Proper Observance of Exam Guidelines
Proper Observance of Exam Guidelines
12026/1/2017-P&AR(GSW)
GOVERNMENT OF MIZORAM
DEPARTMENT OF PERSONNEL & ADMINISTRATIVE REFORMS
(GENERAL SERVICE WING)
Mizoram Secretariat,
Aizawl, the 13th November, 2019
OFFICE MEMORANDUM
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recruitment for Group ‘D’ posts i.e. written examination – 100 marks and
personal interview – 100 marks;
f) insertion of new provisions in Appendix-I to ascertain whether or not a
candidate is a person of benchmarked disability and whether or not a
candidate belonging to the category of person of benchmarked disability wanted
to avail the services of scribe for writing the examination;
g) substitution of relevant provisions in Appendix-II, Appendix-III and Appendix-IV
relating to grant to compensatory time for persons with benchmarked disability
i.e. compensatory time of 20 minutes per hour for persons with benchmarked
disability;
h) substitution of the provisions pertaining to the syllabus for direct recruitment
to Group ‘C’ posts in Appendix-IV specifically for direct recruitment to such
Group ‘C’ posts viz. Driver Grade-III/Conductor Grade-III, etc. wherein
Computer proficiency is not essential as per the Mizoram Group ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’
posts Service/Recruitment (Amendment) Rules, 2016 i.e. the subject in the
table pertaining to Paper-II viz. “Basic Computer knowledge (50 questions)”
shall be replaced with “General intelligence and reasoning (50 questions)”;
i) substitution of the provisions in Appendix-VIII pertaining to the format of the
answer paper;
j) insertion of a new Appendix-XIV regarding certificate pertaining to physical
limitation of a candidate belonging to the category of persons of benchmarked
disability to write;
k) insertion of a new Appendix-XV regarding letter of undertaking for a candidate
belonging to the category of persons of benchmarked disability for using own
scribe;
a) Any reference to the term “pay band and grade pay” in these guidelines
should now be construed as “level in the pay matrix” corresponding to
the Seventh Central Revision of Pay (as modified and extended to the
employees of the Government of Mizoram) Rules, 2018
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21.02.2017. [dpar.mizoram.gov.in OM/Notifications Recruitment
rules].
d) The age limit of candidates for direct recruitment under these guidelines
should also be duly advertised as prescribed in the relevant recruitment
rules. However, age relaxations for different categories of persons have
been notified by the Government vide No.A-12011/1/2019-P&AR(GSW)
dt. 03.06.2019 and published in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary
issue No. 375 dt. 10.06.2019 [dpar.mizoram.gov.in OM/Notifications
Age limit]. These age relaxations are applicable whenever the
respective recruitment rules have the saving clause which specifically
stated that nothing in the recruitment rules shall affect relaxation of age
limit and other concessions required to be provided for the Scheduled
Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, the Ex-servicemen and other special
categories of persons in accordance with the order issued by the
Government of Mizoram from time to time in this regard. Whenever the
recruitment rules do not have the saving clause as mentioned above, the
age limit for direct recruitment shall be determined as per the provisions
of the respective recruitment rules without any relaxations.
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recruiting departments are advised to follow these instructions with a
view to simplify the process of submission of application forms for
ordinary citizens.
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which are to be placed by the recruiting department before the
Departmental Promotion Committee at the time of personal interview:
4. References have been received from certain quarters with regard to the
recruitment of Driver Grade-III whether or not the marks obtained by the candidates
in the skills tests conducted by the Motor Vehicle Inspector in (a) driving, (b) traffic
signal test, (c) road signs, (d) practical knowledge of the components and mechanism
of all types of vehicles as mandated under the Mizoram Driver (Group ‘B’ and ‘C’
posts) Recruitment Rules, 2018 is to be counted for determination of the final order of
merit. In this context, it may be clarified that skills test conducted for recruitment of
Driver Grade-III, as per the provisions of paragraph 14(2) of these guidelines, are
qualifying in nature only and any marks whatsoever obtained by the candidates in
these tests shall not be added to determine the final order of merit unless otherwise
specifically provided in the recruitment rules. It may further be stated that for direct
recruitment to Driver Grade-III, including Conductor Grade-III, wherein Computer
proficiency is not essential, the syllabus for written examination in Paper-II viz. “Basic
Computer knowledge (50 questions)” shall be replaced with “General intelligence and
reasoning (50 questions)”. In addition, it may also be stated that the post of Driver
Grade-III is neither a technical post nor a specialised post and hence, there appears to
be no requirement of conducting written examination in Paper-III of Appendix-IV of the
common syllabus for direct recruitment to Group ‘C’ posts.
Sd/- LALRINSANGA
Joint Secretary to the Govt. of Mizoram
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ANNEXURE-I
No.A.12026/1/2017-P&AR(GSW)
GOVERNMENT OF MIZORAM
DEPARTMENT OF PERSONNEL & ADMINISTRATIVE REFORMS
(GENERAL SERVICE WING)
NOTIFICATION1
Aizawl, dated the 9th February, 2018
2. Definitions:
(1) In these Guidelines, unless the context otherwise requires :
(a) “Assistant Supervisor” means the official appointed to assist the Centre
Supervisor to ensure smooth conduct of examination
(b) “Centre” means the city/town allotted for holding examination under
these Guidelines
(c) “Centre Supervisor” means the official appointed to supervise examination
at a Centre acting as a link with the recruiting Department
(d) “Constitution” means the Constitution of India
(e) “Departmental Promotion Committee” means the Departmental Promotion
Committee duly constituted by the Government from time to time
(f) “Examination” means the examination conducted by the recruiting
Department for direct recruitment to services/posts outside the purview of
Mizoram Public Service Commission
(g) “Examination Branch” means the branch/section of the recruiting
Department handling establishment and/or general administration in the
Department and which is entrusted with the task of conducting
recruitment
(h) “Government” means the Government of Mizoram
(i) “Invigilator” means the official appointed to perform invigilation work at a
Centre
1
The principal guidelines were first notified in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.69 dated 15.02.2018
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(j) “Scheduled Caste” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it under
clause 24 of article 366 of the Constitution
(k) “Scheduled Tribe” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it under
clause 25 of article 366 of the Constitution
(l) “Venue” means the institution viz. School, College, Hall, etc allotted for
conduct of examination under these Guidelines
(2) Any other words and expressions used in these Guidelines but not defined
herein shall have the same meaning respectively assigned to them in the
respective Service Rules/Recruitment Rules/Examination Regulations.
3. Application:
(1) 2[These Guidelines shall apply to direct recruitment for services/posts under
the Government of Mizoram, which falls outside the purview of Mizoram Public
Service Commission and Mizoram Subordinate Services Selection Board,
including recruitment on Muster Roll/Contract/Work-charged basis.]
(2) These Guidelines shall also apply to direct recruitment for services/posts under
Centrally Sponsored Schemes and such other Scheme-borne posts unless
anything contrary is prescribed in the relevant Acts/Rules/
Regulations/Guidelines governing such Schemes.
(3) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-clause (1) of these Guidelines,
recruitment of staff on co-terminus basis such as personal staff of Ministers,
Household Peons for Officers in Mizoram Secretariat, etc shall stand exempted.
2
Substituted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019
notified in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
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h) Last date of submission of application form
i) Name of Office where application forms can be obtained and submitted
j) Any other relevant information as desired by the recruiting Department
(5) Candidates shall pay the application fees as prescribed by the Government
from time to time for appearing in the examination
(6) The format of common application form for direct recruitment shall be as per
Appendix-I which may be added/modified by the Department concerned to suit
the particular requirement of the services/post(s) being advertised
(7) Suitable instructions for payment of application fees and filling up of the
application form may be issued by the recruiting Department as per
requirements on a case to case basis
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by the competent authority at the time of the personal interview.
(3) Candidates who have been declared successful in the examination on the basis
of forged documents/fake documents shall be summarily disqualified and
his/her name shall be deleted from the list of successful candidates and the
first name on the reserved panel, if any, shall be declared as the successful
candidate.
7. Document for ascertaining the date of birth: The date of birth as recorded in
confirmatory documentary evidences such as High School Leaving Certificate or Birth
Certificate or any other document as specified by the Government in DP&AR from
time to time shall be used as proof for determining the age of the candidate for
examinations under these Guidelines.
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(2) There shall be a common syllabus for direct recruitment to all Group ‘B’ posts
under the Government of Mizoram as per Appendix-III unless anything contrary
is prescribed in the relevant Service Rules/Recruitment Rules/Examination
Regulations provided the services/posts are placed outside the purview of the
Commission as per the Mizoram Public Service Commission (Limitation of
Functions) Regulations, 1994 as amended
(3) There shall be a common syllabus for direct recruitment to all Group ‘C’ posts
under the Government of Mizoram as per Appendix-IV unless anything contrary
is provided in the relevant Service Rules/Recruitment Rules/Examination
Regulations
(4) There shall be a common syllabus for direct recruitment to all Group ‘D’ posts
under the Government of Mizoram as per Appendix-V unless anything contrary
is provided in the relevant Service Rules/Recruitment Rules/Examination
Regulations
(1) The Physical Efficiency Test or Skills Test shall be conducted as prescribed in
the Service Rules/Recruitment Rules and these tests shall not be treated as a
Personal Interview.
(2) The Physical Efficiency Test or Skills Test shall be qualifying in nature only and
any marks whatsoever obtained by the candidates in these tests shall not be
added to determine the final order of merit
(3) The Physical Efficiency Test shall be conducted by the recruiting Department
before the conduct of written examination and candidates who are declared to
have passed such tests as prescribed by the Service Rules/Recruitment Rules
only shall be allowed to write the written examination
(4) 3[Skills Test shall be conducted by the recruiting Department after the conduct
of written examination and candidates thrice the number of candidates to be
called for personal interview shall be called for the Skills Test. Candidates who
fail to meet the minimum standard in the Skills Test as prescribed by the
Service Rules/Recruitment Rules shall not be called for Personal Interview
before the Departmental Promotion Committee. The number of candidates to be
3
Substituted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019
notified in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
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called for personal interview after conduct of written examination and Skills
Test should be as per the criteria laid down in Para 33 of these Guidelines.]
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(5) Copies of the final question papers, as far as practicable, will be printed only
one week before the commencement of the examination
(6) Once the question papers are printed under the guidance of the Head of
Department, the number of copies printed will be verified and packed in a
confidential bag and properly sealed.
(7) The sealed packets should be kept in safe custody either at the Treasury Strong
Room or in the Chest of the Department.
(8) On each day of the examination, the Centre Supervisor shall take out the
question papers from the Treasury Strong Room or from the Chest of the
Department
(9) The sealed packets of question papers should not be opened earlier than 30
minutes before the time fixed for the commencement of the examination. The
sealed packets should be opened in the presence of at least two Invigilators in
the prescribed form.
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19. Arrangement for the examination:
(1) The Centre Supervisor shall complete all the seating arrangements of the
candidates and its connected matters such as writing of roll numbers on the
table/desks, preparation and display of seating plans, etc. one day prior to the
examination.
(2) Posters, charts, maps, proverbs, etc. on the walls of the Examination
Hall/Room, if any, should either be removed or covered.
(3) Electrical fittings, fans and lights in the Examination Hall/Room should be
ensured to be in working condition
(4) Furniture available in the Examination Hall/Room should be of good quality
and standard size. Furniture meant for small children should not be used.
(5) Proper arrangements for keeping books, bags, mobile phones etc. of
candidates at the entrance of premises under the charge of a suitable official
should be made.
(6) Proper arrangements for frisking of candidates at the entry to the venue by
Police Personnel on the day of the examination should be made. For this
purpose, the Head of Department/Centre Supervisor should liaise with the
Local Police Authorities etc. well in advance of the date of examination.
(7) Copies of important instructions to be followed by the candidate (in detail as
well as in poster form) should be displayed at prominent places to enable the
candidates to read them
(8) The seats should be so arranged that candidates, when seated, shall face in
one direction only and placed at a distance of approximately 3 feet from one
another so as to prevent copying, prompting or adopting of unfair practices.
(9) It should be ensured that there is adequate space not only between rows but
also between seats.
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21. Distribution of Answer Papers to Candidates:
(1) One Answer Paper as per the specimen at Appendix- VIII should be supplied to
each candidate present 10 minutes before the commencement of examination in
each session. The candidates shall write with black or blue ball point pen their
centre, subject/paper, Question Paper series (in case of Multiple Choice
Objective Type pattern), Roll Number and put their signature at the appropriate
space provided for at the top of the Answer paper.
(2) Invigilators will distribute Answer Paper to the candidates present only
(3) Invigilator should append his signature/initial at the appropriate space provided
in the Answer paper after verifying the entries made by the candidate on the
answer paper.
(4) Candidates will mark responses themselves in the Answer Paper by blackening
completely the correct circle (a or b or c or d) by Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in
case of Multiple Choice Objective Type pattern.
(5) All the copies of the Answer papers supplied to the candidates should be treated
as scripts irrespective of whether the candidates have marked their answers or
not
(6) All spare copies of unused Answer papers should be returned to the Head of
Department by the Centre Supervisor at the end of the examination.
(7) No candidate should be allowed to take away the Answer paper with him. To
ensure this, the Invigilators/Assistant Supervisors should close the doors of
each Examination Room/Hall five minutes before completion of each session of
the examination and allow the candidates to leave the Examination Room/Hall
only after Answer Scripts are collected from all the candidates and are properly
accounted for.
(8) All spare copies of Answer Papers should be collected from each Invigilator by
the Centre Supervisor immediately after 10 minutes of the commencement of
the examination in each session and should be kept in the personal custody of
Centre Supervisor duly packed and sealed
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distribution of Question Papers should be reported to the Head of Department
separately.
(5) If any candidate reports any unprinted or torn or missing page(s) or item(s) etc.
in the Question Papers supplied to him/her, it should be got replaced with
another complete Question Papers of the same series in case of Multiple Choice
Objective Type pattern.
(6) The spare copies of the Question Papers should be collected by the Centre
Supervisor from each Invigilator immediately after ten minutes of
commencement of examination in each session
(7) The unused Question Papers should be sealed forthwith and kept by the Centre
Supervisor in his personal custody
(8) If any candidate brings to notice any unprinted or torn or missing page(s) or
item(s) in his Question Papers, the same should be replaced by another
complete Question Papers of the same series by opening the sealed packets in
case of Multiple Choice Objective Type pattern. This opened packet should be
sealed again immediately thereafter
(9) If any candidate raises a doubt about any apparent mistake/ambiguity or
anomaly about any item in the Question Papers, he/she may be advised to
answer the item as it is and make a representation to the Head of Department
within 5 days from the date of completion of the examination. The
representation should indicate the name of the examination, name of the
candidate, his roll number, name of subject/paper, centre, series of the
Question Papers (in case of Multiple Choice Objective Type pattern), serial
number of the items and nature of mistake/ambiguity.
(10) A copy of the Question Papers should not be retained by the Supervisor or the
Assistant Supervisor(s) or the Invigilators and no Question Paper is taken out of
the Examination Hall/Room for any purpose whatsoever until conclusion of the
examination in each session.
(11) The candidates should be permitted to take away the Question Papers issued to
them after the conclusion of the examination.
(12) The candidates should not be permitted to take with them into the Examination
Halls/Room the Question Papers thus distributed to them in the earlier
session, in the next session of examination.
(13) Question Papers are very sensitive documents and the Centre Supervisor is
personally responsible for their complete accountability.
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append his/her signature in the relevant column in Blue or Black Ball Point
pen.
(4) After the above particulars are filled in by the candidate, the Invigilator shall
append his/her signature in Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the space provided
for the purpose.
(5) In respect of candidates who are absent, the Invigilator shall mark them as
absent, by writing the letter ‘A’ with Blue or Black Ball Point Pen and also
append his/her signature for such candidates in Blue or Black Ball Point Pen.
Invigilators should not fill details of Question Paper series (in case of Multiple
Choice Objective Type pattern) in the Attendance List in respect of such absent
candidates.
(6) In case a candidate who is absent in the first session appears in a subsequent
session of the examination, he may be allowed to appear notwithstanding the
fact that he has not appeared in the first session. The Attendance List should
be filled accordingly.
(7) The Centre Supervisor shall be responsible for collection of all the pages of
Attendance List from the Invigilators and maintain a proper account of the
same. Further, he/she should indicate the total number of candidates
registered, present and absent at the end of Attendance List. He/she shall also
append his signature in Blue or Black Ball Point Pen on each sheet within the
space provided for the purpose at the bottom of the Attendance List.
4
Sub paragraph (6) of paragraph 24 deleted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination)
(Amendment) Guidelines, 2019 notified in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
17 | P a g e
(10) The candidates must attempt questions in accordance with the directions on
each question paper. If the questions are attempted in excess of the prescribed
number, only the questions attempted first up to the prescribed number shall
be evaluated and the remaining ignored.
(11) Candidate(s) detected in using unfair means or communicating with one
another or found in possession of unauthorised books, papers, mobile phones,
pagers, digital diaries, calculators, etc. during the examination shall be expelled
and their names struck off the rolls. They will be liable to be debarred from
applying for all future examinations and selection to be conducted by the
Government.
(12) No candidate shall leave the Examination Hall/Room without prior permission
of the Invigilator. If the candidate has to answer the call of nature, he may be
allowed to leave the Examination Hall/Room accompanied by the Invigilator
himself.
(13) Silence must be observed at all time in the Examination Hall/Room
(14) Smoking in the Examination Hall/Room is strictly prohibited.
(15) The candidates must abide by such instructions as may be specified on the
cover of the Answer Paper or instructions to candidates given at the back of the
Admit Card. If a candidate fails to do so or indulges in improper conduct,
he/she will render himself/herself liable to expulsion from the examination or
such other punishment as the Department deemed fit to impose.
(16) Any candidate found to be intoxicated with alcohol and/or psychotropic
substances will be expelled from the Examination Hall/Room
(17) Any candidate who applies for his/her Marks should enclose original copy of
Admit Card.
(18) Examination centre once opted cannot be changed.
(19) Answer scripts of candidates who do not complete the examination will not be
evaluated.
(20) Wrongly numbered or unnumbered answers will not be evaluated.
(1) The facility of scribe/reader are allowed to any person with benchmarked
disability as defined in section 2 (r) of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
Act, 2016 and has limitation in writing including that of speed, if so desired by
the person. In case of persons with benchmarked disabilities in the category of
blindness, locomotor disability (both arm affected –BA) and cerebral palsy, the
facility of scribe/reader shall be given, if so desired by the person. In case of
other category of persons with benchmarked disabilities, the provision of
scribe/reader is also allowed on production of a certificate to the effect that the
person concerned has physical limitation to write, and scribe is essential to
write examination on his behalf, from the Chief Medical Officer/Medical
Superintendent/Civil Surgeon of a Government health care institution as per
the proforma at Appendix-XIV.
5
Inserted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019 notified in
the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
18 | P a g e
(2) The candidates have the discretion of opting for his own scribe/reader or
request the recruiting Department for the same. The expenses for engagement
of the own scribe/reader are to be borne by the candidate himself/herself. The
recruiting Department may identify scribe/reader to make panels in advance as
per the requirement of the examination. In such instances, the candidates are
allowed to meet the scribe/reader two days before the examination so that the
candidates get a chance to check and verify whether the scribe/reader is
suitable or not.
(3) In case the recruiting Department provides the scribe/reader, it shall be
ensured that the qualification of the scribe/reader should not be more than the
minimum qualification criteria of the examination. However, the qualification of
the scribe/reader should always be Matriculate or above. In case the candidate
is allowed to bring his own scribe, the qualification of the scribe should be one
step below the qualification of the candidate taking the examination. The
persons with benchmarked disabilities opting for own scribe/reader should
submit details of the own scribe as per proforma at Appendix-XV
(4) Scribe/reader may be changed in case of emergency. The candidates are also
allowed to take more than one scribe/reader for writing different papers
especially for languages. However, there can be only one scribe per subject.
(5) Persons with benchmarked disabilities should be given, as far as possible, the
option of choosing the mode for taking the examination i.e. in large print or
Braille or even by recording the answers. The recruiting Department should, as
far as possible, ensure availability of question papers in the format opted by the
candidate
(6) In case of Skills Test which requires examination on computer system, persons
with benchmarked disabilities are allowed to check the computer system one
day in advance so that problems, if any, in the software/system could be
rectified. Use of own laptop/computer should not be allowed for taking
examination. However, enabling accessories for the computer based Skills Test
such as keyboard, customised mouse, etc. should be allowed.
(7) The disability certificate issued by the competent medical authority at any place
should be accepted across the country
(8) Compensatory time of 20 minutes per hour of examination shall be provided for
persons with benchmarked disabilities who are allowed the use of
scribe/reader. All candidates with benchmarked disability not availing the
facility of scribe may also be allowed additional time of minimum one hour for
examination of 3 hours duration. In case the duration of examination is less
than an hour, then, the duration of additional time should be allowed on pro-
rata basis. Additional time should not be less than 5 minutes and should be in
multiples of 5.
(9) Candidates are allowed the use of assistive devices like tailor frame, Braille
slate, abacus, geometry kit, Braille measuring tape and augmentative
communication devices like communication chart and electronic devices.
However, such communication devices shall not be used for communication
with persons outside the examination hall during the examination hours.
(10) The seating arrangement of candidates belonging to persons with benchmarked
disability shall be made separately in a separate room on the ground floor of
the examination hall. In case of persons with benchmarked disability availing
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the services of scribe, only five candidates shall be seated in a single room – one
each in the four corners of the room and one in the centre of the room. The
seating arrangement of persons with benchmarked disabilities who do not need
the services of scribe can be done in a normal manner as per the seat plan at
Appendix-VII.
(11) The time of distribution of question papers should be scrupulously followed
and timely supply of supplementary papers, if required, should be ensured.
(12) Alternative objective type multiple choice questions in lieu of descriptive
questions should be provided for hearing impaired persons. Similarly,
alternative objective type multiple choice questions in lieu of questions
requiring visual inputs should be provided for visually impaired persons]
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b) To announce that violation of these instructions shall entail disciplinary
action including ban from future examinations.
c) To position himself/herself at the entry point (main gate) of the venue
where frisking of candidates will be done, for all sessions of the
examination, to prevent candidates from carrying banned items in the
examination Hall/Rooms.
d) To carry out inspection of halls/rooms, toilets, etc. to prevent the
possession and use of any such device during the course of the
examination.
e) To ensure that banned devices/items are not kept in Examination
Halls/Rooms and that arrangement have been made at the entrance of
the venue to deposit the banned devices which may be returned to the
candidates on the conclusion of the examination
f) To ensure that candidates are allowed to take with them only pen, Admit
Card and any other items as specified in the instructions appended to
the Admit Card.
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(12) On receipt of the sealed packet(s) of question papers from the Centre
Supervisor, the Invigilators, using Form B (Appendix-XI) shall open it in their
respective rooms.
(13) If any query is raised by the candidates on the correctness of the questions or
otherwise, the Invigilator shall not give any clarification by himself/herself, but
report the matter to Centre Supervisor.
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number shall be evaluated and the remaining ignored.
(9) Wrongly numbered or unnumbered answers should not be evaluated
30. Final report of Centre Supervisor: As soon as the written examination is over,
the Centre Supervisor shall submit a final report to the Head of Department of the
recruiting Department as per the format at Appendix-XIII along with the following
items:
(a) Any unused Answer papers, additional sheets and other articles
(b) Attendance Lists showing the candidate’s signature
(c) List of expelled candidates, if any
(d) Confidential Report on the conduct of examination at the Centre
31. Re-evaluation: After the declaration of the final result, re-evaluation of answer
papers/scripts for examinations conducted under these Guidelines shall not be
permitted under any circumstances
32. Remuneration: The rate of remuneration for Officials engaged for conduct of
examinations under these Guidelines shall be as follows until altered by the
Government:
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Rules/Recruitment Rules may be silent on the matter and unless there is
anything contrary in the relevant Service Rules/Recruitment
Rules/Examination Regulations.
(2) The objective of a Personal Interview is to assess the suitability of a candidate
for the service/post to which he/she has been called for interview. The test is
intended to judge the mental calibre of a candidate and some of the qualities to
be judged during the course of interview are mental alertness, clear and logical
exposition, balance of judgement, variety and depth of interest, ability for social
cohesion and leadership, intellectual and moral integrity.
(3) The interview should not be conducted as a strict cross-examination exercise
but of a natural, though directed and purposive, conversation which is
intended to reveal the mental qualities of the candidate.
(4) Candidates will be called for Personal Interview on the basis of their
performance in the written examination provided the candidates qualified in the
Physical Efficiency Tests/Skills Tests, if any, prescribed in the relevant Service
Rules/Recruitment Rules.
(5) The Chairman of the Departmental Promotion Committee, in case of
recruitment to services/posts requiring technical knowledge and expertise,
shall have the authority to appoint a Technical Expert of high integrity and
experience to assess the candidate in their field of expertise in the Personal
Interview.
(6) In order to uphold the principles of impartiality and ensure elimination of every
element of bias, Chairman or Member or Technical Expert, if any, of the duly
constituted Departmental Promotion Committee whose close relatives are being
considered for personal interview should recuse themselves from the
deliberations of the Departmental Promotion Committee for such particular
candidate who happens to be their close relatives.
(7) 6[The number of candidates to be called for personal interview shall be three
times the number of vacant posts unless anything contrary is prescribed in the
relevant service rules/recruitment rules/ examination regulations.
Provided that the number of candidates to be called for personal interview for
direct recruitment to the post of Group ‘D’ shall be 5 (five) times the number of
vacant post]
(8) If there is more than one candidate who secured equal marks in the written
examination and stood at the limited last serial number of the eligible
candidate for Personal Interview as per the norms set out in sub-clause (7)
above, the eldest of such candidates will be called for Personal Interview.
(9) The marks allotted for Personal Interview shall be fixed in relation to the total
marks in the written examination as shown in the Table below unless anything
contrary is prescribed in the relevant Service Rules/Recruitment
Rules/Examination Regulations
6
Substituted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019
notified in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
24 | P a g e
Total marks in written Marks for Personal Interview
examination
200 25
400 50
600 75
800 100
7[Provided that the mark allotted to written examination and personal interview
for direct recruitment to the post of Group ‘D’ shall be 100 marks each, with
the total marks being 200]
(10) The Departmental Promotion Committee shall award marks based on a fair
and impartial assessment considering the various qualities mentioned in sub-
clause (2) above. Marks are to be awarded on an overall basis and not on
individual qualities separately. Moreover, marks are to be awarded to the
candidate by the Departmental Promotion Committee on consensus and not
individually.
(11) Marks awarded to a candidate appearing in the Personal Interview shall not be
less than 40% of the total marks allotted for Interview and generally not more
than 80% of the total marks allotted for Interview.
(12) In cases where the number of applicants for a service/post is less than the
number of candidates to be called for interview as per the norms set out at sub-
clause (7) above, recruitment would be done by means of Personal Interview
only and, notwithstanding anything in sub-clause (9) above, it will carry a
maximum mark of 100.
7
Inserted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019 notified in
the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
25 | P a g e
(5) The reserved panel prepared by the Departmental Promotion Committee shall
become null and void upon finalisation of selection for filling up of subsequent
vacancies in the same service/post.
36. Penalty for misconduct: A candidate who is or has been declared by the
Department to be guilty of:
26 | P a g e
38. General: The Government in Personnel & Administrative Reforms Department
shall be competent to issue detailed instructions in regard to all matters connected
with the conduct of examinations falling beyond the purview of Mizoram Public
Service Commission, provided that such instructions are not inconsistent with these
Guidelines.
By order, etc.
Sd/- LALMALSAWMA
Chief Secretary to the Government of Mizoram
27 | P a g e
APPENDIX-I
Passport size
photo to be affixed
28 | P a g e
10) Educational and other : 1. ____________________________________________
qualifications as 2. ____________________________________________
prescribed in the 3. ____________________________________________
advertisement (attach self
4. ____________________________________________
attested photocopy of the
supporting document)
8
Inserted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019 notified in
the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
9
Ibid.
10
Ibid.
29 | P a g e
DECLARATION
I hereby declare that the information given above and in the enclosed
documents is true to the best of my knowledge and belief and nothing has been
concealed therein. I understand that if the information given by me is proved false/not
true, I will have to face the punishment as per the law. Also, all the benefits availed by
me shall be summarily withdrawn.
Place :
Date :
(Signature of the candidate)
Date :
Signature : ________________________
Designation : _______________________
(Office Seal)
30 | P a g e
APPENDIX-II
Paper-I
Total marks : 200
Duration: 3 hours
(a) Current events of national and international importance
(b) History of India and Indian National Movement
(c) Indian and World Geography - Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India
and the World
(d) Indian Polity and Governance - Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj,
Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
(e) Economic and Social Development Sustainable Development, Poverty,
Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector initiatives, etc.
(f) General issues on Environmental Ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change -
that do not require subject specialization
(g) General Science
(h) General awareness on Mizo culture, its heritage and society
Paper-II
Total marks : 200
Duration: 3 hours
a) Comprehension
b) Interpersonal skills including communication skills
c) Logical reasoning and analytical ability
d) Decision-making and problem-solving
e) General mental ability
f) Basic computer knowledge
g) Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc.), Data
interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc.) (Class X level)
h) English Language Comprehension skills (Class XII level)
Paper-III
31 | P a g e
Paper-IV
Total marks : 200
Duration: 3 hours
Notes:
1) Questions for Paper-I and Paper-II shall be set in Objective Type Multiple Choice
pattern only with all questions carrying equal marks i.e. 2 marks each and
answers for each of the questions shall be marked using blue or black ball point
pen. In other words, there shall be multiple probable answers (at least four)
wherein the candidate has to choose the correct answer for every objective type
question.
2) Two other Papers viz. Paper-III and Paper-IV are only meant for certain technical/
specialised posts and such other posts wherein the Recruitment Rules/Service
Rules prescribed technical/special qualifications which merits conduct of
examination in the knowledge of concerned technical/specialised subject. If there
are no such technical/specialised requirements, written examination shall be held
using Paper-I and Paper-II only.
3) The number and pattern of questions for Paper-III and Paper-IV either Objective
Type Multiple Choice pattern or Conventional Essay Type pattern shall be at the
discretion of the concerned recruiting Department which shall notify the pattern
well in advance
4) Questions will be set in tune with the level of educational qualifications prescribed
in the corresponding Recruitment Rules/Service Rules for the post(s)
5) 11[Compensatory time of 20 minutes per hour of examination shall be provided for
persons with benchmarked disabilities who are allowed the use of scribe/reader.
All candidates with benchmarked disability not availing the facility of scribe may
also be allowed additional time of minimum one hour for examination of 3 hours
duration]
11
Substituted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019
notified in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
32 | P a g e
APPENDIX-III
Notes:
12
Substituted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019
notified in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
13
Ibid.
14
Ibid.
33 | P a g e
1) Questions shall be set in Objective Type Multiple Choice pattern only except for
essay writing and English comprehension under Paper-I with all questions
carrying equal marks and answers for each of the questions shall be marked
using blue or black ball point pen. In other words, there shall be multiple
probable answers (at least four) wherein the candidate has to choose the correct
answer for every objective type question.
2) Questions will be set in tune with the level of educational qualifications prescribed
in the corresponding Recruitment Rules/Service Rules for the post(s).
3) A brief description of the common syllabus for direct recruitment to Group ‘B’
posts is as follows:
Paper-I
Essay Writing: Question on essay writing will be designed to test the candidate’s
grasp of his material, its relevance to the subject chosen, and to his ability to think
constructively and to present his ideas logically, constructively and concisely.
Paper-II
Basic Computer knowledge: Introduction to Computers, introduction to Graphical
user interface based Operating System, elements of Word Processing, Spreadsheets,
Power point presentations, Computer communication and internet, world wide web
and web browser, communication and collaboration.
34 | P a g e
General Intelligence & Reasoning: It would include questions of both verbal and non
-verbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and
differences, spatial visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis,
judgement, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship
concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series,
non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning
etc
Paper-III
35 | P a g e
APPENDIX-IV
Notes:
1) Questions shall be set in Objective Type Multiple Choice pattern only except for
essay writing and English comprehension under Paper-I with all questions
carrying equal marks and answers for each of the questions shall be marked
15
Substituted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019
notified in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
16
Ibid.
17
Ibid.
36 | P a g e
using blue or black ball point pen. In other words, there shall be multiple
probable answers (at least four) wherein the candidate has to choose the correct
answer for every objective type question.
2) 18[Questions will be set in tune with the level of educational qualifications
prescribed in the corresponding Recruitment Rules/Service Rules for the post(s).
For direct recruitment to such Group ‘C’ posts viz. Driver Grade-III/Conductor
Grade-III, etc. wherein Computer proficiency is not essential as per the Mizoram
Group ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ posts Service/Recruitment (Amendment) Rules, 2016, the
subject in the table pertaining to Paper-II viz. “Basic Computer knowledge (50
questions)” shall be replaced with “General intelligence and reasoning (50
questions)]
3) A brief description of the common syllabus for direct recruitment to Group ‘C’
posts is as follows:
Paper-I
Essay Writing: Question on essay writing will be designed to test the candidate’s
grasp of his material, its relevance to the subject chosen, and to his ability to think
constructively and to present his ideas logically, constructively and concisely.
Paper-II
Simple Arithmetic: Number system, simplification, roots, averages, discounts,
percentages, profit & loss, ratio and proportion, partnership, chain rule, time & work,
time & distance, simple & compound interest, mensuration, permutations &
combinations, heights & distances, line graphs, bar graphs, pie charts and tabulation.
18
Substituted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019
notified in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
37 | P a g e
Power point presentations, Computer communication and internet, world wide web
and web browser, communication and collaboration.
19[General Intelligence & Reasoning: It would include questions of both verbal and
non-verbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and
differences, spatial visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis,
judgement, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship
concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series,
non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning
etc. (This specific syllabus will be applicable for direct recruitment to such Group ‘C’
posts wherein Computer proficiency is not essential as per the Mizoram Group ‘A’, ‘B’
and ‘C’ posts Service/Recruitment (Amendment) Rules, 2016)]
Paper-III
19
Inserted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019 notified
in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
38 | P a g e
APPENDIX-V
Notes:
1) Questions shall be set in Objective Type Multiple Choice pattern only with all
questions carrying equal marks and answers for each of the questions shall be
marked using blue or black ball point pen. In other words, there shall be multiple
probable answers (at least four) wherein the candidate has to choose the correct
answer for every objective type question.
2) Questions will be set in tune with the level of educational qualifications prescribed
in the corresponding Recruitment Rules/Service Rules for the post(s).
3) A brief description of the common syllabus for direct recruitment to Group ‘D’
posts is as follows:
Paper-I
20
Substituted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019
notified in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
39 | P a g e
APPENDIX-VI
Passport size
photo to be affixed
ADMIT
Mr/Ms ____________________________________________________________
Roll Number_____________________________ to the examination for recruitment to
the post of ____________________________________ under ______________________
Department
40 | P a g e
f) 21[Deleted]
g) Answers must be written/marked using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen and
pencils should not be used unless drawing of maps, diagrams, etc is required
h) Particulars/Details to be filled up in the answer paper should be filled up
completely and correctly, answer scripts of candidates failing to do so will not
be evaluated.
i) Candidates must attempt questions in accordance with the directions on each
question paper. If questions are attempted in excess of the prescribed number,
only the questions attempted first up to the prescribed number shall be
evaluated and the remaining ignored.
j) Answer scripts of candidates who do not complete the examination will not be
evaluated.
k) Wrongly numbered or un-numbered answers will not be evaluated.
l) Any candidate who applies for his/her Marks should enclose original or
attested copy of Admit Card.
m) Candidates detected in using unfair means or communicating with one another
or found in possession of unauthorised books, papers, mobile phones, pagers,
digital diaries, calculators, etc. during the examination shall be expelled and
their names struck off the rolls. They will be liable to be debarred from applying
for all future examinations and selection to be conducted by the Department.
n) No candidate shall leave the Examination Hall/Room without prior permission
of the Invigilator.
21
Deleted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019 notified in
the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
41 | P a g e
APPENDIX-VII
SEAT PLAN
SUBJECT/PAPER : ____________________________________________
INVIGILATOR’S SEAT
HORIZONTAL
1st ROW 2nd
ROW 3rd ROW 4th ROW
Roll No. Series Roll No. Series Roll No. Series Roll No. Series
VERTICAL
01 A 07 C 13 A 19 C
02 B 08 D 14 B 20 D
03 C 09 A 15 C 21 A
04 D 10 B 16 D 22 B
05 A 11 C 17 A 23 C
06 B 12 D 18 B 24 D
Notes:
a) Sufficient copies of Seat Plan shall be prepared by the Centre Supervisor for a)
display at every venue b) the Invigilators c) the Head of Department
b) The Seat Plan should be displayed at every venue where the examination is
held
c) The Roll Number of the candidates in the Seat Plan should be neatly typed
instead of being written by hand
d) The Series of Question Papers (in case of Multiple Choice Objective Type
pattern) should not be written in the Seat Plan to be displayed in the venue
e) The Roll Numbers of the absent candidates should be encircled immediately
after 10 minutes from the commencement of the examination so as to
distinguish them from the candidates present
42 | P a g e
22[APPENDIX-VIII
To be cut at the line given below by the Examination Branch after proper coding of the answer
papers
ANSWER PAPER
22
Substituted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019
notified in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
43 | P a g e
Answers Answers Answers Answers
1 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 26 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 51 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 76 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
2 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 27 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 52 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 77 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
3 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 28 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 53 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 78 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
4 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 29 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 54 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 79 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
5 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 30 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 55 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 80 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
6 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 31 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 56 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 81 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
7 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 32 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 57 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 82 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
8 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 33 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 58 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 83 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
9 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 34 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 59 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 84 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
10 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 35 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 60 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 85 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
11 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 36 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 61 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 86 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
12 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 37 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 62 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 87 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
13 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 38 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 63 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 88 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
14 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 39 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 64 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 89 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
15 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 40 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 65 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 90 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
16 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 41 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 66 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 91 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
17 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 42 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 67 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 92 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
18 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 43 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 68 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 93 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
19 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 44 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 69 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 94 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
20 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 45 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 70 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 95 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
21 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 46 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 71 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 96 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
22 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 47 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 72 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 97 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
23 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 48 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 73 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 98 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
24 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 49 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 74 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 99 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
25 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 50 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 75 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ 100 ⓐ ⓑ ⓒ ⓓ
Notes:
a) Use Blue or Black Ball Point Pen to mark the answers in the Answer Paper
b) The correct answer shall be encircled properly
c) Do not use tick mark ( √ ) to answer the questions
d) Questions on Essay writing, English comprehension and Conventional Essay
Type papers, if any, must be answered in a separate sheet]
44 | P a g e
APPENDIX-IX
ATTENDANCE LISTS
SUBJECT/PAPER : ____________________________________________
Question
Paper Series
Present (A) (B) (C) (D) Signature
Roll Name of Signature of
(P)/ (in case of of
Number candidate Multiple candidate
Absent (A) Invigilator
Choice
Objective
Type only)
45 | P a g e
APPENDIX-X
FORM ‘A’
(To be sent to the Head of the recruiting Department by the Centre Supervisor)
46 | P a g e
APPENDIX-XI
FORM ‘B’
(To be sent to the Head of the recruiting Department through the Centre Supervisor)
47 | P a g e
APPENDIX-XII
TOPSHEET
(To be prepared in duplicate and submitted to the Examination Branch of the recruiting
Department)
SUBJECT/PAPER : ____________________________________________
48 | P a g e
APPENDIX-XIII
1) Name of examination :
2) Name of Centre :
3) Date(s) of examination :
49 | P a g e
23[APPENDIX-XIV
Place :
Date :
23
Inserted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019 notified
in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
50 | P a g e
24[APPENDIX-XV
Place :
Date :
Note: The undertaking should be submitted by the candidate with disability using his
own scribe/reader to the concerned Centre Supervisor on the day of examination
before the start of the examination session.]
24
Inserted by the Mizoram Direct Recruitment (Conduct of Examination) (Amendment) Guidelines, 2019 notified
in the Mizoram Gazette extra ordinary issue No.618 dated 19.09.2019
51 | P a g e
ANNEXURE-II
(2) Number of post(s) reserved for (a) blindness and low :__________
different category of disabilities vision
within the number of post(s)
specified at Sl. No. 5(1) (The (b) deaf and hard of :__________
number of post(s) should be hearing
mentioned category wise and the
category of disability shall be as (c) locomotor disability :__________
per the categories specified in sub- including cerebral
section (1) of section 34 of the palsy, leprosy cured,
RPwD Act, 2016) dwarfism, acid attack
victims and muscular
dystrophy
52 | P a g e
7. Vacancy year of the posts to be filled : ______________________________________
up
Date: ________________
53 | P a g e
ANNEXURE-III
Date: ________________
Note: The list of candidates who qualified for personal interview is to be arranged in
ascending order of the roll number of the candidates
54 | P a g e
ANNEXURE-IV
(Name, designation and signature of Member) (Name, designation and signature of Member)
Notes:
a) Marks obtained by the candidates in the written examination should be furnished
before the DPC at Column (4) of the above table only after completion of the
process of personal interview.
b) Marks are to be awarded to the candidate by the Departmental Promotion
Committee on consensus and not individually as per the provisions in paragraph
33(10) of these guidelines
c) The DPC has the authority, as per paragraph 34(4) of these guidelines, to place
such number of candidates, if necessary, in the reserved panel which shall be valid
for a period of one year for filling up the same vacancies only in case candidates in
the regular panel are not available for appointment on account of declination of
appointment or resignation or death of the recommended candidates. Reserved
panel, if any, shall also be recommended in order of merit as per the tabular format
prescribed above.
55 | P a g e