MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(ANALYSIS AND CHEMISTRY)

PREPARED BY

I
DR. NAITIK D. TRIVEDI,

ED
M. PHARM, PH. D

IV
LECTURER AT GOVERNMENT AIDED,
A. R. COLLEGE OF PHARMACY & G. H. PATEL INSTITUTE OF
TR

I
&
PHARMACY, VALLABH VIDYANAGAR, ANAND.

ED
Mobile: +91 - 9924567864
D

IV
E-mail: [email protected]
IK

TR
&
IT

N.
NA

DR. UPAMA N. TRIVEDI,

M. PHARM, PH. D
A
.

ASSOCIATE PROFESSOR & HoD (Pharm.D),

AM
DR

INDUBHAI PATEL COLLEGE OF PHARMACY AND RESEARCH

UP

CENTRE, DHARMAJ.
E-mail: [email protected]
.
DR

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

PHARMACEUTICAL ANANLYSIS AND CHEMISTRY (MCQS)

1. Basicity of organic acids can be determined by

A. Conductometry
B. Refractometry
C. Non-aqueous titrations
D. Complexometry
Ans. A

I
ED
2. For the detection of amino acids in Thin Layer Chromatography, the best regent is
A. Ninhydrin
B. Copper sulphate

IV
C. Iodine
D. potassium permanganate TR
Ans. A

I
&

ED
3. Which of the following cannot be used as carrier gas in gas chromatography
A. Hydrogen
D

B. Nitrogen

IV
C. Helium
D. Oxygen
IK

Ans. D

TR
IT

4. Gel chromatography method separates different substances depending on their

A. Molecular size
N.
B. Molecular weight
NA

C. Density
D. Viscosity
Ans. A
A
.

5. To explain the column efficiency, two theories i.e., plate and rate theory has been proposed.
AM
DR

They are related to

A. HPLC
UP

B. Gel chromatography
C. Gas liquid chromatography
D. Paper chromatography
Ans. C
.
DR

6. The D and L isomeric forms can be distinguished by

A. Polarimetry
B. Refractometry
C. Potentiometry
D. Conductometry
Ans. A

7 Sodium vapor lamp used in Polarimeter emit light of wavelength (in Angstrom)

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

A. 5890 & 5896

B. 4368 & 4916
C. 5770 & 5791
D. 5461 & 4368
Ans. A

8. Porphyrins can be separated using which stationary phase

A. Magnesium carbonate

I
B. Alumina

ED
C. Aluminium silicate
D. Silica gel
Ans. A

IV
9. The composition of sephadex used as stationary phase in gel chromatography is
TR
A. Starch

I
&
B. Polyacrylamide

ED
C. Cross linked dextran
D. Polyvinyl acetate
D

Ans. C

IV
10. The principle of separation in ion-exchange chromatography is
IK

A. Adsorption

TR
B. Partition
IT

C. Reversible exchange of functional groups

D. Chemical reaction
N.
Ans. C
NA

11. Immersion refractometer requires how much sample for determination of refractive index
A. 2-5 ml
A

B. 10-15 ml
.

C. 40-50 ml
AM
DR

D. More than 100 ml

Ans. B
UP

12. Glacial acetic acid is an example of

A. Protogenic solvent
B. Protophillic solvent
.

C. Amphiprotic solvent
DR

D. Aprotic solvent
Ans. C

13. A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is
A. Aspirin
B. Allopurinol
C. Colchicine
D. Probenecid

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

Ans. D

14. 2. Which of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone
insulin?
A. Mn++
B. Mg ++
C. Ca++
D. Zn++

I
Ans. D

ED
15. Oxidation of which substance in the body yields the most calories
A. Glucose

IV
B. Glycogen
C. Protein TR
D. Lipids

I
&
Ans. A

ED
16. Milk is deficient in which vitamins?
D

A. Vitamin C

IV
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B
IK

D. Vitamin K

TR
Ans. C
IT

17. Milk is deficient of which mineral?

N.
A. Phosphorus
NA

B. Sodium
C. Iron
D. Potassium
A

Ans. A
.

AM
DR

18. The degradative Processess are categorized under the heading of

A. Anabolism
UP

B. Catabolism
C. Metabolism
D. None of the above
Ans. B
.
DR

19. The cellular organelles called “suicide bags” are

A. Lysosomes
B. Ribosomes
C. Nucleolus
D. Golgi’s bodies
Ans. A

20. Mature erythrocytes do not contain

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

A. Glycolytic enzymes
B. HMP shunt enzymes
C. Pyridine nucleotide
D. ATP
Ans. C

21. The aldose sugar is

A. Glycerose

I
B. Ribulose

ED
C. Erythrulose
D. Dihydoxyacetone
Ans. A

IV
22. Two sugars which differ from one another only in configuration around a single carbon
TR
atom are termed

I
&
A. Epimers

ED
B. Anomers
C. Optical isomers
D

D. Stereoisomers

IV
Ans. A
IK

23. Compounds having the same structural formula but differing in spatial configuration

TR
are known as
IT

A. Stereoisomers
B. Anomers
N.
C. Optical isomers
NA

D. Epimers
Ans. A
A

24. Erythromycin contains

.

A. Dimethyl amino sugar

AM
DR

B. Trimethyl amino sugar

C. Sterol and sugar
UP

D. Glycerol and sugar

Ans. A

25. The constituent unit of inulin is

.

A. Glucose
DR

B. Fructose
C. Mannose
D. Galactose
Ans. B

26. A positive Benedict’s test is not given by

A. Sucrose
B. Lactose

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

C. Maltose
D. Glucose
Ans. A

27. A positive Seliwanoff’s test is obtained with

A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Lactose

I
D. Maltose

ED
Ans. B

28. Osazones are not formed with the

IV
A. Glucose
B. Fructose TR
C. Sucrose

I
&
D. Lactose

ED
Ans. C
D

29. The specific gravity of urine normally ranges from

IV
A. 0.900–0.999
B. 1.003–1.030
IK

C. 1.000–1.001

TR
D. 1.101–1.120
IT

Ans. B
N.
30. Specific gravity of urine increases in
NA

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Compulsive polydypsia
A

D. Hypercalcemia
.

Ans. A
AM
DR

31. Number of stereoisomers of glucose is

UP

A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. None of these
.

Ans. C
DR

32. The highest concentrations of fructose are found in

A. Aqueous humor
B. Vitreous humor
C. Synovial fluid
D. Seminal fluid
Ans. D

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

33. During starvation, ketone bodies are used as a fuel by

A. Erythrocytes
B. Brain
C. Liver
D. All of these
Ans. B

34. Catalytic activity of salivary amylase requires the presence of

I
A. Chloride ions

ED
B. Bromide ions
C. Iodide ions
D. All of these

IV
Ans. A
TR
35. Honey contains the hydrolytic product of

I
&
A. Lactose

ED
B. Maltose
C. Inulin
D

D. Starch

IV
Ans. C
IK

36. Cane sugar (Sucrose) injected into blood is

TR
A. Changed to fructose
IT

B. Changed to glucose
C. Undergoes no significant change
N.
D. Changed to glucose and fructose
NA

Ans. C

37. Pentose production is increased in

A

A. HMP shunt
.

B. Uromic acid pathway

AM
DR

C. EM pathway
D. TCA cycle
UP

Ans. A

38. Glucose tolerance is increased in

A. Diabetes mellitus
.

B. Adrenalectomy
DR

C. Acromegaly
D. Thyrotoxicosis
Ans. B

39. Glucose tolerance is decreased in

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hypopituitarisme
C. Addison’s disease

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

D. Hypothyroidism
Ans. A

40. Specific test for ketohexoses:

A. Seliwanoff’s test
B. Osazone test
C. Molisch test
D. None of these

I
Ans. A

ED
41. The tissues with the highest total glycogen content are
A. Muscle and kidneys

IV
B. Kidneys and liver
C. Liver and muscle TR
D. Brain and Liver

I
&
Ans. C

ED
42. Rothera test is not given by
D

A. β-hydroxy butyrate

IV
B. bile salts
C. Glucose
IK

D. None of these

TR
Ans. A
IT

43. Which one of the following can covert glucose to vitamin C?

N.
A. Albino rats
NA

B. Humans
C. Monkeys
D. Guinea pigs
A

Ans. A
.

AM
DR

44. Which one of the following cannot convert glucose to Vitamin C?

A. Albino rats
UP

B. Dogs
C. Monkeys
D. Cows
Ans. C
.
DR

45. Pasteur effect is

A. Inhibition of glycolysis
B. Oxygen is involved
C. Inhibition of enzyme phosphofructokinase
D. All of these
And. D

46. Phenylalanine is the precursor of

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

A. L-DOPA
B. Histamine
C. Tyrosine
D. Throxine
Ans. C

48. Epimers of glucose is

A. Fructose

I
B. Galactose

ED
C. Ribose
D. Deoxyribose
Ans. B

IV
49. Human heart muscle contains TR
A. D-Arabinose

I
&
B. D-Ribose

ED
C. D-Xylose
D. L-Xylose
D

Ans. C

IV
50. Invert sugar is
IK

A. Lactose

TR
B. Mannose
IT

C. Fructose
D. Hydrolytic product of sucrose
N.
Ans. D
NA

51. Which of the following is not reducing sugar?

A. Lactose
A

B. Maltose
.

C. Sucrose
AM
DR

D. Fructose
Ans. C
UP

52. The optically inactive amino acid is

A. Glycine
B. Serine
.

C. Threonine
DR

D. Valine
Ans. A

53. pH (isoelectric pH) of alanine is

A. 6.02
B. 6.6
C. 6.8
D. 7.2

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

Ans. A

54. An amino acid not found in proteins is

A. β -Alanine
B. Proline
C. Lysine
D. Histidine
Ans. A

I
ED
55. A ’suicide enzyme’ is
A. Cycloxygenase
B. Lipooxygenase

IV
C. Phospholipase A1
D. Cytochrom - C TR
Ans. A

I
&

ED
56. The optimal pH for the enzyme rennin is
A. 2.0
D

B. 4.0

IV
C. 8.0
D. 6.0
IK

Ans. B

TR
IT

57. The optimal pH for the enzyme trypsin is

A. 1.0–2.0
N.
B. 2.0–4.0
NA

C. 5.2–6.2
D. 5.8–6.2
Ans. C
A
.

58. The optimal pH for the enzyme chymo-trypsin is

AM
DR

A. 2.0
B. 4.0
UP

C. 6.0
D. 8.0
Ans. D
.

59. The main site of urea synthesis in mammals is

DR

A. Liver
B. Skin
C. Intestine
D. Kidney
Ans. A

60. The number of ATP required for urea synthesis is

A. 0

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Ans. D

61. Control of urea cycle involves the enzyme:

A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
B. Ornithine transcarbamoylase

I
C. Argininosuccinase

ED
D. Arginase
Ans. A

IV
62. Chemical score of protein zein is
A. 0 TR
B. 57

I
&
C. 60

ED
D. 70
Ans. A
D

IV
63. Biological value of egg white protein is
A. 94
IK

B. 83

TR
C. 85
IT

D. 77
Ans. B
N.
NA

64. Net protein utilisation of egg protein is

A. 75%
B. 80%
A

C. 91%
.

D. 72%
AM
DR

Ans. C
UP

65. Net protein utilization of milk protein is

A. 75%
B. 80%
C. 86%
.

D. 91%
DR

Ans. A

66. Pulses are deficient in

A. Lysine
B. Threonine
C. Methionine
D. Tryptophan
Ans. C

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

67. A trace element deficient in the milk is

A. Magnesium
B. Copper
C. Zinc
D. Chloride
Ans. A

I
68. Milk is deficient in

ED
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Sodium

IV
D. Potassium
Ans. C TR

I
&
69. Tay-Sachs disease results from inherited deficiency of

ED
A. Arylsulphatase A
B. Hexosaminidase A
D

C. Sphingomyelinase

IV
D. Ceramidase
Ans. B
IK

TR
70. The largest immunoglobulin is
IT

A. IgA
B. IgG
N.
C. IgM
NA

D. IgD
Ans. C
A

71. Allergic reactions are mediated by

.

A. IgA
AM
DR

B. IgG
C. IgD
UP

D. IgE
Ans. D

72. An immunoglobulin which can cross the placental barrier is

.

A. IgA
DR

B. IgM
C. IgD
D. None of these
Ans. D

73. MHC Class II proteins, in conjunction with antigens, are recognised by

A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. Helper T cells

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

C. Suppressor T cells
D. Memory T cells
Ans. B

74. CD 8 is a transmembrane glycoprotein present in

A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Suppressor T cells

I
D. Memory T cells

ED
Ans. C

75. CD 4 is a transmembrane glycoprotein present in

IV
A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. Helper T cells TR
C. Suppressor T cells

I
&
D. Memory T cells

ED
Ans. A
D

76. Human immunodeficiency virus destroys

IV
A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. Helper T cells
IK

C. B cells

TR
D. Plasma cells
IT

Ans. B
N.
77. Active immunity can be produced by administration of
NA

A. Killed bacteria or viruses

B. Live attenuated bacteria or viruses
C. Toxoids
A

D. All of these
.

Ans. D
AM
DR

78. Passive immunity can be produced by administration of

UP

A. Pure antigens
B. Immunoglobulins
C. Toxoids
D. Killed bacteria or viruses
.

Ans. B
DR

79. Egg is poor in

A. Essential amino acids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Avidin
D. Biotin
Ans. B

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

80. Cholesterol is present in all the following except

A. Milk
B. Fish
C. Egg white
D. Egg yolk
Ans. C

81. Meat is rich in all of the following except

I
A. Iron

ED
B. Fluorine
C. Copper
D. Zinc

IV
Ans. B
TR
82. Kwashiorkor occurs when the diet is severely deficient in

I
&
A. Iron

ED
B. Calories
C. Proteins
D

D. Essential fatty acids

IV
Ans. A
IK

83. During starvation, the first reserve nutrient to be depleted is

TR
A. Glycogen
IT

B. Proteins
C. Triglycerides
N.
D. Cholesterol
NA

Ans. A

84. Histamine is synthesised in

A

A. Brain
.

B. Mast cells
AM
DR

C. Basophils
D. All of these
UP

Ans. D

85. GABA(gama amino butyric acid) is

A. Post-synaptic excitatory transmitter
.

B. Post-synaptic inhibitor transmitter

DR

C. activator of glia-cell function

D. inhibitor of glia-cell function
Ans. B

86. The pH of an amino acid depends

A. Optical rotation
B. Dissociation constant
C. Diffusion coefficient

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

D. Chain length
Ans. B

87. Plasma proteins are isolated by

A. Salting out
B. Electrophoresis
C. Flourimetry
D. Both A. and B.

I
Ans. D

ED
88. NH3 is detoxified in brain chiefly as
A. Urea

IV
B. Uric acid
C. Creatinine TR
D. Glutamine

I
&
Ans. D

ED
89. In humans, NH3 is detoxified in liver as
D

A. Creatinine

IV
B. Uric acid
C. Urea
IK

D. Uronic acid

TR
Ans. C
IT

90. Amino acids are insoluble in

N.
A. Acetic acid
NA

B. Chloroform
C. Ethanol
D. Benzene
A

Ans. D
.

AM
DR

91. The precursor of bile salts, sex hormones and vitamin D is

A. Diosgenin
UP

B. Cholesterol
C. Campesterol
D. Ergosterol
Ans. B
.
DR

92. Biuret test is specific for

A. Two peptide linkage
B. Phenolic group
C. Imidazole ring
D. None of these
Ans. A

93. Dietary fats after absorption appear in the circulation as

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

A. HDL
B. VLDL
C. LDL
D. Chylomicron
Ans. D

94. Fucosidosis is characterized by

A. Muscle spasticity

I
B. Liver enlargement

ED
C. Skin rash
D. Kidney failure
Ans. A

IV
95. The deficiency of both energy and protein causes
TR
A. Marasmus

I
&
B. Kwashiorkar

ED
C. Diabetes
D. Beri-beri
D

Ans. A

IV
96. Creatinine EDTA clearance is a test to measure
IK

A. Renal plasma flow

TR
B. Filtration fraction
IT

C. Glomerular filtration rate

D. Tubular function
N.
Ans. C
NA

97. Glomerular filtration rate can be measured by

A. Endogenous creatinine clearance
A

B. Para-aminohippurate test
.

C. Addis test
AM
DR

D. Mosenthal test
Ans. A
UP

98. De novo synthesis of fatty acids requires all of the following except
A. Biotin
B. NADH
.

C. Panthothenic acid
DR

D. ATP
Ans. D

99. Cholesterol is present in all of the following except

A. Egg
B. Fish
C. Milk
D. Pulses

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

Ans. D

100. Body water is regulated by the hormone:

A. Oxytocin
B. ACTH
C. FSH
D. Epinephrine
Ans. A

I
ED
101. Normal range of serum albumin is
A. 2.0–3.6 gm/dl
B. 2.0–3.6 mg/dl

IV
C. 3.5–5.5 gm/dl
D. 3.5–5.5 mg/dl TR
Ans. C

I
&

ED
102. Normal range of serum globulin is
A. 2.0–3.6 mg/dl
D

B. 2.0–3.6 gm/dl

IV
C. 3.5–5.5 mg/dl
D. 3.5–5.5 gm/dl
IK

Ans. B

TR
IT

103. Galactose intolerance can occur in

A. Haemolytic jaundice
N.
B. Hepatocellular jaundice
NA

C. Obstructive jaundice
D. None of these
Ans. B
A
.

104. Inulin clearance is a measure of

AM
DR

A. Glomerular filtration rate

B. Tubular secretion flow
UP

C. Tubular reabsorption rate

D. Renal plasma flow
Ans. B
.

105. Phenolsulphonephthalein excretion test is an indicator of

DR

A. Glomerular filtration
B. Tubular secretion
C. Tubular reabsorption
D. Renal blood low
Ans. D

106. Para-amino hippurate excretion test is an indicator of

A. Glomerular filtration

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

B. Tubular secretion
C. Tubular reabsorption
D. Renal plasma flow
Ans. D

107. Renal plasma flow of an average adult man is

A. 120–130 ml/minute
B. 325–350 ml/minute

I
C. 480–52 ml/minute

ED
D. 560–830 ml/minute
Ans. D

IV
108. All the following are functions of prostaglandins except
A. Lowering of B.P TR
B. Introduction of labour

I
&
C. Anti inflammatory

ED
D. Prevention of myocardial infraction
Ans. D
D

IV
109. Inherited deficiency of enzyme cerebro-sidase produces
A. Fabry’s disease
IK

B. Niemann pick disease

TR
C. Gaucher’s disease
IT

D. Tay-sach’s disease
Ans. C
N.
NA

110. This lipoprotein removes cholesterol from the body

A. HDL
B. VLDL
A

C. IDL
.

D. Chylomicrons
AM
DR

Ans. A
UP

111. Liposomes are

A. Lipid bilayered
B. Water in the middle
C. Carriers of drugs
.

D. All of these
DR

Ans. D

112. Bile is produced by

A. Liver
B. Gall-bladder
C. Pancreas
D. Intestine
Ans. A

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

113. Fats are solids at

A. 10°C
B. 20°C
C. 30°C
D. 40°C
Ans. B

I
114. Amylase present in saliva is

ED
A. α Amylase
B. β-Amylae C.
Y-Amylase

IV
D. All of these
Ans. A TR

I
115. Selwanof’s test is positive in

&

ED
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
D

C. Galactose

IV
D. Mannose
Ans. B
IK

TR
116. Fat soluble vitamins are
IT

A. Soluble in alcohol
B. one or more Propene units
N.
C. Stored in liver
NA

D. All these
Ans. D
A

117. Deficiency of Vitamin A causes

.

A. Xeropthalmia
AM
DR

B. Hypoprothrombinemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
UP

D. Pernicious anemia
Ans. A

118. An important function of vitamin A is

.

A. To act as coenzyme for a few enzymes

DR

B. To play an integral role in protein synthesis

C. To prevent hemorrhages
D. To maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue
Ans. D

119. Retinal is a component of

A. Iodopsin
B. Rhodopsin

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

C. Cardiolipin
D. Glycoproteins
Ans. B

120. Vitamin D absorption is increased in

A. Acid pH of intestine
B. Alkaline pH of intestine
C. Impaired fat absorption

I
D. Contents of diet

ED
Ans. A

121. A poor source of Vitamin D is

IV
A. Egg
B. Butter TR
C. Milk

I
&
D. Liver

ED
Ans. C
D

122. Richest source of Vitamin D is

IV
A. Fish liver oils
B. Margarine
IK

C. Egg yolk

TR
D. Butter
IT

Ans. A
N.
123. Deficiency of vitamin D causes
NA

A. Ricket and osteomalacia

B. Tuberculosis of bone
C. Hypthyroidism
A

D. Skin cancer
.

Ans. C
AM
DR

124. One international unit (I.U) of vitamin D is defined as the biological activity of
UP

A. 0.025 µg of cholecalciferol
B. 0.025 µg of 7-dehydrocholecalciferol
C. 0.025 µg of ergosterol
D. 0.025 µg of ergocalciferol
.

Ans. A
DR

125. The Vitamin B1 deficiency causes

A. Ricket
B. Nyctalopia
C. Beriberi
D. Pellagra
Ans. C

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

126. Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin C
Ans. D

127. Riboflavin deficiency causes

I
A. Cheilosis

ED
B. Loss of weight
C. Mental deterioration
D. Dermatitis

IV
Ans. A
TR
128. Pellagra occurs in population dependent on

I
&
A. Wheat

ED
B. Rice
C. Maize
D

D. Milk

IV
Ans. C
IK

129. Magenta tongue is found in the deficiency of the vitamin

TR
A. Riboflavin
IT

B. Thiamin
C. Nicotinic acid
N.
D. Pyridoxine
NA

Ans. A

130. Corneal vascularisation is found in deficiency of the vitamin:

A

A. B1
.

B. B2
AM
DR

C. B3
D. B6
UP

Ans. B

131. The pellagra preventive factor is

A. Riboflavin B. Pantothenic acid C. Niacin D. Pyridoxine
.

Ans. C
DR

132. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of

A. Ascorbic acid
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Pyridoxine
D. Niacin
Ans. D

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

133. Vitamin B6 deficiency may occur during therapy with

A. Isoniazid
B. Terramycin
C. Sulpha drugs
D. Aspirin
Ans. A

134. A deficiency of vitamin B12 causes

I
A. Beri-Beri

ED
B. Scurvy
C. Perniciuos anemia
D. Ricket

IV
Ans. D
TR
135. Factors affecting enzyme activity:

I
&
A. Concentration

ED
B. pH
C. Temperature
D

D. All of these

IV
Ans. D
IK

136. The pH optima for salivary analyse is

TR
A. 6.6–6.8
IT

B. 2.0–7.5
C. 7.9
N.
D. 8.6
NA

Ans. A

137. The pH optima for pancreatic analyse is

A

A. 4.0
.

B. 7.1
AM
DR

C. 7.9
D. 8.6
UP

Ans. D

138. The ion which activates salivary amylase activity is

A. Chloride
.

B. Bicarbonate
DR

C. Sodium
D. Potassium
Ans. A

139. Glucose absorption is promoted by

A. Vitamin A
B. Thiamin
C. Vitamin C

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

D. Vitamin K
Ans. B

140. A carbohydrate which cannot be digested in human gut is

A. Cellulose
B. Starch
C. Glycogen
D. Maltose

I
Ans. A

ED
141. The number of ATP molecules generated for each turn of the citric acid cycle is
A. 8

IV
B. 12
C. 24 TR
D. 38

I
&
Ans. B

ED
142. Mitochondrial membrane is freely preamble to
D

A. Pyruvate

IV
B. Malate
C. Oxaloacetate
IK

D. Fumarate

TR
Ans. B
IT

143. The net number of ATP formed per mole of glucose in anaerobic glycolysis is
N.
A. 1
NA

B. 2
C. 6
D. 8
A

Ans. B
.

AM
DR

144. The sites for gluconeogenesis are

A. Liver and kidney
UP

B. Skin and pancreas

C. Lung and brain
D. Intestine and lens of eye
Ans. A
.
DR

145. Insulin has no effect on the activity of the enzyme:

A. Glycogen synthetase
B. Fructokinase
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Ans. B

146. In Hunter’s syndrome

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

A. There is progressive corneal opacity

B. Keratan sulphate is excreted in the urine
C. Enzyme defective is arylsulphatase B
D. Hearing loss is perceptive
Ans. D

147. An important feature of Von-Gierke’s disease is

A. Muscle cramps

I
B. Cardiac failure

ED
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Ans. C

IV
148. The affected organ in Mc Ardle’s syndrome is
TR
A. Liver

I
&
B. Kidney

ED
C. Liver and Heart
D. Skeletal muscle
D

Ans. D

IV
149. Refsum’s disease is due to deficiency of the enzyme:
IK

A. Pytantate α—oxidase

TR
B. Glucocerebrosidase
IT

C. Galactocerebrosidase
D. Ceramide trihexosidase
N.
Ans. A
NA

150. A component of the respiratory chain in mitochondria is

A. Coenzyme Q
A

B. Coenzyme A
.

C. Acetyl coenzyme
AM
DR

D. Coenzyme containing thiamin

Ans. A
UP

151. A pentamer immunoglobulin is

A. Ig G
B. Ig A
.

C. Ig M
DR

D. Ig E
Ans. C

152. The immunoglobulin which can cross the placenta is

A. Ig A
B. Ig M
C. Ig G
D. Ig D

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

Ans. C

153. The total iron content of the human body is

A. 400–500 mg
B. 1–2 g
C. 2–3 g
D. 4–5 g
Ans. D

I
ED
154. Iron is mainly absorbed from
A. Stomach and duodenum

IV
B. Ileum
C. Caecum TR
D. Colon

I
&
Ans. A

ED
155. 25. Aldosterone synthesis occurs in
D

A. Zona reticularis

IV
B. Zona fasciculate
C. Zona glomerulosa
IK

D. Chromaffian cells

TR
Ans. C
IT

156. A hormone which cannot cross the blood brain barrier is

N.
A. Epinephrine
NA

B. Aldosterone
C. ACTH
D. TSH
A

Ans. A
.

AM
DR

157. Protein kinase C is activated by

A. Cyclic AMP
UP

B. Cyclic GMP
C. Diacyl glycerol
D. Inositol triphosphate
Ans. C
.
DR

158. Mental retardation can occur in

A. Cretinism
B. Juvenile myxoedema
C. Myxoedema
D. Juvenile thyrotoxicosis
Ans. A

159. The most powerful thyroid hormone is

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

A. Reverse T3
B. DIT
C. T3
D. T4
Ans. C

160. Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex synthesises

A. Glucocorticoids

I
B. Mineralocorticoids

ED
C. Androgens
D. Estrogen and progesterone
Ans. A

IV
161. A nucleoside consists of TR
A. Nitrogenous base

I
&
B. Purine or pyrimidine base + sugar

ED
C. Purine or pyrimidine base + phosphorous
D. Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar + phosphorous
D

Ans. B

IV
162. A nucleotide consists of
IK

A. A nitrogenous base like choline

TR
B. Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar + phosphorous
IT

C. Purine or pyrimidine base + sugar

D. Purine or pyrimidine base + phosphorous
N.
Ans. B
NA

163. Gout is a metabolic disorder of catabolism of

A. Pyrimidine
A

B. Purine
.

C. Alanine
AM
DR

D. Phenylalanine
Ans. B
UP

164. Reverse transcriptase is capable of synthesising

A. RNA to DNA
B. DNA to RNA
.

C. RNA to RNA
DR

D. DNA to DNA
Ans. A

165. P 53 gene:
A. A proto-oncogene
B. An oncogene
C. A tumour suppressor gene
D. None of these

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

Ans. C

166. AN Eukaryotic ribosome is made up of ________ sub unit.

A. 40S and 60S
B. 40S and 50S
C. 40S and 80S
D. 60S and 80S
Ans. A

I
ED
167. Restriction enzymes have been found in
A. Humans
B. Birds

IV
C. Bacteria
D. Bacteriophase TR
Ans. C

I
&

ED
168. Hypernatremia may occur in
A. Diabetes insipidus
D

B. Diuretic medication

IV
C. Heavy sweating
D. Kidney disease
IK

Ans. A

TR
IT

169. CH3O- Na+ + CH3Cl - CH3 - O - CH3 + NaCl

N.
The above reaction is an example for which of the following?
NA

A. Williamson reaction
B. Clemmenson reaction
C. Wuotz's reaction
A

D. Reformatsky reaction
.

Ans. A
AM
DR

170. Which of the following group is detected by using Herzig Meyer method?
UP

A. Alkyl group
B. Hydroxy group
C. Alkoxy group
D. N-alkyl group
.

Ans. D
DR

171. Increase the extent of conjugation of a double bonded system result in

A. Hypochromic shift
B. Hyperchromic shift
C. Hypsochromic shift
D. Bathochromic shift
Ans. D

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

172. A monochromator is not used in which of the following instrument?

A. Spectrofluorimeter
B. UV spectrometer
C. FT-IR spectrometer
D. IR spectrometer
Ans. C

173. _______ material is used for the preparation of master grafting

I
A. Glass

ED
B. Iron
C. Teflon
D. Aluminum

IV
Ans. D
TR
174. The UV visible region in the electromagnetic spectrum of radiation is

I
&
A. 200-400nm

ED
B. 400-800nm
C. 200-800nm
D

D. 300-660nm

IV
Ans. C
IK

175. Wave number is the number of waves

TR
A. per second
IT

B. per centimeter
C. per inch
N.
D. per centimeter inverse
NA

Ans. D

176. Nujol is
A

A. Hexachlorobutadiene
.

B. Mineral oil
AM
DR

C. Perfluorokerosene
D. Flurolube
UP

Ans. B

177. IR is useful for understanding of

A. Drug drug interaction
.

B. Functional group
DR

C. Physico-chemical properties
D. Conformational Properties
Ans. B

178. In NMR spectrometry the chemical shift (ᵟ) is expressed in

A. Parts per million
B. Gauss
C. Tesla

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

D. Herts
Ans. A

179. Tesla is unit used to express

A. Frequency
B. Pressure
C. Vltage
D. Magnetic Field Strength

I
Ans. D

ED
180. The number of peak shown by diethyl ether in NMR spectrum are
A. 4

IV
B. 5
C. 6 TR
D. 2

I
&
Ans. D

ED
181. The chemical shift value is
D

A. Proportional to field strength

IV
B. Not proportional to field strength
C. Ratio of number of protons in each group
IK

D. Proportional to the total number of protons

TR
Ans. A
IT

182. _____ is the wave length source in NMR spectrometer

N.
A. Goniometer
NA

B. Radio frequency oscillator

C. High voltage generator
D. Klystron oscillator
A

Ans. B
.

AM
DR

183. A mass spectrum is obtained by plotting graph of

A. Molecular weight versus peak height
UP

B. Concentration versus peak height

C. Concentration versus degree of deflection of ions
D. Abundance of ions versus their m/e ratio
Ans. D
.
DR

184. Removal of single electron from a molecule produce

A. Fragment ion
B. Molecular ion
C. Metastable ion
D. Rearrangement ion
Ans. B

185. Silica gel used in the most of the adsorbent columns contains –OH groups. So it is

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. None of the above
Ans. A

186. One of the units used for expressing pressure is torr and it is equal to
A. cm of Hg

I
B. mm of Hg

ED
C. psi
D. gauss
Ans. B

IV
187. Derivatisation techniques in HPLC are intended to enhance
TR
A. Molecular weight

I
&
B. Detactability

ED
C. Reversibility
D. Reproducibility
D

Ans. B

IV
188. Derivatisation is done in GC
IK

A. To convert a less polar compound to more polar compound

TR
B. To make the compound non volatile
IT

C. To convert a polar compound to less polar compound

D. To liquefy a solid
N.
Ans. C
NA

189. The stationary phase used in gel permeation chromatography is

A. Styrene divinyl benzyl co-polymer
A

B. Charcoal
.

C. Alumina
AM
DR

D. Squalene
Ans. A
UP

190. Official methods to analyze of ciprofloxacin is

A. Potentiometry
B. HPLC
.

C. Gas chromatography
DR

D. Non aqueous titration

Ans. B

191. In quantitative TLC radioactive material can be studies by

A. Visual comparison
B. Geiger Counter
C. Densitometer
D. Gravimetry

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

Ans. B

192. In gel permeation chromatography molecules are separated on the basis of

A. Size and shape
B. Chemical nature
C. Adsorptive properties
D. Partition coefficient
Ans. A

I
ED
193. Thermolabile immiscible liquid can be separated by
A. Decantation
B. Dilution

IV
C. Counter-counter distribution
D. Capillary centrifugation TR
Ans. B

I
&

ED
194. A widely acceptor detector for pH measurement is
A. Platinum wire
D

B. Glass electrode

IV
C. Ag-AgCl detector
D. Lanthanum fluoride
IK

Ans. B

TR
IT

195. A glass electrode used in pH measurement is

A. A membrane electrode
N.
B. Ion selective electrode
NA

C. Metal – metal oxide electrode

D. All of the above
Ans. A
A
.

196. Conductivity cells are made up of

AM
DR

A. Two silver rods

B. Two parallel sheets of platinum
UP

C. Glass membrane with Ag/AgCl

D. Stainless steel
Ans. B
.

197. The conductivity of the solution of an electrolyte is

DR

A. Not temperature dependence

B. Temperature dependence
C. Pressure dependence
D. Volume dependence
Ans. B

198. Ion mobility is denoted by

A. cm/sec

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

B. mg/sec
C. oC/sec
D. ml/sec
Ans. A

199. Quantitative analysis by polarography is based on

A. Electrode potential
B. Half wave potential

I
C. Migration current

ED
D. Limiting current
Ans. B

IV
200. The factor affecting diffusion current in polarography can be denoted by
A. Ilkovic equation TR
B. Nernst equation

I
&
C. Mark Houwink equation
D. lambert’s Law

ED
Ans. A
D

IV
201. Which one of the following is measured in amperometric titration?
A. Resistance
IK

B. Conductance

TR
C. Voltage
IT

D. Current
Ans. D
N.
NA

202. In amperometric titration ________ is kept constant

A. Resistance
B. Voltage applied
A

C. Current
.

D. Conductance
AM
DR

Ans. B
UP

203. A target material used in the production of X-says is

A. Potassium
B. Copper
C. Aluminium
.

D. Sodium
DR

Ans. B

204. Which one of the following indicator is used in complexometric titration?

A. Crystal violet
B. Murexide
C. Eosin
D. Methyl orange
Ans. B

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

205. Aprotic solvents have

A. Acidic properties
B. Basic properties
C. Both acidic and basic properties
D. No acidic and No basic properties
Ans. D

206. The electron transition not observed in UV spectroscopy is

I
A. σ→ σ*

ED
B. n→σ*
C. n→ π*
D. π → π*

IV
Ans. A

207. Frequency is
TR

I
&
A. 1/‫ג‬
B. c/‫ג‬

ED
C. c‫ג‬
D

D. c/ ‫ג‬

IV
Ans. B
IK

208. What is the unit of specific conductance?

TR
A. Ohm
IT

B. Mho
C. Ohm cm-1
D. Mho cm-1
N.
NA

Ans. D

209. How many 1H NMR signals will be given by acetone?

A

A. One
.

B. Two
AM
DR

C. Three
D. Six
UP

Ans. A

210. In which order are the various parts of a mass spectrometer found?
A. Ionization chamber – sample – magnet – collector - recorder
.

B. Sample – ionization chamber – magnet – collector - recorder

DR

C. Sample – magnet – ionization chamber – collector - recorder

D. Ionization chamber– magnet – sample – collector - recorder
Ans. B

211. Which of the following gas is unsuitable for GC as carrier gas

A. Carbon dixide
B. Helium
C. Nitrogen

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

D. Oxygen
Ans. A

212. To determine the rancidity of arachis oil __________ method is used

A. Acid base titration
B. Complexometric titration
C. Redox titration
D. Precipitation titration

I
Ans. C

ED
213. _________ is the choice for GC separations of halogenated compounds
A. Electron capture detector

IV
B. Flame ionization detector
C. Thermal conductivity detector TR
D. Universal detector

I
&
Ans. A

ED
214. Attachment of tertiary amino group to the 4th carbon of the butyrophenone makes it
D

A. Antidepressant

IV
B. Antipsychotic
C. Anticonvulsant
IK

D. CNS stimulant

TR
Ans. B
IT

215. Which of the following is prompt acting insulin?

N.
A. Insulin injection
NA

B. Insulin zinc suspension

C. Globin zinc insulin injection
D. Isophane insulin injection
A

Ans. A
.

AM
DR

216. Scopine is
A. 3-α hydroxy tropane
UP

B. 6,7 β – hydroxy tropane

C. 3 – β hydroxy tropane
D. 6 - β hydroxy tropane
Ans. B
.
DR

217. Doxorubicin act by

A. Inhibiting asparaginase
B. Inhibiting topoisomerase - II
C. Inhibiting adenosine deaminase
D. Inhibiting function of microtubule
Ans. B

218. Methotrexate produce their action by

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (ANALYSIC AND CHEMISTRY)

A. Interfering with purine synthesis

B. Intracellular formation of an amine adduct
C. Forming a conjugate with nucleic acid
D. Inhibit the synthesis of folic acid
Ans. A

219. A metabolites of spironolactone is

A. Aldosterone

I
B. Cabrenone

ED
C. Corticosterone
D. Pregnenolone
Ans. B

IV
220. Peripheral neurotransmitter is TR
A. Histamine

I
&
B. Noradrenalin

ED
C. Hydroxytryptamine
D. Prostaglandin
D

Ans. B

IV
IK

TR
IT

N.
NA

A
.

AM
DR

UP
.
DR

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