top wallets among the customers

· YONO emerged as the number one in Neo Banks Category, followed by Niyo and Kotak 811.

Q.57) Explanation:

· Recently, Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh has unveiled state-of-the-art ‘Driverless Metro Car’ for
Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA).

· The Driverless Metro trains are being manufactured at BEML Bangaluru Complex.

· On the occasion, Aerospace Assembly Hangar, situated within BEML’s Bangalore Complex, and first
indigenously manufactured Tatra Cabin by BEML was also unveiled.

Q.58) Explanation:

· The 16th ‘Yudh Abhyas’, joint military exercise of India and the United States commenced in Rajasthan.

· It is being held from 8th Feb to 21st Feb 2021.

· The Indo-US joint military exercise is being held at the Mahajan Field Firing Ranges of Bikaner district
of Rajasthan.

· The Yudh Abhyas Indo-US military exercise will help to strengthen the defence relations of both nations.

· The Indian side is represented by: BMP-II Mechanized Infantry Combat Vehicles.

· US side is represented by: Indigenous Advanced Light Helicopter WSI RUDRA, MI-17, Chinooks,
Stryker Vehicles.

Q.59) Explanation:

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· India ranked 10th out of 11 Asia Pacific countries in a newly-launched health index to measure the
progress towards personalised healthcare.

· Top Rankers-Singapore(1st), Taiwan (2nd), Japan (3rd) and Australia (4th) also performed well in overall
readiness.

· These include Policy Context, Health Information, Personalised Technologies and Health Services.

Q.60) Explanation:

· Recently, SEBI issued new stress testing perimeters for commodity derivatives in order to tackle extreme
volatile price events.

· Price movements of the last 15 years will be scanned for stress testing instead of 10 years at present.

Q.61) Explanation:

· Recently, India and Japan have signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) to enhance cooperation in
the field of Information and Communications Technologies.

· As per MoU, the two countries will enhance mutual cooperation in the field of 5G technologies, telecom
security, submarine optical fiber cable system to islands of India, spectrum management, smart cities, etc.

· About Japan-
Capital- Tokyo
Currency- Japanese Yen

Q.62) Explanation:

Credit Growth:

· The credit deceleration in India since 2013 could partly be attributed to a gradual worsening of asset quality.

· The growth rate in credit off take has steeply declined to 5.8% in November 2020, as against 14.2% in
2013.

· However, the accommodative stance of monetary policy and reduction in the policy repo rate (starting
from 2019) helped cushion the credit deceleration.

· The central bank has slashed policy repo rate by 350 basis points to 4 per cent now from 7.50 per cent in
March 2013.

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· Other factors contributing to the slowdown of credit growth include a slowdown in economic activity and
deposits.

Q.63) Explanation:

· Mohamed Zeeshan authors the book titled “Flying Blind: India’s Quest for Global Leadership”.

Q.64) Explanation:

· The Global Firepower Index ranks the countries as per their military strength.

· To rank the countries, the GFI makes the calculations by considering 50 individual factors.
Global Power Index 2021

· India is ranked at 4th position (PwrIndx: 0.1214) among 138 countries.

· India is having 542 combat aircraft, 17 submarines, 4,730 tanks and 37 attack helicopters.

· The GFI 2021 is topped by the United States (PwrIndx: 0.0721).

· The United States is having 904 attack helicopters, 11 aircraft carriers, 68 submarines and 40,000 armoured
fighting vehicles.

· The second and third position is obtained by Russia and China respectively.

Q.65) Explanation:

· Indian Army National Seminar-cum-Webinar, named as “Divya-Drishti 2021” on Multi-Domain

Operations: Future of Conflicts organised by Centre for Land Warfare Studies (CLAWS), in February 2021.

· “Divya-Drishti 2021”, meaning divine or cognitive perception required for an informed vision, aimed to
bring together national and international experts and practitioners to deliberate on the complex and
emerging subject on multi-domain operations (MDO).

Q.66) Explanation:

· Recently, Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujib Dhaka Marathon 2021 took place at the Dhaka Army Stadium. The
winners at the marathon were:

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· Full Marathon (SAAF Elite)-

o Bahadur Singh of India: Champion in the men's category

o PushpaBhandari of Nepal: Champion in the women's category

· Full Marathon (International Elite)-

o HichamLaqouahi of Morocco: Champion in the men's category

o Angela Jim Asunde from Kenya: Champion in the men's category

· Jigmet Dolma (SPO of Ladakh police) of India has secured fourth position in the Dhaka Marathon 2021

Q.67) Explanation:

· ICICI Bank launched an API Banking portal, consisting the maximum number of virtual
APIs (application programming interfaces) put together by any Indian bank.

Q.68) Explanation:

· Recently, Boeing (USA) announced the successful demonstration of the compatibility of its F/A-18 Super
Hornet fighter jets with the Indian Navy’s aircraft carriers and the STOBAR (Short Takeoff but Arrested
Recovery) system.
About STOBAR:

· STOBAR is a system used for the launch and recovery of aircraft from the deck of an aircraft carrier.

Q.69) Explanation:

· Recently, Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu has inaugurated the CM’s Amma Mini Clinic Scheme.

· Under the scheme, around 2000 mini-clinics will be set up in the state to provide various health facili es to
the people.

Q.70) Explanation:

· The Pi Beam, which is an IIT Madras-incubated start-up, recently launched the electric two-wheeler called
‘PiMO’.

· Highlights Pi Beam has set an aim of selling 10,000 vehicles by the end of financial year 2021-22.
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· The bike was founded by an IIT Madras Alum Visakh Sasikumar.

Q.71) Explanation:

· Recently, former US Ambassador to the United Nations, Samantha Power has been named as the
administrator of the United States Agency for International Development (USAID).

Q.72) Explanation:

· The fiscal deficit in Budget Estimate 2021-2022 is estimated to be 6.8% of GDP.

· The fiscal deficit in Revised Estimate 2020-21 is pegged a 9.5% of GDP - funded through Government
borrowings multilateral borrowings, Small Saving Funds and short term borrowings.

Q.73) Explanation:

· The All India Gem & Jewellery Domestic Council (GJC), the national apex body of the gems and jewellery
industry has recently appointed Ashish Pethe as its new chairman.

Q.74) Explanation:

· The ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment released the third edition of the Indian Sign Language
(ISL) Dictionary.

· The new edition comprises of 10,000 terms of daily.

· It also includes the academic, legal, medical technical, administrative and agricultural terms in it.

Q.75) Explanation:

· An all-women cockpit crew of Air India has completed the longest flight from San Francisco to
Bengaluru.

· Zoya Aggarwal (Captain) was leading the flight along with Captain Papagari Thanmai, Captain Akansha
Sonaware and Captain Shivani Manhas.

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Q.76) Explanation:

· Recently, Union Health Minister has addressed an event by Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) and UN
Office for Disaster Risk Reduc on (UNDRR).

· Theme – “Build Back Be er: building resilient health infrastructure and supply chains.”

Q.77) Explanation:

· The Prime Minister Narendra Modi has virtually laid the foundation stone of the Maharaja Suheldev
Memorial in Bahraich district of Uttar Pradesh.

Q.78) Explanation:

· The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) has appointed Preeti Sinha as its Executive
Secretary.

· She is an Indian-origin investment and development banker.

Q.79) Explanation:

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Q.80) Explanation:

● Recently, Google Cloud has appointed Karan Bajwa as its new leader for Asia Pacific.
● He will succeed Rick Harshman.

Reasoning

Q.1) Explanation:

Player Team Colour

E PTV Red
F DV Violet
H PTV Green
M DV Blue
D MDR White
J MDR Indigo
S PTV Yellow
V MDR Orange

Q.2) Explanation:

Player Team Colour

E PTV Red
F DV Violet
H PTV Green
M DV Blue
D MDR White
J MDR Indigo
S PTV Yellow
V MDR Orange

Q.3) Explanation:

Player Team Colour

E PTV Red

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F DV Violet
H PTV Green
M DV Blue
D MDR White
J MDR Indigo
S PTV Yellow
V MDR Orange

Q.4) Explanation:

Player Team Colour

E PTV Red
F DV Violet
H PTV Green
M DV Blue
D MDR White
J MDR Indigo
S PTV Yellow
V MDR Orange

Q.5) Explanation:

Player Team Colour

E PTV Red
F DV Violet
H PTV Green
M DV Blue
D MDR White
J MDR Indigo
S PTV Yellow
V MDR Orange

Q.6) Explanation:

Only conclusion I follow.

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Q.7) Explanation:

neither I nor II follows.

Q.8) Explanation:

both I and II follows.

Q.9) Explanation:

All company are trying to be no. 1 and they are trying to fetch more money

Q.10) Explanation:

Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Q.11) Explanation:

recession =mo

global = ti

Critical =su

Phase/is =zo / ra

economy =nic

down = ye

going= fa

hiked/growth=koo/da

affect = chi

rates =phi

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Q.12) Explanation:

recession =mo

global = ti

Critical =su

Phase/is =zo / ra

economy =nic

down = ye

going= fa

hiked/growth=koo/da

affect = chi

rates =phi

Q.13) Explanation:

recession =mo

global = ti

Critical =su

Phase/is =zo / ra

economy =nic

down = ye

going= fa

hiked/growth=koo/da

affect = chi

rates =phi

Q.14) Explanation:

recession =mo

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global = ti

Critical =su

Phase/is =zo / ra

economy =nic

down = ye

going= fa

hiked/growth=koo/da

affect = chi

rates =phi

Q.15) Explanation:

recession =mo

global = ti

Critical =su

Phase/is =zo / ra

economy =nic

down = ye

going= fa

hiked/growth=koo/da

affect = chi

rates =phi

Q.16) Explanation:

Input: organise 19 12 stable room 35 72 house

Step I: 72 organise 19 12 stable room 35 house

Step II: 72 house organise 19 12 stable room 35

Step III: 72 house 35 organise 19 12 stable room

Step IV: 72 house 35 organise 19 room 12 stable

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Q.17) Explanation:

Input: bake never store 51 26 33 age 49

Step I: 51 bake never store 26 33 age 49

Step II: 51 age bake never store 26 33 49

Step III: 51 age 49 bake never store 26 33

Step IV: 51 age 49 bake 33 never store 26

Step V: 51 age 49 bake 33 never 26 store

Q.18) Explanation:

Input: always go there 39 62 47 time 24

Step I: 62 always go there 39 47 time 24

Step II: 62 always 47 go there 39 time 24

Step III: 62 always 47 go 39 there time 24

Step IV: 62 always 47 go 39 there 24 time

Q.19) Explanation:

From the given Steps we can-not determine the Input.

Q.20) Explanation:

Step III: 84 for 56 29 17 won loss game

Step IV: 84 for 56 game 29 17 won loss

Step V: 84 for 56 game 29 loss 17 won

Q.21) Explanation:
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Q.22) Explanation:

Q.23) Explanation:

Q.24) Explanation:

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Q.25) Explanation:

Q.26) Explanation:

Person Colour Floor

A Sky Blue II
B Yellow IV
C Blue III
D Purple I
E Red V
F Green VII
G Pink VI

Q.27) Explanation:

 
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Person Colour Floor

A Sky Blue II
B Yellow IV
C Blue III
D Purple I
E Red V
F Green VII
G Pink VI

Q.28) Explanation:

Person Colour Floor

A Sky Blue II
B Yellow IV
C Blue III
D Purple I
E Red V
F Green VII
G Pink VI

Q.29) Explanation:

Person Colour Floor

A Sky Blue II
B Yellow IV
C Blue III
D Purple I
E Red V
F Green VII
G Pink VI

Q.30) Explanation:

Person Colour Floor

A Sky Blue II
B Yellow IV
C Blue III
D Purple I
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E Red V
F Green VII
G Pink VI

Q.31) Explanation:

G≥H, K>J, I≤J, I=H

Q.32) Explanation:

Either I or II is true

Q.33) Explanation:

Multiple Choice Type Question: ** Explanation Not Available **

Q.34) Explanation:

None of these

Q.35) Explanation:

Only I is true

Q.36) Explanation:

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Q.37) Explanation:

Q.38) Explanation:

Q.39) Explanation:

Q.40) Explanation:

Q.41) Explanation:

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Q.42) Explanation:

Q.43) Explanation:

Q.44) Explanation:

Q.45) Explanation:

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Q.46) Explanation:

To defend itself against a charge of discrimination the company will have to show its selections were made on the basis of merit
not sex. The best way to do that is to show that none of the women who were rejected had better quali ications than the men
who were appointed. Only option (e) implies that and hence is the correct answer.

Q.47) Explanation:

This argument is based on the assumption that if the appliances become more ef icient, then more homes would not be tempted
to increase their utility/consumption in the household.

Q.48) Explanation:

A study estimated that close to 22 percent of children enrolled in the class one records were below 6 years of age and still to
start going to school.

Q.49) Explanation:

All that the speaker implies is that Kapil is ef icient because he has twelve years of practice, and so option (a) is correct. (b) is
eliminated because the word ‘identical’ is not mentioned in the paragraph. (c) is eliminated because we are talking about typing
not the whole ‘job pro ile’. (d) is eliminated as nothing is mentioned about Kapil’s speed and accuracy and we cannot assume
ef iciency as speed and accuracy. Similarly (e) cannot be the answer as nothing is implied about itting into the of ice.

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Q.50) Explanation:

Since, nothing is being mentioned in the paragraph about the employees leaving their jobs and/or company announcing pay
hikes next year. SO, neither of the two statements are implicit.

Q.51) Explanation:

Q.52) Explanation:

Q.53) Explanation:

Q.54) Explanation:

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Q.55) Explanation:

Q.56) Explanation:

Q.57) Explanation:

Q.58) Explanation:

Q.59) Explanation:

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Q.60) Explanation:

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