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11 Biotechnology-Principles N Processes-Entrance Questions N Answers

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529 views4 pages

11 Biotechnology-Principles N Processes-Entrance Questions N Answers

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RajuGoud Biology
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© © All Rights Reserved
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com

PRINCIPLES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY
1. The technique of using live organisms or their enzymes 5. The technique in which genetic material (DNA & RNA)
for products & processes useful to humans is called is chemically altered and introduced into host
a. Bioinformatics b. Molecular biology organisms to change the phenotype is called
c. Biotechnology d. Bionics a. Biotechnology b. Genetic engineering
2. The definition of Biotechnology as ‘the integration of c. Gene therapy d. Genomics
natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and 6. A piece of alien DNA cannot multiply itself in the
molecular analogues for products and services’ is given progeny cells of the organism because
by www.bankofbiology.com a. It has no the sequence called Origin of
a. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee replication (ori) needed for starting replication.
(GEAC) b. A piece of DNA will be denatured and damaged
b. European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB) soon as it has no stability.
c. Biotechnology Innovation Organization (BIO) c. A piece of DNA is easily unwound and the H
d. Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance bonds between nitrogen bases are broken.
Council (BIRAC) d. Both A & B.
3. Biotechnology deals with 7. First recombinant DNA (rDNA) was produced in 1972
a. Microbe-mediated processes. by two scientists namely
b. In vitro fertilization. a. Stanley Miller & Harold Urey
c. Synthesis of a gene and correction of defective b. Stanley Cohen & Robert Brown
gene. c. Stanley Cohen & Herbert Boyer
d. Preparation of DNA vaccine. d. Stanley Miller & Herbert Boyer
e. All the above. 8. Stanley Cohen & Herbert Boyer isolated an antibiotic
4. The two core techniques of modern biotechnology are resistance gene by cutting out a DNA piece from a
a. Genetic engineering and Maintenance of sterile plasmid and this gene was linked with a
ambience. a. Native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium
b. IVF and Preparation of DNA vaccine. b. Native plasmid of Escherichia coli
c. Gene therapy and IVF. c. Native plasmid of Salmonella typhi
d. Microbe-mediated processes and Preparation d. Yeast Artificial Chromosome (YAC)
of DNA vaccine. www.bankofbiology.com
TOOLS OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY
9. Which group of enzymes are known as ‘molecular d. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the
scissors’? www.bankofbiology.com ends of the DNA.
a. Exonucleases b. Endonucleases e. Endonucleases bind to specific recognition
c. Restriction enzymes d. All above sequence of the DNA and cut the two strands at
10. A group of enzymes which cut DNA at specific sites into specific points.
fragments are called 13. The first restriction endonuclease is
a. Hydrolases b. Restriction enzymes a. Hind II b. EcoRI
c. Nucleosidases d. Nucleotidases c. BamHI d. EcoRII
11. Restriction enzymes belong to a class of enzymes called 14. Hind II cuts DNA molecules by recognizing a specific
a. Nucleases b. Ligases recognition sequence of
c. Hydrolases d. Endonucleases a. 4 base pairs b. 6 base pairs
12. Choose the false statement from the following c. 8 base pairs d. 10 base pairs
a. In 1963, two enzymes responsible for 15. Which of the following is palindromic nucleotide
restricting growth of bacteriophage in E. coli sequences in the DNA?
were isolated. One enzyme added methyl a. 5' —— CAATTC —— 3'
groups to DNA. The other (restriction 3' —— GTTAAG —— 5'
endonuclease) cut DNA. b. 5' —— GAAATG —— 3'
b. More than 900 restriction enzymes have been 3' —— CTTTAC —— 5'
isolated from over 230 strains of bacteria. c. 5' —— GAATTC —— 3'
c. In the restriction enzyme EcoRI, ‘co’ represents 3' —— CTTAAG —— 5'
the genus of the organism from which the d. 5' —— GTATAG —— 3'
enzyme was isolated. 3' —— CATATC —— 5'
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1
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16. Restriction enzymes cut the DNA strand leaving single 24. Which of the following cloning vectors has very high
stranded overhanging stretches at the ends. They are copy numbers of their genome?
called www.bankofbiology.com a. Plasmids b. YAC
a. Marker gene b. Blunt ends c. Bacteriophages d. BAC
c. Sticky ends d. Recognition sites 25. The function of a selectable marker is
17. The sticky ends of DNA strands formed by the action of a. Eliminating tarnsformants and permitting
restriction enzymes facilitates action of non-transformants
a. DNA polymerase b. DNA ligase b. Elimination of non-transformants and
c. RNA primase d. DNA helicase permitting transformants
18. In recombinant DNA technology, DNA fragments are c. Identify ori site
separated by a technique called d. To destroy recognition sites
a. Gel electrophoresis b. PCR 26. Select the wrong statement.
c. Annealing d. Insertional inactivation a. Transformation is a procedure through which a
19. Which statement is correct regarding the figure given piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium.
below? b. Selectable markers of E. coli include the genes
encoding resistance to antibiotics like
ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline, etc.
c. Normal E. coli cells have resistance against
ampicillin, chloramphenicol etc.
d. To link the alien DNA, the vector needs a single
or very few recognition sites for restriction
enzymes.
a. The figure represents PCR and Lane 2 to 4 27. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of
represent migration of undigested DNA the E. coli vector pBR322. Which one of the given
fragments. options correctly identifies its certain components?
b. The figure represents PCR and Lanes 1 to 4
represent migration of digested DNA
fragments.
c. The figure represents Agarose gel
electrophoresis and Lane 2 represents
migration of undigested DNA fragments.
d. The figure represents Agarose gel
electrophoresis and Lane 1 represents
migration of undigested DNA fragments. a. ori – original restriction enzyme
20. During gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments b. rop – reduced osmotic pressure
can be seen as bright orange coloured bands when they c. Hind III, Eco RI – selectable markers
are www.bankofbiology.com d. ampR, tetR – antibiotic resistance genes
a. Stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to 28. Which of the following has incorrect description?
IR radiation. a. Non-transformants – No plasmid. They are not
b. Stained with methylene blue and exposed to UV resistant to either tetracycline or ampicillin.
radiation. b. Transformants with non-recombinant plasmid
c. Stained with methylene blue and exposed to IR – They are resistant only to tetracycline.
radiation. c. Transformants with recombinant plasmid –
d. Stained with ethidium bromide and exposed to They are resistant only to ampicillin.
UV radiation. d. Both a & b. www.bankofbiology.com
21. After gel electrophoresis, DNA bands are cut out from 29. Select the wrong statement.
agarose gel. This is called a. Insertional inactivation is a technique in which
a. Elution b. Transformation a recombinant DNA is inserted within the
c. Denaturation d. Annealing
coding sequence of an enzyme, -galactosidase,
22. A small price of DNA molecule that can carry a foreign
to inactivate that enzyme.
DNA segment and replicate inside the host cells is
b. The presence of chromogenic substrate gives
known as
blue colour colonies, if the plasmid in the
a. Marker gene b. Primer
bacteria does not have an insert.
c. Cloning vector d. Ori
c. Retroviruses in animals can transform normal
23. Autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal
cells into cancerous cells.
DNA of bacteria is called
d. In microinjection, cells are bombarded with
a. Marker gene b. Plasmids
high velocity microparticles of gold or tungsten
c. Cosmids d. BAC
coated with DNA.
2
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e.Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule it cannot 32. In order to induce bacterial uptake of plasmids, the
pass through cell membrane bacteria are made competent by first treating with
30. The vector for T-DNA is www.bankofbiology.com a. Sodium chloride
a. Thermus aquaticus b. Potassium chloride
b. Salmonella typhimurium c. Magnesium chloride
c. Agrobacterium tumefaciens d. Calcium chloride
d. Escherichia coli 33. Biolistics (gene gun) is suitable for
e. Bacillus thuringiensis a. Disarming pathogen vectors
31. Which is most correct statement regarding b. Transformation of plant cells
Agrobacterium tumifaciens? c. Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with
a. It is a pathogen of many dicot plants that can vectors
deliver a piece of DNA to transform normal d. DNA fingerprinting
plant cells into a tumor. 34. For transformation, micro-articles coated with DNA to
b. It is a pathogen of many monocot plants that be bombarded with gene gun are made up of
can deliver a piece of RNA to transform normal a. Silver or platinum
plant cells into a tumor. b. Platinum or zinc
c. It is a pathogen of many animals that can c. Silicon or platinum
deliver a piece of DNA to transform normal d. Gold or tungsten
animal cells into a tumor.
d. It is a pathogen of many dicot plants that can
deliver a piece of RNA to transform normal
plant cells into a tumor. www.bankofbiology.com

PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY


35. Match the tissues/molecules mentioned in column I 39. After cutting the source DNA and vector DNA, the cut-
with those of their degrading enzymes mentioned in out gene of interest from source DNA and cut vector are
column II and select the correct option. joined using the enzyme
Column I Column II a. DNA polymerase
A. Plant cell wall i. Proteases b. Nuclease
B. RNA ii. Chitinase c. Hydrolase
C. Histone iii. Ribonucleases d. Ligase
D. Fungal cell wall iv. Cellulase 40. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technology is used for
a. DNA identification
a. A- ii, B- i, C- iv, D- iii
b. DNA repair
b. A- iv, B- iii, C- i, D- ii
c. DNA amplification
c. A- iii, B- iv, C- ii, D- i
d. DNA cleavage
d. A- ii, B- iv, C- i, D- iii
41. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA
36. For the isolation of genetic material, bacterial cell wall
polymerase used in PCR?
is broken using the enzyme called
a. It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient
a. Cellulase
cells.
b. Chitinase
b. It serves as selectable marker.
c. Lysozyme
c. It is isolated from a virus.
d. Protease
d. It remains active at high temperature.
37. When ........................ is added, purified DNA precipitates
42. Amplification of gene of interest by using DNA
out as a collection of fine threads in the suspension.
polymerase may go up to
a. Chilled ethanol www.bankofbiology.com
a. 0.1 million copies
b. Chilled H2SO4
b. 1.0 million copies
c. Chilled glycerol
c. 1.0 billion copies
d. Chilled NaOH
d. 1.0 trillion copies
38. Which one of the following statements is wrong with
43. In PCR technology, amplification of gene of interest I
respect to separation of DNA fragments on gel
catalyzed by an enzyme called
electrophoresis?
a. Reverse transcriptase
a. Gel electrophoresis is employed to check the
b. Taq polymerase
progression of a restriction enzyme digestion.
c. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
b. The DNA fragments move towards cathode
d. RNA primase
under electric field through the matrix.
44. The correct sequence of events of PCR are
c. The smaller DNA fragments moves farther.
a. Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
d. The commonly used matrix is agarose gel.
b. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
3
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c. Annealing, Extension, Denaturation a. Lipid


d. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension b. Carbohydrate
45. In PCR, the process annealing means c. Protein
a. The heating of target DNA at high temperature d. Vitamins
(940 C) to separate the strands. 48. The vessels in which raw materials are biologically
b. The joining of the two primers at 520 C at the 3’ converted to specific products, enzymes etc. using
end of the DNA templates. microbial plant, animal or human cells are called
c. The addition of nucleotides to the primer with a. Bioreactors
the help of Taq polymerase. b. Gene gun
d. The separation of DNA strands by adding c. PCR www.bankofbiology.com
NaOH. www.bankofbiology.com d. HPLC
46. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of PCR. 49. Bioreactors are useful in
Select the option giving correct identification together a. Separation and purification of a product
with what it represents. b. Processing of large volumes of culture
c. Amplification of genes
d. Isolation of genetic material
50. Stirred-tank bioreactor have been designed for
a. Purification of product.
b. Addition of preservatives to the product.
c. Availability of oxygen throughout the process.
d. Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture
vessel.
51. The simple Stirred-tank bioreactor has
a. An agitator system
a.B- Denaturation at a temperature of about 98o b. An oxygen delivery system
C separating the two DNA strands. c. A foam control system
b. A- Denaturation at a temperature of about 50o d. Temperature and pH control systems
C. e. All the above
c. C- Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA 52. A series of processes such as separation and purification
polymerase. of products after the biosynthetic stage is called
d. A- Annealing with two sets of primers. a. Bioprocessing
47. The aim of recombinant DNA technology is to produce a b. Downstream processing
desirable c. Postproduction processing
d. Upstream processing
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