Diagnostic Test

ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes—75 Questions

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you will see passages with words and phrases that are underlined and numbered. In the right-hand
column you will see a question corresponding to each number that provides alternatives to the underlined part. In most of
the items, you are to choose the best alternative. If no change is needed, choose NO CHANGE.

In other items, there will be either a question about an underlined portion of the passage, or a question about a section of
the passage, or about the passage as a whole. This question type will correspond to a number or numbers in a box.

For each question, choose the best alternative or answer and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

Diagnostic Test — english

PASSAGE I

Code Talking

[1]

In September of 1992, a group of American hero who had 1. A. NO CHANGE

1 B. hero
gone unrecognized for many years was honored by the United
C. hero’s
States Pentagon. D. heroes

[2]

During World War II, the United States Marines needed

to develop a code, for communicating top-secret information. 2. F. NO CHANGE

2 G. code for communicating
H. code, for communicating,
J. code for communicating,

It being the case that they would then have access to information 3. A. NO CHANGE
3 B. It was crucial to the United States, that enemy
about United States Marines tactics and troop movements, it
3 forces not be able to decipher the code, having
was crucial that enemy forces not be able to decipher the code. access to information about Marines tactics and
3 troop movements.
C. It was crucial that enemy forces not be able
to decipher the code, because if they did they
would have access to information about the
Marines’ tactics and troop movements.
D. Crucially, the enemy forces were not able to
decipher the code, which would have access to
the Marines’ tactics and troop movements.

CONTINUE
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[3]

The military recruited a small group of Navajos to create

a code based on their language. Unfortunately, the Navajo 4. F. NO CHANGE

4 G. As a result
language made an excellent code for several essential reasons.
H. However
First, it was extremely difficult to learn and virtually unknown J. OMIT the underlined portion.

outside the Navajo community in the American Southwest.

Second, the Navajo language does not have a written form;

it uses no alphabet. Its complexity and obscurity made it the

perfect basis for a code.

[4]

The first group of Navajo recruits attended boot camp in

1942. Afterward, they set to work developing a vast dictionary 5. A. NO CHANGE

5 B. As a result
of code words for military terms, based on the Navajo language.
C. However
Each code talker had to memorize the dictionary before being D. OMIT the underlined portion.

sent to a Marine unit. Using telephones and radios to transmit 6. F. NO CHANGE

6
encoded orders and information, once the code talkers were G. Once, the code talkers used telephones and
6 radios to transmit encoded orders and infor-
stationed with a unit. mation, when they were stationed with a unit.
6 H. Once stationed with a unit, using telephones
[5] and radios to transmit encoded orders and
information.
J. Once they were stationed with a unit, the code
talkers used telephones and radios to transmit
encoded orders and information.

While the Navajo language was complicated The code was even 7. A. NO CHANGE
7 B. complicated the.
more complex. A code talker receiving a message heard a stream
C. Complicated the
of Navajo words. The receiver had to translate the words into D. complicated, the

English, and then use the first letter of each English equivalent

to spell out a word. Adding to the difficulty, of breaking the 8. F. NO CHANGE

8 G. (Begin new paragraph) Adding to the difficulty
H. (Do NOT begin new paragraph) More difficulty,
J. (Do NOT begin new paragraph) Adding to the
difficulty

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code was the fact that most letters could be indicated by the

code talkers with more than one Navajo word. Also, there were

certain military terms that were not spelled out letter by letter,

so although the military terms did not translate to words, the

creators of the code matched Navajo words to them. 9 9. At this point, the writer would like to help readers
understand how the code worked. Which of the
following sentences, if added here, would most
effectively accomplish this?
A. The code was not like Morse code, which used a
system of dots and dashes to signify letters of the
alphabet.
B. For example, besh-lo, Navajo for “iron fish,” was
the code word for submarine.
[6] C. Prior to this, other Native American languages
had been used in military codes.
Though able to crack the codes of other military branches, enemy D. The code, which was so difficult, should have
been acknowledged earlier by the Pentagon.
forces never managed to decipher what the Marines’ Navajo code

talkers said. The code talkers were renowned for the speed, and 10. F. NO CHANGE
10 G. speed, and accuracy
accuracy, with which they worked,
H. speed and accuracy
10
J. speed and accuracy,

and also they were credited by officers for the U.S. Marines’ 11. A. NO CHANGE
11 B. and officers credited them
success in World War II.
C. they were credited by officers
D. OMIT the underlined portion.
[7]

The code talkers were not acknowledged until quite recently

because the Navajo language remained part of a security classified

code. At last, though, half a century later, thirty-five former code

talkers and their families attended the dedication of the Navajo

code talker exhibit at the United States Pentagon, officially taking

its places in military history. 13

12. F. NO CHANGE
12
G. their place
H. our places
J. his placement

CONTINUE
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13. Assuming that each of the following statements is

true, which would make the most effective con-
cluding sentence to this essay?
A. Code breaking has been an integral part of
wartime intelligence gathering for centuries.
B. Today, a statue commemorating the brave
contributions of the Navajo code talkers exists in
Arizona.
C. Over 400,000 American soldiers lost their lives
fighting in World War II.
D. Today, there are approximately 182,000 active
members in the United States Marines.

Questions 14 and 15 ask about the essay as a whole.

14. The writer is planning to add the following sentence to
the essay:
So complicated was the code that even a Navajo soldier
who had been taken prisoner by the enemy was unable
to understand it.

This sentence would best be placed after the last

sentence in Paragraph:

F. 4.
G. 5.
H. 6.
J. 7.

15. Suppose the writer had been assigned to write an essay

describing the contributions of minority soldiers in
World War II. Would this essay successfully fulfill
the assignment?
A. Yes, because it describes the contributions of
Navajo soldiers.
B. Yes, because it describes a military maneuver that
was crucial to the success of the war.
C. No, because it discusses the contributions of only
one minority group of soldiers.
D. No, because the essay does not focus on the pos-
itive effects of the Navajo soldiers’ work.

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PASSAGE II

The Real World

[1]

Our college employment counseling center recommended

that students have mock interviews before setting out into the

world for the real thing. For some reason, I believed that this

applied to other people but not to me. Midway through my

senior year of college, she sent out resumes to several law firms 16. F. NO CHANGE
16 G. I sent
H. we send
J. I’m sending

in the area. Nobody was consulted about how to begin seeking 17. A. NO CHANGE
17 B. With nobody I consulted
a job. My plan was to work at a law firm for a couple of years C. Nobody consulted me
before attending law school. I received a couple of responses D. I didn’t consult with anybody

and was thrilled to set up my first interview at a prestigious law

firm that had offices all over the world. It was exactly the type of 18. F. NO CHANGE
18 G. There was
environment in which I envisioned myself.
H. Here is
J. And so it was
[2]

The position for which I was interviewing; was a clerical 19. A. NO CHANGE
19 B. interviewing, was
job that, the interviewer made clear from the outset, would
C. interviewing—was
require long hours, late nights, and a great deal of filing and D. interviewing was

photocopying. I confidently announced to the interviewer that

I didn’t mind long hours and thankless assignments. After all, I

happily informed him my aim was to work my way up and someday 20. F. NO CHANGE
20 G. informed him, my aim
H. informed, him my aim
J. informed him my aim,

CONTINUE
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be his boss. I figured the surprised look on his face was because

he wasn’t used to seeing young men as ambitious and articulate

as I was. 21 21. The writer considered deleting the previous sentence

and instead writing, “I can’t believe I made such a
foolish mistake.” If the writer had done this, it would
have diminished the reader’s understanding of:
I. the narrator’s point of view at the time of
the interview.
II. what type of job the narrator wished to obtain.
III. the interviewer’s opinion of the narrator.

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and III

I would of kept going, had he not suggested moving on to 22. F. NO CHANGE

22 G. could of
another topic.
H. would have
J. would to have
[3]

In the next phase of the interview, I was asked to list my

strengths and weaknesses. I’m sorry to say that here I left nothing

to the imagination. I believed that my interviewer would value 23. A. NO CHANGE

23
my stark honesty when I told him that my greatest weaknesses B. We believed
C. They believed
included not getting along with other people very well and a D. Our belief
tendency to make more enemies than friends. The interviewer

raises his eyebrows but said nothing, and I was certain that he 24. F. NO CHANGE
24 G. was raising
H. had raised
J. raised

knew he’d found his candidate. After all, I figured, I wouldn’t need 25. A. NO CHANGE
25 B. all I figured,
to get along with people to photocopy and file, so I’d hit upon
C. all I, figured
the perfect answer to a tricky question. D. all I figured

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[4]

[1] I did not get offered that job, nor the next several firms 26. F. NO CHANGE
26 G. ones for interviewing from the next several firms
at which I interviewed for one.
26 H. the next several for which I interviewed at other
firms
J. any interviews from the next several jobs at firms

27 [2] Eventually I paid a long-overdue trip to the college 27. Which of the following sentences, if added here,
would most effectively signal the shift in focus that
job counseling office and got a few pointers on my technique.
occurs at this point in the essay?
A. I felt very angry at the firms that rejected me as a
job candidate.
B. Time and time again, I tried and failed to get a
job.
[3] I am happy to say that while I never did end up going to law C. Every interview I gave ended much like the first
one had: with no promise of a job.
school, I have become a high school guidance counselor who D. After a few months, I finally had to admit that the
specializes in helping students find internships in community problem might be with my approach.

businesses. 28 28. The writer wants to add a sentence here that would
give the essay a sense of completion by tying the
ending back to the beginning. Which choice would
best accomplish this?
F. Not all of my students are interested in an
internship, but I encourage them to give it a try.
G. I conduct practice interviews with every student
because, as I tell them, it’s a lot harder to give a
good interview than one might think!
H. I can’t believe that so many of my students have
never interviewed for a job before!
J. I can only hope that one of my students will
accomplish my early dreams of becoming
a lawyer.

29. The writer is considering adding a concluding

sentence to Paragraph 4. Which of the following
would be the most effective addition?
A. I quickly realized that college just wasn’t a good
fit for me.
B. I knew I had the interview game all figured out
from the beginning.
C. I learned a valuable lesson from my interviewing
experience.
D. I should have insisted that the law firm give me
an internship on the spot.

CONTINUE
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PASSAGE III

All About Aardvarks

[1]

What do you know about the aardvark—a curious animal

with an even more curious name. If you’re like the average person, 30. F. NO CHANGE
30 G. name?
the answer is likely “not much,” which stands to reason—unless
H. name!
J. name;
you’re in a zoo or happen to be wandering in sub-Saharan Africa,

you’re not likely to run across an aardvark any time soon. 31 31. Which of the following sentences would make an
effective transition between paragraphs 1 and 2?
A. The aardvark typically flips onto its back when
attacked.
B. That sums up what is currently known about the
noble aardvark.
C. Let’s take a closer look at the history and habits
of this interesting mammal.
[2] D. There are a few types of ants and termites that
aardvarks will shy away from eating, including
The name aardvark itself is attributed to the Afrikaans language, poisonous varieties.

a South African language that evolved from the dutch, and the 32. F. NO CHANGE
32 G. Dutch,
closest English translation is “earth pig,” which seems like an apt
H. dutch;
description of this snout-faced creature. J. Dutch.

[3]

Aardvarks are furry, nocturnal-feeding mammals that are native

to southern portions of Africa, which provides a suitable climate

and habitat of grassland, bushland, and savanna for aardvarks 33. A. NO CHANGE
33 B. grassland bushland and savanna
to thrive. The aardvark is certainly no newcomer—fossils have
C. grassland bushland, and savanna
D. grassland; bushland and; savanna

been found across the African and; European continents that 34. F. NO CHANGE
34 G. and.
date back nearly 5 million years.
H. and,
J. and
[4]

If you ever did happen to come face to face with an aardvark you

probably wouldn’t forget it they have an instantly recognizable 35. A. NO CHANGE

35 B. forget, it they
C. forget it—they
D. forget it they;

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appearance, with a stout body covered in coarse gray hair, an

arched back, prominent ears that are keenly sensitive and used

to aid hunting, and a long snout thats used to forage and track 36. F. NO CHANGE
36 G. that
H. that’s
J. that was
food. Aardvarks typically grow to around 3–4 feet in length, not

including their tails, with an average weight of around 150 pounds.

[5]

Aardvarks are solitary creatures by nature. During the day, they

typically can be found lounging in a cool, damp, dark, and dank

underground burrow (they are expert and really good diggers) 37. A. NO CHANGE
37 B. they are both good and expert diggers
created in an effort to escape the blistering sunlight.
C. they are expert diggers
D. they are really expert and really good diggers
[6]

After the sun sets, they emerge from their burrows and have 38. F. NO CHANGE
38
G. had began
begun hunting for food, relying on their sensitive snouts to
38 H. will be beginning
sniff out their meals. If you see an aardvark with its snout pressed J. begin

firmly against the ground, grunting softly as it lurches forward,

you’ll know it’s searching for food. Those prominent and sensitive

aardvark ears mentioned earlier also help the aardvark track food,

with hearing and smelling being the two primary senses it relies

on to find sufficient food for survival. The average aardvark diet

consists almost exclusively of termites and ants, and its weak snout 39. A. whispery
39 B. tough
skin helps protect it from the bites and stings of its insect prey.
C. smooth
D. thin
[7]

The aardvark possesses a variety of tools designed to protect

itself from enemies out in the wild. In addition to their keen

senses of hearing and smell, which helps them to become aware

of approaching predators quickly, they are surprisingly speedy

creatures when they need to be, and have been known to run in

unpredictable zig-zag patterns to encounter its enemies. They 40. F. entice

40 G. envelope
H. embrace
J. escape

CONTINUE
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are also excellent swimmers, helping them flee from other crea-

tures when danger is sensed. Her digging skills are also a huge 41. A. NO CHANGE
41 B. Our
asset when trying to avoid other animals, and they have been
C. His
known to burrow their way to a quick escape when threatened. D. Their

Aardvarks also possess a thick, tough skin beneath their fur and

have claws that are capable of considerable damage.

[8]

Although the average aardvark lives 20 or 25 years, you can 42. F. NO CHANGE
42
conclude that its ingenious survival tactics and specialized tools G. 20 years or 25 years
H. 25–20 years
have contributed to its longevity as a species. Perhaps one day J. 20–25 years

your path will cross with an aardvark, although it’s likely that

will only happen at a zoo or wildlife exhibit. 43 43. Which of the following would make an effective
concluding statement to this essay?
A. If you do encounter one, be sure to pay this
creature the respect it deserves!
B. There are zoos all around the country that you
can visit.
C. If you ever travel to Africa from the United States,
make sure you bring your passport!
D. Try digging a burrow in the dirt when you have
some extra time to spare!

Questions 44 and 45 ask about the essay as a whole.

44. Imagine that you were given an assignment by your
school newspaper to write an informative article about
animals indigenous to the African continent. Does this
essay successfully fulfill the assignment?
F. Yes, because aardvarks are indigenous to the
African continent.
G. Yes, because you mentioned Africa in the article.
H. No, because the aardvark has also been found to
dwell in other continents.
J. No, because your focus on the aardvark is too
narrow for the scope of the assignment.

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45. The writer is considering adding the following sentence

to the essay:
The rhinoceros is a creature native to Africa, and feeds
off the indigenous plant life it encounters, including
trees, bushes, and grasses.

Given that this statement is true, should it be added

to the essay, and, if so, where?

A. Yes, at the end of paragraph 6, because both

animals have skin that serves to protect them.
B. Yes, at the beginning of the second paragraph,
because both animals are indigenous to Africa.
C. No, because the passage is not about any animals
other than the aardvark.
D. No, because aardvarks are carnivores, and the
rhinoceros is an herbivore.

PASSAGE IV

Defied Expectations

[1]

On January 23, 1849, in the town of Geneva, New York,

Elizabeth Blackwell stepped onto the altar, of the Presbyterian 46. F. NO CHANGE
46
church. And received her Doctor of Medicine degree from the G. altar of the Presbyterian church and
46 H. altar of the Presbyterian church; and
J. altar of the Presbyterian church, and

president of Geneva Medical College. The effect was, she took 47. A. NO CHANGE
47 B. Therefore
her place in history. Blackwell had defied the expectations of
C. In doing so
D. Even so

most of her teachers and classmates to become the countries 48. F. NO CHANGE
48 G. countries’ first female
first female doctor.
48 H. first female country’s
J. country’s first female
[2]

As a young woman, Blackwell had worked as a teacher, but

she found herself unsatisfied. Once she realized that her dream

was to be a doctor, she faced tremendous obstacles. There had

never before been a female physician in America; girls often 49. A. NO CHANGE
49 B. America; as a result, girls
didn’t even receive the same basic education that boys did.
C. America and therefore girls
Blackwell’s education did not prepare her for the challenges of D. America, but girls

CONTINUE
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medical school, and to catch up she had to do much. To make 50. F. NO CHANGE
50 G. to catch up she would have
up for the gaps in her education, she arranged to live in the
H. there was for her to do much catching up
J. she had to catch up

household of a physician, where having access to educational 51. A. NO CHANGE

51 B. she had access
resources and received some medical training.
C. she has access
D. she did have access

[3]

As she prepared to apply to medical school, Blackwell sought

advice from physicians in New York and Philadelphia. She found

that they doubted she would be admitted to medical school; at 52. F. NO CHANGE
52 G. debated
least one advisor went so far as to suggest that she might disguise
H. insisted
herself as a man in order to gain admittance. Her advisors were J. supposed

not far from wrong in their prediction. Blackwell applies to well 53. A. NO CHANGE
53 B. applied
C. has applied
D. applying

over a dozen medical colleges; and received admission to only 54. F. NO CHANGE
54 G. colleges, and received admission to only one,
one. Geneva Medical College.
54 Geneva Medical College.
H. colleges but received admission to only one:
Geneva Medical College.
J. colleges. But received admission to only one:
Geneva Medical College.
[4]

Gaining admission to the college became the first in a long 55. A. NO CHANGE
55 B. was not
C. becomes
D. were

line of obstacles. Blackwell discovered that her fellow students 56. F. NO CHANGE
56 G. students were all men and they
who were all men and had elected as a joke to admit her and
56 H. men students had
J. students, all of whom were men, had

were astonishing and bewildered when she actually showed 57. A. NO CHANGE
57 B. astonished
up. The students were embarrassed by her presence in lectures
C. astonishment
on topics—such as human anatomy—that they considered D. having astonishment

unsuitable for mixed company.

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[5]

Steadily, and with perseverance, Blackwell gained acceptance

among the students and faculty. After, she completed her degree, 58. F. NO CHANGE
58 G. Afterward,
H. After
J. After to

she continued to face prejudice and outright barriers to her career. 59. A. NO CHANGE
59 B. face outright barriers to her career, that was
She was unable to establish the private practice she had
prejudice
C. face outright prejudice that was a barrier to her
career
D. face barriers that were outright prejudice to
her career

hoped for, but she had the chance to do other things instead. 60. Which of these choices, assuming they are all
60 accurate, should the writer use here to show that
Elizabeth Blackwell found success as a doctor?
F. NO CHANGE
G. and she is remembered for having been the first
woman in America to receive a medical degree
H. but she had a distinguished career as a promoter
of preventative medicine and as a champion of
medical opportunities for women
J. and when she went to study at a hospital in Paris,
PASSAGE V
she was assigned the same duties as young girls
with no education at all
Form and Function in the Roman Aqueducts

[1]

The use of a system of pipes to carry water from its source

to the place where it is needed is an imperious idea, one that can 61. A. NO CHANGE
61 B. unsettling
C. inimitable
D. ingenious

be traced back to several ancient civilizations including, Persia, 62. F. NO CHANGE

62 G. civilizations, including Persia, India, and Egypt
India, and Egypt. The Roman Empire is generally considered to
62 H. civilizations including Persia, India and Egypt
J. civilizations, including: Persia and India
and Egypt

CONTINUE
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have created the most advancing system of water transport in 63. A. NO CHANGE
63 B. created the most advanced system
the ancient world, roughly two thousand years ago.
C. created in advance of the system
D. created a system of the most superlative
[2] advancement

The Roman Empire’s water transport—or aqueduct—system

was a feat of engineering it combined form and function. The 64. F. NO CHANGE
64 G. which had been combining
H. that made a combination of
J. that combined

aqueducts were built in Italy, Greece, Spain, France, and other

regions that were within the vast reach of the Roman Empire. The

original Roman aqueducts were quite truly tunnels that ran down 65. A. NO CHANGE
65 B. simply
hillsides to transport water used to irrigate the plains. Later, the
C. actually
D. quickly

structures became more elaborate, they were able to conduct 66. F. NO CHANGE
66 G. elaborate but they
H. elaborate; they
J. elaborate! So they

water over distances in excess of fifty miles. 67 67. Which of the following sentences, if inserted here,
would best support the writer’s point that the
aqueducts were an impressive accomplishment?
A. Today’s water transport systems, of course, are far
more effective.
B. The Roman Empire’s accomplishments also
included finely engineered roads, bridges, and
buildings.
[3] C. Several modern European countries still contain
evidence of the aqueducts.
The most famous Roman aqueducts are those that consisted D. Amazingly, some of these aqueducts are still
in use.
of tiers of granite arches reaching across valleys. The Romans used

a trial-and-error system; some of their aqueducts 68. F. NO CHANGE

68 G. system, some
H. system: some
J. system! Some

failed, for those that succeeded were used as models for sub- 69. A. NO CHANGE
69 B. failed, but
sequent ones. The principles of engineering that held up the
C. failed, so
D. fail, but

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successful arches are the same ones that will be applied in modern 70. F. NO CHANGE
70 G. are applied
H. had been applied
J. were applying

architecture (for example on many impressive American 71. A. NO CHANGE

71 B. architecture, for example, on many impressive
landmarks).
71 American landmarks
C. architecture
D. architecture—for example—on many, impressive
[4]
American landmarks

The stone arches’: while well-known, actually were a relatively 72. F. NO CHANGE
72 G. arches
small portion of the aqueduct system.
H. arches;
J. arches,

The rest of the aqueducts were different. The system took 73. Which choice best supports the paragraph by giving
73 the most specific details?
advantage of the force of gravity, which caused the water to flow
A. NO CHANGE
from the source to the city, passing through a series of distribution B. The rest of the aqueduct consisted of a series of
tanks along the way, providing water to the people of the cities underground pipes that were made mostly of
stone and terra cotta.
and to the famous majestic fountains of the Roman Empire. C. The graceful curves of the stone arches are, of
course, much more interesting than the rest of
[5] the aqueducts.
D. The rest of the system was different, made of
Water conduit systems have, of course, undergone hundreds several kinds of materials.

of decades’worth of modernization. While modern-day aqueduct

systems would transport far more water over far greater distances, 74. F. NO CHANGE
74 G. should
H. will
J. OMIT the underlined portion.

they lack the grandeur of the arched Roman aqueducts. 75 75. The writer wants the final sentence of the last
paragraph to reflect the main idea of the whole essay.
Which of the following sentences would best
accomplish this?
A. NO CHANGE
B. It’s too bad that modern technology is not as
aesthetically pleasing as it was during the days of
the Roman Empire.
C. The Roman Empire will long be remembered for
its aqueducts, as well as for its advanced system
of political governance.
D. As far as modern technology advances, it
will always be indebted to the aesthetic and
mechanical achievements of the Roman Empire.

STOP
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MATHEMATICS TEST
60 Minutes—60 Questions

DIRECTIONS: For each of the following items, solve each problem, choose the correct answer, and then fill in the corre-
sponding circle on the answer sheet.

If you encounter problems that take too much time to solve, move on. Solve as many problems as you can; then return to the
others in the time remaining for the test.

You may use a calculator on this test for any problems you choose, but some of the problems may best be solved without
the use of a calculator.

SHOW YOUR WORK HERE

Note: Unless otherwise stated, assume the following:

1.   Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn

to scale.
2.   Geometric figures lie in a plane.
3.   The word line indicates a straight line.
4.   The word average indicates arithmetic mean.

1. If –3(2 – x) = 4 – (3x + 1), what is x?

A. 3
2
2
B.
3
C. 3

— mathematics
11
D.
2
1
E. −
3

2. If 3 out of a package of 25 batteries were defective, what

percentage of the batteries in the package worked?

3
F. × 100
25
22
G.
25 × 100
3
H.
25 × 100
22
J. × 25
100
22
K. × 100
25

CONTINUE
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 Diagnostic Test

3. At a yoga studio, first-time customers are permitted to SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
borrow equipment for use in the class. There are 6 yoga
mats, 4 bolsters, and 3 sets of blocks available for use. If
one of each type of equipment is needed in the class,
from how many different combinations does a customer
have to choose?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 72
E. 144

4. In the following diagram, l and m are lines. Which choice

gives the correct measures of m ∠a and ∠b ?

65º
l
a b

F. m ∠a = 295° and m ∠b = 125°

G. m ∠a = 65° and m ∠b = 65°

H. m ∠a = 25° and m ∠b = 115°

J. m ∠a = 65° and m ∠b = 115°

K. m ∠a = 65° and m ∠b = 50°

5. If 0.65 < x < 85%, which of the following could be x?

A. 2
5
B. 5
12
C. 5
8
D. 2
3
E. 7
8

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6. The average of set S is 14. If set S = {10, 12, 19, x}, what is SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
the value of x?
F. 14
G. 15
H. 16
J. 20
K. Cannot be determined

7. A merchant at a farmer’s market sells jars of homemade

marmalade for $4.50 each. To encourage patrons to
purchase in bulk, he offers a 10% discount on packages
of 5 jars and a 15% discount on packages of 10 jars. If a
customer buys 15 jars, what is her total cost?
A. $20.25
B. $38.25
C. $50.63
D. $58.50
E. $67.50

8. Which of these expressions is equivalent to

2x + 6
?
( x + 3)(3 x − 9 )

4
F.
3x − 9
2( x + 6 )
G.
3( x + 3)( x − 9 )
2( x + 1)
H.
3 x ( x − 3)
2
J.
3( x − 3)
2
K.
3( x − 9 )
9. Zarley spends 22 minutes of a 50-minute workout on
strength training. What percentage of the workout does
he devote to other exercises?
A. 14%
B. 22%
C. 28%
D. 44%
E. 56%

CONTINUE
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 Diagnostic Test

10. The perimeter of an encampment in an African village is SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
equipped with an alarm designed to sound when
predatory animals come within 2 feet of it. Using a web
camera, it was determined that 6 of 25 times the alarm
sounded were false alarms. What percentage was due to
actual animals encountering the alarm?

19
F.
25 × 100
19
G. × 25
100
6
H. × 100
25
19
J. × 100
25
6
K.
25 × 100

6
11. If z = –3, then what is the value of + z (1− 2 z ) ?
−z
A. –22
B. –19
C. –7
D. 17
E. 23

12. When 64 is divided by x, the quotient is a negative

integer. Which of the folloing could be x?
F. 16
G. 6
H. 1
J. –8
K. –12

5− x
13. If = 20 , then x = __________.
5

A. –105
B. –95
C. –20
D. 30
E. 95

14. A group of students fills an entire row in the school

auditorium. Counting from the left, Matt is seated in the
fourth chair in the row; counting from the right, he is
seated in the fifteenth chair in the row. What is the total
number of chairs in this row?
F. 11
G. 12
H. 18
J. 19
K. 20

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15. Let h( x ) = 1 − | 2 − 3 x |. Evaluate h(–2). SHOW YOUR WORK HERE

A. –7
B. –3
C. –1
D. 5
E. 9

16. The clock below shows a time of 3:05. What time will the
clock show when the minute hand has moved 60°
clockwise?

12
11 1

10 2

9 3

8 4

7 5
6

F. 3:00
G. 3:15
H. 3:45
J. 4:05
K. 5:05

17. To which expression is (3x – 2)(2x + 3) equal?

A. 6x2 – 6
B. 5x + 1
C. 6x2 + 1
D. 6x2 + 5x – 6
E. 6x2 – 5x + 6

CONTINUE
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 Diagnostic Test

18. If, in the figure below, point A is the vertex of a square SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
with area 9, which of the following could be another
vertex of this square?
y

A(–2, 2)

F. (–9, 2)
G. (–5, 5)
H. (–2,–7)
J. (3, 2)
K. (7, 2)

19. The width of the base, length of the base, and height of
a rectangular box are in the ratio 1:2:4. If the volume of
the box is 4,096 cubic centimeters, what is the length of
the base?
A. 8 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 16 cm
D. 32 cm
E. 128 cm

20. How many sections on the spinner below should be

colored red in order to make the probability of the arrow
NOT landing on red 0.375 in a single spin?

F. 1
G. 3
H. 5
J. 7
K. 8

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21. Of the triangles with the side lengths given below, SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
which is a right triangle?
A. 6, 13, 14
B. 8, 10, 12
C. 12, 16, 18
D. 15, 22, 23
E. 20, 21, 29

22. A corner market sells individual cans of soda for $1.25

each. A superstore sells cases of 24 cans of this soda for
$19.20. How much more would it cost to buy 24
individual cans at the market instead of a case from the
superstore?
F. $0.45
G. $4.80
H. $4.20
J. $10.80
K. $30

23. Which of the following represents the translation of

j ( x ) = x five units to the right and up two units?

A. k( x ) = x − 2 + 5

B. k( x ) = x + 5 − 2

C. k( x ) = x − 5 − 2

D. k( x ) = x + 5 + 2

E. k( x ) = x − 5 + 2
z4
24. To which of the following expressions is equal?
(z )
−2 5

F. 1
z −6
G. z7
H. z–40
J. z
K. z14
5 1
25. The scale on a city map indicates that inch equals 3
8 2
city blocks. To how many blocks does 4 inches
correspond?

13
A. 7
16
3
B. 8
4
3
C. 9
5
2
D. 22
5
E. 20 CONTINUE
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 Diagnostic Test

26. What are the solutions of x(3x – 4) = 4? SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
1
F. x = 4, x = −
3
8
G. x = 4, x =
3
2
H. x = , x = –2
3
J. x = 0, x = 4
2
K. x = − ,x=2
3
27. Joanie scored 80 on 3 tests, 92 on 2 tests, and 100 on 1
test. What is her average for all the tests, to the nearest
tenth of a point?
A. 80.0
B. 86.0
C. 87.3
D. 90.7
E. 92.0

28. What is the domain of the function h( x ) =| x − 4 | −1 ?

F. ( −1, ∞ ]
G. ( −∞ , −1]
H. ( −∞ , ∞)
J. ( −∞ , 4 ]
K. [4,∞)
29. What is the complete set of solutions of the equation
1
sin2 x = − for 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π?
2
7p 11p
A. ,
6 6

B. p 5p 13p 17p
, , ,
12 12 12 12

C.
p p 7p 4 p
, , ,
6 3 6 3

D. 7p 11p 19 p 23p
, , ,
12 12 12 12
2p 5p 8 p 17p
E. , , ,
3 6 3 6
30. A truck driver earns 35 cents for every mile she drives.
1
How much will she earn if she drives for 9 hours at an
2
average speed of 55 miles per hour?

F. $60.45
G. $149.29
H. $165.41
J. $182.88
K. $202.63

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31. Which of the following represents the solution set to the SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
compound inequality x ≤ –2 or x > 4?

A.
-10 -9 -8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

B.
-10 -9 -8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C.
-10 -9 -8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

D.
-10 -9 -8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

E.
-10 -9 -8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

32. A fish tank has a length of 24 inches, a width of 8 inches,

and a height of 10 inches. If the tank contains 1,728
cubic inches of water, what is the depth, in inches, of
water in the tank?

10

24

F. 6
G. 7
H. 8
J. 9
K. 10

33. A car rental company charges $20 per day for a rental
car, plus $0.50 for each mile driven. If Kecia kept a car for
3 days and was charged $156, how many miles did
she drive?
A. 432
B. 312
C. 192
D. 156
E. 96

34. A leg and hypotenuse of a right triangle have lengths 4

meters and 9 meters, respectively. What is the length of
the other leg of the triangle?

F. 92 + 4 2 meters
G. 92 + 42 meters
H. 92 − 4 2 meters
J. 92 – 42 meters
K. 9 – 4 meters

CONTINUE
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 Diagnostic Test

35. The formula for the surface area of a rectangular box is SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
S = 2(lw + lh + wh). To which expression is w equal?

A. S − 2lh
4 lh

B. S − 2lh
2l + 2h

C. S
− 2l − 2h
2lh
S
D.
2(l + lh + h)

E. S − lh
l+h

36. Consider the function f(x) graphed below:

1
x
-5 -4 -3 -2 -1 1 2 3

The following statements are true EXCEPT:

F. The solution set of the inequality f(x) < 0 is the

empty set.
G. The range of f(x) is [0,∞) .
H. The maximum of f(x) is 4.
J. The domain of f(x) is the set of all real numbers.
K. There are two x-intercepts.

w 2 − 9 w 2 − 3w
37. ÷ = __________
w 3

A. w(w – 3)2
B. 12
w
C. 3w + 3
w2
D. 3w + 9
w2
(w − 3)2 (w + 3)
E.
3

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1
38. In right triangle ABC below, cos A = . What is the value
SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
2
of cos B?

C B

F. 2

G. 3

H. 3
2

J. 3
3
K. 1
2
1 3
39. If f ( x ) = and g( x ) = , what is ( g  f ) ( x ) ?
x +2 x +1

3x + 6
A.
x +3

B. 3(x + 2) + 1

x +2
C.
x
x +1 1
D. +
3 2
x +1
E.
2x + 5

CONTINUE
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 Diagnostic Test

40. A packing company is looking to reduce costs by SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
changing the size of its boxes. It wants to create a new
box that has the same volume as its current box, but a
smaller surface area. The current box is shown below.
What are the dimensions, in feet, of the box with the
same volume and the smallest surface area?

6
F. 2 × 3 × 36
G. 2 × 4 × 27
H. 3 × 6 × 12
J. 3×8×9
K. 6×6×6

41. Which of these lines is parallel to a line with the

1
equation x = y + 2?
3
A. y = 2
1
B. y = x − 5
3
C. y + 3x = 1

D. x = 2

E. 6y – 18x = 0

42. A pump can remove water from a swimming pool at a

rate of 3.5 gallons per minute. At this rate, how many
gallons will be removed after h hours?

F. 3.5h
h
G.
3.5
H. 210h
h
J.
210
K. h + 3.5

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43. The table shows how the variable y depends on various SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
values of x. Which equation best represents this
relationship?

x –2 0 2 4
y –3 –2 –1 0

A. y = x – 1
B. y = 2x + 1
C. y = –2x – 2
1
D. y = x −2
2
1
E. y = − x −2
2

44. If x > y and z > y, which of the following MUST be true?

F. x>z
G. z>x
H. x2 > y2
J. z2 > y2
K. x + z > 2y

45. If 3x – 2y = 0 and 2x + 3y = 13, what is the value of y ?

x
2
A.
3
B. 3
2
C. 5
D. 3
E. 2

46. In the figure below, a circle is inscribed within a square.

If the perimeter of the square is 36 feet, what is the area
of the shaded region, in square feet?

F. 9 – 4.5π
G. 36 – 9π
H. 36 + 9π
J. 81 – 20.25π
K. 81 – 36π

CONTINUE
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 Diagnostic Test

47. A carnival game involves a spinner with congruent SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
sections numbered 1 through 50. On a given spin, the
spinner has an equal chance of landing on any number.
If Greg bets on numbers 32 through 46, what is the
probability that the spinner will land on one of
Greg’s numbers?
A. 1
50

B. 7
25

C. 3
10

D. 7
10
23
E.
25

48. In the rectangular prism shown below, what is the

length of diagonal QS ?
Q 5
4

R S

F. 2 5
G. 5.5
H. 3 5
J. 11
K. 20

49. What is the maximum value of the function

f(x) = –3x2 + 18x – 1?
A. –28
B. –10
C. –1
D. 3
E. 26

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50. The length of the radius of circle A is 3 times as long as SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
the radius of circle B. If the area of circle A is x, what is
the area of circle B?

F. x
9
G. x
6
H. x
3
J. 3x

K. 9x

51. Which of the following lines is parallel to the line

graphed below?

(0,2)

0 (1,0) X

A. y = x + 2

B. y = 2x – 3

C. y = –2x +2
1
D. y = x −5
2
1
E. y = − x + 2
2

52. If the area of ∆ABC is 24 square feet, what is the

perimeter of parallelogram BCED, in feet?

F. 76 feet
G. 72 feet
H. 68 feet
J. 64 feet
K. 44 + 2 73 feet
CONTINUE
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 Diagnostic Test

53. A company is producing outdoor projector systems for SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
use in holiday decorations. The profit function is p(x) =
2x2 – 3x – 14, where x is in hundreds of projectors and
p(x) is in thousands of dollars. How many projectors
must the company sell to break even?
A. 35
B. 200
C. 350
D. 1,400
E. 3,500

54. Working together, a standard printer and a high-speed

1
printer can complete a certain print job in 3 hours. If it
3
takes the high-speed printer 5 hours to do the job alone,
how many hours would it take the standard printer to
do the job alone?

2
F. 1
3
1
G. 4
6

H. 2
6
3
J. 1
8
3
K. 10

55. Increasing a number by 30% and then decreasing the

result by 50% is the same as decreasing the number by:
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 35%
E. 65%

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56. In the figure below, if Line 1 is parallel to Line 2, all of the SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
following are true EXCEPT:

aº bº
Line 1
cº dº

eº fº
Line 2
gº hº

F. a+b=g+h
G. f–h=c–d
H. a+h=g+c
J. d+b–f=e+c–g
K. h–c=d–f

57. In the figure below, what is the value of n?

n 5

43º

A. 5
sin 43°
B. 5
cos 47°
C. 5
tan 43°
D. 5 sin 47°

E. 5 tan 43°

58. The sum of three consecutive odd integers is 129. What

is the average of the two smallest of these integers?
F. 41
G. 42
H. 43
J. 44
K. 45

CONTINUE
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 Diagnostic Test

59. What is the equation of the parabola graphed below? SHOW YOUR WORK HERE

-4 -2 2 4

-2

-4

A. y = x2 – 2x – 3
B. y = x2 – 2x +3
C. y = x2 + 2x – 3
D. y = x2 + 2x + 3
E. y = – x2 – 2x – 3

60. Two fair six-sided dice are rolled. What is the probability
that the sum of the two faces on which the dice come to
rest is less than 4?

1
F.
36
1
G.
18
1
H.
12
5
J.
36
1
K.
6

STOP
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READING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions

DIRECTIONS: There are four passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. Read each passage, select
the best answer to each related question, and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. You may look back at the
passages as often as you need.

PASSAGE I From that time forward, Mr. Utterson began to haunt the
door in the by-street of shops. In the morning before office
PROSE FICTION: Passage A is an excerpt from The Strange Case
hours, at noon when business was plenty, and time scarce, at
of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde by Robert Louis Stevenson. Passage B
night under the face of the fogged city moon, by all lights and
is an excerpt from The Invisible Man by H.G. Wells.
40 at all hours of solitude or concourse, the lawyer was to be found
Passage A on his chosen post.
by Robert Louis Stevenson
“If he be Mr. Hyde,” he had thought, “I shall be Mr. Seek.”
Six o’clock struck on the bells of the church that was so con-
veniently near to Mr. Utterson’s dwelling, and still he was digging Questions 1–3 ask about Passage A.
at the problem. Hitherto it had touched him on the intellectual 1. As it is used in line 12, the word rich most nearly
side alone; but now his imagination also was engaged, or rather means:
5 enslaved; and as he lay and tossed in the gross darkness of the
night and the curtained room, Mr. Enfield’s tale went by before A. wealthy.
his mind in a scroll of lighted pictures. He would be aware of the B. affluent.
great field of lamps of a nocturnal city; then of the figure of a C. abundant.
man walking swiftly; then of a child running from the doctor’s; D. plush.

— reading
10 and then these met, and that human Juggernaut trod the child 2. Mr. Utterson starts spending time by the door in the
down and passed on regardless of her screams. Or else he would by-street of shops:
see a room in a rich house, where his friend lay asleep, dreaming
F. while having a nightmare about Mr. Enfield.
and smiling at his dreams; and then the door of that room would
G. after deciding he needs to see Mr. Hyde.
be opened, the curtains of the bed plucked apart, the sleeper
H. before talking to his friend about Mr. Hyde.
15 recalled, and lo! there would stand by his side a figure to whom
J. on his way to his place of work.
power was given, and even at that dead hour, he must rise and
do its bidding. The figure in these two phases haunted the lawyer 3. It can be inferred from the passage that the rela-
all night; and if at any time he dozed over, it was but to see it tionship between Mr. Utterson and Mr. Hyde is most
glide more stealthily through sleeping houses, or move the more similar to that between:
20 swiftly and still the more swiftly, even to dizziness, through wider A. two brothers.
labyrinths of lamplighted city, and at every street corner crush a B. a police officer and a criminal.
child and leave her screaming. And still the figure had no face C. an employee and a boss.
by which he might know it; even in his dreams, it had no face, or D. former co-workers.
one that baffled him and melted before his eyes; and thus it was
25 that there sprang up and grew apace in the lawyer’s mind a Passage B
singularly strong, almost an inordinate, curiosity to behold the by H.G. Wells
features of the real Mr. Hyde. If he could but once set eyes on The stranger came early in February one wintry day, through
him, he thought the mystery would lighten and perhaps roll a biting wind and a driving snow, the last snowfall of the year,
altogether away, as was the habit of mysterious things when over the down, walking as it seemed from Bramblehurst railway
30 well examined. He might see a reason for his friend’s strange station and carrying a little black portmanteau in his thickly
preference or bondage (call it which you please) and even for 5 gloved hand. He was wrapped up from head to foot, and the
the startling clause of the will. At least it would be a face worth
seeing: the face of a man who was without bowels of mercy: a
face which had but to show itself to raise up, in the mind of the
35 unimpressionable Enfield, a spirit of enduring hatred.
CONTINUE
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 Diagnostic Test

brim of his soft felt hat hid every inch of his face but the shiny 5. As it is used in line 2, the word biting most likely means:
tip of his nose; the snow had piled itself against his shoulders A. snapping.
and chest, and added a white crest to the burden he carried. He B. freezing.
staggered into the Coach and Horses, more dead than alive as C. abrasive.
10 it seemed, and flung his portmanteau down. “A fire,”  he cried, “in
D. hateful.
the name of human charity! A room and a fire!” He stamped and
shook the snow from off himself in the bar, and followed Mrs. 6. Which of the following statements does NOT describe
Hall into her guest parlour to strike his bargain. And with that Mrs. Hall’s attitude toward the stranger?
much introduction, that and a ready acquiescence to terms F. She cares about his well-being.
15 and a couple of sovereigns flung upon the table, he took up his G. She is uneasy in his presence.
quarters in the inn. H. She is amused by his odd behavior.
Mrs. Hall lit the fire and left him there while she went to prepare J. She feels she is professionally obligated to him.
him a meal with her own hands. A guest to stop at Iping in the Questions 7–10 ask about both passages.
winter-time was an unheard-of piece of luck, let alone a guest
7. The main purpose of the information in Passage B is to:
20 who was no “haggler,” and she was resolved to show herself
worthy of her good fortune. As soon as the bacon was well under A. provide information about the inn management
way, and Millie, her lymphatic aid, had been brisked up a bit by business.
a few deftly chosen expressions of contempt, she carried the B. characterize Mrs. Hall as a caring and kind person.
cloth, plates, and glasses into the parlour and began to lay them C. explain why Mrs. Hall is so attentive to the stranger.
25 with the utmost clat. Although the fire was burning up briskly, D. list the reasons why Mrs. Hall puts up with the
she was surprised to see that her visitor still wore his hat and stranger’s cruel behavior.
coat, standing with his back to her and staring out of the window
8. It can be reasonably inferred that one way Mr. Utterson
at the falling snow in the yard. His gloved hands were clasped
in Passage A is DIFFERENT from Mrs. Hall in Passage B is:
behind him, and he seemed to be lost in thought. She noticed
30 that the melted snow that still sprinkled his shoulders dripped F. he is intrigued by a mysterious person.
upon her carpet. “Can I take your hat and coat, sir,” she said, “and G. he finds someone’s behavior baffling.
give them a good dry in the kitchen?” H. he feels concern for other people.
J. he likes to solve mysteries.
”No,” he said without turning.
9. It can be reasonably inferred that these two passages:
She was not sure she had heard him, and was about to repeat
35 her question.
A. occur on the final pages of the novels from which
they were excerpted.
He turned his head and looked at her over his shoulder. “I B. are the most important incidents in the novels from
prefer to keep them on,” he said with emphasis, and she noticed which they were excerpted.
that he wore big blue spectacles with side-lights and had a C. were intended to be humorous tangents in the
bushy side-whisker over his coat-collar that completely hid his novels from which they were excerpted.
40 face. D. occur early in the novels from which they were
“Very well, sir,” she said. “As you like. In a bit the room will be excerpted.
warmer.” 10. Paragraph 1 of Passage A and Paragraph 2 of Passage B
He made no answer and had turned his face away from her are both mainly about:
again; and Mrs. Hall, feeling that her conversational advances F. the arrivals of mysterious people.
45 were ill-timed, laid the rest of the table things in a quick staccato G. the effects mysterious people have on others.
and whisked out of the room. H. the evil deeds mysterious people do.
J. the demanding nature of mysterious people.
Questions 4–6 ask about Passage B.
4. What does the first paragraph (lines 1–16) suggest about
the stranger?
F. He has something to hide.
G. He is a wanted criminal.
H. He is the strangest man Mrs. Hall has ever met.
J. He is about to die.

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PASSAGE II 45 landscapes, flowers and fruit, and more often Biblical and historical
incidents. Ornamental plants and flowering plants ought always
SOCIAL SCIENCE: This passage is excerpted from a handbook
to be placed in the room where the children are at work.
by education pioneer Maria Montessori, who developed a special
method for teaching children. Another part of the working-room’s equipment is seen in the
pieces of carpet of various colors—red, blue, pink, green and
The “Children’s House” is the environment which is offered to
50 brown. The children spread these rugs upon the floor, sit upon
the child that he may be given the opportunity of developing
them and work there with the didactic material. A room of this
his activities. This kind of school is not of a fixed type, but may
kind is larger than the customary class-rooms, not only because
vary according to the financial resources at disposal and to the
the little tables and separate chairs take up more space, but also
5 opportunities afforded by the environment. It ought to be a real
because a large part of the floor must be free for the children to
house; that is to say, a set of rooms with a garden of which the
55 spread their rugs and work upon them.
children are the masters. A garden which contains shelters is
ideal, because the children can play or sleep under them, and In the sitting-room, or “club-room,” a kind of parlor in which
can also bring their tables out to work or dine. In this way they the children amuse themselves by conversation, games, or music,
10 may live almost entirely in the open air, and are protected at the etc., the furnishings should be especially tasteful. Little tables of
same time from rain and sun. different sizes, little armchairs and sofas should be placed here
60 and there. Many brackets of all kinds and sizes, upon which may
The central and principal room of the building, often also the
be put statuettes, artistic vases or framed photographs, should
only room at the disposal of the children, is the room for “intel-
adorn the walls; and, above all, each child should have a little
lectual work.” To this central room can be added other smaller
flower-pot, in which he may sow the seed of some indoor plant,
15 rooms according to the means and opportunities of the place:
to tend and cultivate it as it grows. On the tables of this sit-
for example, a bathroom, a dining-room, a little parlor or com-
65 ting-room should be placed large albums of colored pictures,
mon-room, a room for manual work, a gymnasium and rest-room.
and also games of patience, or various geometric solids, with
The special characteristic of the equipment of these houses which the children can play at pleasure, constructing figures, etc.
is that it is adapted for children and not adults. They contain not A piano, or, better, other musical instruments, possibly harps of
20 only didactic material specially fitted for the intellectual devel- small dimensions, made especially for children, completes the
opment of the child, but also a complete equipment for the 70 equipment. In this “club-room” the teacher may sometimes
management of the miniature family. The furniture is light so entertain the children with stories, which will attract a circle of
that the children can move it about, and it is painted in some interested listeners.
light color so that the children can wash it with soap and water.
The furniture of the dining-room consists, in addition to the
25 There are low tables of various sizes and shapes—square, rect-
tables, of low cupboards accessible to all the children, who can
angular and round, large and small. The rectangular shape is the
75 themselves put in their place and take away the crockery, spoons,
most common as two or more children can work at it together.
knives and forks, table-cloth and napkins. The plates are always
The seats are small wooden chairs, but there are also small wicker
of china, and the tumblers and water-bottles of glass. Knives are
armchairs and sofas.
always included in the table equipment.
30 In the working-room there are two indispensable pieces of
11. According to the passage, the Children’s House is a(n):
furniture. One of these is a very long cupboard with large doors.
It is very low so that a small child can set on the top of it small A. playground for children.
objects such as mats, flowers, etc. Inside this cupboard is kept B. type of school.
the didactic material which is the common property of all the C. indoor environment.
35 children. D. house to live in.

The other is a chest of drawers containing two or three columns

of little drawers, each of which has a bright handle (or a handle
of some color to contrast with the background), and a small card
with a name upon it. Every child has his own drawer, in which to
40 put things belonging to him.

Round the walls of the room are fixed blackboards at a low

level, so that the children can write or draw on them, and pleasing,
artistic pictures, which are changed from time to time as circum-
stances direct. The pictures represent children, families,

CONTINUE
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12. The author suggests that the equipment in a Children’s 18. The author’s attitude toward children is one of:
House should be “adapted for children and not adults” F. curiosity.
(line 19) because: G. trust.
F. adults are not allowed in a Children’s House. H. admiration.
G. children cannot learn by using adult-sized J. wrath.
equipment.
19. The passage indicates that the author believes that:
H. it encourages sharing among children.
J. it will help children to be self-sufficient. A. adults should not be involved in the education of
children.
13. In the sixth paragraph (lines 41–47), the main point is B. multiple stimuli and freedom are integral to a good
that the decorations in a Children’s House education.
A. should be varied. C. children need to live apart from adults when
B. must be very religious. learning.
C. teach children about history. D. unsupervised children tend to get into a lot of
D. force children to be artistic. trouble.

14. The passage states that a working room must contain 20. Based on the eighth paragraph (lines 56–72), the author
pieces of multicolored carpet because: believes that:
F. colorful objects stimulate creativity. F. a child’s education is incomplete if the child cannot
G. this is the area on which the children work. play a musical instrument.
H. the tables and chairs take up too much space. G. children should not have to participate in activities
J. children must learn how to spread out carpets. that do not interest them.
H. it’s important for a child to be given a plant to
15. As it is used in line 20, the word didactic most
nurture and cultivate.
likely means:
J. a child will never learn patience without access to a
A. educational. club room.
B. enjoyable.
PASSAGE III
C. teach.
D. small. HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from the introduction to
16. Which of these statements is supported by the second a book in which author Edgar Allan Poe discusses his approach
paragraph (lines 12–17)? to composing literature.

F. Exercise is an element of the educational method Charles Dickens, in a note now lying before me, alluding to an
the author describes. examination I once made of the mechanism of “Barnaby Rudge,”
G. Children will develop good table manners if they says—”By the way, are you aware that Godwin wrote his ‘Caleb
eat in a dining room. Williams’ backwards? He first involved his hero in a web of diffi-
H. Children spend only half of their school day in the 5 culties, forming the second volume, and then, for the first, cast
central room. about him for some mode of accounting for what had been done.”
J. Manual work is the most important activity that
takes place in the central room. I cannot think this the precise mode of procedure on the part
of Godwin—and indeed what he himself acknowledges, is not
17. The drawers, in contrast to the cupboard, are described altogether in accordance with Mr. Dickens’ idea—but the author
as: 10 of “Caleb Williams” was too good an artist not to perceive the
A. a common area. advantage derivable from at least a somewhat similar process.
B. a piece of storage equipment. Nothing is more clear than that every plot, worth the name, must
C. an element in the working room. be elaborated to its dénouement before anything be attempted
D. a place for personal possessions. with the pen. It is only with the dénouement constantly in view
15 that we can give a plot its indispensable air of consequence, or
causation, by making the incidents, and especially the tone at
all points, tend to the development of the intention.

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There is a radical error, I think, in the usual mode of constructing For my own part, I have neither sympathy with the repugnance
a story. Either history affords a thesis—or one is suggested by 65 alluded to, nor at any time the least difficulty in recalling to mind
20 an incident of the day—or, at best, the author sets himself to the progressive steps of any of my compositions; and, since the
work in the combination of striking events to form merely the interest of an analysis, or reconstruction, such as I have considered
basis of his narrative—designing, generally, to fill in with a desideratum, is quite independent of any real or fancied interest
description, dialogue, or authorial comment, whatever crevices in the thing analyzed, it will not be regarded as a breach of
of fact, or action, may, from page to page, render themselves 70 decorum on my part to show the modus operandi by which some
25 apparent. one of my own works was put together. I select “The Raven,” as
most generally known. It is my design to render it manifest that
I prefer commencing with the consideration of an effect.
no one point in its composition is referable either to accident or
Keeping originality always in view—for he is false to himself who
intuition—that the work proceeded, step by step, to its com-
ventures to dispense with so obvious and so easily attainable a
75 pletion with the precision and rigid consequence of a mathe-
source of interest—I say to myself, in the first place, “Of the
matical problem.
30 innumerable effects, or impressions, of which the heart, the
intellect, or (more generally) the soul is susceptible, what one Let us dismiss, as irrelevant to the poem, per se, the circum-
shall I, on the present occasion, select?” Having chosen a novel, stance—or say the necessity—which, in, the first place, gave rise
first, and secondly a vivid effect, I consider whether it can be best to the intention of composing a poem that should suit at once
wrought by incident or tone—whether by ordinary incidents 80 the popular and the critical taste.
35 and peculiar tone, or the converse, or by peculiarity both of
21. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the way
incident and tone—afterward looking about me (or rather within)
Dickens thought Godwin wrote “Caleb Williams”?
for such combinations of event, or tone, as shall best aid me in
the construction of the effect. A. Godwin wrote the ending first.
B. Godwin imagined difficulties for his character.
I have often thought how interesting a magazine paper might C. Godwin wrote the first part of the story last.
40 be written by any author who would—that is to say who could— D. Godwin made sure the tone fit the incidents in his
detail, step by step, the processes by which any one of his com- story.
positions attained its ultimate point of completion. Why such a
paper has never been given to the world, I am much at a loss to 22. One can reasonably infer that when the author writes
say—but, perhaps, the authorial vanity has had more to do with literature, he:
45 the omission than any one other cause. Most writers—poets in F. always starts with the beginning of his story before
especial—prefer having it understood that they compose by a working forward.
species of fine frenzy—an ecstatic intuition—and would positively G. does not pay attention to the process by which he
shudder at letting the public take a peep behind the scenes, at writes.
the elaborate and vacillating crudities of thought—at the true H. is only concerned with tone and has no interest in
50 purposes seized only at the last moment—at the innumerable plot.
glimpses of idea that arrived not at the maturity of full view—at J. is primarily concerned with manipulating the
the fully matured fancies discarded in despair as unmanageable— reader.
at the cautious selections and rejections—at the painful erasures
23. The creation of “The Raven” involved:
and interpolations—in a word, at the wheels and pinions—the
55 tackle for scene-shifting—the stepladders and demon-traps—the I. a precise method.
cock’s feathers, the red paint and the black patches, which, in II. accident.
ninety-nine cases out of the hundred, constitute the properties III. intuition.
of the literary histrio.
A. I only
I am aware, on the other hand, that the case is by no means B. I and III only
60 common, in which an author is at all in condition to retrace the C. II and III only
steps by which his conclusions have been attained. In general, D. I, II, and III
suggestions, having arisen pell-mell, are pursued and forgotten
in a similar manner.

CONTINUE
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24. Poe’s claim that “There is a radical error, I think, in the 30. The sentence, “Let us dismiss, as irrelevant to the poem,
usual mode of constructing a story. Either history affords per se, the circumstance—or say the necessity—which,
a thesis—or one is suggested by an incident of the day” in, the first place, gave rise to the intention of com-
(lines 18–20) most strongly suggests that during writing posing a poem that should suit at once the popular and
sessions, Poe would: the critical taste.” (lines 77–80) suggests that the author:
F. use historical events as the basis of a plot he is F. admits that his work is fairly irrelevant.
outlining. G. is very proud of the popularity of his poem “The
G. completely alter historical events to suit the plot he Raven.”
is devising. H. intended “The Raven” to have widespread appeal.
H. set his story in the future so he does not have to J. does not respect critics even though they praised
rely on history at all. his poem “The Raven.”
J. not faithfully base a plot in one of his stories on
PASSAGE IV
history.
NATURAL SCIENCE: The following passage is excerpted from a
25. The main point of the fifth paragraph (lines 39–58) is
book about popular science written by scientist Aaron Bernstein
that Poe:
in 1869.
A. intends to write a detailed article about the literary
One would be well justified in calling the blood “man’s body
process.
in a liquid state.” For the blood is destined to become the living
B. thinks there are several reasons why no one has
solid body of man.
written a valuable article about the literary process.
C. does most of his writing in a frenzied state of People were astonished, when Liebig, the great naturalist,
ecstatic intuition. 5 called blood the “liquid flesh;” we are correct even in going further
D. has no idea why no one has written an article about and calling the blood “man’s body in a liquid state.” From blood
the literary process. are prepared not only muscles and flesh, but also bones, brain,
fat, teeth, eyes, veins, cartilages, nerves, tendons, and even hair.
26. Poe explains that when writing, he:
F. works in a state of creative frenzy. It is utterly wrong for anybody to suppose, that the constituents
G. keeps notes on his writing process. 10 of all these parts are dissolved in the blood, say as sugar is dis-

H. is more concerned with tone than plot. solved in water. By no means. Water is something quite different
J. remains very conscious of his writing process. from the sugar dissolved in it; while the blood is itself the material
from which all the solid parts of the body are formed.
27. According to the first paragraph (lines 1–6), Dickens
expressed his theories about Godwin: The blood is received into the heart, and the heart, like a pump,
15 forces it into the lungs. There it absorbs in a remarkable manner
A. in an article entitled “Barnaby Rudge.”
the oxygen of the air which comes into the lungs by breathing.
B. in a response to Poe’s examination of “Barnaby
This blood, saturated now with oxygen, is then recalled to another
Rudge.”
part of the heart by an expansive movement of that organ.
C. after reading Godwin’s story “Barnaby Rudge.”
D. after Poe criticized Godwin’s “Caleb Williams.” This part of the heart contracts again and impels the oxy-
20 genated blood into the whole body by means of arteries, which
28. The author offers all of the following as reasons why no
branch out more and more, and become smaller and smaller,
one has written a detailed article about the literary
until at last they are no longer visible to the naked eye. In this
process EXCEPT:
manner the blood penetrates all part of the body, and returns
F. Crudity to the heart by means of similar thread-like veins, which gradually
G. Vanity 25 join and form larger veins. Having reached the heart, it is again
H. Forgetfulness forced into the lungs, and absorbs there more oxygen, returns
J. Deceptiveness to the heart, and is again circulated through the whole system.

29. Based on the passage, the author intends to change the During this double circulation of the blood from the heart to
way: the lungs and back, and then from the heart to all parts of the
A. writers create literature. 30 body and back again—during all this, the change of particles,

B. readers analyze literature. so remarkable in itself, is constantly going on: the exchange by
C. readers perceive the literary process. which the useless and wasted matter are secreted and new
D. writers discuss the literary process.

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substances distributed. This fact is wonderful, and its cause not 34. It can be inferred from the second paragraph (lines 4–6)
yet fully explained by science; but so much is certain, that the that:
35 blood when being conveyed to all parts of the human body,
F. all elements of the human body are blood-based.
deposits whatever at the time may be needed there for the G. blood is the only liquid in the human body.
renewal of that part. H. a human cannot lose blood and survive.
Thus the blood that has been formed in the child from the J. there is more blood in the flesh than there is in the
mother’s milk, contains phosphorus, oxygen, and calcium. These organs.
40 substances, during the circulation of the blood, are deposited in 35. According to the author, during circulation, oxygen:
the bones, and form “phosphate of lime,” the principal element
in the bone. In the same manner fluor and calcium are given to I. extracts calcium from teeth.
the teeth. The muscles, or flesh, also receive their ingredients II. is deposited in bones.
from the blood; so do the nerves, veins, membranes, brain, and III. forms phosphate of lime.
45 nails; also the inner organs, such as the heart, lungs, liver, kidneys, A. I only
intestines, and stomach. B. I and II only
They all, however, in return give to the blood their waste C. II and III only
particles, which it carries to that part of the human body where D. I, II, and III
they may be secreted. 36. The author claims that blood is the “Juice of Life” (line
58) because:
50 If any member of the body is so bound, that the blood cannot
circulate, it must decay; for the life of the body consists in its F. blood is extracted from solid food.
constant change and transformation, in the continual exchange G. it is a clearer term than “Means of Existence.”
of fresh substances for waste ones. But this vital exchange is only H. blood contains as many nutrients as a serving of
kept up by the constant circulation of the blood, which, while it fresh juice.
55 decreases by being transformed into vital parts of the body, is J. blood cannot circulate if any part of the body is
always formed anew by our daily food. bound.

Food is therefore very justly called “Means of Existence,” and 37. The passage states that waste particles in blood:
the blood may rightly be called the “Juice of Life.”
A. are deposited in the organs.
31. What is the main idea of the fourth paragraph (lines B. are secreted from body parts.
14–18)? C. prevent blood from circulating.
D. decay inside the body.
A. Blood journeys from the heart to the lungs.
B. The heart works as a pump. 38. According to the author, the human body:
C. Blood moves from the heart through arteries.
I. must be in a constant state of change.
D. Blood is saturated with oxygen in the lungs.
II. must constantly break down and repair itself.
32. The author compares blood with water to prove that: III. constantly needs fresh substances.

F. one contains sugars and the other does not. F. I only

G. they have different relationships with particular G. II only
solids. H. II and III only
H. blood dissolves solid materials and water does not. J. I and III only
J. they are both organic liquids.
39. As it is used in line 9, the word constituents most nearly
33. The passage mentions that Liebig is a(n): means:
A. biologist. A. components.
B. naturalist. B. constants.
C. zoologist. C. bases.
D. instructor. D. continents.

CONTINUE
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40. The author concludes that blood is:

F. a remarkable and mysterious substance.
G. the only substance upon which human life
depends.
H. more important than food to the human body.
J. the essential ingredient of human life.

STOP
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SCIENCE TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions

DIRECTIONS: There are seven passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. Read each passage, select
the best answer to each related question, and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. You may look back at the
passages as often as you need.

You are NOT allowed to use a calculator on this test.

PASSAGE I Experiment 1

Diagnostic Test — science

Ecologists studying crabs were examining interactions between In Experiment 1, two crabs, one from two different species,
three different species of crabs: Crab 1, Crab 2, and Crab 3. They were put into a tank together with a food item that all three
compared the behavior of each crab against both of the other species were known to eat. Each species was compared sep-
types of crabs, one species at a time, in a series of experiments. arately against each other species, so Crab 1 was compared
Crabs were also compared with a similar-sized competitor from to Crab 2, Crab 1 with Crab 3, and Crab 2 with Crab 3. The
their own species. experiment examined how often each species of crab ate any
food at all, how often each species found the food first, and
how often each species of crab found the food after its com-
petitor but still managed to eat something.

First to food item

Eat any part of food item

Find food item second but still eat

75%
Percent of Contests

50%

25%

Crab 1 Crab 2 Crab 3

CONTINUE
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Experiment 2 1. Based on the experiments in this study, which crab

species is most likely to live a solitary life?
Experiment 2 used the same setup and compared each species
of crab with each other crab, as described in Experiment 1. This A. Crab 1
time, researchers recorded how often each species initiated a B. Crab 2
conflict with another species and how often each species was C. Crab 3
the victor in these conflicts. D. No way to tell from the information given

2. What is a possible overall hypothesis for these

Aggressor experiments?

Victor F. Crab 2 is the most skillful fighter of the three

75% species.
Percent of Contests

G. Crab 3 is the strongest of the three species.

H. One crab is at a disadvantage in contests with other
species.
50% J. Crabs avoid competition with each other.

3. Which statement about Experiment 3 is not accurate?

A. Crab 1 was the largest crab tested.
25%
B. Crab 2’s shell increases in strength the most as the
crab grows.
C. Crab 3 has the strongest shell.
Crab 1 Crab 2 Crab 3 D. The largest Crab 2 tested was 75mm.

4. What piece of additional information would best help to

explain the overall behavior of Crab 1?
Experiment 3
F. All three crabs share the same habitat.
Experiment 3 used engineering equipment to test how strong G. Crab 1 has a superior sensory system compared to
each crab’s shell was. Shells from crabs of different sizes were the other two crabs.
placed under stress until they broke. H. Crabs 2 and 3 are predators of Crab 1.
J. Crab 1 has more dangerous weapons (claws) than
Crab 1 the other two crabs.
Crab 2
5. Which crab has the weakest shell?
Crab 3
Shell Strength (kg/ inch 2)

A. A 10 mm Crab 3
B. A 20 mm Crab 3
C. A 25 mm Crab 1
D. A 25 mm Crab 2

6. What is one additional experiment the researchers could

perform that would help determine the influence of
other crabs on each crab’s ability to eat?
F. Offer each crab different food items and see which
one they prefer.
G. Perform experiments 1 and 2 between 2 crabs of
25mm 50mm 75mm the same species.
Crab Size H. Test each crab’s ability to find a food item sepa-
rately from one another.
J. Repeat experiments 1 and 2 using larger crabs.

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PASSAGE II Experiment 2

Swell waves are waves that originate in storm centers. When a

Waves are believed to be caused by the transference of energy
swell wave moves faster than the storm that produced it, it often
from wind to a body of water as the wind pushes the water
maintains its height and spreads to further regions beyond the
ahead of it. Based on this theory, wave height should be pro-
storm. Over the course of a week, scientists observed the per-
portional to the speed of the wind that generates the wave.
centage of waves crossing the recording station used in
Scientists exploring this hypothesis performed the following
Experiment 1 that did not originate in the station’s vicinity. The
experiments.
results are depicted in Table 1.
Experiment 1

A recording station was constructed to measure wind speeds Table 1

and wave heights at an ocean location. For each wave detected,
Percentage of
the height of the wave as it passed the station was recorded, as Day
Swell Waves
was the wind speed at the station at the precise moment of
crossing. The information recorded by the station’s sensors is Monday 13

presented in Figure 1. Tuesday 37

Wednesday 7
FIGURE 1
Thursday 21
Friday 6
10
9 Saturday 3
8 Sunday 28
Wave Height (m)

7
6
5
4 Experiment 3
3 A recording station was constructed to measure the wind speeds
2 and wave heights in a small lake with minimal access to larger
1
water bodies. Wind speed and wave height measurements,
0
collected in the same manner as described in Experiment 1, are
0 2 4 6 8 10 12
represented in Figure 2.
Wind Speed (m/s)

FIGURE 2

5
Wave Height (m)

0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12
Wind Speed (m/s)

CONTINUE
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7. The highest wave height was observed at a wind speed 12. In order to lend further support to the hypothesis stated
of approximately in the passage’s introduction, scientists could:
A. 0.0 m/s. F. repeat the lake experiment on a day with
B. 2.4 m/s. severe thunderstorms.
C. 8.8 m/s. G. repeat the ocean experiment on a perfectly
D. 10.0 m/s. wind-free day.
H. collect data on wave height and wind speed
8. How many significant outlier wave heights were
from an indoor pool exposed to a powerful
observed among the data in Figure 2?
electronic blower.
F. 0 J. collect data on wave height and wind speed from
G. 1 a body of water not as open as an ocean but not as
H. 2 enclosed as a lake.
J. 3
PASSAGE III
9. What would be a possible alternative explanation,
besides the stated hypothesis, for the data shown in the A projectile is defined as an object upon which the only force is
three experiments? gravity. In order to observe the parameters of a projectile, a
A. The hypothesis stated in the introduction can be student hit a tennis ball with a racket and filmed the ball’s tra-
rejected in all cases. jectory. She then viewed the film and used equations to simulate
B. Wind speed correlates with wave height in the the ball’s trajectory in terms of its horizontal distance from the
ocean but not in small lakes. point of impact and its corresponding vertical height above the
C. Wind speed correlates with wave height in small ground. Various readings, presented in chronological order from
lakes but not in the ocean. the beginning of the ball’s movement until the end, are recorded
D. Swell waves have completely unpredictable wave in Table 1.
heights.

10. In science, a null hypothesis is a statement that there is Table 1

no relationship between variables; if the hypothesis is
Horizontal Vertical Horizontal Vertical
accepted then the null hypothesis is rejected and vice
Distance Height Distance Height
versa. What is the null hypothesis for this study? (m) (m) (m) (m)
F. Wind speed directly influences wave height. 0 1 15 0.9
G. Wind speed has no influence on wave height. 1.5 2.3 16.5 1.2
H. Swell waves are more common than wind-driven
3.0 3.3 18 0
waves.
4.5 4.0 19.5 0.5
J. Swell waves are rarer than wind-driven waves.
6.0 4.5 21 0
11. Figure 2 suggests that swell waves of which of the 7.5 4.7 22.5 0
following heights crossed the recording station used in
9.0 4.1 24.0 0
Experiment 3?
10.5 3.2 22.0 0
A. 1.2 m and 2.7 m
12.0 2.1 20.0 0
B. 0.5 m and 2.0 m
13.5 0 18.0 0
C. 2.7 m and 5.0 m
D. 1.2 m and 6.0 m

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Figure 1 indicates the ball’s horizontal distance from 16. If the horizontal distance traveled by the ball is plotted
the point of impact as plotted against time. against the height of the ball relative to the ground,
which graph would most accurately represent the data?
FIGURE 1
F.
27.5
Horizontal Distance (m)

25
22.5
20
17.5
15
12.5
10
7.5 G.
5
2.5
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Time

13. What was the ball doing approximately 12.5 seconds

H.
after it left the racket?
A. Traveling forward in the air
B. Rolling forward
C. Rolling backward
D. Stopped

14. Approximately how much time passes between the time

J.
the ball first lands and when it bounces for the last time?
F. 1.5 seconds
G. 2.5 seconds
H. 6 seconds
J. 8.5 seconds

15. The ball reached its maximal vertical height at which 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the data in
horizontal distance? the passage?
A. 7.5 m A. The ball rolled on the ground from 8 seconds after
B. 16.5 m the student hit it to 12 seconds after the student
C. 19.5 m hit it.
D. 24.0 m B. The ball traveled away from the point of impact
from 7 seconds after the student hit it to 12
seconds after the student hit it.
C. The ball rolled on the ground from 12 seconds after
the student hit it to 14 seconds after the student
hit it.
D. The ball flew in the air from 7 seconds after the
student hit it to 10 seconds after the student hit it.

CONTINUE
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PASSAGE IV 19. If a child who moves from a rural countryside to a

congested metropolitan area develops asthma for the
The number of cases of childhood asthma has risen dramatically first time, this could support:
in the past few decades. The following hypotheses attempt to
A. the Contaminants Hypothesis but not the
account for the increasing incidence of this disease among children.
Hygienic Hypothesis.
Contaminants Hypothesis B. the Hygienic Hypothesis but not the
Contaminants Hypothesis.
The dramatic increase in childhood asthma in recent decades
C. both the Contaminants Hypothesis and the
can be explained by the fact that children today are more exposed
Hygienic Hypothesis.
to environmental contaminants, including dust, pollen, molds,
D. neither the Contaminants Hypothesis nor the
pesticides, air pollution, second-hand cigarette smoke, and food
Hygienic Hypothesis.
additives. Taken together, these chemicals form a “toxic soup”
that envelops children, either attacking their lungs directly, 20. Proponents of the Contaminants Hypothesis could use
triggering the wheezing and shortness of breath characteristic which piece of evidence from the Hygienic Hypothesis
of asthma, or compromising their immune systems, making them to support their own theory?
more susceptible to a wide range of diseases. Moreover, because F. The increase in childhood immunizations, if it could
they spend a greater amount of time indoors watching television, be shown that sometimes these immunizations
playing video games, or using computers, children today have cause severe side effects
greater exposure to indoor allergens than in the past. G. The decrease in children’s exposure to animals, if
Hygienic Hypothesis
 it could be shown that this negatively affects the
development of such children’s immune systems
The dramatic increase in childhood asthma in recent decades
H. The increased use of household sanitizers, if it could
can be attributed to the over-obsession with health and clean-
be shown that such products contain chemicals
liness that has pervaded our culture. We increasingly sanitize our
that can trigger asthma attacks
homes with disinfectants, immunize our children to ward off
J. The increase in childhood immunizations, if it could
even minor, non-life-threatening diseases, and shield children
be shown that such immunizations are extremely
from “unclean” animals and other children with the slightest sign
successful in warding off major human
of a cold. However, the human body evolved over millions of
diseases, such as polio
years in close proximity to its natural surroundings, including
dirt, germs, and all kinds of noxious elements; the human immune 21. Which of the following products, if overused, might be
system evolved specifically to recognize and fight such elements. condemned by either the Contaminants Hypothesis or
If children have not been sufficiently exposed to germs and the Hygienic Hypothesis?
impurities at an early age, their underused immune systems A. Food additives
become hypersensitized when they do eventually encounter B. Unpasteurized cheese
these elements. Such immune system deficiencies predispose C. Bleach
children to asthma and other similar diseases. D. Slightly moldy bread

18. Which of the following are proponents of the two 22. Believers in the Hygienic Hypothesis would be likely to
hypotheses likely to agree on, but for different reasons? characterize the effect of what they describe as our
society’s preoccupation with health as:
F. Asthma is the most common childhood disease in
developed countries. F. detrimental because it causes us to disregard the
G. Spending too much time indoors is a health risk. effects of the noxious elements of our environment.
H. Vaccinations are overused. G. beneficial because it leads people to immunize
J. Too many chemicals are added to food these days. their children against a multitude of diseases.
H. unquantifiable because the effects of our society’s
obsession with health and cleanliness cannot be
precisely determined.
J. ironic because current actions intended to promote
health actually diminish it.

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23. A parent is considering applying a synthetic mosquito Study 1

repellent to his six-month-old child. Which of the
Ten healthy adults volunteered to remain awake for an entire
following reactions would be most expected based on
night and participate in cognitive tests over the course of a
the information in the passage?
30-hour sleepless period. Each subject was awakened at 7:00
A. Supporters of the Hygienic Hypothesis would a.m. on Day 1 of the study for the first set of tests and, subse-
encourage the use of the repellent. quently, was tested every 3 hours until 1:00 p.m. on Day 2. Each
B. Supporters of the Hygienic Hypothesis would dis- testing trial consisted of verbal, math, and short-term memory
courage the use of the repellent. tasks, rated at the same difficulty level from trial to trial. The
C. Supporters of the Hygienic Hypothesis would not researchers measured both the speed and the accuracy of
have an opinion on the use of the repellent. responses to test items, combining these scores into a mean
D. Supporters of the Contaminants Hypothesis would Proficiency Quotient on a scale from 1 to 10. Results are depicted
encourage the use of the repellent. in Figure 1.
24. Some scientists believe that an increase in the survival
rate of low-birth-weight babies has greatly increased the
FIGURE 1
number of children susceptible to asthma. How does
this theory relate to the two theories presented in 10
the passage? 9

Proficiency Quotient
8
F. It supports the Contaminants Hypothesis but not Verbal
7
the Hygienic Hypothesis.
6
G. It supports the Hygienic Hypothesis but not the Math
5
Contaminants Hypothesis. 4 Short-term
H. It supports both the Contaminants Hypothesis and 3 Memory
the Hygienic Hypothesis. 2
J. It supports neither the Contaminants Hypothesis 1
nor the Hygienic Hypothesis. 0
7 a.m.
10 a.m.
1 p.m.
4 p.m.
7 p.m.
10 p.m.
1 a.m.
4 a.m.
7 a.m.
10 a.m.
1 p.m.
PASSAGE V

It has long been hypothesized that the average adult needs 7 to Time
8 hours of sleep daily to ensure optimal functioning of mind and
body, and that sleep deprivation causes not only physical impair-
ments but mental abnormalities as well. Researchers conducted
studies to explore the ways in which sleep deprivation affects
the performance of mental tasks and the physiological activities
of the brain.

CONTINUE
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Study 2 26. The tested skill in Figure 1 that showed the greatest
range of proficiencies over the provided time course was
A sleep-deprived volunteer, awake for 25 straight hours, and a
fully rested volunteer, observed 1 hour after waking from a restful F. verbal.
8-hour sleep, were monitored while responding to the questions G. math.
and tasks listed in Table 1. Functional magnetic resonance imaging H. short-term memory.
(MRI) scans were used to indicate brain activity while the subjects J. All three were equal in range.
responded. The temporal lobe and the parietal lobe are two regions 27. Overall, for both the sleep-deprived and rested subjects,
of the cerebral cortex. The activity status of these regions during which lobe exhibited more activity in the questions and
the responses to the specific questions and tasks are indicated tasks described in Table 1?
in Table 1, with a checkmark signifying activity in that lobe and
an “X” signifying lack of activity. A. The parietal lobe, activated five times for every
three times the temporal lobe was activated
B. The parietal lobe, activated two times for every one
Table 1 time the temporal lobe was activated
Sleep-Deprived Rested C. The temporal lobe, activated two times for every
Question / Subject Subject one time the parietal lobe was activated
Task Temporal Parietal Temporal Parietal D. The temporal lobe, activated five times for every
Lobe Lobe Lobe Lobe three times the parietal lobe was activated
What is 642
divided X X X 28. Which results from Study 2 help explain the short-term
by 27? memory results in Study 1?
Read the F. The parietal lobe takes over for the temporal lobe
following text
when sleep-deprived.
from Lincoln’s
Gettysburg X X G. Verbal skills improve when sleep-deprived..
Address H. Sleep-deprived people are unable to perform
[text complex math skills.
provided].
J. Study 2 does not explain the short-term memory
Define
X X results.
“loyalty.”
Fill in the 29. Insomnia is an inability to sleep. The methodology of
blank in the Study 1 would be most flawed if it were found that:
following
X X X 
sequence: A. all 10 participants reported experiencing episodes
3, 7, 15, of insomnia at some points in their lives.
31, __, 127
B. 5 of the participants reported changes in their
Describe a
memorable
sleep patterns during the week following the study.
dream you X X C. 4 of the 10 participants suffered from severe
had during insomnia during the middle of the night prior to
childhood. Day 1 of the study.
Calculate: D. all 10 participants experienced insomnia during the
(232 + 464 X X X
– 117) × 6 entire 30-hour study.

30. Which of the following is a reasonable generalization

that can be made from Study 1?
25. Based on the results in Figure 1, the maximal proficiency
in math was observed around what time? F. Math and verbal ability are independent from
short-term memory.
A. 7 a.m. on Day 1
G. Math and verbal ability are dependent on
B. 10 a.m. on Day 1
short-term memory.
C. 4 p.m. on Day 1
H. Short-term memory improves shortly after waking
D. 7 a.m. on Day 2
and steadily improves after that.
J. Math and verbal skills are at their worst after being
awake for about 24 hours.

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PASSAGE VI This initial clotting process is amplified by the further activation

of these and other factors which are inserted back into the clotting
Coagulation of the blood—commonly called clotting—is the process to enhance its effect. Table 1 lists four proteins that play
process by which blood solidifies to stop the flow of bleeding. a role in this amplification process.
Clotting requires numerous proteins called clotting factors, which
generally circulate in the bloodstream in an inactive state. These Table 1
factors are activated in a series of steps when clotting is required.
Protein Activates Factor:
The clotting process begins with the appearance of Tissue Factor TF-7 9
emitted by damaged cells. Tissue Factor binds to activated Factor
Thrombin 5, 8, 11
7 and forms an enzyme called TF-7, which activates Factor 10;
Factor 10, in turn, binds to and activates Factor 5. This creates an Complex Formed from
10
Factors 8 and 9
enzyme called prothrombinase, which converts prothrombin to
thrombin. Thrombin helps to form soluble molecules of fibrin Factor 11 9
and also activates Factor 13, which converts the soluble fibrin
molecules into an insoluble meshwork forming the clot. This
Calcium ions are also required for clotting to take place.
process is summarized in Figure 1.
31. A patient has a mutation that affects the origin of
FIGURE 1 otherwise healthy tissue factors. What would be the
most likely impact of such a mutation?
A. The patient will be unable to form clots.
7 Tissue Factor B. The patient will form clots in healthy tissue.
C. The patient’s tissue factors will be unable to bind
with activated 7.
D. Clotting factors in the bloodstream will be perma-
nently activated.
10
32. What sort of clotting would occur in a situation where a
patient produced too much prothrombinase?
5
F. No clotting would occur.
G. Partial clotting would occur.
H. Normal clotting would occur.
J. Excess clotting would occur.
Thrombin
33. A chelating agent is used to bind calcium ions, ren-
dering them ineffective. Which of the following people
would be most likely to benefit from this agent?
A. A doctor treating a bleeding accident victim
13 Fibrin B. A technician in a blood donation facility
C. A geneticist researching the molecular makeup
of blood
D. A hemophiliac suffering from an inability to form
Clot blood clots

CONTINUE
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 Diagnostic Test

34. A scientist wants to take a closer look at the functioning PASSAGE VII
of Factor 10 in the amplification process. What is an
experiment she could perform that would accomplish Carbon dioxide (CO2), one of the components of photosynthesis,
this goal? is essential to the survival and growth of a plant. But what happens
if the CO2 concentration changes from the current level and rises
F. Disable the binding ability of Factor 8 in a test
or falls? A series of tests were conducted exposing woody plants
mouse.
to steadily increasing CO2 concentrations. The impact on nutrients
G. Disable thrombin production in a test mouse.
(using nitrogen as an example), growth, and breakdown (decom-
H. Disable TF-7 in a test mouse.
position) of dead plant material were all measured under
J. Introduce extra Factor 10 into a test mouse.
increased CO2 concentration. The results are shown in Table 1.

Table 1

CO2 Concentration Nitrogen Content of Wood Growth Rate Decomposition Rate

(molCO /molair) (% Change) (mm/week) (% mass/week)
2

350 –1 0.4 5
370 –2 0.8 4
390 –2.5 1 5
410 –3.5 1.3 6
420 –4.6 1.6 7
440 –5.7 1.9 6
460 –6.8 2.2 2
480 –9 2.6 9
500 –11 2.4 4
520 –25 2.8 9
540 –15 3 8
560 –18 3.1 4
580 –21 3.3 6
600 –24 3.2 4.5
620 –27 3.4 4.5
640 –30 1 5
660 –34 0.7 4
680 –36 0.4 3
700 –38 0.2 5.5

35. Looking at Table 1, what is the relationship between CO2 36. According to the data in the table, CO2 concentration
and decomposition? and growth rate are, until 620 molCO /molair :
2

A. As CO2 concentration increases, decomposition F. directly proportional.

rate decreases. G. inversely proportional.
B. As CO2 concentration increases, decomposition H. negatively correlated, in general, but not
rate increases. proportional.
C. As CO2 concentration increases, decomposition J. positively correlated, in general, but not
rate initially increases and then decreases. proportional.
D. As CO2 concentration increases, there is little
defined effect on decomposition rate.

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37. What is a plausible explanation for the changes in 39. When growth rate peaks, the decomposition rate is:
growth rate that begin at 640 molCO /molair? A. at its lowest.
2

A. It is the threshold above which more CO2 kills the B. lower than average but not at its lowest.
plant. C. higher than average but not at its highest.
B. The plant becomes stressed and vulnerable to D. at its highest.
insect damage.
40. In a hypothetical version of this experiment, decompo-
C. The plant has insufficient fertilizer beginning at 640
sition rate steadily decreases as CO2 concentration
molCO /molair.
2 increases. What might explain such a finding?
D. The plant has reached its maximum height.
F. CO2 is removing the oxygen bacteria need to
38. What is the most likely explanation for the sudden
function.
change in nitrogen content at 520 molCO /molair?
2 G. Insufficient nutrients inhibit bacteria growth.
F. 520 is a threshold concentration where nitrogen H. Wood increases in quality as CO2 concentration
begins to drop rapidly. increases.
G. Experiment error occurred. J. Slower plant growth provides less area for
H. High decomposition rates affect the nitrogen level. decomposers.
J. Another nutrient must have dropped in concen-
tration as well.

STOP
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 Diagnostic Test

WRITING TEST
40 Minutes

DIRECTIONS: This is a test of your writing skills. You have forty (40) minutes to write an essay in English. Be sure to carefully
read the issue and three perspectives presented before planning and writing your essay so you understand clearly the
task you are being asked to do. Your essay will be graded on the evidence it provides of your ability to analyze the issue;
evaluate and analyze the perspectives; state and develop a personal perspective; and describe the relationship between the
given perspectives and your own, while effectively using organization, logic, and language according to the conventions
of standard written English.

Diagnostic Test — writing

The Classroom of the Future
Most of us are accustomed to learning in traditional classrooms—with walls, windows, teachers, and fellow classmates all
together in rooms, in pursuit of common educational goals. But advances in technology and online learning may change
the shape of the future classroom. We conduct a wide array of important daily tasks online: paying bills, making purchases,
maintaining relationships with friends and family, and conducting important research. Online learning opportunities are
available for students from the primary through postgraduate level, and they continue to expand. Weighing the potential
advantages and disadvantages of a learning environment that makes complete use of modern technology and the Internet’s
capabilities, we must look at the possibility of the physical classroom of the past being replaced by the virtual classroom
of the future.

Read and carefully consider these perspectives. Each suggests a particular way of thinking about how the classroom of the future
should work.

Perspective One

Physical classrooms will and should always exist. The Internet and modern technology clearly provide life-changing and time-
saving benefits, but also include too many distractions. Effective, focused learning can only occur in a traditional classroom
alongside other students, under the direct guidance of a teacher keeping everyone on task.

Perspective Two

Physical classrooms will and should eventually be replaced by online classrooms. Technological advances have made traditional
classrooms unnecessary and have revealed their limitations. In the future, the modern, virtual classroom will be free of the con-
straints and limitations that inhibit learning and impede the achievement of each student’s educational goals.

Perspective Three

The classroom of the future will continue to integrate the best of both worlds—the traditional and the virtual—for a blended,
effective learning experience. Students will benefit from guided classroom learning that also takes advantage of technology
for additional opportunities to achieve educational goals.

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Essay Task
Write a cohesive, logical essay in which you consider multiple perspectives on the classroom of the future. In your essay, be sure to:

•  examine and assess the perspectives given

•  declare and explain your own perspective on the issue
•  discuss the relationship between your perspective and those given
Your perspective may be in full or partial agreement, or in total disagreement, with any of the others. Whatever the case, support
your ideas with logical reasoning and detailed, persuasive examples.

Plan and Write Your Essay

Use the first two pages of the Writing test answer sheet (found at the beginning of the test) to generate ideas and plan your
essay. Then use the following four pages to write your essay. Consider the following as you compose your essay:

What are the strengths and weaknesses of the three perspectives provided?

•  Identify the insights they present and what they fail to consider.
•  Ascertain why a given perspective might persuade or fail to persuade.
How can you apply your own experience, knowledge, and values?

•  Express your perspective on the issue, identifying the perspective’s strengths and weaknesses.
•  Formulate a plan to support your perspective in your essay.

STOP
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 Answer Keys and Explanations

English

1.   D 20.   G 39.   B 58.   H

2.   G 21.   C 40.   J 59.   A
3.   C 22.   H 41.   D 60.   H
4.   H 23.   A 42.   J 61.   D
5.   A 24.   J 43.   A 62.   G
6.   J 25.   A 44.   J 63.   B
7.   D 26.   H 45.   C 64.   J
8.   J 27.   D 46.   G 65.   B
9.   B 28.   G 47.   C 66.   H
10.   H 29.   C 48.   J 67.   D
11.   B 30.   G 49.   A 68.   F
12.   G 31.   C 50.   J 69.   B
13.   B 32.   G 51.   B 70.   G
14.   G 33.   A 52.   F 71.   C
15.   C 34.   J 53.   B 72.   J
16.   G 35.   C 54.   H 73.   B
17.   D 36.   H 55.   A 74.   J
18.   F 37.   C 56.   J 75.   D
19.   D 38.   J 57.   B

1. The correct answer is D. In this sentence, the singular about who would have that access. Only choice C
hero should be plural since it is referring to a group of makes clear who has the access.
them, so heroes (choice D) is the correct answer. Choice
4. The correct answer is H. As written, the sentence
B is an incorrectly spelled plural form of hero. Choice C is
incorrectly uses the transition word unfortunately,
the possessive form of hero, which does not fit in this
but there is nothing unfortunate about discovering
sentence as written.
that the Navajo language made an excellent code.
2. The correct answer is G. The phrase “for communi- Choices G and J also use transition words that don’t
cating” is set off by a comma in the passage, but fit within the context of this sentence. The only
because the description “for communicating” modifies choice that makes sense for this sentence is choice
code (defining the purpose of that code), “for communi- H, which removes the unnecessary transition word.
cating” is what is called a restrictive phrase. It should not
5. The correct answer is A. This sentence shows a
be separated from the word or phrase it modifies. The
simple progression from one event to the next, so
same is true for “top secret,” which eliminates choices H
afterward (choice A) is the best choice. Choice B is a
and J.
transitional phrase that indicates the completion of a
3. The correct answer is C. Avoid such wordy construc- cause and effect relationship, and there is no such
tions as “it being the case that they would,” especially relationship in this sentence. However (choice C)
when good alternatives are available. “It was crucial that indicates a contradiction. Omitting afterward (choice
enemy forces not be able to decipher the code” puts D) would not alter the sentence’s meaning dramati-
“enemy forces” (the subject) at the front of the sentence. cally; however, it would not improve the sentence
Choice D also places “enemy forces” near the beginning either.
of the sentence, but the second clause is constructed in
6. The correct answer is J. Choices F and H can be
such a way as to imply that the code, not the enemy
eliminated because neither sentence has a subject
forces, would have access to the tactics and troop
(“the code talkers”). In choice G, the comma after
movements. Choice B’s “having access” is ambiguous
Once indicates that the action happened only one

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

time; the sentence implies that the actions of the code 12. The correct answer is G. In this question you’re being
talkers were ongoing, so once does not make sense in asked to determine the appropriate pronoun and noun,
the context. Only choice J is a complete sentence that given the context of the sentence. The antecedent that
does not alter the original sentence’s meaning the pronoun is replacing here is the plural “Navajo code
incorrectly. talkers”; therefore, a plural pronoun is required, so it is
incorrect as written. In this instance, their is the correct
7. The correct answer is D. As written, we have a
pronoun and place is the correct noun for this sentence.
sentence fragment. Connecting the dependent clause
Our is an incorrect pronoun here, since it is safe to
“While the Navajo language was complicated” and the
assume that neither the author nor the reader is a
independent clause “the code was even more complex”
Navajo code talker. Choice J uses a singular pronoun,
with a comma creates a complete and grammatically
which is incorrect.
correct sentence, so choice D is correct. The other
answer choices fail to fix the sentence fragment. 13. The correct answer is B. An effective concluding
sentence to an essay effectively ties up the overall
8. The correct answer is J. This phrase should not begin a
message or sentiment of the piece. Choices A, C, and D
new paragraph, because it does not introduce a new
focus on minor details in the piece, and, thus, are
idea, so choice G is incorrect. It lists another supporting
incorrect. Choice B captures the sentiment of the piece,
detail to the main idea of the paragraph (which is that
that the Navajo code talkers should be commemorated
the code was complicated). No comma is needed
and memorialized.
because the underlined words do not serve as an
introductory phrase. They are part of the larger phrase, 14. The correct answer is G. The sentence belongs in the
“adding to the difficulty of breaking the code,” which is paragraph that is about the complexity of the Navajo
the actual full introductory phrase. Choice H is incorrect code, Paragraph 5, in which the author states, “While the
because “More difficulty” is not a complete transitional Navajo language was complicated, the code was even
phrase and is a grammatically incorrect way to begin more complex.” Paragraph 4 is about the development
a sentence. and memorization of the code, so choice F is incorrect.
Paragraph 6 is about the effectiveness of the code, so
9. The correct answer is B. The best way to help the
choice H is incorrect. Choice J is incorrect because
reader understand how the code worked would be with
Paragraph 7 is about the code talkers’ legacy.
a specific example of the code, rather than with general
facts about other languages, codes, etc. Only choice B 15. The correct answer is C. This essay is focused on the
addresses details about the code. Choice A goes off on specific contributions of one minority group: the
an unnecessary tangent about Morse code. Choice C Navajos. An essay describing the contributions of
confuses the flow by backtracking to discuss military minority soldiers would have to be more inclusive by
codes used in the past. Choice D contributes to the talking about the involvement of various minority
author’s larger argument, but the difficulty of the code groups in the war effort, so choices A and B are
is not a detail that will help a reader better understand incorrect. Choice D is incorrect because the essay does
the specifics of the code itself. focus on the positive effects of the Navajo soldiers’
work. Only choice C explains why this essay does not
10. The correct answer is H. The commas in the original
describe the contributions of various groups of minority
sentence are not needed to separate “speed and
soldiers in World War II.
accuracy” from the rest of the sentence, as the adverbial
phrase does not need to be set off from the verb (the 16. The correct answer is G. Here, you’re being asked to
work of the code talkers). Choices G and J fail to delete determine the correct pronoun to replace the author,
all of the unnecessary commas. who is both the subject and antecedent of this sen-
tence. As this essay is written from the first person
11. The correct answer is B. The current sentence uses
perspective, the pronoun I is the correct choice here,
both the passive voice and an awkward construction.
and the correct verb form is sent. Choices H and J both
Choice B corrects the error with a clear, active phrase.
use incorrect pronouns and verb forms.
Choice C loses the conjunction and to create a comma
splice, and choice D, omitting the underlined portion 17. The correct answer is D. “Nobody was consulted”
entirely, makes no sense. (choice A) is an example of passive voice—giving the
action to the object of the sentence, not the author—
and it makes the existing sentence very unclear. Only “I

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

didn’t consult with anybody” (choice D) corrects the 23. The correct answer is A. The sentence uses the correct
problem. The reversal of word order in choice B, “With pronoun and verb forms and is correct as written. The
nobody I consulted,” makes the sentence awkward. other choices would all introduce pronoun and verb
“Nobody consulted me” (choice C) changes the form errors.
meaning of the sentence, implying that the author
24. The correct answer is J. The underlined verb should be
should have been consulted about interviewing.
in the simple past tense, in keeping with the rest of the
18. The correct answer is F. The current sentence correctly sentence. Choice F should be used in the present tense.
uses the pronoun it to refer to the environment of the Choice G should only be used if the sentence is in the
law firm and remains in the past tense like the rest of past continuous tense. Choice H is incorrect since the
the paragraph. “There was” (choice G) replaces the sentence does not require the simple past perfect tense.
pronoun with a vague descriptive that doesn’t make
25. The correct answer is A. Try reading the sentence
sense in context. “Here is” (choice H) incorrectly uses the
without “I figured”; it makes sense, which means “I
present tense. “And so it was” (choice J) begins the
figured” is an extra informational phrase that needs to
sentence with an inappropriate transition.
be set off by commas. The phrase is correct as written.
19. The correct answer is D. As written, the sentence Choices B and C each eliminate a necessary comma.
contains unnecessary punctuation, as semicolons are Choice D eliminates both necessary commas.
only used to separate two independent clauses. No
26. The correct answer is H. This question requires you to
punctuation is needed here, so choice D is correct.
figure out the clearest wording to explain that the writer
Choices B and C also include incorrect and unnecessary
did not get the next several jobs for which he inter-
punctuation.
viewed. The first part of the sentence talks about not
20. The correct answer is G. The narrative phrase, “I happily being offered “that job,” so the nor implies that several
informed him” should be set off by commas, because it should refer to jobs, not firms, which is the mistake the
describes the manner in which the speaker announced original sentence makes. Choice H makes this dis-
his aim to the interviewer. Only choice G accomplishes tinction clear. Choice G retains the error, and choice J
this. Choice F is incorrect because the original sentence changes the meaning by suggesting that the author
lacks the necessary comma after him. Choices H and J was offered no more interviews.
misplace the comma.
27. The correct answer is D. The shift in focus that the
21. The correct answer is C. Deleting the previous question mentions is the narrator’s understanding that
sentence would eliminate the writer’s description of his failure to get a job might be his own fault. The best
what he believed at the time of the interview clue to this is the next sentence, in which the author
(statement I)—that his interviewer was impressed with calls his visit to the job counseling office “long overdue.”
how ambitious and articulate he was. It would also take Only choice D shows the narrator realizing that his
away the reference to “the surprised look” on the approach might be to blame. Choices A, B, and C merely
interviewer’s face, which tells the reader something recycle information that the author has presented in the
about the interviewer’s opinion of the narrator first part of the paragraph: that he has failed to get any
(statement III). The idea that the author is trying to of the jobs for which he applied.
communicate here is the distance between his feelings
28. The correct answer is G. The essay begins with the
about himself and the interviewer’s feelings about him;
narrator saying that his college employment office
statements I and III describe exactly that. Choice A does
recommended mock interviews for students about to
not encompass everything the reader would not know
begin a job search. Choice G ties the ending to the
if the writer had replaced the sentence. Statement II is
beginning by mentioning the practice interview and
not relevant to the sentence, so choices B and D can
implying that the writer is helping his students to learn
be eliminated.
from his mistakes. Choice J is off topic. Choice F is not
22. The correct answer is H. The correct phrase is “would necessarily off topic, but it does not tie the end of the
have.” “would of” (choice F) and “could of” (choice G) are essay back to its beginning. Choice H does not tie back
never correct, although they are common mistakes due to the beginning, and it makes a jarring shift to a less
to pronunciation. Choice J is grammatically incorrect in formal tone than the rest of the passage.
any context.

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29. The correct answer is C. An effective concluding a contraction for that is, requires an apostrophe. Choices
sentence should tie up the major themes and purpose G and J are incorrect given the context of the sentence.
of the essay. Here, choice C is the best addition. The
37. The correct answer is C. The sentence as written
sentiment in choice A is not supported by the infor-
contains superfluous words; saying that aardvarks are
mation provided in the essay. Choices B and D are the
expert diggers implies that they are really good at
opposite of the learning experience the author likely
digging, so it doesn’t need to be reiterated. Choice C
received.
corrects this error. Choices B and D fail to correct the
30. The correct answer is G. The question word what at the problem of excessive wordiness.
beginning of the sentence provides a clue that we are
38. The correct answer is J. The sentence as written uses
dealing with a question, so a question mark should end
the incorrect verb form of to begin. Choice J correctly
the sentence. The sentence as written and choices H
uses the present tense. Choice G is written in the past
and J all utilize incorrect punctuation to end a question.
tense, which is incorrect here. Choice H is written in the
31. The correct answer is C. The first paragraph of this future tense, which is incorrect here.
sentence introduces us to the essay topic (aardvarks),
39. The correct answer is B. Context is key when deter-
and Paragraph 2 delves into factual information
mining the appropriate word choice in a sentence. The
regarding the animal. Choice C is the best option to
adjective used to describe the aardvark’s snout skin
serve as a transition bridge between the two para-
should reinforce the fact it “helps protect it from the
graphs. Choice A would fit better in Paragraph 7, which
bites and stings of its insect prey.” As written, the
discusses the aardvark’s defensive weapons and
adjective weak would not fit. The word that best
strategies. Choice B would best serve as a concluding
supports the sentence is tough (choice B). Choices C and
sentence for the entire essay. Choice D would best fit in
D also don’t support the notion that the skin serves as a
paragraph 6, which discusses the aardvark’s primary
protective barrier, shielding the aardvark from bites and
food sources.
stings.
32. The correct answer is G. The word Dutch is a proper
40. The correct answer is J. This sentence discusses the
noun and should therefore be capitalized. Although it is
tools that the aardvark possesses to protect it from
also capitalized in choice J, the addition of the period
enemies, including the ability to run in zig-zag patterns.
would create a sentence fragment, so choice J is
The only choice that appropriately describes how its
incorrect.
unpredictable running protects it from enemies is
33. The correct answer is A. Items in a list should always escape (choice J).
be separated by commas or by semicolons in more
41. The correct answer is D. In order to determine the
complex lists. Removing the commas, as in choice B,
appropriate pronoun choice, we need to examine the
creates confusion. Choice C incorrectly omits the
antecedent it is replacing. Here, it is replacing aardvarks,
comma after grassland. Choice D uses semicolons,
a plural noun; thus, the plural pronoun their is the
which are not needed here, and incorrectly places one
appropriate choice, so choice D is correct.
after and.
42. The correct answer is J. When referring to a specific
34. The correct answer is J. As written, the sentence
numerical range, the use of an en-dash is appropriate,
contains superfluous punctuation after the word and.
with the lower value end of the range on the left and
No punctuation is needed, so choice J is correct. Choices
the higher value end of the range on the right;
G and H also contain unnecessary punctuation.
therefore, choice J is correct. The other choices don’t
35. The correct answer is C. As written, the sentence is a appropriately display the numerical range as intended.
run-on. Em-dashes are used to create necessary long
43. The correct answer is A. Choice A best fits the essay
pauses in a sentence, and an em-dash is used effectively
and concluding paragraph, reminding readers that after
in choice C. Choice B inserts a comma incorrectly into
everything that we’ve just learned about aardvarks, we
the sentence. Choice D incorrectly inserts a semicolon
should respect them if we encounter one. Choices B and
into the sentence.
C are out of context, as zoos and Africa are just minor
36. The correct answer is H. The sentence as written supporting details in the essay. Choice D would be a
contains an incorrectly written contraction (thats); that’s, comical conclusion, and does not fit the tone of the
passage.

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44. The correct answer is J. The purpose of this question is 52. The correct answer is F. You can tell from context that
to determine if the text, as written, has met a specified the underlined word should be something that means
goal—in this instance, an informative article about “didn’t believe,” so doubted (choice F) is the best choice.
animals indigenous to the African continent for your The doctors Blackwell consulted didn’t think she would
school newspaper. As this essay focuses solely on the be admitted to medical school because no women had
aardvark, and no other animals indigenous to Africa, it ever been admitted to medical school. Choices G, H, and
would be too narrow to fulfill the scope of the J do not make any sense in this context.
assignment, so choice J is correct.
53. The correct answer is B. This passage is written in the
45. The correct answer is C. The sentence in question past tense, so the correct choice is B, applied. “Has
refers to the eating habits of the rhinoceros; although it applied” would imply that her applications were
is also a native African creature, it is simply not infor- pending, but all of the events of this passage are
mation that fits within an essay that focuses solely on described in the past tense because Elizabeth Blackwell
aardvarks, so choice C is correct. lived in the nineteenth century. Choices A and D would
only be used if the passage were written in the present
46. The correct answer is G. The words “altar of the
tense. Choice C uses the simple past perfect
Presbyterian church” form one descriptive phrase, so no
tense incorrectly.
commas are needed in it—choice F can be eliminated.
No comma (choice J) or semicolon (choice H) is needed 54. The correct answer is H. Both the semicolon and the
before the conjunction and in this sentence, because period in the underlined portion create new stand-
receiving her degree is the second of two actions alone sentences, but neither punctuation mark is
carried out by the same subject (Elizabeth Blackwell). followed by something that can stand on its own, so
choice F is incorrect. While choice G comes close to
47. The correct answer is C. You can tell by context that
fixing the problem, the comma after colleges is mis-
the underlined phrase should mean something like “By
placed, and the comma before Geneva is not as strong
receiving her degree,” but the original sentence is
as a colon would be. Choice H works best—the first
awkward and contains an unnecessary comma. Choice
punctuation mark is gone, and is replaced by the more
C best accomplishes this. Therefore does imply a cause
effective but, and the colon appropriately denotes the
and effect (choice B), but “in doing so” communicates
final clarifying example. Choice J creates a fragment.
that her action had significance. Even so (choice D)
means “in spite of,” which does not make sense in 55. The correct answer is A. The phrase is correctly written
this context. in the past tense: became implies that her admission to
medical school was at the head of a long line of
48. The correct answer is J. The right choice must use the
obstacles. Choices C and D are grammatically incorrect,
singular possessive form of country. Choice F is neither
while choice B changes the sentence’s meaning.
singular nor possessive, choice G is possessive but
plural, and choice H scrambles the word order and 56. The correct answer is J. The current sentence lacks an
distorts the meaning. Only choice J does the job. action verb; choice J corrects this problem and appro-
priately sets off the modifying phrase with commas.
49. The correct answer is A. Each of the two halves of the
Choice G changes both the meaning and the tense.
sentence can stand on its own, so the semicolon is
Choice H is awkward because the phrase “men students”
correct. The other choices provide the wrong links
does not make sense.
between the two ideas, falsely indicating cause and
effect, as in choices B and C, or contrast, as in choice D. 57. The correct answer is B. The underlined word must be
a past-tense verb. Astonishing (choice A) is an adjective,
50. The correct answer is J. As it is written, the phrase is
astonishment (choice C) is a noun, and “having aston-
confusing, placing the verb awkwardly before the
ishment” (choice D) is a descriptive phrase.
subject. Choices G and H are even more confusingly
phrased. The simplest and clearest wording is choice J. 58. The correct answer is H. “After she completed her
degree” is the correct introductory phrase, because it
51. The correct answer is B. The sentence only makes
establishes the time sequence involved (Blackwell faced
sense if the underlined section contains a subject and a
prejudice after she completed her degree). There is no
verb. “Having access” (choice A) lacks a subject. Choice
need to separate the word after from the rest of the
B includes the subject and employs the correct tense.
phrase, so the comma is inappropriate (choice F).
Choice C has a subject but is the present tense, and
choice D is awkward and redundant.

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Choice G is not the correct introductory word and 64. The correct answer is J. As it is written, this is a run-on
reintroduces the unnecessary comma. “After to” is not a sentence. Using that instead of it (choice F) makes it
proper introductory phrase, so choice J is incorrect. clear that you are describing what the aqueduct system
combined (form and function) and not adding a
59. The correct answer is A. In this sentence, prejudice and
separate thought that describes the aqueduct system in
“outright barriers to her career” are two distinct items:
this manner. Choices G and H are awkward and wordy.
prejudice describes feelings directed against her, and
outright barriers are actions possibly taken by those who 65. The correct answer is B. Simply is the idiom that works
felt that prejudice. Therefore, the sentence should with quite. It also manages to convey the author’s
include both items separately to preserve the author’s meaning: that the first aqueducts were not complicated.
meaning. Choice C makes the mistake of combining Choices A and C are awkward in this context, and choice
these items. Choices B and D do not make D does not make sense.
grammatical sense.
66. The correct answer is H. A semicolon, not a comma,
60. The correct answer is H. As it is written, the sentence should separate two stand-alone phrases. The fact that
does not explain what “other things” Blackwell did and the structures were elaborate is related to the fact that
does not tell the reader whether or not she had any they could conduct water over large distances, but each
success as a doctor, both of which would successfully thought can stand alone. The conjunctions but and so in
complete the passage. Choice G also does not describe choices G and J are inappropriate, because the rela-
anything that Blackwell went on to do after she got her tionship between the two parts of the sentence is not
degree, and choice J describes an occurrence that could one of contrast or of cause and effect.
not be construed as success. Only choice H describes
67. The correct answer is D. Choice A makes the aque-
the successes that Blackwell had after becoming a
ducts seem less impressive by highlighting the
doctor, despite the obstacles she faced.
superiority of today’s systems. Choice B might indicate
61. The correct answer is D. Ingenious means “clever and that the Roman Empire was impressive, but it doesn’t
inventive,” making it the best choice to describe a say anything about aqueducts. Choice C indicates that
brilliant idea. Imperious (choice A) means “arrogant,” the aqueducts might still stand, which is impressive
unsettling (choice B) means “disturbing,” inimitable enough, but choice D adds the fact that the aqueducts
(choice C) means “unable to be imitated.” are still in use, which is even more impressive.

62. The correct answer is G. The comma in this sentence 68. The correct answer is F. The existing sentence correctly
belongs in the place where it will distinguish the start of uses a semicolon to separate two phrases that each
the list from the rest of the sentence. Putting the form a complete sentence. A comma (choice G) or colon
comma after “ancient civilizations” and before including (choice H) does not perform this function. The first
indicates that Persia, India, and Egypt are items included phrase is not an exclamation, so choice J does not make
on the list of ancient civilizations. The original sentence sense.
(choice F) and choice H are missing the comma after
69. The correct answer is B. Failed is the correct verb form
civilizations. Choice J uses a colon, which is not needed
(it corresponds with the use of the past tense in the rest
before a list when including is used. It also should link
of the passage), which allows you to eliminate choice D.
the first two items in the list with a comma and not the
Choices A and C imply cause and effect, which isn’t the
conjunction and.
most suitable relationship. The better choice offers a
63. The correct answer is B. The sentence as written contrast: some aqueducts failed, but those that didn’t
contains the incorrect form of the adverb advance. To were used as models. This implies a difference between
describe something technologically complex, you the failing models and the successful models, and the
would say that it is advanced, not advancing. Choice C Romans’ different response to each situation.
implies that something was created in advance of, or
70. The correct answer is G. This sentence compares the
before, the system, but this choice doesn’t make sense
past to the present. The application of principles in
in the context. “Superlative advancement” is, in fact,
modern architecture takes place in the present, so it
superlative: it doesn’t provide additional understanding
should be written as are applied (choice G). The original
of the high level of technology used by the Romans to
phrase indicates an action that will happen in the
create the aqueducts, so choice D is incorrect. On the
future. Choices H and J indicate actions that happened
ACT, always err on the side of the least complex
in the past.
construction with the fewest words.

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71. The correct answer is C. In the original sentence, the 74. The correct answer is J. The best way to maintain the
information in the parentheses does not add to our proper tense and appropriately contrast the technol-
understanding of the Roman aqueducts, so it should be ogies of past and present is to omit the underlined word
eliminated entirely (choice C). Choices B and D fail to altogether, as choice J suggests. Leaving it as is (choice
eliminate that information. F) or changing it to another word (choices G and H)
does not correct the error.
72. The correct answer is J. Arches is plural. Because it is
not a possessive, it does not need an apostrophe 75. The correct answer is D. A main theme of the essay is
(choice F). It should be followed by a comma to set off the legacy of ancient Roman aqueducts in modern
the informational phrase (“while well-known”), and not architecture. Choice C is close, but it mentions the
a semicolon (choice H), which separates two complete Romans’ advanced system of government, which is an
clauses. Choice G fails use any punctuation at all. idea not mentioned in the essay. Choices A and B do not
reflect the main idea.
73. The correct answer is B. Choice B provides specific
information about the aqueducts that didn’t fall into the
category of the famous stone-arch aqueducts. Choice C
discusses one feature of the stone arches but adds
nothing about their role in the greater system. Choice D
explains that the other aqueducts were made of
different materials but doesn’t specify what these
materials were, making it a less desirable possibility
than choice B.

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Mathematics

1.   A 16.   G 31.   B 46.   J

2.   K 17.   D 32.   J 47.   C
3.   D 18.   G 33.   C 48.   H
4.   J 19.   C 34.   H 49.   E
5.   D 20.   H 35.   B 50.   F
6.   G 21.   E 36.   H 51.   C
7.   D 22.   J 37.   D 52.   J
8.   J 23.   E 38.   H 53.   C
9.   E 24.   K 39.   A 54.   K
10.   J 25.   D 40.   K 55.   D
11.   B 26.   K 41.   E 56.   H
12.   J 27.   C 42.   H 57.   C
13.   B 28.   H 43.   D 58.   G
14.   H 29.   D 44.   K 59.   C
15.   A 30.   J 45.   B 60.   H

1. The correct answer is A. Solve the equation, as follows: not account for the different number of blocks
available. Choice E counted each combination twice.
−3 (2 − x ) = 4 − (3 x + 1)
−6 + 3 x = 4 − 3 x − 1 4. The correct answer is J. ∠a is vertical to the given
−6 + 3 x = 3 − 3 x 65° angle, and vertical angles always have the same
measure. ∠b is supplementary to 65° and to ∠a ,
6x = 9
9 3 and supplementary angles have measures that add
x= = up to 180°. So, subtract 65° from 180° to find m∠b :
6 2
180° – 65° = 115°.
Choices B and C are results of solving an equation
Choice F has an incorrect measure of ∠a, which
of the form ax = b incorrectly; you must divide both
likely results from assuming that vertical angles
sides by a. Choice D is wrong because the distrib-
must have measures that add up to 360°, and an
utive property was not applied correctly. Choice E
incorrect measure of ∠b , which likely results from
arises from solving an equation of the form ax + b = c
an arithmetic error. Choice G assumes that all four
incorrectly; you must subtract b from both sides, not
angles must have the same measure; this would
add it.
only be true if they were all right angles. Choice
2. The correct answer is K. Since 3 of 25 batteries were H has the correct measure of ∠b but an incorrect
defective, it follows that 22 of 25 batteries worked. So, measure of ∠a, which likely results from incor-
22 rectly assuming that vertical angles have measures
the percentage that worked is × 100. Choice F is the
25 that add up to 90°. Choice K has a correct measure
percentage that is defective. Choices G and J have terms of ∠a, but an incorrect measure for ∠b, which
misplaced in the formula. Choice H is an attempt at likely results from assuming that the measures of
computing the percentage of defective batteries, but the three angles must add up to 180°.
has the 100 in the wrong place in the formula. 5. The correct answer is D. To compare fractions,
3. The correct answer is D. To get the number of decimals, and percentages, convert them all to the
combinations, simply multiply the numbers of each same form. Since 85% = 0.85, 0.65 < x < 0.85. Choices
type of item: 3 i 4 i 6 = 72 different combinations. 1
A and B are both less than , or 0.5, so they can be
Choice A does not account for the different number of 2
mats available. Choice B does not account for the 5
eliminated. As a decimal, = 0.625 , so choice C can
different number of bolsters available. Choice C does 8

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2 28
also be eliminated as too small. As a decimal, = 0.66 . Choice C is wrong because ≠ 28%. Choice D is the
3 50
This does fall between 0.65 and 0.85, so choice D is percentage of the workout dedicated to strength
7 training.
correct. For the record, = 0.875 , so it is too big.
8
10. The correct answer is J. Since 6 of 25 times were false
alarms, the difference, 19, must be the number of times
6. The correct answer is G. If the mean, or average, of a
the alarm sounded correctly. The percentage of the time
set of numbers is known, the sum of the numbers can
19
be found by multiplying the mean by the number of that the alarm sounded correctly is × 100. Choice F
25
values. With four numbers in the set, the sum of the
is incorrect because you should multiply by 100 instead
numbers must be 4 × 14 = 56. Subtract the sum of the
of dividing by 100. Choice G is incorrect because you
known numbers from this sum to find the unknown
need to interchange 100 and 25. Choice H is incorrect
value: 56 – (10 + 12 + 19) = 15. Choice F is the average of
because it is the percentage of the time that the alarm
the set, but it is not the value of the unknown number.
sounded incorrectly. Choice K is an incorrect attempt at
Choice H would make the median of the set 14, not the
computing the percentage of the time that the alarm
mean. Choice J is too high, resulting in a mean that is
sounded incorrectly; you should multiply by 100, not
higher than 14; numbers in a set do not necessarily
divide by it.
need to be listed in order.
11. The correct answer is B. Substitute in z = –3 and
7. The correct answer is D. The price for 5 jars is $4.50(5)
simplify:
= $22.50. The 10% discount on this amount is
0.10($22.50) = $2.25. So, the price for a 5-jar package is 6
+ ( −3)(1− 2( −3))
$22.50 – $2.25 = $20.25. The price for 10 jars is $4.50(10) −( −3)
= $45.00. The 15% discount on this amount is 6
= − 3(1+ 6 )
0.15($45.00) = $6.75. So, the price of a 10-jar package is 3
$45.00 - $6.75 = $38.25. So, the total cost for 15 jars is = 2 − 3(7)
$20.25 + $38.25 = $58.50. Choice A is the charge for 5 = 2 − 21 = −19
jars with the discount. Choice C is the result of applying 6
a 25% discount to 15 jars; this is not the correct way to Choice A is incorrect because = 2, not –2.
−( −3)
deal with percent discounts. Choice B is the charge for
Choice C is incorrect because the order of operations
10 jars with the discount. Choice E is the cost without
was not followed: 2 – 3(7) does not equal (2 – 3)(7).
the discount applied.
Choice D is incorrect because 1 –2(–3) = 1 + 6 = 7, not
8. The correct answer is J. Factor the numerator and –5. Choice E is incorrect because 2 – 3(7) = 2 – 21, not
denominator, and then cancel factors common to both: 2 + 21.
2x + 6 2 ( x + 3) 2
= = 12. The correct answer is J. A negative times a negative is
( x + 3)(3 x − 9 ) 3 ( x + 3) ( x − 3) 3( x − 3)
positive, so a positive divided by a negative is negative.
Choices F and H are the results of incorrectly can- Therefore, x must be negative, and you can eliminate
celing common terms, not factors, in the numerator choices F, G, and H. In order for the quotient to be an
and denominator. Choices G and K are the results integer, 64 must be divisible by x; only –8 divides evenly
of incorrectly factoring out a common factor from a into 64, so choice J is correct. Choice K is not possible
binomial; make certain to factor it out of both terms. because 64 is not divisible by –12.
9. The correct answer is E. The number of minutes spent 13. The correct answer is B. Solve for x, as follows:
on other exercises is 50 – 22 = 28. To get the percentage
of the entire workout for which this accounts, compute 5− x
28 = 20
× 100 = 56%. Choice A is wrong because you need 5
50 5 − x = 100
to multiply 28 by 2, not divide by 2, when computing 5 − 100 = x
22 − 95 = x
the percentage. Choice B is wrong because ≠ 22%,
50
and this would be the percentage of the workout Choice A is the result of an error involving negative
dedicated to strength training, not other exercises. signs. Choices C and D are wrong because you
should multiply both sides of the equation by 5 to

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clear the fractions, not add 5 to both sides. Choices away from 2. This means that the y-coordinate can be
D and E involve errors when solving equations of the –1, 2, or 5; eliminate choice H. Only choice G, (–5, 5),
form a + x = b. meets both conditions.

14. The correct answer is H. Counting from the right side, 19. The correct answer is C. Let x represent the width.
Matt is in the fifteenth chair, so you know that there are Then, the length is 2x and the height is 4x. So, the
at least 15 seats; eliminate choices F and G. Counting volume formula yields the equation x(2x)(4x) = 4,096.
from the left side, he’s in the fourth chair, so there must This simplifies to 8x3 = 4,096. Dividing both sides by 8
be three seats to the left of him. That means that there yields x3 = 512. So, x = 8 cm. Thus, the length is 2(8cm)
are a total of 15 + 3 = 18 seats (choice H). Therefore, = 16cm. Choice A is the width. Choice B is the result of
choices J and K are incorrect. adding 2cm to the width instead of doubling the width.
Choice D is the height. Choice E is the area of the base.
15. The correct answer is A.
h( −2) = 1− | 2 − 3( −2)|= 1− | 2 + 6 |= 1− 8 = −7 . Choice B is 20. The correct answer is H. The spinner is divided into 8
incorrect because (–3)(–2) = 6, not –6. Choice C is the 3
equal sections. As a fraction, 0.375 = . For the
result of not applying the order of operations correctly. 8
Choice D is incorrect because (–3)(–2) = 6, not –6, and probability of NOT landing on red on a single spin to be
you ignored the absolute value bars. Choice E is 3
, then 3 of the sections must NOT be red. That means
incorrect because the absolute value does not apply to 8
the negative outside the bars. that the remaining 8 – 3 = 5 sections must be red.
Choice F is incorrect because there are 8 congruent
16. The correct answer is G. There are 12 numbers on the
wedges, so this would imply that the probability of not
clock. A circle contains 360°, so the distance between
landing on red is 0.875. Choice J would make the
each pair of consecutive numbers is 360° ÷ 12 = 30°.
probability of not landing on red 0.125. Choice K would
If the minute hand moves 60°, it will move from 1 to 2 to
make the probability of not landing on red 0.
3. That means that both the hour hand and minute
hand will be on 3, which represents a time of 3:15, 21. The correct answer is E. The sides of any right triangle
choice G. Choice F represents a move 30° counter- are related by the Pythagorean theorem, which states
clockwise, and choice H is 240° clockwise. Choice J is that the sum of the squares of the legs is equal to the
360° clockwise, and choice K is 720° clockwise. square of the hypotenuse. This is often written as
a2 + b2 = c2, where a and b are the legs, and c is the
17. The correct answer is D. Apply the FOIL method to
hypotenuse. Test each set of sides to see which satisfies
multiply these binomials:
the Pythagorean theorem and is therefore a right
(3x – 2)(2x + 3) = (3x)(2x) + (3x)(3) – 2(2x) –2(3) triangle:
= 6x2 + 9x –4x – 6 Choice A: (6, 13, 14)

= 6x2 + 5x – 6 6 2 + 13 2 = 14 2
Choice A does not include the middle terms of the 36 + 169 = 196
product. Choice B is the result of adding the bino- 205 ≠ 196 ; eliminate
mials instead of multiplying them. Choice C has the
wrong constant term and no middle term of the Choice B: (8, 10, 12)
product. Choice E is wrong because the signs of the
last two terms are wrong. 8 2 + 10 2 = 12 2
64 + 100 = 144
18. The correct answer is G. The area of a square is equal 164 ≠ 144 ; eliminate
to s2, where s is a side of the square. Since the area of
this square is 9, s must be 3. Point A has coordinates
Choice C: (12, 16, 18)
(–2, 2), so any other vertex of the same square must
have an x-coordinate that is either equal to or 3 units 12 2 + 16 2 = 18 2
away from –2. 144 + 256 = 324
This means that the x-coordinate can be –5, – 2, or 400 ≠ 324 ; eliminate
1; eliminate choices F, J, and K. The vertex must also
have a y-coordinate that is either equal to or 3 units

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Choice D: (15, 22, 23) 25. The correct answer is D. Let x be the number of city
blocks corresponding to 4 inches. Set up and solve the
15 2 + 22 2 = 23 2
following proportion:
225 + 484 = 529
709 ≠ 529 ; eliminate
5
inch
8 4 inches
Choice E: (20, 21, 29) =
1 x city blocks
3 city blocks
20 2 + 212 = 29 2 2
5  1
400 + 441 = 841 x = 43 
8  2
841 = 841 ∴ right triangle
5  7
x = 4 
8  2
22. The correct answer is J. 24 cans at $1.25 each would
5
cost a total of $30. The superstore sells a case of 24 cans x = 14
8
for $19.20, which is a savings of $30 – $19.20 = $10.80, 8
choice J. Choice F is the savings per can, not per case. x = 14 ⋅
5
For choice G, you have incorrectly multiplied 12 times 112 2
x= = 22
$1.25 to get the cost of a case from the corner store. For 5 5
choice H, you used $1 per can instead of $1.25 per can
at the corner store. Choice K is the cost of 24 cans. 26. The correct answer is K. Multiply the terms on the left
side, bring all terms to the left, factor, and solve for x:
23. The correct answer is E. To move a function to the
right 5 units, you subtract 5 from the input, meaning
you replace x by x – 5. Then, to move the function up 2 x (3 x − 4 ) = 4
units, you add 2 to the output. Doing so yields the
3x 2 − 4 x = 4
function in choice E. Choice A is incorrect because the 2
3x − 4 x − 4 = 0
2

and 5 are interchanged. Choice B is incorrect because it

is down 2 units and left 5 units. Choice C is down 2 units,
( 3 x + 2) ( x − 2) = 0
and choice D is left 5 units. 2
x =− , x =2
3
24. The correct answer is K. Use the exponent rules to
Choices F and H represent errors in factoring. Choice
simplify the expression:
G is the result of setting each factor in the original
equation equal to 4, but you can only do this when
z4 z4
= = z 4 i z 10 = z 4+10 = z 14 one side is 0. Choice J represents the same error
(z )
−2 5 −10
z made in Choice G, with an additional error of solving
the resulting linear equations incorrectly.

Choices F, G, and H are the result of using the wrong 27. The correct answer is C. To find the average, add up all
rule for simplifying the quotient of powers of the the test scores, and divide by the number of tests. Some
same base. Choice J is the result of using the wrong of the scores repeated more than once, so this must be
rule for simplifying the power of a power. taken into account. There were 6 tests, so the average is:

80 + 80 + 80 + 92 + 92 + 100 524
= = 87.3
6 6

Choice A is the mode, the most common score.

Choice B is the median of the six test scores, which
is the average of the middle two values (80 and 92).
Choice D is the average of the three different scores,
which does not account for some scores occurring
more times than others. Choice E is the median of
the three scores, which is neither the median nor the
mean of the set of all six scores.

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28. The correct answer is H. The graph of h(x) is obtained wrong region is shaded. Choice D has the correct
by translating the graph of y = |x| to the right 4 units regions shaded, but the filling in of the endpoints
and down 1 unit. Since the domain of y = |x| is ( −∞ , ∞) , is incorrect. Choice E mixes up the signs of the end-
such a translation does not affect the domain. So, the points, as well as their filling in, and the region that is
domain of h(x) is also ( −∞ , ∞) . Choice F is incorrect shaded.
because it is the range of h(x). Choice G is incorrect
32. The correct answer is J. The length and width of the
because this would be the range of y = –1 – |x – 4|.
water are the same as those of the tank. Therefore, the
Choice J is incorrect because this is just the set of inputs
water’s volume is equal to the area of the tank’s base
that generates the left part of the graph of h(x). Choice
(length × width) times the water’s depth. Since you are
K is incorrect because this is just the set of inputs that
given the water’s volume and the length and width of
generates the right part of the graph of h(x).
the tank’s base, you can solve for the water depth d:
29. The correct answer is D. Using the unit circle, it follows
1, 728 = (24 )(8)(d )
7p 11p 19 p 23p
that 2 x = , , , . Dividing by 2 yields the 1, 728 = 192d
6 6 6 6
1, 728
7p 11p 19 p 23p =d
solutions x = , , , . Choice A is wrong 192
12 12 12 12
d=9
because the values must be divided by 2. Choice B
1 1 The dimensions for depth in choices F, G, and H result
shows the values where sin(2x) = , not − . Choice C
2 2 in a volume less than 1,728 cubic inches, since the 8
3 and 24 are fixed. For choice K, this would mean the
shows the values where sin(2x) = . Choice E shows
2 tank was full, which would result in a volume of 1,920
3 cubic inches.
the values where sin(2x) = − .
2 33. The correct answer is C. Kecia had the car for 3 days, so
30. The correct answer is J. To find the total earnings, 3($20) = $60 of the charges were due to the daily fee.
multiply the 35 cents earned per mile by the total That means that the remaining $156 – $60 = $96 were
number of miles. To find the total number of miles, mileage charges. Each mile is charged at $0.50, so Kecia
multiply the speed by the amount of time: must have driven $96 ÷ $0.50 = 192 miles. For choice A,
you have incorrectly added $156 and $60 (charge for a
Distance = 55 miles per hour × 9.5 hours =
3-day rental) instead of subtracting $60 from $156. For
522.5 miles
choice B, you did not subtract $60 from $156. Choice D,
Total earnings = 522.5 miles × 35 cents per mile = 156, is a dollar amount and not the mileage driven. For
$182.88. Choice F is the result of multiplying 9.5 choice E, you forgot to divide by $0.50.
by 35, then dividing by 55, with a place value error.
34. The correct answer is H. Let x be the missing side. Use
Choice G is the result of multiplying 9.5 by 55, then
the Pythagorean theorem:
dividing by 35, with a place value error. Choice H is
the result of dividing 55 by both 9.5 and 35, with a
92 = 4 2 + x 2
place value error. Choice K is the result of multiplying
55 by 35, then dividing by 9.5, with a place value x 2 = 92 − 4 2
error. x = 92 − 4 2

31. The correct answer is B. The inequality states that x is Choice F is wrong because the terms inside the
less than or equal to –2 or greater than 4. Therefore, the radical should be subtracted. Choice G is wrong
endpoints should be -2 and 4, and the shading should because the terms should be subtracted and the
be outside the region between those values. Since –2 is radical sign is missing. Choice J is missing the radical
included in the solution set, it should be marked with a sign. Choice K is the result of incorrectly distributing
closed circle, and since 4 is not included in the solution the radical sign through a difference—specifically,
set, it should be marked with an open circle. a − b ≠ a − b.
Choice A has the correct endpoints, but the wrong
region is shaded. Choice C has the endpoints in the
correct locations, but filled in incorrectly, and the

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35. The correct answer is B. Isolate w on the right side, as 38. The correct answer is H. Cosine is equal to
follows: adjacent side AC 1
, so = as shown in the
hypotenuse AB 2
S = 2 (lw + lh + wh) figure below.
S = 2lw + 2lh + 2wh
S = w (2l + 2h) + 2lh A
S − 2lh = w (2l + 2h)
S − 2lh
w=
2l + 2h 2

Choice A is wrong because 2lw + 2wh does not equal 1

(4lh)w. Choices C and D are the result of making
errors when solving a linear equation of the form
ax + b = c; you subtract b from both sides and divide
by a. Choice E is wrong because you canceled
terms, not factors, common to the numerator and C B
denominator.
To find the cosine of angle B, you need to know the
36. The correct answer is H. The arrowheads affixed to the length of the side adjacent to it, segment BC. Since
ends of the graph, pointing upward, suggest that the the length of a leg of this triangle is related to the
range extends to plus infinity. So, the local maximum length of its hypotenuse in the ratio of 1:2, this is a
value of 4 occurring at x = –3 is not the maximum of the 30-60-90 right triangle, whose three sides are related
function. Choice F is incorrect because this is true since
in the ratio of 1: 3 : 2 . This means that BC = 3 and
the graph of f(x) never dips below the x-axis. Choice G is
3
incorrect because this is true since the smallest y-value cosB = , choice H. Choice F is cscB. Choice G is
2
on the graph is 0, and the arrowheads affixed to the
cotB. Choice J is tanB. Choice K is sinB.
ends of the graph, pointing upward, suggest that the
range extends to plus infinity. Choice J is incorrect 39. The correct answer is A. Calculate as follows:
because this is true since every real number x is a viable
3
input for this function, as seen by the fact that there is a ( g  f )( x ) = g(f ( x )) =
1
point on the graph corresponding to each real number +1
x +2
x. Choice K is incorrect because this is true since both –5 3 3 3( x + 2) 3 x + 6
= = = =
and 2 are x-intercepts of the graph. 1+ x + 2 x + 3 x +3 x +3
x +2 x +2
37. The correct answer is D. Factor, convert the quotient to
a product, and simplify, as follows: 1 1 1
Choice B is incorrect because ≠ + . Choice
a+b a b
C is incorrect because you cannot cancel terms
w 2 − 9 w 2 − 3w (w − 3)(w + 3) w (w − 3) common to the numerator and denominator of a
÷ = ÷
w 3 w 3 fraction like this; you can only cancel like factors.
(w − 3) (w + 3) 3 Choice D is incorrect because you initially com-
= i
w w (w − 3)
3w + 9 puted (f  g )( x ), and when simplifying, note that
=
w2 1 1 1
≠ + . Choice E is incorrect because you
a+b a b
Choices A and E did not convert the quotient to a initially computed (f  g )( x ).
product, and terms, not factors, were incorrectly can-
celed in Choice A. Choice B is the result of canceling 40. The correct answer is K. Start by finding the volume
terms, not factors, common to the numerator and and surface area of the current box:
denominator. Choice C does not have the distributive SA = 2lw + 2lh
V = lwh
property applied correctly. = 2(6 )(9 ) + 2(8 )( 4 ) + 2(6 )( 4 )
=6 × 9 × 4
= 216 = 108 + 72 + 48
= 228

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

Now find the answer choice with a volume of 216 43. The correct answer is D. The table lists coordinates of
and a surface area less than 228. points on the line. All of the answer choices are in
slope-intercept form, y = mx + b, where m is the slope
Choice F:
and b is the y-intercept. The second pair of coordinates
V = 2 × 3 × 36 = 216 listed in the table is (0, –2), giving the y-intercept of the
line as –2. Choices A and B can be eliminated, since
SA = 2(6) + 2(108) + 2(72) = 372; eliminate
neither equation has a y-intercept of –2. The slope of a
Choice G: line is equal to the change in its y-coordinates divided
V = 2 × 4 × 27 = 216 by the change in its x-coordinates. Looking at the row of
x-coordinates, you can see that they change in incre-
SA = 2(8) + 2(108) + 2(54) = 340; eliminate ments of 2; the y-coordinates change in increments of 1.
Choice H: 1
This means that the slope of the line is , so choice D,
2
V = 3 × 6 × 12 = 216 1
y = x − 2 , correctly represents the relationship in the
2
SA = 2(18) + 2(72) + 2(36) = 252; eliminate
table. In choice A, the point (–2, –3) does not satisfy this
Choice J:
equation. In choice B, (0, –2) does not satisfy this
V = 3 × 8 × 9 = 216 equation. In choice C, (–2, –3) does not satisfy this
equation. In choice E, (2, –1) does not satisfy
SA = 2(24) + 2(72) + 2(27) = 246; eliminate
this equation.
Choice K:
44. The correct answer is K. You know that both x and z
V = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216 are greater than y, but you aren’t given any information
about how they relate to one another. This means that
SA = 2(36) + 2(36) + 2(36) = 216
you cannot tell which, if either of them, is greater than
This is the only surface area smaller than 228, so it is the other, so choices F and G can be eliminated.
correct. You might assume that since x > y, x2 > y2, but this is not
necessarily true. If x = 2 and y = –3, for example, then
41. The correct answer is E. Write the given equation in
22 < (–3)2, making x2 < y2. This allows you to eliminate
slope-intercept form: y = 3x – 6. The slope is 3. So, any
choices H and J, leaving choice K as correct. It must be
line with a slope 3 is parallel to this line. Since 6y – 18x =
true that x + z > 2y; since both x and z are greater than y,
0 as y = 3x, it is parallel to the given line. Choice A has
1 their sum must be greater than 2y.
slope 0, not 3. Choice B has slope , not 3. Choice C has
3 45. The correct answer is B. To solve this system of
slope –3, not 3. Choice D is vertical and therefore not equations simultaneously, use the elimination method:
parallel to a diagonal line with slope 3.
2(3 x − 2 y ) = 2(0 ) 6x − 4y = 0
42. The correct answer is H. Since 1 hour equals 60 is equivalent to
−3(2 x + 3 y ) = −3(13) −6 x − 9 y = −39
minutes, it follows that h hours equals 60h minutes.
Now, multiply rate times time get the number of gallons Add the equations to get –13y = –39. Dividing both
removed: sides by –13 yields y = 3. Substituting this value back
into the first original equation, gives 3x – 2(3) = 0,
3.5 gallons
× 60h minutes = 210h gallons y 3
1 minute so that 3x = 6 and x =2. Thus, the value of is .
x 2
Choices F, G, and K are the result of not converting x
Choice A is the value of . Choice C is the value of
hours to minutes when computing the number of y
x + y. Choice D is y. Choice E is x.
gallons. The answers in choices G and J divided rate
by time instead of multiplying the quantities.

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46. The correct answer is J. The area of the shaded region 48. The correct answer is H. QS is the hypotenuse of right
is the difference between the area of the square and the triangle QRS, so use the Pythagorean theorem, starting
area of the circle. The perimeter of the square is 36 feet, with the lengths of legs QR and RS . RS = 5, and QR is the
so each of its sides is 36 ÷ 4 = 9 feet. If you draw a hypotenuse of a right triangle with legs lengths 2 and 4,
diameter through the center of the circle, you will see so:
that it is equal to a side of the square, so the diameter of QR 2 = 2 2 + 4 2
the circle is also 9 feet, as shown in the figure. QR 2 = 4 + 16
9 QR = 20 = 2 5

Now find the length of QS :

9 QS 2 = 5 2 + (2 5 ) 2
QS 2 = 25 + 20
QS = 45 = 3 5

Choice F is the length of QR. Choice G is half the sum

of the three given dimensions. Choice J is the sum
of the three given dimensions. Choice K is half the
Now find the areas of both known regions. Area of a volume of the box.
square is equal to s2, so the area of this square is 92 =
49. The correct answer is E. The maximum of a quadratic
81 square feet. Area of a circle is equal to πr2. Since
function that opens downward is the y-coordinate of
the diameter of the circle is 9, its radius is 4.5, making
the vertex. Complete the square to identify the vertex:
its area π(4.5)2 = 20.25π square feet. Therefore, the
area of the shaded region is 81 – 20.25π square feet. f(x) = –3x2 + 18x – 1
For choice F, you have forgotten to square the side = –3(x2 – 6x) – 1
and the radius when finding the area of the square = –3(x2 – 6x + 9) – 1 + 27
and circle, respectively. Choice G is incorrect because = –3(x – 3)2 + 26
the area of the square is 81 square feet, not 36 square
feet, and the radius of the circle is 4.5 feet, not 3 feet. So, the maximum is 26. Choices A and B are the
Choice H is the perimeter of the shaded region, not result of not balancing the expression correctly when
its area. Choice K is incorrect because the radius of completing the square. Choice C did not complete
the circle is 4.5 feet, not 6 feet. the square; –1 is not the y-coordinate of the vertex.
Choice D is the x-coordinate, not the y-coordinate, of
47. The correct answer is C. There are a total of 50 the vertex.
numbers on the wheel, so figure out how many of these
50 will make Greg win. Greg bets on numbers 32 50. The correct answer is F. The ratio of the areas of two
through 46. Be careful not to settle for 46 – 32, because figures is equal to the square of the ratios of their
this difference does not include both 32 and 46 as corresponding linear measurements. Since the ratio of
possibilities. To include both endpoints, add one to the the radius of circle A to the radius of circle B is 3:1, the
difference between them; that means there are 46 – 32 ratio of their areas must be 32:12 = 9:1. That means that
+ 1 = 15 winning numbers. Therefore, the probability 1 x
the area of circle B is the area of circle A, or .
that the spinner will land on one of Greg’s numbers is 9 9
15 3 Choice G is incorrect because 32 = 9, not 6. Choice H is
= . Choice A is the probability of landing on any
50 10 incorrect because you must square the 3 for the
given number, but Greg placed his bet on 15 of the 50 denominator. Choices J and K are incorrect because
numbers. Choice B is incorrect because there are 15 circle A is larger than circle B, so its area must be larger.
numbers on which Greg placed his bet, not 14. Choice D
is the probability that the spinner does not land on one 51. The correct answer is C. Parallel lines have equal
of Greg’s numbers. Choice E is incorrect because Greg slopes. Plugging into the slope formula, you’ll find that
did not bet on 46 numbers; he only bet on 15 of them. 2−0 2
the slope of the line shown is = = −2 . Since all
0 − 1 −1
of the answer choices are already in slope-intercept
form y = mx + b, where m is the slope, a quick scan

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reveals that the only line with a slope of –2 is y = –2x + sum of the individual rates is equal to the rate working
2, choice C. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because together, so you can write the following equation and
the graphed line falls from left to right, so it must have a solve for x:
1 1 3
negative slope—each of these lines has a positive slope. + =
x 5 10
In choice E, the slope is wrong; remember that the slope 1 3 1
of a line is the change in y divided by the change in x. = −
x 10 5
1 1
52. The correct answer is J. The area of a triangle is equal =
1 x 10
to bh. The area of ∆ABC is 24 and its height, segment x = 10
2
AC, has a length of 8, so its base, segment AB, must have
a length of 6. Given that AD = 28, it follows that BD = 28 Choices F and G cannot be correct because the
– 6 = 22. Now that you have the length of a pair of sides standard printer would take longer than the high-
of the parallelogram, you just need the length of the speed printer to do the job alone. If you selected
other pair of sides to solve. Since segment BC happens choice H, you likely made an arithmetic error. Choice
to be the hypotenuse of a right triangle with legs of 6 J is the result of adding the rates, which is incorrect—
and 8, its length must be 10. That makes the perimeter these two printers are going to work together, which
of parallelogram BCED equal to 2(22 + 10) = 2(32) = 64 does not accurately portray the comparison of job
feet. For choice F, you likely used AD in place of BD when completion rates of the two printers.
computing the perimeter. For choice G, you likely used 55. The correct answer is D. Pick a number, then apply the
the length of AC instead of the length of BC, and AD percent changes to it and see what happens. Use 100,
instead of BD, when computing the perimeter. For since it’s the easiest number for which to find per-
choice H, you likely used AD in place of BD and AB centages. 30% of 100 is 30, so increasing 100 by 30%
instead of BC when computing the perimeter. For results in 100 + 30 = 130. 50% of 130 is 65, so decreasing
choice K, you miscomputed the length of BC. 130 by 50% results in 130 – 65 = 65. Since you started
53. The correct answer is C. Solve the equation p(x) = 0: with 100, this is a net decrease of 100 – 65 = 35. As a
percent of 100, 35 represents 35%, so choice D is
2x2 –3x – 14 = 0 correct. Choice A is too low and likely the result of an
(x + 2)(2x – 7) = 0 arithmetic error. Choice B is the result of multiplying
7 0.30 times 0.50, but this implies that the percentages
x = −2,
2 both serve to increase a quantity or decrease a quantity
Since x represents a number of projectors, −2 can be to which they are being applied; here, one percentage is
7
discarded. Using x = , the number of projectors an increase and the other is a decrease. Choice C is
2
incorrect because you cannot simply add or subtract
7
that must be sold is × 100 = 350. . Choices A and percentages unless they are being applied to the same
2
amount; in this case, the percentages are being applied
E used the wrong conversion; x is measured in hun-
in succession and hence, to different amounts. You must
dreds of projectors. Choice B factored the expression subtract choice E from 100% to get the correct
percentage.
incorrectly. Choice D used the constant term of p(x)
56. The correct answer is H. When parallel lines are
only; you must factor and use the roots.
crossed by a transversal, 8 angles are formed. Unless the
54. The correct answer is K. Let x equal the number of transversal is perpendicular to the pair of parallel lines
hours it takes the standard printer to do the job alone. (and it isn’t in this case), 4 of the angles are acute and 4
1
That means that every hour it does of the job. The of the angles are obtuse. All of the acute angles are
x
equal to each other, all of the obtuse angles are equal to
high-speed printer can complete the job alone in 5
each other, and each acute angle is supplementary to
1
hours, so every hour it does of the job. Working each obtuse angle. Evaluate the expression in each
5
1 10 choice to see which is NOT true:
together, the two printers complete the job in 3 =
3 3 Choice F: (a + b = g + h):
1 3
hours, so each hour they do = of the job. The
 10  10 obtuse + acute = acute + obtuse
 
3

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True; eliminate 59. The correct answer is C. The graph opens upward,
which means that the coefficient of x2 must be positive,
Choice G: (f – h = c – d):
so you can eliminate choice E immediately. The graph
acute – obtuse = acute – obtuse also indicates a y-intercept of –3, which means that
y = –3 when x = 0, so you can eliminate choices B and D
True; eliminate
as well. Now pick a specific point from the graph and
Choice H: (a + h = g + c): plug its coordinates into the remaining answer choices.
obtuse + obtuse = acute + acute Since the x-intercept (1, 0) is easily identifiable and
makes the arithmetic simplest, let x = 1 and y = 0 to see
NOT true; CORRECT which equation works:
Choice J: (d + b – f = e + c – g): Choice A: y = x2 – 2x – 3 for (0):
obtuse + acute – acute = obtuse + acute – acute
0 = 12 − 2 (1) − 3
True; eliminate 0 = 1− 2 − 3
Choice K: (h – c = d – f): 0 ≠ −4

obtuse – acute = obtuse – acute Eliminate choice A.

True; eliminate Choice C: y = x2 + 2x – 3 for (0):
57. The correct answer is C. You’re given the side opposite
the 43° angle, as well as the side adjacent to it. Choose 0 = 12 + 2 (1) − 3
the trig function that uses both the opposite and 0 = 1+ 2 − 3
adjacent sides to an angle in a right triangle. Since 0=0

opposite side 5
tangent = , tan 43° = . To solve for n, This is the correct answer.
adjacent side n
60. The correct answer is H. There are 36 possible
isolate it on one side of the equation:
outcomes. The only ones that satisfy the condition are
5 (1,1), (1, 2), and (2, 1), where the first number represents
tan 43° =
n the face of Die 1 and the second number represents the
n ( tan 43°) = 5 face of Die 2. So, the probability of this event is
5 3 1
n= = . Choice F is the probability that the sum of the
tan 43° 36 12
two dice is 2, but you should also include the outcomes
Choices A and B are the hypotenuse, not n. In choice for which the sum is 3. The answer in choice G excludes
D, you are not using the correct definition of sine of one of the possible outcomes from consideration; there
an angle. For choice E, you should divide by tan 43°, are two ways to get a sum of 3. Choice J is the proba-
not multiply by it. bility that the sum is 3 or 4. Choice K includes the
58. The correct answer is G. Let x be the smallest of the outcomes that result in a sum of 4.
three integers. Then, the other two are x + 2 and x + 4.
The fact that their sum must be 129 yields the equation
x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) = 129. This is equivalent to 3x + 6 =
129, so that 3x = 123. Thus, x = 41. So, the three integers
are 41, 43, and 45. The average of the two smallest of
41+ 43
these integers is = 42. Choice F is the smallest
2
of the three integers. Choice H is the average of all three
integers. Choice J is the average of the largest two of
the integers. Choice K is the largest of the three integers.

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

Reading
1.   D 11.   B 21.   D 31.   A
2.   G 12.   J 22.   J 32.   G
3.   B 13.   A 23.   A 33.   B
4.   F 14.   G 24.   J 34.   F
5.   B 15.   A 25.   B 35.   C
6.   H 16.   F 26.   J 36.   F
7.   C 17.   D 27.   B 37.   B
8.   J 18.   G 28.   F 38.   J
9.   D 19.   B 29.   C 39.   A
10.   G 20.   H 30.   H 40.   J
1. The correct answer is D. This is a vocabulary-in-context conclude that choice A or choice D is correct.
question about the word rich, which appears in the Although there is a sense that Mr. Hyde has a certain
fourth sentence of the first paragraph. While choices A, amount of power over Mr. Utterson’s thoughts, the
B, and C are all definitions of the word, only choice D relationship is not like that of an employee and a
makes sense in this context. The synonyms wealthy boss, so choice C does not make sense.
(choice A) and affluent (choice B) can only describe
4. The correct answer is F. This is an inference
people, not houses. Abundant (choice C) cannot
question. The stranger who comes to the Coach and
describe a house on its own; what is the house
Horses seems to want to keep his face and body
abundant in? Plush (choice D), however, can describe a
hidden in his outerwear and is making a conscious
house, so it best captures the meaning of rich as it is
effort to conceal his identity from Mrs. Hall. Clearly,
used in the context of Paragraph 1.
he has something to hide, so choice F is the best
2. The correct answer is G. This is a detail question that answer. However, there is not enough information in
requires a close reading of the first paragraph in which this passage to conclude that he is a criminal (choice
Mr. Utterson decides that the only way to understand G), and there is not enough information about Mrs.
why his friend feels compelled to do the bidding of Mr. Hall to conclude that the stranger is the strangest
Hyde is to see Mr. Hyde for himself. The first sentence of man she has ever met (choice H). Although the
the second paragraph says, “From that time forward, Mr. stranger seemed “more dead than alive,” this is
Utterson began to haunt the door in the by-street of merely a colorful description of him and not a
shops.” Although Mr. Utterson has a dream about Mr. concrete indication that he was actually about to
Hyde in the story, he does not have a nightmare about die, so choice J is not the best answer.
Mr. Enfield, so choice F is not correct. You can eliminate
5. The correct answer is B. This is a vocabu-
choice H since there is no mention of who, exactly, is Mr.
lary-in-context question for the word biting, which
Utterson’s friend who feels compelled to do the bidding
appears in the first sentence of the passage. In this
of Mr. Hyde, and there is no mention of whether or not
sentence, biting describes the wind on a wintry day,
Mr. Utterson ever discussed Mr. Hyde with that friend.
so freezing is the best definition of the word in this
The reader only knows that he discussed Mr. Hyde with
particular context. Although the other answer
someone named Mr. Enfield. There is also no indication
choices are synonyms for biting, none of them
that the door in the by-street of shops is on the way to
describes how the word is used in this context. Wind
Mr. Utterson’s place of work, so choice J is incorrect.
cannot really be snapping (choice A) or abrasive
3. The correct answer is B. This is an inference question (choice C). Wind cannot express emotions, so hateful
about Mr. Utterson and Mr. Hyde. Based on information (choice D) does not make sense in this context.
in this passage, the reader can conclude that Mr. Hyde is
6. The correct answer is H. This is an EXCEPT question,
evil and, at the end of the passage, Mr. Utterson decides
so eliminate choices that are supported by the
to pursue him. Choice B is correct because this rela-
passage. Mrs. Hall does her best to make the
tionship is most similar to that of a police officer
stranger comfortable, so she does seem to care
pursuing a criminal. Some brothers and former
about his well-being, which eliminates choice F.
co-workers do not get along, but that is not enough to

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

However, she also works at the Coach and Horses, so it describes a difference between Mr. Utterson and
is probably her job to care about his well-being. Mrs. Hall.
Therefore, you can conclude that she feels profes-
9. The correct answer is D. This is an inference question
sionally obligated to see to his comfort (choice J). Based
about how these passages function in the novels from
on the way she sets his table quickly before rushing out
which they were excerpted. Since each passage seems
of the room, you can conclude that she feels uneasy in
to set up something—Passage A sets up Mr. Utterson’s
his presence, which eliminates choice G. However, as
pursuit of Mr. Hyde, and Passage B sets up the arrival of
odd as the stranger is, his behavior never seems to
a mysterious stranger at the Coach and Horses—it is
amuse Mrs. Hall, so choice H is the best answer.
unlikely they occur on the final pages of the novels from
7. The correct answer is C. The sentence in lines 18-21 which they were excerpted (choice A). A passage that
explains that Mrs. Hall intends to be particularly merely sets up a plot thread probably won’t be the most
attentive to the stranger because he does not haggle important incident in a novel, no matter how important
over the price of the room and he arrives at a time of the plot thread that follows will be, so you can eliminate
year when her inn does not do much business. choice B. However, since both passages set up plot
Therefore, choice C is the best answer. Choice A implies threads that will likely be important, it is more likely that
that the author is concerned with giving general they occur early in the novels from which they were
information about the inn business, when the main excerpted, so choice D is the best answer. Neither
purpose of the passage is to tell the personal story of its passage is particularly humorous, so choice C does not
characters. The lines imply that Mrs. Hall plans to be make sense.
attentive to the stranger because it will help her
10. The correct answer is G. This is a main idea question
business, not because she is necessarily a kind person
about Paragraph 1 of Passage A and Paragraph 2 of
who cares about the well-being of others, so choice B is
Passage B. Choice F is incorrect because Mr. Hyde does
not the best answer. The stranger’s behavior may be
not actually arrive anywhere in Passage 1. However,
odd, but this passage does not suggest that he is
only he seems particularly evil, so choice H cannot apply
particularly cruel, so choice D is not a very strong
to Passage 2. Mr. Hyde may demand things of Mr.
answer.
Utterson’s friend, and the stranger who comes to the
8. The correct answer is J. This question is asking you to Coach and Horses demands that Mrs. Hall light a fire
make an inference by contrasting two characters in and get him a room at the inn, but neither captures the
similar situations. Since it is asking you to find a main idea of the paragraphs in question. Therefore,
difference between those two people, you should try to choice J is not the best answer. The only choice that
eliminate all the answer choices that suggest ways they really captures the main ideas of the paragraphs is
are similar. Mr. Utterson is intrigued by the mysterious choice G, since Paragraph 1 of Passage A describes how
Mr. Hyde and Mrs. Hall is intrigued by the mysterious Mr. Hyde is affecting Mr. Utterson’s thoughts and
stranger who comes to the Coach and Horses, so this is dreams, and Paragraph 2 of Passage B describes how
one way they are similar. Therefore, you can eliminate the stranger affects Mrs. Hall’s behavior, since she is
choice F. Both Mr. Utterson and Mrs. Hall find the working to attend to the stranger’s needs.
behavior of those two mysterious people baffling, so
11. The correct answer is B. In the second sentence of the
choice G is wrong. Mr. Utterson seems to care about his
passage, the author identifies the Children’s House as a
friend who is obsessed with Mr. Hyde and Mrs. Hall
“kind of school,” so choice B is correct. While play may
cares about the troubled stranger who comes to the
be performed in a Children’s House as part of the
Coach and Horses, so choice H does not describe a way
educational process, it is more of a place of learning
they are different. However, only Mr.Utterson wants to
than a place of play, so choice A is not the best answer.
seek out a mysterious person to learn more about him,
While the author does identify a Children’s House as an
and Mr. Utterson’s enthusiasm about it makes it seem as
environment, she indicates that it is important for it to
though he likes to solve mysteries. Even though the
include an outdoor space, so choice C is incorrect. The
stranger who comes to the Coach and Horses intrigues
author also identifies the Children’s House as “a real
Mrs. Hall, she wants to flee from him, not solve the
house,” but it is not one to live in (choice D) but rather a
mystery that apparently surrounds him. So choice J
house to learn in during school hours.

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12. The correct answer is J. The author refers to how which children work are often small to suit their small
equipment adapted for children will allow them to do size, the author’s concern with intellectual development
such things as move furniture around by themselves, in line 20 makes choice A a better answer than choice D.
which implies that it fosters self-sufficiency rather than
16. The correct answer is F. The author indicates that there
reliance on adult assistance, so choice J is the best
should be a gymnasium in the central room described
answer. While a Children’s House is specially adapted for
in the second paragraph, and since gymnasiums are
children, the author never suggests that adults are not
places for exercise, choice F is a reasonable conclusion.
allowed in a Children’s House (choice F) and does
The paragraph also mentions the need for a dining
mention the presence of a teacher in the house. Choice
room in the central room, but choice G reaches a
G is too extreme: while the child-sized equipment in a
conclusion that the paragraph does not really support.
Children’s House may make it easier for children to
The paragraph mentions that the central room is often
learn, there is no suggestion that they cannot learn at all
also the only room at the disposal of the children, which
when using adult-sized equipment. Although the
contradicts the conclusion in choice H. While the author
author does reference how the educational equipment
mentions a number of activities that can be performed
is the common property of all the children, she never
in the central room, she does not apply any kind of
implies that the fact that it is adapted specifically for
hierarchy to these activities, so there is no support for
children encourages sharing (choice H).
the conclusion in choice J.
13. The correct answer is A. The sixth paragraph describes
17. The correct answer is D. In the fifth paragraph, the
a variety of decorations in a Children’s House, including
author explains that the drawers are where a student
a blackboard for drawing, pictures, and plants, so choice
puts “things belonging to him,” so choice D is the best
A is the best answer. Choice B is both too extreme and
answer. Choice A mixes up the roles of the drawers and
too focused on the indication that some of the pictures
the cupboard. Both are pieces of storage equipment, so
in the room can be biblical. Choice C makes the same
choice B is incorrect. Both are also elements of the
mistake, but focuses on the pictures of historical
working room, so choice C is wrong, too.
incidents instead of biblical stories. Choice D focuses on
the line about blackboards rather than on the main idea 18. The correct answer is G. The author’s educational
of the paragraph as a whole. method seems to be built on trust, as the house she
describes is designed to trust children to take measures
14. The correct answer is G. In the seventh paragraph, the
to educate themselves. While such a place may depend
author states, “The children spread these rugs upon the
on the curiosity of the children, the author does not
floor, sit upon them and work there,” so choice G is the
seem particularly curious about children in this passage,
correct answer. The author never explains why the
so choice F is not the best answer. While the ability to
pieces of carpet should be multicolored, so choice F is
trust someone may imply admiration for that person,
not as strong an answer as choice G. While the author
the author is not emotional enough to support the
does mention that the table and chairs take up space in
conclusion in choice H. Choice J, wrath, means “extreme
the working room (choice H), this does not have
anger,” and the author certainly never expresses anger
anything to do with why pieces of carpet are necessary
toward children.
in a working room. The author also states that the
children are responsible for spreading out the pieces of 19. The correct answer is B. Throughout the passage, the
carpet, but she does not imply that this is a necessary author advocates a learning environment with multiple
skill to learn, so choice J is not a strong answer either. stimuli that allows children the freedom to learn in their
own ways, so choice B is the best answer. Choice A,
15. The correct answer is A. The author uses the word
however, is an extreme conclusion and one that ignores
didactic to describe materials intended to assist “the
mention of a teacher in the passage. Choice C is
intellectual development of the child,” so choice A,
incorrect for the same reason. Choice D reaches a
educational, is the best answer. While children might
conclusion contradicted by all of the details in this
enjoy the materials with which they work, the author is
passage.
more concerned with children’s intellectual devel-
opment than their enjoyment here, so choice B can be 20. The correct answer is H. In the eighth paragraph, the
eliminated. Choice C can be eliminated, since the author author indicates that “above all,” a child should have a
uses didactic as an adjective to describe material in the flower pot in which to to sow and cultivate a plant,
passage and teach is a verb. While the materials with which supports the conclusion in choice H. The other

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answer choices all lack enough specific support for their a story’s thesis on historical events is an error. This
extreme conclusions. While the author indicates that a supports the conclusion in choice J and contradicts the
club room should contain musical instruments, she one in choice F. Choice G is too extreme: Poe only
never implies that a child’s education is incomplete if implies that basing a plot on history is an error, not that
the child cannot play an instrument (choice F). She also a writer should completely disregard historical events.
mentions that only those children who are interested Choice H is too specific and reaching this conclusion
would gather to listen to a teacher read stories but does would require more evidence than this passage
not imply that those who aren’t interested should never provides.
participate in a specific activity (choice G). The author
25. The correct answer is B. As a whole, the fifth paragraph
states that a club room should contain “games of
relates the author’s theories about why no one has
patience,” but she never implies that a child will never
written an article about the literary process, even
learn patience without access to a club room (choice J).
though such an article would be valuable. The author
21. The correct answer is D. Choice D is the only answer does not make his own intention to write such an article
choice that does not describe one of Dickens’s theories known until the seventh paragraph, so choice A is
about how Godwin wrote “Caleb Williams”; it describes wrong. Choice C describes a misconception about the
one of Poe’s theories (“It is only with the dénouement literary process and not the author’s own process.
constantly in view that we can give a plot its indis- Although the author states, “Why such a paper has
pensable air of consequence, or causation, by making never been given to the world, I am much at a loss to
the incidents, and especially the tone at all points, tend say,” he then goes on to present multiple theories about
to the development of the intention.”). In the first why no one has written such an article, so choice D is
paragraph, the author explains that Dickens believed incorrect.
that Godwin “…wrote his ‘Caleb Williams’ backwards. ...”
26. The correct answer is J. Poe’s statement that “For my
(choice A). The passage notes, “He first involved his hero
own part, I have neither sympathy with the repugnance
in a web of difficulties (choice B) and then, for the first,
alluded to, nor at any time the least difficulty in recalling
cast about him for some mode of accounting for what
to mind the progressive steps of any of my composi-
had been done” (choice C).
tions” supports the conclusion in choice J and contra-
22. The correct answer is J. In the fourth paragraph, the dicts the one in choice F. While Poe does claim to always
author describes how he is first concerned with creating remember his creative process, he does not suggest
an effect to manipulate the heart, intellect, or soul when that he needs to take notes to remember it, so choice G
writing, so choice J is the best answer. In the second is not the likeliest answer. Earlier in the passage, Poe
paragraph, the author admits that he agrees with states that he is more concerned with plot than tone,
Williams that a story should be written backward, which which contradicts choice H.
contradicts choice F. Since the author is introducing an
27. The correct answer is B. In the first line of the passage,
explanation of the process by which he wrote “The
Poe states that Dickens expressed his theories about
Raven,” choice G cannot be correct. While the author
Godwin “. . . in a note now lying before me, alluding to
seems very concerned with tone when writing, choice H
an examination I once made of the mechanism of
reaches an extreme conclusion that the passage
‘Barnaby Rudge.’” So, choice B is correct. That line
contradicts.
contradicts choice A. Poe never indicates who wrote
23. The correct answer is A. In the seventh paragraph, the “Barnaby Rudge,” so choice C is not correct. There is no
author explains that “…that no one point in its compo- indication that Poe criticized “Caleb Williams” either, so
sition is referable either to accident or intuition—that choice D is wrong as well.
the work proceeded, step by step, to its completion
28. The correct answer is F. The author refers to the
with the precision and rigid consequence of a mathe-
crudities of thought, but does not imply that crudity is
matical problem.” This reveals that the creation of “The
at all responsible for the lack of an article on the literary
Raven” only involved a precise method and never
process. However, he does blame vanity (choice G) in
involved accident or intuition.
the fifth paragraph and forgetfulness (choice H) in the
24. The correct answer is J. By following the opinion, sixth paragraph. Since the author describes the desire
“There is a radical error, I think, in the usual mode of to deceive readers into believing literature is composed
constructing a story” with “Either history affords a “in a frenzy” in the fifth paragraph, choice J is incorrect
thesis,” Poe implies that he believes that faithfully basing as well.

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29. The correct answer is C. The author’s main goal seems specificity of the statement means that choice B
to be to clarify the ways writers create their work, so remains the best answer.
choice C is the best answer. The author never implies
34. The correct answer is F. Based on the second para-
that he expects his study will change the way writers
graph’s list of body parts that are formed from blood,
create literature, so choice A is not the best answer.
choice F is a very reasonable conclusion to draw from
Clarifying the literary process, not clarifying the
the paragraph. While the paragraph focuses on the
meaning of literature itself, is the author’s goal, so
liquid blood, it does not support the erroneous
choice B is not correct. The author does not indicate
inference in choice G. Choice H is too extreme; while
that his clarification will necessarily change what writers
one could reasonably infer that a human could not
say about their own processes, so the conclusion in
survive after losing a great deal of blood, this answer
choice D does not have as much support as does the
choice implies that even the slightest loss of blood
one in choice C.
would cause death. Choice J reaches a conclusion that is
30. The correct answer is H. Since the author is about to simply not supported by evidence in the second
discuss his poem “The Raven,” and he refers to how he paragraph.
will not discuss his intention to make it “a poem that
35. The correct answer is C. According to the seventh
should suit at once the popular and the critical taste,” he
paragraph, during circulation, oxygen in blood is
implies that he did intend for it to have widespread
deposited in bones (statement II) and helps forms
appeal for both readers and critics. So, choice H is the
phosphate of lime (statement III). However, calcium is
best answer. The author only indicates the irrelevance of
given to teeth during circulation, which is the opposite
a particular question, not his own work, so choice F is
of calcium being extracted from teeth during circulation
incorrect. The author may indicate that he intended
(statement I). Therefore, the correct answer must
“The Raven” to have popular appeal, but he does not
account for only statements II and III and eliminate
refer to or imply the success of that intention, so choice
statement I. Only choice C accomplishes this. Choices A,
G is not a strong answer. The author never comments
B, and D all include the false statement I.
on his feelings toward critics; he only implies that he
wanted “The Raven” to appeal to them, so choice J is 36. The correct answer is F. In the ninth paragraph, the
incorrect. author explains how the body extracts new blood from
food, and juice is extracted from solid foods such as
31. The correct answer is A. The main idea captures the
fruits and vegetables, so choice F is the most logical
most important overall idea of a paragraph, and only
answer. The terms “Means of Existence” and “Juice of
choice A accomplishes this. Choices B and D focus on
Life” describe two different things, so one is not used to
individual details that support that main idea, but they
clarify the other, which means choice G is not a strong
fail to capture the most important idea of the fourth
answer. While juice and blood contain nutrients, choice
paragraph as a whole. Choice C contains an idea from
H reaches a very specific conclusion that is not sup-
the fifth paragraph, not the fourth one.
ported by details in the passage. Choice J is a true
32. The correct answer is G. In the third paragraph, the statement from the ninth paragraph, but it has nothing
author compares blood with water to illustrate how to do with why the author describes blood as “Juice
certain solid materials dissolve in water, while blood is of Life.”
the very material that forms other solids. Choice F is
37. The correct answer is B. The answer to this question is
incorrect because the author never indicates that blood
revealed in the eighth paragraph, which states that
does not contain sugar, which it does. Choice H mixes
waste particles are carried “…to that part of the human
up the functions of water and blood in the comparison.
body where they may be secreted.” This statement
While it is true that water and blood are both organic
proves that choice B is the correct answer. Since
liquids, this fact has nothing to do with the information
depositing is the opposite of secreting, choice A can be
in the third paragraph.
eliminated. Choice C is an effect of the binding of body
33. The correct answer is B. In the first line of the second parts, not an effect of waste particles in the blood. The
paragraph, the author explicitly identifies Liebig as a fact that waste particles are secreted means they cannot
naturalist. While that general term could mean that he is remain in the body to decay (choice D).
either a biologist (choice A), a zoologist (choice C), or
even an instructor (choice D), the explicitness or

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38. The correct answer is J. The answer to this question 40. The correct answer is J. After explaining how integral
can be found in the ninth paragraph which states that blood is to the formation and functioning of every part
“ … the life of the body consists in its constant change of the human body, the author concludes that it is the
(statement I) and transformation, in the continual “Juice of Life,” all of which supports the conclusion in
exchange of fresh substances for waste ones (statement choice J. In the sixth paragraph, the author does imply
III).” However, it never suggests that the human body that blood can be both remarkable and mysterious, but
must constantly break down (statement II), which its mystery certainly is not important enough to this
implies an unhealthy body. So the correct answer passage to be an essential ingredient of the author’s
choice must include statements I and III and eliminate overall conclusion, so choice F is not the best answer.
statement II, which is what choice J does. Choice F is The author certainly understands the importance of
incorrect because it fails to include statement III. Choice blood, but choice G reaches an extreme conclusion that
G is incorrect because it includes only the false the passage does not really support. Choice H makes a
statement. Choice H is incorrect because it includes the comparison and judgment that the passage’s details do
false statement and only one of the two true not support, either.
statements.

39. The correct answer is A. When replacing the word

constituents in line 9 with each of the answer choices,
only components (choice A) makes sense in the
sentence’s context. Constants (choice B) and continents
(choice D) may look similar to constituents, but neither
word makes sense in the context of line 9. Bases (choice
C) might refer to the most important components of the
body parts, but not all of the components, so choice C is
not as strong an answer as choice A.

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Science
1.   A 11.   A 21.   A 31.   B
2.   H 12.   H 22.   J 32.   H
3.   C 13.   D 23.   B 33.   B
4.   J 14.   G 24.   J 34.   F
5.   D 15.   A 25.   C 35.   D
6.   H 16.   J 26.   G 36.   J
7.   B 17.   A 27.   B 37.   B
8.   J 18.   G 28.   J 38.   G
9.   C 19.   C 29.   C 39.   B
10.   G 20.   H 30.   F 40.   G

1. The correct answer is A. To answer this question, focus be a hypothesis for the first two experiments
on Experiments 1 and 2. Looking at Experiment 2, when combined but does not explain why Experiment 3 is
Crab 1 is faced with a competitor of any species, it is included.
almost twice as likely to eat if it finds the food first. This
3. The correct answer is C. Looking at the graph, Crab
species rarely gets anything at all if it is second to find
3’s line is above the other two, indicating that it has
the food item, and this is true even when competing
the strongest shell based on the size of the crab.
against members of the same species. Those results
However, Crab 2, followed closely by Crab 1, has the
imply that this species is less likely to eat if it is in a
highest breaking strength overall, since its line
group, encouraging solitude. Second, this species is the
reaches the highest. This can be explained if crabs 1
most aggressive of the three species. Such tendencies
and 2 grow larger than Crab 3 or at least some larger
would be a disadvantage if constantly surrounded by
individuals were tested. Choice A is incorrect since
other crabs. Constant aggression would pose risks,
the Crab 1 line goes much farther along the x-axis,
endangering the crab and distracting from survival
which represents size, than either crabs 2 or 3. Crab
behaviors such as eating. Taken together, crab 1 is the
2’s strength-to-size line has the steepest slope,
most likely of the three to live alone instead of in a
indicating that its shell grows stronger more quickly
group. Crabs 2 and 3 (choices B and C) both have lower
as the crab’s size increases. The line for Crab 2 stops
aggression and are more likely to eat even if they find
around 75 mm (choice D) suggesting that either
the food second, suggesting that these species are well
Crab 2 doesn’t get any larger or that was the largest
adapted to group living. Choice D is incorrect, for while
size examined in the study.
it is not possible to be absolutely certain about how
these crabs live from this data alone, there is enough 4. The correct answer is J. The most notable dif-
information to make an educated guess. ference in behavior among the three crabs is that
Crab 1 is much more aggressive and likely to
2. The correct answer is H. The three experiments are all
instigate a conflict than the other two crabs. Why
focused on how crabs compare to one another. The first
this is so isn’t explained, but the crab must have
two experiments compare how crabs compete in two
some reason to expect that it will benefit from the
important areas: successful acquisition of food and the
contest. To benefit from the contest it must expect
ability to win contests. The third experiment compares
to win the contest, which suggests that this crab has
shell strength, and a stronger shell is a possible
evolved ways to win such contests. The fact that it
advantage when it comes to fights over food or other
does not win implies that it is following its instinct
resources. Taken together, the experiments seem to be
into an unknown situation that is not working the
examining the relative competitive standing of each
way the crab expects. One possible explanation for
species of crab. Choices F and G are possible hypotheses
this is that Crab 1 has never seen either of these
for individual experiments, 2 and 3 respectively, but
crabs before and acts as it normally would but meets
neither choice encompasses the entire breadth of
an unexpected response. If they shared a habitat
experiments being performed. Choice J might possibly
(choice F), Crab 1 would have known under which
circumstances fighting was likely to pay off and

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avoid losing battles. Fighting costs energy that the crab line that develops from the relationship between wave
could use for other purposes and which the crab will height and wind speed. These are outliers.
seek to conserve. Choice G is not supported by the
9. The correct answer is C. Figure 2 shows a very clear
results of Experiment 1, where Crab 1 finds food first
correlation between wind speed and wave height in
more often than Crab 3. Choice H likewise makes little
small lakes; as wind speed increases, wave height
sense, as animals do not attack their own predators
increases in a very linear pattern. This in and of itself
unprovoked, nor is there any evidence presented that
does not prove the hypothesis that wind speed drives
losing crabs are killed or eaten.
wave height, but it is strongly suggestive that it is true
5. The correct answer is D. The strength-v-size line in small lakes. The data in the ocean is much more
crosses the x-axis at about 25mm in size. Crab 3 highly variable, with no clear pattern in the relationship
intersects the x-axis at around 10 mm, and Crab 2 between wind speed and wave height; the scatterplot
around 30 mm. The y-axis (Breaking Strength) has no points are almost random. Experiment 2 tries to explain
scale, so there is no indication that the bottom of the this pattern by showing that swell waves are common,
y-axis is zero. To determine which crab is lowest on the and swell waves are determined by the distant storm
vertical axis, estimate what the line for each crab would instead of local wind. However, there were days that
look like if extended downward past the x-axis. If the had few swell waves, and there is no indication which
line for Crab 2 is extended to 25 mm, it will be below the data points represent a swell wave. From Figure 1 alone,
x-axis, while Crab 1 is right on it (choice C). At 20 mm the swell waves might well have a clear relationship
(choice B), Crab 2 is below the x-axis, while Crab 3 is with wind speed, while the other waves do not; there is
above it, and at 10 mm breaking strength, Crab 2 is no way to tell. Therefore, the data can also be rea-
even farther below the x-axis, while Crab 3’s breaking sonably interpreted to mean that the hypothesis might
strength is right on it (choice A). That leaves only simply not be true in the ocean. Choice A is incorrect
choice D. since the lake data is quite convincing. Choice B can be
rejected on the basis of Figure 1 alone. The character-
6. The correct answer is H. In order to determine how
istics of swell waves are not tested in any of the
each crab influences the others, that influence must be
experiments, so choice D can be rejected.
removed. Testing each species of crab separately, for
example recording how often a hungry crab of each 10. The correct answer is G. The entire experiment is set
type finds food on its own or how quickly it finds it, up to test the relationship between wind speed and
would be one way to see if it behaves differently when it wave height. The stated hypothesis is given in choice F,
is alone. Choice F, testing their preference for different that wind speed directly influences wave height. A null
foods, would provide insight into the behavior of each hypothesis for this experiment, then, is that wave height
crab but would not explain how each species is and wind speed are not related; the experiment is
influenced by the others. According to the passage, the disproving that idea. While experiment 2 is measuring
experiments in choice G were already performed, so it is the frequency of swell waves, it makes no hypothesis
part of the information provided. Choice J would about their relative frequency and so has no null
expand the understanding of how these crabs interact hypothesis. Therefore both H and J are incorrect.
but would do nothing to examine how they behave in
11. The correct answer is A. Any of the waves indicated in
isolation.
the graph could, in theory, be a swell wave, but there’s
7. The correct answer is B. The highest y value (wave no way to tell which points on the general upward
height) was observed at an x value (wind speed) of curve represent waves that originated elsewhere.
about 2.4 m/s. Choice A is incorrect because one of the However, the three very noticeable outlying points on
lowest wave heights was observed at 0.0 m/s. Choice C the graph are most likely swell waves, since there’s no
is incorrect because a high wave height was observed other way to explain why their heights would be so
around 8.8 m/s, but it wasn’t the highest. Choice D is different from the mass of other waves recorded at
incorrect because this was the highest tested wind those same wind speeds. The first outlying point
speed. corresponds to a wave with a height of a little under 3
meters, while the third outlying point, on the right side
8. The correct answer is J. There are three points that
of the graph corresponding to a wind speed of a little
significantly deviate from the general positively sloped
over 8 m/s, comes in at just over 1 meter. The waves that
are 1.2 and 2.7 meters high are good approximations for

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these outlying points that are likely to represent swell bounces again. Choice F is the total time elapsed
waves. Choices B, C, and D do not represent between the ball’s second bounce and when it bounces
outlying points. for good. Choice H is the total time elapsed before the
ball bounces twice, not the time between bounces.
12. The correct answer is H. Experiment 3 added validity
Choice J, 8.5 seconds, does represent the time between
to the original hypothesis by using a lake setting, which
the ball first reaching 13.5 meters and bouncing and
significantly reduced the number of swell waves that
then traveling 18 meters, or the distance of the second
might obscure the relationship between wave height
bounce. But look carefully at the graph: 8.5 seconds is
and wind speed. Still, in addition to outlying values,
the difference between 11 seconds and 2.5 seconds. At
there was some variation even among the points
11 seconds the ball is indeed 18 meters from its starting
composing the solidly upward trend. Observing the
point but, at that point, it has started traveling
effect of a wind blower on an indoor pool would
backward. The ball has stopped bouncing and is rolling.
eliminate possible outside interference even more, thus
providing an excellent opportunity to further support 15. The correct answer is A. This is the horizontal distance
the original hypothesis. In the absence of any mitigating at which the largest vertical height was observed.
factors, one could determine whether the resulting Choice B is incorrect because this was the horizontal
graph is precisely linear as the theory would suggest. distance for the maximal height during the first bounce,
Choice F is incorrect, as thunderstorms would likely only but not overall. Choice C is incorrect because this was
complicate the data by introducing additional variables the horizontal distance for the maximal height during
into the experiment. Choice G is incorrect, as the point the second bounce, but not overall. Choice D is
of the experiments is to observe the effect of wind on incorrect because this was the largest observed
wave height. Not much would be gained, therefore, by horizontal distance..
conducting trials during a wind-free period. Choice J
16. The correct answer is J. From the information in the
leans in the opposite direction of correct choice H.
table, the ball travels forward while rising higher before
Rather than reduce the chance of swell waves even
the ball’s height starts to decrease. The ball hits zero and
further in order to observe the pure effect of wind on
rises then falls twice before finally settling on the
wave height, choice J proposes to observe a body of
ground. Each time the height reaches zero and then
water likely to have even more swell waves than the
increases indicates a bounce, each one of lesser height
lake. One would expect the results to be somewhat in
than the one before. The data will resemble a row of
between those recorded in the ocean and those
humps, each one smaller than the one before, until
recorded at the lake, which is not likely to lend addi-
height stays at zero. Choice F represents a ball that does
tional support to the hypothesis.
not bounce. Choice G looks a lot like Figure 1, which is
13. The correct answer is D. According to Figure 1, the horizontal distance plotted by time, not vertical
horizontal distance between the ball and the racket distance. Choice H is close, but it depicts a ball that only
stops changing (i.e., it is neither increasing nor bounces once instead of twice.
decreasing), around 12.5 seconds after it leaves the
17. The correct answer is A. Figure 1 shows that at the
racket. From the table, the ball has a consistent vertical
8-second mark, the ball was roughly 22.5 meters from
height of zero, meaning it has hit the ground and
the point of impact. Table 1 shows that at this horizontal
staying there, before it has returned to 18 m, as shown
distance, the vertical height of the ball was 0 and had
in the graph. Therefore, the ball must be standing still
been for a few meters. The height of the ball continues
and any answer choice that indicates the ball is still
to be 0 for the rest of the way, meaning that it was on
moving is incorrect.
the ground at this point. The horizontal distance
14. The correct answer is G. The ball first hits the ground continues to increase to a maximum of 24 meters from
(vertical height is zero in the table) and bounces when it the student, whereupon it decreases back to 18 meters
has traveled 13.5 meters; this corresponds to a time of away, which corresponds to the point at which the
approximately 3.5 seconds on the graph. It hits the distance curve flattens out on Figure 1 at the 12-second
ground again for a second bounce when it has traveled mark. So between 8 and 12 seconds, the ball was
18 meters in total; this is the second time in the table moving with a height of 0, meaning it was rolling on the
that the height is zero. This corresponds to approxi- ground. Choice B is incorrect, because Figure 1 indicates
mately 6 seconds on the graph, so 2.5 seconds elapse that from 9 to 12 seconds after impact, the ball’s
between the time the ball bounces once and when it distance from the student decreased, meaning that it

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traveled back toward the point of impact for part of the which children’s immune systems need to come in
time period mentioned in this choice. Choice C is contact in order to develop. However, if these sanitizers
incorrect, because Figure 1 indicates that after 12 themselves contain the kind of chemicals included in
seconds, the ball’s horizontal distance remained the “toxic soup” that supporters of the Contaminants
unchanged, which means the ball stopped moving Hypothesis cite, these supporters could claim that
between 12 and 14 seconds after the point of impact. sanitizers contribute to asthma for the reason they state,
Choice D is incorrect, because at the 7-second mark, the not the reason put forth by supporters of the Hygienic
ball was roughly 20 meters from the start point, and Hypothesis. Choice F is incorrect, because potential side
from there traversed the distances (listed at the end of effects of immunizations are beyond the scope of both
Table 1) that correspond to vertical heights of 0. Figure hypotheses. Nothing about side effects speaks to the
1 shows the ball moving back toward the point of main issue of rising asthma rates. Choice G is incorrect,
impact at the 10-second mark. So between 7 and 10 because the result it states—the negative effect on the
seconds, the ball must have been rolling on the ground, development of children’s immune systems—is exactly
not flying through the air. what proponents of the Hygienic Hypothesis predict
will happen when children are less exposed to animals
18. The correct answer is G. Both hypotheses find risks in
and other natural environmental elements. Choice J is
spending too much time indoors. For proponents of the
incorrect, as the Hygienic Hypothesis does not maintain
Contaminants Hypothesis, too much time indoors
that immunizations are entirely unnecessary or state
exposes children to potentially dangerous indoor
that warding off major diseases is not beneficial to
contaminants. For proponents of the Hygienic
children. Proponents of the hypothesis take issue with
Hypothesis, too much time indoors deprives children of
the overuse of immunizations to ward off minor,
exposure to minor threats that will help them build a
non-fatal diseases. It is this overuse of immunizations
healthy immune system. Both hypotheses agree it’s a
that Hygienic theorists believe may prevent the kind of
problem but not on the reason. Choice F is incorrect,
contact with germs necessary for the proper devel-
since neither hypothesis discusses how common
opment of the immune system.
asthma is relative to other illnesses. Choices H and J
only apply to the Hygienic and Contaminants 21. The correct answer is A. Food additives are specifically
hypotheses, respectively, so form no point of mentioned in the passage as a problem for people who
agreement. favor the Contaminants Hypothesis. Most food additives
are preservatives, and proponents of the Hygienic
19. The correct answer is C. Since environmental contami-
Hypothesis might object to over-preservation of food,
nants are more likely to be present in larger quantities
which does not let developing immune systems
in a congested metropolitan area than a rural coun-
encounter mold or other germs in old food. Non-
tryside, it’s possible that the child in question, upon
preservative food additives are not specifically con-
moving, would be significantly exposed to them for the
nected to the Hygienic Hypothesis but would certainly
first time. The Contaminants Hypothesis is based on the
be objectionable to proponents of the Contaminants
assertion that environmental impurities (such as smoke
Hypothesis. Unpasteurized cheese (choice B) might
and pollution) may be a contributing factor in the
raise objections from those who favor the Hygienic
development of asthma, so the evidence presented in
Hypothesis, since pasteurization kills all the natural
this case could support this theory. This means you can
bacteria in dairy products. Bleach (choice C) would most
eliminate choice D. Yet it could also support the
likely appeal to those who favor the Contaminants
Hygienic Hypothesis, since it’s possible that the child’s
Hypothesis, since it can clean away dust and mold and
immune system has been compromised by a lack of
other environmental risks. Proponents of the Hygienic
exposure to environmental contaminants, and the
Hypothesis object to excessive cleaning. Slightly moldy
move to the congested city atmosphere has over-
bread (choice D) would likely not bother proponents of
whelmed his underdeveloped immune system, making
the Hygienic Hypothesis, who would argue that a little
him susceptible to the disease. Choice C is correct
mold might not be bad.
because both hypotheses could be supported, making
choices A and B incorrect. 22. The correct answer is J. Our obsession with health and
cleanliness is clearly intended to make us healthier, but
20. The correct answer is H. Supporters of the Hygienic
supporters of the Hygienic Hypothesis believe it can
Hypothesis argue that household sanitizers are bad
also have the opposite effect on children by stunting
because they eliminate the type of contaminants with
the development of their immune systems. It’s

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reasonable to say that this qualifies as ironic (that is, verbal proficiency was observed. Choice B is incorrect
peculiar or paradoxical). Choice F is incorrect, consid- because this is the time at which minimal short-term
ering that our obsession with health and cleanliness has memory proficiency was observed. Choice D is incorrect
an effect contrary to the one stated in this choice. We because this is the time at which minimal verbal and
don’t disregard the noxious elements of our envi- math proficiencies were observed.
ronment; we attempt to stamp them out, much to the
26. The correct answer is G. The maximum math skill
consternation of the Hygienic Hypothesis supporters.
proficiency matched that of verbal skill proficiency, but
Choice G is incorrect, because proponents of the
its minimum was significantly lower. Choice F is
Hygienic Hypothesis believe that excessive reliance on
incorrect because verbal and math skills were nearly
immunizations is detrimental, not beneficial. Choice H is
identical in maxima, but the minimum for math was
incorrect, as the Hygienic Hypothesis does cite a specific
lower than that for verbal. Choice H is incorrect because
effect of our obsession with health and cleanliness: it
the minimum for short-term memory was higher than
negatively impacts our immune systems by underex-
the minima for the other two skills, and the maximum
posing us to natural elements.
was lower than the maxima for the other two skills.
23. The correct answer is B. Supporters of the Hygienic Choice J is incorrect because according to the data, the
Hypothesis believe that some steps we’re taking to three skills did not exhibit the same ranges of
sanitize our lives are weakening children’s immune proficiency.
systems. They feel that the overuse of immunizations
27. The correct answer is B. According to Table 1, the
and excessive sanitizing of our living spaces have a
parietal lobe was activated 6 times, while the temporal
negative effect on health. They also consider natural
lobe was activated 3 times. That means that the parietal
elements of our environment, presumably even noxious
lobe was activated more, by a 2:1 ratio (the reduced
ones like mosquitoes, to play a part in the proper
version of the 6:3 ratio). Choice C is incorrect because it
development of our immune systems. Therefore, it is
misidentifies the ratio, while Choices A and D are
reasonable to infer that they would not be in favor of
incorrect because they describe (correctly and incor-
protecting a child from mosquitoes with a man-made
rectly) the ratio between the lobes’ inactivity status.
repellent; this is, most likely, an example of the kind of
thing they would believe to have negative conse- 28. The correct answer is J. A major flaw of Study 2, at
quences in the long run. This eliminates choices A and C least as it connects to Study 1, is that it does not test
in favor of choice B. Choice D is incorrect, because it short-term memory. All of the questions are either
would be reasonable to infer that bug spray is similar to acquired skills (math, reading) or long-term memory
pesticides and other chemicals contributing to the recall (recalling a dream, defining loyalty). As a result,
“toxic soup” the supporters of the Contaminants Study 2 does not provide significant insight as to why
Hypothesis loathe; therefore, they would be more likely short-term memory improved during sleep deprivation
to oppose its use than to encourage it. in Study 1. Choice F might be true in some cases but
does not address the question of short-term memory.
24. The correct answer is J. At the heart of both theories
Choice G is clearly not true, and in the case of H, math
lies the idea that environmental factors are responsible
ability declines but does not seem to end, nor would
for the dramatic increase in childhood asthma. The first
such a result explain short-term memory performance.
theory states that the environment has become too
dirty; the second argues that the environment has 29. The correct answer is C. Note that Study 2 explicitly
become too clean. Both, however, relate the rise in indicates that the rested volunteer received 8 hours of
asthma directly to environmental changes. The theory quality sleep, something never indicated in regard to
presented in this question ignores environmental Study 1’s subjects, who were awakened for tests at
factors altogether, while citing a biological factor that 7 a.m. If nearly half of them slept terribly just prior to
may account for the increased susceptibility to asthma. the study, then the study, which supposedly differen-
It thus supports neither theory presented in the tiates between performances while rested and perfor-
passage, making choices F, G, and H incorrect. mances while sleep-deprived, would already be
questionable. If the designers of a sleep-deprivation
25. The correct answer is C. This is the time at which the
study wish to compare rested subjects with sleep-
graph for math proficiency, represented by the line with
deprived ones, they must be sure that the rested
circles, reaches its highest point. Choice A is incorrect
subjects are truly rested. Choice A is incorrect. The study
because this was one of the times at which maximal

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is designed to show how performance after rest might impossible, since an excess still means there is enough
differ from performance while sleep-deprived. As long prothrombinase and factor 13 to complete the clotting
as the subjects tested didn’t suffer major bouts of process; the excess has no way to create excess clots
insomnia immediately preceding the study, it would (choice J).
make little difference whether they had experienced
33. The correct answer is B. This is inferable if we closely
insomnia sometime in the past. Choice B is incorrect
follow the chain of cause and effect. The chelating
because results following the study are irrelevant to the
agent interferes with the effectiveness of calcium ions.
methodology of the study itself. It would not be unusual
Since calcium ions are required for clotting, we can
for some subjects to experience changes in sleep
deduce that the chelating agent would prevent clotting.
patterns after participating in such a study, but that has
Of the people in the choices, only the technician in
no bearing on what the study set out to show and
choice B would benefit from preventing clotting, since
whether it was designed properly to show it. Choice D
he or she would not want donated blood stored for later
in no way invalidates the study’s methodology, since
use to clot in the storage bags. In contrast, the doctor
the point all along was to keep participants awake for
and the hemophiliac in choices A and D would pre-
30 straight hours.
sumably want to aid, not inhibit, clotting. It’s also
30. The correct answer is F. Math and verbal skills decline difficult to see any reason for the researcher in choice C
after about 14 hours; at the same time, short-term to be interested in clotting in anything other than a
memory skills seem to improve. If short-term memory theoretical sense, so without further information, we
were essential for math and verbal tasks, the three cannot presume that this person would have a use for
measures should follow a similar pattern. All three the chelating agent.
should decrease or increase (choice G). Choice H is not
34. The correct answer is F. The best way to specifically
true since short-term memory remains more or less the
examine the role of any one factor is to isolate the
same for hours before it starts to improve. Choice J is
activity of that particular factor. The best way to isolate
also not correct since, while math and verbal skills have
its function is to remove Factor 10 in a test organism. As
declined considerably after 24 hours, the graph of these
the information in the passage demonstrates, isolating
skills is not quite at its lowest point until 30 hours have
Factor 10 is a little bit tricky because it is formed from a
passed. Math and verbal skills can still decrease after 24
complex composed of two different factors, 8 and 9,
hours.
each of which may have their own independent role to
31. The correct answer is B. Tissue factors are produced by play in amplification of the clotting process. Preventing
damaged cells. These then bind with TF-7 to start the that complex from forming by disabling the ability of 8
chain of events that results in clotting. If the origin of and 9 to bind together is the only way to remove 10 and
the tissue factors is affected by the mutation, then these only 10. Removing thrombin (choice G) would prevent
tissue factors are being produced in the wrong place. formation of 10 by eliminating Factor 8, but it would
The clotting sequence can still take place, but not only also remove Factors 5 and 11, making it impossible to
in damaged areas. Choices A and C can be ruled out, isolate the effects of Factor 10. Disabling TF-7 (choice H)
since the mutation does not disable the tissue factors would also eliminate factor 10 by removing some
themselves. Choice D can be eliminated, since circu- production of Factor 9. However, it is not clear if Factor 9
lating inactive clotting factors are different from the plays a role in amplification beyond helping make
tissue factors that are produced in the event of injury. Factor 10, so again, Factor 10 may not be isolated.
Introducing extra Factor 10 (choice J) might not be
32. The correct answer is H. The role of prothrombinase is
successful because an amplification factor needs clots
to convert prothrombin into thrombin. Thrombin forms
to amplify. Extra Factor 10 may simply go unused, so the
fibrin, the first part of the clot, and activates Factor 13.
specific role of Factor 10 would still be uncertain.
Too much prothrombinase will convert all of the
prothrombin available, but without extra prothrombin 35. The correct answer is D. There are clearly some changes
there is nothing for the excess prothrombinase to act in the rate of decomposition as the CO2 concentration
on. Same for the extra activated Factor 13: unless there increases, but it is difficult to see a definite pattern in the
is excess fibrin to be converted into the impermeable changes. If you visualize the decomposition data
matrix, the excess Factor 13 will have no effect. Normal presented as a graph instead of a table, the plot would
clotting will result. No clotting (choice F) would occur if resemble a mountain range, with different peaks and
there were no prothrombinase at all. Choice G is valleys, some higher than the starting value, some below

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the starting value, but ending up pretty close to the 38. The correct answer is G. The key is that only the
starting value. You can conclude from such a pattern that nitrogen reading is odd. Plant growth is normal
the effect on decomposition rate from CO2 concentration according the trend established so far, and so is
is not dramatic, since there are no huge departures from decomposition. That suggests that whatever the
the starting value, and that the decomposition rate problem is only affects nitrogen and nothing else. Then
changes almost at random as the CO2 concentration notice that a pretty steady decline occurred with each
increases. The relationship between them, if any, is increase in concentration before 520 molCO /molair ,
2
extremely weak. No definite pattern such as described in then the anomalous reading, then at 530 molCO /molair ,
2
choices A, B, or C can be seen. the previous pattern immediately reestablishes itself as
if the anomalous result never happened (eliminating
36. The correct answer is J. CO2 concentration and growth
choice F). All of these clues suggest a problem that only
rate are generally correlated in a positive manner, but
applies to that one data point. The most likely answer is
they are not proportional values. Choice F is incorrect
an error of some kind. Choice H is not supported by
because as CO2 concentration increases, growth rate
evidence, since similar decomposition rates in other
also increases, but the two values are not proportional.
parts of the data set do not have that effect. There is no
Choice G is incorrect because as CO2 concentration
evidence for choice J nor an explanation as to why it
increases, the growth rate also increases, so they cannot
might be true.
be inversely proportional. Choice H is incorrect because
there is a clear positive correlation between the two 39. The correct answer is B. When growth rate peaks, at
variables, according to the table. 620 mol CO /molair , the decomposition rate is 4.5%
2
mass/week. Given the range of decomposition rates
37. The correct answer is B. At this point the plant
provided in the table, this is lower than average, but it is
continues to grow, but more slowly. That suggests
not at its minimum.
conditions that damage but do not kill the plant, such
as insect damage. If the plant were dead, or had 40. The correct answer is G. Bacteria are the primary
reached its maximum height (choices A or D), it could agents of decomposition. If the rate is slowing, then
not continue to grow, even at a slower rate. Choice C is something must be interfering with bacteria. Nitrogen,
at first glance plausible but at 660 molCO /molair the which according to the passage represents several
2
growth rate is still about what it is at around 360 nutrients, is steadily dropping. Decomposers derive
molCO /molair, before there was any loss of nitrogen at their nutrition from the material they decompose. If that
2
all. That suggests that whatever is causing the reduced material supplies insufficient nutrition, it can feed fewer
growth is connected directly to CO2 concentration and bacteria. As the nutrient levels drop with increasing CO2
not to the nitrogen. concentration, the rate of decomposition would drop as
fewer and fewer bacteria are supported. Choice F is
unlikely for two reasons. One is that if the bacteria
needed oxygen, and if at some point there wasn’t
enough, then rather than a gradual decline at some
point the decomposition rate should plummet to zero.
The other reason is that many bacteria can function
without oxygen. Choice H might account for the
findings as better wood might be more resistant to
decomposition. However, as the wood is continuing to
lose vital nutrients, the quality is clearly decreasing, not
increasing. Choice J does not work, since the plant
continues to grow rather than shrink, even if the rate
slows eventually.

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Sample Essay: Score 1

Ideas and Analysis: Score = 1
Development and Support: Score = 1
Organization: Score = 1
Language Use and Conventions: Score = 1

I already learn what I need to know online from the websites I go to, Facebook and Twitter and more they have every-
thing that’s going on. I can get everything from a book or teacher that I can get from them on my laptop or phone, so
why bother going into school and wasting my time? I can even play games and listen to my music and show off all my
photos to my friends and whoever so why cant I skip school and do what I need to do on my own schedule and finally
live like adults? I get really bored in school anyway and so do my friends and we’d all be much rather spending our time
doing almost anything else. My school’s a waste of money too so they can stop paying the teachers and everyone there
and maybe they can start paying the students for a change?

Scoring Explanation
Ideas and Analysis: Score = 1

This essay fails to establish a unifying thesis that addresses the given prompt. The writer provides some ideas regarding the value
of traditional classrooms (a waste of time and money) but fails to utilize them in a cohesive or effective manner. There is little or
no effort to create a piece of writing that responds to the specific essay task.

Development and Support: Score = 1

The writer of this piece does little to develop the few ideas provided into an effective argument that addresses the essay task.
As a result, we do not get the writer’s perspective on the future of the classroom or the impact technology will have on it.
Furthermore, the writer doesn’t provide any additional external support for his or her ideas, and the resulting essay lacks depth,
authority, or credence.

Organization: Score = 1

This essay response lacks a coherent, effective flow of ideas connected to an overarching theme. Instead, we are given a disjointed
set of thoughts that are at best tangentially related to the writing task. The response indicates that the author believes traditional
school is a waste of money and time, time that is better spent on a computer or phone, but it lacks an effective overall structure
and doesn’t progress toward a central idea regarding the future of the classroom.

Language Use and Conventions: Score = 1

The response demonstrates a significant skill deficit in the effective use of language mechanics and conventions. The essay
contains several errors in grammar and usage and uses a limited word-choice range, which adversely impact a reader’s ability
to comprehend the author’s intent.

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Sample Essay: Score 6

Ideas and Analysis: Score = 6

Development and Support: Score = 6
Organization: Score = 6
Language Use and Conventions: Score = 6

It can be argued that technological advances in recent decades have helped us learn as much about the classroom as we learn
inside the classroom. Although it’s certainly clear that the traditional classroom has equipped generations of students with the
knowledge and skills required to lead America and other countries around the world into the modern technological era, with
great change comes the responsibility to pause and reflect. What should happen now? We need to take a hard and thoughtful
look at the current design of the average classroom, at both its strengths and its limitations, and design a new and unabashedly
modern learning environment—one that takes full advantage of modern technological innovations while retaining the healthy
structural roots that have allowed us to flourish thus far.

The traditional classroom does provide educational nourishment for fertile minds that are eager to learn. A skilled and motivated
teacher, equipped with an effective lesson plan and learning goals, can make a real and measurable difference in the minds of
students inside of these rooms. But the technological advances that have flooded into our everyday lives have changed the way
we live, and in turn are changing how we think and learn. These are just a few examples: More of us now get our news from our
phones instead of newspapers. Most of us stay in touch with the people in our lives through social media websites as much or
more than in person. If we need to handle our daily responsibilities we go over to our computers as often as we roll up our sleeves
and head out the front door. With so much of our lives unfolding online, why shouldn’t the modern classroom follow suit?

As previously mentioned, the way we learn has already changed. We read on tablets and phones, consume information through
websites, communicate online as much as in person—an effective learning environment (the word classroom even feels outdated)
takes this into consideration and mirrors the society and culture in which it exists.

What should the classroom of the future look like? An effective modern classroom will integrate the best of both worlds. It will
acknowledge that real learning objectives can be met when students gather together in rooms under the direct guidance of
qualified, capable teachers. It will also acknowledge that technology has advanced to the level where each student can use
modern tools to address his or her individual educational goals in a virtual learning environment, wherever they are. Envision
less time spent in an actual classroom but just as much time spent learning, only in a more effective fashion that takes into
consideration each student’s individual skill set and goals. Modified classroom learning can be supplemented with time spent
on a tablet, phone, or laptop, at home or anywhere else, in pursuit of customized academic objectives. Students can use emails,
texts, chats, tweets, or Skype to contact trained educators for guidance and feedback. Students can collaborate using these
tools as well. Assignments, research, and projects can use modern computer applications—the same tools used in a wide range
of professions—further preparing students for life beyond the classroom. In schools across the country and around the world
this has already happened, though in limited ways. We’re squarely in the middle of an “educational evolution,” and if logic and
forward-thinking were allowed to lead the way, this evolution will continue to follow this path. It has or is occurring in nearly
every facet of society, from medicine and banking, to shopping and entertainment—and far beyond—don’t our classrooms
deserve the same respect, resources, and consideration?

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

Scoring Explanation
Ideas and Analysis: Score = 6

The writer provides a nuanced, thoughtful argument regarding the future of the classroom. From its insightful and engaging opening
to its provocative closing question, the essay presents a wealth of ideas on why the traditional classroom needs to “evolve,” as well
as ideas for how this can occur. It’s clear that the writer of this piece has thoughtfully analyzed the issue and framed it within a larger
societal context (learning environments should mirror societal modes of consuming information), lending credence to the balanced,
carefully considered perspective provided.

Development and Support: Score = 6

The writer begins the argument with an insightful perspective on the value of technology in learning about effective classroom
operation and progresses with a well-reasoned development of ideas that support a clear perspective on the issue. The argument
includes a historical perspective that supports the notion that traditional classrooms once had a clear purpose and provides com-
pelling details on how an evolving society needs an evolving learning environment for its fertile and hungry minds. An intriguing set
of ideas on how this evolution might occur is provided as the argument moves forward, culminating in an inspirational call to action.

Organization: Score = 6

The writer demonstrates a command of effective essay structure, organization, and flow. A clear perspective on what the classroom
of the future should be like is provided, and an array of persuasive material is galvanized and carefully presented in support of this
viewpoint. It progresses from a thought-provoking introduction to a well-reasoned argument in support of a blended (traditional
and virtual) learning environment and ends with an urgent—and moving—call for change.

Language Use and Conventions: Score = 6

The writer employs an impressive use of language and nuance in the development of a compelling essay. Strong and varied word
choices and effective transitions are used throughout, alongside a wealth of emotion, to convince the reader that this perspective
on the complex issue of the future of learning is a worthy one. The writer also displays an impressive command of grammar and
syntax, lending authority to this argument.

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 Diagnostic Test Assessment Grid

DIAGNOSTIC TEST ASSESSMENT GRID

Now that you’ve completed the diagnostic test and read through the answer explanations, you can use your results to target
your studying. The following tables show you exactly where you can find thorough coverage for every single subject area on the
multiple-choice portion of the test. Find the question numbers from the diagnostic test that gave you trouble and highlight or circle
them below. The chapters with the most markings are your ideal starting points on your preparation journey.

English Test

ACT® Reporting Category Question Number Chapter Reference

1, 2, 7, 10, 11, 16–20, 22, 24–26, 31–33,

Conventions of
35–37, 39, 41, 46, 48, 50, 51, 53–55, Chapter 4
Standard English
57, 58, 62–64, 66, 68–70, 72, 74

4, 5, 8, 9, 13–15, 21, 27–30,

Production of Writing Chapter 5
40, 42–45, 60, 67, 73, 75

3, 6, 12, 23, 34, 38, 47,

Knowledge of Language Chapter 5
49, 52, 56, 59, 61, 65, 71

What English test question types gave you the most trouble?

Conventions of Standard English

Production of Writing

Knowledge of Language

Chapters to focus on first: _______________

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 Diagnostic Test Assessment Grid

Math Test

ACT® Reporting Category Question Number Chapter Reference

1, 2, 7, 10, 11, 16–20, 22, 24–26, 31–33,

Pre-Algebra and
35–37, 39, 41, 46, 48, 50, 51, 53–55,
Elementary Algebra (Chapter 6)
57, 58, 62–64, 66, 68–70, 72, 74

Preparing for Higher Math 11, 13, 15, 17, 23, 24, 26, 28, 36, 37, 39, Intermediate Algebra and
41, 44, 45, 49, 56, 59 Coordinate Geometry (Chapter 7)

Plane Geometry and

16, 29, 32, 38, 40, 46, 48, 50, 52, 57
Trigonometry (Chapter 8)

2, 5, 6–10, 14, 22, 25, 27, Pre-Algebra and

30, 33, 42, 51, 55 5 Elementary Algebra (Chapter 6)

Intermediate Algebra and

Integrating Essential Skills 18, 35, 51, 53, 54
Coordinate Geometry (Chapter 7)

Plane Geometry and

4, 19, 21, 34
Trigonometry (Chapter 8)

Intermediate Algebra and

Modeling 2, 3, 9, 25, 32, 33, 50, 52, 53, 56, 59, 30
Coordinate Geometry (Chapter 7)

Which Mathematics test question types gave you the most trouble?

Preparing for Pre-Algebra/Elementary Algebra

Higher Math
Intermediate Algebra/Coordinate
Geometry

Plane Geometry/Trigonometry

Integrating Pre-Algebra/Elementary Algebra

Essential Skills
Intermediate Algebra/Coordinate
Geometry

Plane Geometry/Trigonometry

Modeling Intermediate Algebra/Coordinate

Geometry

Chapters to focus on first: _______________

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 Diagnostic Test Assessment Grid

Reading Test

ACT® Reporting Category Question Number Chapter Reference

Key Ideas and Details (for Social Studies Social Studies/Natural Sciences
11, 13, 14, 16, 17, 31, 35, 37, 38, 40
and Science questions) Passages (Chapter 9)

Key Ideas and Details (for Literary

Literary Narrative/Prose Fiction and
Narrative/Prose Fiction and 2, 4, 6, 7, 19, 21, 24–29
Humanities Passages (Chapter 10)
Humanities questions)

Craft and Structure (for Social Studies Social Studies/Natural Sciences

12, 15, 20, 32, 33, 36, 39
and Science questions) Passages (Chapter 9)

Craft and Structure (for Literary

Literary Narrative/Prose Fiction and
Narrative/Prose Fiction and 1, 5, 23, 30
Humanities Passages (Chapter 10)
Humanities questions)

Integration of Knowledge and Ideas Social Studies/Natural Sciences

18, 34
(for Social Studies and Science questions) Passages (Chapter 9)

Integration of Knowledge and Ideas

Literary Narrative/Prose Fiction and
(for Literary Narrative/Prose Fiction 3, 8–10, 22
Humanities Passages (Chapter 10)
and Humanities questions)

Which Reading test question types gave you the most trouble?

Key Ideas and Social Studies/Natural Science Passages

Details
Literary Narrative/Prose Fiction and Humanities Passages

Craft and Social Studies/Natural Sciences Passages

Structure
Literary Narrative/Prose Fiction and Humanities Passages

Integration of Social Studies/Natural Sciences Passages

Knowledge
Literary Narrative/Prose Fiction and Humanities Passages
and Ideas

Chapters to focus on first: _______________

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 Diagnostic Test Assessment Grid

Science Test

ACT® Reporting Category Question Number Chapter Reference

1, 5, 25–27, 36, 39 Data Representation (Chapter 11)

Interpretation of Data 13–16, 19, 20, 23, 35 Research Summaries (Chapter 12)

7, 8, 11 Conflicting Viewpoints (Chapter 13)

3, 28, 37, 38, 40 Data Representation (Chapter 11)

Evaluation of Experiments 17, 18, 22, 24, 30, 31 Research Summaries (Chapter 12)

9, 10 Conflicting Viewpoints (Chapter 13)

2, 4, 29 Data Representation (Chapter 11)

Scientific Investigation 21, 32–34 Research Summaries (Chapter 12)

6, 12 Conflicting Viewpoints (Chapter 13)

What Science test question types gave you the most trouble?

Interpretation Data Representation

of Data
Research Summaries

Conflicting Viewpoints

Evaluation of Data Representation

Experiments
Research Summaries

Conflicting Viewpoints

Scientific Data Representation

Investigation
Research Summaries

Conflicting Viewpoints

Chapters to focus on first: _______________

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 Diagnostic Test Conclusion

A Word About the Writing Test

If you took the writing test and found that your essay did not compare well to the level 6 essay sample, don’t worry. We’re here to
help you with that too. Chapter 14, “Mastering the ACT® Writing Test,” has the information you need to strengthen your writing skills.
It also includes a full essay grading rubric, which tells you what the graders are looking for in a high-quality essay. Use the rubric as
you would use the grids to help you focus on the areas you need to work on.

DIAGNOSTIC TEST CONCLUSION

Taking the diagnostic test should have given you more insight into the ACT: what it feels like to take such a long test, how you
perform on a timed exam, and where you now need to focus your energy in the days, weeks, and months leading up to your test day.

Here are some questions to keep in mind as you move on to the preparation part of your ACT study plan:

How did I do under timed conditions?

Did you find yourself rushing to answer the final questions in every test section? Did one particular section give you more problems
than others? Take note of how timing affected you in this test, and see if you can make small changes to your test-taking approach.
For example, maybe you spent too much time reading the passages in the Reading test and then didn’t actually have time to answer
all the questions. The good news? Every section in this book offers tips on how to efficiently and quickly answer ACT questions. Study
up and, when you take Practice Test 1, you can see if your method improves.

Did I just not know how to answer questions in a particular section?

Maybe you sailed through the Math test but could barely get through a Science test passage. Or maybe the Reading test was a
breeze, but you couldn’t for the life of you remember anything about trigonometry. Whatever your situation, this book has extensive
preparation for it. Now that you have a better understanding of your strengths and weaknesses as they relate to the ACT, you can
customize your study plan.

Did I make careless mistakes or second-guess myself?

Well, first of all, you’re not alone. Testing is hard—you’re under timed conditions and you want to do very well. The best part about
taking on a plan of study with this book is that when you are done, you will be prepared. First, you will know the test inside and out.
This is a very important bit of knowledge, as you won’t even have to stop to read directions or familiarize yourself with the test come
exam day—you will be ready to go! Second, you will have a deeper understanding not only of all the different topics tested on the
ACT, but also how the exam presents them (the language it uses and how it asks questions). The key to excelling on the ACT is to
speak the language of the test maker, and that’s what we’re here to help you do.

No matter what challenges you faced on the diagnostic test, there’s a section in this book to help you overcome them. Stay focused,
commit the time, and take your practice tests—if you do that, you give yourself the best chance to get the score you want on
the ACT.

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