SEMESTER IV

MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I
(BP402TP)
Multiple Choice Questions
(Chapter 1, 2, 3)

Ms. K. R. Rathod, Assistant Professor, Page 1

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh
 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

Chapter – 1 Introduction, History and development of Medicinal Chemistry

1. Medicinal chemistry is a science of which roots are interlinked with-

A. Chemistry and Biology
B. Chemistry and Physics
C. Technology and Biology
D. None of above
Ans. A

2. Morphine was isolated from opium by-

A. Sertuner
B. Davy
C. Knorr
D. Emil Fischer
Ans. A

3. Aspirin is introduced by_________in 1889

A. Dreser's
B. Emil Fischer and Mering
C. Barger and Dale
D. None of above
Ans. A

4. First hormone epinephrine was synthesized in Year

A. 1903
B. 1904
C. 1909
D. 1889
Ans. B

5. Who is founder of modem medicine?

A. Hippocartes
B. Clark
C. Charak
D. Henry's
Ans. A

6. Identification of a new chemical entity as a potential therapeutic agent (From Hit to Lead)
is known as
A. Drug discovery

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 2

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

B. Drug development
C. Both of above
D. None of above
Ans. A

7. The process of bringing a new pharmaceutical drug to the market once the lead
compound has been identified through the process of drug discovery. (From Lead to
NDA) is known as
A. Drug discovery
B. Drug development
C. Both of above
D. None of above
Ans. B

8. Natural products or derivatives or synthetic substances with good binding ability in Drug
discovery is known as
A. Hit
B. Lead
C. NDA
D. IND
Ans. A

9. Compound with good activity and selectivity in screening during drug discovery is
known as
A. Hit
B. Lead
C. NDA
D. IND
Ans. B

10. The main goals of pre-clinical studies

A. To determine the safe dose for first-in-man study
B. To assess a product's safety profile
C. A and B both
D. None
Ans. C

11. IND stands for

A. Improved new drug
B. Investigational new drug

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 3

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

C. International new drug

D. International novel drug
Ans. B

12. Human micro dosing studies conducted in which clinical phase ?

A. Phase 0
B. Phase I
C. Phase II
D. Phase III
Ans. A

13. MTD is
A. Maximum targeted dose
B. Minimum tolerated dose
C. Minimum targeted dose
D. Maximum tolerated dose
Ans. D

14. Single ascending dose studies are done in_____

A. Phase lb
B. Phase Ia
C. Phase II
D. Phase Ila
Ans. B

15. NDA is
A. New Drug Application
B. New Drug approval
C. Noval Drug Admistration
D. New Drug agenda
Ans. A

16. Phase IV trial is also known-

A. Base of clinical trial
B. Multiple ascending dose era
C. Post marketing Surveillance
D. Pre-clinical trial
Ans. C

17. How many people will be selected for phase I trial?

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 4

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

A. The whole market will be under surveillance

B. 300-3000 people
C. 20-300 people
D. 20-50 people
Ans. D

18. How many people will be selected for phase II trial?

A. The whole market will be under surveillance
B. 300-3000 people
C. 20-300 people
D. 20-50 people
Ans. C

19. How many people will be selected for phase III trial?
A. The whole market will be under surveillance
B. 300-3000 people
C. 20-300 people
D. 20-50 people
Ans. B

20. Which one of the following will be checked under phase IV surveillance?
A. The whole market will be under surveillance
B. 300-3000 people
C. 20-300 people
D. 20-50 people
Ans. A

21. Precision Medicine is an emerging approach depending on-

A. Genomic study of individual
B. Diagnostic process of individual
C. Diseases conditions
D. None of above
Ans. A

22. How many main families of GPCRs are there?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 4

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 5

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

Ans. B

23. Which of the following reactions is catalyzed by the enzyme adenylate cyclase?
A. Conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP
B. Conversion of cyclic AMP to AMP
C. Conversion of cyclic AMP to ATP
D. Conversion of AMP to cyclic AMP
Ans. A

24. Oxadiazole ring contains-

A. 1 Nitrogen /Oxygen
B. 2 Oxygen/ Nitrogen
C. 2 Nitrogen/Sulphur
D. 2 Nitrogen/Oxygen
Ans. D

25. The hetroaromatic redical is called

A. Anthryl
B. Naphthyl
C. Phenanthryl
D. Dibenzyl
Ans. B

26. Name of this aromatic ring is

A. Diphenylmethyl ethane
B. 2-ethyl-1-methyl naphthalene
C. 1-ethyl-2-methyl naphthalene
D. 1-ethyl-1-methyl naphthalene
Ans. C

27. Name of this aromatic ring is

A. Azopane
B. Azepine
C. Azepane

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 6

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

D. None of above
Ans. C

28. Which of the following statements best describes pharmacodynamics?

A. The study of how drugs reach their target in the body and how the levels of a drug in
the blood are affected by absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion.
B. The study of how drugs can be designed using molecular modelling based on a drug's
pharmacophore.
C. The study of how a drug interacts with its target binding site at the molecular level.
D. The study of which functional groups are important in binding a drug to its target
binding site and the identification of a pharmacophore.
Ans. C

29. Which of the following statements best describes pharmacokinetics?

A. The study of how drugs reach their target in the body and how the levels of a drug in
the blood are affected by various factors.
B. The study of how drugs can be designed using molecular modelling based on a drug's
pharmacophore.
C. The study of how a drug interacts with its target binding site at the molecular level.
D. The study of which functional groups are important in binding a drug to its target
binding site and the identification of a pharmacophore.
Ans. A

30. What are soft drugs?

A. Drugs given to babies
B. Chemical drugs which are already found in the body
C. Nutrients which kill the gut harmful microbes
D. Anything that is not nutrients and enters the body through different routes
Ans. B
(Explanation: Soft drugs are natural endogenous substances which are already present in
the body. Such as neurotransmitters (dopamine, GABA, epinephrine, norepinephrine),
steroids (oxytocin, oestrogen, progesterone), insulin. The body is already programmed to
metabolize them and excrete out. Thus these drugs when used are rapidly inactivated.)

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 7

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

Chapter – 2 Physicochemical properties in relation to biological action

1. The most important physicochemical properties affecting drug action-

a) Partition coefficient b) Solubility c) Acid base properties d) Chemical bonding e)
Chelation f) Surface activity
A. All of the above
B. A and B both
C. D and E both
D. C and F both
Ans. A

2. In QSAR, study of medicinal chemistry Q stands for-

A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Both
D. Quantam
Ans. B

3. Dimercaprol is a chelating agent used in the treatment of-

A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Lead poisoning
C. Iron poisoning
D. Vanadium poisoning
Ans. A

4. The non-polar compound dispersed

A. By forming hydrogen bonding
B. By interacting with lipid
C. By forming drug receptor complex
D. by forming hydrophilic bond
Ans. B

5. pka is a parameter which indicates the-

A. Strength of drug as acid base reaction in water
B. Aqueous phase in phosphate buffer
C. Hydrophilic and lyphophilic character
D. All of the above
Ans. D

6. 85% of drugs are ionizied in which pH-

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 8

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

A. 2-5
B. 7-12
C. 1.5-8
D. Neutral
Ans. C

7. Bioisoterism is the process of-

A. Replacement similar group
B. Replacement similar valence group
C. Replacement similar mass no. group
D. Addition of group having different mass no.
Ans. B

8. A drug like phenytoin & barbiturate when pka is larger than 7 is-
A. Ionised at all pH
B. unionised at pH
C. Ionised at pH 8
D. Unionised at pH 6
Ans. D

9. A drug where pka is 7 & unionised at all pH it is-

A. Weak acidic
B. Very weak acidic
C. Weak basic
D. Very weak basic
Ans. B

10. Dissolution & pka helps in drug-

A. ionization & solubility
B. dissociation & transportation
C. Dissociation & solubility
D. None of these
Ans. C

11. Bioisosteres are similar in their-

A. Physical character
B. Chemical character
C. Both character a & b
D. Biochemical character
Ans. C

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 9

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

12. Which of the following is not a bivalent?

A. CO
B. CS
C. CC
D. SH
Ans. D

13. A molecule having 3 chiral centre carbon it has-

A. 4 set of diasters
B. 9 set of enantiomers
C. 6 set of monomers
D. 9 set of diasters
Ans. B

14. The 3D structure elucidation is done by process-

A. IR
B. FTIR
C. NMR
D. MS
Ans. C

15. Which of the following is odd one regarding drug-receptor interaction-

A. Hydrogen bonding
B. Electrostatic
C. Weak Wander wall Force
D. Dipole- induced dipole interaction
Ans. D

16. Which of the following is a fastest receptor-

A. Enzyme linked
B. Ion- gated
C. GPCR
D. Nuclear
Ans. C

17. Which of the following is not an optically isomer-

A. Enantiomers
B. Epimers
C. Disasters

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 10

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

D. Meso
Ans. A

18. Enantiomer has a higher affinity to receptor are called-

A. Eudismic
B. Diastomer
C. Eutomer
D. None of these
Ans. A

19. Which type of hydrogen bonding present when hydrogen bonding occurs between
molecules?
A. Intramolecular
B. Intermolecular
C. A & B both
D. None of them
Ans. B

20. Which compound is capable of forming a ring structure with metal atoms?
A. Ligands
B. Chelates
C. Surfactants
D. All of the above
Ans. B

21. For dissolution of solute in solvent which condition is necessary?

1. Solute-solvent interaction should be less than solute-solute and solvent-solvent
interaction
2. Solute-solvent interaction should equal solute-solute and solvent-solvent interaction
3. Solute-solvent interaction should exceed solute-solute and solvent-solvent interaction
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 3
C. 1 & 3
D. 1, 2 & 3
Ans. B

22. Addition of polar group in a drug increases its interaction with

A. Water
B. Lipid

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 11

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

C. Both
D. None
Ans. A

23. Methyl Prednisolone is water insoluble but its which salt is water soluble?
A. Sodium
B. Hydrochloride
C. Salicylate
D. Palmitate
Ans. A

24. Phenobarbitone is water insoluble but its which salt is water soluble?
A. Sodium
B. Hydrochloride
C. Salicylate
D. Palmitate
Ans. A

25. Which ester of Chloramphenicol is prepared to mask its bitter taste?

A. Sodium
B. Hydrochloride
C. Salicylate
D. Palmitate
Ans. D

26. Generally drugs are absorbed in which form?

A. In ionized form
B. In unionized form
C. In both of abone form
D. In none of above form
Ans. B

27. Most weakly acidic drugs (pKa < 2) are absorbed from
A. Stomach
B. Intestine
C. Stomach and Intestine
D. They Can’t be absorbed
Ans. A

28. Most weakly basic drugs (pKa > 8) are absorbed from

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 12

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

A. Stomach
B. Intestine
C. Stomach and Intestine
D. They Can’t be absorbed
Ans. B

29. Absorption of neutral drugs (pKa 6- 8) is independent of pH.

A. True
B. False
Ans. A

30. Which form of barbituric acid has CNS activity?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. All
Ans. C
Explanation: barbituric acid (1) and its 5-monosubstituted (2) derivatives are inactive and
lack the CNS activity while 5,5-disubstituted derivatives (3) are CNS depressants. This is due
to the fact that (1) and (2) are stronger acids and are able to achieve complete aromatic
structure which can stabilize the barbiturates ion by delocalization of extra pair of electrons.
On the other hand 5,5 disubstituted barbiturates (3) cannot assume fully aromatic structure
and therefore are much weaker acid (pKa 7.0-8.5) therefore it remains largely in unionized
form at physiological pH and cross the blood brain barrier in contrast to barbituric acid and
its 5-monosubstituted derivative which remains in ionic form at physiological pH and does
not able to cross blood brain barrier.

31. Addition of non-polar group _________ partition co-efficient

A. Improves
B. Reduces
C. No effect on
Ans. A

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 13

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

32. Gentamicin, streptokinase can be given

A. Orally
B. Parentrally
C. Both of above
D. None of above
Ans. B

33. Distance between H-bond is

A. 2.3- 5.2 A°
B. 1.2 – 2.5 A°
C. 2.5 – 3.2 A°
D. 3.2 – 8.5 A°
Ans. C

34. Angel of H-bond

A. 1.3 – 1.8°
B. 13-18°
C. 130 – 180 °
D. 1300 – 1800 °
Ans. C

35. Strength of H-bond is

A. 1-7 Kcal/mol
B. 10-70 Kcal/mol
C. 10-17 Kcal/mol
D. 17-70 Kcal/mol
Ans. A

36. p-nitrophenol contains

A. Intramolecular H-bond
B. Intermolecular H-bond
C. Both of above
D. None of above
Ans. B

37. Which one of the following factors related to protein-drug binding is not related to drugs?
A. Physicochemical characteristics of a drug
B. The concentration of the drug in the body
C. The affinity of the drug for binding
D. Number of binding sites on the binding agent

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 14

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

Ans. D
(Explanation: There are many factors affecting protein-drug binding. The factors related to
the drug, are physicochemical characteristics of a drug, concentration of the drug in the body,
affinity of the drug for binding. A number of binding sites on the binding agent are related to
the protein and other binding components.)

38. Which one of the following factor related to protein-drug binding is not related to drug
interactions with the binding site?
A. Competition between the drug and the binding site
B. Competition between drugs and normal body constituents
C. Allosteric changes in a protein molecule
D. Inter subject variation
Ans. D
(Explanation: Competition between the drug and the binding site, competition between
drugs and normal body constituents, allosteric changes in protein molecule these factors
are related to drug interactions. Inter subject variation is a patient-related factor.)

39. Which of the following factors for protein drug binding is a drug interaction factor?
A. Competition between drugs for the binding site
B. Age
C. Physicochemical characteristics of a drug
D. Physicochemical characteristics of the protein or binding agent
Ans. A
(Explanation: Physicochemical interaction is not a drug interaction factor. Competition
between the drug and the binding site and competition between drug and other normal
body constituents, allosteric changes in protein molecule all these factors are related to
drug interaction with the protein. Age is a patient-related factor.)

40. Only unbound or free drug is capable of being eliminated.

A. True
B. False
Ans. A
(Explanation: Unbound or free drug is capable of being eliminated. Because the drug-
protein complex cannot penetrate into the metabolizing organ. The large molecular size
of the complex also prevents it from getting filtered through the glomerulus.)

41. Plasma proteins bound with drugs by formation of

A. Hydrogen bonding
B. Hydrophobc bonding
C. Vander-waals force

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 15

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

D. Ionic interaction
E. All
Ans. E

42. The most significant protein involved in binding with a drug is

A. Albumin
B. Glycoprotein
C. Lipoprotein
D. Globulin
Ans. A
(The order of binding of drugs to various protein is Albumin > Glycoprotein >
Lipoprotein > Globulin)

43. The most abundant plasma protein is

A. Albumin (HAS – Human serum albumin)
B. Glycoprotein
C. Lipoprotein
D. Globulin
Ans. A

44. Chelating agent Dimercaprol is used in the treatment of

A. Lead poisoning
B. Vanadium poisoning
C. Arsenic poisoning
D. All of above
Ans. C

45. In Lead and vanadium poisoning, which chelating agent is used as an antidote?
A. Disodium EDTA
B. Haemoglobin
C. Cyanocobalamine
D. Dimercaprol
Ans. A

46. Absorption of Tetracycline is reduced in the presence of milk because of

A. Hydrogen bonding
B. Protein binding
C. Ionization
D. Chelation
Ans. D

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 16

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

47. Functional groups of same valance and ring equivalents are known as
A. Classical Bioisosteres
B. Non- Classical Bioisosteres
C. Enantiomer
D. Geometric isomer
Ans. A

48. Bioisosteres have

A. Same physical properties
B. Same chemical properties
C. Similar biological properties
D. All of above
Ans. D

49. R (-) Epinephrine shows 3 point of interaction with receptor while S (+)Epinephrine
shows 2 point of interaction with receptor.
A. True
B. False
Ans. A

50. (+) Warfarin is _____times more potent than (-) Warfarin.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Ans. D
Table to remember for similar questions:

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 17

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

51. (+) Sotalol is beta blocker while (-) Sotalol is

A. beta blocker
B. Analgesic
C. Antidepressant
D. Antiarrhythmic
Ans. D
Table to remember for similar questions:

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 18

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

52. D-Penicillamine is antiarthritic while L-Penicillamine is

A. Antiarthritic
B. Antiarrhythmic
C. Antidepressant
D. Toxic
Ans. D
To remember for similar questions:

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 19

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

53. D-Asparagine has sweet taste while L-Asparagine has

A. Sweet taste
B. Sour Taste
C. Bitter Taste
D. Tasteless
Ans. D
To remember:

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 20

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

Chapter – 3 Drug Metabolism

1. Biotransformation of drugs is defined as the conversion from one physical form to

another.
A. True
B. False
Ans. B
(Explanation: Biotransformation of drugs is the conversion of drugs from one chemical
form to another. The term is used with metabolism. The chemical changes are usually
affected by enzymatically in the body. For example conversion of penicillin to penicilloic
acid by bacterial penicillinase.)

2. The drug biotransformation is a detoxification process.

A. True
B. False
Ans. A

3. Phase 1 reactions are also known as a synthetic reaction.

A. True
B. False
Ans. A
(Explanation: Phase I reactions include introducing or removing of –OH, -COOH, -NH2
and –SH. This phase I reactions are also known as functionalization reactions. These
transformations are also known as a synthetic reaction.)

4. The phase I reactions are detoxification pathways.

A. True
B. False
Ans. A

5. The phase II reactions are detoxification pathways.

A. True
B. False
Ans. A

6. Following are the Phase I reactions except ____________

A. Oxidative reactions
B. Hydrolytic reactions
C. Reductive reactions
D. Sulphide reactions

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 21

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

Ans. D

7. Which of the following statements is the closest description of Phase I metabolism?

A. Reactions which add a polar molecule to a functional group already present on a drug
or one of its metabolites
B. Reactions which occur in the blood supply.
C. Reactions which add a polar functional group to a drug.
D. Reactions which occur in the gut wall.
Ans. C

8. Which of the following statements is the closest description of Phase II metabolism?

A. Reactions which add a polar molecule to a functional group already present on a drug
or one of its metabolites.
B. Reactions which occur in the blood supply.
C. Reactions which add a polar functional group to a drug.
D. Reactions which occur in the gut wall.
Ans. A

9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the moieties that are transferred to the
substrate in phase II reactions?
A. Simple endogenous molecules are transferred
B. Large molecular sized groups are attached
C. Strong polar groups are attached
D. Strong nonpolar groups are attached
Ans. D

10. Which of the following enzymes is not involved in catalyzing Phase I metabolic reaction?
A. Flavin-containing monooxygenases
B. Oxidation of alkyl groups
C. Glucuronyl transferase
D. Esterases
Ans. C

11. Which of the following reactions is not a Phase I metabolic transformation?

A. Reduction of ketones
B. Conjugation to alcohols
C. Monoamine oxidases
D. Esterhydrolysis
Ans. B

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 22

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

12. What is the major end product of oxidation of aromatic carbon atoms?
A. Arenols
B. Catechol
C. Glutathione
D. Arene oxide
Ans. A

13. Which of the following is not a common N containing functional groups which undergo
reduction reactions?
A. Nitro compounds
B. Azo compounds
C. N-oxide compounds
D. Nitrite compounds
Ans. D

14. What does the hydrolysis of Aspirin yield us with?

A. Salicylic acid only
B. Salicylic acid and CH3COOH
C. CH3COOH
D. Succinic acid
Ans. B

15. Which enzyme is important in the Phase II reactions?

A. Esterase
B. Amidases
C. Transferase
D. Aldo-keto-reductases
Ans. C

16. Which of the following groups is least susceptible to cytochrome P450 enzymes?
A. Terminal methyl groups
B. Epoxide group
C. Benzylic carbon atoms
D. Quaternary carbon atoms
Ans. D

17. Alkenes and aromatic groups can be metabolised to diols. Which enzymes are involved?
A. cytochrome P450 enzymes
B. epoxide hydrolase
C. both of the above

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 23

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

D. neither of the above

Ans. C

18. Solubility of a drug in polar solvents and Non-polar solvents depends upon-
A. Chemical structure
B. Particle size
C. Crystal form
D. All of above
Ans. D

19. Higher will be the diffusion of the drug across the membrane if-
A. Higher value of partition-coefficient
B. Low value of partition-coefficient
C. Higher water soluble
D. None of above
Ans. A

20. Diazepam gets metabolised into Hydroxydiazepam is example of-

A. Oxidation at allylic carbon atom
B. Oxidation at the carbon alpha to carbonyl and imino group
C. Oxidation at benzylic carbon atom
D. Aromatic and Side chain Hydroxylation
Ans. B

21. __________reaction is most common in drugs having ester or amide functional groups
A. Oxidative reactions
B. Reduction
C. Hydrolysis
D. Phase I
Ans. C

22. UDPGA means....

A. Urane diphospho -a- D glucuronic acid
B. Uridine diphospho -a- D glucuronic acid
C. Uridine diphospho-D glucuronic acid
D. Uric diphospho -a- D glucuronic acid
Ans. B

23. Which of the following statement is false?

A. D-glucuronic acid is easily available

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 24

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

B. Several functional groups can be easily linked with the D-glucuronic acid
C. Conjugation with D-glucuronic acid occurs to a high degree
D. Whole animal kingdom have the common ability to produce D-glucuronic acid
Ans. D

24. Which enzyme is of the utmost importance for the 2nd step in the formation of
Glucuronide?
A. Esterase
B. Amidases
C. Transferase
D. UDP-glucuronyl transferase
Ans. D

25. What is the site of first-pass metabolism before molecules reach systemic circulation?
A. Kidney
B. Throat
C. Liver
D. Intestine
Ans. D

26. What plays a major role in extra-hepatic metabolism and contains CYP3A4 isozyme and
P-glycoprotein?
A. Kidney
B. Throat
C. Liver
D. Intestine
Ans. C

27. What test uses microsomal extracts from the ER for in-vitro drug metabolism studies?
A. Ames test
B. Biochemical tests
C. Serology
D. Polymorphisms
Ans. A

28. Which of the following are protein components of the cytochrome P450 system?
A. Heme protein CYP450
B. NADH-CYP450 reductase
C. NADPH-CYP450 reductase
D. A and B E. A and C

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 25

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

Ans. A

29. Which of the following statements is not true about cytochrome P450 enzymes?
A. They contain haem and magnesium.
B. They belong to a general class of enzymes called monooxygenases.
C. There are over 30 different cytochrome P450 enzymes.
D. Variation in cytochrome P450 enzyme profile between individuals can explain
individual variation in drug susceptibility.
Ans. A

30. What is not a xenobiotic?

A. Plant toxins
B. Drugs
C. Steroids
D. Environmental pollutants
Ans. C

31. What cytochrome P450 isozyme is most abundantly expressed in the human liver and
intestines?
A. CYP1A1
B. CYP3A4
C. CYP2C9
D. CYP2D6
Ans. B

32. Which of the following is an antiarrhythmic drug that is a calcium channel blocker?
A. Lidocaine
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Nifedipine
D. Codeine
Ans. C

33. What drug should not be given to a patient that is a poor CYP2D6 metabolizer?
A. Codeine
B. Lidocaine
C. Nifedipine
D. Nitroglycerin
Ans. A

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 26

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

34. What injection is administered directly into systemic circulation causing rapid
distribution?
A. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous
C. Intracerebral
D. Intraspinal
Ans. B

35. Where is Protonsil converted to Sulfanilamide?

A. Liver
B. Gut
C. Kidney
D. Colon
Ans. B

36. What are xenobiotics?

A. Another form of antibiotics
B. A form of nutrient
C. Nutrients which kill the gut harmful microbes
D. Anything that is not nutrients and enters the body through different routes
Ans. D

37. What is the active form of salicylic acid?

A. Sialic acid
B. Salic acid
C. Salicylic acid
D. Salicycle acid
Ans. C

38. What is the inactive form of Codeine?

a. Codene
b. Codane
c. Morphine
d. Poppy
Ans. C

39. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of drug metabolism?
A. Liver > lungs > kidneys > intestine > placenta > skin > adrenals
B. Liver > lungs > kidneys > intestine > adrenals > placenta > skin
C. Liver > kidneys > lungs > intestine > placenta > adrenals > skin

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 27

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

D. Liver > lungs > intestine > kidneys > placenta > adrenals > skin
Ans. A

40. Which one of the following is reactive and a known carcinogenic?

A. Cytochrome P-450
B. Catechol
C. Glutathione
D. Arene oxide
Ans. D

41. Which of the following is not an example of a drug undergoing acetylation reaction?
A. Hydrazine
B. Salicylic acids
C. Sulphonamides
D. Histamines
Ans. B

42. The overall rate of biotransformation is higher in neonates and infants than in adults.
A. True
B. False
Ans. B

43. In comparison with children and young adults, elderly adults tend to have a reduced
capacity to metabolize drugs.
A. True
B. False
Ans. A

44. What is enzyme induction?

A. The phenomenon of increased drug metabolizing ability of enzymes by drugs and
chemicals
B. The phenomenon of increasing drug bioavailability drugs and chemicals
C. The phenomenon of increasing drug distribution drugs and chemicals
D. The phenomenon of increasing drug concentration for a particular tissue by drugs and
chemicals
Ans. A
Explanation: The phenomenon of increased drug metabolizing ability of enzymes by drugs
and chemicals is called as enzyme induction and the agents which helps to bring such
changes are known as inducers.

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 28

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

45. Which of the following drugs has self -induction to stimulate their own metabolism?
A. Cortisol
B. Pentobarbital
C. Meprobamate
D. Contraceptives
Ans. C
Explanation: Drugs such as carbamazepine, Meprobamate, cyclophosphamide, rifampicin,
etc. stimulate their own metabolism. This phenomenon is known as auto-induction or self -
induction.

46. Alcohol is the inducer for which drug?

A. Cortisol
B. Pentobarbital
C. Meprobamate
D. Oral contraceptives
Ans. B
Explanation: Alcohol act as an inducer for pentobarbital, coumarins, and phenytoin.
Meprobamate is self-inducing. Oral contraceptives are induced by barbiturates.

47. What is the name of the process where structurally same compounds compete for the same
site on an enzyme to inhibit that?
A. Altered physiology
B. Repression
C. Non-competitive inhibition
D. Competitive inhibition
Ans. D
Explanation: Competitive inhibition results when structurally similar compounds
compete for the same site on an enzyme. Such an inhibition due to substrate competition
is reversible and can be overcome by a high concentration of one substrate. Methacholine
inhibits the metabolism of acetylcholine by competing with it for cholinesterase.

48. What is the name of the process where structurally different compounds interact with the
enzyme and prevent the metabolism of the drug?
A. Altered physiology
B. Repression
C. Non-competitive inhibition
D. Competitive inhibition
Ans. C
Explanation: Non-competitive inhibition happens when structurally different compounds
interact with the enzyme and prevent the metabolism of the drug. This interaction is not

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 29

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

structured specifically. So lead, mercury, arsenic, organophosphorus insecticides inhibit

enzymes noncompetitively.

49. What is the name of the process where the enzyme amount is decreases due to a decrease
in enzyme synthesis?
A. Altered physiology
B. Repression
C. Non-competitive inhibition
D. Competitive inhibition
Ans. B
Explanation: Repression is the process where the enzyme amount is decreases due to a
decrease in enzyme synthesis. The synthesis of the enzyme can be affected by puromycin
and actinomycin D. It can also happen by raising the rate of enzyme degradation such as
carbon tetrachloride, carbon disulphide, disulfiram, etc.

50. What is the name of the process where due to nutritional deficiency an enzyme content is
decreased?
A. Altered physiology
B. Repression
C. Non-competitive inhibition
D. Competitive inhibition
Ans. A
Explanation: Altered physiology is the process where due to nutritional deficiency an
enzyme content is decreased. Thus decreasing the enzyme content, and decreasing the
drug metabolizing time.

51. Which one of the following is not an environmental agent to decrease drug metabolizing
ability?
A. DDT
B. Cigarette smoke
C. Organophosphate insecticides
D. Methacholine
Ans. D
Explanation: Methacholine inhibits the metabolism of acetylcholine by competing with it for
cholinesterase. It is not an environmental factor. Halogenated pesticides e.g. DDT, polycyclic
aromatic hydrocarbon e.g. cigarette smoke, organophosphate insecticides, heavy metals
inhibit drug metabolizing of enzymes.

52. What is polygenic control of drugs?

A. Drug controlling seen in an individual

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 30

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

B. Drug controlling seen in twins

C. Drug controlling seen in between different species
D. Drug controlling seen in a particular population
Ans. B
Explanation: Polygenic control has been observed in twins. In identical twins that are
monozygotic twins, there is very little or no difference in drug metabolism. It was
detected that there was no difference in the metabolism of phenylbutazone, dicoumarol,
and antipyrine. Although large variations were detected in dizygotic twins.

53. Differences observed in metabolism of drug among different races is known as

A. Pharmacogenetics
B. Ethnic variations
C. Discontinues variation
D. Polygenic control
Ans. B
Explanation: Differences observed in the metabolism of the drug among different races is
known as ethnic variation. Polygenic control is the control of drug metabolizing in the
twins. Pharmacogenetics is the study of inter-subject variability in drug response.

54. Which age group is known as the neonates?

A. Up to 2 months
B. Up to 2 years
C. Up to 6 months
D. Up to 1 year
Ans. A
Explanation: Babies below the age of 2 months are called as neonates. Their microsomal
enzymes are not fully developed. Thus takes much longer time to metabolize drugs.

55. Which age group metabolizes drugs faster than the adults?
A. Between 1-12 year
B. Between 1-15 year
C. Between 6-12 year
D. Between 12-18 year
Ans. A
Explanation: Children and older infant of the age group 1-12 year metabolize several
drugs much more rapidly than adults. The rate of metabolism reaches a maximum
somewhere between 6 months to 12 years of age. As a result, they require large mg/kg
doses in comparison to adults.

56. Fat-free diet depresses cytochrome P-450 level.

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 31

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

A. True
B. False
Ans. A
Explanation: A fat-free diet decreases the phospholipid content. Phospholipids are
important components of microsomes. When these become deficient, the cytochrome p-
450 levels decrease.

57. Maternal drug metabolizing ability increases in the later stage of pregnancy.
A. True
B. False
Ans. B
Explanation: Maternal drug metabolizing ability decreases in the later stage of pregnancy.
Due to high levels of steroid hormones in circulation during pregnancy, in women, the
metabolism of promazine and pethidine decreases. Thus, maternal drug metabolizing
ability decreases.

58. Enzyme activity is maximum during the early morning.

A. True
B. False
Ans. A
Explanation: By research, it has been observed that the enzyme activity is maximum
during the early morning and minimum during the late afternoon. This also corresponds
to high and low serum levels of corticosterone.

59 Intermediate of aromatic hydroxylation is

A. Arene
B. Epoxide
C. Aldehyde
D. Ketone
Ans.B

60 Oxidation of Propranolol results in

A. 2-hydroxy propranolol
B. 3-hydroxy propranolol
C. 4-hydroxy propranolol
D. 2,2-Dihydroxy propranolol
Ans. C

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 32

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

Explanation:

61 Oxidation of olefin results in

A. Aldehyde
B. Ketone
C. Diol
D. Carboxylic acid
Ans. C

62 Oxidation of Tolbutamide is the example of

A. Oxidation of Olefin
B. Oxidation of Aliphatic carbon
C. Oxidation of Benzylic carbon
D. Oxidation of Allylic carbon
Ans. C

63 Carbon atom adjacent to olefinic double bond is known as

A. Alicyclic carbon
B. Aliphatic carbon
C. Benzylic carbon
D. Allylic carbon
Ans. D

64 Oxidation of Hexobarbital results in

A. 2-hydroxy Hexobarbital
B. 3-hydroxy Hexobarbital
C. 4-hydroxy Hexobarbital
D. 2,3-Dihydroxy Hexobarbital
Ans. B

65 Given reaction is the example of_________

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 33

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

A. Oxidation of Carbon atom alpha to Carbonyl and Imine

B. Oxidation of Aliphatic carbon
C. Oxidation of Benzylic carbon
D. Oxidation of Allylic carbon
Ans. A

66 ω – oxidation of Valproic acid results in

A. 2-hydroxy valproic acid
B. 3-hydroxy valproic acid
C. 4-hydroxy valproic acid
D. 5-hydroxy valproic acid
Ans. D

67 ω1 – oxidation of Valproic acid results in

A. 2-hydroxy valproic acid
B. 3-hydroxy valproic acid
C. 4-hydroxy valproic acid
D. 5-hydroxy valproic acid
Ans. C

68 Given reaction is the example of_________

A. Oxidation of Alicyclic carbon

B. Oxidation of Aliphatic carbon
C. Oxidation of Benzylic carbon
D. Oxidation of Allylic carbon
Ans. A

69 Desulphuration of given drug results in _______

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 34

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

A. Phenobarbitone
B. Paroxon
C. Sulphanilamide
D. PABA
Ans. A
Explanation:

70 Reduction of given drug results in______

A. Paroxon
B. Sulphanilamide
C. PABA
D. 7 – aminometabolite
Ans. D
Explanation:

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 35

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

71 Hydrolysis of Procain gives

A B C D

Ans. D
Explanation:

72 Given reaction is the example of ________

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 36

 MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY I (BP402TP)

A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Hydrolysis
D. Conjugation
Ans. C

73 By Glycine conjugation Benzoic acid results in

A. Salicylic acid
B. Oxalic acid
C. Hippuric acid
D. Carbamic acid
Ans. C

74 The enzymes are divided into two categories, these are _______ and ______
A. Acidic drug metabolizing and basic drug metabolizing
B. Present in the liver and not present in the liver
C. Microsomal and non-microsomal
D. There is no such division
Ans. C

Faculty of Pharmacy, Dr. Subhash Technical Campus, Junagadh Page 37