CONTENTS 

Preface ​ ​ ​2
 
➢ Syllabus and Pattern of the Recruitment ​4
Test 
 
➢ Topics of the Syllabus ​5
 
➢ Employees Provident Fund Organisation- ​6
A Brief 
 
➢ Duties of EO/AO ​7
  
➢ Career Progression in EPFO ​ 0
1
 
➢ Multiple Choice Questions covering : ​ 2
1
Industrial Relations 
Labour laws and  
Social Security in India 
 
➢ ​Labour Reforms in India: A Brief Update ​94
  
➢ Answer Key ​100
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PREFACE 

The ​Union Public Service Commission ​is the apex recruitment

agency in our country. Its examination pattern for Specialist
posts generally consists of two stages namely Recruitment Test
followed by Interview.
The Commission fathoms the depth of knowledge of candidates
at the initial stage through Recruitment Test. Moreover
maintaining accuracy while attempting multiple choice
questions avoids negative marking in the exam. Every exam
being conducted by the UPSC requires a specific approach to its
preparation. First of all, an aspirant is supposed to study quality
study material covering the prescribed syllabus extensively.
Secondly, an intensive practice of the essential questions
pertaining to the topics is an integral part of the same.
In view of the above, this book has been designed covering
three topics namely​ Industrial Relations, Labour Laws and
Social Security in India ​thoroughly through Multiple Choice
Questions.
It is sure that this book will prove to be of immense help to the
aspirants in the accomplishment of their success.
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The book has been designed specifically for the preparation of

the UPSC exam for the post of EO/AO and other similar exams
such as APFC, LEO etc. However, contentwise it is equally useful
for the students pursuing Diploma in Labour Laws or Human
Resource Management.

WISHING YOU ALL THE BEST!!! 

   

​ ​Meenakshi Barua 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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Syllabus & Pattern of the Recruitment Test

The test will be of two hours duration. It will be

objective type carrying around 120 questions with
multiple choices of answer. The medium of the test
will be both Hindi and English. Every wrong answer
will carry a deduction of one-third of the marks
assigned to that question. The candidates shortlisted
based on RT will be called for interview. The RT &
Interview carry weightage in the ratio 75:25.
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Topics of the Syllabus
❖ ​General English- understanding of Language &

workman-like use of words

❖ Indian Freedom Struggle.
❖Current Events and Developmental Issues.
❖Indian Polity & Economy.
❖General Accounting Procedure.
❖Industrial Relations & Labour Laws.
❖General Science & knowledge of computer
applications.
❖General Mental Ability & Quantitative Aptitude.
❖Social Security in India.
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EMPLOYEES’ PROVIDENT FUND ORGANISATION:A BRIEF 

EMPLOYEES’ PROVIDENT FUND ORGANISATION (EPFO),

INDIA is a Social Security Organisation working under the
Ministry of Labour & Employment, Govt. of India. It
administers three schemes namely ​Employees’ Provident
Fund Scheme,1952, Employees’ Pension Scheme,1995&
Employees’ Deposit-Linked Insurance Scheme, 1976
established under ​the Employees’ Provident Fund and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act,1952​. The Apex Body of
EPFO is the Central Board of Trustees ​chaired by ​Hon’ble
Minister of state (Independent Charge) Labour and
Employment, Govt. of India. The Head Office of the
Organisation is located in New Delhi. It has Zonal, Regional
& District Offices across the Country.
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Duties of EO/AO in EPFO 

 
DUTIES OF EO:​ - As per the set up of EPFO, when an officer is
allocated the work of enforcement in a particular area, he/
she is posted as an Enforcement Officer. It’s a prestigious
Group B post ​in the Organisation. By virtue of the nature of
duties, these officers are called ​‘EYES & EARS OF THE
ORGANISATION’​.
Generally, the posting of EOs is made in Regional and
District Offices. They are allocated an area of
establishments/ factories which may range from one to
three districts or according to the number of
establishments/ factories covered under ​EPF & MP
ACT,1952​. The major chunk of duties includes:-
(i) ​Coverage​ of the establishments/ factories;
(ii) To conduct ​inspection, inquiry​ etc. in respect of
enforcement ;
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(iii) To assist the ​Recovery​ Officer in recovering the dues, if

any
(iv) Dealing with legal matters such as serving summons,
filing cases in the court etc. as these officers are notified
as Assistant Public Prosecutors.

DUTIES OF AO:​ ​- There is a rotational transfer policy for

posting of these officers from ​Enforcement Section to
Accounts Section and vice-versa ​in EPFO. According to
this policy an EO, on completion of tenure in the field, is
posted in the accounts section as Accounts Officer.
Moreover these officers are assigned the work of Pension,
Cash, Administration Sections as Branch Officers. Be it
pension disbursement or claim settlement, the role of an
AO, ​being Branch Officer, is very significant in getting
prompt & better services to both subscribers and
employers​.
The Social Security extended by EPFO is based on the contri-
-bution deducted from the wages/salary of employees and
matched by the employers & deposited into the various sta-
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tutory accounts established and operated as per the EPF &

MP ACT, 1952 & Schemes framed there under. EPFO receiv-
-es Administrative & Inspection charges from the employers.

 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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Career Progression in EPFO 
 
Central P.F. Commissioner 
(IAS post) 
 
⬆  
 
Addl. Central P.F. Commissioner (HQ)
( Pay Level-14) 
 
⬆ 
 
Additional Central P.F. Commissioner
(Pay Level-13A) 
 
⬆ 
 
Regional P.F. Commissioner Gr-I
(Pay Level-12) 
 
⬆ 
 
Regional P.F. Commissioner Gr-II
(Pay Level-11) 
 
⬆ 
 
Assistant P.F. Commissioner
(Pay Level-10) 
 
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⬆  
 
Enforcement Officer/ Accounts Officer
(Pay Level-8) 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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Q1​- “ The State shall within the limits of its economic

capacity and development make effective provision for
securing public assistance in case of unemployment,
old-age, sickness, disablement and other cases of
undeserved wants”.
This provision of Social Security is mentioned in the
Article ….?
(a) Article 42
(b) Article 41
(c) Article 47
(d) None of the above.

Q2​- ​Which of the following Conventions of ILO is known

as the landmark convention in the field of Social Security
which has nine classical branches of it?
(a) Convention No.130 (b) Convention No.183
(c) Convention No.121 (d) Convention No.102

Q3​- ​The report that became the basis for Employees’

State Insurance Act, 1948 was the report submitted by-
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(a) D.V. Rege (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (d) None of the above

Q4​- ​The Fatal Injuries Act was enacted in the year-

(a) 1923
(b) 1944
(c) 1853
(d) 1852

Q5​- ​Which of the following benefits is not provided

under The EPF & MP ACT, 1952 ?
(a) Sickness (b) Pension
(c) PF (d) EDLI

Q6​- ​“ The State shall endeavour to secure all

workers-agricultural, industrial or otherwise, work, living
wage, conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of
life”.
In which Article of the Constitution, this provision is
mentioned?
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(a) Article 42 (b) Article 43

(c) Article 47 (d) Article 12

Q7​- ​Which of the following statement/ statements

is/are correct ?
(i) EPF Scheme under The EPF &MP Act,1952 is
non-contributory.
(ii) It’s contributory but the contribution is paid only by
the employer​.
(a) Only (i).
(b) Only (ii).
(c) Both (i) & (ii).
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii).

Q8​- ​Which of the following Social Security Conventions of

ILO is related to ‘Maternity Protection Convention,
2000’.
(a) No.183
(b) No.168
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(c) No.102
(d) None of the above.

Q9​- ​Which of the following scheme/ schemes is/are

administered under EPF & MP ACT, 1952 ?
(a) EPF (b) Pension
(c) EDLI (d) All of the three.

Q10​- ​“ Everyone as a member of society has the right to

social security and is entitled to realization through
national effort and international cooperation and in
accordance with the organisation and resources of each
State, of the economic, social and cultural rights
indispensable for his dignity and the free development of
his personality”.
In which Article, it is mentioned?
(a) Article 44 of the Constitution of India.
(b) Article 38 of the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights.
(c) Article 47 of the Constitution of India.
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(d) None of the above.

Q11​- ​The unrest raged at the Empress Mills in Nagpur

subsequently led to which of the following legislation ?.
(a) The Workmen’s Breach of Contract Act,1859.
(b) The First Factories Act, 1881.
(c) The Employers’ and Workmen’s (Dispute)
Act,1860.
(d) None of the above.

Q12​- ​The Child Labour upto the age of 7yrs was first
prohibited under which of the following legislation in
India ?
(a) The Fatal Accident Act, 1855.
(b) The First Factory Act, 1881.
(c) The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act,
1986
(d) None of the above.
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Q13​- ​Consider the following provisions which were laid

down in the Factories Act of 1911 :-
(i) The work period of an adult male worker was specified
for the first time to be 12 hrs. a day.
(ii) The work period of children above 7 but upto the age
of 12 yrs. was reduced from 9 hrs. to 6 hrs.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii) (d) None of the above

Q14​- ​Which of the following was the first Commission on

Labour in India?
(a) The Prof. B.P. Adarkar Commission
(b) The Whitley Commission
(c) Verma Commission
(d) None of the above
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Q15​- ​Under which of the following Social Security

Legislation/Legislations, the Maternity Benefit is
non-contributory being the liability of the employer only?
(a) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961.
(b) The ESI Act,1948.
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above.

Q16​-​Which of the following Act/Acts doesn’t/don’t fall in

the category of Social Security Legislation ?
(i) The EPF & MP ACT, 1952.
(ii) The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923.
(iii) The Trade Union Act, 1926.
(iv) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) (i) & (ii) (d) (iii) & (iv).

Q17​- ​Which of the following statement/ statements

is/are correct about EPFO ?
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​(a) The Apex Body of EPFO is the Central Board of

Trustees .
(b) The Central Board of Trustees is a tripartite body
being represented by Govt.,Employers’ &
Employees’ representatives.
(c) Also there is representation of State Govts.
(d) All of the above

Q18​- ​The Executive Committee of the Central Board of

Trustees is chaired by…. ?

​(a) The Minister of State (Independent Charge), Labour

and Employment, Govt. of India.
(b) The Central P.F. Commissioner.
(c) The Secretary, Ministry of Labour and Employment,
Govt. of India.
(d) None of the above.

Q19​- ​The EPF & MP ACT,1952 is applicable to the

scheduled establishments/ factories where……. ?

(a) 15 or more employees are employed .

(b) 20 or more employees are employed .
(c) 25 or more employees are employed .
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(d) None of the above.

Q20​- ​Consider the following about the constitution of

The Central Board of Trustees :
(i) Not more than five persons are appointed by the
Central Govt. from amongst its officials.
(ii) Not more than fifteen persons representing
Governments of such States as the Central Government
may specify in this behalf, are appointed by the Central
Government.
(iii) Ten persons representing employers of the
establishments to which the Scheme applies, are
appointed by the Central Govt
(iv)Ten persons representing employees in the
establishments to which the Scheme applies, are
appointed by the Central Govt.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

​(a) Only (i)

(b) Only (ii)
(c) (ii) & (iv)
(d) All of the above
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Q21​- ​The appointment of the Central P.F. Commissioner

who is the CEO of EPFO and ex officio member of the
CBT is made by……?

(a) The Central Govt.

(b) The Central Board of Trustees.
(c) The Executive Committee of the CBT.
(d) None of the above.

Q22​- ​Consider the following statements about the

Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana ( PMGKY) launched
by the Central Govt.
(i) The provision was made with a view to prevent
disruption in the employment of low wage earning
employees and support establishments employing 100
employees, with 90% or more of such employees earning
less than Rs.15000/- monthly wages.
(ii) It was made effective from the wage month of
March,2020.
(iii) The Central Govt. proposed to pay 24% of the
monthly wages into EPF accounts.
(iv) Initially it was launched for three months.
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Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (i)

(b) Only (iv)
(c) All four
(d) None

​ 23​- ​The ESIC ACT, 1948 is applicable to the

Q
establishments/factories where…?

(a) 20 or more employees are employed.

(b) 15 or more employees are employed.
(c) 10 or more employees are employed.
(d) None of the above.

Q24​- ​Which of the following statements about the

applicability of EPF & MP ACT,1952 is correct…?

(a) The establishment/factory, to which this Act

applies, shall continue to be governed
notwithstanding the number of employed falls
below twenty.
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(b) It shall not continue to be governed in case the

number of employees employed falls below
twenty
(c) There shall be exemption till the number of
employees surges to twenty.
(d) None of the above.

Q25​-​ Consider the following statements :-

(i) Under the Employees’ Deposit-Linked Insurance
Scheme, 1976, the contribution is paid by
both employee and employer
(ii) It is paid by the employer only.
(iii) It is paid neither by employee nor by employer
but by the Central Government.
(iv) It is paid by the State Govts.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (i)

(b) Both (i) & (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) None
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Q26​- ​In accordance with the provisions of sub-paragraph

(1) of paragraph 4 read with paragraph 5 of the
Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme 1952, a Regional
Committee is constituted by which of the following
authority…?

(a) The Central P.F. Commissioner.

(b) The Chairman, Executive Committee, CBT.
(c) The Chief Secretary of the state concerned.
(d) None of the above.

Q27​- ​Under Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995, which of

the following types of pensionary benefits are provided
to the beneficiaries:-

(a) Superannuation pension, retiring pension.

(b) Permanent total disablement pension, Widow or
widower’s pension.
(c) Children pension or orphan pension.
(d) All the above

Q28​- ​Consider the following statements:

(i) The rate of EPF contribution in five industries viz.
brick, beedi, jute coir and guar gum is 10%.
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(ii) In others, the rate of contribution is 12%. Out of 12%

of employers’ share 3.67% goes to the Provident Fund
and 8.33% to Pension fund.
Which of the above statement/statements are correct?

​(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)

(c) Both (i) & (ii) (d) None

Q29​- ​Consider the following statements:-

(i) The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 makes it
obligatory for the employers to provide compensation to
workmen or their survivors in case employment and
resulting in disablement or death.
(ii) It’s a non-contributory scheme under the Act.
(iii) It is administered by the State Govts.
(iv) The Commissioner for Workmen’s Compensation is
appointed by the Central Govt.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (i)

(b) Only (iv)
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(c) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(d) None of the above.

Q30​- ​Which of the following don’t fall in the definition of

‘dependent’ for the purpose of providing compensation
under the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 in case a
workman dies of any of the circumstances specified ?

(a) major son & widowed sister.

(b) widower’s parents other than widowed mother,
minor brother or unmarried sister, widowed
daughter, daughter-in-law and grandparent.
(c) Widow, minor son & unmarried daughter,
widowed mother, disabled children
(d) All of the above

Q31​- ​Consider the following statements:-

(i) The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 and the
Maternity Benefit Act,1961 are not applicable to the
establishments which are already covered under the ESI
Act, 1948.
(ii) The benefits extended under the Maternity Benefit
Act,1961 are subject to the contribution paid by the
employee and the employer.
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(iii) There is no maternity benefit under the ESI Act,

1948.
(iv) The medical bonus under the Maternity Benefit
Act,1961 is Rs.5000.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (i)

(b) Only (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii) & (iv)
(d) None of the above.

Q32​- ​Consider the following statements:-

(i) Under The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923, in
case a workman dies of any of the circumstances
specified, the Compensation is provided at the rate of
50% of monthly wages multiplied by the Relevant Factor
(as per age).
(ii) It’s minimum amount is Rs. 140000/-. & maximum Rs.
500000/-.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?
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(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)

(c) Both (i) & (ii) (d) None

Q33​- ​Consider the following statements:-

(i) The wage ceiling for the purpose of becoming
beneficiary under the ESI Act, 1948 is upto Rs.21000.
(ii) For the Sickness Benefit under the aforesaid Act, 78
days contribution is mandatory in a contribution period
of 6 months.
(iii) The maximum limit of the Sickness Benefit is 78 days
in a year .
(iv) An amount of Rs.15,000/- is payable to the
dependents or to the person who performs last rites in
case the insured person dies.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (i)

(b) Only (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(d) None of the above.

Q34​- ​Which of the following statements is correct about

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the Extended Sickness Benefit (ESB) under the ESI Act,

1948..?

(a) It is equal to full wage is payable to insured

persons
undergoing sterilization for 7 days/14 days for
male
and female workers respectively.
(b) It is extendable upto two years in the case of 34
malignant and long term diseases at an enhanced
rate of 80 percent of wages
(c) It is payable for Twenty Six weeks in addition to the
Sickness Benefit.
(d) It is payable for Twelve weeks in addition to the
Sickness Benefit.

Q35​- ​Consider the following about the Medical Benefit

under ESI Act,1948 :-
(i) Full medical care is provided to an Insured person and
his family members from the day he enters insurable
employment .
(ii) It is also provided to retired and permanently disabled
insured persons and their spouses on payment of a token
annual premium of Rs.120/-
(iii) There is no ceiling on expenditure on the treatment .
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Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (i)

(b) Only (ii)
(c) All (i), (ii) & (iii)
(d) None of the above

Q36​- ​Which of the following statements is correct about

the Enhanced Sickness Benefit under the ESI Act, 1948..?

(a) It is payable to insured male workers undergoing

sterilization for 7 days.
(b) Also it is payable to insured female workers
Undergoing sterilization for 14 days
(c) The benefit is equal to full wage payable for this
period
(d) All of the above.

Q37​- ​Consider the following statements about the

Maternity Benefit Act,1961:-
(i) It is applicable to factories, mines, plantation, circus,
shops & establishments where 10 or more employees are
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employed excluding those covered under the ESI

Act,1948.
(ii) The Act regulates the employment of women in
certain establishments for certain period before and after
child-birth and to provide for maternity benefit and
certain other benefits.
(iii) The qualifying working period for grant of the
maternity benefit is 80 days in the past 12 months.
(iv) The paid maternity leave is 26 weeks for the first
two children.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (i)

(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) & (ii)
(d) All of the above.

Q38​- ​Which of the following statements is correct.?

(a) A pregnant woman employee can avail leave for

8 weeks prior to the expected date of delivery.
(b) A pregnant woman employee can avail leave for
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4 weeks prior to the expected date of delivery.

(c) A pregnant woman employee can avail leave for
5 weeks prior to the expected date of delivery.
(d) None of the above.

​Q39​- ​Consider the following statements about UAN:-

(i) It’s a PF account number allotted to its subscriber.
(ii) Its full form is Universal Account Number.
(iii) It is changed in case of joining a new establishment.
(iv) It is used to avail various services of EPFO.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (iii)

(b) (i) &(ii)
(c) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(d) None of the above.

Q40​- ​EPFO services are available through UMANG App.

Which of the following statement/statements is/are
correct ?
(i) Its full form is Universal Mobile Application for
New-age Governance.
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(ii) It provides a single platform for all Indian Citizens to

access pan India e-Governance services ranging from
Central to Local Govt. bodies.
(iii) A member of PF can view his/ her passbook and
activate UAN through it.
(iv) A member of PF can raise his/her claim and track it.

(a) Only (ii)

(b) (i) & (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(d) All of the above.

Q41​- ​What is the rate of Interest on EPF deposit declared

by the Govt. for the financial year 2019-2020 ?

(a) 8.65%
(b) 8.50%
(c) 8.55%
(d) 8.70%

Q42​- ​Which of the following statement/statements

is/are correct ?
(i) As per the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017,
a woman employee who adopts a child below the age of
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3 months, or a commissioning mother will be entitled to

Maternity Benefit for a period of 12 weeks from the date
the child is handed over to the adopting mother or the
commissioning mother .
(ii) Commissioning mother means a biological mother
who uses her egg to create an embryo implanted in any
other woman.
(iii) Every establishment having 30 or more employees is
required to have a mandatory creche facility.
(iv) The woman is to be allowed four visits a day to the
creche to look after her child.

(a) Only (iv) (b) Only (ii)

(c) (i) & (ii) (d) (i), (ii) & (iv)

Q43​- ​Consider the following about Rajiv Gandhi Shramik

Kalyan Yojana:-
(i) It is an unemployment allowance scheme
administered by ESIC.
(ii) An Insured Person who becomes unemployed after
being insured three or more years, due to closure of
factory/establishment,retrenchment or permanent
invalidity, he/she is entitled to the allowance.
(iii) Unemployment Allowance is equal to 60% of wage
which is admissible for a maximum period of upto Two
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Years.
(iv) Also Medical care for self and family from ESI
Hospitals/Dispensaries during the period continues.
(v) But no Vocational Training is provided for upgrading
skills.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (v)

(b) Only (iii)
(c) (i), (ii)& (iv)
(d) (iii) &(iv)

Q44​- ​What is the current rate of contribution under ESI

Act,1948?

(a) It is 0.75% (employee’s ) and 3.25 % (employer’s).

(b) It is 1.75% (employee’s ) and 3.75 % (employer’s).
(c) It is 0.50% (employee’s ) and 3.00 % (employer’s).
(d) It is 1.25% (employee’s ) and 3.75 % (employer’s).

Q45​- ​Consider the following about The Payment of

Gratuity Act,1972:-
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(i) It applies to the establishments/factories where 10 or

more employees are employed or were employed on any
preceding day of the preceding 12 months.
(ii) It doesn’t apply to the Govt. employees who are
covered under CCS (Pension) Rules, 1972.
(iii) It is payable on the termination of his/her
employment by virtue of the reasons prescribed after he
/she has rendered 5 yrs. of continuous service.
(iv) The condition of 5yrs of continuous service is not
mandatory in case of death or disablement.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (ii) (b) Only (iii).

(c) (ii) & (iv) (d) All of the above.

Q46​- ​‘Continuous Service’ under The Payment of Gratuity

Act,1972 means:-
(i) In case of mines where working is below the ground or
where working is 6 days a week, it is ​190 days in one year
and ​in other cases, it is 240 days/yr.​
(ii) In case of seasonal establishment, it is 75% of days on
which the establishment was in operation during such
period.
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Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)

(c) Both (i) & (ii) (d) Neither (i) nor (ii)

Q47​- ​Consider the following about The Payment of

Gratuity Act,1972:-
(i) In the case of a male employee, family includes
himself, his wife, his children ​(married/unmarried), his
dependent parents and the dependent parents of his
wife and the widow and children of his predeceased son,
if any.
(ii) In the case of a female employee, family includes
herself, her husband, her ​children ( married/ unmarried),
her dependent parents and the dependent parents of her
husband and the widow and children of her predeceased
son, if any.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (i).

(b) Only (ii).
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(c) Both (i) & (ii)

(d) Neither (i) nor (ii) .

Q48​- ​‘Wages’ under The Payment of Gratuity Act,1972

includes:-
(i) Basic and DA.
(ii) Basic, DA and HRA
(iii) Basic, DA, HRA and Overtime.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)

(c) (ii) & (iii) (d) None.

Q49- ​Consider the following provisions about The

Maternity Benefit Act,1961:-
(i) No employer shall knowingly employ a woman in any
establishment during the 6 weeks immediately following
the date of her delivery,miscarriage or medical
termination of pregnancy
(ii) The above provision is relaxable if the woman
employee is willing to continue the work and gives her
consent in writing.
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(iii) If a request is submitted by a pregnant employee ,

the employer can not engage her to do the arduous
nature of work or the work which involves long hours of
standing.

Which of the above statement/statements is/are

correct?

(a) Only (i).

(b) Only (ii).
(c) (i) & (iii)
(d) All of the above .

Q50​- ​What is the extant medical bonus under The

Maternity Benefit Act,1961?

(a) Rs. 1000

(b) Rs. 2000
(c) Rs. 2500
(d) Rs. 3500

Q51​- ​What is the gratuity limit payable to an eligible

employee under The Payment of Gratuity (Central)
Rules,1972?
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(a) Rs. 1500000.

(b) Rs. 2000000.
(c) Rs. 2500000.
(d) None of the above.

Q52​- ​What is the time limit specified under The Payment

of Gratuity Act,1972 within which the employer is liable
to pay the gratuity to the eligible employee?

(a) 30 days (b) 60 days

(c) 90 days (d) 1 year

Q53​- ​Which of the following provision/provisions is/are

correct about the nomination under The Payment of
Gratuity Act,1972 :-
(i)An employee can make a nomination only after
completion of one year of service.
(ii) If at the time of making a nomination, the employee
has no family, the nomination may be made in favour of
any person or persons but on acquiring a family, the
aforesaid nomination becomes invalid and the employee
has to make a fresh nomination in favour of one or more
members of his family.
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(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)

(c) Both (i) & (ii) (d) None

Q54​- Which of the following statement/statements is/are

correct about the forfeiture of the gratuity under The
Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 ?
(i) In case, the employee is terminated for any act, wilful
omission or negligence causing any damage or loss to, or
destruction of property belonging to the employer, it can
be forfeited to the extent of the damage or loss so
caused.
(ii) In case, the employee is terminated for riotous or
disorderly conduct or any act of violence.
(iii) In case, the employee is terminated for any act
which constitutes an offence involving moral turpitude
provided that such offence is committed in the course of
employment.

(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)

(c) Only (iii) (d) All of the above.

Q55​- ​Which of the following Scheme is not being

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administered by the Central G

​ ovt.for the unorganised

workers?

(a) Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhan Yojna.

(b) Pradhan Laghu Vyapari Mandhan Yojna,
(c) Pension to Mastercraft Persons.
(d) Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995.

Q56​- ​Consider the following about Pradhan Mantri

Shram Yogi Mandhan Yojna :-
(i) It’s a pension Scheme.
(ii) The age group of the workers covered is 18-40 yrs.
(iii) Monthly income should not be more than
Rs.20000/-.
(iv) He/ she should not be an Income Tax payer.
(v) Maximum assured Pension is Rs. 3000/-p.m.

Which of the above provision/ provisions is/are not

correct?

(a) Only (i)

(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) (iv) & (v)
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Q57​- ​Who is the Chairperson, ex officio of the National

Social Security Board constituted under The Unorganised
Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008?

(a) The Secretary, Ministry of Labour & Employment.

(b) The Director-General (L W), Ministry of Labour
and Employment
(c) The Union Minister for Labour and Employment.
(d) The Home Minister.

Q58​- ​Which of the following provision is not related to

Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Mandhan Yojna?

(a) Laghu Vyapari means who are self-employed and

working as shop owners, retail traders, rice mill
owners, oil mill owners, workshop owners,
commission agents, brokers of real estate, owners
of small hotels, restaurants and other Laghu
Vyaparis
(b) The Age group covered is 18-40 yrs.
(c) Those covered under NPS/EPF & MP Act, 1952 /ESI
At,1948 are not eligible for the Scheme.
(d) The monthly rate of contribution is Rs. 560/- & the
same is matched by the Central Govt.
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Q59​- ​Which of the following provisions is not related to

Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojna?

(a) This Scheme offers coverage for accidental death

only
(b) Rs.330/- per annum per member for insurance of
Rs 2 Lacs.
(c) A Savings Bank Account holder in the age 18 to 50
years can join this scheme
(d) In case of multiple savings account, only one
PMJJBY policy will be issued

Q60​- ​Which Scheme carries the following provisions?

(i) It is an Accident Insurance Scheme offering accidental
death and disability cover for death or disability on
account of an accident.
(ii) A savings bank account holder in the age 18 to 70
years in participating banks is entitled to join.
(iii) In case of death or total and irrecoverable loss of
both eyes or loss of use of both hands or feet , the sum
assured is Rs. 2 Lacs.
(iv) In case of total and irrecoverable loss of sight of one
eye or loss of use of one hand or foot, the sum assured is
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Rs. 1 Lac.
(v) The rate of premium is Rs.12/- per annum per
member.

(a) Atal Pension Yojna.

(b) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojna.
(c) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojna,
(d) Aaam Admi Bima Yojna.

Q61​- ​Which of the following is not a scheme for

unorganised workers?

(a) Janani Suraksha Yojna.

(b) PM Kisan Mandhan Yojna.
(c) National Scheme for Welfare of Fishermen and
Training & Extension.
(d) Rajiv Gandhi Shramik Kalyan Yojna.

Q62​- ​Which Scheme carries the following features ?

(i) It is a health insurance cover of upto Rs. 500000 per
family per year .
(ii) Households listed in the Socio Economic Caste Census
(SECC) database as per defined criteria are covered.
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(iii) Cashless and paperless access to quality health care

services at all public and empanelled private hospitals.
(iv) It covers the costs associated with secondary and
tertiary care hospitalization.

(a) Atal Pension Yojna.

(b) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojna.
(c) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojna
(d) Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana(Ayushman
Bharat Yojana)

Q63​- ​Which of the following is correct about Industrial

Relations?

(a) These are complex inter relations among managers.

(b) These are complex inter relations among managers
and workers
(c) These are complex inter relations among managers,
workers and Government agencies
(d) These are complex inter relations among managers
workers and Industrial Tribunals.

Q64​- ​Which of the following factors determine the state

of Industrial Relations in every country?
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(a) ​Institutional Factors-​ Labour Legislation, State

Policy, the Status of Trade Unions, Social Institutions.
(b) ​Economic Factors​- Nature of Economic
Organisations, Technology,Demand and Supply of
Workers.
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

Q65​- ​“​Cessation of work by a body of persons employed

in any industry​” is known as…..?

(a) Lock-out
(b) Strike
(c) Gherao
(d) Lay-off

Q66​- ​Which of the following forms of strike is called

‘​Lighting or Wild-cat’​ ​Strike ?

(a) A form of strike which is called on in support of

the demand of the​ ​workmen belonging to other
employers
(b) An unofficial strike, even not sanctioned by the
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union
(c) A strike refusing to work
(d) Pen down strike

Q67​- ​Which of the following establishes/establish a strike

illegal?

(a) if it begins without giving notice of 6 weeks before

striking
(b) within 14 days of the notice
(c) during pendency of Conciliation proceedings
& before the expiry of 7 days after its
conclusion
​(d) All of the above.

Q68​- ​“​Temporary closing of a place of employment or

suspension of work​“ is known as…..?

(a) Lock-out
(b) Strike
(c) Gherao
(d) Lay-off
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Q69​- Consider the following: -

(i) Encirclement of the managers to criminally intimidate
them to accept the demands of the workers is known as
Gherao.
(ii) It amounts to criminal conspiracy under Sec 120A of
IPC, 1860.
(iii) The above act of the workers is saved by Sec. 17 of
the Trade Union Act, 1926 on the grounds of its being
concerted efforts.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only (i)

(b) Only (ii)
(c) (i) & (ii)
(d) (i), (ii) & (iii)

Q70​- ​Which of the following statement is not correct

about Collective Bargaining?

(a) It is a bipartite process of negotiations.

(b) It is between workers and employers.
(c) It involves intervention of a third party.
(d) It functions as a process of social change, a peace
treaty and a system of Industrial Jurisprudence.
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Q71​- ​Which Article in the Constitution of India lays down

the Right to form associations or unions as Fundamental
Right ?

(a) Article 39
(b) Article 48
(c) Article 12
(d) Article 19(1)(c)

Q72​- ​Consider the following facts about

Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyan :-
(i) It has been launched with a view to provide
employment to the migrant workers returned to their
native places.
(ii) Initially it covers 116 districts of 6 states- Bihar, UP,
MP, RJ.,Orissa & JH.
(iii) There is a provision of 125 days employment under
MGNREGA.
(iv) Now the rate of wage is Rs. 202 per day.

Which of the above fact/facts is/are correct?

(a) Only (i)

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(b) Only (ii)

(c) (iii) & (iv)
(d) All of the above.

Q73​- ​Which of the following doesn’t constitute

an industrial dispute?

(a) Any dispute or difference between employers and

employers.
(b) Any dispute or difference between employers and
Labour authorities.
(c) Any dispute or difference between employers
and workmen.
(d) Any dispute or difference between workmen
and workmen.

Q74​- ​Consider the following about ‘Lay-off’ :-

(i) It’s the failure, refusal or inability of an employer to
give employment to a workman whose name is borne on
the muster rolls of the industrial establishment and who
has not been retrenched.
(ii) The reason prescribed for the Lay-off is that
it shall be on account of shortage of coal, power or raw
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materials or the accumulation of any other connected

reason.
(iii) The rate of compensation is 50% of BASIC and DA.
(iv) Badli/ Casual workmen are also covered under
the above provision.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) Only (ii) (b) (ii) & (iv)

(c) (i), (ii) & (iii) (d) None.

Q75​- ​Which of the following constitutes/constitute

Statutory measures to deal with an industrial dispute?

(i) Constitution of Works Committee in an industrial

establishment where 100 or more workmen are
employed.
(ii) Appointment of Conciliation Officers.
(iii) Constitution of Board of Conciliation or a
Court of Inquiry .
(iv) Constitution of Labour Courts, Tribunals & National
Tribunals.

(a) Only (i)

(b) Only (ii)
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(c) (i) &(iii)

(d) All of the above.

Q76​- ​Which of the following defines ‘​Retrenchment’

exactly?

(a) The termination by the employer of the

service of a workmen for any reason
whatsoever, otherwise than as punishment
inflicted by way of disciplinary action.
(b) The termination of the services of a workman
as a result of the non-renewal of the contract of
employment between the employer and the
workman concerned.
(c) The termination of the service of a workman
on the ground of continued ill-health.
(d) Voluntary retirement

Q77​- ​Consider the following about the applicability

of Sec.25K, the special provisions relating to Lay-off,
Retrenchment and closure (Chapter VB) under Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947 and amendments by States :-
(i) These provisions are applicable to an industrial
establishment in which not less than 100 workmen were
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employed on an average per working day for the

preceding twelve months.
(ii) These provisions are suo motu applicable to an
establishment of a seasonal character or in which work is
performed intermittently.
(iii) Under these provisions, employers are supposed to
seek prior permission of the appropriate Govt./authority
for Lay-off, Retrenchment and closure .
(iv) Some of the State Governments have made
amendments in these provisions as per the requirements
in their States.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) Only (iv)

(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(d) None.

Q78​- ​Which authority makes reference of an industrial

dispute to the Board of Conciliation/ Labour Court/
Tribunal?

(a) Appropriate Govt. (b) Only Govt. of India

(c) Only State Govt. (d) None.
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Q79​- ​Which one of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Craft Union ​A union with workers belonging

to same​ ​occupation
​(b) Industrial Union ​A union formed with different
industrial workers
(c) General Union ​An industry based union
(d) Plant Level Union ​A union formed with various
​establishments

Q80​- ​Which of the following is a form of union security in

which the company can hire only union members?

(a) Union Shop.

(b) Closed Shop.
(c) Agency Shop.
(d) Open Shop.

Q81​- ​Which of the following is a form of union security in

which the employees who don’t belong to the union, still
pay union dues on the assumption that union efforts
benefit all workers?
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(a) Agency Shop.

(b) Union Shop.
(c) Closed Shop.
(d) Open Shop.

Q82​- ​Who led the first labour agitation in Bombay in

1875?

(a) N.M. Lokhande.

(b) N.M. Joshi.
(c) V.V. Giri.
(d) S.S. Bengali.

Q83​- ​Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) The first Factory Commission (i) 1875

(b) The first Factory Act (ii) 1882
(c) The second Factory Commission (iii) 1884
(d) The second Factory Act (iv) 1891

Q84​- ​Consider the following :-

(i) N.M. Lokhande is known as the founder of organised
labour movement in India.
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(ii) He had set up Bombay Mill Hands Association in 1890.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) Both (i) & (ii)

(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (i)
(d) None.

Q85​- ​Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Railway Servants of India (i) 1897

(b) The Printers’ Union of Calcutta (ii) 1905
(c) The Madras and Calcutta Postal Union (iii) 1908
(d) The Kamgar Hitwardhak Sabha (iv) 1910

Q86​- ​Which of the following statement/statements

is/are correct?
(i) Madras Textile Labour Association was formed in 1918
by B.P. Wadia
(ii) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association was formed in
1917 by Ansuyaben Sarabhai.
(iii) AITUC was founded in 1920 by N.M. Joshi.
(iv) The first Chairman of AITUC was Lala Lajpat Rai.
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(a) Only (i).

(b) Only (ii).
(c) Only (iv)
(d) All of the above.

Q87​-​Who was the President of AITUC when it split over

joining of the Whitley Commission in 1929?

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) N.M. Joshi

(c) B.P. Wadia. (d) Sardar V.B. Patel

Q88​-​ Who among the following were not the members of

the Royal Commission on Labour?

(a) Srinivas Shastri and D. Chaman Lal.

(b) Ibrahim Rohitmullah and Kabeeruddin Ahmed.
(c) G.D. Birla and N.M. Joshi.
(d) R.R. Bakhale and G.L. Nanda.

Q89​- ​Which of the following are not correctly matched?

(i)National Service Ordinance (a) 1940

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(ii)The Essential Service Maintenance Ordinance (b) 1941

(iii)The Bombay Industrial Relations Act (c) 1946
(iv)Industries Truce Conference (d) 1947

(a) Only (ii)

(b) Only (iii)
(c) (iii) & (iv)
(d) None of the above.

Q90​- ​Which of the following theories of Trade Unionism

is not correctly matched with its enunciator?

(a) Political Revolutionary Theory (i) Karl Marx

(b) Industrial Democracy Theory (ii) Sydney &
Beatrice
Webbs
(c) Economic Protection Theory (iii)Mitchell
(d) Environment Theory (iv) Simons

Q91​-​ Consider the following Trade Unions:

1. Centre of Indian Trade Unions(CITU)
2. Indian National Trade Union Congress(INTUC)
3. Hind Mazdoor Sabha(HMS)
4. Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh(BMS)
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5. All India Trade Union Congress(AITUC)

Which one of the following is the correct chronology of

the above, in ascending order, in terms of their year of
formation?

(a) 5-2-3-4-1
(b) 2-1-3-4-5
(c) 3-2-1-5-4
(d) 2-4-1-3-5

Q92​-​ Consider the following rules:

(i)​ Nemo debet esse Judex Causa​ means no one should be
judge in his own cause.
(ii) ​Audi Alteram Partem​ means hear the other side.

Which do the above rules relate to?

(a) Principles of Natural Justice.

(b) Principles of Criminal Justice.
(c) Principles of Civil Justice.
(d) None of the above.

Q93​- ​Which of the following provision/provisions is/are

correct about a registered Trade Union of workmen?
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(i) A registered Trade Union shall at all times continue to

have not less than 10% or 100 of the workmen,
whichever is less, subject to a minimum of 7.
(ii) Those workmen shall be the members of a registered
Trade Union who are engaged or employed in an
establishment or industry with which it is connected.
(iii) It shall be a body corporate by the name under
which
it is registered and shall have perpetual succession and a
common seal.
(iv) It shall have power to acquire and hold both
movable
and immovable property and to contact and shall by the
said name sue and be sued.

(a) Only (ii) (b) Both (i) & (ii)

(c) (i), (ii) & (iii) (d) All of the above.

Q94​- ​Which of the following is/are correct about the

eligibility for the membership and the office bearer of a
registered Trade Union?

(i) He/ she should have completed 15 yrs. of age for the
membership.
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(ii) To be an Office Bearer, the minimum age is 18 yr.

(iii) He/ she must not have been convicted of any offence
involving moral turpitude and sentenced to
imprisonment for 6 months or more within the last 5 yrs.

(a) Only (ii) (b) Only (iii)

(c) All of the above (d) None of the above

Q95​- ​What is the minimum subscription prescribed for

the payment by members of the Trade Union?

(a) It is Re. 1 per annum for rural workers,

Rs. 3/p.a. for workers in other unorganised
sectors and Rs. 12 /p.a. for workers in any
other case.
(b) It is Re. 3 per annum for rural workers,
Rs. 5/p.a. for workers in other unorganised
sectors and Rs. 20 /p.a. for workers in any
other case.
(c) It is Re. 1 per annum for rural workers and
Rs. 3/p.a. for workers in other​ ​sectors.
(d) It is Re. 1 per annum for rural workers and
Rs. 12 for urban workers.
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Q96​- ​Consider the following about the number of

Office Bearers (Insiders & Outsiders) in a registered Trade
Union:-
(i) In case of Organised Sector- 2/3​rd​ (Insiders)+ 1/3​rd ​or
5 whichever is less (Outsiders) .
(ii)In case of Unorganised Sector – ½(Insiders)+
½(Outsiders).
(iii) In case of Organised Sector- 3/4​th​(Insiders)+ 1/4​th or 5
whichever is less (Outsiders) .
(iv) In case of Unorganised Sector – 2/3​rd​(Insiders)+ 1/3​rd
(Outsiders).

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)

(c) Only (iv) (d) Both (i) & (ii).

Q97​- ​Consider the following conditions precedent

to retrenchment of workmen:-
(i) One month notice or wages in lieu of, if less than 50
workers are there in the establishment.
(ii) Three months notice or wages in lieu of, if 100
workers.
(iii) Workers must have completed not less than 1 yr. of
continuous service.
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(iv) Compensation is to be paid @ 15 days Average Pay

for every completed year of continuous service or any
part thereof in excess of six months.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) Only (i). (b) Only (ii).

(c) Only (iv). (d) All of the above.

Q98​- ​Which of the following condition/conditions is /are

mandatory for the permanent closing down of a place of
employment?

(i) No notice to the Govt. if less than 50 workers are

employed or were employed on an average per working
day in the preceding twelve months. However one
month's notice or wages in lieu of to those workers who
have completed 1 yr. of continuous service in the
establishment.
(ii) 60 days notice to the Govt. & 1 month notice or wage
in lieu of to those ​workers who have completed 1 yr. of
continuous service, if 50 or more but less than 100
workers.
(iii) In case 100 or more workers are employed, prior
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permission of the Govt. is mandatory for which an

employer has to apply 90 days before the date on which
the intended closure is to become effective.
(iv) Compensation is to be paid as if the workers had
been retrenched.

(a) Both (i) & (ii).

(b) (i) & (iii).
(c) All of the above.
(d) None of the above.

Q99​- ​Which of the following is/are correct about The

Code on Wages, 2019?

(a) Only 3 Central Acts viz The Payment of Wages

Act,1936, The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 and
The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 have been
amalgamated into it.
(b) There are 4 Central Acts namely The Payment of
Wages Act,1936, The Minimum Wages Act, 1948,
The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 and The Equal
Remuneration Act, 1976 have been amalgamated
into it.
(c) The Code on Wages, 2019 has come into force
on the 8th day of August, 2019.
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(d) It extends to the whole of India except Jammu &

Kashmir being new UT.

​ 100​- ​Which of the following Central Act is not the part

Q
of the proposed Industrial Relations Code?

(a) The Contract Labour (Regulation and abolition)

Act, 1970.
(b) The Trade Unions Act, 1926.
(c) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
(d) The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act,
1946.

Q101​- ​Which of the following codes is not a Code related

to Labour Reforms?

(a) The Code on Wages.

(b) The Code on Social Security.
(c) The Industrial Relations Code.
(d) The Code on Labour and Employment.
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Q102​- ​Which of the following Central Acts is/are not the

part of the proposed​ ​The Code on Social Security, 2019?

(i) The Employees' Compensation Act, 1923.

(ii) The Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948
(iii) The Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act, 1952.
(iv) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory
Notification
of Vacancies) Act, 1959.
(v) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961.
(vi) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972.
(vii) The Cine-Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1981.
(viii) The Building and Other Construction Workers’
Welfare Cess Act, 1996.
(ix) The Unorganised Workers Social Security Act,
2008.
(x) The Plantations Labour Act, 1951.

(a) Only (iv).

(b) Only (x).
(c) (iv), (vii) & (viii).
(d) None of the above.

Q103​- ​What is agreement (oral or written) that forces an

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employee not to join any union called?

(a) Yellow-dog contract.

(b) Collective bargaining.
(c) Caucus.
(d) Permissive issue.

Q104​- ​Match the following:-

(​ A) Minimum amount for the sustenance of life &
preservation of the efficiency of the workers (i) Fair Wage.
(B) The wage to be paid in view of physiological (ii) Living Wage
needs and frugal comforts
(C) The wage between Minimum Wage and (iii) Minimum Wage
Living Wage
(D) The wage as per the Act of Parliament/ (iv) Statutory
Legislature Minimum Wage

(a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)

(b) A- (iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(c) A- (i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(d) A- (i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

Q105​- ​Which of the following is not correct about existing

Statutory wage period and time of payment?
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(a) It shall not exceed 1 month.

(b) In case of less than 1000 workers, it is to be paid
before the expiry of the seventh day.
(c) In case of 1000 or more workers, it is to be paid
before the expiry of the tenth day.
(d) In case of termination of the employment, it is to
be paid before the expiry of the third working
day
from the day of termination.

Q106​- ​Which of the following is/are authorized

deductions?
(i) Fines, absence from duty.
(ii) Damages/Loss, House Accommodation, Amenities/
Services supplied by the employer.
(iii) Recovery of advances, loans, income tax.
(iv) Provident Fund, Pension, Insurance, Payment to
co-operatives.
(v) Trade Union contribution, reduction to a lower
post/stage, suspension.

(a) Only (iii)

(b) Both (i) & (ii)
(c) (i), (iv) & (v)
(d) All of the above
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Q107​- ​Which of the following is not correct about the

procedure for fixing and revising the Statutory Minimum
Wages?

(a) The Appropriate Govt. at intervals, not

exceeding 5 yrs., revise the rate of wages.
(b) It may be revised by appointing committees
and sub-committees.
(c) It may be revised by notification in the Official
Gazette, publish its proposals for the informat-
-ion of persons likely to be affected and consid-
-ering the representations received in response
to them. But through this procedure, the Appr-
-opriate Govt. shall consult the Advisory Board
also.
(d) It comes into effect after 4 months from its
notification.

Q108​- ​Which of the following is not correct about the

provision of Wages for Overtime work?

(a) If working hours are more than 9 hours on any

day or 48 hrs in any week, wages for overtime
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work is to be paid.
(b) It is to be paid at double the ordinary rate of
wages.
(c) There is no provision for overtime in
agriculture.
(d) Over Time rate is one of the four prescribed
statutory rates viz time rate, piece rate, a
guaranteed time rate and overtime rate.

Q109​-​ Which of the following is correct about the

provision of Minimum Wages?

(a) All remuneration that can be quantified in terms

of money i.e. Basic+DA.
(b) All remuneration that can be quantified in terms
of money i.e. Basic.
(c) All remuneration that can be quantified in terms
of money i.e. Basic + DA +HRA.
(d) All remuneration that can be quantified in terms
of money i.e. Basic +DA + HRA +TA.

Q110​- ​Which of the following is not true about ‘factory’?

(a) Manufacturing process with or without the aid of

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power.
(b) 10 or more workers in case the manufacturing
process is carried on with the aid of power.
(c) 20 or more workers in case the manufacturing
process is carried on without the aid of power.
(d) It includes a railway running shed also.

Q111​-​Which of the following provisions of The Factories

Act,1948 is not correct?

(a) A Safety Officer is required in a factory if 100

workers or more workers are ordinarily employed.
(b) A Welfare Officer is required in case of 500 or
more workers employed.
(c) A Safety Committee is to be set up in case of 250
or more workers.
(d) A canteen at 250 workers and an ambulance & a
dispensary at 500 workers.

Q112​- ​Which of the following is not correctly matched as

per The Factories Act,1948?

(a) Child : who has not completed 15​th​ yr. of age

(b) Adult : who has completed 18​th​ yr. of age
(c) Adolescent : who has completed 16​th​ yr. but not
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18​th​ yr. of age

(d) Young person:who is either a child or an adolescent

Q113​- ​Which of the following provision/provisions as per

The Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and
Regulation) Act, 1986 is/are correct?

(i) A child who has not completed 14​th​ yr. of age is not
permitted to work in any occupation or process except
family enterprise which is other than any hazardous
occupations or process after school hours or during
vacations.
(ii) Also a child is permitted to work as an artist in an
audio-visual entertainment industry.
(iii) ‘family’ includes child’s mother, father, brother, sister
sister and father’s sister and brother and mother’s sister
and brother.
(iv) The Central Govt. constitutes the Technical Advisory
Committee consisting of a Chairman and not more than
10 members.

(a) Both (i) & (ii) (b) Only (iv).

(c) (i), (ii) & (iii). (d) All of the above
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Q114- ​Which of the following provision/ provisions as

per
The Contract Labour ​(Regulation & Abolition) Act, 1970
is/are correct?
(i) It is applicable to every establishment or contractor
employing 20 or more workmen excluding
establishments where work is of casual/ intermittent
nature.
(ii) Intermittent nature of work means the work
performed
for not more than 120 days in the preceding 12 months
(iii) Seasonal work means the work performed not
more than 60 days in a year.
(iv) The Certificate of Registration is to be obtained by
the Contractor whereas The License is to be obtained by
the Principal Employer.

(a) (i) & (ii).

(b) (ii) & (iv).
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii).
(d) None of the above.

Q115​- ​Which of the following is not correct?

(a) ‘Contractor’ means a person who undertakes

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to produce a given result for the

establishment through contract labour.
(b) It includes a subcontractor.
(c) A person who supplies merely goods or
articles of manufacture is also termed as
Contractor.
(d) A contractor has to seek license to perform
work.

Q116​- ​Which of the following provision/provisions

is/are correct?
(i) The Central Govt. constitutes The Central Advisory
Contract Labour
Board.
(ii) The Board consists of a Chairman, the CLC (C) and
minimum 11 & maximum 17 other members from various
industries.
(iii) The Central Govt. also constitutes The State Advisory
Contract Labour Board.
(iv) The State Advisory Contract Labour Board consists of
a Chairman, the Labour Commissioner and minimum 11
& maximum 16 other members from various industries.

(a) (i) & (ii)

(b) (i) & (iv)
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(c) (iii) & (iv)

(d) None of the above.

Q117​- ​Which of the following provisions is correct?

(a) The prohibition of contract labour in any process,

operation or other work in any establishment
is determined by the Industrial Court only.
​(b) The prohibition of contract labour may be

determined by both the Industrial Court

and the appropriate Govt.
(c) The prohibition of contract labour in any process,
operation or other work is the exclusive domain
appropriate Govt.
(d) The provision of contract labour in any process/
operation or other work is exclusive domain of
The Central Government only.

Q118​- ​Which of the following provisions is not correct

under the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition)
Act 1970?

(a) If 100 or more contract labours are engaged, one

or more canteens shall be provided by the
contractor.
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(b) In case the contractor fails to provide the above

amenity, it is to be provided by the principal
employer.
(c) Every contractor has to nominate a
representative duly authorised by him/her to
be present at the time of disbursement of
wages by the principal employer.
(d) In case the contractor fails to make payment of
wages, the principal employer has to pay and
the amount so paid may be recovered from
the contractor.

Q119​- ​Which one of the following provisions is not

covered under the Contract Labour (Regulation and
Abolition) Act 1970?

(a) Crèches
(b) Rest rooms
(c) First aid facilities
(d) Sufficient supply of wholesome drinking water

Q120​- ​Under the provisions of the Child and Adolescent

Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986, the
Child Labour Technical Advisory Committee consists of
a Chairman and such other members not exceeding:
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(a) Five (b) Twenty

(c) Fifteen (d) Ten

Q121​- ​Under the provisions of the Child and Adolescent

Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986, the list of
occupations in which children are prohibited to be
employed is provided in :

(a) Part B of the Schedule under the Act

(b) Part A of the Schedule under the Act
(c) Section 6 of the Act
(d) Section 4 of the Act

Q122​- ​Under the provisions of the Child and Adolescent

Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986, the list of
processes in which children are prohibited to be
employed is provided in :

(a) Part B of the Schedule under the Act

(b) Part A of the Schedule under the Act
(c) Section 10 of the Act
(d) Section 5 of the Act
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Q123​- ​Which one of the following statements is not

correct under the provisions of the Child and Adolescent
Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986?

(a) No child shall be permitted to work between 7

pm and 8 am.
(b) The total period of work including interval for
rest shall not spread over more than six hours.
(c) A child may be permitted to work overtime
maximum for two hours in a day.
(d) No child shall work for more than three hours
before he has had an interval for rest for at least
one hour.

Q124​- ​Under the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity

Act 1972, what is the maximum amount of gratuity
payable?

(a) Rs. 3,50,000

(b) Rs. 20,00,000
(c) Rs. 10,00,000
(d) Rs. 5,00,000
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Q125​- ​Under the provisions of the Building and Other

Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and
Conditions of Service) Act 1996, employment of how
many female construction workers make it mandatory
for
providing crèche facilities?

(a) More than twenty (b) More than thirty

(c) More than forty (d) More than fifty

Q126​- ​Which one of the following is not a statutory

provision under the Building and Other Construction
Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of
Service) Act 1996?

(a) Drinking water.

(b) Accommodation.
(c) Latrines and urinals.
(d) Rest rooms and lunch rooms.

Q127​- ​Under the provisions of the Building and Other

Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and
Conditions of Service) Act 1996, the employer of an
establishment has to constitute a Safety Committee and
appoint a Safety Officer if there are:
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(a) 500 or more building workers.

(b) 250 or more building workers.
(c) 350 or more building workers.
(d) 200 or more building workers.

Q128​- ​Under the provisions of the Building and Other

Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and
Conditions of Service) Act 1996, a building worker who
has been registered as a beneficiary can contribute to the
Fund created under the Act till he attains the age of:

(a) 62 years (b) 60 years

(c) 58 years (d) 65 years

Q129​- ​Under the provisions of the Building and Other

Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and
Conditions of Service) Act 1996 :-
An individual, who employs such workers in any
building or construction work in relation to his own
residence, is excluded from the definition of
‘establishment’ for the purpose of coverage under the
Act if the total cost of such construction is not more than:
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(a) Rs. 10,00000.

(b) Rs. 15,00000.
(c) Rs. 20,00000.
(d) None of the above.

Q130​- ​Under the provisions of the Building and Other

Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and
Conditions of Service) Act 1996, the Central Advisory
Committee is constituted that consists of :

(a) Chairman + 2 MPs+ DG+ minimum 8 and

maximum 12 other members.
(b) Chairman + 3 MPs+ DG+ minimum 9 and
maximum 13 other members.
(c) Chairman + DG+ minimum 9 and maximum 13
other members.
(d) Chairman + 4 MPs+DG+ minimum 9 and
maximum 13 other members.

Q131​- ​Under the provisions of the Building and Other

Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and
Conditions of Service) Act 1996, a canteen for the use of
workers is provided if the following no. of workers are
employed:
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(a) 250 or more (b) 150 or more

(c) 200 or more (d) 100 or more

Q132​- ​Which of the following is correct about the

applicability of The Inter-State Migrant Workmen
(Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service)
Act, 1979?

(a) It is applicable where 10 or more Inter-State

Migrant Workmen are employed or were
employed on any day of the preceding 12
months.
(b) It is applicable where 15 or more Inter-State
Migrant Workmen are employed.
(c) It is applicable where 20 or more Inter-State
Migrant Workmen are employed or were
employed on any day of the preceding 12
months.
(d) It is applicable where 05 or more Inter-State
Migrant Workmen are employed or were
employed on any day of the preceding 12
months.
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Q133​- ​An inter-state migrant workman is a person :

(a) who is recruited by the principal employer only

in one State under an agreement for
employment in another State.
(b) who is recruited by or through a contractor in
one State under an agreement or other
arrangement for employment in an
establishment in another State, whether with or
without the knowledge of the principal
employer in relation to such establishment.
(c) who is recruited by a contractor only in one
State under an agreement​ ​for employment in
another State.
(d) who is recruited by a registered manufacturing
company only.

Q134​- ​Which of the following enactments are specified in

the Schedule to The Inter-State Migrant Workmen
(Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service)
Act, 1979?
(i) The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923.
(ii) The Payment of Wages Act, 1936.
(iii) The Industrial Disputes Act,1947.
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(iv) The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948.

(v) The EPF & MP Act,1952.
(vi) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961.

(a) Only (i) & (ii).

(b) (i), (iii) & (iv).
(c) (ii), (v) & (vi).
(d) All of the above.

Q135​- ​Which of the following allowances are specified

The Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of
Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979?
(i) Journey Allowance.
(ii) Displacement Allowance.
(iii) Transport Allowance.
(iv) Fixed Medical Allowance.

(a) Only (ii) (b) Only (iv)

(c) (i) & (ii) (d) None of the above

Q136​- ​Which one of the following is not a statutory

provision under the Plantations Labour Act, 1951?

(a) Canteens if 150 or more workers are employed

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(b) Creches if 50 or more women workers are

employed
(c) Accommodation & Recreational facilities
(d) Rest rooms

Q137​- ​Which one of the following theories of labour

welfare is also called efficiency theory?

(a) Functional theory

(b) Public relations theory
(c) Religious theory
(d) Philanthropic theory

Q138​- ​Which of the following benefits can be combined

under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?

(a) Sickness benefit and maternity benefit

(b) Sickness benefit and disablement benefit for
temporary disablement
(c) Maternity benefit and disablement benefit for
temporary disablement
(d) Maternity benefit and medical benefit
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Q139​- Under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, one or

more Advisory Committees​ ​are constituted by the
appropriate Govt. It consists of :

(a) not less than 20 members.

(b) not less than 30 members.
(c) not less than 15 members.
(d) not less than 10 members.

Q140​- ​What is the share of women representatives in the

Advisory Committee to

be constituted under the Equal Remuneration Act,

1976?

(a) One half of the total members.

(b) One third of the total members.
(c) One fourth of the total members.
(d) Three fourth of the total members.

Q141​- ​Which of the following ILO Convention is related to

Labour Inspection?

(a) No. 121

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(b) N0. 81
(c) No. 128
(d) No. 130

Q142​- ​Which of the following subjects is not included in

the Concurrent List concerning labour?

(a) Economic and social planning.

(b) Trade unions, industrial and labour disputes.
(c) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and
oilfields.
(d) Boilers.

Q143​- ​Which of the following form part of the

principles concerning the Fundamental Rights as per
ILO’s Constitution?
1. Elimination of all forms of forced or compulsory
labour.
2. Freedom of association and the effective recognition of
the right to collective bargaining.
3. Effective abolition of child labour.
4. Prevention of major industrial accidents.
5. Elimination of discrimination in respect of employment
and occupation.
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Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 , 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only

Q144​-​ Which of the following doesn’t from the part of

disqualification for bonus under The Payment of Bonus
Act,1965?

(a) Dismissal of service for fraud.

(b) Dismissal of service for riotous or violent
behaviour.
(c) Dismissal of service for theft, misappropriation
or sabotage of any property of the
establishment.
(d) Compulsory retirement.

Q145​- ​What is the minimum payable bonus under The

Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?

(a) It is 8.33% of the salary or wages earned by the

employee during the accounting year or Rs.100,
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whichever is higher.
(b) It is 20% of the salary or wages earned by the
employee during the accounting year or
Rs.1000, whichever is higher.
(c) It is Rs.21000/-
(d) It is Rs.25000/-

Q146​- ​Under The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965,every

employee shall be entitled to be paid bonus if he/she has
worked in the establishment for not less than :

(a) 30 days
(b) 40 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days

Q147​- ​What is ‘Set on’ under The Payment of Bonus Act,

1965?

(a) In case the allocable surplus exceeds the amount

of maximum bonus in any accounting year, this
excess is carried forward for being set on in the
succeeding accounting year. It is known as ‘Set on’.
(b) In case the allocable surplus exceeds the amount
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of minimum bonus in any accounting year, this

excess is carried forward for being set on in the
succeeding accounting year. It is known as ‘Set on’.
(c) It is the allocation of the budget for the payment
of bonus in an accounting year .
(d) It is an additional bonus payable to the
employees.

Q148​- ​What is time-limit for payment of the bonus under

The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965?

(a) In case of any dispute pending before any

authority, it is payable within a month from the
date on which the award becomes enforceable or
the settlement comes into operation. In any other
case, it is payable within a period of eight months
from the close of the accounting year.
(b) It is payable within a period of six months from
the close of the accounting year.
(c) It is payable within a period of nine months from
the close of the accounting year.
(d) It is payable in the month of October every year.
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Q149​- ​Which of the following organisations has won the

SKOCH Award 2020 in the Digital Governance Category?
(a) ESIC
(b) FCI
(c) IRCTC
(d) EPFO

Q150​- ​Who is an International Worker as per EPF & MP

Act,1952 ?
(a) A foreign worker who is working in India.
(b) Any employee who is a foreign national working
in India under an employer registered with the
EPFO or an Indian employee working in a
foreign country with which India has a Social
Security Arrangement.
(c) An Indian employee working in any foreign
country.
(d) An Indian employee working in the USA or in the
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UK.
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​Labour Reforms in India​ : ​A Brief Update

A system in the society keeps on changing as per

requirements with the pace of time. In the Era of
Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation (LPG)
economies of the nations have crossed their
boundaries and entwined with each other. The
International Organisations such as the World Bank,
the World Trade Organisation etc. have set up
standards/ benchmarks which are supposed to be
followed by their member countries so as to improve
the business environment necessary for industrial
growth and employment generation.

The Government of India is committed and embarks

upon ‘Ease of Doing Business’ so that a hurdle free
business environment can be established. Several
initiatives, termed as Labour Reforms, have been
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taken by the Govt. of India including some State

Govts. Online Registration of the Establishments,
Compliance through a unified web portal ‘ Shram
Suvidha Portal’, Online and time bound report
submission of the Inspection, Maintenance of 5
common registers instead of 56 under 9 Central
Labour Laws and Rules framed there under are
some of the endeavours made in the recent past.

In continuation of the same, the Govt. of India has

taken long awaited initiatives to codify various
labour laws into 4 Codes namely ​THE CODE ON
WAGES, 2019, THE CODE ON SOCIAL SECURITY,
2019, THE INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS CODE, 2019 and
THE CODE ON OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY, HEALTH
AND WORKING CONDITIONS, 2018​.

Of these Codes, The Code on Wages, 2019 has been

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passed by the Parliament and notified . The Labour

Laws which have been amalgamated or proposed to
be amalgamated are as under:-

A. ​THE CODE ON WAGES, 2019. ​(It has been passed and

notified )

1. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936,

2. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948,
3. The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
4. The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976

B. ​THE CODE ON SOCIAL SECURITY, 2019. ​(It is under

process )

1. The Employees' Compensation Act, 1923;

2. The Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948;
3. The Employees' Provident Funds and
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Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952;

4. The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory
Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959;
5. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961;
6. The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972;
7. The Cine-Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1981;
8. The Building and Other Construction Workers’
Welfare Cess Act, 1996;
9. The Unorganised Workers Social Security Act,
2008.

C. ​THE INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS CODE, 2019. ​(It is under

process)

1. The Trade Unions Act, 1926;

2. The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act,
1946;
3. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
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D. ​THE CODE ON OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY, HEALTH AND

​WORKING CONDITIONS ,2018​.​(It is under process)

1. The Factories Act, 1948

2. The Mines Act, 1952
3. The Dock Workers (Safety, Health and Welfare)
Act, 1986
4. The Building and Other Construction Workers
(Regulation of Employment and Conditions of
Service) Act, 1996
5. The Plantations Labour Act, 1951
6. The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition)
Act, 1970
7. The Inter-State Migrant workmen (Regulation of
Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979
8. The Working Journalist and other Newspaper
Employees (Conditions of Service and Misc.
Provision) Act, 1955
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9. The Working Journalist (Fixation of rates of

wages) Act, 1958
10. The Motor Transport Workers Act, 1961
11. The Sales Promotion Employees (Condition of
Service) Act, 1976
12. The Beedi and Cigar Workers (Conditions of
Employment)Act, 1966
13. The Cine Workers and Cinema Theatre Workers
Act, 1981
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ANSWER KEY

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d). (Prof. B.P. Adarkar)   

4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b)  

7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d)  

10.  (d)  .  (Art.22  of  the  Universal  Declaration  of  Human 

Rights)  

11. (b) 12. (b) ​ ​13. (c)   

14.(b) 15. (a) 16. (d)   

17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (b)   

20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (c)   

23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (c)   

26. (d).by the Chairman CBT 27. (d)   

28.(c) 29. (c) 30. (a)  

31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c)   

34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (d)   

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37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (c)   

40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (d) 

43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (d)  

46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (a)   

49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (b)   

52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (d)   

55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (c) 

  
58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (b)   

61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (c)   

64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (b)   

67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (c)   

70. (c) 71. (d) 72. (d)   

73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (d)   

76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (a)   

79. (a) 80. (b) 81. (a)   

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82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (a)   

85. (c) (1907) 86. (d) 87. (a)   

88. (d) 89. (d)   

90. (d) ( it is enunciated by Common) 

91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (d)   

94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (d)   

97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (b)   

100. (a) 101. (d) 102. (b)   

103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (d) 

106. (d) 107. (d) 108. (c)  

109. (c) 110. (d) 111. (a)   

112. (c) 113. (d) 114. (c)   

115. (c) 116. (a) ( min.-9 & max.-11)   

117. (c) 118. (c) 119. (a)  

120. (d)   
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121. (b) 122. (a) 123. (c) 

124. (b) 125. (d) 126. (d)  

127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (a)   

130. (b) 131. (a) 132. (d)   

133. (b) 134. (d) 135. (c)   

136. (d) 137. (a) 138. (d)  

139. (d) 140. (a) 141. (b)   

142. (c) 143. (b) 144. (d)   

145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (a)   

148. (a) 149. (d) 150. (b)  

*==========*==========*==========* 
 
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