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REASONING ABILITY 3
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4 REASONING ABILITY
 www.mahendras.org

PREFACE
This gives us immense pleasure to present you the latest edition of this book. We thank you from the depth
of our hearts, for the love and affection given by you just from the beginning. Dear friends, change is the law
of nature. We must learn to tolerate the blows of time with patience and learn not only to endure, but also
to expect, welcome, and enjoy both the joys as well as the sorrows of life. We must do what we can to "get
success." We have to operate with the information and skills that are necessary for winning.
Today’s era is governed by technology. The technology has increased the pace of changing the world we see
day by day, and so the pattern of examination and criteria of selection has also changed. As we are aware that
an interview is a part of the various examinations and the written/objective exams are going to be tougher
than earlier.
Every choice you make — including the thoughts you have — has consequences. When you start choosing
the right behaviour and thoughts — which will take a lot of discipline — you'll get the right outcomes.
Be aware of the factors that influence the way you see the “world”, so that you can deal with them and react
against them. You are your own most important resource for making your life work. Success is a moving
target that must be tracked and continuously pursued.
In this “context” we have completely updated this book keeping the forthcoming examination pattern in
mind. This edition caters to need of Reasoning Ability that is asked in Preliminary and Mains stages of most
of the Banking and Insurance examinations for various posts. This book is thoroughly based on the latest
pattern in which time limit is given for each section. Every chapter in this book describes the concept with
the help of various examples and at the end gives miscellaneous examples to clear the concepts. Examples
have been solved with standard as well as short methods. At the end of each chapter exercises have been
given to master the topic by solving variety of exam oriented question. So we have now given a complete
focus on concept building and mastering each topic through this book.
We are truly dedicated to provide you the best among the rest. This book is an initiative from our side to
make you perfect in this subject.
We will be highly gratified, if this book helps students in getting selection.
Any suggestions related to this book shall always be welcomed and we shall endeavor to incorporate them
in our upcoming issues.

Research Team

REASONING ABILITY 5
www.mahendras.org

CONTENTS
S.No. TOPICS Pg. No.

1. Alphabetical Order and Misc. Series 7-14

2. Coding-Decoding 15-26

3. Blood Relation 27-38

4. Direction and Distance 39-48

5. Order and Ranking 49-58

6. Sitting Arrangement 59-73

7. Puzzle 74-90

8. Advanced Puzzle 91-106

9. Data Sufficiency 107-120

10. Syllogism 121-135

11. Machine Input 136-152

12. Inequality 153-163

13. Decision Making 164-171

14. Statement and Course of Action 172-180

15. Statement and Assumption 181-189

16. Cause and Effect 190-195

17. Statement and Argument 196-205

18. Drawing Inference 206-210

19. Combined Logical 211-219

20. Statement and Conclusion 220-226

6 REASONING ABILITY
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CHAPTER
alphabetical
1 AND Miscellaneous
series
This chapter is based on a series of letters, numbers or right element + left element = right element
combination of letters, numbers and symbols. 13th element from right + 8th element left = 21th element
Types of Series from right is F.
Note: All these situations are based on the condition of left
end or right end.
Letter Number Miscellaneous
Series Series Series ## Once the candidate knows the position of letters, he
requires to learn time management. We don’t have much
Letter Series time and hence all the letters can’t be read thoroughly.
In this series, only letters are available which follow a certain
E J O T Y
pattern throughout. Candidate has to recognise this pattern
and to give the required answer. 5 10 15 20 25
Position of letters : Word given above is just the arrangement of the alphabets
having position multiples of 5. From this word we can learn
First of all, we should know the position of all letters from
position of 26 letters. Above mentioned five letters have, 4
A to Z.
their followers, and 4 their precedent.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P
## Here a new word is given below in which the
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 arrangement of letters have occupied positions in the
Q R S T U V W X Y Z multiple of 3, with the help of this word we can get the
17 1 8 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 position of total 26 letters.
cfilorux
Memorable Points
3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24
You can easily solve the problems based on this chapter with
the help of these short tricks - EXAMPLES :
## Starting point of the series is left end and ending point Ex.1-3. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P
of the series is the right end. Q R S T U V W X Y Z
## To solve the question easily you should break the series Ex.1. How many such vowels are there in the above
in the combination of five- five elements. arrangement each of which is immediately preceded
as well as followed by a consonant?
## We can easily understand the series problems by -
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
(4) Four (5) None of these
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Sol.(4)
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Consonant Vowel Consonant
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
D E F
left element – left element = left element
H I J
13th element from left – 8th element left = 5th element from
N O P
left is E.
T U V
right element – right element = right element
Ex.2. What should come in the place of question mark (?)
13th element from right – 8th element right = 5th element from
right is V. A, C, F, J, ?
left element + right element = left element (1) Q (2) O (3) T
13th element from left + 8th element right = 21th element (4) U (5) None of these
from left is U. Sol.(2)

REASONING ABILITY 7
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A C F J (O) Q (+6 = 23) W
B DE GHI KLMN
1 3 6 +4 10 15 M (+6 = 19) S
+2 +3 +5
Hence option (4) is correct.
Ex.3. Which of the following letter is 5th to the left of
11th letter from the left end in the above series? Ex.8-10. Following questions are based on five words given
below.
(1) G (2) K (3) F
GUN FRY LIE SHY BYE
(4) H (5) E
Ex.8. If in each of the given words the first letter and
Sol.(3) L11 - L5 = L6 = F
second letter are mutually interchanged and they
Ex.4. If it is possible to form a word with the first, are arranged in the order as they would appear in a
fourth, seventh and eleventh letters of the word dictionary, from left to right which of the following
“SUPERFLUOUS”, write the first letter of that be the fourth from right?
word. Otherwise, Z is your answer.
(1) RFY (2) HSY (3) UGN
(1) S (2) L (3) O (4) E (5) Z (4) YBE (5) ILE
Sol.(2) LESS is the word which is formed by using first, Sol.(5) HSY ILE RFY UGN YBE
fourth, seventh and eleventh letters of the word
Hence option (5) is correct.
SUPERFLUOUS.
Ex.9. If the last and second alphabet in each of the
The first letter of this word is L. Hence the answer is (2).
words is changed to the previous letter in English
Ex.5. How many meaningful English words can be made alphabetical order, how many words having one
with the letters J,G,L,U,N,I,G,G using each letter vowel are there?
only once in each word?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
(4) Three (5) More than three Sol.(1) GTM FQX LHD SGX BXD
Sol.(2) JUGGLING Hence option (1) is correct.
Hence option (2) is correct. Ex.10. How many letters are there in English alphabetical
Ex.6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the series between the first letter of the word which is
word ‘HAVEYOUANYWOOL’ each of which has the third word from the right and the first letter of
as many letters between them in the word as they the word which is the second word from the left?
have between them in the English alphabet? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three
(1) None (2) Four (3) Two (4) Four (5) None
(4) One (5) None of these Sol.(5) F G H I J K L
Sol.(5) Hence option (5) is correct.
Number Series
In this segment, questions are based on number and pairs
HAVEYOUANYWOOL of numbers.
Ex.11. The positions of how many digits in the number
59164823 will remain unchanged after the digits are

rearranged in descending order within the number?
Hence the answer is (5).
(1) None (2) One (3) Two
Ex.7. What should come next in the following letter series
(4) Three (5) More than three
based on the English alphabet?
Sol.(3) Number- 59164823
CEA IKG OQM (?)
On arranging in descending order, we get – 98654321
(1) STW (2) WUS (3) SWU
Here, the place of 4 and 2 are unchanged in the
(4) UWS (5) None of these
number 98654321.
Sol.(4) C (+6 = 9) I
Hence option (3) is correct.
E (+6 = 11) K
Ex.12. If in the number 3856490271, positions of the first
A (+6 = 7) G and the second digits are interchanged, positions
O (+6 = 21) U of the third and fourth digits are interchanged and

8 REASONING ABILITY
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so on till the positions of 9th and 10th digits are Ex.17. Which of the following is the sum of the first and
interchanged, and then which digit will be fifth from the second digits of the highest number?
the left end? (1) 11 (2) 15 (3) 14
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 9 (4) 7 (5) 9
(4) 0 (5) None of these Sol.(3) 9 5 6 = 9 + 5 = 14
Sol.(3) 8365942017 Hence, the option (3) is correct.
Hence, the option (3) is correct. Ex.18. If the positions of the second and the third digits of
Ex.13. If the digits of the number 783219 are arranged each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the
in ascending order within the number, then how following will be the last digit of the lowest number
many digits are remains on the same position after after rearrangement?
rearrangement? (1) 5 (2) 1 (3) 6
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) 4 (5) 2
(4) Three (5) More than three Sol.(5) 328 → 382
Sol.(3) 659→ 695
7 8 3 2 1 9 879 → 897
1 2 3 7 8 9 956 →965
Hence, the option (3) is correct. 468→ 486
Ex.14-16. These questions are based on the following Hence, the option (5) is correct.
arrangement of numbers. Study the series carefully Ex.19. Which of the following is the difference between the
and answer the questions given below. third and the first digits of the third highest number?
906352739621405743189803456 (1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 1
Ex.14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (4) 3 (5) 9
based on the position of the elements in the above
Sol.(4) 659 = 9 - 6 = 3
arrangement and hence form a group. Which one
does not belong to the group? Hence, the option (4) is correct.
(1) 903 (2) 357 (3) 743 Ex.20. Find the result of multiplication of second and
third digits of second and third highest numbers
(4) 188 (5) 346
respectively.
Sol.(3) 743 (according to the above series there is no gap
(1) 63 (2) 56 (3) 81
between these numbers). Hence, the option (3) is
(4) 67 (5) 96
correct.
Sol.(1) 879 = 7
Ex.15. How many such 8’s are there in the above
arrangement each of which is either immediately 659 = 9
followed by 1 or immediately preceded by 3, but 7 x 9 = 63
not both? Hence, the option (1) is correct.
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three Miscellaneous Series
(4) Four (5) None In this segment, questions are related to the position of letters,
Sol.(5) There is no such 8. Hence, the option (5) is correct. numbers and symbols.
Ex.16. Which of the following numbers is fourth to the left Ex.21-25. Study the following series of alphanumeric-symbol
of tenth element from the right side? combination and answer the following questions
(1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 1 given below.
(4) 0 (5) 3 F LYA* E 8 $ 2 R C B 9 N 3 S K 6 £ 7 W Q U V
Sol.(4) L + R = 10 + 4 = 14 5G2#49
9063527396214 0 5743189803456 Ex.21. How many symbols are there in the above
Hence, the option (4) is correct. arrangement each of which is immediately preceded
by but not immediately followed by a letter?
Ex.17-20. Following questions are based on the five three-
digit numbers given below. (1) None (2) One (3) Two
328 659 879 956 468 (4) Three (5) None of these

REASONING ABILITY 9
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Sol.(2) F L Y A * E 8 $ 2 R C B 9 N 3 S K 6 £ 7 W Q U V Sol.(2) general method
52G#49
Hence, the option (2) is correct.
Ex.22. What should come in place of question mark in the
following series?
Short trick :
F YER3W?
F @ 5 3 R / $ J PE 1 / H % I 8 4 / B 8AW2 /
(1) * (2) C (3) R UG6*9/ δZNM© / V
(4) B (5) # 13 from the left end is I.
Sol.(5) F (L) Y (A *) E (8 $ 2) R (C B 9 N) 3 (S K 6 £ 7) Ex.27. Which of the following is 10th to the left of the 18th
W (Q U V 5 G 2) # from the left end of the above arrangement?
Hence, the option (5) is correct. (1) J (2) E (3) A
Ex.23. If the positions of # and $, £ and Q, * and K and F (4) P (5) None of these
and V are interchanged then which of the following
Sol.(4) general method
elements will be the ninth to the left of eighteenth
element from the left end?
(1) 2 (2) W (3) 6
(4) S (5) U
Sol.(1) V L Y A K E 8 # 2 R C B 9 N 3 S * 6 Q 7 W £ U F Short trick :
5G2$49 F @ 5 3 R / $ J PE 1 / H % I 8 4 / B 8AW2 /
Hence, the option (1) is correct. UG6*9/ δZNM© / V
Ex.24. Four of the following five are alike in respect of their 18th from the left –10th left = 8th from the left.
positions in the above series and so form a group. Ex.28-29. Study the following information carefully and
Which is the one that does not belong to that group? answer the questions given below.
(1) Q 5 £ (2) K 7 N (3) 6 W 3 English alphabets have been arranged into five
(4) 5 2 Q (5) $ C * groups starting with a vowel and including the
consonants just after it. Thus in the first group, the
Sol.(4) 5 (UV) Q (7 W) £
letters are A, B, C and D in the second group E, F,
7 (6 £) K (3 S) N G, and H, and so on. In these groups, the first group
W (£ 7) 6 (S K) 3 has been assigned a numerical value 10, second
2 (G) 5 (UV) Q 20 and so on with the last group having a value
of 50. Each letter in a particular group will have
C (2 R) $ (E 8) *
the same value in the formation of words, and for
Hence, the option (4) is correct. calculating the value of the words the value of each
Ex.25. If all the numbers and symbols are dropped from letter in the word will be added. Only First group
the above series then which of the following letters (A,B,C,D) is multiplied by 1 and other group is
will be 8th from the right end? multiplied by 2. As an example: the value of CAB
(1) A (2) E (3) C is 30 (i.e. 10 + 10 + 10), because all the letters are
(4) N (5) R of the same group, whose value is 10. While the
value of BUT will be 10 + (50 × 2) + (40 × 2) =
Sol.(4) F L Y A E R C B N S K W Q U V G 190.
Hence, the option (4) is correct. Ex.28. What is the value of the word ‘SHOP’ ?
Let’s See Miscellaneous Series Example With (1) 100 (2) 80 (3) 150
The Help Of Shortcuts (4) 160 (5) None of these
Ex.26. Which of the following element is 13th from the Sol.(5) 280
left end ?
Ex.29. What is the value of the word ‘DRIVE’ ?
F @ 5 3 R $ J PE 1 H % I 8 4 BAW2 U G 6 * 9
δZNM©V (1) 150 (2) 280 (3) 290
(1) % (2) I (3) Q (4) 225 (5) None of these
(4) 1 (5) None of these Sol.(3) 290

10 REASONING ABILITY
 www.mahendras.org
exercise
Q.1. Find the missing term in the following question. (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3
DCE, HGI, MLN, ? (4) 4 (5) None of these
(1) KLT (2) SRT (3) MNO Q.10-14. The questions are based on the following set of
(4) HIJ (5) None numbers.
Q.2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way 426, 768, 693, 286, 741
and hence form a group. Which is the one that does Q.10. If all the numbers are arranged in descending order
not belong to that group? what will be the difference between the second digit
(1) KPMN (2) DWCX (3) EVBY of third number and first digit of second number?
(4) GTLO (5) FVDU (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3
Q.3. How many meaningful English words can be formed (4) 4 (5) None of these
with the letter, H, C, T, A.? Q.11. If in each number the first and the second digits
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 are interchanged, which number will be the second
highest number?
(4) None (5) More than three
(1) 693 (2) 286 (3) 742
Q.4. How many such pairs of letter are there in word
‘REASON’ which has as many as alphabet between (4) 768 (5) 426
them as in English alphabet? (from both side) Q.12. If in each number all the digits are arranged in
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 ascending order, which number will be second
lowest?
(4) 4 (5) None
(1) 426 (2) 768 (3) 693
Q.5. If each of the vowels in the word AMERICAN
changed to the next letter in the English alphabet (4) 268 (5) 741
then which of the following will be the sixth letter Q.13. If 1 is subtracted from the first and second digit of
from the Right end? each number. What will be the difference between
(1) F (2) X (3) R the first digit of the highest number and the first digit
of the lowest number?
(4) P (5) None
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4
Q.6. The position of how many alphabets will remain
unchanged if each of the alphabets in the word (4) 1 (5) 5
WORTHY are arranged in alphabetical order from Q.14. What is the difference between the highest number
left to right? and lowest number?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (1) 386 (2) 482 (3) 276
(4) more than three (5) None (4) 495 (5) None of these
Q.7-9. The following questions are based on the alphabetical Q.15-19. Following questions are based on the five three-digit
series given below: numbers given below:
CLRTBQSMAPDINFJKGYX 467 534 729 853 424
Q.7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way Q.15. If the positions of the first and the second digits of
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the
belong to the group? following will be the third digit of the third highest
(1) LBT (2) SPA (3) IJF number?
(4) PID (5) BMS (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4
Q.8. What will come in place of the question mark in the (4) 6 (5) None of these
following series? Q.16. If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order
CR LB TM SI ? from left to right, what will be the difference between
the numbers which are second from the left and
(1) PK (2) DK (3) DG
second from the right?
(4) NX (5) PG
(1) 262 (2) 226 (3) -622
Q.9. The positions of how many digits in the number
(4) -226 (5) 218
59164823 will remain unchanged after the digits are
rearranged in descending order within the number? Q.17. If the positions of the first and the third digits of each
REASONING ABILITY 11
www.mahendras.org
of the numbers are interchanged, what will be the (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3
sum of all the digits of the second lowest number (4) 4 (5) None
thus formed?
Q.25. If all alphabet are dropped in above arrangement
(1) 18 (2) 16 (3) 12 which element will be seventh from left end?
(4) 15 (5) None of these (1) 2 (2) 9 (3) %
Q.18. What will be the result if the first digit of the highest (4) @ (5) 5
number is added with the third digit of the lowest
Q.26. If each consonant in the word EXACTION is
numbers?
replaced by the previous letter in the English
(1) 17 (2) 16 (3) 10 alphabet and each vowel is replaced by the next
(4) 12 (5) None of these letter in the English alphabet and the new letters
Q.19. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged are arranged alphabetically, which of the following
in ascending order within the numbers , which of will be the fourth from the right end after the
the following will be the highest number in the new rearrangement?
arrangement of numbers ? (1) K (2) I (3) O
(1) 467 (2) 534 (3) 729 (4) N (5) None of these
(4) 853 (5) 424 Q.27. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
Q.20. On the basis of alphabet given below, answer the ‘COMMONWEALTH’ each of which have as many
following questions- letters between them in the word, as they have in the
English alphabet ?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVW
XYZ (1) Nine (2) Eight (3) Seven
In the above alphabet series,if each third letter (4) Six (5) None of these
starting from C ,is represented by the days of week Q.28. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
starting from Sunday ,then what is the position of ‘HISTORICAL’ each of which has as many letters
Thursday from the right? between them in the word as they have between them
(1) 10th (2) 12th (3) 13th in the English alphabet?
(4) 14th (5) None of these (1) Six (2) Nine (3) Seven
Q.21-25. Study the following arrangement carefully and (4) Ten (5) None of these
answer the questions given below. Q.29-30. Study the following number series carefully and
Q H 9 3 P & L E % 4 F R 1 U @ G W 2 M I 5 B. answer the question given below.
Q.21. If all the symbol and numbers are dropped from the 657482747531462427541232426
above arrangement, which of the following will be 435
the fourth from the right end? Q.29. How many such odd digits are there in the above
(1) M (2) G (3) W arrangement each of which is immediately preceded
by a perfect square?
(4) I (5) F
(1) None (2) One (3) Two
Q.22. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of
tenth from left end of above arrangement? (4) Three (5) Four
(1) 3 (2) 9 (3) L Q.30. How many such even digits are there in the above
arrangement each of which is immediately preceded
(4) % (5) I
by a perfect square?
Q.23. What should come in place of question mark in the
(1) None (2) One (3) Two
following series based on the above arrangement?
(4) Three (5) More than three
93&, E%F, 1UG ?
Q.31-33. Following questions are based upon the given
(1) 4F1 (2) 2M5 (3) LE4
five-four digits numbers-
(4) GWM (5) None
4321, 3456, 9876, 2050, 2468
Q.24. How many such consonants are there in the above
Q.31. Which of the following will be the second digit of
arrangement each of which is immediately followed
the third highest number when digits are arranged
by a number but not immediately preceded by a
in descending order within the numbers?
number?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 5
12 REASONING ABILITY
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(4) 3 (5) None of these (1) D 4 # © (2) F # H ©
Q.32. How many numbers will not be changed when the (3) D 4 # 7 (4) 9 B Q =
digits are arranged in the ascending order within the (5) F 9 = $
numbers?
Q.37-40. These questions are based on five words given
(1) None (2) One (3) Two below:
(4) Three (5) More than three THE NOT SMU LAN HES
Q.33. If the first and third digit are interchanged then which Q.37. If the third alphabet in each of the word is changed
of the following will be the second digit of the third to the next alphabet in English alphabetical order,
highest number? how many words thus formed have more than one
(1) 8 (2) 0 (3) 4 vowel?
(4) 3 (5) None of these (1) None (2) One (3) Two
Q.34-36. These questions are based on the following (4) Three (5) None of the above
arrangement of symbols, letters and numbers. Study Q.38. If in each of the words, all the alphabets are arranged
the series carefully and answer the questions given in English alphabetical order within the word, how
below. many words will begin with a consonant?
8 * ÷ D F 4 # H @ Y M E 6 7 © (1) One (2) Two (3) Three
? 9 B Q = $ 2 5 R J ¶ L 3
(4) Four (5) None of these
Q.34. If the first five elements are reverse then first ten
Q.39. How many letters are there in the English
elements are reverse then which will be the seventh
alphabetical series between the first letter of the third
to the right of second from the left end of the row?
word from the left and third letter of the fourth word
(1) @ (2) * (3) D
from the right?
(4) ÷ (5) None of these
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three
Q.35. Which of the following elements is second to the
(4) Four (5) None
left of tenth element from the right side?
Q.40. If the given words are arranged in the order as they
(1) 9 (2) $ (3) X
would appear in the English dictionary from left to
(4) M (5) 7 right, which of the following will be the third from
Q.36. In the above arrangement, D F 4 # is related to the left?
E 6 7 © and 8 * ÷ D is related to @ Y M (1) SMU (2) THE (3) HES
E then find which of the following will be related to
(4) LAN (5) NOT
J ¶ L 3 in the same way as first two are related
to each-other?
EXPLANATION
Q.1.(2) Q.8.(3) C+2R
+4 +6
+4 +6 L+3B
+4 +6
T+4M
DCE HGI MLN SRT
S+5I
+5

+5
+5
D+6G
Q.2.(5) All four options are opposite but (E) is not Q.9.(2)
opposite.
Q.3.(1) CHAT Q.10.(1) 768, 741, 693, 426, 286
Q.4.(1) REASON 9-7=2
Q.5.(1) AMERICAN Q.11.(2) 426 ® 246 693® 963 286 ® 826
BMFRJCBN 768 ® 678 741 ® 471
Q.6.(4) WORTHY Q.12.(1) 426
HORTWY 426 ® 246 693® 369
768 ® 678 286 ® 268
Q.7.(4)
741 ® 147
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Q.13.(5) F W B B S JPM
Arranging alphabetically: B B F J M P S W
M is fourth from right end.
Q.27.(3) So, there are seven pair of letters
Q.14.(2) 768 - 286 = 482
CL, MO, MT, ON, OH, NH, MO
Q.15.(3) 6 4 7
Q.28.(1)
3 5 4 ®Third highest number
2 7 9 HI S TO RIC AL

5 8 3

2 4 4
Q.29.(4) 47, 41, 43
Q.16.(1) 424, 467, 534, 729, 853
Q.30.(5) 48, 14, 46, 42, 12, 42
= 729 – 467
Q.31.(3) Descending order
= 262
4321 → 4321
Q.17.(5) 7 6 4
3456 → 6543
4 3 5
9876 → 9876
9 2 7
2050 → 5200
3 5 8
2468 → 8642
4 2 4 ® Second lowest number
Q.32.(3) Ascending order
4+2+4 = 10
4321 → 1234
Q.18.(4) 8+4 = 12
3456 → 3456
Q.19.(1) 4 6 7
9876 → 6789
3 4 5
2050 → 0025
2 7 9
2468 → 2468
3 5 8
Q.33.(3) First and Third Number are interchanged
2 4 4
4321 → 2341
Q.20.(2) C (Sunday)
3456 → 5436
F (Monday)
9876 → 7896
I (Tuesday)
2050 → 5020
L (Wednesday)
2468 → 6428
O (Thursday)
Q.34.(3) From left end = right 7 +left 2 = left 9
R (Friday)
Q.35.(1) From right end = left 2 + right 10 = right 12
U (Saturday)
Q.36.(4) DF 4 # --------+5 -------- E 6 7 ©
X (Sunday)
8 * ÷ D --------+5 ------- @ Y M E
Clearly ‘letter ‘O’ represents the day ‘Thursday’
then 9 B Q = --------+5 ------- J ¶ L 3
which is at 12th place from right.
Q.37.(3) THE NOT SMU LAN HES
Q.21.(3)
After change
Q.22.(2) From the Left End = Left 10 - Left 7 = Left 3 =9
THF NOU SMV LAO HET
Q.23.(2)
Q.38.(2) THE NOT SMU LAN HES
Q.24.(3) QH93P&LE%4FR1U@GW2MI5B
After change
Q.25.(4)
EHT NOT MSU ALN EHS
Q.26. (5) E X A C T I O N
Q.39.(4) There are 4 letters between S and N
Consonants are X, C, T, N; Vowels are
Q.40.(5) THE NOT SMU LAN HES
E,A,I,O
After change
E X A C T I O N
HES LAN NOT SMU THE
14 REASONING ABILITY
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CHAPTER

2 coding-decoding

What is coding-decoding? Coding Sequence:

Coding is the method of transmitting a message between the Ascending Order: Where characters are coded in increasing
sender and the receiver without a third person knowing it. order of there positions may be in parallel or diagonal
Decoding is the ability to break the secret code. placement pattern.
The approach to solving the question of coding: EXAMPLE :
(a) Observe characters (alphabets/Number/Symbols) (i)
given in the code properly.
(b) Find the pattern and sequence it follows, whether it

is ascending, descending or pair based.
(ii)
(c) Code asked characters by using the same pattern and
sequence.
Placement Pattern
Parallel Placement Pattern: Descending Order : Where characters are coded in
decreasing order of there positions may be in parallel or
Whether first character is coded as first character in code,
diagonal placement pattern.
similarly second character is coded as second character in
code and so on..... EXAMPLE :
(i)

Diagonal Placement Pattern:
Where characters are coded diagonally. (ii)
(a)

Many more logic that can be used:
(b) -2, -2, -2 ………..
+1, -2, +3, -4, +5 …….
+4, -1, +4, -1, +4…….
(c) Opp., +1, Opp., +1…..
Opp+1, Opp+1 …….
Opp+2, Opp+4, Opp+6………
(d) Etc………………
Opposite Alphabet Coding:-
Pair Based: Pair of alphabets is also given in codes.
A Z (AmaZon)
(e) B Y (BoY)
C X (CoX)
D W (DeW)
Etc……….. E V (EVe)
F U (FUn)
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G T (GeT)
H S (HiS)
I R (IRon)
J Q (Jungle-Queen) Ex.3. I n a c e r t a i n c o d e l a n g u a g e , F I L M FA R E
K P (KaPoor) is written as VSZGNMRG. How will
YOURNEARESTBOOKSTORE be written in that
L O (LiOn) code?
M N (MaN) (1) VSLUHLLPYUHFIBVOIVLZ
Miscellaneous Sequence: (2) VSLUHLLPYUHFIVIBVOLZ
EXAMPLE : (3) VSLUPYUHHLLFIBVOIVLZ
(ii) (4) VSLHFIBVOIUHLLPYUVLZ
(5) VSLLLPYUHFIBUHVOIVLZ
Sol.(1)
Types of Coding

opp

opp

opp

opp
+1 +1 +1 +1
(a) Letter Coding F I L M F A R E
(b) Number Coding
(c) Conditional Coding V S Z G N M R G
(d) Substitutional Coding Ex.4. In a certain code language KANPUR is written as
Letter Coding : IFKMZP. How is MURADABAD written in that
code language?
In letter coding, letters are coded in letters by using different
patterns and sequence. (1) WZYZWZIFN (2) WZYZWZEFN
EXAMPLES : (3) WYZZWZIFN (4) WZYZWWIFN
Ex.1. In a certain code language, STUDENT is written as (5) WZYZWZYFN
TVXHJTA, then how is TEACHER written in same Sol.(1) Opposite letters are written from the right end of each
code language? word.
(1) GUDGMKY (2) UGGDMKY Number Coding :
(3) UGDGMKY (4) UGDGKMY In number coding, letters are coded in numbers by using
(5) None of these different patterns and sequence.
Sol.(3) Ex.5. In a certain code language “ASKED” is written as
“45211”. How will “EIGHT” be wirtten in that code
language ?
(1) 59782 (2) 28795 (3) 597820
(4) 95728 (5) None of these
Sol.(2)
1 11 5 4
A S K E D

4 5 2 1 1
Ex.2. In a certain code language, REASONING is written
as HZVILTMRM, then how is DIGINOTES written So,
in same code language? 5 7 8 20
E I G H T
(1) RTRMWHVGL (2) RTWRMHVGL
(3) RTRWMHVLG (4) RTRWMHVGL 2 8 7 9 5
(5) None of these Ex.6. In a certain code language “PERSON” is written as
Sol.(4) “957561”. How will “SHOULD” be written in that
code language ?
(1) 186334 (2) 198152 (3) 681433
(4) 861334 (5) None of these
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Sol.(3) M A R K E T
16 5 18 19 15 14 (market is new word so use new code ‘yo’)
P E R S O N
13, 20
9 5 7 5 6 1 20 - 13 = 7
So, Final Coding = 7yo1
19 8 15 21 12 4 W O R L D
S H O U L D
(world is new word so use new code ‘lu’)
6 8 1 4 3 3 23, 4
Ex.7 In a certain code, 535201 is coded as SISTER, 78960 23 - 4 = 19
is coded as UNCLE. How is 8001 coded in that code? Final Coding = 19lu15
(1) NEER (2) NEAR (3) NEET Ex.9. Study the following information to answer the
(4) NAMR (5) None of these question given below:
Sol.(1) In a certain code-‘Month date Social Work’ is
written as ‘+19pd $20sn #5vw @21oh’
5 3 5 2 0 1 S I S T E R
‘Anjan talk mobile shapes’ is written as ‘$21vn *5pg
7 8 9 6 0 U N C L E @14hh %19mz’ ‘Common delete good charge’ is
8 0 0 1 N E E R written as ‘&14vx &21mx #10vw ^19wt,

Meerut change small very is written as ‘@18oh
Hence the option (1) is correct. !9be $11gn &14vx’.
Conditional Coding : Which is the code for ‘Mobile Team’?
In conditional coding, few conditions are given in the (1) *9ng %22bn (2) %21vn ^18mg
question, we have to follow the same to code the characters.
(3) *9ng $21vn (4) *9ng %21kp
Ex.8. In a certain code language,
(5) *19nt $21vn
‘economy receiving very fast’ is written as ‘14va1
Sol.(3)
3jo5 11ni5 20pa3’,
1. If the word start with,
‘very essences of economy’ is written as ‘9su6 20pa3
14lo19 3jo5’, M- $ A- % V-! D- # T- *
‘fast money in banks’ is written as ‘12gy15 5bt14 S- @ C- & W- + G- ^
17ks1 14va1’, 2. For numbers,
‘of banks in industry’ is written as ‘17ks1 16dm14 (Position of second letter + Number of letters in the
5bt14 9su6’. word)
What will be the code for “money market world’? 3. For letters,
(1) 17yo1 20pa3 18lu15 Opposite letters of first and last letter, then reverse.
(2) 7yo1 12gy15 19lu15 Ex.10-14. In each of these questions a group of letters is given
(3) 17yo1 12gy15 20pa3 followed by four combinations of number/symbol
numbered (1), (2), (3) & (4). Letters are to be coded as
(4) 12gy15 16dm14 5bt14
per the scheme and conditions given below. You have
(5) 10gy25 16dm14 5bt14 to find out the serial number of the combination, which
Sol.(2) In coding, numbers come from, the difference of first represents the letter group. The serial number of that
and last letter position. combination is your answer. If none of the combinations
M O N E Y is correct, your answer is (5) i.e. None of these.
13, 25 Letters : E Q B K N P L I T C S F H W A
25 - 13 = 12 Symbol : 5 * $ 2 © # 4 9 @ 6 1 8 % 7 3
Position of second letter 15 Code :
M O N E Y Conditions :
(“gy” comes from the above statement) (I) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a
vowel,both will be coded as the code for the vowel.
Final Coding = 12gy15
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(II) If the first letter is a vowel and the last is a consonant, Place value of capital letters (according to English
the codes for these two will be interchanged. alphabet) represents the total number of letters in each
(III) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, word. For example- Word “Give” has 4 characters and
both will be coded as ‘d’. in the English alphabet, the place value of D is 4.
(IV) If there are more than two vowels in the group of Small letters are used by opposite letter of the capital
letters, then all vowels will be coded as’£’. letter.
Ex.10. IQCPWF Ex.16-18. Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below.
(1) 9*6#78 (2) 9*6#79 (3) d*6#7d
In a certain code language “and better for meet” is
(4) 8*6#79 (5) None of these
written as “3 6 3 4”, “rival posed theism world” is
Sol.(4) According to condition (ii) written as “5 5 6 5” and “diverging viewpoints has
IQCPWF -8*6#79 mystery” is written as “9, 10, 3, 7”.
Ex.11. KAWIPL Ex.16. What will be the code of “Padmavati” in the same
(1) 2379#4 (2) d379#d (3) 4379#2 code language?
(4) 2379#2 (5) None of these (1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 5
Sol.(2) According to condition (iii) (4) 3 (5) 7
KAWIPL - d 3 7 9 # d Sol.(1) Total number of letters in each word.
Ex.12. IKBQFA Ex.17. Code 12 represents for which word?
(1) 92$8*3 (2) 923$*8 (3) 92*83$ (1) Twilight (2) Superman
(4) £2$8*£ (5) None of these (3) Dragon Ball (4) Transformer
Sol.(5) I K B Q F A = 9 2 $ * 8 3 (5) Humpty Dumpty
Ex.13. IBTNAE Sol.(5) Total number of letters in each word.
(1) £$@©££ (2) $9@©35 (3) $@9©35 Ex.18. What will be the code of “Tangled movie - Her wish
(4) £©$©££ (5) None of these to escape into the world” in the same code language?
Sol.(1) According to condition (iv) (1) 7 5 – 3 4 3 6 4 3 5 (2) 7 5 – 3 4 2 6 4 3 5
IBTNAE-£$@©££ (3) 7 5 – 3 4 2 6 4 3 7 (4) 7 5 – 3 4 2 6 4 3 3
Ex.14. TCKAPE (5) 7 5 – 3 4 2 6 4 3 6
(1) @623#@ (2) @623#5 (3) 5623#5 Sol.(2) Total number of letters in each word.
(4) 5623#@ (5) None of these Ex.19-22. Study the following information carefully and
Sol.(3) According to condition (i) answer the questions given below.
TCKAPE-5623#5 In a certain code language,
Ex.15. In a certain code language, some words have been ‘known life happy friend’ is written as ‘5urev 4ulfi
coded. You have to carefully analyse these codes and 5urev 6hrc’, ‘moon white happy child’ is written
answer the questions given below. as ‘4ulfi 5urev 5urev 5urev’,‘life child white snow’
is written as ‘4ulfi 5urev 5urev 4ulfi’ ‘happy white
“give motivation regularly” is written as “@Dw, %Jq
colour smile’ is written as ‘5urev 5urev 6hrc 5urev’
%Ir”.
Ex.19. What is the code for ‘on’?
“analyze your aim” is written as “%Gt @Dw @Cx”.
(1) 2halo (2) 2reeg (3) 2gdl
“class toppers” is written as “*Ev @Gt”
(4) 3gkr (5) 3ruw
“selected student” is written as “%Hs @Gt”
What will be the code for “talent job”? Sol.(3) In number = Total number of letters in the given word.
(1) @Fu @Cx (2) @Fu *Cx In letter = Letters’ code are depend on numbers (i.e.
opposite letter of one, two, three, four, five, six.)
(3) %Fu &Cx (4) *Dw %Cx
On = 2 = two =gdl
(5) *Hs &Lo
Ex.20. What does ‘3gsivv’ stand for?
Sol.(2) Symbols are used according to vowels in each word.
For one vowel we have used * symbol. For two (1) great (2) norm (3) fear
vowels we have used @ symbol and for three or more (4) war (5) onion
vowels we have used % symbol. Sol.(4) In number = Total number of letters in the given word.
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In letter = Letters’ code are depend on numbers (i.e. (1) 65 (2) 61 (3) 63
opposite letter of one, two, three, four, five, six.) (4) 62 (5) 64
War = 3 = three = gsivv Sol.(4) Here, the logic is- The first digit shows the number
Ex.21. ‘2gdl 5urev 3gsivv’ could be a code for which of the of letters in the word and the second digit shows the
following? number of vowels in each word.
(1) to love ones (2) he helps her Ex.26. Which of the following words represents the code 94?
(3) he never do (4) is he smile (1) GENEROUS (2) GLIMPSE
(5) who do this (3) GLAMOROUS (4) RETENTION
Sol.(2) In number = Total number of letters in the given word. (5) Both 3 and 4 are true for code.
In letter = Letters’ code are depend on numbers (i.e. Sol.(5) Here, the logic is- The first digit shows the number
opposite letter of one, two, three, four, five, six.) of letters in the word and the second digit shows the
he helps her = 2 5 3 = two five three = gdl urev gsivv number of vowels in each word.
Ex.22. What is the code for ‘Intelligent’? Ex.27. What is the code for YOUR SUCCESS IS OUR
SUCCESS?
(1) 11vovecv (2) 11vovmje (3) 11vovevm
(1) 42, 72, 21, 32, 72 (2) 42, 21, 41 72, 72
(4) 11eovmje (5) 11vovepp
(3) 42, 72, 20, 32, 52 (4) 52, 72, 20, 32, 72
Sol.(3) In number = Total number of letters in the given word.
(5) 52, 32, 33, 72, 30
In letter = Letters’ code are depend on numbers (i.e.
opposite letter of one, two, three, four, five, six.) Sol.(1) Here, the logic is- The first digit shows the number
of letters in the word and the second digit shows the
Intelligent = 11 = eleven = vovevm
number of vowels in each word.
Ex.23-24. In a certain code language some words are written
Ex.28-30. In each of the following questions given below, a
in coded form which are given below:
word is given followed by four combinations of symbols
G P Y B is written as 20 11 02 25. and digits labelled A, B, C and D. You have to find out
W Q O T is written as 04 10 12 07. which of the following four combinations correctly
A S X V is written as 26 08 03 05. represents the word based on the alphabet codes and
the conditions given below. If none of the combinations
Ex.23. What is the code for ‘English’?
matches, choose ‘None of these’ as your answer.
(1) 12-14-07-12-09-19-08
(2) 22-13-20-15-18-08-19 Element 7 2 F K 6 8 O 3 J I V 5 E 4 P 9
(3) 12-14-07-12-09-08-15 Code $@ < X } / & * > Y % # Z ! ? Q
(4) 22-13-20-11-18-08-19 Condition 1: If the first element is a vowel and the second
(5) 22-11-20-15-18-01-19 last element is a number then the codes are to be interchanged.
Sol.(2) Place value of the opposite letter of each letter of Condition 2: If the first element is a consonant and the last
given word. element is a vowel then both of them are to be coded as G.
Ex.24. Code 20-12-15-23-22-13 is indicated by which of the Condition 3: If the first element is an odd digit and the last
following words? element is an even digit then the code will be written in
reversed order.
(1) SILVER (2) GOLDEN (3) PRAYER
Condition 4: If any element appears twice in a code then
(4) GRAPES (5) GROWTH
it will be coded as R.
Sol.(2) 20 = T = G, 12 = L = O, 15 = O = L, 23 = W = D, 22
Note: If two or more conditions are applicable in single code
= V = E, 13 = M = N
then Condition 1 will be given 1st priority, Condition
Ex.25-27. In a certain code language some words are written 2 will be given 2nd priority, Condition 3 will be given
in coded form which are given below: 3rd priority and Condition 4 will be given 4th priority.
COMMENT COMPLAIN PROOF is written as 72, The position of all elements in the code will be taken
83, 52. from the left end.
BEAUTIFUL HANDSOME GREAT is written as Ex.28. What would be the code of ‘9K8O3J4’?
95, 83, 52. (1) !>*&/XQ (2) XQ!>*&/ (3) !>*&QX/
BLANK EQUATION NUMBER is written as 51, 85, 62. (4) XQ!>&*/ (5) None of these
Ex.25. What is the code for FALCON?
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Sol.(1) Here, condition 3 can be applied. Sol.34.(1) in - jho
Ex.29. What would be the code of ‘E6IVP27’? Sol.35.(5) there - zo
(1) $}%Y?@Z (2) $?%}Y?@ (3) $}Y%?@Z Ex.36-40. Study the following information carefully and
(4) Z}Y%?@$ (5) None of these answer the questions given below.
Sol.(5) Here, condition 1 can be applied. In a certain code language, each word is coded.
Ex.30. What would be the code of ‘J8E735F’? The word and their code are in the same place in
(1) $/Z$#*< (2) </Z$*#> (3) $/Z$#*$ the box.
(4) $/Z$*#$ (5) None of these
Sol.(5) Here, no condition can be applied.
Substitution Coding :
In substitution coding, one word is replaced by another word,

rather than coding in a sequence.
Answer the questions by applying the same logic to
Ex.31-35. Read the following information carefully and
the words in the box below.
answer the question given below.
In a certain code “her idea has merit” is written as
“ fa lu boo ma”, “merit list has been displayed” is
written as “go he lu si ma”, “her name displayed
there” is written as “ya si boo zo”, and “name in

merit list” is written as “ma ya jho he”.
Ex.36. Which of the following is the code of LIVING?
Ex.31. What does “he” stand for ?
(1) 19 * * D (2) 19 * % D (3) 19 & & D
(1) name (2) in (3) there
(4) list (5) None of these (4) 19 # # D (5) 19 @ * D
Ex.32. What is the code for “been” ? Ex.37. What does the code 24%$D stand for?
(1) he (2) lu (3) go (1) ENERGY (2) RAIN (3) FLOWER
(4) si (5) None of these (4) SHIP (5) SHARE
Ex.33. Which of the following code represent “there name Ex.38. Which of the following is the code for ‘POWER’?
has in merit” ? (1) 39 * * D (2) 39 * % D (3) 34 & & D
(1) zo ya ma jho he (2) zo ya lu jho ma (4) 39 # # D (5) 34 % $ C
(3) zo si ma boo lu (4) zo si ma lu boo Ex.39. ‘ grace money’ may be coded as-
(5) None of these (1) 16#$C 38%$C (2) 12#$D 38%$C
Ex.34. What is the code for “in” ? (3) 12#$C 38%$F (4) 12#$C 38%$C
(1) jho (2) ma (3) zo (5) 19#$C 38%$C
(4) boo (5) None of these Ex.40. What does the code 30$B stand for?
Ex.35. “zo” is represented by which word ? (1) SHIP (2) PEN (3) POEM
(1) name (2) in (3) been (4) PLAYER (5) PAIR
(4) idea (5) there Sol.36-40.
Sol.31-35. Numbers – The sum of the place value of the first and
Her idea has merit - fa lu boo ma the last letters.
merit list has been displayed - go he lu si ma Symbols-
A, E, I, O, U
Her name displayed there - ya si boo zo
# $ * % @
name in merit list - ma ya jho he Letters- The number of total consonant letters in the

given word and then write this number in the letter
Sol.31.(4) he - list
that is in the English alphabet series as its place value.
Sol.32.(3) been - go
Sol.36.(1) Sol.37.(3) Sol.38.(5)
Sol.33.(2) there name has in merit - zo ya lu
Sol.39.(4) Sol.40.(2)
jho ma
20 REASONING ABILITY
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exercise
Q.1. In a certain code language, GGOLD is written as (1) 5940 (2) 5841 (3) 5742
IKUTN, then how is STARS written in the same (4) 5040 (5) None of these
code language?
Q.10. In a certain code language, LEADING is written
(1) UXGZS (2) UXFZC (3) UXGZC as MDZEHOH, then how is TRAINEE written in
(4) UWGXC (5) UXGAC same code language?
Q.2. In a certain code language, ZEBRA is written as (1) UZQJMFF (2) UQBHODF (3) USZHODF
WBYAJ, then how is HORSE written in the same (4) USZHODD (5) None of these
code language?
Q.11. In a certain code language, HOSPITAL is written
(1) MITIW (2) MWITI (3) MJTKP as FJQQJQBI, then how is PATIENTS written in
(4) MTIWI (5) MTPQP same code language?
Q.3. In a certain code language, TITAN is written as (1) IXEQUOIJ (2) UQJIOEXI (3) EXIUQJIO
48797, then how is WATCH written in the same (4) EXIUQOIJ (5) None of these
code language?
Q.12-14. In each of these questions, a group of letters is
(1) 67841 (2) 16784 (3) 35896 given followed by four combinations of number/
(4) 16759 (5) 16484 symbol numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). Letters are to
Q.4. In a certain code language, RTS is written as 19 and be coded as for the scheme and conditions are given
MTH is written as 25, then how is IPL written in below. You have to find out the serial number of the
the same code language? combination, which represents the letter group the
serial number of that combination is your answer.
(1) 13 (2) 12 (3) 23 If none of the combinations is correct your answer
(4) 17 (5) 15 is (5) i.e. None of these.
Q.5. In a certain code language, UNION is written as Letters: R U P M A Q L W B T O I F N V H S J Y G
WLKQL, then how is PERSON written in the same Number
code language?
/Symbol: _ 2 + - 1 x 3 4 % 6 ? / * & ^ 5 $ # @ !
(1) NCpqql (2) NGPQQL (3) NGPQUL
Conditions:
(4) PGNQQN (5) NGLPQL
(I) If the first and last letters of the word are not vowels
Q.6. In a certain code language, PRINTER is written as then both letters are coded by the code of H.
STJNSCO, then how is DIGITAL written in the
same code language? (II) If the first and last letters of the word are not
consonant then both letters are coded by the code
(1) GHISYIK (2) HGISIYK (3) GKHISYI of S.
(4) KGHISYI (5) KGIHSYI (III) If the first letter of the word is a vowel and the last
Q.7. In a certain code language, BLOCK is written as letter is consonant then both letters are coded by the
NDLIA, then how is UNION written in the same code of L.
code language? (IV) If the first letter of the word is consonant and the last
(1) WPRML (2) PWRLM (3) LMRPW letter is vowel then both letters are coded by the code
of M.
(4) MLRWP (5) LMPRW
Q.12. MARSH
Q.8. In a certain code language “TIMES” is written as
“79548”. How will “INDIA” be written in that code (1) 51+$6 (2) 51+$5 (3) 51_$5
language? (4) 5!x$5 (5) None of these
(1) 18132 (2) 45989 (3) 94598 Q.13. MAHNRA
(4) 49589 (5) None of these (1) 615&-6 (2) 615$_6 (3) 615&_5
Q.9. In a certain code language “SUPPORTERS” is (4) -15&_- (5) None of these
written as “8780”. How will “INEVITABLE” be
written in that code language? Q.14. UANOF
(1) 615&-6 (2) 615$_6 (3) 615&_5
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(4) 31&?3 (5) None of these Q.19. What may be the code of ‘word orange’?
Q.15-16. In each of these questions a group of letters is (1) st ir (2) cd mo (3) ir bn
given followed by four combinations of digit/ (4) mo ir (5) cd qw
symbol numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). Letters are
to be coded as for the scheme and conditions given Q.20-24. Study the following information carefully and
below. You have to find out the serial number of the answer the questions given below:
combination, which represents the letter group serial In a certain code language,
number of that combination is your answer. If none
‘words are useful all’ is written as ‘me le sa na’
of the combination is correct your answer is (5) i.e.
None of these. ‘nice words for girl’ is written as ‘po ka ge le’
Letters: T S J E B G Q F X O N Z R ‘for all girl happy’ is written as ‘de me ka po’ and
Digit 2 9 * 5 # @ 8 7 © 3 % 4 6 ‘are meaning happy useful’ is written as ‘fa de na
/Symbol: sa’

Conditions: Q.20. What would be the code for ‘for all’?

(I) If the first letter is followed by a vowel and the last (1) po, le (2) me, ge (3) ka, po
letter is preceded by a consonant, the last letter is (4) me, po (5) me, na
coded as the code for vowel following the first letter. Q.21. What is the code for ‘ge me de ka’?
(II) If there are no vowel in the group of letters then the (1) nice all happy for
code of sixth letter from the right end and the code
of fourth letter from the left end are interchanged. (2) nice all happy girl
(III) If the group of letters contains more than one vowel (3) for nice useful words
then all vowels are replaced by the code of Q. (4) Either 1 or 2
Follow all conditions i, ii, and iii respectively. (5) None of these
Q.15. O T S R F B E Q.22. How will ‘useful for all’ be written in that code
(1) 3 6 9 7 2 # 5 (2) 8 2 9 6 7 # 8 language?
(3) 3 6 9 2 # 5 7 (4) 3 6 9 2 5 # 7 (1) na sa me (2) na ka me (3) na po le
(5) None of these (4) na le me (5) Both 3 and 4
Q.16. T E E O G R S Q.23. What is the code of ‘ka’ ?
(1) 2 8 @ 6 8 8 5 (2) 2 8 8 8 @ 6 5 (1) happy (2) useful (3) all
(3) 2 8 8 6 5 @ 8 (4) 2 @ 8 8 8 6 5 (4) girl (5) are
(5) None of these Q.24. What is the code for ‘meaning’?
Q.17-19. Study the following information carefully and (1) fa (2) de (3) le
answers the questions given below: (4) na (5) sa
In a certain code language, Q.25-29. In a certain code language,
‘sky man mars laptop’ is coded as ‘tm ir mo az’ ‘Culture of America is unique’ is written as ‘12%
‘tax no man mars’ is coded as ‘mo bn st ir’ 15# 11* 13@ 14$’
‘tax word mars laptop’ is coded as ‘cd az mo bn’ ‘Prosperity and the Culture’ is written as ‘10! 16&
‘sky laptop image relax’ is coded as ‘tm az yj yx’ 14× 11*’
Q.17. Which of the following is the code for ‘laptop’? ‘Behavior is America Prosperity’ is written as ‘16&
15# 08÷ 14$’
(1) st (2) bn (3) ir
‘The unique Behavior done vision’ is written as
(4) mo (5) None of these ‘14× 10+ 13@ 08÷ 12/’
Q.18. Which of the following word is coded as ‘yx’?
Q.25. What is the code for ‘of’ ?
(1) word (2) laptop (3) no
(1) 12% (2) 15# (3) 11*
(4) Tax (5) None of these
(4) 13@ (5) None of these
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Q.26. Which of the following does ‘08÷’ stands for? (1) 15@E, 13#O, 5?E, 13%L
(1) The (2) Unique (3) Done (2) 21%E, 6$L, 18#E, 20@O
(4) Behavior (5) None of these (3) 19@E, 17#L, 7?E, 18%O
Q.27. Which of the following is the code for ‘Prosperity (4) 26$E, 17%O, 26#E, 19@L
of America’? (5) None of these
(1) 14$ 12% 10! (2) 14× 16& 14$ Q.34-37. Study the following information carefully and
(3) 12% 16& 14$ (4) 15# 13@ 16& answer the questions given below:
(5) 10! 14$ 16& In a certain code language,
Q.28. Which of the following is represented by the code “Environmental noise sound pollution” is written
‘11* 13@ 10+’? as “I#23 L#13 N#22 W#15”
(1) The culture done “Propagation regardless living organisms” is
written as “L#13 M#8 P@20 J@8”
(2) Unique America behavior
“Have deleterious effect excessive” is written as
(3) Unique done culture “W#22 W@7 X#8 T@22” and
(4) America behavior culture “Unpleasant sound according world” is written
(5) Unique behavior culture as “A#20 I#23 G@7 E#23”
Q.29. Which of the following is the possible code for ‘and Q.34. What is the code for ‘formation’ in the given code
the unique’? language?
(1) 14× 13@ 10! (2) 13@ 15# 10! (1) V#13 (2) U#13 (3) V@23
(3) 15! 17× 13@ (4) 16&14× 13@ (4) U@23 (5) U@23
(5) None of these Q.35. What is the code for ‘complex system’ in the given
code language?
Q.30-33. Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below: (1) Y#2 I@14 (2) Y#18 I@3 (3) Y#3 I@14
In a certain code language, (4) Y@18 I#3 (5) I#14 Y@0
“RADAR JUKE BANGLE MOD” is written as Q.36. What is the code for ‘birds chirping’ in the given
‘14#R, 26@E, 28$E, 26%D’ code language?
“RAIL MADLY BUN JAR” is written as ‘19#L, (1) Z#20 Y@8 (2) Z#18 Y@20 (3) Z@23 Y@8
7%Y, 16$N, 12@R’ (4) Y@20 Z#8 (5) U@8 Z@20
“JOB RAPID BOT MONKEY” is written as Q.37. What is the code for ‘Grains’ in the given code
‘28@B, 28#D, 10$T, 8%Y’ language?
“MICRO BOAR RANSOM JUMP” is written as (1) V@8 (2) Z#14 (3) V@10
‘17%O, 13$R, 20#M, 15@P’ (4) U@8 (5) U@12
Q.30. The code for the word ‘RAN’ is Q.38-40. In the question two rows are given and to find
(1) 8%N (2) 8*N (3) 17#N out the resultant of a particular row you need to
(4) 16#N (5) None of these follow the following steps.

Q.31. The code ‘27#E’ denotes which of the following Step 1: if an odd number is followed by an odd composite
word? number then the resultant will be the addition of two
numbers.
(1) RUDE (2) REVERSE (3) RUPEE
Step 2: if an even number is followed by an even number
(4) RANDOM (5) None of these then the resultant will be the subtraction of both the
Q.32. Which of the following is the code for “MONK”? numbers.
(1) 20%K (2) 26%K (3) 28!K Step 3: if an even number is followed by an odd number
(4) 24!K (5) None of these then the resultant will be the remainder obtained by
dividing the larger number with the smaller number.
Q.33. Which of the following is the code for ‘MACRO
BAKE ROSE JAIL’? Step 4: if an odd number is followed by an odd prime number
REASONING ABILITY 23
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then the resultant comes by multiplication of both % means either the hour or the minute hand of the
the numbers. clock is at 4
Step 5: if an odd number is followed by a number divisible @ means either the hour or the minute hand of the
by 4 then the resultant will be the quotient obtained clock is at 8
by dividing the larger number with the smaller & means either the hour or the minute hand of the
number. clock is at 5
Step 6: if an odd number is followed by an even number not * means either the hour or the minute hand of the
divisible by 4 then the resultant comes by addition clock is at 10
of both the numbers.
Note: if two symbols are given then by default first
Q.38. 6 18 15 19 symbol is consider as hour hand and second one is
5 24 9 13 considered as minute hand.
Find the sum of resultant of two rows? For example,
(1) 74 (2) 68 (3) 70 #@ PM means 2:40 PM
(4) 80 (5) None of these %& AM means 4:25 AM
Q.39. 15 x 18 12 Answer following questions based on above
6 14 34 8 information:-

If x the resultant of second row, find the resultant of Q.41. If Vipin takes 95 minutes to reach railway station and his
first rows? train is scheduled at *% AM, then at what time should
he leave to reach railway station five minutes earlier?
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 18
(1) @@ (2) @$ (3) $@
(4) 24 (5) None of these
(4) *@ (5) None of these
Q.40. 37 40 57 8
Q.42. If Ankit takes fifteen minutes to reach his school and
87 36 19 12 the school timing began with $*, then at what time
Find the difference in the resultant of second row should he leave to reach his school ten minutes earlier?
and first row? (1) $& (2) $# (3) &$
(1) 42 (2) 36 (3) 38 (4) @# (5) None of these
(4) 65 (5) None of these Q.43. Rahul set his alarm for 2:25. He takes 20 minutes to
Q.41-43.In a certain coding language, get ready and goes to gym for 3 hours and returns at
$#. How many minutes did Rahul take to reach gym?
# means either the hour or the minute hand of the
clock is at 2 (1) 10 minutes (2) 15 minutes (3) 20 minutes
$ means either the hour or the minute hand of the (4) 25 minutes (5) 30 minutes
clock is at 6

EXPLANATION
Q.1.(3) T I T A N
G G O L D S T A R S
+2 +4 +6 +8 +10 +2 +4 +6 +8 +10
I K U T N U X G Z C M Z G R G
13 26 7 18 7
1+3 2+6 1+8
Q.2.(4) Opp. 4 8 9
ZEBRA
Opp.(+1) W A T C H
WBYAJ

HORSE S X G Z D
Opp.(+1) 19 24 7 26 4
1+9 2+4 2+6
M T I W I
10 6 8
Q.3.(2) 1+0
1

24 REASONING ABILITY
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Q.4.(1) R T S, 18+20-19 ⇒ 19 UANOF
M T H, 13 +20-8 ⇒ 25
3 1 & ? 3
I P L, 9 +16 - 12 ⇒13
Q.5.(2) Vowel + 2 and consonant -2 In this question, the condition (III) follows
Q.6.(3) Q.15.(2)
P R I N T E R D I G I T A L O T S R F B E
+3 +2 +1 0 -1 -2 -3 +3 +2 +1 0 -1 -2 -3
8 2 9 67 # 8
S T J N S C O G K H I S Y I
Q.16.(2)
Q.7.(2)
opp. opp. T E E O G R S
B L O C K U N I O N
+2 +2 -2 -2 +2 +2 -2 -2 2 8 8 8@ 6 5
N D L I A P W R L M
Q.17-19. sky=tm
7 18 14 22 8 18 13 23 18 26
G R N V H R M W R Z man=ir
Q.8.(3) Opp. T I M E S So,
mars=mo
7 9 5 4 8 9 4 5 9 8
laptop=az
Q.9.(1)
tax=bn
S U P P O R T E R S
no=st
19 + 21+16+16+15 18 + 20 5 +18+19
87 80 word=cd
So, image=yj/yx
I N E V I T A B L E relax= yj/yx
59 40
Q.17.(5) Q.18.(5) Q.19.(5)
Q.10.(4) VOWEL -1, CONSONANT +1
+1 -1 -1 +1 -1 +1 +1 +1 +1 -1 -1 +1 -1 -1 Q.20-24. words=le, all=me, are=sa/na, useful=na/sa,
LEADING TRAINEE
nice=ge, for=po/ka, girl=po/ka
MDZEHOH USZHODD
happy=de
Q.11.(3) Opp.
meaning=fa
-2 -2 -2 -1 -1 +2 +2 +2 -2 -2 -2 -1 -1 +2 +2 +2
S L H K RG Z O K Z GRV M G H
HO S PI TA L PATIENTS Q.20.(4) Q.21.(4) Q.22.(2)
Q.23.(4) Q.24.(1)
FJQQJQBI EXIUQJIO
Q.25-29.
Q.12.(4)
MARSH Culture of America is unique 12% 15# 11* 13@ 14$

5 ! ×$ 5 Prosperity and the Culture 10! 16& 14× 11*

In this question, the condition (I) follows Behavior is America Prosperity 16& 15# 08÷ 14$

Q.13.(4) The unique Behavior Done Vision 14× 10+ 13@ 08÷ 12/

MAHNRA
Q.25.(1) Q.26.(4) Q.27.(3)
- 1 5&_ -
Q.28.(3) Q.29.(1)
In this question, the condition (IV) follows. Q.30.(4) RAN – 16#N
Q.14.(4) R–#

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No of letters – 3+(Opposite letter value of N = 13) Number ⇒ Numerical value of reverse of last
= 16 letter.
Last letter – N Q.34.(1) formation—V#13
Q.31.(3) “27#E”– RUPEE Q.35.(3) complex system---Y#3, I@14
R–# Q.36.(2) birds chirping---Z#8, Y@20
Last letter – E Q.37.(4) grains—U@8
No of letters – 5+(Opposite letter value of E = 22) Q.38-40. I. (Odd no.) (odd composite no.) = add both numbers.
= 27 II. (Even no.) (even no.) = subtract the numbers.
Q.32.(1) M – % III. (Even no.) (odd no.) = larger no. divide by
Last letter – K smaller no.(remainder is the resultant)
No of letters – 4+(Opposite letter value of K = 16) IV. (Odd no.) (odd prime no.)= multiply both the
= 20 no.’s
Q.33.(4) MACRO BAKE ROSE JAIL = 26$E, 17%O, V. (Odd no.) (a no. divisible by 4) = larger no.
26#E, 19@L divide by smaller no.(quotient is the resultant)
Q.34-37. In these questions we are applying following VI. (Odd no.) (even no. not divisible by 4) =
concept. addition of both the no.’s
NOISE – N # 22 Q.38.(3) Q.39.(2) Q.40.(3)
Symbol ⇒ If total number of letter in a word is Q.41. (1) *% AM=10:20 AM-(95+5)= 8:40 AM=@@
odd then use #/If the total number of letter in a Q.42. (1) $* = 6:50 - (20+5) = 6:25 = $&
word is even then use @.
Q.43. (4) 2:25 +20 min= 2:45 +3 hr= 5:45
Leter ⇒ Immediate succeeding word of reverse
$#=6:10
of first letter in a word.
6:10-5:45=25 min.

NOTES

26 REASONING ABILITY
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CHAPTER

3 blood relation

In this segment, candidates have to deal with the questions

Generation Chart
based on Blood Relation. Questions based on Blood-Relation
can be of many types but in all the types of questions, Generally, the question deals with a hierarchical structure
candidates have to relate all the given relation one by one. which is based on seven generations three above and three
below, like this-
In Other Words :
Blood Relation problems mainly deal with the hierarchical Three generations above
structure of a family i.e., grandparents, parents and children Male Female
etc. Different relationships between the family members of Paternal great grandfather Paternal great grandmother
different generations are given. To solve such questions, the
entire family tree is to be constructed by plotting out the Maternal great grandfather Maternal great grandmother
various relationships. Great grandfather-in-law Great grandmother-in-law
Blood relation is a very important topic of any Aptitude Two generations above
Test. Such questions may be asked directly or may be given Male Female
in the form of coded blood relations or data sufficiency
Grandfather Grandmother
questions.
Maternal grandfather Maternal grandmother
The relation on the mother side is called ‘maternal’ and that
on the father side is called ‘paternal’ and if the relation is Grandfather-in-law Grandmother-in-law
from the Husband or wife side is called ‘in-law’. One generations above
Some more words are used in this Chapter like- Male Female
Spouse means Husband or Wife. Father Mother
Cousin means Brother or Sister. Uncle Aunt
Sibling means Real Brother and Sister. Maternal uncle Maternal aunt
Mother’s or Father’s Father Grand Father Father-in-law Mother-in-law
Mother’s or Father’s Mother Grand Mother Current generation (Self)
Mother’s or Father’s Brother Uncle Male Female
Husband Wife
Mother’s or Father’s Sister Aunt
Brother Sister
Son’s Wife Daughter-in-law
Cousin Cousin
Daughter’s Husband Son-in-law
Brother-in-law Sister-in-law
Husband’s or Wife’s Brother Brother-in-law
One generation below
Husband’s or Wife’s Sister Sister-in-law
Male Female
Sister’s/Brother’s Son Nephew Son Daughter
Sister’s/Brother’s Daughter Niece Nephew Niece
Brother’s Wife Sister-in-law Son-in-law Daughter-in-law
Sister’s Husband Brother-in-law Two generations below
Father’s second wife Step mother Male Female
Son/Daughter of father’s second Step Brother/Sister Grandson Grand daughter
wife – Step Brother/Sister Grandson-in-law Grand daughter-in-law

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Three generations below Y
Male Female
Great grandson Great grand daughter X
Great grandson-in-law Great grand daughter-in-law Y is Paternl Aunt of X
Symbol’s used for Relation Representation : ⇒ Father’s Father– Paternal Grand Father
↔ or = → (Husband wife) Y
→ (Brother’s Sister’s)-Sibling’s
→ (Son and Daughter)
or (+) → for male X
or (-) → for female Y is Paternal Grand Father of X.
⇒ Mother’s Father – Maternal Grand Father
Some Important Relation and Their Representation :
⇒ Mother’s or Father’s Son → Brother Y

Y X X

Y is Brother of X Y is Grand Father of X
⇒ Mother’s or Father’s Daughter → Sister Note - If simply Grand Father is written it means
either Mother’s or Father’s Father.
⇒ Son’s Wife– Daughter-in-law
X
Y X
Y

Y is si ster of X Y is Daughter-in-law of X
⇒ Mother’s Brother – Maternal Uncle ⇒ Daughter’s Husband – Son-in-law
Y X
Y

X
Y is Son-in-law of X
Y is Maternal Uncle of X
⇒
X
Husband’s or Wife’s Father – Father-in-law
⇒ Mother’s Sister– Maternal Aunt
Y
Y

X X

Y is Maternal Aunt of X
Y is Father-in-law of X
⇒ Father’s Brother– Paternal Uncle
⇒ Husband’s or Wife’s Mother– Mother-in-law
Y
Y
X
X
Y is Paternal Uncle of X
⇒ Father’s Sister – Paternal Aunt Y is Mother-in-law of X
⇒ Husband’s or Wife’s Brother– Brother-in-law

28 REASONING ABILITY
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(1) Uncle’s sister-in-law

X Y
(2) Cousin’s sister-in-law
Y is Brother-in-law of X (3) Nephew’s sister-in-law
⇒ Husband’s or Wife’s Sister– Sister-in-law (4) Father’s sister-in-law
X Y (5) Mother’s sister

Sol.(2)
Y is Sister-in-law of X
+/- +
⇒ Sister’s husband– Brother-in-law

X Y
Y is brother-in-law of X
Naina + - -
⇒ Brother’s Wife– Sister-in-law
Ex.4. Pointing to a photograph, Neha says “She is
X Y the daughter of the only son of my maternal
grandmother”. Whom she is pointing at?
Y is Sister-in-law of X (1) Brother (2) Maternal uncle
Types of Questions Asked In Various Exams (3) Friend (4) Cousin
Type -I → Indicating form (5) None of these
Type -II → Puzzle form Sol.(4)
Type -III → Coded form -

Type - I → Indicating Form

Ex.1. Introducing a man a lady said that “He is the father
of my mother’s daughter’s only brother”. - +
How is the man related to lady?
(1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Cousin
(4) Father (5) None of these Neha -
Sol.(4) Ex.5. Looking at a lady, Joey said, “She is the mother of
Man my mother’s mother-in-law’s husband”. How is the
lady related to Joey’s father?
Lady (1) Mother (2) Aunt

(3) Mother-in-law (4) Grandmother
Ex.2. Pointing to a boy a girl said “He is the son of the
daughter of the father of my only uncle”. How is (5) None of these
the boy related to girl? Sol.(4)
How is the man related to lady? lady
(1) Brother (2) Nephew (3) Uncle
(4) Son-in-law (5) None of these mother-in-law husband
Sol.(5)

mother +

+ –
Joey
Girl Boy Type II- Puzzle form

Ex.3. Naina said, “I want to go on tour with the sister of Ex.6. Mala and Lali are sisters. Mahesh is the father of
my uncle’s only son’s wife.” Then to whom, Naina Dev. Gargi is the mother of Mala and Dev. How
want to go with? Mahesh’s father is related to Lali?
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(1) Paternal Grand Father Sol.9.(5) Niece or Nephew
(2) Uncle Ex.10-12. Study the following information carefully and
(3) Father answer the question given below.
(4) Maternal Grand Father P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family.
There are two married couples among them and
(5) None of these total member of females in the family is three.
Sol.6.(1) R is the mother of P and U.
-+ T is the father of S.
P is the grandson of T.
Gargi- Mahesh+ Ex.10. How Q is related to U?
(1) Sister (2) Grand mother
(3) Wife (4) Data Inadequate
Mala- Lali- Dev (5) None of these
Ex.11. Who is daughter of S?
Ex.7. Shyam is the brother of Riya. Mohini is the mother
of Anuj. Riya is the daughter of Ram. Anuj is the (1) Q (2) P (3) U
brother of Shyam. How is Mohini related to Ram? (4) T (5) None of these
(1) Sister (2) Daughter (3) Wife Ex.12. If X is married to U then how X is related to S ?
(4) Mother (5) None of these (1) Daughter-in-law (2) Son-in-law
Sol.7.(3) (3) Daughter (4) Son
Mohini- Ram + (5) Can’t be determined
Sol.10-12.
+ + - T+ Q–
Anuj Shyam Riya
– +
Ex.8-9. Study the following information carefully and R S
answer the question given below.
Seven members of a family A, B, C, D, E, F and G. P
+
U–
There are two married couple in the family. Sol.10.(2) Sol.11.(3) Sol.12.(2)
A is brother of D who is father of G. Ex.13-15. Study the following information carefully and
B is grand father of E who have only one sister. answer the question given below.
G is daughter of C and her grand mother has only In the family, there are only five males and four
two child. females and there are only three married couples.
Ex.8. Who is grand mother of E ? Kajol, who is the sister of Rahul, is the wife of
Karan. Karan is the son of Ravi and Mona. Mona is
(1) G (2) B (3) F the mother of Roma. Pooja is the daughter of Ravi.
(4) C (5) None of these Harsh is the husband of Roma and they have one
Ex.9. How is E related to A ? child.
(1) Daughter (2) Grand Daughter Ex.13. How is Pooja related to Kajol?
(3) Niece (4) Nephew (1) Mother (2) Sister (3) Sister-in-law
(5) Either 3 or 4 (4) Daughter (5) Niece
Sol.8-9. Ex.14. How is Harsh related to Karan?
B + –
F (1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law
(3) Father (4) Father-in-law
+ + –
A D C (5) Son
Ex.15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
G
–
E and so form a group which one does not belong to
Sol.8.(3) F the group?
30 REASONING ABILITY
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(1) Karan Pooja (2) Roma Harsh persons are the same. They all have a family relation
(3) Mona Rahul (4) Karan Kajol to each other. Same generation person is doing the
same activity.
(5) Pooja Roma
Ravi is dancing and he is the father of Kavita who
Sol.13-15.
is the sister of Mona. Leela is the Aunt of Mona but
Ravi(+) Mona(-)
she is not the sister of Ravi. Kavita is the daughter
of Rani who has one brother-in-law Gopal. Divya
is the mother of Raj, Rahul and Deepali and they
Rahul(+) Kajol(-) Karan(+) Pooja(-) Roma(-) Harsh(+)
are not the children of Ravi and Leela. The relations
can only be made between these two generations.
Ex.18. What is the relation between Deepali and Mona?
+
(1) Sisters (2) Brothers
Sol.13.(3) Sol.14.(2) Sol.15.(5)
(3) Cousin (4) Mother and daughter
Ex.16-17. Study the following information carefully and
(5) Father and Son
answer the questions given below.
Ex.19. Name the persons who are watching the dance.
In a family, Komal has three sons Ravi, Mohan
and Arun. Rekha is the wife of Mohan who is the (1) Raj, Rahul, Deepali, Kavita, Mona
son-in-law of Raj. Mona is the daughter-in-law of (2) Divya, Rahul, Deepali, Kavita, Mona
Komal but Ravi is unmarried. (3) Leela, Ravi, Gopal, Divya, Rani
Ex.16. If Kavita is the mother-in-law of Mohan then how (4) Rahul, Mona, Gopal, Kavita, Raj
is Raj related to Kavita?
(5) Deepali, Mona, Gopal, Kavita, Raj
(1) Brother (2) Husband (3) Brother-in-law
Ex.20. How is Divya related to Gopal?
(4) Nephew (5) Son
(1) Mother (2) Sister
Ex.17. If Neha is the son of Mona then how is Neha related
to Ravi? (3) Wife (4) Sister-in-law
(1) Nephew (2) Sister (3) Wife (5) Niece
(4) Daughter (5) Cousin Sol.18-20.
Sol.16.(2)

Sol.18.(3) Sol.19.(1) Sol.20.(3)

Ex.21-24. Study the following information carefully and
answer the question given below.
Sol.17.(1) Last night I was going to Delhi by Train. In my
compartment, my mother had only two sons (me
and my brother) and each son has three married
daughters with her husband and two daughters.
There were my grandmother and grandfather also.
My grandfather was with his brother, Mr Rahul who
was with his wife and two sons.
Ex.21. How many members had I in my compartment?

Ex.18-20. Study the following information carefully and (1) 27 (2) 33 (3) 35
answer the question. (4) 28 (5) 40
Some people are dancing on a stage and some are Ex.22. How is my grandfather’s brother related to me?
watching it. The number of dancing and watching (1) Grandfather (2) Brother

REASONING ABILITY 31
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(3) Father (4) Nephew Sol.25-27.
(5) Son Nikhil > Chetan > Karan > Anjali > Tanya > Maya > Sanjana
+ -
Ex.23. How are sons of my grandfather’s brother’s related Nikhil Tanya
to me?
- + +
(1) Uncle (2) Cousin (3) Father Anjali Chetan Karan
(4) Brother (5) Son
Ex.24. How many male members were there in my
- -
compartment? Sanjana Maya
(1) 13 (2) 11 (3) 10 Sol.25.(5) Sol.26.(3) Sol.27.(2)
(4) 12 (5) 15 Ex.28-30. Study the following information carefully and
Sol.21-24. answer the question given below.
There are eight members P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and
W in a family. They all have different mobile
phones- Nokia, Micromax, Lenovo, Apple, MotoG,
Karbonn, Samsung and Sony but not necessary in
the same order.
V is the daughter of the one who likes Micromax.
R likes Karbonn and is married to one who likes
MotoG. The one who likes Nokia is grand mother
of U who has only two brothers. S likes Micromax
Sol.21.(2) Sol.22.(1) Sol.23.(1) and is married to P. R is father of the one who likes
Apple. Q is the mother of T and U. U is not son of
Sol.24.(4)
Q but likes Lenovo. There are two married couples
Ex.25-27. Study the information given below and answer in the family. Samsung is liked by W and Sony is
the questions based on it. liked by a female. The one who likes MotoG is the
There are 7 people in a family Anjali, Chetan, daughter-in-law of S.
Nikhil, Sanjana, Tanya, Maya and Karan. Sanjana Ex.28. How is V related to P?
and Maya are granddaughters of Nikhil, who is the
(1) Grand mother (2) Wife
father of Chetan. Tanya has only two sons. Anjali
is the sister-in-law of Karan. Sanjana is not taller (3) Mother (4) Daughter
than Maya. Anjali is shorter than three persons but (5) Grand daughter
taller than her daughters. No male is shorter than
Ex.29. Which of the following person likes Sony?
females. Karan is shorter than his brother and father.
There are two married couples in the family. The (1) V (2) W (3) T
one who is the oldest person in the family is the (4) R (5) S
tallest. Maya is not taller than her grandmother. Ex.30. How many female members are there in the family?
Ex.25. How many persons are taller than Tanya? (1) Two (2) Four (3) Five
(1) One (2) Two (4) Three (5) Six
(3) Three (4) Can’t be determined Sol.28-30.
(5) None of these Micromax Nokia

Ex.26. Who among the following is the mother of Karan? S P

(1) Nikhil (2) Sanjana (3) Tanya Karbonn Moto G
Sony V R Q
(4) Anjali (5) None of these
Ex.27. How is Maya related to Karan?
W U T
(1) Nephew (2) Niece
Samsung Lenovo Apple
(3) Daughter (4) Can’t be determined
Sol.28.(4) Sol.29.(1) Sol.30.(2)
(5) None of these
Type-III Coding Form
32 REASONING ABILITY
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Ex.31. Study the following information carefully and (5) P @ Q $ R # T
answer the question given below. Sol.(4)
‘A+B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ R+ T
–

‘A–B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

‘A×B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’ Q+ P
‘A÷B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’ Ex.35. If expression P∆Q#R$S@T is true then which of
In which of the following means ‘S is father of P’. the following option is true?
(1) P÷Q–R×S (2) P×Q÷R–S (3) P–Q×R÷S (1) S is father of P (2) T is mother of R
(4) P÷Q+R×S (5) None of these (3) P is brother of R (4) P is son-in-law of S
Sol.(2) (5) Q is daughter of T
–
R +
S Sol.(4)
S+ +
T
P+ Q
–

R– Q
– +
P
Ex.32-35. Study the following information carefully and
Ex.36-40. Study the following information carefully and
answer the question given below.
answer the question given below.
‘A$B’ means ‘B is father of A’
@ is the son of %. # is son of @. & is the brother
‘A@B’ means ‘B is brother of A’ of #. * is the wife of @. ^ is the daughter of !. + is
‘A∆B’ means ‘B is wife of A’ father of ! who is the sister of @.
‘A#B’ means ‘B is sister of A’
‘A%B’ means ‘B is mother of A’
Ex.32. What will come in the place of question mark to
establish that P is son-in-law of S in the expression?
P∆Q?R$S
(1) $ (2) @ (3) ∆ Ex.36. How is ‘^’ related to ‘%’?
(4) # (5) Either @ or # (1) Niece (2) Mother
Sol.(5) (3) Grand-daughter (4) Sister
S+ S+ (5) Wife
or Ex.37. Who is wife of ‘+’?
R
–
Q– P+ R
+
Q– P+
(1) * (2) ^ (3) !
Ex.33. What will come in place of question mark to (4) % (5) +
establish that U is grandmother of P in the
expression? Ex.38. Which of the following is true?
P#Q?S∆T%U (1) @ is the son of &. (2) @ is uncle of ^.
(1) % (2) ∆ (3) $ (3) * is +’s wife. (4) + is %’s son.
(4) @ (5) Either $ or ∆ (5) ! is mother of @.
Sol.(3) Ex.39. How is & related to +?
U- (1) Grandson (2) Nephew (3) Son
(4) Father (5) Grandfather
S+ T- Ex.40. Which of the following is not true?
Q- P (1) @ is the son of +. (2) @ is brother of !.

(3) % is +’s wife. (4) + is %’s grandson.
Ex.34. Which of the following expression represent that
‘T is mother of P’? (5) * is @’s wife.
(1) P # Q % R # T (2) P # Q @ R % T Sol.36-40.
(3) P ∆ Q @ R $ T (4) P @ Q $ R ∆T

REASONING ABILITY 33
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There are some members of a family having three
generations. The relation between the different
members of the family are defined as follows.
U@G#J
C&I
Sol.36.(3) Sol.37.(4) Sol.38.(2) F%H*C
Sol.39.(1) Sol.40.(4) B@H
Ex.41. Study the following information carefully and G*F%H©I
answer the question. J©A$D
A + B means ‘A is father of B’ B$E
A − B means ‘A is daughter of B’ Ex.43. If D is the only child of F, then how is D related to
A × B means ‘A is brother of B’ U?
A ÷ B means ‘A is mother of B’ (1) Son (2) Grandson
If L x G ÷ T – S + F, then how is G related to F? (3) Daughter (4) Grand daughter
(1) Mother (2) Son (3) Daughter (5) Can’t be determined
(4) Brother (5) None of these Sol.(5)
Sol.(1)

Ex.44. If A has only one son, then how is J related to F?
Ex.42. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means
(1) Son (2) Brother-in-law
A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the father
of B. Which of the following means that C is the (3) Brother (4) Father
son of M? (5) None of these
(1) M - N x C + F (2) F - C + N x M Sol.(2)
(3) N + M - F x C (4) M x N - C + F
(5) None of these
Sol.(4) M x N → M is the father of N
N - C → N is the sister of C
and C + F → C is the brother of F. Ex.45. If D has no sibling and B has no granddaughter,
Hence, M is the father of C or C is the son of M. then how is E related to C?
Ex.43-45. Study the following information carefully and (1) Daughter (2) Wife
answer the questions which follow– (3) Nephew (4) Son
‘K @ L’ means ‘K is the parent of L (either mother (5) Cannot be determined
or father)’ Sol.(5)
‘K # L’ means ‘K is the sister of L’
‘K $ L’ means ‘L is the grandchild of K’
‘K % L’ means ‘K is the brother of L’
‘K & L’ means ‘K is the son-in-law of L’
‘K * L’ means ‘K is the wife of L’

‘K © L’ means ‘L is the mother of K’

34 REASONING ABILITY
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exercise
Q.1. Pointing to the lady in the photograph, Mitali said, Q.7. What is the profession of P?
“Her son’s father is the only son-in-law of my (1) Lawyer
mother”. How is Mitali (Lady) related to the lady?
(2) Teacher
(1) Sister (2) Mother (3) Cousin
(3) Doctor
(4) Self (5) None of these
(4) Cannot be determined
Q.2. Pointing to a photograph of Prabhu , Vijay said,
“The father of his sister is the husband of my wife’s (5) None of these
mother’. How is Vijay related to Prabhu? Q.8. How is S related to T?
(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law (1) Father (2) Grandfather
(3) Uncle (4) Data inadequate (3) Uncle (4) Father-in-law
(5) None of these (5) None of these
Q.3. Pointing to a photograph, Amit said, ‘she is the Q.9-10. There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family.
daughter of my brother’s son’s wife. ‘How is Amit C is the sister of F. B is the brother of E’s husband.
related to the lady’s father? D is the father of A and grandfather of F. There are
(1) Uncle (2) Daughter-in-law two fathers, three brothers and a mother in the group.

(3) Cousin (4) Brother Q.9. Which of the following is a group of brothers?

(5) None of these (1) ABF (2) ABD (3) BFC

Q.4. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Shivani (4) HEW (5) None of these
said, “He is the only son-in-law of the father of my Q.10. How is C related to D?
brother. How is that person is related to Shivani? (1) Son-in-law (2) Daughter-in-law
(1) Mother (2) Brother (3) Grandson (4) Granddaughter
(3) Husband (4) Father-in-law (5) None of these
(5) Sister-in-law Q.11-15. Study the following information carefully and
Q.5. P is the father of Q, who is the father of A. B is the answer the questions given below:
daughter of R, who is the only daughter-in-law of ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’
P. P has one grandson and one granddaughter. Then
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’.
how is P related to A?
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’.
(1) Grandfather (2) Grandmother
‘P & Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’.
(3) Either I or II (4) Data inadequate
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is the wife of Q’.
(5) None of these
Q.11. Which of the statement means A is the father in law
Q.6-8. There is a family of six persons P, Q, R, S, T and
of D?
U. They are Lawyer, Doctor, Teacher, Salesman,
Engineer and Accountant. There are two married (1) A*B#C$D@E (2) A$C@E#D$B
couples in the family. S, the Salesman is married (3) C@B#A$D*E (4) D$A@B*C#E
to the Lady Teacher. The Doctor Q is married to (5) None of these
the Lawyer. U, the Accountant is the son of Q and
brother of T. R, the Lawyer is the daughter-in-law of Q.12. Which of the statement is true about the given
P. T is the unmarried Engineer. P is the grandmother expression, G*T$Y&I*J?
of U. (1) T is the mother of I
Q.6. How is T related to U? (2) G is the husband of T
(1) Brother (3) Y is the sister-in-law of J
(2) Sister (4) T is the mother-in-law of J
(3) Cousin (5) None of these
(4) Cannot be determined Q.13. In the given expression, ‘M&N*O#P@R’, How is
(5) None of these M related to O?

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(1) Daughter-in-law (2) Mother Q.20. In P$Z@V#Y%W&X, how is ‘V’ related to W?
(3) Aunt (4) Sister-in-law (1) Mother (2) Husband
(5) None of these (3) Either (1) or (2) (4) Father
Q.14. Which of the following expression is true, if we say, (5) None of these
C is the son-in-law of A? Q.21. In W&N%M$Y@L, how is ‘N’ related to L?
(1) A&B@C*D#E (2) A*C$D&B@E (1) Sister (2) Uncle (3) Brother
(3) A@B$C&D*E (4) C#B@D&A*E (4) Niece (5) None of these
(5) A$B@D#C$E Q.22-24. Read the following information carefully and give
Q.15. How is N related to O, according to the given the answer the questions given below.
expression, ‘M@N&P*Q$O’? Suzuka is the son of Tom who is the brother of Jerry
(1) Father-in-law (2) Father who is the daughter of Sin. Doremon is the sister of
(3) Mother (4) Aunt Popoy who is son of Chain. Seller is the daughter of
Popoy who is the husband of Jerry. Sin is the male
(5) None of these person and Chain is the female person.
Q.16-18. Study the following information carefully and Q.22. How is Tom related to Seller?
answer the questions given below.
(1) Father (2) Paternal Uncle
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is wife of B’.
(3) Aunt (4) Maternal Uncle
‘A # B’ means ‘B is daughter of A’.
(5) None of these
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is father of B’.
Q.23. How is Seller related to Suzuka?
‘A % B’ means ‘B is mother of A’.
(1) Uncle (2) Sister (3) Cousin
‘A & B’ means ‘A is sister of B’.
(4) Brother (5) None of these
Q.16. In P$Z@V#Y%W&X, how is ‘V’ related to X?
Q.24. What is the relation of Seller with Sin?
(1) Son (2) Daughter
(1) Sister-in-law
(3) Father (4) Brother in law
(2) Grand daughter
(5) Can’t be determined
(3) Daughter
Q.17. In P$Z@V#Y%W&X, how is ‘V’ related to W?
(4) Cannot be determined
(1) Mother (2) Husband
(5) None of these
(3) Either (1) or (2) (4) Brother
Q.25-28. Study the following information carefully and
(5) None of these answer the questions given below:
Q.18. In W&N%M$Y@L, how is ‘N’ related to L? In a family of eleven member P, Q, R, S, T, U, V,
(1) Sister (2) Uncle (3) Brother W, N, M and K each of them has a different age.
(4) Niece (5) Can’t be determined Every upper generation is elder than the lower
generation and each male members is elder than
Q.19-21. Study the following information carefully and
female members in every generation. P is the eldest
answer the questions given below.
person of the family. M is the eldest person in their
‘P $ Q’ means ‘Q is  brother of P’. generation. N and M are married couples and have
‘P # Q’ means ‘Q is daughter of P’. only two children U and V, in which one is male and
‘P @ Q’ means ‘Q is father of P’. other is female, but not necessarily in the same order.
P and Q have two daughters K and R. R is the sister
‘P % Q’ means ‘Q is mother of P’. of M and married to S. T is the paternal grandmother
‘P & Q’ means ‘Q is sister of P’. of W who is the son of S.
Q.19. In P$Z@V#Y%W&X, how is ‘P’ related to W? Q.25. Who is youngest person of the family?
(1) Son (2) Daughter (1) W (2) U
(3) Father (4) Brother-in-law (3) V (4) Cannot be determined
(5) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

36 REASONING ABILITY
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Q.26. How is the eldest person of the family related to S? In a family of eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and
(1) Son-in-law (2) Sister-in-law H, there are three married couples. D is the father of
E and the grandfather of F. A is the grandmother of
(3) Brother-in-law (4) Mother-in-law E and the mother of B. G is the grandson of B. C is
(5) Father-in-law the father of father-in-law’s of E’s husband. Only H
Q.27. How many male members there in the family? has more than one child.
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 3 Q.29. How is F related to D?
(4) 6 (5) Cannot be determined (1) Grandfather (2) Grandson
Q.28. If the female person who has at least two children is (3) Grandmother (4) Granddaughter
elder than other females, then who among of them (5) Cannot be determined
is the 6th oldest person in the family? Q.30. How many female members are there in the family?
(1) T (2) R (3) K (1) Three (2) Four
(4) N (5) Cannot be determined (3) Five (4) Either three or four
Q.29-30.Study the following information carefully and (5) Either three or five
answer the questions given below:
EXPLANATION
Q.1.(4) Sales Man Teacher
M=Metali S+ P-
L= Lady
M=L + -
Doctor Q R Lawyer

+
U T (Engineer)
Q.2.(2) (Accountant)
Q.6.(4) Q.7.(2) Q.8.(2)
Q.9-10.
Prabhu Vijay
D
Q.3.(5)
Amit P= Photograph B A E

F C

Q.9.(1)
P
Q.10.(4)
Q.4.(3). Q.11.(2)
P= Photograph A+
S= Shivani
P S C– D+

Q.5.(1) +
E B
P Q.12.(3) G * T $ Y & I * J

Q R G– T+

A B Y– I - J+

Q.13.(4) M & N * O # P @ R
Q.6-8.

REASONING ABILITY 37
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P Q.22-24.
(+) (–)
R O N M Sin Chain
Q.14.(5) A $ B @ D # C $ E (+) (–) (+) (–)
A+
Tom Jerry Poppy Doremon

B– C+ (+) (–)
Suzuka Seller
D+ E
Q.22.(4) Maternal Uncle
Q.15.(4) M @ N & P * Q $ O
– Q.23.(3) Cousin
M
Q.24.(2) Grand daughter
N– P– Q+
Q.25-28.
(+) (–) (–)
O P Q T
Q.16.(4)
(-) (+) (–) (–) (+)
P Z N M K R S
V W X
(+)
U V W
Y
Q.25.(4)
Q.17.(2)
Z
Q.26.(5)
P
Q.27.(2)
V W X
Q.28.(5)
Y
Q.29-30.
Q.18.(5) C
A
M Y

N L W B D

Q.19.(5) E H W
V W X

P Z Y F G

Q.20.(2) Circle - Female

V W X Square - Male 

Y
Q.29.(5) D is father of E.
P Z
The relation of F with D cannot be determined
Q.21.(5) as the gender of F is not known.
L
Q.30.(4) It is not sure whether F is a male or a female.
M Y So, there are either 3 or 4 female members in
the family.
N W

38 REASONING ABILITY
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CHAPTER
direction &
4
distance
In this test, the questions consist of a sort of direction puzzle. 2. Based on distance (total distances or shortest distances)
A successive follow-up of directions is formulated and the 3. Based on degrees (clockwise and anticlockwise)
candidate is required to ascertain the final direction on the
distance between two points. The test is meant to judge the 4. Based on shadow (morning or evening time)
candidate’s ability to trace and follow correctly and sense 5. Based on Puzzle, Coded and Combinations.
the direction correctly.
For Shortest Distance :
There are four main directions :
First of all, we have to draw a right angle and then apply
North, East, South, West the Pythagorean Theorem.
A

Hypotenuse
Perpendicular

B C

Base
There are four subordinate directions:
AC2 = AB2 + BC2
North-East (N-E), South - East (S-E), South-West (S-W) &
(Hypotenuse)2 = (Perpendicular)2 + (Base)2
North-West (N-W) these are also called sub-directions and
these sub-directions are between prime directions like NE For Shadow :
is between North and East, SE is between South & East & (A) IN EVENING-
so on,..
N
NORTH
NW NE

W E

SW SE WEST EAST
S
Sun Shadow
SOUTH
(B) IN MORNING-
NORTH

WEST EAST
Basically, There Are Five Types Of Questions : Shadow Sun
1. Based on directions (from the Initial point or from SOUTH
endpoint)
REASONING ABILITY 39
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Note- II. Based on distance (total distances or shortest distances) :
1. If a person is facing towards North then - Ex.3. A child is looking for his father. He went 90 metres
in the east before turning to his right. He went 20
(1) Clockwise means- Turn your right side
metres before turning to his right again to look for
(2) Anticlockwise means – Turn your left side his father at his uncle’s place 30 metres from this
2. If a person is facing towards South then – point. His father was not there. From there he went
100 metres to his north before meeting his father in
(1) Clockwise means- Turn your left side a street. Now how far he is from his starting point?
(2) Anticlockwise means – Turn your right side (1) 80 m (2) 100 m (3) 260 m
Key Factors: (4) 140 m (5) 90 m
## At the time of sunrise shadow of an object will always Sol.(2)
be towards west.
F North
## At the time of sunset the shadow of an object is always

East
West
in the East.
## If a man is standing and facing North at the time of A
E
B
South

sunrise his shadow will be towards his left and at the

time of sunset it will be towards his right.
D C
## At 12:00 noon, the rays of the sun are vertically
downward hence there will be no shadow. Required distance
(80) + (60)
2 2
I. Based on directions (from the Initial point or from = AF =
endpoint) : 6400 + 3600 = 10000 = 100m
Ex.1. Shyam travels 7 km. North, then he turns to his right Ex.4. Ashok wants to book a ticket to Madhurai. He starts
and walks 3 km. He again turns to his right and and covers 5 km to reach the Booking Office which
moves 7 km forward. Now in which direction is is in the East of his house. From there he turns to the
he from his starting point? North towards the market by travelling 3 km. From
(1) North (2) South (3) East there he turns left to his friend Sandeep’s house which
(4) West (5) North-East is 5 km away. Now he has to reach his house. How
Sol.(3) many km he has to cover to reach his house?
3 km. (1) 8 km (2) 3 km (3) 5 km
(4) 6 km (5) 7 km
7 km. 7 km.
Sol.(2)
North

A
Starting
E
A = starting point

Ex.2. In morning Sobhit covers 10 metres and turns to his
right and covers 4 metres then he turns in his left Required distance = 3 km
and covers 4 metres. At this time his shadow in his III. Based on degrees (clockwise and anticlockwise) :
left. Then in which direction he started his journey Ex.5. Rahul is facing East direction.He turns to 900
? anticlock wise.Then he turns 1800 clock wise. In
(1) North-East (2) North (3) South which direction is he facing now?
(4) East (5) West (1) South (2) West (3) East
Sol.(2) (4) North (5) South-East
4m Sol.(1)
4m
10m
0
90 1800

Rahul
South

40 REASONING ABILITY
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From the diagram clearly we see that Rahul is
facing south direction. P

Ex.6. A man is facing North. He turns to 180 0 in

clockwise direction and another 450 in the same
Q V
direction and then 270 0 in the anticlockwise
direction. In which direction is he facing now ?
(1) South-West (2) South-East T U
O
(3) North-East (4) North-West
Required distance = (4 + 3 + 1) Feet = 8 feet.
(5) North
IV. Based on shadow (morning or evening time) :
Sol.(4)
N Ex.9. In an evening Rekha and Hema were talking to
0
each other face to face. If Hema’s shadow was
270
exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was
W E Rekha facing ?
1800 (1) North (2) South
45
0
(3) East (4) Data is inadequate

S
Final Direction North West Degrees can only be (5) West
judged towards the direction in which a person is Sol.(2) North
facing instead of the path covered by him. Rekha
Ex.7. A man moves 5 km. towards North from any point, West East
then he turns to his right 900 and moves 5 km, then
he turns to his right 450 and moves to 2 km. Finally Sun South
he turns to his left 450 and moves 2 km. in which Hema Hema's shadow

direction he is facing now?
Shadow in the evening.
(1) South (2) South-East
Ex.10. One morning Mohan and Gaurav were standing
(3) East (4) South-West opposite to each other. Mohan’s shadow fell
(5) North exactly on his left. Toward which direction was
Sol.(3) Gaurav facing?
(1) South (2) North
(3) West (4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these
Sol.(1)
N
Shadow

Mohan
A person starting from O and his end point is D
W E
from the diagram and he is facing in East direction. Sun
Gavrav
Ex.8. Mira started her journey from point T towards east,
and walk straight to point U which is 4 feet away.
She turns left, at 900 and walks to point W which S
After Sun Rise
is 4 feet away, then she turns 900 right and goes 3
feet to point P. Then she turns 900 right and walks V. Based on Puzzle, Coded and Combinations :
1 foot to point Q. Then she turns left 900 and goes Ex.11. A person starting from a point and moves 1 km
to point V, which is 1 foot away and once again towards North direction, then he turns to his right
she turns 900 right and goes to point O, which is and moves 3 km. Again he turns to his right and
3 feet away. What is the distance between T and moves 5 km. In which direction and how far is he
O? from his starting point ?
(1) 4 ft. (2) 5 ft. (3) 7 ft. (1) 4 km North (2) 5 km North-East
(4) 8 ft. (5) 6 ft. (3) 4 km East (4) 5 km South-East
Sol.(4) (5) 7 km North-East

REASONING ABILITY 41
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Sol.(4) E is 6 km to the north of K.
N W is 6 km to the west of E.
S is 7 km to the west of W.
W is 7 km to the north of G.
W E H is to the south of S and to the west of K.
Ex.13. What is the distance between K and H?
(1) 15 km (2) 13 km (3) 12 km
(4) 9 km (5) 18 km
S
Ex.14. What is the distance between G and E? (approx.)
A person starting from O and ends to D point.
(1) 8 km (2) 5 km (3) 9 km
OC = AB = 3 Km.
(4) 3 km (5) 6 km
CD = BD - BC = 5 - 1 = 4 Km.
Ex.15. K is in which direction of S?
OD2 = OC2 + CD2
(1) South- east (2) South- west
= 32 + 42 = 9 + 16 = 25
(3) North (4) North-east
OD2 = 25, OD = = 5 km.
(5) North-west
Finally he is 5 Km in South-East direction from
Ex.16. If F is 3 km to the south of W then what is the
point O.
distance between G and F?
5 km South-East
(1) 7 km (2) 5 km (3) 3 km
Ex.12. In an evening when Suraj started walking from
(4) 4 km (5) 6 km
his house, his shadow was exactly towards his
right. He walked 6 km. Then he turns to his left Ex.17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and moved 4 km. Again he turns to his right and and so form a group. Which one is not related to
walked 6 km. Then he turned to his right and the group?
moved 13 km. How far is he and in which direction (1) SWE (2) HFK (3) HGK
from the starting point ? (4) SKH (5) EWF
(1) 15 km North-East Sol.13-17.
(2) 15 km Noth
(3) 15 km South-East
(4) 16 km South
(5) 17 km East
Sol.(1)
13km
D 4 km F 9 km E

6 km
6km

Sol.13.(2)
N
C 4km B Sol.14.(3) GE = =
6 km Sol.15.(1)
W E
Sol.16.(4)
A

S
AF = AB + CD = 6 + 6 = 12 km
FE = DE - BC= 13 - 4= 9 km

EA= AF 2 + EF 2 = 12 2 + 9 2
Sol.17.(1)
= 144 + 81 = 225 =15 km
Ex.18-20. Study the following information carefully and
Ex.13-17. Study the following information carefully and answers the question given below.
answer the questions given below.
42 REASONING ABILITY
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A man walks 8m towards the east to reach point P. Note: if two symbols are given simultaneously
He turns to his right and walks 5m to reach point then we will consider both the directions.
Q. Then, he turns to his left and walks 9m to reach For example,
point R and he turns to his right and walks 11m
&! means North-East
to reach point S. Finally, he turns to his right and
walks 20m to reach point T. /! means South-East
Ex.18. What is the distance between the starting point Ex.21. A man started from point X and moves towards the
and Q? east. After walking for a distance of 20 m, he took
a right turn and walks for 20 m then he took a left
(1) 13 m (2) 9 m (3) √89 m
turn, and walk for 15 m after that he took a right
(4) 3√27 m (5) None of these turn and walked 15 m more. In which direction is
Ex.19. If a man walked 3m towards east from point T to the man facing now?
reach point U, then what is the distance between (1) & (2) / (3) !
point U and starting point?
(4) ? (5) None of these
(1) 16m (2) 25m (3) 22m
Sol.(2)
(4) 33m (5) None of these
Ex.20. Point R is in which direction with respect to Point
T?
(1) North (2) North-east
(3) South-west (4) South-east
(5) None of these
Sol.18-20.
Starting 8m P
point X Ex.22. A directional post is established on a crossing. In an
5m
? accident, it was turned in such a way that the arrow
Q R which was first showing /! is now showing &. A
9m
passerby went in a wrong direction thinking it to be
11m ?. In which direction is he actually travelling now?
(1) &? (2) &! (3) /?
S (4) / ! (5) None of these
T 20m
Sol.(4)
Sol.18.(3) Sol.19.(1) Sol.20.(2) N
Ex.21-22. Study the following questions carefully and S SW W
NW NE
answer the questions given below.
W E SE NW
In a certain code language,
! means East SW SE E NE N
? means West S
& means North Here we can say that the person is walking in the
/ means South South-East i.e. /! Direction.

REASONING ABILITY 43
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exercise
Q.1. Rohit starts travelling toward North after going 20m. and cover 5 meter. If at that time his shadow was
Then he takes a right turn and goes 30m then he takes towards his right then in which direction he started
a right turn again and goes 45m. then he takes a left his journey?
turn and goes 20m. finally he takes a left turn and (1) North-East (2) North (3) South
goes 15m. In which direction is he from the starting
point? (4) East (5) None of these
(1) South-East (2) North-East Q.8. In evening Amit covers 10 meters then turns in his
left and covers 5 meters again he turns right and
(3) North-West (4) South covers 3 meters and again he turns right and covers
(5) North 5 meter finally he turns left and cover 3 m. At this
Q.2. Mr. Kamal goes 17 km. in east then he takes a right time his shadow in his right then in which direction
turn and goes 52 km. then he takes a left. turn and he started his journey?
goes 7 km. again he takes a left turn and goes 21 km. (1) North (2) South (3) East
finally he takes a left turn and goes 24 km. How far (4) West (5) None of these
and in which direction is he from the starting point?
Q.9-11. Each of the following questions is based on the
(1) 31 km/South (2) 32 km/East following informations.
(3) 20 km/West (4) 7 km/East (1) Six flats P, Q, R, S, T and X are arranged in two
(5) None of these parallel rows of 3 each, such than one row is facing
Q.3. Neha start travelling from her office initially she north and another row is facing south.
goes 20m. then she takes a left turn and goes 30m. (2) Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
again she takes a left turn and goes 40m. finally she (3) S and X get diagonally opposite flats.
takes a turn towards East and goes 10m. In which
direction is she from the starting point? (4) R is just right to X, gets a South facing flat and
T gets North facing flat
(1) North (2) East
Q.9. If the flats of P and T are interchanged then whose
(3) South (4) Can’t be determined flat will be next to that of X?
(5) None of these (1) P (2) Q (3) R
Q.4. One morning Amit and Sumit were talking to each (4) T (5) None of these
other face to face. Amit shadow was exactly to the
Q.10. Which of the following combinations get South
right of Sumit. In which direction Sumit was facing?
facing flat?
(1) South (2) North (3) East
(1) QTS (2) XPT
(4) North-East (5) Can’t be determined
(3) XRP (4) Data inadequate
Q.5. A man is facing west direction. He turns 1800 in
(5) None of these
anticlockwise direction and another 450 in same
direction and finally he moves in clockwise direction Q.11. Which flat is diagonally opposite to each other, other
and moves 2700. Now which direction is he facing than flat S and X?
now? (1) QP (2) QR (3) PT
(1) South-West (2) North-West (3) South (4) TS (5) None of these
(4) North (5) None of these Q.12. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes
Q.6. One evening Manoj and Amit were talking to each West and so on. What will West become?
other face to face. If Amit’s shadow was exactly to (1) South-East (2) North-East (3) North-West
the right of Amit. In which direction was Manoj (4) South (5) None of these
facing?
Q.13-14. Study the following information carefully and
(1) North (2) South (3) East answer the questions given below -
(4) West (5) None of these Two persons ‘X’ and ‘Y’ walk together in the
Q.7. In morning Roshan cover 20 meters then he turns to morning. Both start to walk 5 km towards north
his right and covers 20 meters. Again he turns right direction. Then ‘X’ turns to his left and walks 5 km
44 REASONING ABILITY
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and ‘Y’ turns to his right and walks 2 km. After that A boy starts to walk 3 km. towards South then he turns
both persons walks 5 km towards north direction. to his left and walks 4 km. Again he turns to South and
Again ‘Y’ turns to his left and walks 5 km then turns walks 6 km. then he turns to North-East and walks 6
to his right and walks 5 km. and finally he turns to km. Finally he turns to North and walks 12 km.
his right and walks 5 km. Q.19. What is the distance between second turn and starting
Q.13. The distance covered by ‘X’ and ‘Y’, who walked point?
less distance and how much? (1) 9 km. (2) 7 km. (3) 5 km.
(1) Y, 13 Km (2) X, 16 Km (3) X, 12 Km
(4) 12 km. (5) None of these
(4) Y, 12 Km (5) None of these
Q.20. In which direction is starting point from the ending
Q.14. What is the direction of the last point of ‘X’ with point?
respect to the end point of ‘Y’?
(1) South-East (2) South (3) West
(1) West (2) South (3) East
(4) South-West (5) None of these
(4) South-West (5) None of these
Q.21-22. Study the following information carefully and
Q.15-16. Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
answer the questions given below:
Home Y is 15 km towards South of Home X.
If a person moves 5 km north and reach the point P,
moves 7km right and reaches the point Q than take Home X is 5 km towards East of Home G.
three right turns and moves 8 km, 2 km and 10 km Home G is 7 km towards West of Home F.
respectively after that they take two left turns and Home F is 5km towards North of Home K.
moves 9 km and 4 km respectively.
Q.21. How far the Home F from the Home Y?
Q.15. Starting point in which direction from end point?
(1) 15 km (approx.) (2) 5 km (approx.)
(1) North (2) North-West (3) North-East
(3) 11 km (approx.) (4) 4 km (approx.)
(4) South-East (5) None of these
(5) 10 km (approx.)
Q.16. Find the distance between starting and end point?
Q.22. What is the direction of the Home G with respect to
(1) 12 km (2) 15 km Home Y?
(3) 18 km (4) Cannot be determined (1) North-east (2) South (3) South-west
(5) None of these (4) North-west (5) South-east
Q.17-18. Study the following information carefully and Q.23-25. Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below- answer the questions given below:
Point D is 14 m towards the West of point A. There are three persons X, Y and Z standing in a row
Point B is 4 m towards the South of point D. at a gap of 4 m from each other in the same order.
Point F is 9 m towards the South of point D. There is a shop named E exactly in south of Y at 9 m.
X and Z walk 8 m south while Y walks 3 m towards
Point E is 7 m towards the East of point B. south.  X and Z turn 135 degree anticlockwise and
Point C is 4 m towards the North of point E. clockwise respectively to meet Y.
Point G is 4 m towards the South of point A.  Q.23. What is the direction of X from starting point to the
final point?
Q.17. A is in which direction with respect to C?
(1) North-east (2) North-west
(1) East (2) West (3) North
(3) South-west (4) South-east
(4) South (5) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Q.18. Which of the following points are in a straight line?
Q.24. What is the total distance covered by Z to meet Y?
(1) D,E,A (2) E,G,C (3) D,B,G
(1) 8+√41 m (2) √41 m (3) 3 m
(4) E,G,B (5) F,B,C
(4) 11 m (5) None of these
Q.19-20. Study the following information carefully and
answers the questions given below: Q.25. What is the angle between X’s final point and Y’s
initial point?
REASONING ABILITY 45
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(1) 45 degree (2) 90 degree M+N means N is to the left of M at a distance of two
(3) 135 degree (4) Can’t be determined meters.

(5) None of these M%N means N is to the South of M at a distance of

two meters.
Q.26-29. Each of the following questions is based on the
Q.30. If P%Q+R*S then S is in which direction with respect
following information.
to P?
(1) A # B means B is at 1 meter to right of A.
(1) South-east (2) East (3) North
(2) A $ B means B is at 1 meter to the North of A.
(4) West (5) None of these
(3) A * B means, B is at 1 meter to the left of A.
Q.31. If X?R%Y?Z then Z is in which direction to R? (if
(4) A @ B means, B is at 1 meter to the South of A. X facing North direction)
(5) In each question first person from the left end is (1) North (2) West (3) South-east
facing North direction and next person is facing to
(4) South-west (5) None of these
the direction which they are coming from.
Q.32. If T * U + V * W, then V is in which direction with
Q.26. According to X@B*P, P is in which direction with respect to T?
respect to X?
(1) North (2) South (3) East
(1) North (2) South (3) North-East
(4) North-east (5) None of these
(4) South-West (5) None of these
Q.33-35. In the following question, some symbols are used
Q.27. According to M#N$T, T is in which direction with with the following meaning as illustrated below.
respect to M?
(A) L + O means L is 4 meters right from O.
(1) North-West (2) North-East (3) South-West
(4) South-East (5) None of these (B) L / O means L is 5 meters north of O.
(C) L * O means O is 6 meters left from L.
Q.28. According to P#R$A*U, U in which direction with
respect to P? (D) L > O means L is 4 meters south of O.
(1) East (2) West (3) North (E) L # O means L is 4 meters right to O.
(4) South (5) None of these Q.33. A / J + M * S # V, What is the position of V with
respect to A?
Q.29. Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If
P is in the South of Z then in which direction of Y (1) South-West (2) North-East (3) North
from P ? (4) West (5) None of these
(1) North (2) South (3) South-East Q.34. A > B * D / C, what is the distance from A to D?
(4) East (5) North-East (1) 10 m (2) 16 m (3) 52 m
Q.30-32. Read the following information carefully and (4) √52 m (5) None of these
answer the questions given below it:
Q.35. Z / A # M * P / S, what is the distance from Z to P?
M?N means N is to the right of M at a distance of
(1) 5√5 m (2) 15 m (3) 52 m
two meters.
(4) √52 m (5) None of these
M*N means N is to the North of M at a distance of
two meters.

46 REASONING ABILITY
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EXPLANATION
Q.1.(1) South/East ‘X’ walked 12 km less than ‘Y’
Q.2.(1) 31 km/South Q.13.(3)
Q.3.(4) Can’t be determined due to initial direction not Q.14.(4) South -West
given. Q.15-16.
Q.4.(1) South 9 km.

Q.5.(2) North-West
4 km. 7 km.
P Q
Q.6.(2) South

5 km.

10 km.
N ?

8 km.
3 km.
4 km.
W E Manoj
2 km.
Amit Shadow of Amit
Q.15.(4) Q.16.(5)
S Q.17-18.
Q.7.(2) North 14 m.
D C A
Q.8.(1) North
4 m. 4 m. 4 m.
5 m. 3 m. B
Shadow 7 m. E G
3 m. evening
every 5 m.
5 m.

10 m. F

Q.17.(1) Q.18.(4)

Q.19-20.
Q.9-11.
End Point
P R X

S T Q 12 km.
Q.9.(3) R Starting Point
Q.10.(3) XRP 3 km.
Q.11.(1) QP
4 km.
Q.12.(1) South-East
.
km

6 km.
Q.13-14.
6

5 km.
F G

5 km.
D CA2 = AB2 + BC2
E 5 km.
5 km. 5 km.
B B
CA = 32 + 42
C 5 km. C
5 km. CA = 9 +16
CA = 25
A A CA = 5km.
(X) (Y)

Q.19.(3) Q.20.(4)
Distance covered by ‘X’ = 5 + 5 + 5 = 15 km. 
Distance covered by ‘Y’ = 5 + 2 + 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 = 27 km.  Q.21-22.
27 - 15 =12 km.

REASONING ABILITY 47
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7 km. P%Q+R*S
Home X P S
Home G Home F
5 km. 2
2
5 km.
Q R
Home K 2
15 km.
Q.31.(4) X ? R % Y ? Z
2
Home Y X R
2
Q.21.(1) Q.22.(4)
2
Q.23-25. Z Y
X 4m Y 4m Z
Q.32.(5) T * U + V * W
3m
8m 8m V

6m
North-West
Q.33.(1)
E
A
Q.23.(2) Q.24.(1)
5m
Q.25.(5) 1800
Q.26.(5) South-East 4m 6m 4m
X V S M J

Q.34.(4)
D 6m B
1m

4m
5m
B 1m P
Q.27.(2) A
C
(DA)2 = (DB)2 + (BA)2

= 62 + 42

= 36 + 16

= 52
Q.28.(3) North
1m. DA = 52 m
U A
Q.35.(1)
North Z

P 1m. R 5m
M
Q.29.(5) P
6m 4m A
X Y
5m
B
S
P (PZ)2 = (PA)2 + (ZA)2 = (6+4)2 + 52 = 100+25
Q.30.(2) = 125, PZ = 5 5 m

48 REASONING ABILITY
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CHAPTER

5 Order & ranking

In this chapter generally, the rank of a person from both

Type of order and Ranking
sides left or right or from the top and from the bottom
are mentioned and total numbers of persons are asked. (a) Finding the rank of a person from one side :
Sometimes the questions are based on their interchanged Value required to find the rank of a person.
positions/weight/height/amount etc. Required Information
What is order? (1) Total number
Order is known as a sequence. For example left, right, top, (2) Rank of same person from another side.
bottom, ascending and descending. Formula,
What is Rank? Rank from left/right = Total No. of Person - Rank
Rank is known as a position in the given sequence. from right/left +1.
Type of Rank? EXAMPLES
There are two types of Rank : Ex.1. In a row of 27 students, X is 14th from right end.
(1) Base Rank : When rank of object is given from any end. Then find the Rank of X from left end?
For example - A is from left end. (1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 14
(4) 15 (5) 16
Base rank Sol.(3) Given : Total no. of students = 27
Kindly understand through a chart Rank of X from right end = 14
Here is a table. To find : Rank of X from left end = ?
Formula is, Rank of X from left = Total number of
Name Rank from Rank from
left right students -
?
Aman 5 1
Rank of X from right + 1 x
Babita 4 2 14
Chetan 3 3 27
Rank of X from left = (27+1)-14 = 14
Dimple 2 4 Hence, Rank of X from left = 14th
Ema 1 5 Ex.2. In a row of 40 students, A is 5th to the right of B,
Let discuss ‘Ema’ who is 18th from the right end. Then find the rank
Ema’s rank from left = 1 and from right = 5 of A from left end?
Now total member in the row = 5 (1) 28 (2) 26 (3) 29
Means total rank = (rank from left + rank from right) – 1 (4) 25 (5) 35
= (1+ 5) – 1 = 5 Sol.(1) Given : Total no. of boys = 40
Rank from left = total rank – (rank from right -1) Rank of B from right end = 18
= 5 – (5-1) = 1 And, Rank of A is 5th to the right of B
Rank from right = total rank – (rank from left – 1) To find ; Rank of A from left end = ?
= 5 – (1-1) = 5 Formula to find rank of a person is
(2) Reference Rank: When rank of one object with reference Rank of B from left end = Total number of boys-
to another object is given. Rank of B from right end + 1
For example - A is to the right of B. Rank of B from left end = 40 - 18 + 1 = 23
But we have to find the rank of A from left end.
Reference rank Hence, Rank of A from left end = Rank of B from

REASONING ABILITY 49
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left end + 5 23 + 5 To find : Total no. = ?
28 Formula:
Total no. = A’s rank from left end + A’s rank
from right end - 1
Total no. = 17 + 25 - 1
A 7th + B18th
Ex.3. In a row, X is 8th to the left of B, who is 15th from 41
17th
right end. Then find the rank of X from left end? (c) To finding the Mid Number :
(1) 28 (2) 26 (3) 29 Values required to find the mid number.
(4) 25 (5) Cannot be determined (1) Rank of one person from one end.
Sol.(5) Given : Rank of X from right (2) Rank of another person from another end.
= Rank of B from right + 8 (3) Total number
i.e. Rank of X from right = 15 + 8 = 23 (i) Formula to find Mid Number (Simple Case):
To find : Rank of X from left end = ? Note: Simple Case : When total number is more than
Formula: the addition of rank from both the end. Then such
Rank of X from left end = Total no. Rank of X question is based as Mid number (Simple Case).
from right end + 1 Formula:
But, in this question total no. is not given. Mid No. (Simple Case)
Hence, we can’t find the rank of X from left end. = Total No. – (Rank of one person from one end
So Answer is cannot be determined. + Rank of another person from another end).
(b) To Finding the total number in a sequence/order. Ex.6. In a row of 51 girls, A is 15th from right end and B
Values required to find the total number: is 17th from left end. Then find how many girls are
(1) Rank of a person from one side. in between A and B?
(2) Rank of same person from another side. (1) 19 (2) 22 (3) 25
Formula to find total number is: (4) 23 (5) 30
Total number = Rank of a person from left+Rank Sol.(1) Given - Rank of A from right = 15
of a person from right -1 Rank of B from left = 17
Ex.4. In a row, X is 17th from left end and 19th from right Total number of girls = 51
end. Then find the total number of students in the To Find : How many girls are in between A & B?
given row? Here, Total Number > Rank from Right + Rank
(1) 28 (2) 35 (3) 29 from left. Therefore it is a simple case Mid Number
(4) 25 (5) 30 Question.
Sol.(2) Given : Rank of X from left = 17 Formula:
Rank of X from right = 19 Mid no. = Total no. - (Rank of A from Right+Rank
of B from left)
To find : Total number = ?
Mid number = 51 - (15 + 17)
Formula:
51 - 32
Total number = Rank of X from left + Rank of
X from right - 1 19
Total number = 17 +19 - 1
th th

= 35
Ex.5. In a row, A is 7th to the left of B, who is 18th from (ii) Formula to Find Mid Number (Overlap Case) :
right end. And A is 17th from left end. Then find the Note : Overlap Case : When Total Number is less
total number of students/person sitting in a row? than the addition of rank from both the end. Then
(1) 28 (2) 35 (3) 29 such question is based on Mid number (Overlap
(4) 41 (5) 30 Case).
Sol.(4) Given : A’s rank from left end = 17th Formula:
A’s rank from right end = 18 + 7 25th Mid No. (overlap Case) = (Rank of one person
50 REASONING ABILITY
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from one end + Rank of another person from Minimum total number of persons:
another end) - (Total Number+2) Mid No. (Overlap Case) = (Rank of X from left end
Ex.7. In a row of 27 boys, X is 17th from left end and Y + Rank of y from right end) - (Total No.+2)
is 13th from right end. Then find how many boys Total No. = (Rank of X from left end + Rank of y
are in between X and Y? from right end) - (Mid No. +2)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 then, Total No = (17 + 11) - (4 + 2)
(4) 4 (5) 5 28 - 6 22
Sol.(1) Given : Total Number = 27
Rank of X from left end = 17
Rank of Y from right end = 13

To find : How many boys are in between X and Y.
(d) To Finding the Exact Mid :
Formula:
Required information :
Mid No. = (Rank of X from left end + Rank of
(1) Total Number
Y from right end) - (Total No. + 2)
(2) Rank of one person from one end.
Mid No. = (17 + 13) - (27 + 2)
(3) Rank of another person from another end.
30 - 29 = 1
(4) Mid Number
Formula to find exact Mid:
Mid number + 1
Exact Mid =
2
(iii) To Find total Number with Mid Number: Ex.9. In a row of 47 women, A is 12th from right end
Value required to find total number. and B is 12th from left end. C is sitting exactly
(1) Rank of one person from one end. between A and B. Then, what is the rank of C from
left end?
(2) Rank of another person from another end.
(1) 22 (2) 32 (3) 24
(3) Mid Number
(4) 31 (5) Either (1) or (2)
Note : Both Mid number (Simple Case) and Mid number
(overlap case) formula is required to find total Sol.(3) Given : Rank of A from right end = 12
number. By using Mid Number (Simple Case) Rank of B from left end = 12
formula, we will get maximum total number and Total Number = 47
by using Mid Number (overlap case). Formula we Then Mid no = Total No. - (Rank of A from right
will get minimum total number. end + Rank of B from left end)
Ex.8. In a row, X is 17th from left end and Y is 11th from = 47 - 24 = 23
right end and there are 4 people are sitting in To find : Rank of C from left end = ?
between X and Y. Then find total number of person
Mid no + 1
in a row? Exact Mid =
2
(1) 22 (2) 32 (3) 23
(4) 31 (5) Either (1) or (2) 12
Sol.(5) Given : Mid No. 4 Rank of C from left end = Rank of B from left end
Rank of X from left end = 17 + Exact Mid
Rank of Y from right end = 11 12 + 12 24
To find : Total Number = ?
Maximum total number of persons:
Mid no. (Simple Case) = Total No - (Rank of X
from left end + Rank of y from right end) Ex.10. In a row of 31 men, A is 17th from left end and B is
Total No = Mid No + Rank of X from left end + 19th from right end. C is sitting exactly in between
Rank of y from right end. A and B. Then, what is the rank of C from right
Then, Total No = 4 + 17 + 11 = 32 end?
x y (1) 17 (2) 18 (3) 19
17th 4 11th
(4) 20 (5) Either (1) or (2)

REASONING ABILITY 51
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Sol.(1) Given : Rank of A from left end = 17 (1) 14 (2) 22 (3) 28
Rank of B from right end = 19 (4) 18 (5) None of these
Total Number of men = 31 Sol.(2)
Formula:
Then Mid No. = (Rank of A from left end + Rank
of B from right end) - (Total No. + 2)
(17 + 19) - (31 + 2)

36 - 33 3
Total students = 40
To find : Rank of C from right end = ?
Left + Right = 28 + 25 = 53
Mid number + 1 Left + Right > Total Students
Exact Mid =
2 Therefore, there is an overlapping case.
3 +1 4
⇒ ⇒ 2 (left + right) – total students – 2
2 2
Rank of C from right end = Rank of B from right = 53 – 40 – 2 = 53 – 42 = 11
end - Exact Mid
There are 11 students in between Mahesh and Suresh.
19 - 2 17
There are 27 students to the left of Mahesh.
Hence, Danish’s position from the left end = 22
Ex.13. Jai is 25th from the left end and Vijay is 24th from
the right end. When they interchange their positions
Note: If Mid number is in Even, then we cannot determine respectively then Vijay becomes 31st from the right
exact Mid. end. What will be Jai’s position from the left after
(e) Based on Interchange of Rank interchanging?
Ex.11. In a row Gaurav is twenty first from left end and (1) 25 (2) 26 (3) 27
Ashish is twenty fourth from right end. When they (4) 28 (5) None of these
interchange their position respectively, then Ashish Sol.(5)
becomes thirty-first from right end. Then what will
be Gaurav’s position from left after interchanging?
(1) 27 (2) 28 (3) 29
(4) 30 (5) Either (1) or (2)
Sol.(2)

Formula: Jai’s position from the left after interchanging = 25
Total No = Rank of Ashish from left end after + 6 + 1 = 32
interchange + Rank of Ashish from right end (f) Ascending/Descending Order according to age, height,
after interchange - 1. marks etc.
Then Total No. = 21 + 31 - 1 = 51 Ex.14-15. Study the following information carefully and
Gaurav rank from left after interchange answer the questions given below.
= Total No. - Rank of gaurav from right after Among Nikhil, Moon, Kapil, Jagdish and Gulshan
interchange + 1 each has secured different marks in a subject, Moon
secured more marks than only Kapil. Gulshan and
Then, Rank of Gaurav from left end after
Jagdish have secured fewer marks than only Nikhil.
interchange
Ex.14. Who among them has secured third least marks?
51 - 24 + 1 28
(1) Nikhil
Ex.12. In the row of 40 students, Mahesh is 28th from the
left end and Suresh is 25th from the right end. If (2) Jagdish
Danish is sitting exactly in between them, what will (3) Moon
be Danish’s position from the left? (4) Cannot be determined
52 REASONING ABILITY
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(5) Kapil (5) Undertaker
Sol.(4) Nikhil > Gulshan / Jagdish > Moon > Kapil Sol.(5) Ray Mysterio (200) > Edge > Hulk / John Cena >
Third least marks = Either Gulshan or Jagdish Hulk / John Cena > Brock > Undertaker (105)
Ex.15. If Nikhil secured 80 marks and Jagdish has secured Ex.19. Study the given information carefully and
65 marks then what is the possibility of Gulshan’s answer the given questions.
marks? 8 Boys- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W; each has different
(1) 78 number of toffees.
(2) 63 P have more toffees than Q. R have less toffees than
(3) 60 Q. W have more toffees than only V. R has more
toffees than V. S have less toffees than Only T. U
(4) Cannot be determined
have more toffees than R but less toffees than Q.
(5) 79 U have 50 toffees.
Sol.(4) Nikhil > Gulshan / Jagdish > Moon > Kapil How many boys less toffees than S?
Ex.16. Among Zojo, Yo, Xe, William and Vicky each has (1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 5
scored different marks in a test. Xe has scored more
(4) 4 (5) None of these
than William but not as much as Vicky. Vicky has
scored more than Zojo, who has scored less than Sol.(2) T > S > P > Q > U > R > W > V
Yo. Who did score second highest marks? 50
(1) Yo (2) Zojo Ex.20-21. Study the following information carefully to
(3) Xe (4) Data inadequate answer the questions given below:
(5) William Among the eight family members P, Q, R, S, T, U,
V and W each have different ages.
Sol.(4) Vicky/Yo > Zojo / Xe > William
Q is older than only three persons. Only one person
Ex.17. Zombo, correctly remembers that his father’s
is younger than S. P and V is the parent of R, Q and
birthday is before 29th July but after 24th July
S. W is father of U who is the elder brother of P. T is
whereas his younger brother correctly remembers
the husband of S. Husband is older than their wife’s.
that their father’s birthday is after 23rd July but
before 28th July and his elder brother correctly Ex.20. Who is the younger person of the family?
remembers that their father’s birthday is on an (1) T (2) V (3) P
odd date. On which date of July is their father’s (4) R (5) Cannot be determined
birthday? Sol.(4) W > U > V/P > V/P > Q > T > S > R
(1) Twenty-five or Twenty-seven Ex.21. If the age of Q is 32 who is 15 years younger than
(2) Twenty-seven second oldest person, then what is the possible age
(3) Twenty-five of W?
(4) Cannot be determined (1) 44 (2) 43 (3) 46
(5) None of these (4) 57 (5) 47
Sol.(1) Sol.(4) W > U > V/P > V/P > Q > T > S > R
Zombo = 25 26 27 28 Ex.22. Amongst five friends, Q, P, Z, F and G each got
Younger brother = 24 25 26 27 different marks in the examination. Q scored more
Elder brother = Odd dates 25 or 27 than P but less than Z. Z scored 69 marks. F scored
Ex.18. Study the information carefully and answer the less marks than only G. The one who scored the
questions given below: minimum marks scored 62 marks and the one who
John Cena, Undertaker, Hulk, Edge, Ray Mysterio scored the highest, scored 81 marks. Who scored
and Brock, each have different weights. Brock the second highest marks?
weight is more than Undertaker but less than Hulk. (1) Q (2) P (3) Z
Edge weight less than only Ray Mysterio. The least (4) F (5) G
weight is 105 kg and the highest weight is 200 kg. Sol.(4)
John Cena’s weight is more than Brock. G>F>Z>Q>P
Who among them is the lowest weight?
(1) Ray Mysterio (2) John Cena
81 69 62
(3) Edge (4) Brock

REASONING ABILITY 53
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exercise
Q.1. In a row of 48 students Rohan is 26 from right end th
(1) 35 (2) 28
and Sohan is 12th from left end. How many students (3) 60 (4) Can’t be determined
are between them?
(5) None of these
(1) 11 (2) 10 (3)12
Q.9. Geeta is taller than Seeta but not shorter than Radha.
(4) 15 (5) None of these Radha and Rani are of the same height. Geeta is
Q.2. Shalu is 5th to the right of Nilima who is 24th from shorter than Paru. Amongst all the girls, who is the
right end. Shivi is 8th to the left of Shalu and is 21st tallest?
from left end. Then how many students are there in (1) Geeta (2) Seeta (3) Radha and Rani
the row?
(4) Paru (5) None of these
(1) 40 (2) 42 (3) 47
Q.10. Abhinav is 16 from the left end in the row of boys
th
(4) 45 (5) None of these and Vinay is 18th from the right end. Avinash is 11th
Q.3. Raheem is 11th to the left of Shan who is 28th from from Abhinav towards the right end and 3rd from
the left end of a row of 40 students. Then what will Vinay towards the left end. How many boys are there
be Raheem’s position from right? in the row?
(1) 22 (2) 23 (3) 26 (1) 48 (2) 47
(4) 25 (5) 24 (3) 40 (4) Data inadequate
Q.4. In a row of 30 students, Sudha is 14th from left and (5) None of these
Madhu is 23rd from right. If Shweta is sitting exactly Q.11. Karuna is sitting 25th from the left end and Preeti is
between them what will be Shweta’s position from sitting 26th from the right end. Preeti is at 20th to the
left? left of Karuna. What is the total number of students
(1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 9 sitting in the row?
(4) 12 (5) 15 (1) 28 (2) 30 (3) 21
Q.5. A is 12th from left and B is 13th from right. When (4) 32 (5) 26
they interchange their position respectively, then Q.12. Rita is sitting 5 from the left end of row and Sita
th
A becomes 19th from left. Then what will be B’s is 11th to right of Rita and Tina is 4th to left of Sita.
position from right after interchange? Madhuri is 8th to right of Tina. What is the total
(1) 20 (2) 21 (3) 15 number of students in the row if Madhuri is sitting
(4) 19 (5) Cannot be determined at the extreme end?
(1) 12 (2) 20 (3) 28
Q.6. In a row of boys, If A who is 10th from the left and B
who is 9th from the right interchange their positions, (4) 23 (5) 33
A becomes 15th from the left. How many boys are Q.13. Garima interchanges her position with the one who
there in the row? is 3 places away from Garima. Now Chinu is 5th to
(1) 23 (2) 31 (3) 27 right of Garima and is 3rd from the right of the row.
What is the position of Garima from the right end of
(4) 28 (5) None of these
row?
Q.7. Ranjan is sixteenth from the left end and Vineet is
(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 10
tenth from the right end in a row of boys. If there are
eight boys between Ranjan and Vineet, how many (4) 7 (5) Data inadequate
boys are there in the row? Q.14. In a class of 90 students, numbers of boys are twice
(1) 34 (2) 26 (3) 16 the number of girls. Rani is 58th from the left end and
there are 20 boys to the right of Rani, then find the
(4) 25 (5) Either 16 or 34
number of girls to the left of Rani? (if Rani is a girl)
Q.8. In a class of 180, where girls are twice the number (1) 15 (2) 16 (3) 17
of boys, Ramesh is ranked 134th from the top. If
(4) 19 (5) None of these
there are 18 girls after of Ramesh, how many boys
are after him in rank? Q.15. In a row of 50 students. A is fourteenth from the left end
and B is tenth from the right end. How many students
54 REASONING ABILITY
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are there in between A and C if C is eight to the left of B? (4)15 (5) None of these
(1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 18 Q.22. How many boys are there in the class?
(4) 20 (5) None of these (1) 22 (2) 23 (3) 24
Q.16. In a row of 25 girls, when Neha was shifted by four (4) 25 (5) 26
places towards the left, she becomes 10th from the
left end. What was her earlier position from the right Q.23. How many boys are between Radha and Rohan?
end of the row? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5
(1) 10 th
(2) 11 th
(3) 12 th
(4) 3 (5) 6
(4) 13 th
(5) None of these Q.24. What is the ratio of boys and girls in the class?
Q.17. There are 104 students in the row. A is 28th from the (1) 11:9 (2) 12:11 (3) 11:13
left side and B is 38th from the right side. If C is 7th
(4) 9:11 (5) None of these
to right of the middle of the A & B then find out the
C’s rank from the right side? Q.25-27. Pankaj is 28 from the left end and Suresh is 24th
th

from right end. If four students are sitting between

(1) 35 (2) 31 Pankaj and exactly mid of Pankaj & Suresh of the
(3) 36 (4) Can’t be determined row. Hemanshu is 22th to the right of exactly middle
of the row.
(5) None of these
Q.25. Find out the total number of students in row?
Q.18. If Z is 19th to the right of Y and Y is 7th to the left of
(1) 41 (2) 60
X. X is 25th from any one of the end and there are
four students to the right of Z then find out the total (3) 61 (4) Cannot be determine
number of students of the row? (5) None of these
(1) 35 (2) 41 Q.26. Find out the Hemanshu rank from the right side of
(3) 36 (4) Can’t be determined the row?
(5) None of these (1) 53 (2) 10 (3) 9
Q.19. In a row of Bank ATM queue Sumit is 18th from the (4) 11 (5) None of these
front of the queue and Lalit is 23rd from the back Q.27. How many students between Hemanshu and Suresh?
side of the queue. What will be the total number of
candidates in that queue if there are eight candidates (1) 13 (2) 25 (3) 14
in that queue between Sumit and the one who is (4) 16 (5) None of these
exactly middle of Sumit & Lalit?
Q.28-30. Mohan is 35 from top and Geeta is 21st from the
th

(1) 35 (2) 41 top among students. Mohan is 14th the top and 12th
(3) 36 (4) Can’t be determined from the bottom among boys. Geeta is 18th from the
top among Girls.
(5) None of these
Q.28. What could be the total min. number of students?
Q.20. Ramesh is 26th from left end and Mohan is 17th from
the right end and there are 14 students between them. (1) 57 (2) 43
Find the total numbers? (3) 46 (4) Can’t be determined
(1) 57 (2) 56 (5) None of these
(3) 27 (4) Can’t be determined Q.29. Find the number of boys and girls between Geeta
and Mohan respectively?
(5) None of these
(1) 3,10 (2) 10,4
Q.21-24. In a class of students, Rohan is 13th from top and
Radha is 6th from top. And also Radha is 3rd from (3) 10,3 (4) Can’t be determined
top among girls and Rohan is 7th from top and 16th (5) None of these
from bottom among boys. Rohan is 28th from bottom.
Q.30. If there are six girl students below Mohan than find
Q.21. How many girls are there in the class? out the total number of students ?
(1)16 (2) 18 (3) 19 (1) 51 (2) 52

REASONING ABILITY 55
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(3) 41 (4) Can’t be determined (1) R, L (2) Q, J (3) L, O
(5) None of these (4) J, K (5) J, L
Q.31-35. Study the following information carefully and Q.32. Who is sitting sixth from the left end of the row?
answer the questions given below: (1) S (2) Q (3) R
Some people are sitting in a straight line facing (4) N (5) P
towards south.  Only six people are sitting between
M and K. Q is seventh to the right of J. O is not Q.33. How many people are sitting in that row?
an immediate neighbour of K and N. L is sitting (1) 43 (2) 24 (3) 15
one of the extreme ends and is eight to the right of
(4) 21 (5) Cannot be determined
N. Only three people are sitting between N and P,
in which one of them is K. K is not an immediate Q.34. How many persons are sitting between R and N?
neighbour of N and P. R and S are an immediate (1) 8 (2) 5 (3) 7
neighbour of each other and sitting between J
(4) 3 (5) 6
and Q. R is fifth from the left end of the line and
is fourth to the left of P. Q is not an immediate Q.35. If O is sitting exactly between N and L, then who is
neighbour of K. O is right of M but not immediate sitting eight to the left of O?
and second. O is not an immediate neighbour of (1) Q (2) S (3) R
Q.
(4) None (5) P
Q.31. Who is sitting extreme ends of the row?
EXPLANATION
Q.1.(2) Shweta will be 11th from left end.
48 Q.5.(1)
12 26
12 13
10
S R
A 6 B
T = Left + Right + M, 48 = 12+26+M 19
M = 48–38 = 10 ?=20
Q.2.(3) Q.6.(1)
21 24
10 9
N
Shivi Shalu A 4 B
A
T = 21+24+2 = 47 15

Q.3.(5)
T= 10+4+9 = 23
28
Q.7.(5)
16 8 10
R S
? R V

T = (L + R) – (M + 2) Without overlapping ⇒ T+16+8+10=34

40 = (28+R) – (10+2) With overlapping.

16
40+12–28=R, 52–28=R, 24 = R
8
Q.4.(1) T = (L+R) – (M+2), 30 = (23+14) – (M+2) V R
(M+2) = 37 – 30, M = 7–2, M = 5 10
14 T = (16+10)–(8+2) = 26–10 = 16
Su So, either 16 or 34.
7 2 2
M SH
Q.8.(2)
23
?
56 REASONING ABILITY
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180–134 = 57
Total = 46 after Ramesh
Ramesh (134) Boys afte Ramesh Number of girls to the left of Rani
18G 46 students 46–18 = 57 - 40 ( Number of boys to the left of Rani)
= 38
= 17 girls.
Boys after Ramesh Q.15.(3) Total = 50
= 46–18=28 A C B
th th
Q.9.(4) Case I. Paru > Geeta > Seeta > Radha/Rani 14 10

th
8
Case II.Paru > Geeta > Geeta > Radha/Rani >
Seeta The person between AC = 50 - (14+8+10)
Q.10.(2) =50 - 32
18 =18
16 10 Q.16.(3) Total = 25
2 Neha
Abhinav Avinash Vinay
4th
T = 16+18+10+2+1 ⇒ 47
Q.11.(2) 10th
Preeti Karuna Neha’s earlier position from right end
= 25 + 1 - ( 10 + 4)
20th
25th = 26 -14
th
26 = 12
Total = 25 + 26 - 20 - 1 Q.17.(4) Can’t be determined due to not mention C is exactly
= 30 middle of A & B.
Q.12.(2) Q.18.(2)
Rita Tina Sita Madhavi Y X Z th
4
5th 7th
th
11th
4 19th
th
8
25th
Total = 5 + 11 + 8 - 4
Total = 25 - 7 + 19 + 4
= 20
=41
Q.19.(5)
Q.13.(5) G C Total =8
Sumit 8 8 Lalit
Front th
C 18 23th
G
Total number of candidate = 18 + 23 + 17 = 58
Total = 11
Q.20.(4) Can’t be determine (57/27)
Q.14.(3) Total = 90 students
Ramesh 14 Mohan
Boys = 60 th th
26 17
Girls = 30
Total = 26 + 14 + 17 = 57
Rani
Mohan 14 Ramesh
50th
17th 26
th

Girls = ? Only 20 boys

Total = 17 + (26 - 14 - 2)
Number of person who are sitting to the left of Rani = 17 + 10
REASONING ABILITY 57
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= 27 = 24 - 8 = 16
Q.21-24. Q.28-30.
2 Girls Students Only Boys Only Girls

3 Boys 21
th
Geeta
Radha (6) 14th
35 th Mohan 18
th
Geeta
3 Boys Mohan 12th
6
3 Girls
Rohan (13)
15 Boys Total boys = 14 + 12 - 1 = 25
7 Only girls above the Geeta = 17
12 Girls Students above the Geeta = 20
Q.21.(2) Girls = 18 So the boys above the Geeta = 20 - 17 = 3
Q.22.(1) Boys = 22 Only boys above the Mohan = 13
Q.23.(4) 3 Boys Students between Mohan & Geeta = 35 - 21 - 1
Q.24.(1) 22 : 18 = 11 : 9 =13
Q.25-27. Boys between Mohan & Geeta = 13 - 3 = 10
Pankaj Suresh Hemanshu Girls between Mohan & Geeta = 13 - 10 = 3
th
4 4 th
Q.28.(4) Can’t be determined
th
20th 24
Q.29.(3)
22th
Q.30.(2) Total number of students
Q.25.(3) Total number of students
= 35 + 6 + 11 (Number of boys below Mohan)
= 28 + 24 + 9
= 52 (Number of girls below Mohan)
= 61
Q.31-35. All of them are facing south.
Q.26.(5) Hemanshu Rank from right end O
(24 + 4 + 1) - 22 Right End L N K P Q S R M J Left End

=7 Q.31.(5) Q.32.(1) Q.33.(4)

Q.27.(4) The person between Hemanshu and Suresh Q.34.(3) Q.35.(5)
= 24 - 7 - 1

NOTES

58 REASONING ABILITY
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CHAPTER
SITTING
6
ARRANGEMENT
The process of making a group of people sit as per a prefixed (c) Combination of inside and outside.
manner is called Sitting or Seating arrangement. 2. Linear seating arrangement-
Seating Arrangement Questions are one of the most important (a) One Row Sequence (North or South or Combination of
sets in the reasoning section of any Competitive Exams. north and south direction)
These questions are based on a set of information, which
(b) Two Row Sequence (North or South or Combination of
contains a definite collection of conditions, which also gives
north and south direction)
hidden information along with a set of questions (usually
5-6 questions). The candidate is required to decode the 3. Square or Rectangular seating arrangement-
information and arrange the objects either in a Table, Chart, (a) Facing towards the centre.
and Diagram in the form of a Row, Square, Circle or any such (b) Facing outside the centre.
shape which the question may ask for. Information available
in the questions are distorted and hidden in nature and tests (c) Combination of inside and outside.
candidates’ ability to analyze information and solve the same 4. Floor seating arrangement-
with the help of pictorial figures/ diagrams. (a) Based on one building (East or West or Combination of
The important point to solve the questions of seating east and west directions)
arrangement: (b) Based on two buildings (East or West or Combination
1. First of all, take a quick glance at the given information. of east and west directions)
After performing this step, you would get an idea of the 5. Polygonal (Triangle, Pentagon, Hexagon etc.) Seating
situation of people or objects. Arrangement -
2. Next, determine the usefulness of each information and (a) Facing towards the centre.
classify them accordingly into ‘definite information’,
(b) Facing outside the centre.
‘comparative information’ and ‘negative information’.
(c) Combination of inside and outside.
Definite information- When the place of any person or
object is definitely mentioned then we say that it is a definite 6. The seating arrangement of uncertain people.
information. Important Conjunctions
e.g., A is sitting on the right end of the bench. Here some Conjunction is also used instead of name of
Comparative information- When the place of any person candidate. In that case:
or object is not mentioned definitely but mentioned only in ## If AND/BUT is used then subject of the previous
the comparison of another person or object, then we say that sentence (name of first candidate) will be used.
it is comparative information.
## If WHO/WHOM/WHOSE is used then object of the
e.g., A is sitting second to the right of E. This type of information previous sentence (name of second candidate) will be used.
can be helpful when we get certain information about E.
## Left or right of any candidate can only be judged if it is
Negative information- A part of the definite information given that towards which direction he is facing means
may consist of negative information. Negative information you have to focus upon the candidate towards which
does not tell us anything definitive but it gives an idea to direction he is facing.
eliminate a possibility.
1. Circular seating arrangement-
e.g., C is not sitting to the immediate left of A.
In this type of arrangement, we arrange people or objects
TYPES OF SEATING ARRANGEMENT around a circle or a circular table.
1. Circular seating arrangement- Persons sitting around a circle or object arranged circularly
(a) Facing towards the centre. may face inside or outside the circle. Or maybe in a common
(b) Facing outside the centre. circle, some may face inside while some may face outside
the circle.
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We have to arrange the objects or persons around the Ex.3-4. Study the following information to answer the
circle according to the conditions given and solve the given questions :
question. P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated in a circle facing
(A) FACING CENTRE- opposite direction to the centre.
P is second to the right of S, who is third to the
left of U. R is third to the right of T and is not an
immediate neighbour of U.
Ex.3. What is the position of R with respect to Q?
(1) Second to the left (2) Third to the right
(3) Second to the right (4)Third to the left

(5) None of these
Right - ANTI-CLOCKWISE DIRECTION
Sol.(3) Second to the right
Left - CLOCKWISE DIRECTION
Ex.4. Who is third to the left of T?
EXAMPLE:
(1) P (2) R (3) S
Ex.1-2. Study the following information carefully to
answer the given questions : (4) T (5) None of these
A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in a circle facing Sol.(2) R
centre. A is second right of D who is third left of
F. C is third right of E and is not an immediate
neighbour of F.
Ex.1. What is the position of B with respect to C?
(1) second to the left (2) third to the right
(3) second to the right (4) third to the left
(5) None of these
Sol.(1) Second to the left (C) Combination of inside and outside
Ex.2. Who is third to the left of E?
(1) A (2) C (3) D
(4) E (5) None of these
F
E A

Ex.5-9. Study the following information carefully and

B C answer the questions given below.
D Eight persons – V, W, T, S, R, Q, P and O- are sitting
Sol.(2) C around a circle at equidistance but not necessarily
(B) FACING OUTSIDE- in the same order. Some of them are facing towards
the centre while some others are facing outside
the centre. O is sitting 3rd to the left of P. Both P
and O are facing towards the outside. S is not an
immediate neighbour of P and O. Q faces the just
opposite direction of S. (It implies that if S is facing
towards the centre, Q would face outside the centre).
Q is sitting 2nd to the left of S. Both the immediate
neighbours of T face just opposite direction of T. V
is an immediate neighbour of P. Both the immediate
Left -ANTI-CLOCKWISE DIRECTION
neighbour of S faces just opposite direction of S.
Right -CLOCKWISE DIRECTION V faces towards the centre and he is an immediate
60 REASONING ABILITY
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neighbour of both P and R. R faces towards the facing outside were born on an odd number date.
centre. T was born on 24th and Q is 2nd to the left of T. Two
Ex.5. Who amongst the following are not facing towards persons are sitting between Q and the one who was
the center? born on 12th. P is 2nd to the left of the one who was
(1) V, W and R (2) W, T and Q born on 12th. Three persons are sitting between O
and P. N was born on 9th and M is 2nd to the right
(3) S, P and O (4) T, R and Q
of N. R is immediate right of M. The one who was
(5) None of these born on 29 is 3rd to the left of M. The one who was
Ex.6. What is the position of T with respect to V? born on 27th is 2nd to the right of the one who was
(1) 2nd to the left (2) 3rd to the right born on 29th. P is facing outside. Q was born after
M. Q, O are immediate neighbours.
(3) 4th to the left (4) 2nd to the right
Ex.10. Who among the following is 3rd to the left of S?
(5) 5th to the right
(1) M (2) N (3) R
Ex.7. Who among the following is sitting exactly between
W and P? (4) Q (5) T
(1) Q (2) R (3) V Ex.11. Who among the following does not belong to the
group?
(4) T (5) S
(1) O (2) M (3) N
Ex.8. How many persons are sitting between S and P if
we move clockwise starting from S? (4) P (5) S
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five Ex.12. How many persons are born after Q?
(4) Two (5) One (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2
Ex.9. Which of the following statements is not true (4) 3 (5) 4
regarding the given sitting arrangement? Ex.13. Who among the following sits exactly between N
(1) O is sitting exactly between T and R. and M?
(2) S is sitting 3rd to the right of P. (1) The one who was born on 19th.
(3) W and R are sitting just opposite to each other. (2) R
(4) V is sitting 3rd to the left of T. (3) The one who was born on 6th.
(5) All are true (4) Q
Sol.5-9. (5) T
P Ex.14. Which of the following is TRUE?
V Q (1) P was born on 27th
(2) S is facing inside
R W (3) R was born on 16th
(4) O is 3rd to the left of T
S (5) S is neighbor of P
O
T Sol.10-14.
N/9
Sol.5.(3) Sol.6.(2) Sol.7.(1)
Q/27 R/12
Sol.8.(2) Sol.9.(5)
Ex.10-14. Study the information given below and answer
the questions based on it. Q/16 M/6
Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting
around a circular table and they were born in the
same month but different dates i.e. 6th, 9th, 12th, S/29 P/19
16th, 19th, 24th, 27th and 29th, not necessarily in
the same order. T/24

Note: The persons who are facing inside were born Sol.10.(1) Sol.11.(2) Sol.12.(5)
on an even number date and the persons who are Sol.13.(2) Sol.14.(4)

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2. A is second to the right of E, who is at one of the
2. Linear seating arrangement
ends. If E sits at one of the ends he must sit at the left
In this type of arrangement, we arrange people or objects end. Then only the following arrangement possible.
in a row. The arrangement is done only on one ‘axis’ and
E_A
hence, the position of people or objects assumes importance
in terms of order like first position, second position……… 3. J is the immediate neighbour of A and B and third
last position. In this type of arrangement, we take directions to the left of G.
according to our left and right. AJB / BJA possible and J _ _ G
(a) One Row Sequence- Therefore, A J B _ G / B J A _ G 
4. H is to the immediate left of D and third to the
right of I. 
HD and I _ _ H
From 1, C _ D F 
From 4, I _ _ H D
From 1 and 4, 
Persons or elements given in the seating arrangement I _ C H D F -----(1)
question may face any of the four directions i.e. North, South,
From 3, A J B _ G or B J A _ G possible
East or West according to the conditions given.
If we consider 2 also then the above statement
When the direction of the face is not clear, then we take any
becomes,
of one direction i.e. north or south and solve according to the
conditions given. If in the information given in the questions, E _ A J B _ G- - - - - (2)
persons or objects are related to each other in such a way that Now from 1 and 2, we have two possibilities.
no direction is required. Then in that condition also we solve 1. F sits to the left of E.
according to the conditions given in the question.
2. I sits to the right of G.
EXAMPLE-1:
These two are not possible as total places are
Ex.15-16. Study the following information carefully and becoming more than 11. So, I should occupy the
answer the question. position between B and G.
Eleven students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K So, E _ A J B I G C H D F is the right arrangement. 
are sitting in a row of the class facing the teacher.
D, who is to the immediate left of F, is second to The remaining person K occupies the position
the right of C. A is second to the right of E, who between E and A.
is at one of the ends. J is the immediate neighbour Now answers for the above questions are Option 2
of A and B and third to the left of G. H is to the and 3.
immediate left of D and third to the right of I. EXAMPLE-2:
Ex.15. Who is sitting in the middle of the row? Ex.17-21. Study the following information carefully and
(1) C           (2) I           (3) B answer the question given below.
(4) G    (5) None Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H are sitting in
Ex.16. Which of the following groups of friends is sitting a linear row. Four of them are facing north while
to the right of G? four are facing south. Three persons sit to the left
of C. As many as persons sit between A and D as
(1) IBJA (2) ICHDF           (3) CHDF between B and F. Only B sits between C and A. A
(4) CHDE (5) None of these sits second to the left of C. A faces north direction.
Sol.15-16. Let us code all the given statements into some F does not sit at an extreme end. E sits second to
notation format so that it can save a lot of time in the left of D and faces same direction as D. D is
solving the question. not an immediate neighbour of C. E does not face
north direction. H sits fourth to the right of G and
1. D, who is to the immediate left of F, is second to
G faces the opposite direction as C. Both F and H
the right of C.
face the same direction.
This implies D is sitting to the immediate left of F
Ex.17. Who among the following sits third to the right of
and D is sitting second to the right of C. 
A?
DF, C _ D
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(1) G (2) C (3) D immediate right of R and S is exactly opposite of
(4) F (5) None of these T who is to the immediate right of P. V does not sit
at any of the ends of any row.
Ex.18. How many persons are sitting between B and D?
Ex.22. Which of the following members sit at the ends of
(1) One (2) More than three
the same row?
(3) Three (4) None
(1) TH (2) SR (3) LQ
(5) Two
(4) LT (5) None of these
Ex.19. Which of the following pair sits at an extreme end?
Ex.23. Who sits opposite of P?
(1) H, E (2) B, D (3) C, A
(1) L (2) Q
(4) F, B (5) None of these
(3) V (4) Cannot be determined
Ex.20. Who among the following sits immediate left of G?
(5) None of the above
(1) E (2) C (3) D
Ex.24. Which of the following members sit exactly
(4) F (5) None of these opposite to each other?
Ex.21. How many persons sit between H and C? (1) VQ (2) LV (3) VH
(1) One (2) More than three (4) VP (5) None of these
(3) Three (4) None Sol.22-24. According to the given information, the final
(5) Two arrangement is as follows :
Sol.17-21.

Sol.22.(5) LS and QT sit at the end of the same row.
Sol.17.(1) Sol.18.(5) Sol.19.(1)
Sol.23.(3) V sits opposite of P.
Sol.20.(3) Sol.21.(5)
Sol.24.(4) V and P sit exactly opposite to each other.
(b) Two Row Sequence-
EXAMPLE-4:
Let us see 6 persons sitting in two rows.
Ex.25-29. Study the following information carefully and
answer the question given below.
Twelve colleagues are sitting in two parallel rows
containing six colleagues in each, in such a way
that there is an equal distance between adjacent
From the above diagram it is clear that colleagues. In row-1- Praful, Sachin, Rahul, Sulu,
(i) P is sitting opposite to S. Rohit and Vivek are seated and all of them are
facing South. In row-2- Ritu, Monika, Ravi, Divya,
(ii) Q is sitting opposite to T.
Neetu and Neha are seated and all of them are facing
(iii) R is sitting opposite to U. North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement
(iv) P and U are sitting in diagonally opposite each member seated in a row faces another member
positions. of the other row.
EXAMPLE-3: Divya is sitting third to the left of Ritu. Neetu is
Ex.22-24. Study the following information carefully and facing Vivek.
answer the questions given below. Praful is sitting third to the right of Rohit. Sachin
Eight members P, Q, R, S, T, V, H and L are sitting is facing Ritu.
in two rows with the equal number of members in Vivek is sitting second to the right of Rohit. Monika
each row. Members of one row are facing North is facing Sulu.
and those in the other row are facing South. Each Ravi is not facing Rohit.
member in one row is sitting exactly opposite a
Divya does not sit any of extreme end of the line.
member in the other row.
Monika is an immediate left of Divya.
P, who is facing North, sits to the immediate right
of H who is exactly opposite of R. L is to the Praful does not sit any of extreme end of the line.

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Ex.25. Who sits second to the left of Ravi? the right of the seat, which is opposite to S. C is not
(1) Monika (2) Ritu (3) Neha an immediate neighbor of D. T, who likes neither
White nor Blue, does not face vacant seat. D faces
(4) Divya (5) Neetu
R. The vacant seats are not opposite to each other.
Ex.26. Who is in front of Praful? Two seats are there between C and B, who sits third
(1) Monika (2) Rohit (3) Neha right of the seat, on which the person who likes
(4) Ravi (5) Neetu Brown is sitting. S sits third to the right of seat on
which R sits and likes Yellow. The one who likes
Ex.27. How many persons are sitting between Ritu and Pink faces the one who likes Yellow. The person
Divya? who like Red and Purple are adjacent to each other.
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three The vacant seat in row 1 is not adjacent to D. Q
(4) Five (5) Four sits at one of the extreme ends. E neither like Pink
nor faces the seat which is adjacent to the one who
Ex.28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
likes Blue. The one who likes White is not to the
and so form a group. Which one of the following
immediate right of the one who likes Yellow. The
does not belong to that group?
person who likes Green does not face the person
(1) Divya-Monika (2) Rahul- Praful who likes Purple.
(3) Vivek- Sachin (4) Neetu- Ritu Ex.30. How many persons are sitting between T and the
(5) Sachin- Rohit one who likes yellow color?
Ex.29. Who is fourth to the left of Neha? (1) None (2) One (3) Two
(1) Monika (2) Rohit (3) Divya (4) Three (5) None of these
(4) Ravi (5) Neetu Sol.(3) two
Sol.25-29. E D B ---- A C

Red Purple Grey Pink Brown

T R ---- P S Q

Green Black White Yellow Blue

Sol.25.(1) Sol.26.(4) Sol.27.(2) Ex.31. Who is sitting at the immediate left of person who
likes purple color?
Sol.28.(4) Sol.29.(3)
(1) E
Ex.30-31. Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below. (2) D
Ten friends are sitting on twelve seats in two (3) The one who likes black color
parallel rows containing five people each, in such (4) The one who likes green color
a way that there is an equal distance between (5) The one who likes grey color
adjacent persons. In Row 1: A, B, C, D and E are
Sol.(5) The one who likes grey color
seated and all of them are facing south, and in
Row 2 : P, Q, R, S and T are sitting and all of them 3. Square/Rectangular seating arrangement
are facing north. One seat is vacant in each row. In this type of question some persons are made to sit around
Therefore, in the given sitting arrangement each a square/rectangular facing towards the centre, opposite to
member seated in a row faces another member of the centre and combination.
the other row.
All of them like different colors- Red, Green, Black,
Yellow, White, Blue, Brown, Purple, Pink and Grey,
but not necessarily in the same order.
There are two seats between Q and the vacant seat.
Q does not like White, Red and Purple. E is not an
Inside Outside Combination
immediate neighbor of C.B like Grey. Vacant seat
of row 1 is not opposite to S and is also not at any Ex.32-33. Read the following information carefully and
of the extreme ends of Row-1. The one who like answer the question given below-
Black who sits opposite to the one, who sits third to A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a
64 REASONING ABILITY
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square table in such a way that four of them sit at D sits on the immediate left of the one who likes
corners of the square while four sit in the middle of &. G does not like &.
each of the sides. Those who sit at the four corners E likes % and E is not an immediate neighbour of
faces outside while those who sit in the middle of A.
the sides face the centre of the table.
The one who likes 3 is an immediate neighbour of
D sits third to the right of G. G faces the centre. E E.
sits third to the left of C. C does not sit in the middle
The one who likes 8 is an immediate neighbour of
of the sides. Only one person sits between E and
F.
F. F is not immediate neighbour of C. H faces the
centre. A is not an immediate neighbour of F. Ex.34. Who likes @?
Ex.32. What is the position of C with respect to B? (1) D (2) F (3) B
(1) Third to the right (4) E (5) G
(2) C and B sit diagonally opposite Ex.35. Who sits third to the right of E?
(3) Second to the right. (1) F (2) H (3) D
(4) Second to the left. (4) A (5) None of these
(5) Fifth to the right. Ex.36. Who among the following sits exactly between H
and B?
Sol.(4) Second to the left
(1) $ (2) 3 (3) #
Ex.33. Who sits exactly between E & F?
(4) 8 (5) None of these
(1) H (2) D (3) A
Ex.37. Which of the following is true regarding B?
(4) C (5) G
(1) B is an immediate neighbour of D.
Sol.(2) D
(2) The one who likes @ is an immediate neighbour
of B.
(3) B sits second to the left of H.
(4) B likes % .
(5) B is an immediate neighbour of the one who
likes $.
Ex.38. Who sits between H and G?
Ex.34-38. Study the following information carefully and (1) AB (2) BC (3) DF
answer the questions given below. (4) CE (5) AC
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square Sol.34-38.
table in such a way that four are of them sit at four
A$ B6
corners of the square while four are sitting in the C#
middle of each of the four sides.
The one who sits at the four corners faces the centre
of the table while those who sit in the middle of H& E%
sides faces outside. Each of them likes different
places viz. @, #, $, %, &, 8, 3 and 6. But not
necessarily in the same order. D8 G3
F@
C is third to the left of the one who likes @. The
one who likes @ faces the outside. Only two people Sol.34.(2) Sol.35.(3) Sol.36.(1)
sit between C and H. Sol.37.(5) Sol.38.(3)
The one who likes $ sits immediate right of H. The 4. Floor seating arrangement
one who likes # sits second to the right of G. G is
neither neighbour of H nor C. G does not like 8 and The floor seating arrangement is also similar to that of the
@. linear sitting arrangement but in a vertical manner. Sometimes
puzzles can be asked either only floor arrangement or floor
Only one person sits between A and the one who arrangement including different colours/ car names/ city
likes #. names etc.
REASONING ABILITY 65
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Ex.39-43. Study the following information carefully and Ex.44. Who is sitting at the seventh place counting from
answer the questions given below. left?
Seven Priests R, Y, U, W, A, D and H are living (1) S (2) X
in a building of seven floors from bottom to top (3) Q (4) Either Y or U
(numbered 1 to 7) but not necessarily in the same
(5) Z
order.
Ex.45. Who among the following is sitting at one of the
The priest W lives on the 4th floor. The priest D
ends?
lives immediately above the 2nd floor. The priest Y
lives on the topmost floor. The priest whose place (1) R (2) S
value is 21 according to the English alphabet does (3) Y (4) Cannot be determined
not live on an even and the lowest floor. There are (5) Q
three priests between the priests R and A.
Ex.46. Who are immediate neighbours of T?
Ex.39. Who lives on the 6th floor?
(1) YX (2) YS
(1) R (2) A (3) U
(3) ZS (4) XZ
(4) H (5) Cannot be determined
(5) Cannot be determined
Ex.40. Who lives on the 1st floor?
Ex.47. Who is sitting second to the left of W?
(1) Y (2) W (3) H
(1) T (2) S (3) V
(4) A (5) R
(4) Q (5) Y
Ex.41. How many priests live between U and Y priests?
Ex.48. If T and Z interchange their positions, then who
(1) None (2) Two (3) Three become the immediate neighbours of Z?
(4) One (5) Cannot be determined (1) T and X (2) U only (3) R only
Ex.42. Who lives on the even prime number floor? (4) T and S (5) W only
(1) Y (2) U (3) R Sol.44-48.
(4) H (5) R/A
Ex.43. Who lives immediately below the floor on which
the priest R lives?
(1) Y/H (2) U/H (3) W/U
(4) H (5) R/A
Sol.39-43.

Sol.44.(4) Sol.45.(1) Sol.46.(4)

Sol.47.(2) Sol.48.(1)
Sol.39.(5) Sol.40.(3) Sol.41.(4)
5. Polygonal (Triangle, Pentagon, Hexagon
Sol.42.(5) Sol.43.(2)
etc.) Seating Arrangement -
Ex.44-48. Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below. Polygonal Arrangement In this type of arrangement, we have
to place the objects or persons on the structure of polygons
Ten boys Z, Y, X, W, V, U, T, S, R and Q are sitting (triangle, quadrilateral, pentagonal, hexagonal, octagonal
in a row facing towards west but not necessarily in etc.).
the same way. Y and U are not sitting on either of
the sides. S is sitting to the right of Z. There are four Ex.49-50. Study the following information carefully and
persons between V and Z. There are two persons answer the questions given below.
between S and X. T is sixth to the left of V who is Six persons A, E, V, I, O and U are sitting around a
at one end of the row. X who is not to the right of triangular table. Three of them sit at the corner of
Z. Q is in between of V and W. the table and three of them are sitting at the middle
66 REASONING ABILITY
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of the side. Three of them facing center and three (4) None
of them are facing outward of the table. (5) Two
U sits at corner seat and faces towards the centre. Sol.51-53.
Only one person sits between I and U. E and I are U U
immediate neighbours but none of them is the
R W W R
immediate neighbour of U. A sits second to the left
of I. U sits at the immediate right corner of A. V
faces inside. O, who is an immediate neighbour of E Y
E Y
I sits second to the right of E.
T T
Ex.49. Who among the following is second to the left of
the V? Sol.51.(5) Sol.52.(5) Sol.53.(1)

(1) U (2) I (3) E 6. The seating arrangement of uncertain

(4) A (5) None of these people
Ex.50. Who among the following faces towards the centre? In these types of questions, the number of people is not
clear. After reading the information and solving the puzzle
(1) V, A and U (2) I, U and V
carefully, the number is known. Sometimes the number of
(3) V, O and E (4) Can’t be determined people is uncertain.
(5) None of these Ex.54-58. Study the following information carefully and
Sol.49-50. answer the questions given below.
A
Some fighters are sitting in a row and all are facing
towards North direction. There are 3 fighters
between G and L. Only two fighters next to L but
V E they are not neighbor of G. Six fighters sit to the
left of G and U is third from the left end of the row.
There is only one fighter between U and F. F sits
U
O I
immediate to the right of K.
Sol.49.(3) Sol.50.(1) Ex.54. How many fighters are there in a row?
Ex.51-53. Read the following information carefully and (1) 13 (2) 15 (3) 18
answer the question given below. (4) 12 (5) 11
Six people W, E, R, T, Y and U are sitting around the Ex.55. How many fighters are there between K and O?
hexagon table and each person sits at each corner. (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 5
Persons of each opposite corner are facing opposite
(4) 6 (5) Cannot be determined
to each-other (means if someone faces the centre
then another person will face outside the centre). Ex.56. How many fighters are there between U and L?
T, who does not face towards the centre, sits between (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 7
Y and E. U is second to the left of E who is facing (4) 6 (5) 2
towards the centre. W is second to the left of R. Ex.57. Who is immediate left of G?
Ex.51. If W’s direction is clear then name the persons who (1) F (2) L
are facing towards the centre.
(3) U (4) Data inadequate
(1) WYE (2) URT (3) YUE
(5) K
(4) WET (5) URE
Ex.58. If R is fourth to the left of F then what is his position
Ex.52. Who are the neighbours of R? from the left end?
(1) WE (2) UE (3) YT (1) Second (2) Third (3) At the end
(4) WY (5) Cannot be determined (4) Fifth (5) Sixth
Ex.53. How many persons are sitting between W and E? Sol.54-58.
(1) Cannot be determined _ _ U K F _ G _ _ _ L _ _
(2) Three Sol.54.(1) Sol.55.(5) Sol.56.(3)
(3) Four Sol.57.(4) Sol.58.(3)
REASONING ABILITY 67
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exercise
Q-1-5. Study the following information to answer the a Faculty. Operator is not an immediate neighbour
given questions : of the Area Manager. Branch manager sits second
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are ten office members to left of 22. 22 is not an immediate neighbour of
sitting on a circular table. Some of them facing the 19. The Branch manager is an immediate neighbour
centre and some facing outside. I is fifth to the left of of both Accountant and the DTP Head. DTP-Head
J who is third to the right of G. G is sitting opposite sits third to right of 25. 25 is not the Operator. 24
to H and facing opposite direction with respect to sits to the immediate right of the R& D member. 26
each-other. F is not an immediate neighbour of H is not the R& D member. 21 is not an immediate
or I. E is in front of C. B is third to the left of G. D neighbour of 26. 20 is not an immediate neighbour
sits exactly between J and E. D is not an immediate of the Branch manager.
neighbour of H. F is fourth to the right of A, who is Q.6. Who amongst the following sits third to the left of
not facing centre. All Immediate neighbours of G and 22 ?
J are facing same direction but opposite direction to (1) Branch manager (2) 20 (3) 22
G and J are facing. I and B facing same direction
but opposite direction as E is facing. (4) DTP Head (5) 25
Q.1. Who is third to the left of H? Q.7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
based on the given sitting arrangement and thus form
(1) J (2) E (3) C a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
(4) I (5) D the group?
Q.2. How many persons are not facing outside the centre? (1) 21- R & D member
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (2) 20 - Publisher
(4) Four (5) Five (3) 23– Branch manager
Q.3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (4) 26- DTP Head
based on their sitting arrangement and hence form (5) 25 – Faculty
a group. Which is the one does not belong to the
group? Q.8. Who amongst the following is the Publisher of the
company?
(1) H (2) D (3) F
(1) 26 (2) 24 (3) 19
(4) A (5) J
(4) 20 (5) 23
Q.4. Which of the following first person is sitting to the
immediate left of second person? Q.9. Which of the following statement is true with respect
to the given seating arrangement?
(1) I, B (2) G, D (3) C, G
(1) The Accountant sits second to the left of 23.
(4) A, F (5) None of these
(2) The R& D member of the company sits to the
Q.5. Who is sitting exactly opposite of B? immediate left of the Area Manager.
(1) C (2) I (3) G (3) The Accountant and the Faculty are immediate
(4) F (5) H neighbours of each other.
Q.6-10. Read the following information carefully and (4) 20 sits second to right of 23.
answer the given questions. (5) The Accountant of the company is an immediate
Eight persons 26, 25 , 24, 23, 22, 21, 20 and 19 neighbour of the Operator.
are sitting around a circular table facing the centre Q.10. Which of the following posts does 25 hold in the
but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of company?
them holds a different post in a MEPL company viz.
Branch manager, Faculty, R& D member, Publisher, (1) R& D member
Operator, Accountant, DTP Head and Area Manager. (2) Branch manager
26 sits third to right of the Area Manager. Only (3) Faculty
two people sit between the Area Manager and 19.
(4) Operator
Operator and the Faculty are immediate neighbours
of each other. Neither 26 nor 19 is an Operator or (5) Financial Advisor
68 REASONING ABILITY
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Q.11-15.Study the following information to answer the directions. Both the immediate neighbours of X
given questions : faces the same direction as that of Z.U faces the
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows same direction as that of V.
containing six people each, in such a way that there Q.16. How many persons are facing inside the centre as
is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In per above arrangement?
row - 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them (1) One (2) Three (3) Two
are facing south. In row - 2 P, Q, R, S, T and V are
seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in (4) Four (5) Five
the given seating arrangement each member seated Q.17. Which of following is true regarding G as per the
in a row faces another member of the other row. given sitting arrangement ?
V sits third to right of S. S faces B and F does not sit (1) W sits second to the left of G
at any of the extreme ends of the line. D sits third to
(2) Only two persons are sitting between G and X
right of C. R faces C. The one facing E sits third to
right of P. B and P do not sit at the extreme ends of (3) U sits to the immediate right of G
the line. T is not an immediate neighbour of V and (4) V is one of the immediate neighbours of G
A is not an immediate neighbour of C.
(5) G faces centre
Q.11. Who amongst the following faces D ?
Q.18. Find the odd one out?
(1) T (2) P (3) Q
(1) G (2) W (3) U
(4) R (5) None of these
(4) Z (5) X
Q.12. Who amongst the following represent the people
Q.19. What is the position of U with respect to J?
sitting at extreme ends of the rows ?
(1) Third to the left (2) Third to the right
(1) R, F (2) T,A (3) D, R
(3) Fourth to the right (4) Second to the left
(4) C, Q (5) S,A
(5) Fifth to the left
Q.13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and thus form a group. Which is the one that does Q.20. How many persons are facing Outside the centre
not belong to that group ? as per above arrangement?
(1) B-T (2) A-Q (3) C-S (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3
(4) F-P (5) D–R (4) 4 (5) 5
Q.14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way Q.21-25. Study the following information carefully and
and thus form a group. Which is the one that does answer the questions given below:
not belong to that group ? There are eight persons D, E, G, H, R, S, T and U
(1) D (2) S (3) V sitting around a circular table. Some of the persons
are not facing the centre. They all like four different
(4) T (5) A
types of drinks, viz sprite, Slice, Limca and Pepsi,
Q.15. How many persons are seated between R and T ? and each drink is liked by two persons, Note: Same
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three direction means that if one person is facing the centre
then the other person also faces the centre and vice
(4) Four (5) None
versa. Opposite direction means if one person is
Q 16-20. Study the following information to answer the facing the centre then the other person faces outside
given questions : and vice versa.
Eight persons U,V,W,X,Y,Z,G and J are sitting T sits on the immediate right of E, who likes
around a circular table in which some of them are Sprite. G sits third to the left of U, who likes Pepsi
facing the centre other are facing outside the center. and both are facing the same direction. G and E are
V is sitting third to the left of J.J facing towards not facing the same direction but G is an immediate
the centre. Z is sitting second to the right of V. Y is neighbour of R. R sits fourth to the left of T and both
sitting second to the left of X.X is not an immediate are facing opposite directions but like the same soft
neighbour of V or J. Both the immediate neighbours drink. The persons who like Sprite sit adjacent to
of W faces outside. U is not immediate neighbour of each other, but face opposite directions. The persons
J. The immediate Neighbours of U faces opposite who like Slice sit opposite each other. The immediate
REASONING ABILITY 69
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neighbours of R are facing the centre. The person The number of people facing North and South is not
who likes Limca is an immediate neighbour of the same.
persons who like Pepsi. H and S are immediate Q.26. Who is sitting second to the left of F?
neighbours of U. H is not facing the centre and likes
Limca. The one who is on the immediate left of S is (1) E (2) A (3) G
not facing the centre. S sits second to the right of G. (4) None (5) B
Q.21. Who among the following like Pepsi? Q.27. How many persons are sitting between A and G?
(1) R, T (2) G, U (3) S, D (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1
(4) H, U (5) None of these (4) 3 (5) 6
Q.22. Which of the following statements is true about D? Q.28. How many persons are facing north direction?
(1) D is an immediate neighbour of G and the person (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5
who likes Slice.
(4) 1 (5) 2
(2) The immediate neighbours of D are facing the
Q.29. Who is sitting second from the left end of the row?
centre.
(1) H (2) D (3) C
(3) D is third to the right of the person who likes
Limca. (4) E (5) F
(4) D sits opposite of U, who likes Pepsi. Q.30. Who is sitting extreme right end of the row?
(5) None of these (1) A (2) D (3) H
Q.23. How many persons are not facing the centre? (4) B (5) F
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three Q.31-35. Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below:
(4) Four (5) None of these
Twenty-four position is sitting in two parallel rows
Q.24. Who among the following sits third to the right of
containing twelve position in each row, in such a
U?
way that there is an equal distance between adjacent
(1) T, who likes Pepsi positions. In a given seating arrangement, each
(2) B, who likes Sprite member seated in a row does not faces another
member of the other row. Therefore, in the given
(3) R, who likes Slice seating arrangement each position in a row faces
(4) Can’t be determined another position of the other row. In the row, I- A,
(5) None of these D, E, C, F and B are seated and all of them facing
towards the south and other positions are vacant.
Q.25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way In row II- P, K, R, S, Q and V are seated and all of
and hence form a group. Which is the one that does them facing towards the north and other positions
not belong to that group? are vacant.
(1) S, U (2) R, H (3) G, D 1. B is sixth to the left of A.
(4) E, H (5) U, E 2. E is third to the right of the position in front of K
Q.26-30. Study the following information carefully and who is sixth to the left of Q. 
answer the questions given below: 3. Only four positions are between Q and V.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight 4. The position facing P is an immediate left of D.
line, in which some of them are facing South and
some of them are facing North. A faces south. Only 5. F is not to the west of B.
two people sit to the right of A. B sits third to the 6. S sits one of the extreme ends of the line.
left of A. Only one person sits between B and F. 7. C is between F and B. F does not sit any of the
Only one person sits between E and H. Both the extreme ends of the line.
immediate neighbours of B faces the same direction
but opposite direction of B. C sits to the third left of 8. Q is an immediate neighbour of S.
F. B faces the opposite direction as A. D faces the Q.31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
same direction as E. Both G and C face the opposite based on the given arrangement and so form a group.
direction of H. H sits to the immediate right of D.
70 REASONING ABILITY
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Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (4) 5 (5) 1
(1) B (2) F (3) P Q.38. F sits fifth to the left of which person?
(4) S (5) D (1) H (2) G (3) B
Q.32. Who sits between A and B? (4) C (5) A
(1) D (2) E (3) F Q.39. How many persons sits between A and G?
(4) C (5) D and E (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4
Q.33. Which of the following statements is true regarding (4) 5 (5) 1
R? Q.40. What is the age of E?
(1) R sits extreme left end of the row (1) 13 years (2) 19 years (3) 20 years
(2) The person who sits immediate left of R facing D (4) 15 years (5) 18 years
(3) R is second to the right of P Q.41-45. Study the following information carefully and
(4) The position who is facing R sits third to the right answer the questions given below:
of B Eight friends Gaurav, Sheetal, Romi, Rinku, Arjun,
(5) R is not an immediate neighbor of S Kishan, Avneesh and Neeraj are sitting around
Q.34. If B is related to V in the same way as P is related circular table. Some of them facing centre and some
to D based on the given arrangement. To whom of them facing outside the centre.  Gaurav is sitting
amongst the following is F related to, following the third to the right of Neeraj. Sheetal is exactly in
same pattern? front of Gaurav. There are three persons between
Romi and Avneesh. Rinku is sitting seventh to the
(1) R (2) K (3) V left of Romi who is facing centre. Romi is sitting
(4) S (5) P immediate right of Neeraj. Arjun is exactly sitting in
front of Neeraj and facing centre. Only four persons
Q.35. How many persons are sitting between P and R?
are facing towards the centre. Gaurav is facing the
(1) None (2) Two (3) Four same side as Neeraj is facing.
(4) Three (5) One Q.41. What is the position of Rinku with respect to Sheetal?
Q.36-40. Study the given information carefully and (1) Third from the right
answer the given questions.
(2) Third from the left
Eight friends- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting
(3) Fourth from the right
on a straight bench, are of different ages viz. 13, 14,
15, 16, 17, 18, 20 and 19; but not necessarily in the (4) Fourth from the left
same order. All of them are facing in same direction. (5) None of these
B is younger than G. E is not 19 years old. D is 15
years old. B sits immediate left of the person who is Q.42. Who is in front of Rinku?
18 years old. G sits at an extreme end. The person (1) Avneesh (2) Sheetal (3) Kishan
who is 13 years old sits immediate left of D. The (4) Arjun (5) None of these
person who is 15 years old sits 3rd to the right of F
who is 20 years old. B and D are neighbour to each Q.43. How many persons are sitting between Sheetal and
other. F sits at extreme end. The person who is 16 Kishan when we count left side from Sheetal?
years old sits immediate left of G. The person who (1) One (2) Two (3) Three
is 19 years old sits 4th to the left of H. A and E are
(4) None (5) None of these
neighbour to each other.
Q.44. If we arrange according to their name in English
Q.36. How many persons sits between E and C?
alphabetical order and starting from Arjun in
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 clockwise direction then how many person positions
(4) 5 (5) 1 are not changed from the original sitting place?
Q.37. What is the age difference between A and G? (in (1) One (2) Two (3) Three
years) (4) None (5) None of these
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 Q.45. Who is sitting third to the right of Kishan?

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(1) Gaurav (2) Romi (3) Arjun (4) All of the above
(4) Neeraj (5) None of these (5) None of these
Q.46-50. Study the following information carefully and Q.47. Who is sitting opposite to E?
answer the question given below. (1) C (2) H (3) G
There are eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H (4) D (5) None of these
sitting around a square table, in such a way that two
people on each side of the table. Some of them are Q.48. Art is liked by whom?
facing towards the centre and some are facing outside (1) D (2) G (3) B
the centre. No two persons are immediate neighbour
(4) E (5) None of these
facing the same direction. A sits third to the right of
H who likes Physics. H is sitting in the opposite side Q.49. What is the position of D with respect to A?
of C who sits with the person who likes Maths. B sits (1) Immediate right
fourth to the right of the person who is second to right
(2) Immediate left
the one who likes Maths. E who sitting with H sits
second to the left of the one who likes Art. F and D are (3) Second to the right
an immediate neighbour. F is an immediate neighbour (4) Second to the left
of H and D is not facing centre. E likes Biology and
sits opposite to the person who is an immediate left (5) Third to the left
of the one who likes Commerce. Q.50. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
Q.46. Who is an immediate neighbour of G? way based on the given arrangement and so form
group. Which is the one that does not belong to
(1) B that group?
(2) The one who likes art (1) D (2) H (3) G
(3) E (4) A (5) B
EXPLANATION
Q.1-5. Q.6.(4) Q.7.(5) Q.8.(1) Q.9.(2) Q.10.(3)
Q.11-15.

Q.11.(1) T Q.12.(2) T, A Q.13.(4) F-P
Q.1.(4) Q.2.(4) Q.3.(5) Q.4.(5) Q.5.(4) Q.14.(2) S Q.15.(2) Two
Q.6-10. Q.16-20.
(23) U
DTP Head
(19) (26) Z V
Branch Manager Publisher

J Y
(21) (20)
Account Operator
G W

(22) (25) X
R&D Faculty
Member
Q.16.( 2 ) Q.17.(1 ) Q.18.( 3)
(24)
Area Manager Q.19.( 4) Q.20.(5)
(Facing towards the center) Q.21-25.

72 REASONING ABILITY
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Sprite Q.36.(2) Q.37.(1) Q.38.(1)
Pepsi D
Sprite
G E Q.39.(4) Q.40.(1)
Q.41-45.
Slice R TSlice
Sheetal
S H Neeraj Kishan
Limca Limca
U
Pepsi

Q.21.(2) Q.22.(4) Q.23.(3) Romi Avneesh

Q.24.(5) Q.25.(5)
Q.26-30.
Arjun
Rinku
Gaurav
Q.41.(2) Q.42.(3) Q.43.(5)
Q.26.(5) Q.27.(4) Q.28.(3)
Q.44.(1) Q.45.(1)
Q.29.(1) Q.30.(5)
Q.46-50.
Q.31-35.

Q.31.(4) Q.32.(5) Q.33.(5)

Q.34.(1) Q.35.(2)
Q.36-40.

Q.46.(5) Q.47.(3) Q.48.(5)
Q.49.(5) Q.50.(4)

NOTES

REASONING ABILITY 73
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CHAPTER

7 puzzle

“Puzzle” means “confusion” Puzzles are designed to check (4) D (5) None of these
one’s mental ability that how he/she would going to sort Ex.2. What is the profession of C ?
out the confusion and finding an efficient or correct way to
solve it. (1) Terminal operator (2) Agriculture Officer
(3) Economist (4) Cannot be determined
Tips To Solve Puzzle
(5) None of these
## To solve puzzle read the basic information carefully like
‘six people or eight people’ Ex.3. For which bank does B work ?
## Go through each line carefully and make graph according (1) M (2) S
to it whether it position or negative statement. (3) L (4) Either M or S
Example : A doesn’t travel in Train (5) None of these
A –Train...(x) Ex.4. What is the profession of the person who works
## Relate the previous information with other information for Bank S ?
## Start the puzzle where the maximum date is being (1) Clerk (2) Agriculture Officer
provided so that you may solve it efficiently. (3) Terminal Operator (4) Forex Officer
(5) None of these
Ex.5. Which of the following combinations of person,
profession and bank is correct ?
(1) A-Forex Officer-M
(2) D-Clerk-L
(3) F - Agriculture Officer - Q
Classification Puzzle (4) B - Agriculture Officer - S
Ex.1-5. Read the following passage carefully and (5) None of these
answers the questions given below it.
Sol.1-5. Bank Work
A group of seven friends; A, B, C, D, E, F and
G work as Economist, Agriculture Officer, IT A S Forex Officer
Officer, Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex Officer B M Agriculture Officer
and Research Analyst, for Banks L, M, N, P, Q, C N Economist
R and S but not necessarily in the same order. C
works for Bank N and is neither a Research Analyst D L Terminal Operator
nor a Clerk. E is an IT Officer and works for Bank E R IT Officer
R. A works as Forex Officer and does not work
F Q Clerk
for Bank L or Q. The one who is an Agriculture
Officer works for Bank M. The one who works G P Research Analyst
for Bank L works as a Terminal Operator. F works Sol.1.(2) Sol.2.(3) Sol.3.(1)
for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research
Sol.4.(4) Sol.5.(5)
Analyst. D is not an Agriculture Officer.
Ex.1. Who amongst the following works as an Comparison Puzzle
Agriculture Officer ? Ex.6-8. Study the following information to answer the
(1) C (2) B (3) F given questions :

74 REASONING ABILITY
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Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are working in (5) None of these
the same office take different time to reach office. Ex.11. Which lecture is scheduled on Friday ?
All of them take time in the multiples of ten in
such a manner that the one who reaches the office (1) Economics (2) Psycology
earliest reaches in 10 minutes and the one who (3) Computer Science (4) Cannot be determined
takes maximum time reaches office in 60 minutes.
(5) None of these
D takes more time than E but less time than A. A
reaches in 30 minutes. B takes less time than only Ex.12. Which day is the ‘off’ day ?
F. (1) Tuesday (2) Wednesday
Ex.6. How much time does C take to reach office ? (3) Friday (4) Cannot be determined
(1) 60 minutes (2) 50 minutes (3) 40 minutes (5) None of these
(4) 20 minutes (5) Cannot be determined Ex.13. If someone wants to attend only two lectures out
Ex.7. Who among the following takes maximum time to of Psychology, Research Methods and Computer
reach office ? Science but wants the two days to be successive
(one after the other) then which lecture-
(1) B (2) C (3) D
combination may be selected ?
(4) F (5) Cannot be determined
(1) Research Methods, Computer Science
Ex.8. How many people take more time to reach office
(2) Psychology, Computer science
than D ?
(3) Psychology, Research Methods
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two
(4) Any two of the three is possible
(4) One (5) None
(5) With the condition of successive
Sol.6-8. F > B > C > A > D > E
Sol.9-13. Monday - Organisational Behaviour
60 > 50 > 40 > 30 > 20 > 10
Tuesday - Psychology
Sol.6.(3) Sol.7.(4) Sol.8.(1)
Wednesday - Statistics
Sequential Puzzle
Thursday - Computer Science
Ex.9-13. Study the following information to answer the
given questions : Friday - Research Methods

6 lectures are scheduled in a week starting from Saturday - Off

Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Sunday - Economics
Computer Science is not on Tuesday or Saturday. Sol.9.(5) Sol.10.(5) Sol.11.(5)
Psychology is immediately after Organisational
Behaviour. Statistics is not on Friday and there is Sol.12.(5) Sol.13.(4)
one day gap between Statistics and Research Selection Based Puzzle
Methods. One day prior to the schedule of
Economics there is no lecture (as that day is the Ex.14-18. Read the following information carefully and
‘off’ day and Monday is not the ‘off’ day.) answer the questions given below-

Ex.9. Which of the following is the last lecture Six directors of a company Z - Mr. Ami, Mr. Balli,
scheduled? Ms. Chinki, Ms. Diya, Mr. Emi and Ms. Fiza are
travelling in four cars C1,C2,C3 and C4 to attend
(1) Statistics (2) Research Methods a seminar in Lucknow. One person is driving each
(3) Psychology (4) Cannot be determined car and there are not more than two persons in any
one of the cars. These cars are running one after
(5) None of these
the other from first to fourth. Ms. Chinki and Ms.
Ex.10. If Wednesday is the ‘off’ day, the code would be Fiza are travelling in different cars. The first and
2-4, if Thursday was the ‘off’ day, the code would the fourth has only one person in the car. Mr. Ami is
be 3-3. Taking into account the ‘off’ day which of driving the car and Ms. Diya is the traveller on that
the following code is correct ? car. Mr.Emi is the only person in one of the cars.
(1) 2-4 (2) 3 - 3 Ex.14. Which of the following persons could be travelled
(3) 4-2 (4) Cannot be determined in the same car as Ms.Chinki?
REASONING ABILITY 75
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(1) Mr.Ami (2) Mr.Balli (3) Ms.Diya (iv) Mukesh’s wife is a Doctor and they have a
(4) Mr.Emi (5) None of these son, Ajay.

Ex.15. If the third car contains Mr.Ami and Ms.Diya, Ex.19. Which of the following is definitely a couple ?
which of the following must be true? (1) Lawyer-Teacher (2) Doctor-Lawyer
(1) Mr.Emi is in the first car (3) Teacher-Teacher (4) Cannot be determined
(2) Ms.Chinki is in the fourth car (5) None of these
(3) Ms.Fiza is in the second car Ex.20. What is the profession of Rakesh’s wife ?
(4) Mr.Balli is in the second car (1) Teacher (2) Doctor
(5) None of these (3) Lawyer (4) Cannot be determined
Ex.16. If Ms.Chinki and Mr.Balli are not in the same car, (5) None of these
which of the following persons could be in the first Ex.21. How many male members are there in the family ?
car?
(1) Two (2) Three
(1) Mr.Ami (2) Mr.Balli (3) Ms.Fiza
(3) Four (4) Cannot be determined
(4) Ms.Diya (5) None of these
(5) None of these
Ex.17. If Ms.Fiza and Mr.Balli are not in the same car,
which of the following persons could be in the first Ex.22. What is/was Ajay’s Grand mother occupation ?
car? (1) Teacher (2) Lawyer
(1) Mr.Ami (2) Mr.Balli (3) Ms.Chinki (3) Doctor (4) Cannot be determined
(4) Ms.Fiza (5) None of these (5) None of these
Ex.18. If the third car contains Mr.Balli and Ms.Chinki, Ex.23. What is the profession of Ajay ?
which of the following will be possible ?
(1) Teacher (2) Lawyer
(1) Mr.Ami in car C4
(3) Doctor (4) Cannot be determined
(2) Mr.Balli in car C4 or car C2
(5) None of these
(3) Ms.Chinki in car C2 or car C4
Sol.19-23.
(4) Ms.Fiza in car C1 or car C4
Lawyer
(5) None of these A 7th + B18th
17th

Sol.14-18. Cars Directors

x y
17th 4 11th

C1 Emi/Chinki/Fiza/Balli Reena

C2 Ami and Diya/Balli/Chinki/Fiza Lawyer

C3 Ami and Diya/Balli/Chinki/Fiza

C4 Emi/Chinki/Fiza/Balli
Sol.14.(2) Sol.15.(4) Sol.16.(3) Sol.19.(1) Sol.20.(3) Sol.21.(2)
Sol.17.(5) Sol.18.(4) Sol.22.(2) Sol.23.(4)

Family Based Puzzle Miscellaneous Puzzle

Ex.19-23. Study the following information to answer the Ex.24-28. Study the following information carefully and
given questions : answer the given questions.
(i) In a family of 6 persons, there are two couples. Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G studied in
colleges X, Y and Z and are currently in different
(ii) The Lawyer is the head of the family and has professions namely, Medicines, Fashion designing,
only two sons - Mukesh and Rakesh - both Engineering, Business, Acting, Teaching and
are Teachers. Architecture (not necessarily in the same order).
(iii) Mrs. Reena and her mother-in-law both are At least two and not more than three friends had
Lawyers. studied in the same college.

76 REASONING ABILITY
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C is an architect and studied in college Y. E is not college and profession is definitely correct ?
a businessman. ‘Only G amongst the seven friends (1) E-X-Fashion Designing
studied in college X along with E. F is an engineer
and did not study in college Y. B is an actor and (2) F-X-Engineering
did not study in the same college as F. A did not (3) A-Y-Businessman
study in college Z. Those who studied in college X
(4) D-Z-Teaching
are neither Fashion Designers nor teachers. None
of those who studied in college Y is a teacher. (5) None of these
Ex.24. Which of the following groups represents the Ex.28. Who amongst the following have studied in
students of college Y ? college Z ?
(1) C,E,G (2) A, C, D (3) A, B, C (1) B,A (2) C, F (3) B, D, F
(4) D, B, C (5) None of these (4) A, D (5) D, F
Ex.25. Who amongst the following is in the profession of Sol.24-28. A Y Fashion designing
Medicines ? B Y Actor
(1) E (2) G (3) A C Y Architect
(4) D (5) None of these D Z Teacher
Ex.26. What is the profession of A ? E X Medicine
(1) Teaching (2) Medicines F Z Engineer
(3) Business (4) Fashion Designing G X Businessman
(5) None of these Sol.24.(3) Sol.25.(1) Sol.26.(4)
Ex.27. Which of the following combination of person, Sol.27.(4) Sol.28.(5)

NOTES

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exercise
Q.1-5. Study the following information carefully and (3) Football (4) Cannot be determined
answer the questions given below. (5) None of these
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members in a Q.7. If March was the ‘off’ month, the code would be
family out of which there are three females and 2-4, if April was the ‘off’ month, the code would
four males. There are two managers, two lawyers, be 3-3. Taking into account the ‘off’ month which
one teacher, one engineer and one doctor. No lady of the following code is correct?
is teacher or engineer. R is a lawyer and married to
P who is a teacher. V, the engineer, is married to (1) Cannot be determined (2) 5-1
S who is neither lawyer nor doctor. No two ladies (3) 3-3 (4) 4-2
have the same profession. Q is the sister of W, who (5) None of these
is a manager and grandson of V. P is the brother of
Q.8. Which game will schedule in the month of May?
T who is son of V. T is unmarried.
(1) Polo (2) Football
Q.1. How T is related to Q ?
(3) Basketball (4) Cannot be determined
(1) Father (2) Sister
(5) None of these
(3) Paternal - Uncle (4) Brother
Q.9. How many games were scheduled between Polo
(5) None of these
and Football?
Q.2-3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
(1) One (2) Two
way so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to the group ? (3) Three (4) Cannot be determined
Q.2. (1) P (2) T (3) V (5) None of these
(4) W (5) S Q.10. If someone wants to attend only two games out of
Football, Tennis and Basketball, but wants the two
Q.3. (1) Q - Doctor (2) V - Engineer months to be successive (one after the other) then
(3) W - Manager (4) R - Manager which game - Combination may be selected?
(5) T - Lawyer (1) Tennis, Basketball
Q.4. Which of the following group have same (2) Football, Basketball
profession? (3) Football, Tennis
(1) PQ (2) WS (3) TV (4) Any two of the three is possible
(4) VS (5) None of these (5) With the condition of successive month it is not
Q.5. How S is related to R ? possible
(1) Mother (2) Mother - in - law Q.11-15. Study the following information carefully to
answer the questions given below:
(3) Sister (4) Daughter-in-law
In an examination, six subjects A, B, C, D, E and F
(5) None of these
were available for a candidate of which Only three
Q.6-10. Study the following information carefully to had to be offered under the following conditions:
answer the given questions- 1. One who offered A had to offer B also and vice
Six games are played in a year starting from January versa.
and ending to July of the same year. Basketball is 2. One who offered A could not offer E.
not played in febuary or June. Football is played
immediately after Hockey. In the month of May 3. One who offered C or D could not offer F.
cricket is not played and there is one month gap The distribution of the candidates over the subjects
between Cricket and Tennis game. One month was as follows:
prior to the schedule of Polo there is no game (as A – 70, B – 70, C – 90, D – 85, E – 70, F – 35
that month is the ‘off’ month and January is not
the ‘off’ month). Q.11. How many combinations were permitted?

Q.6. Which of the following is the last game scheduled? (1) Four (2) Five (3) Six
(4) Seven (5) None of these
(1) Cricket (2) Tennis
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Q.12. How many candidates appeared for the Q.20-23. Study the following information carefully and
examination in all ? answer the questions given below:
(1) 120 (2) 130 (3) 140 Eight boxes G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N are arranged
(4) 380 (5) None of these in the top to bottom. Each of them contains different
colour Blue, Yellow, Red, Black, Purple, White,
Q.13. How many candidates offered the combination A Pink and Brown, but not necessary in the same order.
+ B + C? Only four boxes kept between G and H, which
(1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 35 contains Black colour. Only two boxes kept between
(4) 70 (5) None of these the box which contains Yellow and G. As many
boxes kept between H and M as between H and
Q.14. How many candidates combined C with D? K. M kept at one of the positions above to K and
(1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 35 contains Red colour. The box which contains Brown
colour kept between J and L. N is kept immediately
(4) 70 (5) None of these
below to J. Only one box kept between I and the box
Q.15. How many candidates offered B with F? which contains Blue. The box which contains White
(1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 35 colour kept immediately below to the box which
contains Purple. G does not contain White colour.
(4) 70 (5) None of these
Q.20. Which of the following box kept on top and contains
Q.16-19. Study the following information carefully and
which colour?
answer the questions given below:
(1) L - Yellow (2) N - Blue (3) H - Pink
(i) S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are eight students
in the class. Three of them study English and (4) K - Black (5) M - Red
Commerce each and two of them study Sanskrit. Q.21. How many box kept between G and the box contains
Each one of them has a different weight.  Pink colour?
(ii) The heaviest does not study Sanskrit and the (1) None (2) One (3) Two
lightest does not study English.
(4) Three (5) Four
(iii) X is heavier than S and V, but lighter than Z and
Q.22. Which of the following box kept immediately above
T. W, who does not study English, is heavier
to I?
than T and is the second heaviest. Y is lighter
than V but heavier than S. (1) K (2) L (3) N
(iv) Z, who is fourth from the top, studies Commerce (4) H (5) None of these
along with V. Q.23. What is the position of N from the top?
(v) Y does not study either English or Sanskrit. T (1) First (2) Second (3) Third
does not study Sanskrit.
(4) Fourth (5) Fifth
Q.16. Who is the heaviest?
Q.24-28. Study the following information carefully and
(1) X (2) S (3) T answer the question given below.
(4) V (5) U Six Japanese – H, N, X, K, A and Y study in
Q.17. Who is the lightest? different schools- i.e. C1, S1, I1, G1, D1 and A1–
and they are located on six different floors of a
(1) V (2) W (3) U
building, numbered 1 to 6. They like six different
(4) T (5) S festivals of different religions i.e.  Eid, Holi,
Q.18. Which subject studied by W? Janmashtami, Christmas, Onam and Durga Puja,
not necessarily in the same order. Each school is
(1) Commerce (2) Sanskrit
closed on a different day from Monday to Saturday. 
(3) English (4) Can’t be determined The one who likes the Onam festival and his/her
(5) None of these school is S1, is on the 6th floor of the building.
Schools of A and N are on even numbered floor and A
Q.19. Who is second lightest according to their weight?
studies in school that is closed on Monday. C1 school
(1) V (2) U (3) Y is on the lowest floor and it is closed on Tuesday. 
(4) T (5) X G1 school is on the floor next to H and it is closed
on Thursday. The student of A1 school likes Durga
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Puja festival and his school is closed on Monday.  A and F likes Corn and Radish respectively
Y likes Christmas festival and he has only one and are an immediate neighbour of each other.  
neighbour.  H is third to the right of A and is 16 years older than A. 
One of the schools on even numbered floors has The one likes Potato is the youngest person in the group.
closed on Friday.  K is located two floors below The youngest person and oldest person in the
X and he likes Janmashtami festival.  X likes the group are an immediate neighbour of each other.
festival of Eid and he studies in a school that is The oldest person does not like Tomatoes and Beetroot.
closed on Wednesday. Only three people between B and K who is 16 years old.
J is not oldest person of the group.
Q.24. Who is the studying in C1?
Q.29. Who sits exactly between B and second youngest
(1) The one who likes the Holi festival. person when counted from the right hand side of
(2) The one whose school is closed on Tuesday. B?
(3) The one whose school is closed on Monday. (1) S (2) G (3) J
(4) The one who likes the Eid festival. (4) F (5) K
(5) H Q.30. Who is sitting to immediate left of the one who is
Q.25. Which festival does H like? 28 years old?

(1) Janmashtami (2) Eid (1) The one who likes Radish

(3) Holi (4) Christmas (2) The one who likes Tomatoes

(5) Durga Puja (3) The one who likes Lettuce

Q.26. Who has on leave on Thursday? (4) The one who likes Pumpkin

(1) K (2) N (3) A (5) The one who likes Beetroot

(4) X (5) H Q.31. What is position 12 years old person with respect
to 16 years old person?
Q.27. If I1 school is closed on Saturday, on which day
will D1 school be closed? (1) Third to the left (2) Second to the left

(1) Monday (2) Thursday (3) Friday (3) Third to the right (4) Fifth to the right

(4) Wednesday (5) Tuesday (5) Second to the right

Q.28. Which of the following combination is correct? Q.32. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
based on the given seating arrangement and so form
(1) A1 – A – Monday – Eid a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
(2) G1 – K – Thursday – Janmashtami the group?
(3) C1 – Y – Saturday – Christmas (1) B - Lettuce (2) G - Radish
(4) S1 – N – Wednesday – Onam (3) J - Onion (4) F - Onion
(5) None of these (5) A - Beetroot
Q.29-33. Study the following information carefully and Q.33. Which of the following is true regarding G as per
answer the given questions: the given seating arrangement?
Eight person A, S, B, F, G, H, J and K are sitting (1) G sits third to the left of S
around a circular table facing the centre. Each (2) None of the given options is true
of them likes different vegetable Corn, Lettuce,
Pumpkin, Tomatoes, Beetroot, Onion, Potato and (3) G is 28 years old
Radish, but necessarily in the same order. Each (4) G is second to the right of youngest person
person belongs to a different age group between 4 (5) Only three person sits between G and F
and 40 successive multiple of 4, but not 4 and 40. 
The person likes Tomatoes is third to the right of the Q.34-37. Study the following information carefully and
person likes Onion who is an immediate right of the answer the question given below.
one who is 32 years old. Only two people are sitting Eight members 11, 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5 and 4 of a
between J and the one who is 32 years old. G is 20 family are sitting around a circular table with all
years old, likes Pumpkin is  second to the right of J. of them facing outwards. Each one of them likes

80 REASONING ABILITY
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a different brand of laptops viz. Sony, Acer, HP, of the other row either facing to north or south.
Samsung, Lenovo, Microsoft, Dell and Apple. Q is sitting the extreme end of the row. Q is third
Three married couples are there in the family.  to the right of P. D is an immediate left of Lawyer.
11, who is the father of 6 and uncle of 5, sits to the R is not an immediate neighbour of P and facing
left of the person who likes Sony. 6 is an immediate the person who is an immediate right of Banker. S
neighbour of her aunty 4 who does not sit next faces opposite direction to R. D sits immediate left
to 8. 9 does not like Apple or Dell. 4 is the only of the person, who sits opposite to Q. Shopkeeper is
sister-in-law of 11 whereas 10 likes Microsoft and sitting opposite to Doctor who is an immediate right
she is daughter-in- law of 9. The two youngest of Engineer. Only one person sits between D and A.
girls sit next to each other. The one likes the Acer B is an immediate left of A and sitting opposite to
sits between 5 and the one who likes Lenovo. 5 is Scientist. The person who sits extreme ends facing
third to the left of the Grandmother. The one who opposite directions. Cricket is second to the left of
likes Microsoft sits between the persons who like R. D and Teacher facing the same direction. Teacher
Dell and Apple respectively. 8’s husband and son is not facing south.
sit next to her. Samsung is not liked by 5’s father. 5 Q.38. Who amongst the following sits opposite to
does not like HP or Dell. 8 is the mother of 11 and Lawyer?
7, and sits second to the left of 7.
(1) Q (2) R (3) S
Q.34. Which of the following statements is true regarding
the family? (4) P (5) None of these
(1) 11 is the brother of 4. Q.39. Which of the following statements is true regarding
D?
(2) 9 is the father-in-law of 11.
(1) D sits opposite to S.
(3) 10 is the aunt of 5.
(2) D faces south and sits immediate left of C.
(4) 6 and 5 are married couples.
(3) None of the given statements is true.
(5) Other than these options
(4) Q sits opposite to the one, who sits immediate
Q.35. Who among the following sits between 10 and the left of D.
one who likes Acer?
(5) Only two person sits between D and A.
(1) 11 (2) 7 (3) 8
Q.40. Who amongst the following sits opposite to C?
(4) 5 (5) 4
(1) Doctor (2) Banker (3) Scientist
Q.36. What is the position of the person who likes Samsung
with respect to the one who likes Microsoft? (4) Engineer (5) Lawyer
(1) Third to the right (2) Second to the left Q.41. What is the position of Q with respect to S?
(3) Immediate to the left (4) Third to the left (1) Third to the right (2) Second to the right
(5) Fourth to the left (3) Immediate left (4) Immediate right
Q.37. Who among the following likes HP? (5) Second to the left
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 5 Q.42. Who amongst the following facing North direction?
(4) 10 (5) 7 (1) B, C, P, R (2) Q, S, D, A
Q.38-42. Study the following information carefully to (3) B, C, Q, S (4) D, A, P, R
answer the given questions. (5) Cannot be determined
Eight people from different profession Teacher, Q.43-47. Study the following information carefully and
Banker, Scientist, Engineer, Lawyer, Shopkeeper, answer the questions given below.
Cricketer and Doctor are sitting in two parallel rows In an annual function of a college five students
containing four people each, in such a way that there Deepu, Lakhan, Qamar, Kiran and Boni participated
is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In in discus throw competition. All of them threw
Row-1- A, B, C, and D are seated. In Row-2-P, Q, discus to different distances. The distances were
R and S are seated. Some members are facing south 27, 29, 31, 33 and 35 feet, but not necessarily in
and some members are facing north. Therefore, the same order as the names. Similarly, the colour
in the given seated arrangement each member of shirt of each person was different. Shirt colours
seated in a row sits opposite to another member
REASONING ABILITY 81
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were black, blue, brown, green and red. (2) 1 5 4 2 3
Each person was called to throw discus one by one. (3) 5 1 4 2 3
Now read some additional clues: (4) 5 4 1 2 3
(i) Lakhan and the person who was given the chance (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3
at fifth position threw the discus more than 30 feet. (4) 4 (5) Other than these options
And neither of the two was in blue shirt.
Q.47. Who among the following persons got the last rank?
(ii) Qamar ‘s shirt was green. He threw the discus
immediately before the person who got the first (1) Deepu (2) Lakhan (3) Qamar
rank. (4) Kiran (5) Boni
(iii) The person whose position was fourth, was in red Q.48-52. Study the following information carefully and
shirt and threw the discus two feet less than the answer the questions given below.
person who threw the discus only after one person. Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on
(iv) Boni was called first to throw the discus. But he did separate floors of a 7 storey building. Ground floor
not get the last rank. is numbered as one and so on. Each of them are
(v) One who threw the discus immediately after Deepu travelling to different countries, namely Egypt,
was in brown shirt. America, Sydney, Tokyo, Canada, Australia and
France, but not necessarily in the same order. Only
(vi) Kiran was not the person who threw the discus at three people live above the floor on which P lives.
31 or at 35 feet. Only one person lives between P and the one who is
(vii) The person in black shirt did not throw the discuss travelling to Australia. U lives immediately below
at 33 feet. the one who is travelling to America. The one who
(viii) The person in blue shirt did not throw the discus at is travelling to America lives on even numbered
2nd or 4th position. floor. Only three people lives between the one
who is travelling to Australia and Sydney. T lives
Q.43. Which of the following persons is in brown shirt ? immediately above R. T is not travelling to Sydney.
(1) Kiran (2) Boni Only two people lives between Q and the one who
(3) Lakhan (4) Data Inadequate is travelling to Canada. The one who is travelling
to Canada lives below the floor on which Q lives.
(5) None of these The one who is travelling to Egypt does not live
Q.44. Who among the following persons got the first rank? immediately above or below Q. S does not live
immediately above or below P. V does not travel
(1) Lakhan (2) Deepu
to Tokyo.
(3) Qamar (4) Data inadequate
Q.48. Who among the following lives on third floor ?
(5) Other than these options
(1) The one who is travelling the Tokyo
Q.45. Which of the following correctly shows the order
(2) The one who is travelling to Canada.
of throwing discus by the persons?
(3) R
Deepu Lakhan Qamar Kiran Boni
(4) V
(1) 4 3 2 5 1
(5) T
(2) 4 3 2 1 5
Q.49. Who lives on the floor which is immediately above
(3) 3 4 2 5 1
T?
(4) 4 2 3 1 5
(1) P (2) Q (3) S
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3
(4) V (5) U
(4) 4 (5) Other than these options
Q.50. Which of the following is true with respect to V as
Q.46. Which of the following correctly shows the rank per the above information?
obtained by the persons?
(1) The one who lives immediately below V is
Deepu Lakhan Qamar Kiran Boni travelling to America.
(1) 1 5 2 4 3 (2) V lives on floor no. 7

82 REASONING ABILITY
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(3) V lives immediately below T (4) 4 (5) 2
(4) V lives on the lowermost floor Q.57. The one who lives immediate below Q likes which
(5) V is travelling to Australia subject?

Q.51. How many people lives between the floor on which (1) Hindi (2) Maths (3) Biology
S lives and the one who is travelling to America? (4) Physics (5) English
(1) None (2) Two Q.58-62. Study the following information carefully and
(3) One (4) More than three answer the questions given below.

(5) Three Seven Officers A, B, C, D, E, F and G work in

three different shifts 1st, 2nd and 3rd with at least two
Q.52. To which of the following country is S travelling ? persons working in each shift Each one of them has
(1) America (2) Australia (3) Sydney a different weekly off from Monday to Sunday not
(4) Canada (5) Tokyo necessarily in the same order.B works in second
shift with only F, Whose weekly off is on Friday.
Q.53-57. Study the following information carefully and E’s weekly off is on the next day of A’s weekly off
answer the questions given below. and both of them work in different shifts. D works in
There are eight persons namely P, Q, R, S, T, third shift and his weekly off is on Saturday. G has
U, V and W living in a building on a different a weekly off on Monday and he works in first shift.
floor. There are total eight floor in a building The one who has a weekly off on Sunday works in
ground floor is numbered as one and so on, each first shift. A and D do not work in the same shift.
of them like a different subjects namely-Physics, A’s weekly off is on Tuesday.
Chemistry, Maths, History, Geography, Biology, Q.58. Whose weekly off is on Wednesday ?
English and Hindi. W does not likes Maths nor
Geography. The one who likes Biology lives (1) A (2) B (3) C
immediately below the one who likes Physics. T (4) D (5) E
likes Biology. S likes English and lives Neither Q.59. Whose weekly off falls on Thursday ?
on the top floor nor on first floor. P lives above S,
On one of the floor in building. P lives immediate (1) B (2) A (3) D
above T. U lives on 2nd floor immediate below (4) E (5) F
the one who likes Geography. The one who likes Q.60. Which of the following combinations of shift,
Chemistry not lives above the one who likes person and weekly off is definitely correct ?
Maths. U does not like Chemistry. R lives neither
immediate next floor of the one who likes English (1) F-1st Monday (2) G-1st - Monday
or Hindi. Q lives one floor immediate below from (3) B-2 - Monday
nd
(4) C-3rd – Friday
the one who likes History. Neither V nor W like (5) E- 2nd - Wednesday
history.
Q.61. On which day is E’s weekly off ?
Q.53. Which subject does P likes ?
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday
(1) Biology (2) English (3) Physics
(3) Wednesday (4) Thursday
(4) Hindi (5) Maths
(5) Friday
Q.54. On which floor does V lives ?
Q.62. Which of the following group of officers work in
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 first shift ?
(4) 5 (5) 6 (1) ACG (2) AC (3) EFG
Q.55. Who lives immediately above that person who likes (4) BCG (5) AG
English ?
Q.63-67. Study the following information carefully and
(1) T (2) P (3) Q answer the questions given below.
(4) R (5) W In a family of eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and
Q.56. If V and Q interchange their position than what will H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre
be Q’s new floor? but not necessarily in the same order. Family has
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 1 three generations, D’s father is sitting third to the

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left of his nephew. B is the son of F, who is second C and D, who is from India. S from Kenya is an
to the right of her son. D is the father of G and two immediate neighbour of the person from netherland
persons sits between G and E. D’s wife is opposite and does not face the person from Canada. R, who
to E, whose brother B is the immediate neighbour is from Tokyo is an immediate neighbour of the
of C’s son. B is the father of H, no male is adjacent person from Africa, who is facing the immediate
to C. F is the sister of C, who is not sitting second neighbour of the person from Paris. There are two
to the left of B. persons between the person from Austria and the
Q.63. What is the position of C with respect to his person from Canada. B is not from Austria. T is not
daughter-in-law? from America.

(1) second to the left (2) second to the right Q.68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on their sitting, which of the following
(3) immediate left (4) immediate right is different?
(5) third to the left (1) B (2) Q (3) A
Q.64. How is E related to C? (4) D (5) T
(1) Daughter (2) Niece (3) Son Q.69. ‘India’ is related to ‘Austria’ in the same way
(4) Nephew (5) Data inadequate ‘Netherland’ is related to -
Q.65. What is the position of C with respect to his grand (1) America (2) Tokyo (3) Canada
daughter? (4) Kenya (5) Africa
(1) immediate right (2) immediate left Q.70. A belongs to which country?
(3) opposite (4) second to the right (1) Kenya (2) Austria (3) Africa
(5) second to the left (4) America (5) Canada
Q.66. How many persons is/are between B and his uncle Q.71. Who is sitting third to the right of D?
in clock-wise direction counting from B ?
(1) E (2) C (3) B
(1) One (2) None (3) Two
(4) A (5) R
(4) Three (5) Four
Q.72-76. Study the following information and answer the
Q.67. How many children does F have ? given questions:
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, W and X stay in three
(4) Four (5) Zero cities-Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai. Three of
Q.68-71. Study the following information carefully and them are females and rest are males. At least
answer the questions given below. two and not more than three of them stay in a
particular city. By professions they are Doctor,
Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows Dancer, Chemist, Engineer, Teacher, Artist and
contining five person in each row. In row 1- A, B, Student (not necessarily in the same order).
C, D and E are sitting and all of them are facing There is no female in Kolkata. There is no male
south. In row 2- P, Q, R, S and T are sitting and in Chennai. The artist stays in Kolkata. S is a
all of them are facing North. Each member sitting student and stays in Kolkata. T is a male engineer.
in a row faces another member of the other row. The Dancer and Doctor stay in Chennai. X is not
Each of them belong to different countries- India, a dancer. P stays in Kolkata. W is a Chemist and
Australia, Canada, Tokyo, Paris, Kenya, Austria, stays in Mumbai. R stays in the same city as S and
America, Africa and Netherland, but not necessarily is not an Artist.
in the same order There are only two persons
sitting between the person from India, who sits at Q.72. Where does Q stay?
an extreme end and E. P, who sits in the middle of (1) Mumbai
the row, is not an immediate neighbour of Q, who (2) Chennai
is not from Netherland. T is at an extreme end. E
from paris, sits on the immediate right of the person (3) Either Chennai or Mumbai
from Australia and faces the immediate neighbour (4) Kolkata
of Q. B is not sitting at the extreme left end. P is (5) Either Kolkata or Chennai
not from Africa. There is only one person between
Q.73. Who are the three females in the group?
84 REASONING ABILITY
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(1) W, X and P (2) R, W and X The one whose salary is third highest belongs to
(3) Q, W and X (4) R, W and Q Varanasi.

(5) None of these Q.77. Who earns highest salary in the family and posted
in which city?
Q.74. Which of the following correctly identifies the
professions of the males? (1) G - Chennai (2) H - Hyderabad

(1) Artist, Teacher, Student, Engineer (3) E - Kolkata (4) H - Kanpur

(2) Artist, Teacher, Student, Dancer (5) A - Lucknow

(3) Artist, Doctor, Chemist, Engineer Q.78. How is G related to the one whose salary is lowest
in the family?
(4) Chemist, Teacher, Dancer, Engineer
(1) Brother (2) Sister
(5) None of these
(3) Brother-in-law (4) Cousin
Q.75. Which of the following is true as per-the facts
provided? (5) None of these

(1) W is a male Chemist and stays in Mumbai Q.79. Who among of them earns fifth highest salary in
the family and what is the age that person?
(2) R is a male Dancer and stays in Kolkata
(1) C - 27 (2) E - 29 (3) F - 35
(3) T is a male Engineer and stays in Kolkata
(4) G - 30 (5) D - 35
(4) X is a female Teacher and stays in Chennai
Q.80. Who is the sister-in-law of D and earn less than how
(5) None is true many person?
Q.76. Which of the following group of person lives in (1) A - Six (2) B - Five (3) D - Five
Mumbai?
(4) F - Three (5) H - Four
(1) X, T (2) W, S (3) P, Q
Q.81. Who among of them posted in Chennai?
(4) T, W (5) P, X
(1) B (2) D (3) F
Q.77-81. Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below: (4) G (5) H

The family of eight member A, B, C, D, E, F, Q.82-85. Study the following information carefully and
G and H have a different salary. Each of them has answer the questions given below:
different age 25, 27, 29, 30, 32, 34, 35 and 37. Each Eight members of a family Avni, Arti, Ruhi,
of them posted in different city Lucknow, Kanpur, Avi, Rudra, Aditi, Ashu, and Ankit have their
Varanasi, New Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata birthday in the different months of the year. 
and Hyderabad. There are three married couples Grandfather of Aditi celebrates his birthday in
in the family and only two have a child. Every the month of August. Immediately above Avi and
husband of the family is elder than their wife in age.  immediately below Arti there are vacant months
The sister-in-law of F earns more than her husband, (There is not the birthday of any member of the
but less than C and D.  A is the brother of F who family in the month). Avi celebrates his birthday
is the husband of D. A has not the lowest Salary.  immediately before Aditi who is the daughter of
The salary of D’s husband is the fourth highest Ankit. Immediately below Ankit and immediately
and less than his daughter H who does not above Rudra who is the son of Avi there are
belong to Chennai.  The salary of G is more vacant months (There is not the birthday of any
than his father and mother but not highest.  member of the family in the month). Ashu who
D is the sister of C who is the husband of E. is the husband of Arti celebrates his birthday in
E earns less than C. A and his wife posted in one of the two consecutive months having 31
Lucknow and Hyderabad respectively.  The age days. Ankit celebrates his birthday in the month
of G is 25 years and is the son of the person who which is immediately after Aditi and is married
belongs to Mumbai. The person whose age is 35 to Avni. Ruhi is married to Avi who celebrates his
years belongs to New Delhi. The age of children birthday in the month of April. There is a vacant
in the family is the lowest and second lowest. month between Ashu and Rudra (There is not the
F is the uncle of G and belongs to Kolkata. D birthday of any member of the family in the month).
has less salary than C whose age is 30 years.  Rudra who celebrates his birthday immediately

REASONING ABILITY 85
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before Ruhi.  Ruhi is the mother of Rudra and per the given arrangement?
sister of Ankit. Arti has two children. There is not (1) Only three persons live between U and T.
the birthday of any member of the family in the
February month. (2) Only two persons live above U

Q.82. How Ankit is related to Aditi? (3) U lives on seventh floor

(1) Mother (2) Father (4) U lives on an even numbered floor

(5) None of these
(3) Sister (4) Either (1) or (2)
Q.88. Who is from Karnataka?
(5) Either (1) or (3)
(1) R (2) Q (3) U
Q.83. Who celebrate birthday in the month of December?
(4) S (5) None of these
(1) Avni (2) Rudra (3) Arti
Q.89. Who lives on the floor immediately below Q?
(4) Ruhi (5) None of these
(1) P (2) S (3) U
Q.84. Arti celebrates her birthday in which of the
following month? (4) T (5) None of these
(1) January (2) March Q.90. Who lives on the floor immediately above R?
(3) December (4) Either (1) or (3) (1) U (2) S (3) P
(5) Either (1) or (2) (4) T (5) None of these
Q.85. In each of the following month belongs to a group Q.91-95. Study the following information carefully and
in a certain way find which of the following month answer the questions given below:
does not belong to the group? There are twelve seats in two parallel rows having
(1) February (2) March (3) August five people each. There is an equal distance between
adjacent persons. In row 1, A, B, C, D and E are
(4) September (5) July facing south and in row 2, U, V, W, X and Y are facing
Q.86-90. Study the following information carefully and north. One seat is vacant in each row. Therefore, in
answers the questions given below: the given seating arrangement, each member seated
Six person P, Q, R, S, T and U live on eight in a row faces another member of the other row. All of
different floors such that ground floor is numbered them like different colours like Black, White, Cyan,
as 1 and so on up to top floor numbered as 8. Indigo, Pink, Beige, Blue, Brown, Red and Green.
They all are from different states i.e., Orissa, Y likes neither Brown nor Red. W and V are not
Telangana, Uttarakhand, Assam, Karnataka and immediate neighbours. D is immediate neighbour of A
Punjab but not necessarily in the same order. and C. One of the vacant seats is fourth to the right of E. 
Q lives on the even numbered floor but not on the C does not like Black colour. There is only one seat
top floor. R is from Orissa. No one lives between the between the persons who like Green and Cyan. 
person who is from Uttarakhand and Q. There are V either likes Black or Blue. The one who
two floors present between R and the person who likes Brown is sitting fourth to the left of U. 
is from Uttarakhand. There are two vacant floors in B and E are not immediate neighbours. The one who
the building. P is neither from Karnataka nor from likes Cyan is sitting diagonally opposite to the person
Assam. No one lives between the person who is who likes Indigo. There are only two persons sitting
from Uttarakhand and P. T is from Uttarakhand. Q between those who like Pink and White.  Either
lives above T. No one lives between R and Q. Q is A or B likes Pink. D either likes Beige or Brown.
from Telangana. Only one person is living between The one who likes Red is sitting opposite A. 
the person who is from Assam and R. U lives on an The person sitting opposite to the one who likes
odd numbered floor. There are two floors present White is also sitting immediately next to a vacant
between Q and the person who is from Punjab. U seat.
lives above R. Q.91. Who likes Green colour?
Q.86. Who lives on the top floor? (1) A (2) C (3) E
(1) U (2) R (3) P (4) Y (5) X
(4) S (5) None of these Q.92. Who is sitting opposite C?
Q.87. Which of the following is true with respect to U as (1) U (2) V (3) W
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(4) X (5) None of these the line. Z and C does not holds the rank 4th and 5th. 
Q.93. Who is sitting second to the right of the one who X rank is 7th and standing immediate right of
likes Brown colour? the person who’s rank is 5th. Y is an immediate
neighbour of both D and one of the vacant place.
(1) V (2) W (3) U The vacant places are not neighbour of each-other. 
(4) Y (5) None of these The one who’s rank is last is third to the right of
Q.94. Who is sitting on the immediate left of the person one of the vacant place.
sitting opposite V? Q.96. What is the rank of Z?
(1) A (2) C (3) D (1) 1st (2) 3rd (3) 4th
(4) E (5) Vacant seat (4) 6th (5) 8th
Q.95. Which of the following is a correct match of person Q.97. How many persons are seated between A and the
with the colour he likes? one who’s rank is 1st?
(1) A - Blue (2) C - White (3) D - Brown (1) One (2) Two (3) Three
(4) U - Cyan (5) X – Red (4) Four (5) None of these
Q.96-100. Study the following information carefully and Q.98. Which of the following represents the pairs of
answer the given question: person’s immediate neighbour of Vacant place?
Eleven persons participating in a race but (1) XB (2) ZB (3) BX
three persons are absent at the time of race. A, (4) BC (5) XY
B, C, D, W, X, Y, Z are participates and standing
in a straight line facing North, In which three Q.99. What is X’s position with respect to the one who’s
position are vacant due to absent persons. Each rank is 2nd?
person holds different rank after the race, but (1) Immediate right (2) Second to the left
not necessarily in the same order.  C is third to (3) Third to the right (4) Second to the right
the right of Z and B sits second to the right of C. 
C finished the race earlier than Z. (5) None of these
A who’s rank is 2nd is standing fourth from the Q.100. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
right end of the line. Y holds 3rd rank in race. B is way based on their seating positions in the above
an immediate neighbour of A but not holds the rank arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one
of 1st and last. that does not belong to the group?
W and X are immediate neighbour of each-other but (1) ZA (2) XC (3) CY
both of them does not stands any of the extreme end of (4) DY (5) BA
EXPLANATION
Q.1-5. Q.6.(5) Q.7.(2) Q.8.(5)
Eng. Mang. Q.9.(3) Q.10.(1)
V S
Q.11-15.
A = 70
W Q R P T Un. Married
Mang. Doct. Lawyer Teach. Lawyer ABC B = 70 20 = A = B = C
Q.1.(4) Q.2.(5) Q.3.(4) C = 90
A = 70
Q.4.(2) Q.5.(2)
ABD B = 70 15 = A = B = D
Q.6-10. January - Hockey D = 85
Febuary - Football A = 70
ABF B = 70 35 = A = B = F
March - Cricket
F = 35
April - Basketball C = 90
May - Tennis CDE D = 85 70 = C = D = E
E = 70
June - Off Month
July - Polo Total = 20 + 15 + 35 + 70 = 140 Candidates

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Q.11.(1) According to the given conditions there should L Blue
be four possible combinations – ABC, ABD,
ABF, CDE. G Purple
I White
Q.12.(3) The possible combinations are – ABC, ABD,
ABF, CDE.E is there only in CDE. Q.20. (5) Q.21.(4) Q.22.(5)
So, number of candidates who offered CDE Q.23.(5)
= number of candidates who offered E = 70. Q.24-28.
F is there only in ABF.So, number of candidates Floor Japanese School Festival Day
who offered ABF = number of candidates who
offered F = 35. 6 N S1 Onam Friday

D is there in ABD and CDE. So, Number of 5 X I1/D1 Eid Wednesday

candidates who offered ABD = number of 4 A A1 Durga Puja Monday
candidates who offered D – number of candidates
who offered CDE = 90 – 70 = 20. 3 H I1/D1 Holi Saturday

Hence, total number of candidates appeared 2 K G1 Janmashtami Thursday

= 70 + 35 + 15 + 20 = 140. 1 Y C1 Christmas Tuesday
Q.13.(2) Number of candidates who offered ABC Q.24.(2) Q.25.(3) Q.26.(1)
= 90-70= 20. Q.27.(4) Q.28.(2)
Q.14.(4) Clearly, required number of candidates Q.29-33. All of them are facing towards the centre.
= number of candidates who offered CDE = 70.
Q.15.(3) Required number of candidates = number of
candidates who offered ABF = 35.
Q.16-19. Rank 1st is the heaviest and Rank 8th is the lightest
Person Rank accord- Subject
ing to weight
S 8 Sanskrit

T   3 English Q.29.(3) Q.30.(5) Q.31.(5)
U 1 English Q.32.(3) Except option (C) second person his 2nd to the
V 6 Commerce right of first person.
Q.33.(4)
W 2 Sanskrit
Q.34-37.
X 5 English Acer
Lenovo 6
Y  7 Commerce 4
Apple
5 8 (-) 9 (+)
Z  4 Commerce
HP Microsoft
Q.16. (5) Q.17. (5) Q.18. (2) 7 10 10 (-) 11 (+) 7 (+) 4 (-)

Q.19. (3)
Samsung Dell 5 (-)
6 (-)
Q.20-23. 9 Sony 11
8
M Red
H Black Q.34.(3) Q.35. (4) Q.36. (1)
K Pink Q.37. (5)
J Yellow Q.38-42.
N Brown

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E – 3rd – Wednesday
F – 2nd – Friday
G – 1st – Monday
Q.58.(5) Q.59.(1) Q.60.(2)
Q.61.(3) Q.62.(1)
Q.63-67.
Brother/Sister
Q.38. (1) Q.39. (4) Q.40. (4) C F–
+ Niece
Q.41. (5) Q.42. (2)
Q.43-47. Wife/Husband Brother
A D+ B E
– + +
Participant Order of Colour of shirt Distance
Deepu 4 Red 27(5)
Lakhan 3 Black 35(1) G– H–
A-
Qamar 2 Green 29(4)
G- F-
Kiran 5 Brown 33(2)
Boni 1 Blue 31(3)
C+ D+
Q.43.(1) Q.44.(1) Q.45.(1)
Q.46.(3) Q.47.(1) H- B+
Q.48-52. 7 – S – Tokyo E+
6 – Q – Sydney Q.63.(2) Q.64.(4) Q.65.(1)
5 – V – France Q.66.(3) Q.67.(2)
4 – P – America Q.68-71. Canada Paris Australia Austria India
3 – U – Canada Row 1: B E C A D
2 – T – Australia
1 – R – Egypt Row 2: Q R P S T
Q.48.(2) Q.49.(5) Q.50.(1) Africa Tokyo America Kenya Netherland
Q.51.(2) Q.52.(5) Q.68.(3) Q.69.(4) Q.70.(2)
Q.53-57. 8 – P – Physics Q.71.(1)
7 – T – Biology Q.72-76. Q, W and X are female members.
6 – S – English Person Profession City
5 – V – Maths P Artist Kolkata
4 – R – History Q Dancer Chennai
3 – Q – Geography R Teacher Kolkata
2 – U – Hindi S Student Kolkata
1 – W - Chemistry T Engineer Mumbai
Q.53.(3) Q.54.(4) Q.55.(1) W Chemist Mumbai
X Doctor Chennai
Q.56.(2) Q.57.(1)
Q.72.(2) Q, X, W are female members.
Q.58-62. A – 1 – Tuesday
st

Q.73.(3) Q, X, W are female members.

B – 2nd – Thursday
Q.74.(1) Q.75.(5) Q.76.(4)
C – 1st – Sunday
Q.77-81.
D – 3rd – Saturday
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A 7 Lucknow 34 30 November Ruhi
B 6 Hyderabad 32 31 December Avni
C 3 Varanasi 30 Q.82.(3) Q.83.(1) Q.84.(1)
D 5 New Delhi 35 Q.85.(3)
E 8 Mumbai 29 Q.86-90.
F 4 Kolkata 37
8 S ASSAM
G 2 Chennai 25
7 U KARNATAKA
H 1 Kanpur 27
– + – + + – 6 R ORISSA
E C D F A B 5
+ – 4 Q TELANGANA
G H
3 T UTTARAKHAND
Q.77.(4) Q.78.(5) Q.79.(5) 2
Q.80.(2) Q.81.(4) 1 P PUNJAB
Q.82-85. Q.86.(4) Q.87.(3) Q.88.(3)
Arti Ashu Q.89.(4) Q.90.(1)
Q.91-95.

Avni Ankit Ruhi Avi

Aditi Rudra

Number of Days Months Members of Family
31 January Arti Q.91.(4) Q.92.(5) Q.93.(4)
28/29 February Q.94.(5) Q.95.(4)
31 March Q.96-100.
30 April Avi
31 May Aditi
30 June Ankit
31 July
31 August Ashu
30 September Q.96.(4) Q.97.(1) Q.98.(4)
31 October Rudra Q.99.(5) Q.100.(4)

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CHAPTER

8 ADVANCED puzzle

This chapter includes a combination of many chapters both are facing each other and both
with new patterns. Here we get the new form of circles, of them have Kim as their neighbour.
squares, triangle and rows puzzles which are based on Phu is facing Chun. Jim is not third to the right of
double, triple and so on patterns as-well-as the new form Kim. The door is in between of Chi and the one
of “distance-direction” questions and the puzzle which is who is on the immediate right of Chun. Chin is on
based on DI. the baseline of the triangle.
Note- Some questions of puzzles are also based on “missing Q.1. Who are adjacent to Sim?
information” and “combination of many variables”. (1) Chun and Kim (2) Chun and Jim
Reference Figures of Circle, Square & Triangle- (3) Chu and Jim (4) Can’t say
(5) None of these
Q.2. Who is an odd one out?
(1) Chun (2) Chin (3) Chu
(4) Phu (5) No one
Q.3. The main gate is between whom?
(1) Kim and Chin (2) Kim and Chi
(3) Chu and Chin (4) Anyone of the above
(5) None of these
Q.4. Who is exactly between Kim and Jim?
And so on……… (1) No one (2) Chi (3) Chun
AN EXAMPLE OF NEW FORM OF (4) Chin (5) None of the above
TRIANGLE Q.5. Who is on the triangle?
Q.1-5. Study the following information carefully and (1) Chi (2) Chum (3) Chin
answer the question given below. (4) Chun (5) None of the above
There are two figure one is an equilateral triangle Q.1-5.
and another is a pentagon having all sides equal.
sim jim
A triangle is embedded within the Pentagon in
such a way that no two lines of the two different
figures are parallel to each other. There are eight
persons viz: Phu, Chu, Chi, Chun, Chin, Jim, Kim chun phu chu chi
and Sim. There is a door on one of the sides of the
Pentagon. Pentagon has a person at each corner chin main
while a triangle has on the middle of its side in such gate

a way that all the three persons within the triangle

are facing outside the centre and the persons kim -
of the Pentagon are facing inside the centre. Q.1.(2) Q.2.(1) Q.3.(2)
Phu and the two persons whose name start with
‘C’ are seated on the sides of the triangle and Q.4.(2) Q.5.(3)
only one of them having the name of four letters. Ex.6-8. Study the given information carefully and
Chun sits third to the right of Chi and answer the given questions.

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A Sol.6.(5) Sol.7.(5) Sol.8.(3)

F B
Ex.9-13. Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below.
A definite number of persons are sitting around
a circular table facing towards the centre and
E C the other side their nine friends have nine cars
– Nano, Creta, Verna, Polo, Brezza, Duster,
D WagonR, Captur and Amaze, which were parked
Two equilateral triangle overlap each other in in a circular parking lot which has space to park at
such a way that they form a star of regular sides. It least 10 cars. There are two circles, one circle is
has Six corner vertices- A, B, C, D, E and F; and inside another circle. Cars are parked in the outer
Six intersecting edges. All intersecting edges and circle and people are sitting in the inner circle.
vertices forms a triangle as shown in the figure. In Wagon R and Polo were parked at a gap of 5
each triangle a person is sitting viz. Neha, Kanak, spots and only one car is parked on one of those
Naman, Chaman, Gagan and Tapan; But not 5 spots. V sits fourth to the left of Q. Q is one
necessarily in the same order. Each of the person of the immediate neighbours of R. Polo is parked
is facing to the midpoint of the star. second to the left of Captur and is at a gap of 3
Note- The midpoint of the star is O. spots from Duster. Only three persons sit between
P and R (from one side only). Amaze is parked on
Chaman is not sitting in that triangle whose vertex the immediate right of Duster. Only five persons
is E. Only two triangle between the triangle in sit between T and S when counted from the left
which Tapan and Kanak are sitting. The triangle of T. U sits second to the left of T. The number
in which Kanak is sitting is exactly between those of spots between Creta and Brezza, when counted
triangles in which Neha and Chaman are sitting. from the left of Creta, is one more than the number
Naman and Kanak are sitting in those triangles of spots between Brezza and Amaze when counted
whose vertices are D and F respectively. from the right of Amaze. Only three persons sit
Ex.6. Which of the following is sitting in that triangle between R and T (from one side only). Brezza is
whose vertex is B? parked adjacent to Nano and is second to the left of
(1) Tapan (2) Neha (3) Chaman WagonR. Not more than four persons sit between
V and U when counted from left of U. Verna is
(4) Naman (5) Gagan parked at a gap of 1 spot from Duster. Only 2 cars
Ex.7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain were parked between Nano and Duster, but Nano
way based on their seating positions and so form is not parked adjacent to Verna. Only six persons
a group. Which of the following is different from sit between T and Q counted from one side only.
the group? V is not an immediate neighbour of T. Not more
than 2 spots were there between Brezza and Verna
(1) B-Neha (2) D-Chaman (3) A-Naman
when counted from the right of Verna.
(4) C-Kanak (5) E-Tapan
Ex.9. What is the total number of persons sitting around
Ex.8. Naman is sitting in that triangle whose vertex is the circular table and what is the position of Creta
____. with respect to Polo?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (1) 11, Fourth to the right
(4) A (5) F (2) 8, Second to the right
Sol.6-8. (3) 10, Third to the left
A
(4) 12, Fourth to the left
F
KANAK GAGAN
B (5) Cannot be determined
Ex.10. What is the position of R with respect to V and
how many vacant spots were there between
NEHA TAPAN WagonR and Duster, when counted from the left
E C
NAMAN
of WagonR?

D
(1) Third to the left, 3
92 REASONING ABILITY
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(2) Seventh to the right, 5 a successive multiple of 5 (integral values).
(3) Sixth to the right, 7 Distance between A and C was twice that of the
(4) Seventh to the left, 2 distance between F and D. Distance between B
and A was 120 m and not more than 3 persons were
(5) None of these standing in between them. D was to the immediate
Ex.11. How many persons sit between P and Q, when left of B. Distance between D and G was 65 m.
counted from the left of Q and what is the position C was 95m to the right of E. G moved for 50 m
of Captur with respect to Nano? in South direction, took a left turn, moved for 75
m, took a left and moved for 20 m and stopped at
(1) 2, Eighth to the left
point Z. F moved for 40 m in South direction, took
(2) 6, Seventh to the right a left turn, moved for 50 m, took a left turn, moved
(3) 4, Sixth to the left for 10 m and stopped at point X. S was standing 55
m west of point Z. He moved 45 m towards west
(4) 5, Fifth to the left
and stopped at point Y. 
(5) None of these
Ex.14. What was the distance between points X and Y?
Ex.12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
(1) 10m (2) 15m (3) 20m
way and thus form a group. Which of the following
does not belong to the group? (4) 25m (5) 30m
(1) UR (2) QV (3) TV Ex.15. Who among the following was standing third to
the right of D?
(4) PU (5) QR
(1) B (2) G (3) E
Ex.13. How many car(s) are parked between Creta and
Verna, when counted from the right of Verna and (4) A (5) C
how many cars can be parked in the parking lot? Ex.16. What was the original distance between D and E? 
(1) One, 12 (2) Two, 14 (3) Three, 17 (1) 90m (2) 100m (3) 105m
(4) Four, 15 (5) Five, 18 (4) 110m (5) 115m
Sol.9-13. Ex.17. How much should G walk to reach his original
position?
R
gon

(1) 75m east, 30 m north

Cr
Wa

et a (2) 35m west, 30m north, 40m east

za
U Brez (3) 55m west, 30m north, 20m west
Q
T R (4) 30m north, 85m west
Nano
(5) None of the above
o
Po l P
V
S Ex.18. Who among the following were standing at the
Vern extreme ends? 
Am a
tur

az (1) A, B (2) C, F (3) C, A

Du

e
Cap

(4) C, B (5) F, A
ste

Sol.9.(3) Sol.10.(4) Sol.11.(3) Sol.14-18.

F D B G E A C
Sol.12.(5) Sol.13.(3) 25m 30m 35m 40m 45m 50m
Ex.14-18. Study the following information carefully 40m Z
X 5 10 50m
10 Y 25 20 S 20 3S 20m
and answer the questions given below: 25m 25m
40m 35m
Seven Members A, B, C, D, E, F and G were
standing in a row facing north but not necessarily Sol.14.(2) Sol.15.(3) Sol.16.(3)
in the same order. The distance between each was Sol.17.(1) Sol.18.(2)

REASONING ABILITY 93
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exercise
Q.1-5. Study the following information carefully and (3) Four places below
answer the question given below. (4) Two places above
(5) Cannot be determined
M Q.5. How many floor can be vacant?
A
(1) Eight (2) Seven (3) Nine
(4) Ten (5) Eleven
K O
Q.6-10. Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below.
L
Eight Cars Audi, BMW, Chevrolet, Daikon, Ekon,
Building-1 Building-2 Building-3 Ford, Gemballa and Honda city are participating in
There are three buildings 1, 2 and 3. Each building a race. All are standing at a distance of 1 km, 2 km,
has 7 floors and if the floor is occupied then there 3 km, 4 km, 5 km and 6 km, from their immediate
will be only one person. There are five floors cars but not necessarily in the same order.
between B and D. There are three floors between * Two Cars are at the same distance of 5 km from
S and R. Neither S nor R lives on the top and the their immediate cars. Car BMW is 3 km left of Car
bottom floor. Chevrolet and 6 km away from Car Ford.
P does not live in building-1 and he lives one of * Car BMW is standing immediately between
the floors above either K or O but not at the top. Car Ekon and Car Gemballa at 5 km and 2 km
N lives immediately below the floor on which J respectively. Car Honda city is 4 km left of Car
lives. There is one floor between J and O. Ekon.
Q.1. If B and D live in building-3 then S and R will live * Car Chevrolet is second to the left of Car Daikon.
in which of the following buildings? Car on the extreme left is 10 km away from Ekon.
(1) Building-1 * Car Honda city starts moving towards the
(2) Building-2 south and after going 3 km; it takes right turn and
covered 2 km to reached point M.
(3) Building -3
* Another Car Kia, which moves more than 3 km
(4) Either Building-1 or Building-2 but less than 8km towards the north of point M
(5) None of these (also divisible by 3), going X km towards east and
Q.2. If P lives below the either S or R then how many stops at point K. If X is the shortest distance of Car
persons live between P and K? Audi and Car Honda city last position.

(1) One (2) Two (3) None * Car ‘Chevrolet’ moves 3 km towards north
direction, and then takes a left turn and goes 5 km
(4) Three (5) Either One or None straight. Then it turns again to its right direction
Q.3. If T lives immediately above H then H lives in and moves another 7 km and halts at point ‘Y’.
which of the following building? Q.6. What is the shortest distance of Car Kia and Car
(1) Building-1 Chevrolet (From their new Position)?
(2) Building-2 (1) √13 Km (2) √65 Km (3) 11 Km
(3) Building-3 (4) 2√65 Km (5) None of these
(4) Either Building-1 or Building-2 Q.7. How many Cars are there in between Cars ‘Ekon’
and ‘Daikon’?
(5) Cannot be determined
(1) Two (2) Five (3) Six
Q.4. If S and R live in building-2 and M is immediately
below the either B or D then what can be the (4) Four (5) None of these
position of U with respect of P in building-2? Q.8. What is the new position of Car ‘Honda city’ with
(1) Immediately below respect to the Car ‘Audi’?
(2) Immediately above (1) 5√6 km towards north-west
94 REASONING ABILITY
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(2) 5 km towards south-east 2. If an odd number is followed by an even
(3) 6 km towards east number then the one’s places of all the two-
digit numbers are deleted and, tenth place are
(4) 4 km towards west multiplied to get the outcome.
(5) None of these 3. If the wire contains 2 prime number, then
Q.9. What is the position of Car ‘Chevrolet’ without the tenth’s place is deleted from each of the
turning to the right with respect to point ‘Y’? two-digit number and remaining number are
multiplied.
(1) 5√5 km towards south-east
4. If no above logic is followed, then simple
(2) 5 km towards north-east
outcome is addition of the numbers.
(3) 7 km towards south
Q.11. If x = #C %D #A #E, then which light blink?
(4) 10 km towards north
(1) S (2) Q (3) P
(5) None of these
(4) R (5) Either R or S
Q.10. Which Car will be met first, if Car ‘Chevrolet’
Q.12. If X = +A +C #D %B, then which light blink?
moves in the west direction before turning to the
right? (1) S (2) Q (3) P
(1) Gemballa  (2) Kia (3) Ekon (4) R (5) Either R or S
(4) BMW (5) None of these Q.13. If X = #A%E %A +B, then which light blink?
Q.11-15. Study the following information carefully and (1) S (2) Q (3) P
answer the question given below. (4) R (5) Either R or S
In a 3*5 matrix which can produce signals which Q.14. If X =+A#B+D%C, then which light blink?
in turn help in the illumination of some lights. The
row of the matrix is denoted by +, % and # from (1) S (2) Q (3) P
bottom to top and the columns are denoted by the (4) R (5) Either R or S
alphabets A, B, C D and E from left to right. Q.15. If X = +E#D+D#E, then which light blink?
+ row contains numbers which are consecutive (1) S (2) Q (3) P
multiple of 7, starting from 28 (from left to right).
(4) R (5) Either R or S
% row contains numbers which are consecutive
multiple of 11, starting from 11 (from left to right). Q.16-18. Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below.
# row contains numbers which are consecutive
multiple of 13, starting from 13 (from left to right). H%S (28) - H is 42m in the north of S.
The matrix helps in producing signals which can H$S (13) - H is 27m in the south of S.
be either a single wire of number X or two-line H#S (24) - H is 38 in the east of S.
wire X and Y. There are 4 lights P, Q, R and S.
H&S (25) - H is 39m in the west of S.
Based on the outcome of the wire is mentioned
Note: Symbols describe only direction and
above one of the light blinks.
numbers describe only distance by applying a
Condition for blink: certain method.
1. If the outcome is below 85, then light P will M#L (10), N%M (11), O&N (13), P$O (31), Q#P
blink. (38), R%Q (6)
2. If outcome range is 85-110, then light Q blinks. Q.16. N is in which direction with respect to Q?
3. If outcome range is 111-210, then light R blinks. (1) North (2) West (3) North-west
4. If outcome is greater than 210, then light S (4) East (5) South-east
blinks.
Q.17. If Z is the midpoint of the line formed between M
For outcome of the wire: and R, then what is the distance between L and Z?
1. If the wire has all even numbers, then outcome (1) 35.5m (2) 34m (3) 36.5m
of the wire is obtained by adding all the numbers.
(4) 37.5m (5) None of these

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Q.18. What is the distance between L and R? There are 6 players in each team and each day 2
(1) 50 m (2) 51 m (3) 46 m players are playing from each team.

(4) 48 m (5) 49 m Player K, whose runs are not more than 60 and not
less than 45, does not play on Tuesday.
Q.19-20. Study the following information carefully to
answer the questions that follow. Neither H nor D is the players of team 2 and
team 4 and their runs are not more than 75 and
The questions are based on the following coding not less than 15. They do not play on Tuesday and
formats- Wednesday but belong to the same team.
# - West M and U belong to the same team and their runs
@ - East are 45. X’s run is 35 with O.
% - South Maximum and Minimum runs are not scored by
T and L. They belong to the same team and their
$ - North
runs are less than 75 and more than 40.
* - Either 2 or 5 m
F and G do not belong to Team-1 and Team-3 and
& - Either 7 or 10 m their runs are fourth highest in all teams.
Examples: S and P belong to that team in which the sum of
K%L means K is South of K. their runs is 120 and S plays before P. W plays
on Monday with A. Y and Z’s runs are the perfect
K$#L means K is North-West of L.
square of a number. V’s run is more than 75.
K#*L means K is West of L at a distance of either
Q.21. If B’s run is less than 75 and more than 15 then he
2 or 5 m.
belongs to which team?
Conditions are given as:
(1) Team-1 (2) Team-2 (3) Team-3
a. Z#&Y b. Z#$X
(4) Team-4 (5) Cannot be determined
c. X%Y d. X#*W
Q.22. If L belongs to Team -4 then what is the sum of his
e. V%&W f. U#*V runs with P?
g. T#&U h. T%&Z (1) 65 (2) 80 (3) 105
Q.19. Given X#W, distance between X and W = 5m, (4) 55 (5) 75
X$U. Find the distance between V and X.
Q.23. C and E play on the same day with the same team
(1) 8.6 m (2) 3.5 m (3) 4.6 m then what is the name to their team?
(4) 2.2 m (5) Cannot be determined (1) Team-1 (2) Team-2 (3) Team-3
Q.20. If U%#X, then which of the following is true (4) Team-4 (5) Cannot be determined
regarding points Z and Y?
Q.24. What is the average of the sum of runs scored by
(1) Z#Y (2) Z%Y (3) Z@Y players T and W?
(4) Z$Y (5) None of these (1) 140 (2) 70 (3) 45
Q.21-25. Study the following table carefully and answer (4) 60 (5) 120
the questions given below.
Q.25. Four of the following five are alike in the same
way and hence form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to the group?
(1) H D S V X F (2) W A M U X O
(3) T V O F G Y (4) F G Y Z P K
(5) W A H D T G
Q.26-30. Study the following information carefully and
answer the question given below.
There are eight autos A to H and the last four digits
numbers on their number plates are 18_0, 3 _61,

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_412, 7_33, 9_ 61, 54_2, 73_2 and 9_1_ but not (1) D – 1890 – Q (2) E – 7533 – P
necessarily in the same order. One/Two digit (s) is/ (3) G – 73_2 – L (4) H – 3412 – S
are missing in each auto number plate. To find the
digit you have to apply the following mathematical (5) A – 9112 – O
operation. Q.28. What is the number of the number plate of Auto F?
The number on the number plate of Auto C in (1) 3_61 (2) 54_2 (3) 7533
which the sum of the first and last digits is equal to
(4) 9 _ 61 (5) 9112
its mid numbers.
Q.29. Which passenger is travelling in auto D?
The number on the number plate of Auto H in
which the product of the first and second digits is (1) Q (2) B (3) R
equal to its last two digits. (4) P (5) H
The number on the number plate of Auto E which Q.30. What is the difference between the numbers on the
contains only prime numbers. Auto E also has a number plate of Auto C and H?
number 5 on its number plate.
(1) 5700 (2) 5000
The number on the number plate of Auto G in
(3) 4500 (4) Cannot be determined
which the digits are in descending order from left
to right. The number on the number plate of Auto (5) None of these
D in which the first two numbers are multiplied by Q.31-35. Study the following information carefully and
5 then we get the last two numbers as multiples of answer the question given below.
that number.
Name of the eight persons of a Khan’s mother-in-
The number on the number plate of Auto A in laws’ family are Pratheep, Qadir, Rakesh, Sahana,
which the digit is neither in ascending nor in Tanvir, Udyam, Vanita and Wahab were born in
descending order and also not ending with digit 2. different years 1987, 1989, 1991, 1992, 1993,
The number on the number plate of Auto F is 1994, 1997 and 1999 but not necessarily in the
starting with digit 9. same order. The present age can be calculated
based on the year 2018. Name of the eight persons
Each auto has one passenger among K to S.
of a Khan’s father-in-laws’ family are A, B, C,
The Passenger M is travelling in the auto which D, E, F, G and H but not necessarily in the same
has a total sum of all digits of the number plate is order and they live in a ten-story building with two
25. vacant floors. The ground floor is numbered one
The Passenger O does not travel in an auto that has and the topmost floor is numbered tenth. They are
even number on the number plate. travelling to separate locations viz. London, New
York, Paris, Las Vegas, Dubai, Dublin, Berlin and
The Passenger P travels in that auto whose number
Delhi. The following information is known about
plate ends with the digit 1.
them.
The Passenger Q travels in that auto whose sum of
Sahana is 5year old in 1998. B, who is neither
the first and last digits of the number of the plate
going to Dubai nor Delhi, is residing on an even-
number is 11.
numbered floor. There is a difference of one year
The Passenger S and R travel in that auto whose between the ages of Sahana and Tanvir. Three
sum of all digits in the number plate are 10 and 18 members are living between the floors of G and D.
respectively. G’s floor is above D. Either G or D travels to Berlin.
Q.26. If passenger K travels in that auto whose sum of C, who is residing on the 5th floor, is travelling to
the first and second digits of the number plate is either New York or Dubai. There is a difference
10, then what is the number of the number plate of of eight years between the ages of Rakesh and
Auto B? Udyam. Two people reside between H’s floor
and a vacant floor. Rakesh is three years elder to
(1) 73_2 (2) 54_2 Tanvir. H lives on a floor below one of the vacant
(3) 3412 (4) Cannot be determined floors. The person travelling to London is residing
(5) None of these immediately above the person who is travelling to
Paris. A and E have the same number of members
Q.27. Which of the following combination is correct? between them as between A and F. Pratheep’s age

REASONING ABILITY 97
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is neither divisible by 2 nor 3.Vanita is younger to placed in a row. G’s vessels names are A1, B2,
Qadir. F is either travelling to Delhi or Dublin, but C3, D4, E5 and F6. G’s vessels have contained
neither residing on 7th floor nor on the 10th floor. different volumes of Milk from 1 to 6 litres but
E is residing immediately above the person who not necessarily in the same order. G’s vessels are
is travelling to Dublin. G is travelling to Dubai. differentiated with respect to following colours
Udyam is two years elder to Wahab. Blue, Green, Red, Black, Purple and Yellow but
Q.31. What is the age of Sahana in the year 2016 and not necessarily in the same order. Consider all
which of the following describes the vacant floors? the vessels are facing north direction. These eight
persons have different ages (in years) – 7, 10, 13,
(1) 23 years and 1st, 10th 18, 28, 30, 36, and 42 but not necessarily in the
(2) 24 years and 9th, 5th same order.
(3) 26 years and 10th, 2nd The vessel D4 and the vessel E5 are at a gap of
two vessels. G is sitting second to the left of the
(4) 25 years and 8th, 4th
one who is 18 years old. The vessel F6 is third to
(5) None of these the right of Black coloured vessel. Two persons
Q.32. Who among the following is/are elder to Qadir? are sitting between G and B. The Purple coloured
vessel is the thrice the volume of Milk as in the
I. Only Pratheep.
Vessel E5. The person having age 13 is sitting
II. One who was born in 1989. immediate right of B. The vessel C3 is second to
III. One who was born in 1993. the left of the vessel having 6 litres of Milk. D
is the immediate neighbour of B. G is as much
(1) Only I (2) Only I and III younger than D as he is older than H. The vessel
(3) Only I and II (4) Only I, II and III D4 is placed exactly between the Red coloured
(5) None of these vessel and the vessel A1. None of G, H, and D
is sitting immediately to one another. C is sitting
Q.33. How many persons are younger than Vanita and third to the right of the one who is 7 years old. The
who goes to Dublin? Green vessel has 4 litres of Milk and it is at either
(1) One, F (2) Two, B (3) Three, A of the extreme ends. A is sitting second to the
(4) Four, E (5) None of these right of the one who is 36 years old. At least three
persons are sitting between G and A. F is sitting
Q.34. What is the age difference between Udyam and third to the right of the one who is 10 years older
Qadir and how many floors lie between A’s and than him. A is not the oldest. The total volume of
E’s floors? Milk in the vessel F6 and the volume of Milk to its
(1) 8 and 4 (2) 7 and 1 (3) 6 and 2 immediate right are equal to the volume of Milk in
the vessel A1. The vessel D4 has 3 litres of Milk.
(4) 10 and 3 (5) None of these
The Blue vessel has more volume of Milk then
Q.35. Which of the following persons born in a leap year vessel E5.
and whose floors lie between H’s and D’s floors?
Q.36. Four of the following five are alike and thus form
(1) Pratheep, People travelling to London, Paris, a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
New York and Berlin. the group?
(2) Tanvir, People travelling to Paris and New (1) A (2) E (3) G
York.
(4) D (5) F
(3) Vanita, Person travelling to Berlin.
Q.37. What is the position of the one whose age is 28
(4) Wahab, People travelling to London and years with respect to the one who is the oldest
Berlin. among all?
(5) None of these (1) Second to the left (2) Third to the left
Q.36-40. Study the following information carefully and (3) Second to the right (4) Third to the right
answer the question given below.
(5) Immediate left
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting
Q.38. Which among the following vessels has 6 litres
in a straight line facing north and the person G
Milk and which among the following vessels is
of this family has six vessels which were also
placed 2nd to the left of Purple coloured vessel?
98 REASONING ABILITY
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(1) Blue coloured vessel, The vessel with 2 litres opened in the topmost window. Two of the seven
Milk students study Accounts, two study Computer
(2) Yellow coloured vessel, The vessel with 3 Science and one each studies MCA, Finance and
litres Milk Textile Designing. J studies Accounts in SMU and
his brother I studies MCA in IGNOU. H studies
(3) Black coloured vessel, Vessel E5 Finance in the same college as D.
(4) Purple coloured vessel, Vessel C3 Q.41. How many windows are opened between Ask and
(5) Can’t be determined Yahoo and which of the following pairs of students
study Computer Science?
Q.39. What is the difference between the ages of D and
C? (1) None and D, A (2) One and F, L
(1) 20 (2) 29 (3) 8 (3) Two and L, A (4) Three and H, F
(4) 15 (5) 30 (5) None of these
Q.40. Who among the following is 30 years old? Q.42. Which of the following subjects is surfed on Bing
and what is the study field of F?
(1) C (2) G (3) A
(1) Zoology and Accounts
(4) F (5) None of these
(2) Marketing and MCA
Q.41-45. Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below. (3) Chemistry and Computer science
A, D, F, H, J, I and L are seven students who are doing (4) Physics and Finance
a course from different colleges, viz SMU, PTU and (5) None of these
IGNOU. EThe student D has opened seven windows
in a college computer and has kept them in a form Q.43. Zoology is surfed in which of the following
of a stack. He is surfing seven different subjects windows and which of the following groups
i.e. Maths, Physics, Chemistry, Biology Zoology, represents girls?
Marketing, and Geography, in seven different search (1) Lycos and D, L, F (2) Yahoo and H, D, I
engines viz. Yahoo, Bing, MSN, Lycos, Ask, Alexa (3) Ask and L, D, A (4) Alexa and F, A, J
and Google. The window which is on the front of the
screen is the topmost tab. (5) None of these
Each of the girls studies in the three different Q.44. Which of the following windows is opened above
colleges. F studies in the same college as A, who the Lycos windows and in which of the following
studies Textiles Designing in PTU. There are three colleges do three students study?
windows between the search engines Lycos and (1) Bing and IGNOU
MSN. Neither F nor L studies Accounts. The girl
(2) Alexa and SMU
who studies Accounts does not study in IGNOU.
Search engines Ask and Alexa are running in the (3) Ask and SMU or PTU
top and bottom windows. No girl studies Finance (4) MSN
or Textile Designing. Biology and Chemistry
(5) None of these
are open in the windows which are below the
window in which Alexa search engine is running Q.45. Which of the following subject(s) is/are surfed
but not in the bottom window. There are three between Chemistry and Biology and in which of
girls among these seven students. There are two the following colleges does D study?
windows between the window in which D is (1) Only Geography, PTU
surfing Biology and the window in which Bing
Search Engine is running. Geography is opened (2) Only Physics, IGNOU
in Google Search engine. The window in which (3) Maths and Zoology
D is surfing Physics is just above the window in (4) Physics and Geography, SMU
which MSN Search engine is running. There are
two windows opened between the window in (5) None of these
which the search engine Yahoo is running and the Q.46-50. Study the following information carefully and
window in which Zoology is opened. Physics is answer the questions given below.
not opened in Bing Search engine. Marketing is There are nine people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X
REASONING ABILITY 99
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are sitting around a triangular table, in such a way Q.50. If E and B interchange their positions then who faces
that three people sit at the corner of the table, pairs E and who are the immediate neighbours of U?
of remaining persons sit on each side of the table. (1) C and Q, R (2) D and S, P
The one who sits at the corner facing outside the
centre. The one who sits on the side of the table (3) F and Q, S (4) A and W, Q
facing towards the centre. Another eight people (5) None of these
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a
Q.51-55. Study the following information carefully and
rectangular table in such a way that four of them
answer the questions given below.
sit at the four corners and four of them sit along
the side of the table. The person who sits at the There are eight brothers Jack, Kamal, Lav, Manoj,
corner of the table facing the centre. The person Namish, Om, Pankaj, Qutub and 8 sisters Radha,
who sits on the side of the table facing outside the Sita, Tina, Uma, Vina, Wahiba, Xara, Yasmin
centre. are sitting on the two rectangular tables but not
necessarily in the same order. The rectangular tables
Note- The triangular table is inside the rectangular
are such that one is small and second is large with
table but the rotation of any table is not allowed.
small inside the larger one. The persons sitting on
V sits second to the left of X. Number of persons the outer rectangular table are facing the centre and
sits between Q and R is equal to the number of the persons sitting on the inner rectangular table are
persons sits between S and P. A sits fourth to the facing outside the centre. In each rectangle, four
left of D. S sits second to the right of Q. B sits third persons are at the corner and four are in the middle
to the left of E. B is not the immediate neighbour of the sides. So in this way, brothers and sisters are
of A and D. C and F are immediate neighbours. G facing each other when they are sitting in the same
sits third to the left of F. U sits fourth to the right of place on the table. All the sisters are aged from 1
T. G does not sit any corner of the table. S sits one to 8 and all the brothers are aged from 31 to 38.
of the corners of the table. E is not the immediate No two sisters or two brothers are adjacent to each
neighbour of A. R is an immediate neighbour of S. other in either of the rectangles.
W sits third to the left of X.
Uma is younger than Sita and the difference
Q.46. Who sits diagonally opposite to E on the between their ages is 2. Uma’s brother is not
rectangular table and who sits exactly between W Manoj. Sita, who is not an immediate neighbour of
and P on the triangular table when counted anti- Lav. Radha is the sister of Pankaj and faces inside
clockwise direction from W? the rectangle. Radha’s age is divisible by 5. Only
(1) B, X (2) F, S (3) A, U one person sits between Wahiba’s brother and
Qutub, whose sister is Vina, whose age is a perfect
(4) E, Q (5) None of these cube. Three persons sit between Namish’s sister
Q.47. P sits between ____ and _______. and Wahiba, whose age is half of Xara. The one,
(1) T, Q (2) X, Q (3) X, U whose age is 38 doesn’t face inside the rectangle.
Lav’s sister is neither Sita nor Uma and she is
(4) X, T (5) None of these youngest among eight sisters. Only three people
Q.48. Which of the following statements is false? sit between Tina’s brother and Kamal, whose age
is 34. Jack is the brother of the sister, whose age
(1) Only two persons sit between F and G when
is 3. Namish is older than Qutub and both of them
counted clockwise direction from F.
ages are prime numbers. Manoj, whose age is 32
(2) B and F are diagonally opposite to each other. years, doesn’t face inside the rectangle and Lav’s
(3) A sits to the immediate right of C. age is divisible by 11. Namish is the brother of
Xara, whose age is 6 and sits on the immediate left
(4) F and E are immediate neighbours.
of Pankaj’s sister. Tina is the sister of Om, whose
(5) All are true age is a perfect square and sits on the immediate
Q.49. Which of the following persons faces inside of the right of Vina’s brother.
triangular table? Q.51. Who among the following pairs represents the
(1) V (2) Both X and R oldest and the youngest brother respectively?
(3) R (4) P (1) Only Qutub and Namish
(5) S (2) Only Jack and Pankaj

100 REASONING ABILITY

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(3) Only Pankaj and Qutub neighbour of F. C is an immediate neighbour of G.
(4) Only Qutub and Kamal D and Q are facing to each other. Z is an immediate
neighbour of U and sitting in front of K. S is infront
(5) Cannot be determined of O and W. L is sitting in front of U who is sitting
Q.52. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way third to the right of that person who is exactly ahead
and hence form a group. Which of the following of D. N is not an immediate neighbour of Q. B is
does not belong to the group? not the neighbour of H. P is infront of R.
(1) Radha (2) Sita (3) Yasmin Q.56. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on their seating positions and so form
(4) Tina (5) Uma
a group. Which of the following is different from
Q.53. What is the sum of the ages of Wahiba’s brother the group?
and Om’s sister?
(1) PWM (2) REW (3) NFR
(1) 36 (2) 39 (3) 44
(4) LUB (5) MKV
(4) 42 (5) Cannot be determined
Q.57. Who among the following persons sits exactly
Q.54. Who among the following represent the sisters of behind that person who is sitting second to the
Manoj and Kamal respectively? right of T?
(1) Uma and Sita (2) Yasmin and Sita (1) Person who is sitting behind T.
(3) Xara and Yasmin (4) Sita and Uma (2) Person who is sitting second to the left of D.
(5) None of the above (3) Person who is sitting third to the right of B.
Q.55. Who among the following are the immediate (4) Person who is sitting behind Q.
neighbours of Sita?
(5) None of these
(1) Lav and the one whose age is 35.
Q.58. Who among the following persons is sitting
(2) Manoj and the one whose age is 37 second to the right of that person who is sitting in
(3) Qutub and the one whose age is 35 front of H?
(4) Namish and the one whose age is 38 (1) The person who is sitting in front of H.
(5) None of the above (2) The person who is sitting between Z and U.
Q.56-60. Study the following information carefully and (3) The person who is sitting in front of A.
answer the question given below: (4) The person who is sitting behind M.
Twenty four persons are sitting around three (5) None of these
circular tables as one is incentre to another
Q.59. Who among the following person sits between
one. All of them are facing towards the centre.
those persons who are sitting in front of V and K?
Eight persons- L, M, N, P, Q, R, S and O are
(Meaning of in front = face to face).
sitting around the innermost circular table;
Eight persons- G, H, I, A, B, C, D and J are (1) L (2) M (3) P
sitting around the outermost circular table; and (4) E (5) C
remaining Eight persons- E, F, K, T, U , V, W
and Z are sitting around the middle circular table. Q.60. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
Note- The persons who are sitting on the outermost way based on their seating positions and so form
table are sitting exactly behind the persons who a group. Which of the following is different from
are sitting around the middle circular table and the group?
the persons who are sitting on the middle circular (1) LSPN (2) UFKZ (3) JCAD
table are sitting exactly behind the persons (4) FETV (5) BJIR
who are sitting around the inner circular table.
K is not sitting behind of R. F is sitting forth to the Q.61-65. Study the given information carefully and
right of W. D and H are sitting behind W and V. S is answer the following questions.
not an immediate neighbour of L and Q. I is not an
Eight people C, D, E, F, R, T, U and S are sitting
immediate neighbour of H and A. E is sitting exactly around a circular table facing the centre. Each
between L and G. G is sitting forth to the left of I. of them has different salaries (per annum) i.e,
U is not sitting in front of J.  K is not an immediate 250000, 292000, 275000, 209000, 230000,
REASONING ABILITY 101
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165000, 197000 and 224000 but not necessarily in (4) The one who lives on 8th floor.
this order. All persons live on a different floor of (5) The one who lives on 1st floor.
an 8-storey building (numbering start from bottom
to top). Q.63. How many person sits between U and E?
1. The one who has the least salary and the one (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2
who has the highest salary is an immediate (4) 3 (5) Can’t be determined
neighbour of each-other in the building.
Q.64. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
2. R is third to the left of the person who has way as regard to their position in the above
250000 salary. arrangement, which is the one that does not belong
3.  Only one person sits between R and the one to the other four?
whose salary is 292000. (1) U (2) T (3) R
4.  C sits third to the right of T whose salary is (4) D (5) C
292000.
Q.65. Choose the right combination.
5. Only three people sit between C and the one
(1) U - 224000 - 8th floor
who has the second highest salary.
(2) R - 275000 - 2nd floor
6. Neither R nor C gets 165000 or 275000 as
salary. (3) T - 292000 - 6th floor
7.  D is second to the left of the person who has (4) D - 292000 - 7th floor
the second lowest salary. (5) S - 209000 - 5th floor
8.  U is an immediate neighbour of the one who Q.66-70. Study the following information carefully and
gets 224000 as salary. answer the questions given below.
9.  E is an immediate neighbour of both F and There are eight boxes namely H to O are placed
S. S is third to the right of the one who gets in a rack one above the other and each box has
209000 as salary. different fruits – apple, orange, banana, grapes,
10. U lives on the topmost floor and E lives on the watermelon, peach, apricot and blackberry. The
1st floor. lowermost rack is numbered as 1 and above is 2
and so on. Each of the boxes is having different
11. One who has 224000 salary lives on the 2nd
colours among Blue, Green, Yellow, Brown,
floor.
White, Orange, Indigo and Red. Each of the
12. F lives on the 3rd floor. boxes is having different serial numbers among
13. One who has 292000 salary lives on the 6th 19, 23, 17, 31, 34, 37, 27 and 21. All the above
floor. information is not necessarily in the same order.
14. One who has 275000 salary lives just above The box, whose serial number is prime number,
T’s floor. contains apple. The box, whose serial number is 34,
contains grapes. There are three boxes are placed
15. One who has 209000 salary lives just below between the box whose serial number is 27 and the
S’s floor. Indigo coloured box. Box J’s serial number is not
Q.61. Who is having salary of 230000? 27. The Indigo coloured box is placed adjacent to
(1) The one who lives on 3rd floor the blue coloured box. The box I’s serial number
is 37 and doesn’t placed at the topmost rack. The
(2) The one who lives on 4 floor box whose serial number is a cube of 3, contains
(3) The one who lives on 5 floor Blackberry. Box M is Yellow-coloured and
placed adjacent to the Red-coloured box. Box H
(4) The one who lives on 6 floor
is placed in the even-numbered rack above fourth
(5) The one who lives on 7 floor and it is placed adjacent to the box whose serial
Q.62. Who is sitting second to the right of D? number is 31. Not more than five boxes are placed
above the Red-coloured box. Box J is placed in
(1) T
the seventh rack and Box H is placed adjacent to
(2) D Box J. Two boxes are placed between the boxes
(3) S having serial number 21 and 34. Box J is White-

102 REASONING ABILITY

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coloured. Maximum numbers of boxes are placed (5) None of these
between the Brown-coloured box and Orange- Q.68. In a certain way Box O is related to serial number
coloured box. Box H is not Brown coloured. Box 17, Box H is related to serial number 34 and in the
L is Green coloured and it is placed adjacent to same way Box M is related to which among the
the Orange coloured box. Box N’s serial number following serial number?
is 21 and placed in the lowermost rack. The box,
whose serial number is 23, is placed three boxes (1) 21 (2) 23 (3) 37
above the Yellow-coloured box. Box O’s serial (4) 27 (5) None of these
number is 19. The box, whose serial number is 17,
Q.69. Which of the following statements is true?
is placed above the box whose serial number is 34.
Box O does not contain banana, orange and apple. (1) Only two boxes are placed below Box M.
The box whose colour is blue has apricot in it. The (2) The number of boxes is placed between Box K
box whose sum of digits of the serial number is and Box I is same as Red and Green coloured
10 has orange in it. The box whose serial number box.
is completely divisible by 3 has peach in it. The
(3) Box L and Box K are placed adjacent to the
white box does not contain apple.
box whose serial number is 34.
Q.66. What is the serial number of Box H?
(4) Box H is placed two boxes above the Red
(1) 23 (2) 33 (3) 17 coloured box.
(4) 27 (5) None of these (5) None of these
Q.67. Which among the following combination is true? Q.70. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
(1) Box N-Brown-21-1st rack and hence form a group. Which of the following
does not belong to the group?
(2) Box M-Yellow-34-3rd rack
(1) Box L-27 (2) Box M-34 (3) Box H-23
(3) Box K-Blue-31-5th rack
(4) Box O-19 (5) Box K-31
(4) Box O-Orange-19-8th rack
EXPLANATION
Q.1-5. Chevrolet
new position
1 (a) 1 (b) Y
Kia
B/D B/D new position 7km

S/R M S/R P* M Kia 5km 4km 5km

A P* J A P* J Honda City Ekon BMW Gemballa 3km

P* N P* N Audi 6km 4km 5km 2km 1km 3km 5km

O O Chevrolet Ford Daikon

K K 3km 3km

S/R S/R 4km M 2km

L B/D L B/D new position

Building-1 Building-2 Building-3 Building-1 Building-2 Building-3 Honda City

Q.6.(2) Q.7.(4) Q.8.(2)

2 (a) 2 (b)
Q.9.(3) Q.10.(2)
B/D B/D Q.11.(3) From the above-given conditions the matrix will
S/R M S/R P* M be---
A P* J A P* J
P* N P* N Rows /Column A B C D E
# 13 26 39 52 65
K O K O
% 11 22 33 44 55
S/R S/R +
28 35 42 49 56
L B/D L B/D
Building-1 Building-2 Building-3 Building-1 Building-2 Building-3
X = #C %D #A #E
Q.1.(4) Q.2.(5) Q.3.(5) So, X = 39 44 13 65
Q.4.(5) Q.5.(3) Condition (2)
Q.6-10. Outcome = 3*4*1*6 = 72

REASONING ABILITY 103

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As the outcome is below 85, so clearly light P X = +E#D+D#E
will blink. So, X = 56 52 49 65
Q.12.(4) From the above-given conditions the matrix will Condition (4)
be---
Outcome= 56+52+49+65=222
Rows /Column A B C D E
# 13 26 39 52 65 As the outcome is greater than 210, then light S
% 11 22 33 44 55 blink.
+ 28 35 42 49 56 Q.16-18.
O 27m N
X = +A +C #D %B
So, X = 28 42 52 22 25m

Condition (1) Z
R
L 24m M
Outcome=28+42+52+22=144
45m
As the outcome is 111-210, so clearly light R
will blink. 20m

Q.13.(3) From the above-given conditions the matrix will

be---
P Q
Rows /Column A B C D E 52m
# 13 26 39 52 65 H%S = 28 + 14 = 42, N%M = 11 + 14 = 25,
% 11 22 33 44 55
+ 28 35 42 49 56 R%Q = 6 + 14 = 20 H$S = 13 + 14 = 27,

P$O = 31 + 14 = 45 H#S = 24 + 14 = 38,
X = #A%E %A +B
M#L = 10 + 14 = 24, Q#P = 38 + 14 = 52
So, X = 13 55 11 35
H&S = 25 + 14 = 39, O&N = 13 + 14 = 27
Condition (3)
Q.16.(3) Q.17.(3) Q.18.(5)
Outcome= 3*5*1*5= 75
Q.19.(1)
As the outcome is below 85, so clearly light P
will blink.
Q.14.(4) From the above-given conditions the matrix will
be---
Rows /Column A B C D E
# 13 26 39 52 65
% 11 22 33 44 55
+ 28 35 42 49 56

X = +A#B+D%C
So, X = 28 26 49 33

Condition (4) Q.20.(1)

Outcome= 28+26+49+33=136
As the outcome is 111-210, so clearly light R
will blink.
Q.15.(1) From the above-given conditions the matrix will
be---
Rows /Column A B C D E
# 13 26 39 52 65
% 11 22 33 44 55 Q.21-25.
+ 28 35 42 49 56

104 REASONING ABILITY

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Monday Tuesday Wednesday Q.41-45.
Bottom Window
Team-1 65 (H, D) 55 (T, L) 75 (_, _)
Ask - Maths
Team-2 80 (S, V) 40 (P, _) 50 (K, _)
MSN - Biology
Team-3 85 (W, A) 45 (M, U) 35 (X, O)
Yahoo - Physics
Team-4 25 (Y, Z) 65 (F, G) 15 (_, _)
Google - Geography
Q.21.(2) Q.22.(4) Q.23.(5) Bing - Chemistry
Q.24.(2) Q.25.(2) Lycos - Zoology

Q.26-30. Alexa - Marketing

Top Window
Auto No plate Passenger
A 3_61 P
B 73_2/54_2 K/L (+) → Male, (–) → Female
C 9112 Q Students Institute Course
D 1890 R Computer
(–) F PTU
Science
E 7533 O Textile
(+) A PTU
F 9_61 M Designing
(+) J SMU Accounts
G 73_2/54_2 K/L
(+) I IGNOU MCA
H 3412 S (+) H SMU Finance
Q.26.(4) Q.27.(4) Q.28.(4) (–) D SMU Accounts
Q.29.(3) Q.30.(1) Computer
(–) L IGNOU
Science
Q.31-35. Q.41.(2) Q.42.(3) Q.43.(1)
Person Floor City
Present age Q.44.(2) Q.45.(4)
Vacant 10 Born Year [2018] Person
Q.46-50.
F 9 Delhi 1987 31 Pratheep G
G 8 Dubai 1989 29 Rakesh A B
H 7 London 1991 27 Qadir
A 6 Paris 1992 26 Tanvir V

C 5 New York 1993 25 Sahana X

T W
R
D 4 Berlin 1994 24 Vanita C H
E 3 Las Vegas 1997 21 Udvam P S
Q U
B 2 Dublin 1999 19 Wahab
Vacant 1 F D
E

Q.31.(1) Q.32.(4) Q.33.(2) Q.46.(5) Q.47.(2) Q.48.(5)

Q.34.(3) Q.35.(2) Q.49.(2) Q.50.(3)
Q.36-40. Q.51-55.
Sita 4
Persons H E G C F B D A Qutub 31 Jack 35
Age Vina Manoj Wahiba
7 28 10 42 18 36 13 30
(in years) 8 32 3
Tina 7 36 34 Uma 2
Person G’s vessels 6 38 1
Vessels
C3 E5 B2 F6 D4 A1 Xara Pankaj Yasmin
(North) Lav 33
Milk (Liters) 5 2 6 1 3 4 Namish 37 Radha 5
Color Black Yellow Purple Red Blue Green
Q.51.(3) Q.52.(3) Q.53.(4)
Q.36.(4) Q.37.(1) Q.38.(4)
Q.54.(4) Q.55.(3)
Q.39.(2) Q.40.(3)
REASONING ABILITY 105
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Q.56-60. U / 197000

H R / 224000 T / 292000

C W J
K T
O Q
P 209000 / C 275000 / D
G E L M U I
V R
S
V Z
F / 230000 S / 165000
D F B
E / 250000
A
Q.61.(1) Q.62.(4) Q.63.(4)
Q.56.(4) Q.57.(2) Q.58.(4) Q.64.(4) Q.65.(3)
Q.59.(2) Q.60.(5) Q.66-70.
Q.61-65.
Rack Box Color Serial Number Fruits
Floor Member 8 Box O Brown 19 watermelon
8 U 7 Box J White 23 Banana
6 Box H Indigo 17 apple
7 D
5 Box K Blue 31 apricot
6 T 4 Box M Yellow 34 grapes
5 S 3 Box I Red 37 orange
4 C 2 Box L Green 27 blackberry
3 F 1 Box N Orange 21 peach
2 R Q.66.(3) Q.67.(3) Q.68.(4)
1 E Q.69.(4) Q.70.(3)

NOTES

106 REASONING ABILITY

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CHAPTER

9 DATA SUFFICIENCY Question : How is M related to O?

I. M is the son of O (A) II. M is the cousin of N

Only I alone is sufficient

I. O is the cousin of N (B) II. M is the son of O

‘Data Sufficiency’ deals with the questions where we need Only II alone is sufficient
to check whether the given data is sufficient to answer the I. M is the brother of O (C) II. N, M and O are three brother
question rather finding the complete solution. To work
quickly on data sufficiency one must have proper knowledge Either I alone or II alone
of topics like Blood Relation, Order and Ranking, Direction, I. M is the brother of N (D) II. N is the brother of O
Sitting Arrangement etc.
Both I and II together
CHECK are not sufficient.
NO NEED TO GET
ONLY SUFFICIENCY I. M is the brother of O (E) II. N is the brother of P
THE ANSWER
OF DATA
Both I and II together
Options play a crucial role in Data Sufficiency. sufficient to answer.

To solve the question treat all the statements individually. Based on Two statements
There are three types of questions in data sufficiency: Ex.1. Among Friends A, B, C, D and E each having a
different weight, Who is the heaviest?
1. Based on Two statements
I. D weights more than only two people E
2. Based on Three statements weights more than A but less than B.
3. Based on Four statements II. A weights more than C but less than E. E is
not heavier than B.
EXAMPLES:
Sol.(5)
Ex.1-5. Following questions given below consist of a From I From II
question followed by two statements labelled as I _>_>D>_>_ E>A>C
and II. B > E >A B>E
Give answer : Hence position of heaviest Hence also position of heaviest
person is not clear. person is not clear as no data
(1) If statement I, alone is sufficient to answer the is provided for 'D'.
question. ∴ When we join both these statements I and II,
we get the answer.
(2) If statement II, alone is sufficient to answer
the question. B>E>D>A>C
Ex.2. How is ‘stage’ coded in the given code language ?
(3) If statement I or II alone is sufficient to answer
the question. I. In the code language ‘stage is ready’ is coded as
‘ne sa ta’ and ‘ready to go’ is coded as ‘ja ta la’.
(4) If statements I and II together are not sufficient II. In the code language ‘stage it today’ is coded
to answer the question. as ‘mu sa ye’ and ‘it will today’ is coded as
(5) If statements I and II together are needed to ‘ru mu ye’.
answer the question. Sol.(2) From Statement I- It is clear that alone it is not
Understand Options with Example : sufficient. From statement II- It is clear as ‘it’ and
‘today’ is common. Hence, II alone is sufficient.
Question : How is M related to O?
Ex.3. Amongst five friends seated in a straight line facing
I. M is the son of O (A) II. M is the cousin of N North, Is B sitting at the extreme end ?
Only I alone is sufficient I. B, D are immediate neighbours of each other.
I. O is the cousin of N (B) II. M is the son of O Similarly E, C are also immediate neighbours
of each other. A sits exactly in the middle of
Only II alone is sufficient the line. D is not sitting at any end.
I. M is the brother of O (C) II. N, M and O are three brother
REASONING ABILITY 107
Either I alone or II alone

I. M is the brother of N (D) II. N is the brother of O

Both I and II together

are not sufficient.
I. M is the brother of O (E) II. N is the brother of P

Both I and II together

sufficient to answer.
www.mahendras.org
II. A who sits exactly in the middle of the line is So, By merging statement I and II together, we get
second to the left of C. B is not an immediate the T’s floor.
neighbour of A.
Sol.(3) From statement I
A B
A

From statement II
Hence, Both statement I and II together are
E/D E/D necessary to answer the question.
Hence, either (i) or (ii) are sufficient to the answer.
Based on Three statements
Ex.4. Is X the wife of Y?
Ex.6-13. Each of the questions below consists of a question
I. X is the mother of M, is the only sister of R. and three statements numbered I, II and III given
R is the son of Y. below it. You have to decide whether the data
II. The mother of Y has only one grandson R and provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
only one child. R is not the son of X. the question.
Sol.(3) From statement (I) X is not the wife of Y due to Ex.6. How many daughters does W have ?
X is the daughter of Y. I. B and D are sisters of M.
II. M’s father T is husband of W.
From statement (II) III. Out of the three children which T has, only
one is a boy.
(1) Only I and III
M (2) All I, II and III are required to answer the
Hence, from statement I or II alone are sufficient
to answer the question. question.
Ex.5. In a six storey building (consisting of floors numbered (3) Only II and III
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6). The ground floor is numbered 1, (4) The question cannot be answered even with
the floor above is 2 and so on building houses lives all I, II and III
different people viz. P, Q, R, S and T, each living on (5) Only I and II
a different floor. On which floor does T live ? Sol.(3)
I. Only S lives between the floors on which R T = W
and T live and fifth floor is vacant.
Father
II. There are two floors between T’s floor and Q’s
floor and Q is not on first and sixth floors. M B D
(+) (–) (–)
Sol.(5) From statement (I), the floor on which T lives is
(–) = Female
not clear.
(+) = Male
Ex.7. Who among A. B, C, D, E and F each having a
different height, is the tallest?
I. B is taller than A but shorter than E.
II. Only two of them are shorter than C.

III. D is taller than only F.
From statement (II), the floor on which T lives is
not clear. (1) Only I and II
(2) Only I and III
(3) Only II and III
(4) All I, II and are required to answer the
question
(5) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer
the question
108 REASONING ABILITY
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Sol.(4) E>B>A (1) Only I (2) Only II
D>F (3) Only III (4) Only I and III
C>?>? (5) All I, II and III
Ex.8. How is ‘go’ written in a code language ? Sol.(2)
I. ‘now or never again’ is written as ‘tom ka na Ex.11. What is the date of birth of Rohit?
sa’ in that code language. I. Riya, a friend of Rohit, remembers that Rohit's
II. ‘you come again now’ is written as ‘ja ka ta date of birth is neither even nor prime number.
sa’ in that code language II. Rashi correctly remembers that Rohit's date of
III. ‘again go now or never’ is written as ‘na ho birth is after 17th September but before 22nd
ka sa tom’ in that code language September.
(1) Only I and III III. Rohit's brother remembers that Rohit's
(2) Only II and III birthday is after 20th September but before
24th September.
(3) Only I and II
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(4) All I, II and III are required to answer the
question (3) Only I and III (4) Any two out of three
(5) None of these (5) All I, II and III
Sol.(1) Sol.(4)
Ex.9. Towards which direction is village J from village Ex.12. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is the heaviest if each
W? has a different weight?
I. Village R is to the west of Village W and to I. Q is lighter than P but heavier than S and T.
the north of Village T. II. P is not the heaviest.
II. Village Z is to the east of Village J and to the III. T is heavier than S.
south of Village T. (1) Only I (2) Only I and III
III. Village M is to the northeast of Village J and (3) Only III (4) All I, II and III
north of Village Z.
(5) None of these
(1) Only III
Sol.(5) Only I and II
(2) Only II and III
Ex.13. If Ayana ranks 25th from the top in her class what
(3) All I, II and III are required to answer the is the rank from the bottom?
question
I. Nirvi is three ranks above Ayana.
(4) The question cannot be answered even with
II. Nirvi's rank is 22nd from the bottom and 23rd
all I, II and III
from the top in the same class.
(5) None of these
III. Nirvi is three ranks below Ayana in a class of
Sol.(5) Only I and II 44 students.
R W (1) Either I or II (2) Either II or III
(3) Either I or III (4) All I, II and III
T (5) All I, II and III are not sufficient
Sol.(2) Either II or III are alone sufficient to the answer.
J Z Based on Four statements
Ex.10. Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a circle. Are all of Ex.14-16. Each of the questions below consists of a question
them facing the centre? and four statements numbered I, II, III and IV have
I. Q is sitting second to the right of R. S is facing given below it. You have to decide whether the data
the centre and sitting second to the left of R. provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
II. S and T are facing each other. T is sitting question. Choose your answer according to options.
second to the right of U, who is sitting second Ex.14. Six persons – Gopal, Durga, Megha, Vedant, Jayant
to the left of Q. and Kripal appeared in an examination then who
III. U and T cannot sit adjacent to each other. scored second highest?

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I. Jayant scored higher than Kripal but lower III. Vedant > Durga > Gopal > Megha > Jayant > Kripal
than Megha, who scored lower than Gopal. We can get an answer by either II or III.
Gopal scored lower than only two persons.
So, the option (5) is correct.
II. Gopal scored higher than Jayant but lower
than Vedant who scored third lowest. Kripal Ex.15. Among seven boxes – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are
scored higher than only three persons. Durga placed from top to bottom which box is placed on
is the highest scorer. the top?
III. Megha scored higher than only two persons. I. P is placed two boxes above R. There are two
Jayant scored higher than only Kripal. Durga boxes between P and Q. Q is not placed at the
scored higher than Gopal but not the highest. top or bottom.
IV. Vedant scored highest and Jayant scored II. Q is placed three boxes above P but not at the
lowest. Megha scored third-highest score in top. S is placed two boxes above U which is
the group. Gopal scored higher than Durga not placed at the bottom.
but not the highest. III. Q is fourth from the bottom and is placed three
(1) Only I boxes above P.
(2) Only III IV. There are two boxes between Q and S. T is
(3) Both I and IV together placed just below Q.
(4) Only IV (1) Only I (2) Only II
(5) Either II or III (3) Only III (4) Both III and IV together
Sol.(5) Option (1) (5) Both I and II together.
____ > ____ > Gopal > Megha > Jayant > Kripal Sol.(4) Option (1)
Here, either Durga or Vedant could be the one who Case 1 Case 2 Case 3 Case 4
scored the second highest. Box Box Box Box
Clearly, Statement I alone is not sufficient to P
answer the question. Q P
Option (2) P R
Vedant > Durga > Gopal > Megha > Jayant > Kripal R Q
Here, we can surely say that Durga  scored the P R Q
second highest. Q
Clearly, Statement III alone is sufficient to answer R
the question. Here, all of the boxes (except R and Q) can be
Option (3) placed on the top.
I. ____ > ____ > Gopal > Megha > Jayant > Kripal Clearly, Statement I alone is not sufficient to
IV. Vedant > ____ > Megha  > ____ >   ____ > answer the question.
Jayant  Option (2)
Not possible. Case 1 Case 2 Case 3 Case 4 Case 5
Option (4) Box Box Box Box Box
IV. Vedant > ____ > Megha  > ____ >   ____ > S - S - -
Jayant  Q Q - - S
U - U S Q
Here, either Kripal or Gopal could be the one who
- S Q Q U
the scored second highest.
P P - U -
Clearly, Statement IV alone is not sufficient to
- U - - P
answer the question.
- - P P -
Option (5)
Here, we will make a mental note that box Q is
II. Durga  >  Megha  > Kripal > Vedant > Gopal  not placed on the top and box S is not placed on
> Jayant  the bottom.
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Clearly, Statement II alone is also not sufficient III. Sahil walked 15 meters towards the sun in
to answer the question. the morning, then turned right and walked 5
Option (3) meters and after that he turned left and walked
2 meters.
Box
IV. Sahil walked 10 meters towards the north and
-
then walked 12 meters towards his left and
- then turned right and walked 20 meters.
-
Q (1) Only I (2) Only II
- (3) Only III (4) Either II, III or IV
- (5) Only IV
P
Sol.(4) Option (1)
Clearly, Statement III alone is also not sufficient
Here, we have no information about the direction
to answer the question.
in which Sahil started walking so we cannot find
Option (4) the answer.
Box Clearly, Statement I alone is not sufficient to
S answer the question.
- Option (2)
- Starting
Q point
T
- 5m
15m
P
Clearly, both statements III and IV together are 9m
sufficient to answer the question.

Option (5)
Option (3)
Case A Case B Starting 15m
Box Box point
S 5m
Q Q
2m
U
Option (4)
S
P P We can get the answer from either II, III or IV.
Hence option (4) is correct.
U
Option (5)
R R
Here, any of the boxes among S, T and V can be
placed on the top.
Clearly, both statements I and II together are not 20m
sufficient to answer the question.
Ex.16. What is Sahil's direction with respect to the starting
point?
12m
I. Sahil walked 12 meters and then turned right
and after walking 18 meters, he walked 15
10m
meters in the west direction.
II. Sahil walked 5 meters towards South and then
turned right and walked 15 meters. After this, Starting
he turned left and walked 9 meters. point

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EXERCISE
Q.1-5. Each of the questions below consists of a question (1) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient
and two statements numbered I and II given below to answer the question, while the data in
it. You have to decide whether the data provided statement II alone is not sufficient to answer
in the statements are sufficient to answer the the question.
question. Read both the statement and. (2) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient
Give answer- to answer the question, while the data in
(1) If statement I, alone is sufficient to answer statement I alone is not sufficient to answer
the question. the question.
(2) If statement II, alone is sufficient to answer (3) If the data either in statement I alone or in
the question. statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
(3) If statement I or II alone is sufficient to answer
the question. (4) If the data in both the statements I and II
together are not sufficient to answer the
(4) If statements I and II together are not sufficient
question.
to answer the question.
(5) If the data in both the statements I and II
(5) If statements I and II together are sufficient
together are sufficient to answer the question.
to answer the question.
Q.6. What does ‘ra’ mean in the code language?
Q.1. Who among the six of them is the tallest if Geeta
is taller than Shilpa and Deepa is taller than Meeta I. ‘st qm ra’ means ‘why do this’ and ‘qm ms st rt’
? (Sunita and Sadhana are the other two). means ‘this is why does’ in that code language.
I. Sadhana is taller than Sunita. II. ‘ka tv ne ra’ means ‘that’s only the reason’
and ‘vw wx si ra’ means ‘only you can do’ in
II. Sadhana is taller than Shilpa and Meeta as
that code language.
well as Deepa.
Q.7. How is R related to S?
Q.2. How is ‘see’ written in the code language ?
I. S, the cousin of R, is the niece of N.
I. ‘hope to see you’ is written as ‘3 6 9 2’, ‘do
you see that’ is written as ‘1 9 7 3’. II. W is sister of S who is the wife of O. O is the
father of R.
II. ‘to pray and hope’ is written as ‘0 2 8 6’ and
‘hope I do well’ is written as ‘5 4 6 7’ Q.8. What is X’s rank in the class of 34 students?
Q.3. Is Jaya a sibling (brother or sister) of Rishi ? I. S, who is 9th from the top in the class is above
R by 12 ranks who is below X by 5 ranks.
I. Jaya’s mother Shalini is the only daughter of
Rishi’s father. II. N, who is between X and Q, is 15th from the
bottom.
II. Rishi’s father has a daughter Smita who is the
sister of Jaya. Q.9. Is Q greater than V?
Q.4. Town P is toward which direction of town T ? I. U > B > N, M < N < V, Q > U < E
I. Town T is towards South of town K which is II. Y > U > N, N < M > V, Q < U > E
towards west of town P. Q.10. Who is shortest among Abhay, Bharti, Tina,
II. Town R is towards south of town V and Deepak and Elisha, When Elisha is neither tallest
towards East of town T. nor shortest.
Q.5. How is 'N' related to'M'? I. Abhay is taller than more than two persons
but not tallest.
I. 'O' is the husband of 'N'.
II. Tina is shorter than more than two persons
II. 'Z' who is the sister or brother of 'M' is the
but not the shortest.
daughter of 'N'.
Q.11-13. Each of the following questions below consists
Q.6-10. Each of the following questions below consists
of a question and two statements numbered I and
of a question and two statements numbered I and
II given below it. You have to decide whether the
II given below it. You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to
data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer the question. Read both the statements and
answer the question. Read both the statements and
give answer.
give answer.
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(1) Only I is sufficient Q.15. A, Z, Y, X, W and V are sitting in a row and facing
(2) Only II is sufficient same direction. Who among them is at the left end
of the row?
(3) Both I and II are sufficient
I. Z is to left of Y and to the right of W. Y is between
(4) Either I or II is sufficient
Z and V. X is at the right end of the row.
(5) Both I and II are not sufficient
II. A is sitting between W and Z. Y is second to
Q.11. Is R third tallest among P, Q, R, S & T? the left of V. W is sitting one of the extreme
I. S is shorter than Q. P is shorter than only T. ends of the line.
II. Q is taller than only S. T is taller than P and R. Q.16. Six person A, D, C, S, T and U each of them have
Q.12. In which direction is point Q with reference to different height. Is A taller than S?
point R? I. D is taller then A and S. C is shorter than D.
I. Point S is to the east of point Q. Point Q is to Only one person is taller than U.
the south of point P. II. Only one person is smaller than S. T is taller
II. Point P is to the north-west of point R. Point than A and C, but shorter than U and D.
S is to the north of point R. Q.17. Is Q the father of A?
Q.13. In a certain code language, what will be the code I. M is the mother of A and B. C is the only sister
of “good”? of A. R is married to B. R is the daughter-in-
I. “Some way good people” is written as “2e 6d law of Q.
5m 7q” and “good is right way” is written as II. Q has only one daughter C. C is the sister of
“7p 4e 6d 7q”. A and B. B is the son of M. R is the daughter-
II. “google is a way” is written as “6d 4e 1m in-law of M.
2a” and “google is good enough” is written Q.18-20. The question given below contains three statements
as “4e 7q o8 1m”. giving certain data. You have to decide whether
Q.14-17. Each of the questions below consists of a question the data given in the statements are sufficient for
and two statements numbered I and II given below answering the question. Mark answer-
it. You have to decide whether the data provided (1) If statement I and either II or III are sufficient.
in the statements are sufficient to answer the (2) If statements I and II together are sufficient.
question. Read both the statements and indicate
(3) If statement I alone is sufficient or both
the answer.
statements II and III together are sufficient.
(1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient
(4) If all statements I, II and III together are not
to answer the question, while the data in
sufficient.
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer
the question. (5) If statements I and III together are sufficient.
(2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient Q.18. How is Mohan related to Anita?
to answer the question, while the data in I. Anita is the only daughter of Mohan’s mother’s
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer husband.
the question II. Mohan is the son of Suresh who is the father
(3) If the data either in statement I alone or in of Sumit.
statement II alone are sufficient to answer the III. Anita is the only daughter of Sumit’s father.
question.
Q.19. In which direction A started walking?
(4) If the data given in both the statements I and
I. A walks 4 km then takes left turn and walks 5
II together are not sufficient to answer the
km then takes the right turn and walks 7km.
question.
II. A is north-west of his house.
(5) If the data in both the statements I and II
together are sufficient to answer the question. III. After reaching the final point he found that his
shadow is towards his right and its morning.
Q.14. Is town P is the north of town T?
Q.20. How many candidates are facing outside of the centre
I. Town T is towards South of town which is
in a circular table where A, B, C, D and E are seated?
towards West of town P.
I. A is facing towards the centre and second to
II. Town R is towards South of town P and
the left of C.
towards East of town T.
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II. D is second to the right of C and E is an in statement III are not required to answer the
immediate right of D. B is second to the left question.
of E but not facing towards the centre. (2) If the data in statement I and III together are
III. D is third to the left of C and E is second to sufficient to answer the question, and the data
the right of D. in statement II are not required to answer the
Q.21-27. The following questions consist of two/three question.
statements which are given below the question. (3) If the data in any two statement are sufficient
You have to decide if the data provided in the to answer the question.
statements are sufficient to answer the question. (4) If the data in all three statements together are
Read all the statements and give the answer. needed to answer the question.
Q.21. Among A, B, C, D and E seated in a row facing (5) If the data in all the statements, even together
north, who sits at the extreme end of the row? are not sufficient to answer the question.
I. B sits second to the left of A. E is not an Q.24. What is the position of ‘O’ with respect to ‘R’
immediate neighbour of B. among eight persons who are sitting around a
II. A sits third to the left of D. B sits on the circular table facing opposite to the center?
immediate right of C. I. R is second to the left of S and immediate
III. D sits second to the right of A. B sits on the neighbour of T.
immediate left of C. II. P is third to the right of T and is immediately
(1) Only I and II together are sufficient left of N.
(2) Only II is sufficient III. There are two persons sitting between M and
(3) Only I and III together are sufficient O who is neighbour of N.
(4) Only III is sufficient (1) If the data in statement I and II together are
sufficient to answer the question, and the data
(5) All are required
in statement III are not required to answer the
Q.22. Among eight friends Ram, Ravi, Rakesh, Rajesh, question.
Rajendra, Ramesh, Rahim and Raghav are sitting
(2) If the data in statement II and III together are
around a circular table facing centre. What is the
sufficient to answer the question, and the data
position of Ramesh with respect to Ram?
in statement I are not required to answer the
I. Ram is sitting between Rahim and Rakesh. question.
Rajendra and Rakesh are sitting opposite to
(3) If the data in any two statement are sufficient
each other.
to answer the question.
II. Rajendra is sitting second to the right of
(4) If the data in all three statements together are
Ramesh who is in front of Rahim.
needed to answer the question.
III. Ramesh is sitting second to the right of Rakesh.
(5) If the data in all the statements, even together
(1) Only I is sufficient are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) Only I and II together are sufficient Q.25. Who scores highest among J, K, L, M and N?
(3) Only I and either II or III is sufficient I. Score of J is more than M but less than L.
(4) Only II and either I or III is sufficient II. J scores less than only N.
(5) All are necessary III. Score of two persons lies between N and K.
Q.23. There are six floors in a building number 1 to 6, in (1) If the data in statement I and II together are
which ground floor number is '1' and above floor sufficient to answer the question, and the data
is 2 and so on last top floor numbered is '6'. Who in statement III are not required to answer the
lives on the top floor among A, B, C, D, E and F? question.
I. There are two persons live between C and D. (2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient
II. There are three persons live between C and to answer the question but data in statement
B. I and III together are not sufficient to answer
III. A lives above C while E lives above F. the question.
(1) If the data in statement I and II together are (3) If the data in any two statement are sufficient
sufficient to answer the question, and the data to answer the question.
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(4) If the data in all three statements together are (3) Both I and III are sufficient to the answer.
needed to answer the question. (4) All I, II and III are sufficient to the answer.
(5) If the data in all the statements, even together (5) None of these
are not sufficient to answer the question.
Q.28. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a
Q.26. How is B related to L? line. Is all of them are facing the north?
I. B is married to A who is father of C. I. D is sitting second to the left of F. C is sitting
II. C is the only daughter of A and sister-in-law second to the left of D. There is one person
of K. sitting between E and B.
III. L is the daughter of K who is married to M. II. F is sitting at one of the extreme ends of the
(1) If the data in statement I and II together are line. C is sitting second to the right of A. B is
sufficient to answer the question, and the data not an immediate neighbour of A.
in statement III is not required to answer the III. E is sitting third to the left of D, neither of
question. them is sitting at the extreme end of the line. B
(2) If the data in statement I and III together are is sitting second to the left of F who is facing
sufficient to answer the question, and the data North.
in statement II are not required to answer the Q.29. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle
question. facing centre. Who is sitting third to right of C?
(3) If the data in any two statement are sufficient I. A is not an immediate neighbor of C. H is
to answer the question. sitting third to the left of F.
(4) If the data in all three statements together are II. B is sitting second to the left of G. E is sitting
needed to answer the question. immediate right of G. A is sitting opposite D.
(5) If the data in all the statements, even together III. There is one person sitting between H and C.
are not sufficient to answer the question. F is sitting second to left of D. There is one
Q.27. Is N sits east of ‘E’? person sitting between G and H.
I. G is to the East of H who is North of I. Q.30. If the six persons A, B, C, D, E and F who is sitting
at the second position from right end of row? (All
II. N is 4m south of L and 4m east of I.
are facing north direction)
III. L is 2m north of G and 5m north-west of E.
I. F does not sit at the corner. B is the only
(1) If the data in statement I and II together are neighbour of A. There are two people sitting
sufficient to answer the question, and the data between F and C.
in statement III are not required to answer the
II. D is sitting to the immediate left of C.
question.
III. There is an equal number of persons sitting
(2) If the data in statement II and III together are
between A and F as that between F and D.
sufficient to answer the question, and the data
in statement I are not required to answer the Q.31. In which direction is point E with respect to the
question. point K?
(3) If the data in any two statement are sufficient I. A is 4 m to the west of B, B is 4 m to the north
to answer the question. of C. D is 5 m to the east of C.
(4) If the data in all three statements together are II. D is 3 m to the south of E. G is 5 m to the east
needed to answer the question. of F. F is 2 m to the south of D. H is 4 m to
the south of G.
(5) If the data in all the statements, even together
are not sufficient to answer the question. III. J is 7 m to the west of K. D is 4 m to the north
of K. L is 8 m to the south of J.
Q.28-32. The following questions consist of three statements
which are given below the question. You have to Q.32. Who is the tallest among six friends – A, B, C, D,
decide if the data provided in the statements are E and F, all having different heights?
sufficient to answer the question. Read all the I. A is taller than only C and D. F is taller than
statements and give answer. B.
(1) Only I is sufficient to the answer. II. F is not the tallest.
(2) Both I and II are sufficient to the answer. III. E is taller than B and C is not the shortest.

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Explanation
Q.1.(4) Both statements I and II are not sufficient to the Total = 34
answer.
th
9
Q.2.(5)
S
Q.3.(3) From Statement (I). X 12th
R th
5

S R From statement (II)
J Total = 34
From statement (II)
X/Q
N
X/Q
R S J 15th

Q.4.(1) From statement (I),
N Q.9.(4)
× ×

P Q.10.(4) From statement (I) E A E

K
W E × ×
From statement (II) E T
E
T
After merger (I & II) D/B A E T D/B
S
From Statement (II), Q.11.(3) From statement (I)
T P
and
V Q S

T R From statement (II)

T P/R P/R Q S
Q.5.(5)
After merger (I & II)
I. O N
T P R Q S
N
II.
Q.12.(3) From statement (I)
Z M
Considering both the statement it is clear that N P
is mother of M.
Q S
Q.6.(3)
From statement (II)
Q.7.(4) From statement (I)
P/
P/ S
N
P/
S R R
From statement (II) After merging (I & II)
P
W S O
Q S

R
Q.8.(1) From statement (I)
R
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Q.13.(3) Only I and III are sufficient.

Q.14.(3) I. No, Town P is the north-east of town T N

A
II. No, Town P is the north-east of town T W E

Q.15.(4) From statement (I)

S
A/W X
and W Z Y V I + III,
N
4
From statement (II)
W A Z Y X V Y X V Z A W W E 5
and

Shadow
7

Q.16.(4) From statement (I) S

T > U > D > A/C/S > A/C/S > A/C/S Q.20.(4) From Statement (I)
From Statement (II) A
A
U/D > U/D > T > A/C > S > A/C C or
Q.17.(1) From Statement (I)
C
M Q
From Statement (II)
D D E
A B R C
B E or B
From Statement (II)
Q M
C C
E D D B
C A B
B E
R is either wife A or B
Q.18.(3) From Statement (I) C C
B D D

E E B
Anita Mohan

From Statement (II) C C

Suresh From Statement (III)
D D
Mohan Sumit
From Statement (III) E or E

C C
Anita
Sumit Q.21.(3) From Statement (I)
X X
E E
Q.19.(5) B A
From Statement (II)
A C B D —
or

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—A C B D From Statement (II)
From Statement (III) C/B
A — D |
B C |
Q.22.(3) From statement (I) |
Rajendra B/C
From Statement (III)
A E
C F
Rakesh Rahim
Ram Q.24.(4) From Statement (I)
or

Rajendra R

T/ T/
S
Rahim Rakesh From Statement (II)
Ram
N
P
From Statement (II)
Rahim

Rajendra T
From Statement (III)
M/ M/
Ramesh
From Statement (III)

N/ N/
Ramesh O
After merger of all I, II and III then
O
Rakesh N

Q.23.(5) From Statement (I)

P R
C/D
|
M T
| S
D/C Q.25.(2) From Statement (I)

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L>J>M No, N is not the east of E.
From Statement (II) Q.28.(5) From Statement (I)
N>J>—>—>— D—F
From Statement (III) C—D
N/K > — > — > K/N E/B — B/E
Q.26.(4) From Statement (I) From Statement (II)
F/ F/
B A
and
C B A—
×
B C
×

From Statement (II) — E — B D F
A
or

C K B E F — D —

From Statement (III) All I, II and III are not sufficient to the answer.
K M Q.29.(5) From Statement (I)
H
L

After merger of all I, II and III then
B A

C M K F
and
× ×
C A C
L

From Statement (II)
Q.27.(2) From Statement (I)
H G A/D

I B
From Statement (II)
L E
4 m. A/D
I G
4 m. N From Statement (III)
From Statement (III) F is 2nd to the left of D.
L
2m. 5m.
G
E C G
After merger of II and III then
L
2m. H
G E/
2m. E/
I N E/
4m. or
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From statement (II)
E
3m.
G C D
2m.
F G
5m.
4m.
H
H
Both I & II together sufficient and both together
sufficient II & III From Statement (III)
D
Q.30.(2) From statement (I)
F× F× 4m.
J 7m.
K
A B F D/E D/E C 8m.
or
L
F× F×
Both II and III are sufficient to the answer.
C D/E D/E F B A
Q.32.(2) From statement (I)
From statement (II)
— > — > — > A > C/D > C/D
D C
and
From statement (III)
A/ x F/ F>B
F/ x D/ From statement (II)
Both I and II are sufficient to the answer. F is not the tallest
Q.31.(5) From statement (I) From statement (III)
A 4m. B C is not the shortest
4m.
5m. and
D
C
E>B

NOTES

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CHAPTER

10 SYLLOGISM

These questions are completely based upon the logic. If we

solve these questions with the help of Venn diagram then we A
can get the conclusion easily. (I) A B (II)
B
Remember that these Venn diagrams are just a medium to
solve such questions.
B
(III) (IV) A=B
A question can have lots of diagrams which means we can
A
draw several figures by a statement but we have to draw
several easiest figure first because it will enable us to solve Statement
the question in minimum time. Like we have many routes
No A is B.
to go home but we always take the shortest possible route.
Statement Figure
We have four types of statement in which two are positive
and two are negative.
A B
Type of Statement
(i) All
+ve In case of “No” there will not any other possible
(ii) Some
diagrams.
(iii) No
-ve Statement
(iv) Some Not
Some A are not B.
How to Draw the figures :
Statement Figure
Statement
All A are B X
A B
Statement Figure

Some possible diagrams of statements
A
B

B (I) A B (II) A
Some possible diagrams of statements
x
(III) A (IV) A X B
(I) A B (II) A B
Note: Conclusion will follow if it is present in all
Statement diagrams of the statement (statement figure as
well as possible figure).
Some A are B
Statement Figure Key Factors
� In any case you change its figure and such change should
A B not influence statements.
� We have to draw the figure of the statement and on the
Some possible diagrams of statements basis of these statements we have to determine which
conclusion follows and which does not follow.

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Condition for either case � Either case can be applied only in indirect relations
� Same subject and predicate in two different conclusion where the relations between subject and predicate is not
are required determined.
� Relation must not clear (according to statement) between How to conclude :
subject & predicate. The trend shows that basically there are two kinds
� One conclusion must be positive and another must be of conclusions. One requires definite case as a
negative. conclusion and another requires case of possibility.
� Either condition will not be follow between ‘All’ type Quick trick
statement and ‘No’ type statement. 1. Every statement +ve Conclusion -ve Not
� Either conclusions can easily be identified if we focus follow.
specially upon those objects which are same. 2. Every statement -ve Conclusion +ve Not
� Keep this thing in mind that if the relation between follow.
2 objects is not clear then we can not come to any 3. +ve relation Conclusion “some” Follow
conclusion and in case the relation between 2 objects is
4. Relation of “No” Conclusion -ve Follow.
clear then we can directly come to the conclusion without
any problem. 5. Relation not defined (neither direct nor indirect)
Every conclusion Not follow.

Cases of Either
Some A/B are B/A Some A/B are B/A All A are B
No B/A is A/B Some B/A are not A/B Some A are not B
Statement Some A are B All A are B Some A are Not B No A is B
Conclusion
Some A are B √ √ © X
Some B are A √ √ © X
All A are B © √ X X
All B are A © © © X
Some A are not B © X √ √
Some B are not A © © © √
No A is B X X © √
No B is A X X © √
√ means - definitely right
X means - definitely wrong
© means - can't say (Not Sure) - If any conclusion is right as well as wrong
Note :
(i) If any conclusion is definitely right then it will follow.
(ii) If any conclusion is definitely wrong then it will not follow.
(iii) If any conclusion is can't say © then it will not follow but if it is written as possibility then it
will follow.

MEANING OF NEW TERMS IN SYLLOGISM

Terms Meaning
Only (Reverse), Each, Every, Entire, Whole, Full Etc. All
Few, At Least, Minimum, Maximum, Almost, Many Etc. Some
None, Not A Bit Etc. No
ALL – ONLY (REVERSE), EACH, EVERY, ENTIRE, WHOLE, FULL etc. (1 to 100% part in “+ve”

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Example. Example.
Only A are B. All B are A Only a few A are B. MEANS
Some A are B. (TRUE)
SomeAare not B. (TRUE)
All A are B. (FALSE)
Note- Here, we are completely sure about all of B and some
part of A, but not sure about the remaining part of
A.
Remaining Part Possibility (+ve, -ve)

True
Note- Here, we completely sure about all parts of A but
SOME–FEW, ATLEAST, MINIMUM, MAXIMUM, not sure about remaining part of B.
ALMOST, MANY etc. (1 to 99.9% part in “+ve” but not 100%)
Remaining Part Possibility (+ve, -ve)
Example.
True
Maximum A are B. Some A are B.
ONLY A FEW NOT – Here, the term means we sure about
both -ve and +ve part at the same time.
Example.
Only a few A are not B. MEANS

Some A are not B. (TRUE)
Note- Here, we completely sure about some part of A
Some A are B. (TRUE)
and B but not sure about remaining part of A and
B. No A is B. (FALSE)

Remaining Part Possibility (+ve, -ve)
True
NO – NONE, NOT A BIT etc. (1 to 100% part in “-ve”)
Example.
None A is B. No A is B. Note- Here, we completely sure about all parts of A but
not sure about remaining part of B.
DEFINITELY- Fixed Part (Undoubtedly)
Note- Here, we completely sure about all parts of A and Example.
B. There is no remaining part of A and B. Some A are definitely B. Some A
Therefore, no possibility will apply here. are B.

Terms Meaning Note- This case is similar to "Some A are B".

Only A Few Some, Some Not CAN BE/ MAYBE/MIGHT BE/COULD BE – All
of these terms indicate possibilities but in ‘+ve’
Only A Few Not Some Not, Some way.
Cannever Be Not Note- Possibilities apply only when conclusions are not
Definitely Doubtless certain i.e. (definitely neither true nor false)
Can Be/ Maybe/Might Be/ Possibilities CANNOT BE/ MAY NOT BE/MIGHT NOT BE/
Could Be (+Ve) COULD NOT BE- All of these terms indicate
possibilities but in ‘–ve’ way.
Cannot Be/ May Not Be/ Possibilities
Might Not Be/Could Not Be (-Ve) Note- Possibilities apply only when conclusions are not
certain i.e. (definitely neither true nor false)
ONLY A FEW – Here, ‘Only a few’ means we sure about
both +ve and –ve part at the same time. CANNEVER BE- ‘Can never be’ (MEANS DEFINITELY
NOT) is converted into “Not”.

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EXAMPLE -1.
Statement- Some A are B.
Conclusions-
Some A can never be B. Some A are not B. (NOT SURE/CAN’T SAY)
Some B can never be A. Some B are not A. (NOT SURE/ CAN’T SAY)
All A can never be B. All A are not B. (NOT SURE/ CAN’T SAY)
All B can never be A. All B are not A. (NOT SURE/ CAN’T SAY)
EXAMPLE -2.
Statement- Some A are not B.
Conclusions-
Some A can never be B. Some A are not B. (TRUE)
Some B can never be A. Some B are not A. (NOT SURE/ CAN’T SAY)
All A can never be B. All A are not B. (TRUE)
All B can never be A. All B are not A. (NOT SURE/ CAN’T SAY)
EXAMPLE -3.
Statement- No A is B.
Conclusions-
Some A can never be B. Some A are not B. (TRUE)
Some B can never be A. Some B are not A. (TRUE)
All A can never be B. All A are not B. (TRUE)
All B can never be A. All B are not A. (TRUE)
EXAMPLE -4.
Statement- All A are B.
Conclusions-
Some A can never be B. Some A are not B. (FALSE)
Some B can never be A. Some B are not A. (NOT SURE/ CAN’T SAY)
All A can never be B. All A are not B. (FALSE)
All B can never be A. All B are not A. (NOT SURE/ CAN’T SAY)
IMPORTANT POINT – “NOT SURE/CAN’T SAY” conditions will be FALSE due to the term “NEVER”.
Ex.1. Statement : Some A are B. Ex.2. Statement : All A are B.
Some B are C. All B are C.
A B C

Conclusions: A
1. Some A are C (©) B
C
2. Some A can be C (√)
Conclusions:
3. Some A are not C (©)
1. Some A are C (√)
4. Some A not being C is a possibility (√)
2. Some A can be C (×)
5. No A is C (©)
3. Some B are A (√)
6. No A being C is a possibility (√)
4. Some B can be A (×)
7. All A are C (©)
5. Some C are B (√)
8. All A being C is a possibility (√)
6. Some C can be B (×)
9. Some B are A (√)
7. All C are B (©)
10. Some B can be A (×)
8. All C can be B (√)
11. Some B are not A (©)
9. Some B are not A (©)
12. Some B not being A is a possibility (√)
10. Some B not being A is a possibility (√)
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11. No B is A (×) Conclusions:
12. No B being A is a possibility (×) 1. Some A are C (√)
Ex.3. Statement : No A is B. 2. Some A can be C (×)
No B is C. 3. No A is C (×)

A B C 4. No A being C is a possibility (×)

5. Some A are not C (©)
Conclusions:
6. Some A not being C is a possibility (√)
1. Some A are C (©)
7. All A are C (©)
2. Some A can be C (√)
8. All A can be C (√)
3. All A are C (©)
9. Some B are C (√)
4. All A can be C (√)
10. Some C are B (√)
5. Some A are not C (©)
11. Some B are not C (×)
6. Some A not being C is a possibility (√)
12. Some B not being C is a possibility (×)
7. No A is C (©)
Ex.6. Statement : Some A are B.
8. No A being C is a possibility (√)
No B is C.
9. Some A are not B (√)
10. Some A not being B is a possibility (×) A B C

11. No C is B (√)
Conclusions:
12. No C being B is a possibility (×)
1. Some A are C (©)
Ex.4. Statement : Some A are not B.
2. Some A can be C (√)
Some B are not C.
3. Some A are not C (√)

A B C 4. Some A not being C is a possibility (×)

Conclusions: 5. No A is C (©)

1. Some A are B (©) 6. No A being C is a possibility (√)

2. Some A can be B (√) 7. All A are C (×)

3. All A are B (×) 8. All A can be C (×)

4. All A can be B (×) 9. Some B are not C (√)

5. All B are A (©) 10. Some B not being C is a possibility (×)

6. All B can be A (√) 11. All B can be C (×)

7. Some B are not A (©) 12. All B can never be C (√)

8. Some B not being A is a possibility (√) Ex.7. Statement : Some A are B.

9. Some A can be C (√) Some B are not C.

10. Some A are C (©)

11. Some A are not C (©) A B C

12. All A can be C (√)
Conclusions:
Ex.5. Statement : Some A are B.
1. Some A are C (©)
All B are C.
2. Some A can be C (√)
A B 3. All A are C (©)
C 4. All A can be C (√)

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5. Some A are not C (©) 8. No B being C is a possibility (√)
6. Some A being C is a possibility (√) 9. All A are C (×)
7. No A is C (©) 10. All A can be C (×)
8. No A being C is a possibility (√) 11. Some C are not A (©)
9. All B are C (×) 12. Some C not being A is a possibility (√)
10. All B can be C (×) Ex.10. Statement : No A is B.
11. Some C are not B (©) Some B are not C.
12. Some C not being B is a possibility(√)
Ex.8. Statement : All A are B. A B C

No A is C.
Conclusions:
B B 1. Some A are C (©)
A C 2. Some A can be C (√)
3. Some A are not C (©)

4. Some A not being C is a possibility (√)
Conclusions:
5. All A are C (©)
1. Some B are C (©)
6. All A can be C (√)
2. Some B can be C (√)
7. No A is C (©)
3. Some B are not C (√)
8. No A being C is a possibility (√)
4. Some B not being C is a possibility (×)
9. Some A are not B (√)
5. All B are C (×)
10. All C can be B (√)
6. All B can be C (×)
11. All B can be C (×)
7. No B is C (©)
12. Some C can together be B as well as A (×)
8. No B being C is a possibility (√)
Ex.11. Statement : Some A are B.
9. All C can be B (√)
All B are C.
10. Some C are not B (©)
No C is D.
11. All C are B (©)
12. Some A are not C (√) C
Ex.9. Statement : All A are B. A B D
Some A are not C.

B B
Conclusions:
A 1. Some A are C (√)
C
2. Some A can be C (×)

Conclusions: 3. Some A are not C (©)

1. Some B are not C (√) 4. Some A not being C is a possibility (√)

2. Some B not being C is a possibility (×) 5. All A are C (©)

3. Some B are C (©) 6. All A can be C (√)

4. Some B can be C (√) 7. No A is C (×)

5. All B are C (×) 8. No A being C is a possibility (×)

6. All B can be C (×) 9. All B can be D (×)

7. No B is C (©) 10. All B can never be D (√)

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11. All D can be A (√) 12. Some D not being C is a possibility (√)
12. Some D can be A (√) Ex.14. Statement : No A is B.
Ex.12. Statement : All A are B. Some B are C.
No B is C. Some C are not D.
Some C are not D.
B A B C D

A C D
Conclusions:
1. Some B are not A (√)
Conclusions: 2. Some C are not A (√)
1. Some A are D (©) 3. Some C are A (©)
2. Some A can be D (√) 4. Some C can be A (√)
3. All A are D (©) 5. All A are C (©)
4. All A can be D (√) 6. All A can be C (√)
5. Some B not being D is a possibility (√) 7. All C are A (×)
6. Some B are not D (©) 8. Some C can be A (×)
7. Some A can be C (×) 9. Some A can be D (√)
8. Some A are not C (√) 10. Some A not being D is a possibility (√)
9. All A are C (×) 11. All A can be D (√)
10. All A can be C (×) 12. All B can be D (√)
11. All C can be D (×) Ex.15. Statement : All A are B.
12. All D can be C (√) No B is C.
Ex.13. Statement : Some A are not B. Some C are D.
Some B are C. Some D are not E.
All C are D.
C D E

A B C D
Conclusions:
Conclusions: 1. Some A can be C (×)
1. All B are D (©) 2. All C are E (©)
2. All B can be D (√) 3. All C can be E (√)
3. Some A are C (©) 4. Some C are E (©)
4. Some A can be C (√) 5. Some C can be E (√)
5. All A are C (©) 6. All D can be E (×)
6. All A can be C (√) 7. All E can be D (√)
7. Some A are not C (©) 8. All B can be D (√)
8. Some A not being C is a possibility (√) 9. All D can be B (×)
9. Some B are not C (©) 10. No A is C (√)
10. Some B not being C is a possibility (√) 11. Some B are A (√)
11. Some D are not C (©) 12. Some B can be A (×)

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EXERCISE
Q.1-4. In each of the questions below, two/three statements Q.5-6. Statement : All 2 are 3.
are given followed by Conclusions/group of No 3 is 4.
Conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume
all the statements to be true even if they seem to be All 4 are 5.
at variance from the commonly known facts and Q.5. Conclusions: I. No 3 is 5.
then decide which of the given two Conclusions II. Some 2 are 4.
logically follows from the information given in the
Q.6. Conclusions: I. All 3 can be 5.
statements.
II. All 5 can be 3.
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows
Q.7-8. Statement : No A is B.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows
Some B are D.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II follows Some E are A or B.
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows Q.7. Conclusions : I. Some E can be D.
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II follow II. All E can be B.
Q.1. Statement : Some P are Q Q.8. Conclusions : I. Some A can be B.
No Q is R II. No A is D.
Some R are not T Q.9-13. Read the following information carefully and answer
Conclusions: I. Some P are not R the question given below.
II. All T can be R (1) ‘E→Q’ means Some Q are not E.
Q.2. Statement : All 1 are 2. (2) ‘E*Q’ means All E are Q.
All 1 are 3. (3) ‘E$Q’ means No E is Q.
Some 3 are 4. (4) ‘E%Q’ means Some E are not Q.
Conclusions: I. All 3 can be 2. (5) ‘E#Q’ means Some E are Q.
II. All 1 are 2 as well as 3. Q.9. Statement : A → B*C $ D % E # F
Q.3. Statement : Some 1 are 2. Conclusions:
Some 1 are 3.
(1) A%B (2) A%C (3) C%B
Conclusions: I. Some 1 are either 2 or 3.
(4) C%A (5) E%D
II. Some 1 are 2 as well as 3.
Q.10. Statement : A → B*C $ D % E # F
Q.4. Statement : Some 1 are 2.
Conclusions:
Some 1 are 3.
(1) D→ E (2) D→F (3) D%F
Conclusions: I. Some 1 are neither 2 nor 3.
(4) A→C (5) C*A
II. Some 1 are neither 2 nor 3 is
a possibility. Q.11. Statement : J#Q%R$S*T→U
Q.5-8. In each question given below three statements are Conclusions:
followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II, you (1) T # U (2) R # T (3) J%R
have to take the three statements to be true (even (4) R % Q (5) U%S
if they seem to be at variance from the commonly
known facts). Read the Conclusions and decide Q.12. Statement : J#Q%R$S*T→U
which logically does not follow. Conclusions:
Give answer- (1) S % U (2) R % U (3) R%J
(1) If Conclusion I does not follow. (4) U → S (5) R→T
(2) If Conclusion II does not follow. Q.13. Statement : T→N→O%P*Q*Y
(3) If either Conclusion I or II does not follow. Conclusions:
(4) If Conclusion I and II both do not follow. (1) T * N (2) Y * P (3) P % O
(5) None of these (4) P # O (5) P # Y

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Q.14-16. In each of these questions two conclusions have ‘L * M’ means ‘No L is M’.
been given followed by five sets of statements ‘L # M’ means ‘Some L are not M’.
you have to decide which of the following set of
‘L @ M’ means ‘Some L are M’.
statement indicates that conclusion logically follows.
After using these symbol than find out which
Q.14. Conclusions:
conclusion is odd from others.
I. Some Telephone are mobile.
Q.17. Statement:
II. Some Telephone are not Man.
A @ K @ M $ J % R @ Q, K $ F
Statement :
Conclusions:
(1) Some Telephone are rectangle, Some rectangle
(1) K @ J (2) F @ A (3) R % J
are man. Some Mobile are Telephone.
(4) J % R (5) K @ F
(2) All Mobile are Chart, All Chart are Telephone.
Some Telephone are Man. Q.18. Statement:
(3) All Man are Plate, Some telephone are Mobile, K $ M, M @ J $ R, R * U $ T, T $ V
All Mobile are Telephone. Conclusions:
(4) All Man are Plate, No Mobile is Man. All (1) M @ R (2) V @ U (3) T @ U
Mobile are Telephone. (4) M @ J (5) R @ V
(5) None of these Q.19. Statement:
Q.15. Conclusions: P $ Q # R % S @ U # V, U $ M, Q $ Z
I. Some Football can be Tennis. Conclusions:
II. Some Tenis can be Cricket. (1) Z @ P (2) Z # R (3) V # M
Statement : (4) S @ M (5) V % M
(1) Some Football are Cricket, Some Cricket are Q.20. Statement:
Tennis, All Cricket are Square.
Q @ A, L * K @ E $ J * Q $ B
(2) Some Square are Tennis, Some Tennis are
Conclusions:
Football, Some Football are Cricket.
(1) B # J (2) J $ E (3) K @ J
(3) Some Football are Square, Some Cricket are
Football, Some Square are Tennis. (4) J % B (5) E # L
(4) All Tennis are Football, All Football are Cricket. Q.21. Statement:
(5) None of these 1 * 2 $ 3 @ 4, 4 * 5 * 6 @ 7 $ 8, 4 $ 9
Q.16. Conclusions : I. No Pen is Pencil. Conclusions:
II. Some Pencil are Ink. (1) 3 @ 9 (2) 8 @ 6 (3) 6 * 5
Statement : (4) 8 * 5 (5) 5 % 7
(1) All Ink are Pot. Some Pot are Pen. Some Pen Q.22-26. In each question given below conclusion are
are Pencil. All Pencil are Paper. followed by five statement. You have to take the
given statements to be true (even if they seem to be at
(2) Some Pen are Paper. Some Paper are Pot. All
variance from the commonly known facts). You have
Pot are Pencil. Some Ink are Pot.
to decide which of the following set of statements
(3) All Ink are Pencil. Some Pencil are Pot. All indicate that conclusion is logically follow –
Pencil are Paper. No Paper is Pen.
Q.22. Conclusions:
(4) Can’t be determined
(I) Only 8 are 9 is a possibility.
(5) None of these
(II) Some 11 being 9 is a possibility.
Q.17-21. In the following questions, the symbols $, %, @, Statements:
© and * are used with the following meaning as
illustrated below. (1) Some 11 are 10. No 9 is 10 as well as 8. No 12
is 8.
‘L % M’ means ‘Some M are not L’.
(2) Some 12 are 11. No 10 is 11. No 8 is 11. All 9
‘L $ M’ means ‘All L are M’. are 10.
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(3) Some 8 are 10. No 8 is 9 and 11. Some 9 are (4) Some fruits are dine. All fruits are wine. No
11. No 12 is 11. wine is apple. All apple are grapes. Some
(4) Some 11 are 8. No 11 and 12 is 10. Only 9 are oranges are wine.
not 10. (5) None of the above
(5) None of these Q.26. Conclusions:
Q.23. Conclusions: (I) Some Monday not being Mans is a possibility.
(I) All three are seven. (II) Only Mobile are Micro is a possibility.
(II) Some one are not seven is a possibility. Statements:
Statements: (1) Some Mobile are Micro. Some Micro are not
Momo. No Mans is Momo. No Monday is
(1) Some seven are three. Some five are Four. Some
Micro.
one are two. No one is five. No two is seven.
(2) Some Monday are Micro and Momo. No
(2) Some one are two and seven. Some four are
Monday is Mobile. Some Mobile are Mans.
seven. Only five are three. No four is three.
(3) Only Momo and Only Mobile are Mans. No
(3) Some four are five. Some five are two. Some Monday is Mans. Some Mans are Micro.
two are one and three. Only three are seven.
(4) Some Mobile are Micro. Some Micro are
(4) Some three are one. No seven is five. Some Momo. Only Mans are Momo. No Monday is
three are four. Only seven are two. Micro.
(5) None of the above. (5) Both 1 and 4
Q.24. Conclusions: Q.27-28. Each question contains four statements (A-D) of
(I) Some ? being not @ is a possibility. five sentences each. Choose the set in which the 5th
(II) Some # being ? is a possibility. statement is a logical conclusion of the first four.
Q.27. (A) Some Boys are Girls. Some Girls are Men. All
Statements:
Men are Bottles. All Bottles are Mobile. Some
(1) No * are @. Only # are ?. No © is @. Some Mobiles are Boys.
© are not &. Some ? are not @.
(B) All A are B. Some A are X. All S are X. Some
(2) Only ? are *. All # are &. No # are ©. No ? is B are tablets. Some S are A.
@.
(C) No Ball is Black. Some Sweaters are Blue. All
(3) Some ? are @ and ©. No ? is &. Only # are *. Balls are Blue. Some Balls are Bats. Some Bats
Only # are &. are Black.
(4) No @ is #. Some ? are #. Only © are ?. Some (D) No Marker is Red. No Blue is Red. Some
& are #. No & is *. Bottles are Blue. Some Red are Pens. Some
(5) None of these Bottles are not Red.
Q.25. Conclusions: (1) A and B (2) D and B (3) Only C
(I) All Apple can be Dine. (4) Only D (5) D and C

(II) Some Oranges are not Fruits. Q.28. (A) All Generations are Laptops. Some Generations
are Mobile. Some Mobiles are Pen Drive.
Statements: Some Generations are Stars. All Pen Drives
(1) Some Apple are Oranges. Only Grapes are are Laptop.
Oranges. All grapes are Dine. All Dine are (B) All Generations are Mobiles. Some Mobiles
Wine. No Grapes is Fruit. are Pen Drives. Some Pens are Pen Drive. All
(2) All Apple are Oranges. All Oranges are Grapes. Pens are Data Cable. Some Data Cables are
All Dine are Oranges. Some oranges are wine. Pen Drives.
No wine is fruit. (C) All Mobiles are January. Some January are
(3) All Dine are orange. All wine are fruits. All Printers. Some January are July. Some
grapes are apple. All orange are grapes. No February are 28 Days. Some January are 28
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(D) No January is 30 Days. All April are 30 Days. (iv) No intelligent is boys.
Some 30 Days are 28 Days. All 28 Days are (v) Some boys are Ramesh.
June. Some June are 30 Days.
(vi) All boys are Ramesh.
(1) C and B (2) D and B (3) Only B
(1) (v, ii, iii) (2) (ii, iii, v) (3) (iv, iii, v)
(4) Only D (5) D and C
(4) (iv, iii, i) (5) (i, vi, iv)
Q.29-33. Each question contains six statements followed by
five sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in Q.33. Statements:
which first statement follows the second and third (i) Some lights are fan.
statement. You have to take the given statements to (ii) All fans are board.
be true (even if they seem to be at variance from the
(iii) Some lights are chinese.
commonly known facts).
(iv) Some lights are Indian.
Q.29. Statements:
(v) Some fan are LED.
(i) No saving Ac is a current Ac.
(vi) All lights are LED.
(ii) All saving Ac being current Ac is a possibility.
(1) (i, ii, v) (2) (i, vi , v) (3) (iv, i, vi)
(iii) All saving Ac being recurring deposit is a
possibility. (4) (iv, iii, i) (5) (v, vi, i)
(iv) Some fixed deposits are recurring deposit. Q.34-36. The question consists of six statements followed
by five conclusions. Consider the given statements
(v) Some current Ac are recurring deposit.
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
(vi) Some currents Ac are bank deposits. commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
(1) (vi, i, v) (2) (i, vi, iv) (3) (iv, i, v) then decide which of the given conclusions definitely
(4) (iv, i, iii) (5) (iii, i, v) does not follow from the given statements.

Q.30. Statements: Q.34. Statements:

(i) Some mobiles are fan. All boxes are tables.

(ii) Some mobiles are laptop. No desks is tables.

(iii) Some shows are not laptop. Some desks are curtains.

(iv) Some Mobile are Indian. Conclusions:

(v) No show is mobile. (1) Some curtains are table.

(vi) Some laptop are not shows. (2) Some curtain are not table.

(1) (v, iii, i) (2) (ii, v, vi) (3) (vi, v, iii) (3) All box are curtain.

(4) (vi, v, ii) (5) (iii, v, ii) (4) No desk is box.

Q.31. Statements: (5) All box are desk.

(i) No base is ground. Q.35. Statements:

(ii) All base are clean. Some big are small.

(iii) Some smart are not server. No small is large.

(iv) Some clean are not ground. Some large are short.

(v) No smart is server. Conclusions:

(vi) Some base are server. (1) All shorts being big is a possibility.

(1) (iii, ii, i) (2) (i, ii, iv) (3) (vi, i, ii) (2) Some large not being big is a possibility.

(4) (vi, iii, ii) (5) (iv, i, ii) (3) Some large are big.

Q.32. Statements: (4) All big are large.

(i) All intelligent are boys. (5) Some small are short.

(ii) Some Ramesh are Intelligent. Q.36. Statements:

(iii) All boys are intelligent. No students is decent.

Some decent are stupid.
REASONING ABILITY 131
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All students are roses. (3) No B is A. Some B are C.
Conclusion: (4) All of the above.
(1) Some roses not being students is a possibility. (5) None of these
(2) Some roses are decent. Q.41. Conclusions:
(3) No stupid being rose is a possibility. I) Some Shell are not Seas.
(4) All roses being decent is a possibility. II) All Shell being Sent is a possibility.
(5) Some stupid are not student. Statements:
Q.37-41. For given below conclusions which of the following
(1) Some Seas are Shell. No Shell is Sent.
statement proves them definitely true.
(2) Some Seas are not Shell. No Shell is Sent.
Q.37. Conclusions:
(3) All Seas are not Shells. All Shells are not Sent.
I) No C is B. II) No B is C.
Statements: (4) All Shell are not Seas. All Sent are not Shell.

(1) All A are B. All B are C. (5) None of these

(2) No A is B. No A is C. Q.42-43.In each of the questions below are given three
statements, followed by conclusions: I, II, III, IV.
(3) All A are C. Only B are C.
You have to take the given statements to be true
(4) 1 or 3 even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
(5) None of these known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows
Q.38. Conclusions:
from the given statements disregarding commonly
I) All B being A is a possibility. known facts.
II) All B being C is a possibility. (1) Only I and II follow
Statements: (2) Only II follows
(1) All A are B. All B are C. (3) Only I and IV follow
(2) No A is B. No A is C.
(4) Only III follows
(3) All A are C. Only B are C.
(5) None of these
(4) 1 and 3.
Q.42. Statements:
(5) None of these
40% Cats are Rats. 25% Bats are Tables.
Q.39. Conclusions:
30% Rats are Bats.
I) All B is A is a possibility.
Conclusions:
II) Some B is not being A is a possibility.
I. Some cats is not being rats is a possibility.
Statements:
II. All rats being bats is a possibility.
(1) All A are B. All B are C.
(2) Only B are A. Only C are not B. III. All tables are cats.
(3) No A is C. No C is B. IV. All bats are cats.
(4) All of the above are true. Q.43. Statements:
(5) None of these 40% Cats are Rats. 25% Bats are Tables.
Q.40. Conclusions: 30% Rats are Bats.
I) Some A are B. Conclusion:
II) No A is C. I. Some cats are not rats.
Statements: II. All rat not being bat is a possibility.
(1) Some A are not C. Some A are B. III. Some cat are rat.
(2) Only B are A. No C is B. IV. All bats being rats is a possibility.

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Explanation
Q.1.(5) Q.11-12.

J Q R
P Q R T
ST U


Q.11.(5) Q.12.(5)
Both conclusions I and II follow.
Q.13.(5)
Q.2.(5)
N T
2
1 3 4
O P Q Y

Both conclusions I and II follow. Q.14.(4)
Q.3.(4) Plate
Man Mobile Telephone

3 1 2

Q.15.(3)
Neither I nor II follows.
Q.4.(2) Cricket Football Square Tennis

3 1 2 Q.16.(3)

Only II conclusion follows.
Q.5-6. Pen
Ink
3 Pencil
Pot
2 4 5 Paper

Q.17.(3)
Q.5.(4) Both I and II conclusions do not follow.
Q.6.(2) Only II conclusion does not follow.
Q.7-8.
Q.18.(5)
A
B D
E

Q.7.(2) Only conclusion II does not follow.

Q.8.(4) Both conclusions I and II do not follow.
Q.19.(3)
Q.9-10.

P Q
B C A S
M

R U V
D E F Z

Q.9.(4) Q.10.(4)
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Q.20.(2)
Mobile Micro Momo Mans

Monday
Q.21.(4)
Q.27.(4)

Marker Red Blue Bottles

Pens
Q.22.(4)
Q.28.(2)
11 8
12 Mobiles
Pen
Generations Drive
10 9

Pen
Q.23.(5) None of the above
Q.24.(3) Data Cable

? @
a
April
c 30 days
Generations
&
# * 28 days

Q.25.(2) June

Oranges Q.29.(5)
Grapes
Apple
e
Din

Saving A/c Current A/c Recurring

deposits

Wine
Q.30.(4)
Fruit

Mobiles Laptop
Q.26.(5)

Mobile Micro Mobile Momo

Micro Momo

Show

Monday Mans
Monday
Q.31.(5)

134 REASONING ABILITY

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Q.39.(4) (I)
Clean Base Ground
A B C
Q.32.(2)

(II)
Ramesh Boys Intelligent
A C B

(III)
Q.33.(5)

A B C
Fan Lights LED
Led

Q.40.(2)

Q.34.(5)
A B C
tables
boxes desks curtains
Q.41.(4)

Q.35.(4)
Shell Seas
big small large short

Q.36.(4) Sent

students decent stupid
Q.42.(1) Only I and II follow.
roses
Cats Rats Bats Table
40% 30% 25%

Q.37.(5) None of the above options is true.

Q.38.(3) Q.43.(5) Only III and IV follow.

Cats Rats Bats Table

40% 30% 25%
A C B

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CHAPTER
MACHINE
11
INPUT
Ex.1-3. Study the following information to answer the
Machine Input
given questions.
In this chapter, you are asked to identify the process done by
A word rearrangement machine rearranges the given
a machine. These processes are performed repeatedly as per a
an input line of words with the following particular
pre-fixed pattern and subsequently, we have a different output
rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
in different steps. Let's take a simple example to understand it.
an input and the steps or rearrangement.
The computer would be the best example, in the computer Input : over you pat me crow easy to
when we give any input, then it processes it and finally, we
get output. Similarly in Machine input, there is input, then Step I : pat over you crow easy to me
there are certain steps to simplify it and the final step is Step II : crow pat over you to me easy
termed as 'output'. Step III : over crow pat to me easy you
Step IV : to over crow pat easy you me
and so on, ......
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find
There are two types of questions in this chapter.
out in the given questions the appropriate step for
1. Shifting 2. Arrangement the given point.
NOTE- Always check the last step of the arrangement, Input : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
you will get an idea that what logic has been used in the Step I : 3 1 2 5 6 7 4
arrangement.
Step II : 5 3 1 2 7 4 6
Shifting Type: In shifting questions are based on a particular
Step III : 1 5 3 7 4 6 2
pattern on the interchanging position of elements. And
the machine doesn't stop here but goes on performing its Step IV : 7 1 5 3 6 2 4
operation. Step V : 5 7 1 6 2 4 3
In this type of question, we usually shift the given words/ Step VI : 6 5 7 1 4 3 2
numbers, of the given input as per a fixed pattern. Step VII : 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Step VIII: 4 7 6 5 2 1 3
Ex.1. If step II of an input is ‘go su but he for game
free’, what would be the step VI ?
(1) go for hut free he game su
(2) for free go game su he but
(3) free ge for but game su he
(4) he go su but game free for
(5) None of these
Sol.(3)
Step-II : go su but he for game free
5 3 1 2 7 4 6
6 5 7 1 4 3 2
In Shifting - We Can Determine The Previous Steps And Step VI : free go for but game su he
Also The Given Input. Ex.2. If step IV of an input is ‘blue navy kit lime se get
But In Arrangement - We Can Not Be Determined The out’, which of the following would definitely be
Previous Steps. the input ?
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(1) navy get lime out kit se blue Step VII : 2 7 5 3 1 6 4
(2) lime navy get kit se blue out Step VIII : 4 6 1 3 5 7 2
(3) lime blue navy kit get out se Step IX : 4 1 5 2 6 3 7
(4) kit blue navy se get out lime Step X : 7 3 6 2 5 1 4
(5) None of these Step XI : 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Sol.(1) Step XII : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Step IV: blue navy kit lime se get out Ex.4. If input is “Say not you are only wise yet” then
7 1 5 3 6 2 4 which Step would read as ”are Say only not wise
you yet’ ?
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Input : navy get lime out kit se blue (1) III (2) XI (3) IX
Ex.3. Input: but calm free are so not eat (4) VII (5) None of these
Which of the following be the Illrd step for this Sol.(3)
input ? Input : say not you are only wise yet
(1) so free but calm eat are not 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(2) but calm are free not so eat Step IX : are say only not wise you yet
(3) are but calm free not eat so 4 1 5 2 6 3 7
(4) but so free eat are not calm Ex.5. If input is “may son to cry if not hell” then which
(5) None of these step will be “hell not if cry to son may” ?
Sol.(4) (1) X (2) XII
Input : but calm free are so not eat (3) XI (4) Cannot be determined
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 (5) None of these
For the sake of convenience, assign numbers to Sol.(3)
each word of the input.
Input : may son to cry if not hell
Step III : 1 5 3 7 4 6 2
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
but so free eat are not calm
Step XI : hell not if cry to son may
Ex.4-6. A word arrangement machine when rearranging a
particular input it follows a particular rule. 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
The following is an illustration of the input and Ex.6. If input is “You are the best in this world”, then
the steps of arrangement Step IV is -
Input : sui me ato fe zen u no. (1) the world best You in this are.
Step I : sui ato zen no me fe u (2) the world best You in are this
Stop II : u fe me no zen ato sui (3) world the best in You are this
Step III : u me zen sui fe no ato (4) You are the best in this world.
Step IV : ato no fe sui zon me u (5) None of these
Step V : ato fe zen u no sui me. Sol.(2)
and so on ....... Input : you are the best in this world
Input : sui me ato fe zen u no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 3 7 4 1 5 2 6
Step I : 1 3 5 7 2 4 6 StepIV: the world best you in are this
Step II : 6 4 2 7 5 3 1 Arrangement Type: In this type of questions, the words or
Step III : 6 2 5 1 4 7 3 the numbers are arranged as per a fixed pattern. This pattern
Step IV : 3 7 4 1 5 2 6 can be an alphabetical order in case of words, it can be an
increasing or decreasing order in case of numbers.
Step V : 3 4 5 6 7 1 2
How to identify whether the given input is of shifting or
Step VI : 2 1 7 6 5 4 3
arrangement?

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The basic difference between them is that the shifting goes on it can be alphabetical, numerical, alpha-numerical
endlessly and at last, it is written and so on and in arrangement etc. Let's understand it with the below diagram.
arranging ends as soon as the order intended is achieved I.e., Sometimes some different logics are used:
arrangement type of questions has the last step.
ALPHABETICAL ORDER (Maybe in increasing or decreasing order)
'Arrangement' is of two types.
1. Single - side - arrangement. VOWELS (Maybe in increasing or decreasing order)

2. Double - side - arrangement. CONSONANTS (Maybe in increasing or decreasing order)

(a) Single - side - arrangement. • Vowel … Consonant … Vowel … Consonant ……………..

• Consonant … Vowel … Consonant … Vowel ……………...
Ex.7. Input - Ram fell 26 35 In 62 23 well.
• Vowels (decreasing order) … (increasing order) Consonants
Step I - 62 Ram fell 26 35 In 23 well.
EVEN NUMBERS (Ascending order or descending order)
Step II - 62 fell Ram 26 35 In 23 well.
ODD NUMBERS (Ascending order or descending order)
Step III - 62 fell 35 Ram 26 In 23 well.
• Even … Odd … Even … Odd …… (Ascending order or descending order)
Step IV- 62 fell 35 In Ram 26 23 well. • Odd … Even ... Odd … Even …… (Ascending order or descending order)
Step V - 62 fell 35 In 26 Ram 23 well. • Even (increasing/decreasing)……… ……….(increasing/decreasing) Odd
Step Vth is the final step of the Input . ARRANGEMENT BASED ON SQUARE AND CUBE OF NUMBERS …….
As per the above arrangement solve the following (Ascending order or descending order)
questions carefully. ARRANGEMENT BASED ON TOTAL NUMBER OF LETTERS IN THE
Input - Orange Banana 35 32 61 Axe Zoo18 GIVEN WORD ……. (Ascending order or descending order)
How many steps are required to complete the ARRANGEMENT BASED ON ANY LETTER (3rd/4th/5th…..) OF THE
above arrangement ? WORD ……….. (Ascending order or descending order)

(1) V (2) VI (3) VII ARRANGEMENT BASED ON OPPOSITE LETTER …………… (Ascending

(4) VIII (5) None of these order or descending order)

Etc……………..
Sol.(2) VI
NOTE
If we focus upon the last step of arrangement
we find that numbers and words are arranged 1. If none of the above types is applicable then you can
at alternate places. Numbers are arranged in sure that the given problem is of miscellaneous type.
descending order and words are arranged in 2. In mixed arrangement - if numbers and words both are
alphabetical order where number starts first as in given in arrangement mostly words are only related to
step Ist and. when we focus on each step we find the next word and number to number.
that each element is arranged step by step. Example of double-sided arrangement
Input - Orange Banana 35 32 61 Axe Zoo18 Ex.8-9. When a word and number arrangement machine is
Step I- 61 Orange Banana 35 32 Axe Zoo18 given an input line of words and numbers, it rearranges
Step II- 61 Axe Orange Banana 35 32 Zoo 18 them following, a particular rule. The following is an
Step III- 61 Axe 35 Orange Banana 32 Zoo18 illustration of input and rearrangement.
Step IV- 61 Axe 35 Banana Orange 32 Zoo18 (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Step IV - 61 Axe 35 Banana 32 Orange Zoo18 Input : billiard 46 ice 19 nation utilization 75 28 kindly
63 almighty 94
Step VI - 61 Axe 35 Banana 32 Orange 18 Zoo
Finally, we focus that step VI is the last step of Step I : almighty billiard 46 ice 19 utilization 75 28
above arrangement. Remember is step No. IV we kindly 63 94 nation
found that the word Orrange arrange itself. Step II : ice almighty billiard 46 19 utilization 75 28 63 94
In above cases we found that input are nation kindly
arranged from the left side only. Now-a-days, Step III : utilization ice almighty 46 19 75 28 63 94 nation
the Exams are also giving arrangements from both kindly billiard
sides. Let us try it. Step IV : 94 utilization ice almighty 46 75 28 63 nation
(b) Double - side - arrangement. kindly billiard 19
From the above examples we have seen the type Step V : 46 94 utilization ice almighty 75 28 nation kindly
of arrangement now let's see the type of logic as billiard 19 63
138 REASONING ABILITY
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Step VI : 28 46 94 utilization ice almighty nation kindly 2. After some practice you should develop the ability
billiard 19 63 75 to solve questions without needing a pen.
Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the 3. Before anything else, make sure that the input -
intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed output question is about shifting.
in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the
4. Be confident about your approach.
given input.
(b) Regarding Arrangement:
Input: omission 71 very 12 39 06 97 good aim 86 every
25 maverick 64 1. In questions on the arrangement when any step is
given and input is asked answer will be "cant be
Ex.8. Which of the following would be the Step III for
determined".
the above input?
(1) omission every aim 39 12 71 6 97 86 25 64 2. To identify the pattern in question prefers the last step.
very maverick good 3. In this type of question when words all of sudden
(2) very maverick good 71 12 39 6 97 86 25 64 get transformed in number then the numbers most
omission every aim of the time comes from the place value of first or
last letter of the word.
(3) aim every omission 71 12 39 6 97 86 25 64
good maverick very 4. In arrangement problems, the contents of an earlier
step can never be determined with certainty.
(4) omission every aim 71 12 39 6 97 86 25 64
very maverick good Based on the new concept
(5) 86 omission every aim 71 12 39 6 97 64 very These types of questions involve a variety of methods. In these
maverick good 25 types of queries, the input can be anything and the machine can
impose random (irregular) operations (rules) on it.
Ex.9. Which word/number would be at 9th position
from the left in Step IV for the above input? Ex.10-11. A string of numbers is given as input. The further
steps given are obtained by applying certain
(1) 97 (2) maverick (3) 12
logic. Numbers of step II have been obtained by
(4) omission (5) aim using at least one digit of each number in step I.
Sol.:8-9. Each step is a result of previous step only.
Input : omission 71 very 12 39 06 97 good aim 86 every INPUT- 9 7 5 4 8 3 1 5 2 2 6 2
25 maverick 64
Step I : aim omission 71 12 39 06 97 good 86 every 25 14 6
STEP-I 7 2 10 3
maverick 64 very
Step II : every aim omission 71 12 39 06 97 good 86 25 64 STEP-II 30 49 -24 30
very maverick
Step III : omission every aim 71 12 39 06 97 86 25 64 very STEP-III 60 25
maverick good
STEP-IV 13
Step IV : 86 omission every aim 71 12 39 06 97 64 very
maverick good 25 Step IV is the last step of arrangement. As per the rule
Step V : 64 86 omission every aim 71 12 06 97 very followed in the above steps, give the answer of
maverick good 25 39 following questions for the given input.
Step VI : 12 64 86 omission every aim 06 97 very maverick Input:
good 25 39 71
Step VII : 06 12 64 86 omission every aim very maverick
good 25 39 71 97 Ex.10. What is the resultant if all the numbers are added
Sol.8.(4) Sol.9.(1) in step II?
Some Tricks (1) -2 (2) 6 (3) -4
(a) Regarding Shifting : (4) 9 (5) 15
1. In questions on shifting "can't be determined" is Ex.11. What are the numbers obtained in the third step
almost never the correct answer. of the given input?

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(1) 14, 8 (2) 17, -12 (3) -12, 8 (3) 11511 (4) 13570
(4) 10, -8 (5) 11, -5 (5) 12341
Sol.10-11. Sol.:12-13.
For given example: Step I: Digits are arranged in ascending order within the
numbers.
Step II: Numbers are arranged in ascending order.
Step III: Middle two digits are taken from each number of
step II.
Step IV: Sum of the digits in a number.
Input: 9865 4321 6748 2791 5267 8345
Step I: 5689 1234 4678 1279 2567 3458
Step II: 1234 1279 2567 3458 4678 5689
Step III: 23 27 56 45 67 68
Step IV: 5 9 11 9 13 14
Forgiven input:
Sol.12.(1) Sol.13.(3)
Input: (1 3), (6 1), (4 2), (0 1), (3 5), (5 2)
Ex.14-15. When an input of symbols is given to an
Step I: (2, 3)……..(11, -2)……..(6,-3) arrangement machine then machine rearranges
Step II: (-6, 44)……(-36, -6) them following a particular rule in each step.
Step III: -12……..8 The following is an illustration of an input and
rearrangement given below.
Step IV: 5
Sol.10.(3) -6 + 44 –36 -6 = 44 – 48 = -4
Sol.11.(3)
Ex.12-13. When an input arrangement of numbers
is given to the machine, it rearranges the
numbers with a particular rule in each step.
The following is an example of an input and
its rearrangement.
Step IV is the last step of the above input.
Input: 5674 3892 6723 1265 9237 3175
As per the rules followed in the above Input, give the answer
Step I: 4567 2389 2367 1256 2379 1357 of the following questions.
Step II: 1256 1357 2367 2379 2389 4567
Step III: 25 35 36 37 38 56 Ex.14. Which of the following will be step II for the
Step IV: 7 8 9 10 11 11 given input?
Step IV is the last step of the above input. As per rules (1) ∆ ↕ Ω ∑ µ ∞ ♥ ♦ ♠ ▼
followed in the given steps, find the appropriate (2) ∆ ↕ Ω ∑ ∞ µ ♥ ♦ ▼ ♠
steps for given Input.
(3) ∆ ↕ Ω ∑ µ ∞ ♥ ♦ ▼ ♠
Input: 9865 4321 6748 2791 5267 8345
(4) ∆ Ω ↕ ∑ µ ∞ ♥ ♦ ▼ ♠
Ex.12. What is the sum of the second element from the
(5) ∆ ↕ Ω ∑ µ ♥ ∞ ♦ ▼ ♠
left end in step IV and fifth element from the
right end in step III? Ex.15. Which of the following step will be following output
?
(1) 36 (2) 50 (3) 45
(1) There will be no such step
(4) 33 (5) 31
(2) III
Ex.13. What is the product of the second element from
the left end in step II and the third element from (3) IV
the right end in step IV? (4) VI
(1) 15691 (2) 13891 (5) V
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Sol.14-15. Sol.:16-17.

Step I:

Result = (48 – 12) = 36
Step II:

Step III:

Sol.14.(3) Sol.15.(2)
Ex.16-17. A string of numbers is given as input. The further
steps given are obtained by applying a certain
logic. Each step is a resultant of the previous step Result = (74 – 20) = 54
only. Study the following information carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Step IV:

Result = (24 – 15) = 9
From the above logical steps we get the following results
for the given input:

As per above-applied logic in above steps, find an

appropriate step for the given input.

Ex.16. What will be resultant when the largest number

in step III is divided by the smallest number is
the same step?
(1) 24 (2) 28 (3) 32
(4) 18 (5) None of these Sol.16.(2) Clearly, required number = 84/3 = 28
Ex.17. When the largest number of step I is divided by Sol.17.(5) Clearly, required remainder when 58 is divided
the smallest number of step II, what will be the by 24 = 10
remainder? Ex.18-19. Examine the following steps for given input and
(1) 9 (2) 3 (3) 13 study the instructions properly to find out the last
(4) 15 (5) None of these step.

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G9 E7 VX9 PJ2 Y7 Next, when there is single consonant like T5, it
changes to R5, so (consonant – 2)
IH5 U6 U5 IH6
Next, when there are one vowel and one
Y3 PJ8 VX4 E3 G4
consonant, like NA8 and NB11, given (vowel +
Step-I
1) and (no +3)
VX9 Q12 Y9 QJ5 W9 So rules for step III are:
T5 II6 R5 IJ9 (i) If both letters are consonant, then 1st consonant
D3 NA8 G6 B3 E6 changes to the next letter, 2nd consonant changes
Step-II Step-III to the previous letter in English alphabetical
series and subtract 1 from the number.
Instructions:
(ii) If there are one vowel and one consonant, then
Step-I: Interchange the alphabets in input as arrows vowel changes to the next letter and add 3 to the
mentioned. number.
Step-II: (iii) If there is a single consonant, then consonant
(i) If both letters are consonant and the number is changes to previous to the previous letter in
less than 5, then 1st consonant changes to next English alphabetical series.
letter and 2nd consonant changes to the previous (iv) If there are two vowels, then 2nd vowel changes
letter in English alphabetical series. to the next letter and add 3 to the number.
(ii) If there are one vowel and one consonant, then For given input:
consonant changes to next letter in English
alphabetical series. K3 U5 L1 K3 CK5 TA1

(iii) If there is a single consonant, then add 2 to the M16 C3 C6 MI3

number. TA4 CK2 F6 L4 U2 K6
(iv) If there is a single vowel, then vowel changes Step-I
to the previous letter in English alphabetical
F5 CK5 UA1 D5 DJ4 UB4
series.
Step-III: It has been derived using a special pattern. C8 NI3 A8 NJ6

Input: L6 T2 K8 J6 R2 I8
Step-II Step-III
K3 U5 L1
Sol.18.(5) Sol.19.(3)
M16 C3
Q.20-21. Study the following information carefully and
TA4 CK2 F6
answer the question given below.
Ex.18. What is the sum of all numbers in step II of given
A letter arrangement machine arranges letters in
input?
a typical manner. Each step gives output taking
(1) 42 (2) 40 (3) 33 input from the previous step. The following is an
(4) 36 (5) 38 illustration of Input and rearrangement. Using
the illustration answer the question below.
Ex.19. In the last step, which of the following letters
occur more than 2 times?
(1) D (2) A
(3) J (4) Both J and D
(5) None
Sol.18-19.
Try to derive rules for step III, same as given for
step II

We see, when there are both consonants like VX9,
it changes to WW8, means when both consonants Step-IV is the last step of the given input. You have to
are there, (1st consonant + 1), (2nd consonant – 1), apply the same logic on the next given input and
and number changes (number – 1) answer the questions.
142 REASONING ABILITY
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Step V is the last step of arrangement. As per the rule
followed in the above steps, give the answer of
following questions for the given input.
Ex.20. Which of the following will be resultant in the
last step? Input: GRID PAIR GAME FAIR
(1) O (2) I (3) H Ex.22. Which of the following will be the third step of
the given input?
(4) D (5) C
(1) D F H C
Ex.21. Which of the following are the results in step III?
(2) D E I C
(1) P and T (2) A and C (3) I and B
(3) D D H B
(4) V and D (5) F and B
(4) D B F B
Sol.:20-21.
(5) D E B B
Ex.23. What will be the sum of the place value of the
second (from the left) and third (from the right)
letters of the step II?
(1) 1140 (2) 1340 (3) 1440
(4) 1110 (5) 1330
Sol.:22-23.
Input:
DOWN RICH GARD MILD
Step I: 4, 15, 23, 14 18, 9, 3, 8 7, 1, 18, 4 13, 9, 12, 4
4, 6, 5, 5 9, 9, 3, 8 7, 1, 9, 4 4, 9, 3, 4
Similarly,
+ + + + + + + +
Input - M H, O B, B D, F C, G A, A C Step II:
IK LQ PE GM
-3 -3 -3 +4 -3 +4 -3 -3
Step-I P N, P I, E E
HF NP BT JD
Step-II V V, B S Step III:
8 × 6 = 48 14 16 2 20 10 4
4 + 8 = 12 5 × 7 = 35 2×2=4 1×4=4
Step-III V D 3+5=8
Step-IV H Step IV: L H D W = 23 D
O = 15 6 + 5 = 11 2+3=5
Sol.20.(3) Sol.21.(4) 1+5=6 8 + 4 = 12

Ex.22-23. A string of words is given as input. The further Step V: K 11 + 7 L12 - 5

steps given are obtained by applying certain
logic. Letters of step II have been obtained by RG

using the letters of step I. Each step is a result of Input: GRID PAIR GAME FAIR
previous step only.
Input: Step I: PM PJ KF OJ
DOWN RICH GARD MILD

Step I:
Step II: JM GT CO GL
IK LQ PE GM

Step II:
Step III: D E I C
HF NP BT JD

Step III:
L H D D Step IV: N H

Step IV:
K L
Step V: UC

Step V: Sol.22.(2)
RG
Sol.23.(3) 720 + 720 = 1440

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EXERCISE
Q.1-3. When an input of words and numbers is given to a word and number arrangement machine its rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement given
below.
Input : Said only raise when trail legal after union into July forced behind
Step I: after said only raise when trail legal union July forced behind into
Step II: only after said raise when trail legal July forced behind into union
Step III: behind only after said raise when trail legal July into union forced
Step IV : July behind only after said raise when trail into union forced legal
Step V : raise july behind only after when trail into union forced legal said
Step VI : trail raise july behind only after into union forced legal said when
Step VII : 20 18 10 2 15 1 9 21 6 12 19 23
Step VIII : 23 21 20 19 18 15 12 10 9 6 2 1
Step VIII is the last step of the arrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for
the given input.
Input : read inter called added show essar money with open player law grant
Q.1. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement ?
(1) Six (2) Seven (3) Eight (4) Nine (5) Ten
Q.2. Which step number would be the following output ?
player law called inter added show with essar open grant money read
(1) V (2) VI (3) VII (4) IV (5) VIII
Q.3. In step VI, which of the following word/number would be on the eighth position from the right?
(1) open (2) essar (3) added (4) 9 (5) inter
Q.4-6. When an input of words and numbers are given to a word and number arrangement machine its rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement given below:
Input: 45 tide article 38 24 disclosure which 5 aerious 15
Step 1 : which 45 tide article 38 24 disclosure 5 aerious 15
Step 2 : which 7 45 tide article 38 24 disclosure aerious 15
Step 3 : which 7 tide 45 article 38 24 disclosure aerious 15
Step 4 : which 7 tide 13 45 article 38 24 disclosure aerious
Step 5 : which 7 tide 13 article 45 38 24 disclosure aerious
Step 6 : which 7 tide 13 article 26 45 38 disclosure aerious
Step 7 : which 7 tide 13 article 26 disclosure 45 38 aerious
Step 8 : which 7 tide 13 article 26 disclosure 36 45 aerious
Step 9 : which 7 tide 13 article 26 disclosure 36 aerious 45
Step 10 : which 7 tide 13 article 26 disclosure 36 aerious 47
This is the final arrangement and step 10 is the last step for this input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for
the given input.
Input: aerious 14 accused 43 9 fireboard 30 that 58 wide
Q.4. Which word/number is third to the right of the fifth element from the right end in step 6?
(1) wide (2) 43 (3) 32 (4) fireboard (5) accused
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Q.5. If ‘aerious’ is related to ‘11’ in step 8 and ‘43’ is related to ‘12’ in step 5, then in step 3 ‘accused’ is related to?
(1) aid (2) 24 (3) 48 (4) strew (5) 14
Q.6. How many numbers/words are between ‘wide’ and ‘32’ in step 7?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.7-9. When an input of words and numbers is given to a word and number arrangement machine its rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement given
below:
Input: telecom turtle tares 225 64 toll 49 81 treason 256
Step I: tares telecom turtle 225 64 toll 81 treason 256 49
Step II: tares telecom toll turtle 225 81 treason 256 49 64
Step III: tares telecom toll treason turtle 225 256 49 64 81
Step IV: tares telecom toll treason turtle 256 49 64 81 225
Step V: tares telecom toll treason turtle 49 64 81 225 256
Step VI: 19 13 12 14 5 7 8 9 15 16
Step VII: 1 4 3 5 5 7 8 9 6 7
Step VIII: 1 3 4 5 5 6 7 7 8 9
Step VIII is the last step of the above input arrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the following question the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: shadow shade 100 324 shack shabby 441 676 snake 289 squad 841
Q.7. Which of the following will be step V for the given above input?
(1) shabby shack shade shadow 841 snake squad 100 289 324 441 676
(2) shabby shack shade 676 shadow snake squad 841 100 289 324 441
(3) shabby shack shade shadow snake squad 841 100 289 324 441 676
(4) shabby shack shade shadow snake 676 squad 841 100 289 324 441
(5) None of these
Q.8. Which of the following will be step VII for the given above input?
(1) 25 11 5 23 5 4 10 26 29 17 18 21 (2) 25 11 5 23 5 4 26 29 10 17 18 21
(3) 25 11 5 23 18 21 26 29 5 4 10 17 (4) 25 11 5 23 5 4 10 17 18 21 26 29
(5) None of these
Q.9. Which of the following steps will be the last but one for the above Input?
(1) V (2) VI (3) VII (4) VIII (5) None of these
Q.10-12. When an input of words and numbers is given to a word and number arrangement machine its rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement given below:
Input: Artificials extraordinary cant have superficial elephant.
Step I: extraordinary artificials cant have superficial elephant.
Step II: extraordinary superficial artificials cant have elephant.
Step III: extraordinary superficial artificials elephant cant have.
Step IV: extraordinary superficial artificials elephant have cant.
Step V: 25 12 19 20 5 20
Step VI: 7 3 10 2 5 2
Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for
the given input.
Input: Can curious frequently apparent elements fantabulous
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Q.10. How many steps will be required to complete the given input ?
(1) II (2) III (3) IV (4) VII (5) VI
Q.11. In step III which element is third from the right end ?
(1) Apparent (2) Curious (3) Can (4) Element (5) Frequently
Q.12. Which of the following will be the last but one step?
(1) VII (2) V (3) IV (4) VI (5) III
Q.13-15. When an input of words and numbers is given to a word and number arrangement machine its rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement given below:
Input: 61 always 19 regular 5 occasionally 51 usually zebra 91.
Step I: occasionally 61 always regular 5 51 usually zebra 91 19
Step II: usually occasionally always regular 5 51 zebra 91 19 61
Step III: always usually occasionally regular 51 zebra 91 19 61 5
Step IV: regular always usually occasionally zebra 91 19 61 5 51
StepV: Zebra regular always usually occasionally 19 61 5 51 91
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for
the given input.
Input : 72 magnet 20 table for 81 people 31 vibgyor 9
Q.13. How many steps are required to complete the given input?
(1) IV (2) V (3) VI (4) VII (5) VIII
Q.14. Which step number would be the following output?
People for table magnet 81 vibgyor 20 72 9 31.
(1) III (2) IV (3) V (4) VI (5) VII
Q.15. Which word/number would be on the fourth position from the left end in Step III?
(1) for (2) table (3) 81 (4) 20 (5) people
Q.16-17. When an input of words and numbers are given to a word and number arrangement machine its rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement given below:
Input : TEAM, FEAT, MAN, IIL, AEM, EMA
Step I : AEM, TEAM, FEAT, MAN, IIL, EMA
Step II : AEM, EMA, TEAM, FEAT, MAN, IIL
Step III : AEM, EMA, FEAT, TEAM, MAN, IIL
Step IV : AEM, EMA, FEAT, IIL, TEAM, MAN
Step V : AEM, EMA, FEAT, IIL, MAN, TEAM
Step VI : 11, 11, 12, 4, 10, 13
Step VI is the last step of the given input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for
the given input.
Input : TEN, MEAT, FEAT, EAT, ALM
Q.16. Which of the following will be the last step of the given input?
(1) 19, 31, 12, 10, 2 (2) 9, 13, 12, 9, 9 (3) 7, 17, 14, 11, 7
(4) 8, 20, 10, 13, 3 (5) None of these
Q.17. Which of the following is the third element from the right end in the last step?
(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 10 (4) 09 (5) None of these

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Q.18-22. When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: Prevail 68 Circle 45 Onion 72 Submit 91 Leave 37 14 Time
Step I: Time Prevail 68 Circle 45 Onion 72 Submit Leave 37 14 19
Step II: Submit Time Prevail 68 Circle 45 Onion Leave 37 14 27 19
Step III: Prevail Submit Time Circle 45 Onion Leave 37 14 86 27 19
Step IV: Onion Prevail Submit Time Circle Leave 37 14 54 86 27 19
Step V: Leave Onion Prevail Submit Time Circle 14 73 54 86 27 19
Step VI: Circle Leave Onion Prevail Submit Time 41 73 54 86 27 19
Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: Adamant 79 Maximum 48 17 Inquire Random 62 Faith 85 Wilful 36
Q.18. What is the position of “Random” in Step IV for the given input?
(1) Third from the left (2) Second from the left (3) Fifth from the left
(4) Fourth from the left (5) Seventh from the left
Q.19. Which of the following elements is sixth to the right of the third word from the right in the fifth step?
(1) 26 (2) Maximum (3) 62 (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these
Q.20. How many numbers appear between the words “Wilful” and “Faith” in the third step?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) None (5) None of these
Q.21. In Step IV, how many numbers in the arrangement are divisible by 4?
(1) Three (2) One (3) Two (4) None (5) None of these
Q.22. Which of the following will be the last but one step?
(1) Faith Maximum Inquire Random Wilful Adamant 17 63 84 26 97 58
(2) Faith Inquire Maximum Random Wilful Adamant 17 63 84 26 58 97
(3) Faith Inquire 63 Maximum Wilful Random Adamant 17 84 26 97 58
(4) Faith Inquire Maximum Random Wilful Adamant 17 63 84 26 97 58
(5) Faith Inquire Maximum Random Wilful Adamant 63 17 84 26 97 58
Q.23-26. Word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, following a particular
rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit numbers)
Input : rosee gently hot lost sea beard cost palm
Step I : sea rosee gently hot lost beard cost palm 83
Step II : beard sea rosee gently hot lost cost palm 83 66
Step III : rosee beard sea gently hot lost cost palm 83 66 62
Step IV : palm rosee beard sea gently hot lost cost 83 66 62 57
Step V : hot palm rosee beard sea gently lost cost 83 66 62 57 43
Step VI : cost hot palm rosee beard sea gently lost 83 66 62 57 43 42
Step VII : lost cost hot palm rosee beard sea gently 83 66 62 57 43 42 30
Step VIII : gently lost cost hot palm rosee beard sea 83 66 62 57 43 42 30 25
Step VIII is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given.
Input: win arm blanket zebra team slip dawnn chip

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Q.23. Which of the following represents the position of "slip" in the Step V?
(1) Ninth from the right (2) Ninth from the left (3) Eighth from the right
(4) Seventh from the right (5) Sixth from the left
Q.24. How many elements (words/ numbers) are there between "dawnn" and "65" as they appear in Step VII?"
(1) Five (2) Six (3) Seven (4) Four (5) Eight
Q.25. Which element (word/number) would be at the ninth position from the left in the Step V?
(1) 56 (2) slip (3) 70 (4) team (5) arm
Q.26. How many steps will be required to complete the given arrangement?
(1) VII (2) VIII (3) IX (4) X (5) XI
Q.27-30. An input-output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step. No
mathematical operation is repeated in the next step.

As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate
step for the given input.

Q.27. Find the multiplication of the numbers obtained in step 1?
(1) 197776 (2) 177796 (3) 199766 (4) 179776 (5) 197966
Q.28. What is the 4th step of this Input?
(1) 93 (2) 24 (3) 48 (4) 38 (5) 28
Q.29. Find the addition of the numbers obtained in step 2 and step 4?
(1) 197 (2) 170 (3) 210 (4) 190 (5) 200
Q.30. Find the difference between the numbers obtained in step 3 and step 4?
(1) 89 (2) 79 (3) 69 (4) 59 (5) 49
Q.31-35. Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
An Input is given in different steps. Analyze the pattern and answer the questions given below.

As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate
step for the given input.

Q.31. Which of the following will be the last step?

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(1) 342 (2) 353 (3) 380 (4) 389 (5) None of these
Q.32. Find the addition of the all numbers obtained in step III
(1) 1474 (2) 1511 (3) 1354 (4) 1741 (5) 1059
Q.33. Find the addition of the digits obtained in step II
(1) 42 (2) 41 (3) 88 (4) 98 (5) 34
Q.34. Find the difference between lowest number in step I and lowest number obtained in step III?
(1) 122 (2) 135 (3) 128 (4) 140 (5) None of these
Q.35. Find the product of the digit obtained in step IV?
(1) 9216 (2) 6152 (3) 9314 (4) 8474 (5) None of these
Q.36-40. When an input line of numbers is given to a number arrangement machine its rearranges them following a
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement given below.
Input : 361 342 423 367 388 379 425
Step I : 542 432 883 973 763 631 432
Step II : 253 270 276 268 299 532 534
Step III : 973 883 763 524 324 243 163
Step IV : 838 739 637 631 432 245 243
Step V : 04 05 07 09 10 11 12
Step VI : 06 06 07 09 09 10 11
Step VII : 09 09 10 11 16 19 19
Step VIII : 36 16 04 36 64 49 04
Step V is the last step of the given input. Study the input given below that follows the pattern given above and
answer the questions afterwards.
Input: 198 399 379 324 266 285 419
Q.36. Which step number would be the following output?
939 918 825 739 626 234 149
(1) II (2) III (3) V (4) IV (5) None of these
Q.37. Which of the following digit is third from the right end of step III?
(1) 973 (2) 941 (3) 432 (4) 662 (5) 852
Q.38. What is sum of all numbers in the last step?
(1) 314 (2) 513 (3) 316 (4) 458 (5) None of these
Q.39. If all elements of step V are reversed then which of the following element will be the fourth from the left end?
(1) 07 (2) 08 (3) 09 (4) 12 (5) None of these
Q.40. What will be the position of ‘19’ in step VII?
(1) Third from the left (2) Second from the right (3) Fifth from the left
(4) Fourth from the right (5) None of these

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Explanation
Q.1-3. Step 9: that 11 wide 12 accused 32 fireboard 41 aerious
Input : read inter called added show essar money with 60
open player law grant Q.4.(4) Q.5.(3) Q.6.(1)
Step I: added read inter called show money with open Q.7-9.
player law grant essar
Input: shadow shade 100 324 shack shabby 441 676
Step II : inter added read called show money with player snake 289 squad 841
law grant essar open
Step I: shabby shadow shade 324 shack 441 676 snake
Step III: Called inter added read show money with player 289 squad 841 100
law essar open grant
Step II: shabby shcak shadow shade 324 441 676 snake
Step IV: Law called inter added read show with player squad 841 100 289
essar open grant money
Step III: shabby shack shade shadow 441 676 snake squad
Step V: Player law called inter added show with essar 841 100 289 324
open grant money read.
Step IV: shabby shack shude shudow snake 676 squad
Step VI: Show player law called inter added essar open 841 100 289 324 441
grant money read with
Step V: shabby shack shade shadow snake squad 841
Step VII : 19 16 12 3 9 1 5 15 7 13 18 23 100 289 324 441 676
Step VIII : 23 19 18 16 15 13 12 9 7 5 3 1 Step VI: shabby shack shade shadow snake squad 100
Q.1.(3) Q.2.(1) Q.3.(5) 289 324 441 676 841
Q.4-6. Number of vowels in words in ascending order: Step VII: 25, 11, 5, 23, 5, 4, 10, 17, 18, 21, 26,29
which, tide, article, disclosure, aerious
Step VIII: 7, 2, 5, 5, 5, 4, 1, 8, 9, 3, 8, 2
Arrange in same way in each step
Step IX: 1, 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, 5, 5, 7, 8, 8, 9
Numbers in ascending order: 7, 13, 26, 36, 47
Q.7.(3) shabby shack shade shadow snake squad 841,
first number – added 2 100, 289, 324, 441, 676
second number – subtracted 2 Q.8.(4) 25, 11, 5, 23, 5, 4, 10, 17, 18, 21, 26,29
third number – added 2 Q.9.(4) VIII
Now arranged in alternative steps. Q.10-12. Words are arranged according to the
Input: aerious 14 accused 43 9 fireboard 30 that 58 wide number of letter in given word.
Step 1: that aerious 14 accused 43 9 fireboard 30 58 Input : can curious frequently apparent elements
wide fantabulous
Step 2: that 11 aerious 14 accused 43 fireboard 30 58 Step I : fantabulous can curious frequently apparent
wide elements
Step 3: that 11 wide aerious 14 accused 43 fireboard 30 Step II : fantabulous frequently can curious apparent
58 elements
Step 4: that 11 wide 12 aerious accused 43 fireboard 30 Step III : fatabulous frequently elements can curious
58 apparent
Step 5: that 11 wide 12 accused aerious 43 fireboard 30 Step IV : fantabulous frequently elements apparent can
58 curious
Step 6: that 11 wide 12 accused 32 aerious 43 fireboard Step V : fantabulous frequently elements apparent curious
58 can
Step 7: that 11 wide 12 accused 32 fireboard aerious 43 Step VI : 19 25 20 20 19 14
58
Step VII : 10 7 2 2 10 5
Step 8: that 11 wide 12 accused 32 fireboard 41 aerious
58 Q.10.(4) Q.11.(3) Q.12.(4)

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Q.13-15. Arrange the word in alphabetical order then pick Q.20. (1)
second and fourth position, then pick first, third Q.21. (3)
and fifth position.
Q.22. (4)
i.e. always, occasionally, regular, usually, zebra
Q.23-26.
1 2 3 4 5
Input: win arm blanket zebra team slip dawnn chip
occasionally, usually, always, regular, zebra
Step I : zebra win arm blanket team slip dawnn chip 70
2 4 1 3 5
Step II : team zebra win arm blanket slip dawnn chip 70
same thing is done for numbers also. 65
Input: 72 magnet 20 table for 71 people 31 vibgyor 9. Step III : arm team zebra win blanket slip dawnn chip 70
Step I. magnet 72 table for 81 people 31 vibgyor 9 20 65 56
Step II. table magnet for 81 people 31 vibgyor 9 20 72. Step IV : win arm team zebra blanket slip dawnn chip 70
Step III. for table magnet 81 people 31 vibgyor 20 72 9. 65 56 52

Step IV. people for table magnet 81 vibgyor 20 72 9 31. Step V : dawnn win arm team zebra blanket slip chip 70
65 56 52 46
Step V. Vibgyor people for table magnet 20 72 9 31 81.
Step VI : chip dawnn win arm team zebra blanket slip 70
Q.13.(2) Q.14.(2) Q.15.(3) 65 56 52 46 39
Q.16-17. Step VII : slip chip dawnn win arm team zebra blanket 70
Input : TEN, MEAT, FEAT, EAT, ALM 65 56 52 46 39 36
Step I: ALM, TEN, MEAT, FEAT, EAT Step VIII : blanket slip chip dawnn win arm team
zebra 70 65 56 52 46 39 36 32
Step II: ALM, EAT, TEN, MEAT, FEAT
Q.23. (4)
Step III: ALM, EAT, FEAT, TEN, MENT
Q.24. (2)
Step IV: ALM, EAT, FEAT, MENT, TEN
Q.25. (3)
Step V: 9, 9, 12, 13, 9
Q.26. (2)
Q.16.(2) Q.17.(1)
Q.27-30.
Q.18-22. In each step the word is arranged on left in
alphabetically decreasing order and the number INPUT: 4 1 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 1
is arranged on right in descending order and
digits are interchanged. 4+1 1+2 2+3 1+2 2+4 3+1
Input: Adamant 79 Maximum 48 17 Inquire Random STEP-I 5 3 5 3 6 4
62 Faith 85 Wilful 36 5×5×6 3×3×4
Step I: Wilful Adamant 79 Maximum 48 17 Inquire STEP-II 150 36
Random 62 Faith 36 58 (150+36)/2
Step II: Random Wilful Adamant Maximum 48 17 STEP-III 93
Inquire 62 Faith 36 97 58
(9+3)×2
Step III: Maximum Random Wilful Adamant 48 17 STEP-IV 24
Inquire Faith 36 26 97 58
Q.27. (4) Explanation- 53×53×64 = 179776
Step IV: Inquire Maximum Random Wilful Adamant 17
Q.28. (2)
Faith 36 84 26 97 58
Q.29. (3) 150+36+24=210
Step V: Faith Inquire Maximum Random Wilful
Adamant 17 63 84 26 97 58 Q.30. (3) 93 - 24 = 69
Step VI: Adamant Faith Inquire Maximum Random Q.31-35.
Wilful 71 63 84 26 97 58
Q.18. (1) Third from the left
Q.19. (5) Random

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INPUT: 4 7 5 3 5 2 8 6 3 9 1 3 5 4 7 (All number are arranged in descending order)
918 939 739 234 626 825 149
STEP-I 1 2 3 3 3 4 4 5 5 5 6 7 7 8 9
All digits are arranged in ascending order
(Interchange Ist and IInd digit)
Step IV : 939 918 825 739 626 234 149
STEP-II 4 0 0 5 7 6 7 8 4
2 (All numbers are arranged in descending order)
(Sum of all first digit)2 (Sum of all second digit)2 (Sum of all third digit)
1 + 8 = 9, 3 + 9 = 12, 3 + 9 = 12, 3 + 4 = 7, 2 +
STEP-III 3 8 4 2 5 2 4 2 3
6
(4+0+0=4×4, 400-16=384) (5+7+6=18×18=324, 576-324=252)
(7+8+4=19×19=361, 784-361=423) = 8, 2 + 5 = 7, 4 + 9 = 13
(Digit Ist + Digit IIIrd)
STEP-IV 6 4 8 8 1 6
Step V : 07 07 08 09 12 12 13
(3×2=6, 8×5=40=4+0=4, 4×2=8) (2×4=8, 5×2=10=1+0=1, 2×3=6)
(All numbers are arranged in ascending order)
STEP-V 2 7 0
1+9 = 10, 3+9 = 12, 3+7=10, 3+2 = 5, 2+6 = 8
(6+4+8=18, 8+1+6=15, 18×15=270)
2+8 = 10, 4+1 = 5
Q.31. (5) (Digit Ist + Digit IInd)
Q.32. (5) 384+252+423=1059 Step VI : 05 05 08 10 10 10 12
Q.33. (2) 4+0+0+5+7+6+7+8+4=41 (All numbers are arranged in ascending order)
Q.34. (5) 252-123=129 1+9+8 = 18, 3+9+9 = 21, 3+7+9 = 19, 3+2+4 =
Q.35. (1) 6x4x8x8x1x6=9216 9
Q.36-40. 2+6+6 = 14, 2+8+5 = 15, 4+1+9 = 14
Input : 198 399 379 324 266 285 419 (Digit Ist + Digit IInd + Digit IIIrd)
419 399 379 324 285 266 198 Step VII : 09 14 14 15 18 19 21
(All numbers are arranged in descending order) (All numbers are arranged in ascending order)
Step I : 941 993 973 432 852 662 981 92, 92, 72, 22, 62, 82, 12
(Interchange Ist and IIIrd Digit)
(Square of the middle digit)
198 266 285 324 379 399 419 Step VIII : 81 81 49 04 36 64 01
(All numbers are arranged in ascending order) Q.36.(4)
Step II : 089 377 394 235 268 288 508 Q.37.(5)
(odd number -1, even number +1) Q.38. (3)
891 993 973 423 662 582 914 Q.39. (3)
(interchange Ist and IIIrd digit) Q.40. (2)
Step III : 993 981 973 941 852 662 432

NOTES

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CHAPTER

12 InEQuality

As a topic inequality is all about the comparison between concept is totally different so we have to study separately.
two or more than two variables. Some Important Rules :-
In this topic, we have to compare between variables and we
Rule-1. If all symbols are in the same direction then we
have to conclude them. For comparison basically, we use
can find the relation.
some symbols.
Ex.1. A > B > C
Some Basic Symbols of Inequality
> Greater→ A > B ⇒ A is greater than B. Definite - A > B, B > C and A > C
< Less→ A < B ⇒ A is less than B. Possibility – No possibility
= Equal→ A = B ⇒ A is equal to B. Here, we can say easily that all the symbols are in one
direction so we can find out the relationship among A >
Note : >, < and = these inequality symbols are difinite symbols. B, B > C and A > C. These all three conclusions are true.
Some Other Important Symbols Ex.2. A < B < C
> either greater than or equal to→ A > B means A is either
Definite - A < B, B < C and A < C
greater than or equal to B.
Possibility – No possibility
< either less than or equal → A < B mean A is either less Here, we can say easily that all the symbols are also in one
than or equal to B. direction so we can find out the relationship among A <
Note : > , < these symbols are possible symbols. B, B < C and A < C. These all three conclusions are true.
Indirect Representation of Symbols Rule-2. If all the symbols are not in one direction so we
cannot find the relation between two opposite symbols.
⇒ ( ), A B means → A > B
Ex. A > B < C
⇒ ( ), A B means → A < B
⇒ ( ), A B means → A > B Definite - A > B and B < C
⇒ ( ), A B means → A < B Possibility – A > C, A < C and A = C.
Here we get opposite symbol between A and C so we
⇒ ( ), A B means → A>B or A<B cannot find out the relation between A and C means may
Types of Inequality- :- be A > C, A < C and A = C. But the relation between A and
1. Direct Form (Simple Form) B or B and C are clear means A > B and B < C are true.
2. Coded Form Rule-3. If there is the double relation (≥) between all
variables so we cannot sure about single relation (>) but
3. Based On Language the direction of all symbols should be same.
4. Gap Filling Ex. A ≥ B ≥ C
5. Reverse Form
Type -I → Simple Inequality : In such questions one or Definite - A ≥ B, B ≥ C and A ≥ C
more than one statements will be given and two or more than Possibility – A > B, A = B, B > C, B = C, A > C, A = C
two conclusions will be given according to statement you Here we can sure about only double relation not for single
have to find which of these conclusions is right (follow). relation because single relation will be doubtful. Therefore A
≥ B, B ≥ C and A ≥ C are true but A > B, A = B, B > C, B = C, A
Basics of Inequality : > C, A = C all are in doubtful conditions and the combination
> and < are single (definite) inequality symbols. of similar variables make “either-or” condition. (“Either-Or”
> and < are double (possible) inequality symbols. means we cannot support 100% anyone relation.)
Rule-4. If there is the relation of double (≥) and single
= is neither single nor double inequality symbols presence
(>) signs.
of = in the statement doesn't make any difference.

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Ex. A ≥ B > C conclusion related to them will give can't say (does
not follow) as an asnwer.
Definite - A ≥ B, B > C and A > C 1. DIRECT INEQUALITY
Possibility – A > B, A = B Ex.4. Statement:
Rule-5. If there is the relation of single (>) and double
I<D<N>W=L<G
(≥) signs.
Ex. A > B ≥ C Conclusions:
(1) N > I (2) N > W (3) L > G
Definite - A > B, B ≥ C and A > C (4) G > D (5) G ≥ W
Possibility – B > C, B = C
Now we will consider each conclusion one by one-
Rule-6. If there is any foreign element in the conclusion which
is not in the statement, so relation will be doubtful. Also, we The First conclusion is: N>I
can apply "either/or" condition but for this condition, there Now you just see these two alphabets in the
should be two common variables with three relations (>, < question, as the symbols between N and I are in
and =). Otherwise, we mark “neither/nor” condition. one direction which is pointing in the direction of
Let clear with some examples- N so easily we can say that N > D and as well as
N > I, then the first conclusion is true. Remember
Ex.1. Statement- A>B>C
if the symbols are pointing in the direction of
Conclusions- I i.e. even if one symbol is towards I, then the
I. H > C II. H = C conclusion becomes false.
Neither I nor II is true because H < C also may be The Second conclusion is: N>W
true. Here, N ≥ W = L
Ex.2. Statement- A>B>C It's mean W = L
Conclusions- So, N ≥ L or W is definitely true.
I. H > C II. H ≥ C But, N > L or W is false and N = W or L is also
Either I or II is true because of these two variables false.
show all three relations. And a specific rule will be the form.
Ex.3. Statement- A>B>C When,
Conclusions- N>L
Either N > L or N = L is true
I. H > C II. H < C N=L
Neither I nor II is true because H = C can also be. The Third conclusion is: L > G
How to Conclude : In the given statement: I < D < N ≥ W = L ≤ G, G
Step-1. Check symbols are in same order or not. is either greater than or equal to L (means the sign
Step-2. If symbols are in same order then check there is between G and L is not decidable). Therefore the
only single inequality symbols between those two third conclusion is false.
elements we are comparing. The Fourth conclusion is: G>D
(a) (i) If yes, then conclusion will have single inequality In the given statement, the symbols which are
symbol between them in order to make conclusions used between G and D are in opposite directions
definitely true (follow) of each other. So the conclusion fourth is false.
(ii) If No, then there will have double inequality The Fifth conclusion is: G≥W
symbol between in order to make conclusions In the given statement W is equal to L and L is less
definitely true. (follow) than or equal to G that’s way W is also less than
(iii) If neither single nor double sign is present between or equal to G. Hence, the conclusion fifth is true.
them and only "equals to" is present then the Ex.5-9. In each of the following question, assuming the
conclusion also must have "=" sign to make it given statements to be true, find which of the
definitely true. two conclusions I and II given below them is/are
(b) If symbols are not in same order in the statement definitely true.
then entities which are being compared will Give answer -
always give "No relation" because of which only
(1) If only conclusion I is true.
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(2) If only conclusion II is true. Conclusions : I. U<R
(3) If either conclusion I or II is true. II. R>P
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. Explanation:
(5) If both conclusions I and II are true. P<Q<R>S=T>U
Ex.5. Statements : A = B > C > D, D < E < F This equation will be written in two ways because
Conclusions : I. A>E of T = S.
II. A<E First is –
Explanation: Firstly combined the given two P<Q<R>T>U
statements- Or
A=B>C>D<E<F Second is-
Conclusions -
P<Q<R>S>U
I. A > E (Can't say because the symbols are not in
The common sign between U and R is ‘>’
one direction)
So, the conclusion I is definitely true.
II. A ≤ E (Can't say because the symbols are not
in one direction) For conclusion II,
The sign between A and E are in opposite Let us see the given statement.
directions. So there is no definite relation between We can see there are two relations between R and
them but in inequality only three symbols >, < and P so we cannot be sure about one relation.
= are required to identify the relation between two
Therefore, R > P is false.
persons/objects.
Therefore, A is either greater, less or equal to E. Hence the answer is the option (1).

Hence the answer is option (3) Ex.8. Statements: L > M = N > O, O>P>Q
Ex.6. Statements : I > J < K = L, L<M>N Conclusions: I. P<M
Conclusions : I. M>J II. P=M
II. M>I Explanation:
Explanation: Firstly combined the given two L>M=N>O>P>Q
statements This equation will be written in two ways because
I<J<K=L<M>N M = N.
This equation will be written in two ways because L>M>O>P<Q
K = L. Or
First is- L>N>O>P<Q
I<J<K<M>N And there are two relations between P and M.
Or So, P is either less than or equal to M.
Second is –
Hence the answer is option (3).
I<J<L<M>N
Ex.9. Statements: R < S < T = U, U<V>W=X
There are two relations between M and J so, we
Conclusions: I. V>R
cannot be sure about one relation. Therefore,
conclusion I is false. II. V>R
Again, Explanation:
For conclusion II, After combining-
Let us see the signs between M and I. R<S<T=U<V>W=X
We can see that sign ‘<’ is common. The common sign between V and R is ‘<’.
So, M is greater than I, is definitely true. So, V is greater than R is definitely true.
Hence the answer is option (2). And conclusion I is false.
Ex.7. Statements: P < Q < R, R>S=T>U Hence the answer is option (2).
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2. CODED INEQUALITY I. P > Y True
Example: II. P > R True
Ex.10-15. In the following questions, the symbols %, d, *, Both I and II are true.
+ and / are used with the following meaning as Sol.11.(4) Conclusions:
illustrated below:
I. T < R False
'B % C' means ‘B is neither greater than nor equal
II.T < M False
to C'.
Neither I nor II is true.
'B d C’ means ‘B is neither smaller than nor equal
to C. Ex.12-13. Statements:
'B * C’ means ‘B is not greater than C'. M + L * J + Y, L d U d V d S, N * G * V d A
'B + C’ means ‘B is not smaller than C'. Ex.12. Conclusions: I. M%S
'B / C' means ‘B is neither smaller than nor greater II. MdS
than C. Ex.13. Conclusions: I. Y+V
In the following questions statements showing, II. VdY
the relationship between different elements has Explanations:
been given, which are followed by conclusions I
and II. For these questions firstly we have to know that
the meaning of the symbols %, d, *, + and /.
Give answer:
'B % C' means <
(1) If only conclusion I is true.
'B d C' means >
(2) If only conclusion II is true.
'B * C' means <
(3) If either conclusion I or II is true.
'B + C' means >
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
'B / C' means =
(5) If both conclusions I and II are true
Statements:
Ex.10-11. Statements:
M + L * J + Y, L d U d V d S, N * G * V d A
P + Q d T, M / R / Y % Q, A * C d T d X
M ≥ L ≤ J ≥ Y, L > U > V > S, N ≤ G ≤ V > A
Ex.10. Conclusions: I. PdY
After combining-
II. PdR
M>L<J>Y
Ex.11. Conclusions: I. T%R
V
II. T%M
U>V>S
Explanation:
VI
For these questions firstly we have to know that
the meaning of the symbols %, d, *, + and /. G
'B % C' means < VI
'B d C' means > N
'B * C' means < (There is no need to show the relation between V
and A)
'B + C' means >
Sol.12.(2) Conclusions:
'B / C' means =
I. M < S False
Statements:
II. M > S True
P + Q d T, M / R / Y % Q, A * C d T d X
Only II is true
P ≥ Q > T, M = R = Y < Q, A ≤ C > T > X
Sol.13.(3) Conclusions:
After combining-
I. Y ≥ V
P>Q>T<C>A
II. V > Y
V V
Either I or II is true
R=M=Y X
Ex.14-15. Statements:
Sol.10.(5) Conclusions:
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F + K d H * Z, Q d R * S * H, D + O d R d W according to the above symbols and their meaning.
Ex.14. Conclusions: I. FdS Ex.16. Which of the following does not make A # C and
II. FdR D $ F definitely true?
Ex.15. Conclusions: I. SdD (1) A % B # C @ D $ E $ F
II. S%O (2) A # B @ C $ D $ E @ F
Explanations: (3) A $ B * C @ D % E # F
For these questions firstly we have to know that (4) A % B # C # D @ E $ F
the meaning of the symbols %, d, *, + and /. (5) None of these
'B % C' means < Sol.(3) Check all the options and find in which both A >
'B d C' means > C and D ≤ F are false.
'B * C' means < Option (3) is A ≤ B < C = D ≥ E > F.
'B + C' means > Ex.17. Which of the following makes C $ E or B % E
definitely true?
'B / C' means =
(1) A * B $ C @ D % E # F
Statements:
(2) A # B * C $ D @ E # F
F + K d H * Z, Q d R * S * H, D + O d R d W
(3) A # B # C % D % E * F
F ≥ K > H ≤ Z, Q > R ≤ S ≤ H, D ≥ O > R > W
(4) A @ B % C @ D * E * F
After combining-
(5) None of these
F>K>H<Z
Sol.(2) Check all the options and find in which both or at
VI
least one of C ≤ E and B ≥ E is true.
S>R>O<D
Option (2) is A > B < C ≤ D = E > F.
V
In this, C ≤ E is true. In all other options, both are
W false.
Sol.14.(5) Conclusions: Ex.18. If “A % B % C * D @ E $ F” is true then which
I. F > S True of the following is definitely not true?
II. F > R True (i) A # D (ii) C * F
Both I and II are true (iii) B # D (iv) D # F
Sol.15.(4) Conclusions: (1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii) and (iv)
I. S > D False (3) Only (iv) (4) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
II. S < O False (5) All are true
Neither I nor II is true Sol.(3) We do not have sufficient information about
More questions based on CODED INEQUALITY the relation between A and D. So we cannot say
definitely false in other options.
Example:
Ex.19. What will come in place of blank in following
Ex.16-19. In the following questions, the symbols %, @, below such that both A % D and C # F are
#, $ and * are used with the following meaning as definitely true?
illustrated below:
A%B%C_D#E%F
‘P#Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal
to Q’. (i) @ (ii) *
‘P*Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal (iii) % (iv) $
to Q’. (1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii) and (iv)
‘P$Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’. (3) Only (i) and (iii) (4) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’. (5) All are true
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater Sol.(3) With (i) A≥B≥C=D>E≥F
than Q’. With (iii) A≥B≥C≥D>E≥F
In each of the following questions, mark answer Both of these A ≥ D and C > F are definitely true.
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Let’s know some short tricks: A = B > C = D or A = B ≥ C = D or A > B
100 % sign > and < = C > D or …etc….
50 % sign > and < If elements have opposite symbols between them:-
If all symbols are in one direction and elements Example:
have 100 % sign in between them then 100 % If Statement:
relation can find out. A > B < C or A < B > C or A ≥ B < C
Example: or A > B ≤ C
If A>B>C Conclusions:
Then A > B (True) I. A>C
B > C (True) II. A≤C
A > C (True) Either I or II is true.
Again A<B<C Note: If all three relations (<, > and =) are shown in
Then A < B (True) between two same elements then there should be
‘Either-Or’ condition.
B < C (True)
Example:
A < C (True)
If Statement:
If all symbols are in one direction and elements
have 50 % sign in between them then 50 % relation A ≥ B < C or A ≥ B ≤ C
can find out. (1) Conclusions:
Example: I. A>B
If A≥B≥C II. A=B
Then A ≥ B (True) Either I or II is true.
B ≥ C (True) (2) Conclusions:
A ≥ C (True) I. A≥B
If all symbols are in one direction and elements II. A=B
have both 100% and 50 % signs in between them Only I is true.
then only 100 % relation can find out.
Example:
Example:
If Statement:
If A>B≥C or A≥B>C
A ≥ B ≤ C or A > B ≤ C
Then A > B (True)
Conclusions:
A > C (True)
I. B<C
But B > C (False) and B = C (False)
II. B=C
Only ‘Either-Or’ condition will be true in between
Either I or II is true.
B and C.
3. BASED ON LANGUAGE
Equal is a magic symbol. It only works when
elements have ‘=’ sign between them. Ex.20. Which of the following symbols should replace
the question mark (?) in the given expression in
Example:
order to make the expressions P > A and T < L
Equal relation is true only when definitely true?
Statement: P > L (?) A ≥ N = T
A=B=C or A = B = C = D …etc... (1) ≤ (2) > (3) <
Then A = B (True) (4) ≥ (5) Either ≤ or <
B = C (True) Sol. P > L (?) A ≥ N = T
A = C (True) (1) P > L ≤ A ≥ N = T
Equal sign will be neglect, in other cases when We cannot find the relation between P and A or
Statement: T and L because they have opposite symbols

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between them. For conclusion (3): Since there are 100% but opposite
Hence option (1) is not correct. symbols (means >, <) between T and A, therefore
there is no relation between them and T > A is false.
(2) P > L > A ≥ N = T
Hence conclusion (3) is not correct.
Symbols are in one direction between P and A and
For conclusion (4): Since there are two symbols
they have 100% sign between them so P > A is
< and = between S and O. Therefore O > S is true
true.
while S = O is false. Hence conclusion (4) is not
For T< L correct.
Let us concentrate on given expression For conclusion (5): Since there are 100% but
P>L>A≥N=T opposite symbols (>, <) between T and R,
There are >, ≥, = signs between L and T. therefore there is no relation between them and T
< R is false.
According to the short trick,
Hence conclusion (5) is not correct.
P>L>A≥N OR P>L>A≥T
4. GAP FILLING
L and T elements have one direction symbols of
100 % and 50% signs between them, so 100% sign Ex.22. What should come in place of question mark (?)
will be true. in the given expression in order to make ‘Z > F’
and ‘G ≥ U’ definitely true?
Therefore L > T is true.
U ≤ R (?) G ≤ T > Z (?) S ≥ N = O > F
Hence option (2) is correct.
(1) <, > (2) < or =, ≤ (3) =, <
(3) P > L < A ≥ N = T
(4) ≤, > (5) ≥, ≤
Since there are opposite symbols between P and A
or T and L, therefore there is no relation between Sol. (1) U ≤ R < G ≤ T > Z > S ≥ N = O > F
them. For Z > F
Hence option (3) is not correct. There are one direction symbols between Z and
(4) P > L ≥ A ≥ N = T F. Also they have 100% sign between them.
Therefore Z > F is true.
Firstly we have found that all symbols are in one
direction. For G ≥ U
We get 100% sign between P and A so P > A is G and U have both 100% and 50 % sign between
true but we don’t have 100% sign between L and them, in one direction thus only 100 % sign is true.
T so L > T is false. Therefore G > U is false.
Hence option (4) is not correct. Hence option (1) is not correct.
(5) As we discuss in (1) and (3) similarly option (2) U ≤ R = G ≤ T > Z < S ≥ N = O > F
(5) is not correct. G > U is true but Z > F is false because Z and F
Ex.21. Which of the following conclusion will be true, have opposite symbols between them.
if the expression T > S < A = O < R is definitely Hence option (2) is not correct.
true?
(3) U < R = G < T > Z < S > N = O > F
(1) T < O (2) S < R (3) T > A
G > U is true but Z > F is false because Z and F
(4) S =O (5) T < R have opposite symbols between them.
Sol. T>S<A=O<R Hence option (3) is not correct.
For conclusion (1): Since there are 100 % but (4) U < R < G <T > Z > S ≥ N = O > F
opposite symbols (means >, <) between T and O,
G and U have only 50% sign between them
therefore there is no relation between them and T
therefore G > U is true and Z and F have both 100
< O is false.
% and 50% signs so Z > F is also true.
Hence conclusion (1) is not correct.
Hence option (4) is correct.
For conclusion (2): Since there are 100 % and one
(5) U < R > G < T > Z < S > N = O > F
direction symbol (means <, <) between S and R,
therefore R > S is true. Due to opposite signs option (5) is not correct.
Hence conclusion (2) is correct. Ex.23.
Which of the following should be placed in the
blank spaces respectively (in the same order
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from left to right) in order to complete the given Ex.25. Conclusions- I. A>B
expression in such a manner that makes the II. N>B
expression ‘Z < K’ definitely false?
Statement-
____ ≤ ___ < ___ > ____ = _____
(1) M > A > R > B = N
(1) O, M, K, Z, U (2) O, Z, K, M, U
(2) A ≥ M ≥ R > B > N
(3) Z, O, K, M, U (4) M, Z, K, U, O
(3) A < R < M > B ≥ N
(5) K, M, Z, O, U
(4) A ≤ R ≤ M ≥ B < N
Sol. (1) O ≤ M < K > Z = U
(5) M < A = R > B < N
K > Z is true.
Sol.
Hence option (1) is not correct.
(2) O ≤ Z < K > M = U M<A= R > B < N

Z < K is true.
Hence option (5) is correct.
Hence option (2) is not correct.
Ex.26. Conclusions- I. L≥M
(3) Z ≤ O < K > M = U
II. O>I
K > Z is true.
Statement-
Hence option (3) is not correct.
(1) I < J = K ≤ L, N = K ≥ M > O
(4) M ≤ Z < K > U = O
(2) I ≥ J = K ≤ L, N = K > M > O
Z < K is true.
(3) I ≥ J = K ≥ L, N = K ≤ M < O
Hence option (4) is not correct.
(4) I < J = K ≤ L, N = K > M > O
(5) K ≤ M < Z > O = U
(5) None of these
Here Z > K is true and K > Z is false.
Sol. I<J=K≤L,N=K≥M>O
Hence option (5) is correct.
I<J=K≤L,
Ex.24. What will come in the place of question mark (?)
in the given statement if P>U and R>V is definitely N=K≥M>O
true? I > J = K < L, N = K > M > O
P>Q>R=S?T>U>V I > J = K < L,
(1) > (2) < N=K>M>O
(3) = (4) Either (1) or (3) I ≥ J = K ≥ L, N = K ≤ M < O
(5) None of these I ≥ J = K ≥ L,
Sol.(4) N=K≤M<O
P>Q>R=S?T>U>V
I < J = K ≤ L, N = K > M > O
In these kind of questions we have to consider I < J = K ≤ L,
conditions given in the statement as conclusion N=K>M>O
and in order to make them correct one has to fill
Therefore, L ≥ M and O > I are not true in the
the blank with inequality symbols.
above statements.
So possibility for P > U → >, =
Hence option (5) is correct.
but for
NOTE- Sometimes some more symbols are used
R > V possibility are → >, =, > in the exam.
but commonly >, = make both of the conditions > means < and =
are right so answer will be > or = < means > and =
5. REVERSE INEQUALITY = means > and <
Ex.25-26. In these type of questions, two conclusions and No need to worry about these symbols because
five statements are given below. You have to find we can apply the same basic rule on it.
out that statement in which the given conclusion
is/are true.
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EXERCISE
Q.1-3. In each of the following questions assuming the Q.8. If W > S and X > S are definitely true, what
given statements to be true, find which of the should replace the question mark (?) in the given
two conclusions I and II has given below them expression?
is/are definitely true and give your answer- R < T < U ? V <W, X > Y > U ? Z > S
(1) If only conclusion I is true. (1) <, > (2) <, > (3) >, <
(2) If only conclusion II is true. (4) =, > (5) None of these
(3) If either conclusion I or II is true. Q.9. Which among the following expressions shows
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. that E > M and I > J, both are definitely false?
(5) If both conclusions I and II are true. (1) M < L < G = K > J, E > F = G > H = I
Q.1. Statement : P>Q>R, R<S>T, T=U>V (2) E < F = G < H = I, M < L < G = K >J
Conclusions : I. R = V II. P > S (3) E < F = G < H = I, M < L < G = K > J
Q.2. Statement : P>Q>R, U<T<S=R, X<W<V=U (4) E < F = G > H = I, M > L = G < K < J
Conclusions : I. P > U II. R > U (5) None of these
Q.3. Statement : P>Q>R, U<T<S=R, X<W<V=U Q.10. In which of the following expressions will the
Conclusions : I. R > X II. X = R expression 'B<D' be definitely true?

Q.4-6. In the following questions $, ©, ∆, @, * are used (1) None of these (2) A < B > C = D
according to following meaning. (3) B > A > C = D (4) D = C > A > B
P∆Q means, 'P is neither equal nor smaller than Q'. (5) B > A >C < D
P@Q means, 'P is neither greater nor equal to Q'. Q.11. Which of the following expressions will be
P$Q means, 'P is neither greater nor smaller than Q' true if the expressions will be if the expression
'W>X>Y>Z' is definitely true?
P*Q means, 'P is not smaller than Q'
(1) None is true (2) Z < W
P©Q means, 'P is not greater than Q'
(3) W = Y (4) W < Z
(1) If only conclusion I is true.
(5) X > Z
(2) If only conclusion II is true.
Q.12-16. In the following questions, relationship
(3) If either conclusion I or II is true. between different elements is shown in the
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. statement. These statements are followed by
two conclusions I and II. You have to find out
(5) If both conclusions I and II are true.
which of the following conclusions I and II
Q.4. Statement : I©J@K$L©M given below them is/are not in a clear condition.
Conclusions : I. I © M II. L ∆ J Give answer-
Q.5. Statement : M∆N, N*O, O$P, P©R (1) If only conclusion I is in doubt.
Conclusions : I. N $ P II. N ∆ P (2) If only conclusion II is in doubt.
Q.6. Statement : E*F, G*F, H$G (3) If both conclusions I and II are in doubt.
Conclusions : I. E * G II. E © G (4) If both conclusions I and II are not in doubt.
Q.7. Which of the following expressions shows that (5) None of these
either R > O or O > R in which statement? Q.12. Statement: A > H > U = D < Y > F
(1) L > M = N > O, Q > P > M = R Conclusions: I. A > D II. H > F
(2) L > M = N > O, R > M < P > Q Q.13. Statement: W > Y = I > U > S > R
(3) L > M = N > O, R < M < P > Q Conclusions: I. Y > S II. S = Y
(4) O < N = M < L, Q < P > M < R Q.14. Statement: R>M>P>K=O<U
(5) None of these Conclusions: I. M > O II. U > K
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Q.15. Statement: S>R>E<U<T<W (1) F * K # S & B ! E * V # J
Conclusions: I. S > U II. E < W (2) F * K * S & B # E * V # J
Q.16. Statement: Q>I>P>R=C<T<E (3) F * K ? S & B ! E * V # J
Conclusions: I. Q < C II. R > E (4) F ! K ? S & B ! E & V # J
Q.17-18. Study the following information carefully and (5) F * K ? S & B # E & V # J
answer the questions given below. Q.22. Conclusions: I. Z ? Q II. R # S
A, B, C, D and E are given below out of which (1) E ? Z # S & A ? B ? Q * R
one option is the conclusion and the other four
options are statement find out which option is the (2) D ? Z * S & A ? B ? Q * R
conclusion? (3) E ? Z * S & A # B ? Q * R
Q.17. (1) C ≥ B (2) A ≤ D (3) B < E (4) D ? Z * S & A # B ! Q * R
(4) C > D (5) C > A (5) D ? Z * S ! A ? B ? Q * R
Q.18. (1) N > L (2) L ≤ M (3) N > Q Q.23. Conclusions: I. 9 ! 7 II. 8 ? 9
(4) P > L (5) M < N (1) 7 * 1 & 9 # 3 ! 8 & 5 & 0
Q.19-20. In the following questions, the relationship (2) 1 # 7 # 9 # 3 ! 8 & 5 & 2
between different elements is shown in the
(3) 7 * 1 # 9 # 3 ? 8 & 5 & 0
conclusions. These conclusions are followed by
five statements and you have to decide that the (4) 7 * 1 # 9 # 3 ! 8 & 5 & 2
given conclusions I and II are definitely true by (5) 7 # 1 # 9 # 3 & 8 & 5 & 6
which statement. Give answer accordingly.
Q.24-25. In the following questions, the relationship
Q.19. Conclusions: I. A > H II. F ≤ C between different elements is shown in the
Statement: A ≥ B ? C, E ? D ≤ C, F ? G ≤ E ≥ H conclusions. These conclusions are followed
by five statements and you have to decide that
(1) >, =, ≥ (2) ≥, ≥, ≥ (3) >, ≤, ≥
the given conclusions I and II are definitely
(4) >, ≤, = (5) None of these true by which statement. Give answer
Q.20. Conclusions: I. S ≥ W II. T > V accordingly.
Statement: P ≥ Q ? R, S ≥ T ? P, V ? R ≥ W Q.24. Conclusions: I. WALL ≤ TOP
(1) ≥, =, ≤ (2) ≤, ≥, > (3) ≥, >, < II. RAW > WALL
(4) ≥, =, < (5) None of these Statements:
Q.21-23. In the following questions, the symbols *, #, ?, (1) WALL > HAT < TOP = DEAR > ALL > OPEN
& and ! are used with the following meanings (2) WALL ≥ LONG ≥ TOP = YEAR < RAW = OPEN
as illustrated below.
(3) WALL = TOP < UP > ON < LONG > RAW
‘A * B' means A is neither greater nor smaller than
(4) TOP ≥ UP ≥ WALL > ON = RAW = LONG
B.
(5) None is true
‘A # B' means A is neither greater than nor equal
to B. Q.25. Conclusions: I. ALL > RAW
‘A ? B' means A is neither smaller than nor equal II. FAT ≤ UP
to B. Statements:
‘A & B' means A is not smaller than B. (1) FAT ≥ ON > RAW = TOP < ALL > UP
‘A ! B' means A is not greater than B. (2) FAT ≤ ON ≤ RAW = TOP < ALL ≤ UP
In each of the following questions, assuming the (3) UP ≥ ALL ≥ EGG = FAT = DOLL > RAW
given conclusions to be true, find out which of the
(4) UP ≥ ALL ≥ EGG < FAT = DOLL > RAW
statement is definitely true.
(5) UP ≥ ALL ≥ EGG = FAT = DOLL = RAW
Q.21. Conclusions: I. B # F II. B # J

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Explanation
Q.1.(4) I. R=V (not true) between R & V symbols are Q.10.(4) Q.11.(1)
in reverse order so not true. Q.12.(2) Statement: A > H > U = D < Y > F
II. P>S (not true) because between P and S Conclusions:
symbols are in reverse order.
I. A > D (True)
Q.2.(5) Statement :
II. H > F (False) (in doubt)
P>Q>R=S>T>U=V>W>X Q.13.(3) Statement: W > Y = I > U > S > R
Conclusions:
Conclusions : I. Y > S (50% true) (in doubt)
I. P > U (True) II. S = Y (50% true) (in doubt)
II. R>U (True) Q.14.(4) Statement: R > M > P > K = O < U
Q.3.(3) Statement : P>Q>R=S>T>U=V>W>X Conclusions:
Conclusion should be R>X but I. M > O (True)
I. R>X (50%) II. U > K (True)
II. X=R (50%) We are sure about both conclusions.
Either I or II is true. Q.15.(1) Statement : S > R > E < U < T < W
Q.4.(2) Statement : I < J < K = L < M Conclusions:
Conclusions: I. S > U (False) (in doubt)
I. I<M (False) II. E < W (True)
II. L>J (True) Q.16.(4) Statement: Q > I > P > R = C < T < E
Only II is true. Conclusions:
Q.5.(3) Statement : M>N>O=P<R I. Q < C (False) (def. false)
Conclusions : II. E > R (True)
I. N = P (50%) Q.17.(5) Statement: A < D < C > B < E
II. N>P (50%) Conclusions: (5) C > A (True)
Conclusions: should be N>P Q.18. (1) Statement: P > L < M < N > Q
So, both are not true but there will be either I or Conclusions: (1) N > L (True)
II follows. Q.19. (4) Statement:
Q.6.(3) E>F<G=H A ≥ B > C, E < D ≤ C, F = G ≤ E ≥ H.
symbols are in reverse order so >,<, = possible. Q.20. (4) Statement:
So,
P ≥ Q > R, S ≥ T = P, V < R ≥ W.
I. E > G (Can't say)
Q.21 (3) F=K>S>B<E=V<J
II. E < G (Can't say)
Q.22. (2) D > Z = S > A > B > Q = R
Either I or II is true.
Q.23. (1) 7 = 1 > 9 < 3 < 8 > 5 > 0
Q.7.(3)
Q.24. (5) None is true
Q.8.(5)
Q.25. (3) UP > ALL > EGG = FAT = DOLL > RAW
Q.9.(4) Both conclusions are false.

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CHAPTER
DECISION
13
MAKING
In this chapter, we are given some conditions and as per (1) If the candidate is to be selected.
these conditions we have to analyze the information given (2) If the case should be referred to the channel board.
in question in the form of a paragraph consisting of 4 to 5
lines and as per this informations, we have to make sure that (3) If the case should be referred to the company’s Board
the candidate would be selected or not. of Directors.
Five options are provided in the question these are (4) If the candidate is not to be selected.
Option: (5) If the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.
Give Answer- Ex.1. Deeba has completed her graduation with 77%
(1) If selected marks in 1996. She obtains 68% marks in the
interview and has been working as marketing
(2) If not selected manager in a software company for six years.
(3) If data is not sufficient for the answer. She has done P.G. in management from the top-
(4) Facts depend on the sub-conditions given in the question. ranked management Institute in 2002. She was
born on the 31st of December 1975.
(5) Facts depend on the sub-conditions given in the question.
Sol.
Let us take an example-
SUB CONDITION
Direction:Study the following information carefully and
1 2 3 4 5 1 2
answer the questions given below.
Age Graduation Post Interview Exp. Exp Pay
A bank wishes to recruit a management trainee
less 60% Graduation Atleast 5 7 a fine
through a reality-based T.V. show the candidate
must fulfill the conditions given below. than in 55% Years Years for
35 Management Board breaking
Conditions:
from of agreement
(1) Age not more than 35 years as on 01.03.2009
Grade A Director referred
(2) Have secured at least 60% marks in the graduation. Institute to fine
(3) Have a P.G. degree in management from Grade A channel
Institute. board
(4) Have secured 55% marks in the interview. Yes Yes Yes Yes Yes ............. .............

(5) Have at least 5 years of managerial experience. If we focus on the above question and as per the above
condition this candidate is covering all the conditions which
In case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions
are marked in the above the table. So the answer must be
except-
(1).
(A) At (1) above but has 7 years of experience in
Ex.2-3. Study the following information carefully and
management. So this case will be referred to the board
answer the questions given below.
of directors.
A public charitable trust desires to select
(B) At (4) above but is willing to pay a fine for breaking the
‘Medical Officers’ for its rural hospital-based on
agreement. So this case will be referred to the channel
the following criteria. The applicant must
board.
Conditions:
In each of the following question details of a candidate
is given. You have to find out whether the candidate will (i) be holding MBBS degree with minimum 50%
get the selection or not. marks.
Mark answer- (ii) have minimum 4 years of experience of full-

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time practice in rural areas. i + ii + (d) + iv = referred to President
(iii) be ready to execute a bond of 3 years of i + ii + iii + (b) = referred to Assistant Secretary
service. Any other combination = not to be selected
(iv) have good knowledge of the local language. Anything missing = Data inadequate
In case of the applicant who satisfies all other Ex.3. Jennifer completed her MD after doing MBBS.
criteria except---- She is ready to execute three years bond of
(a) at (ii) above, but has 4 years of full-time service. She has good command over local
experience of either urban or semi-urban area language as well as Hindi. She has practiced for
and spent at least 5 years in the rural area any 5 ½ years in a remote village. She has obtained
time during his life, be referred to Secretary of 77%, 88%, 47% and 56% at SSC, HSC, MBBS,
the Trust. and MD respectively.
(b) at (iv) above, but has working knowledge of (1) Refer to Assistant Secretary
Hindi, be referred to Assistant Secretary of the (2) Data inadequate
Trust.
(3) To be selected
(c) at (i) above, but has minimum 45% of marks
at MBBS and has done MS or MD with minimum (4) Not to be selected
50%, be referred to the Chief Medical Officer (5) Refer to the CMO
(CMO).
Sol.(5) referred to CMO
(d) at (iii) above, but is ready to give Rs. 25,000
as security money, be referred to the President of i/(c) ii/(a) iii/(d) iv/(b)
the Trust. 3 (Ö) Ö Ö Ö
Based on these criteria and the information i + ii + iii + iv = Selected
provided below, decide the course of action in
(c) + ii + iii + iv = referred to CMO
each case. You are not to assume anything. If
the data provided is not adequate to decide the i + (a) + iii + iv = referred to Secretary
given course of action, your answer will be ‘data i + ii + (d) + iv = referred to President
inadequate’. All cases given to you fulfil the
i + ii + iii + (b) = referred to Assistant Secretary
criterion of age and therefore no details of age
are provided. Any other combination = not to be selected
Ex.2. Subash has studied in rural areas while doing Anything missing = Data inadequate
his schooling. His father is a farmer. Subash Ex.4-6. Read the following information carefully and
completed his MBBS from Mumbai and has then answer the questions given below.
six years of experience of practice in a big city.
He has good knowledge of the local Analytical Times Bank has announced to issue credit cards
Decision-Making language and working for customers in Delhi only. Those who want
knowledge of Hindi. He is ready to execute 3 to hold Times credit card should follow these
years bond of service. He has done MS with 53% criteria:
marks. Conditions:
(1) To be selected (2) Data inadequate (1) He/ she must be an Indian citizen.
(3) Refer to the CMO (4) Not to be selected (2) He/she should be an employee in any Government
(5) Refer to the Secretary /Private Ltd/ Public Sector Organizations.

Sol.(2) Marks in his MBBS is not given. (3) His/her income should not be less than Rs.
60, 000 per annum.
i/(c) ii/(a) iii/(d) iv/(b) (4) He/she should be the taxpayer.
2 - (Ö) Ö Ö (5) He/she should possess at least two of the
i + ii + iii + iv = Selected following things: house in Delhi, car, telephone
(c) + ii + iii + iv = referred to CMO connection, mobile phone, air-condition, and
computer.
i + (a) + iii + iv = referred to Secretary

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However, if the aspirant fulfils all other criteria tax because of his big turnover of Rs. 18,00,000
except per annum. He has an air-conditioned house and
(a) condition (2), but has his/her own business consultancy in Delhi where he lives with his
of turnover of Rs.10, 00, 000, his/ her case may family. His phone calls are first received by his
be referred to Company Secretary (CS), Times assistant then transferred to him.
Bank. Sol.(2)
(b) condition (4), but has a Permanent Account i 2/(a) 3 4/(b) 5
Number (PAN), his/ her case may be referred to 5 Ö Ö Ö Ö Ö
Chartered Accountant (CA), Times Bank.
(1) → 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5
Based on the above conditions and the
information provided about each of the aspirants (2) →1 + (a) + 3 + 4 + 5 referred to C.S. Times
in the question below, you have to decide which Bank
of the following courses of action should be (3) → 1 + 2 + 3 + (b) + 5 referred to C. A. Times
taken against each candidate. Please note that Bank
you do not assume anything regarding any (4) →1 + (a) + 3 + (b) + 5
candidate. The decision should be based only on
the information provided. (5) →Anything missing; Data inadequate
Give answer: Ex.6. Virendra Parasher, Finance Manager in Phoel
Industries Pvt. Ltd., possesses his own house in
(1) Can be selected Model Town, Delhi. His income is own Rs 3 lakh
(2) May be referred to CS, Times Bank per annum. He pays his tax. In his school days,
(3) May be referred to CA, Times Bank he had represented India in various swimming
competitions.
(4) Can’t be selected
Sol.(5) Things other than car are not mentioned
(5) Data inadequate
i 2/(a) 3 4/(b) 5
Ex.4. Dr P.K. Roy, HOD of agriculture physics in
Pusa Institute, had done a Ph.D. from Moscow 6 Ö Ö Ö Ö .........
state university. He had been sponsored by the (1) → 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5
Government of India under the ministry of human
resources and development for his doctorate. (2) →1 + (a) + 3 + 4 + 5 referred to C.S. Times
Later, he started his career in Ethiopia and then Bank
shifted to the present job. He goes to the office (3) → 1 + 2 + 3 + (b) + 5 referred to C. A. Times
in his car. Presently, he has engaged in research Bank
work also, for which he is using his computer. (4) →1 + (a) + 3 + (b) + 5
He has PAN but because of his LIC policy, he
succeeds to save the tax despite his good salary, (5) →Anything missing; Data inadequate
Rs. 15000 per month. Ex.7-8. Read the following information carefully and
Sol.(3) then answer the questions given below.
i 2/(a) 3 4/(b) 5 A multinational corporation is looking for
professionals in its marketing division. The ideal
4 Ö Ö Ö Ö Ö
candidate would have to possess the following
(1) → 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 qualifications:
(2) →1 + (a) + 3 + 4 + 5 referred to C.S. Times Conditions:
Bank
(1) A science graduate with a minimum of 60%
(3) → 1 + 2 + 3 + (b) + 5 referred to C. A. Times marks or arts graduates with a minimum of 50%
Bank marks.
(4) →1 + (a) + 3 + (b) + 5 (2) At least 5 year experience in FMCG
(5) →Anything missing; Data inadequate marketing.
Ex.5. Anand Prakash, an advocate, runs his consultancy (3) At least 3 letters of recommendation from
inspite of large donations, he couldn’t save the previous employers.

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(4) Must have a degree/diploma in marketing/ marks. He should be
sales management with a minimum of 60% (1) selected
marks.
(2) referred to Administrative Officer
However, if the candidate fulfils all the above
criteria except. (3) referred to Senior GM
a) at (1), then his/her case may be referred to the (4) rejected
HRD manager of the company. (5) referred to HRD Manager
b) at (2), but has at least three years of work Sol.(2) Even though Ajit does not meet condition 2, he
experience in FMCG marketing, then his case meets condition (b).
may be referred to the Administrative Officer of
Ex.8. Ishita Dang is an economics graduate with 55%
the company.
marks from Delhi University. She has been
c) at (3), but has at least one letter of working for the past 6 years in the field of FMCG
recommendation from any one of his previous marketing. She also has a diploma in marketing
employers, then his case may be referred to the management with 62% marks. She should be
Deputy Manager of the company.
(1) referred to the Deputy manager
d) at (4), but has been an MT with a company for
(2) referred to Senior GM
at least two years, then his case may be referred
to the Senior GM of the company. (3) data inadequate
Ex.7. Ajit has a first-class degree in science. He (4) rejected
has worked for three years in an FMCG (5) referred to Administrative Officer
marketing company but can give 4 letters of
Sol.(3) Nothing is said about Ishita’s ability to obtain
recommendation from his previous employers.
recommendations for herself.
He also has a marketing management degree
from a premier institute in which he scored 65%

NOTES

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EXERCISE
Q.1-10. Study the following information carefully and obtained 70 percent in his graduation.
answer the questions which follow : Q.3. Vaishali Shetty has been a librarian at STS
A Research Institute is recruiting a librarian to University since 2007 when she qualified in
digitise its information resources among other the UGC NET examination. She has a degree
duties. Candidates must possess the following in Library and Information Science with 60
criteria. The candidate must —— percent. Her first job was as junior librarian at
(I) be not less than 35 years and not exceed 40 TRP Institute of Development Research from
years as on 01.11.2009. October 2000 to December 2001.

(II) have a Bachelor’s Degree in Library and Q.4. Vivek Jha has a Ph.D. in Library and Information
Information Science with 65 percent marks. Science. He graduated in Library and Information
Science in 1992 with 65 percent. He was born on
(III) have a Ph.D. in Library Science. 1.10.1974. Since July 2005, he has been working
(IV) have post qualification experience of at least as Deputy Librarian at a deemed University.
4 year in a University Library. Q.5. A graduate in Library Science with 69 percent, Dr.
However if the candidate fulfil the above M. Puri has been working at Ranchi University
mentioned criteria except - for 4 years as Deputy Librarian. She earned her
doctorate while working for the Labour Research
(A) at (II) above but the candidate has a UGC NET
Institute for 5 years as Assistant Librarian. She is
certification with all the other above criteria
38 years old as on the required date.
fulfilled he/she may be referred to the Dean.
Q.6. Megha Vaidya has a graduate degree in Library
(B) at (IV) above but all the eligibility criteria are
Science from Punjab University where she has
met and the candidate has at least one year
been a librarian for the past 5 years. In 2002 she
experience in a research institute he/she may
obtained her UGC NET qualification at the age
be offered contractual appointment for a year.
of 29. She obtained 72 percent in graduation.
Based on the above criteria study carefully
Q.7. Anup Gupta is obtaining his Ph.D. from YCM
whether the following candidates are eligible for
University where he has been Junior Librarian
the recruitment process and mark your answer
since 2004. He qualified in the UGC NET exam
as follows. You are not to assume anything other
in June 2000. He has a degree in Library and
than the information provided in each question.
Information Science with 62 percent. His date of
All cases are given to you as on 1.11.2009.
birth is 17.10.1973.
Mark answer
Q.8. Kirti Shukla obtained her doctorate and
(1) If he/she is to be shortlisted. Bachelor’s degree from Patna University. She
(2) If he/she is not to be shortlisted. obtained 63 percent in graduation. She obtained
her UGC NET qualification in 1998 when she
(3) If he/she should be referred to the Dean.
was 26.
(4) If he/she may be offered contractual appointment
Q.9. Prakash Sinha has been a librarian for a
if required.
government institution for three years. Prior to
(5) If the data provided is inadequate to take a this he was a University Librarian for 7 years
decision. after completing his Ph.D. in Library Science.
Q.1. Anil Rath has a doctorate in Library Science He graduated in 1991 with 68 percent in Library
from Karnataka University in 2003. Born on July Science. He is exactly 40 years of age on the
21,1979, he graduated in Library and Information specified date.
Science from Karnataka University where he was Q.10. Rohan Sachdev obtained his UGC NET
Assistant Librarian for four years since 2005. qualification after his graduation in 1998 when he
Q.2. Dr. Samir Bali has a Ph.D. in Library Science began working. He has been Assistant Librarian
and has been with the Institute of Fundamental for the past two years with a research institute. He
Research as Assistant Librarian since October obtained 65 percent in his graduation in Library
2008. He graduated with a degree in Library and Science. He earned his Ph.D. in Library Science
Information Science in 1994 at the age of 22. He in 2007. His date of birth is 22.10.1974.

168 REASONING ABILITY

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Q.11-13. Following are the conditions for selecting a years old as on 1-11-2001. He has got 4 years teaching
faculty in the department of Economics for a experience and is fluent in Hindi and English.
university. The candidate must - Q.14-21. Read the following information to answer the
(A) be a Post graduate in Economic with 60% given questions.
marks. Following are the conditions for offering dealership
(B) have a Ph.D. degree. of Company XYZ Ltd. a consumer product
(C) have teaching experience of at least 3 years. company for city 'M'. The candidate must-

(D) not be more than 35 years as on 1.1.2002 (i) be a graduate with Science with 60% and
above marks or more than 45% marks in case
(E) have fluency in English and Hindi languages. of other disciplines.
(F) have published at least five papers. (ii) not be more than 30 years as on 30th June 1998.
(G) In the case of a candidate not fulfilling the (iii) have at least 5 years of experience of marketing
condition at (A) above but having P.G. degree or sales of consumer products
with more than 55% marks, the matter will be
referred to the Registrar of the University. (iv) deposit Rs 50,000/- in one installment.

(H) In the case of a candidate working in the same (v) be a resident of city 'M' for minimum 8 years
department for the last 5 years as Research (vi) produce character certificate from a gazetted
Assistant, the condition at (B) above may be officer.
waived but the case will have to be referred However, in the case of the candidate who fulfills
to the Chairman-Academic Council, for all other except-
comments.
(A) (iii) above but has a degree or diploma in
(I) In the case of a candidate not fulfilling only marketing or sales and 3 years of experience
the condition at (C) above the matter will be of marketing or sales consumer products
referred to the Vice Chancellor. be referred to Deputy General Manager
(J) The incomplete application of the candidate (D.G.M.)
will be rejected and he will not be selected (B) (iv) above but can pay in maximum 5
even if he satisfies all the other conditions. installments be referred to Assistant General
Now decide for each of the following cases based Manager (A.G.M.)
on the information provided above— (C) (v) above, but is resident of city 'M' for at least
Mark answer - 5 years be referred to Joint General Manager
(1) If the candidate is not to be selected. (J.G.M.)

(2) If the candidate is to be selected. (D) (vi) above, but a member of professional
bodies in marketing or sales be referred to
(3) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman Additional General Manager (Ad. G.M.)
Academic Council.
Based on these criteria information provided
(4) If the case is to be referred to the Registrar. below, decide each case. You are not to assume
(5) If the case is to be referred to the Vice- anything. If the data given is not adequate to take
Chancellor. a decision. Mark your answer as 'data inadequate'.
These cases are given to you as on 1st July 1998.
Q.11. Jayant is a Post graduate with 63% marks in
Economic. He was 31 years old on 1-1-1999. He Q.14. Samata Makhijia lives in city 'M' since her birth
has 4 years teaching experience and published 7 and celebrated her 18th birthday in 1988. She is
papers. He is fluent in Hindi and English. a brilliant student and after graduating in Science
with 72% marks, she did M.B.A. in Marketing
Q.12. Shalini is a Post graduate with 64% marks in
with 64% marks. She has been working as
Economics and has obtained Ph. D. degree, her
Assistant Marketing Manager for consumer
date of birth is 1-6-1968. She is fluent in Hindi
products for last 6 years. She can pay Rs. 50,000/-
and English and published 6 papers. She has one
in one installment. She is an executive committee
year teaching experience.
member of the city unit of the professional body
Q.13. Mahesh is a Post graduate with 70% marks in of marketing managers.
Economics and obtained a Ph.D. degree. He was 30
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(1) Refer to Ad. G.M. (3) Data inadequate (4) Eligible - selected
(2) Eligible selected (5) Not eligible - rejected
(3) Not eligible - rejected Q.18. Seetaram K is graduate in Science and diploma in
(4) Data inadequate Marketing Management with 64% and 58% marks
respectively. He came to city 'M' in May 1989
(5) Refer to J.G.M. on his 20th birthday. Since last seven years he is
Q.15. Rahul Upasani age 28 years, born and brought Sales Manager for consumer products. He can pay
up in city 'M' is the son of a businessman, having deposit immediately and has produced gazetted
completed his graduation in Arts in 1990 and then. officer's character certificate. He has married last
Diploma in Marketing Management with 64% year and wishes to settle in city 'M'.
marks. He has produced a character certificate (1) Eligible - selected (2) Not eligible - rejected
from the gazetted officer. He has 4 years’
experience in marketing consumer products and (3) Refer to J.G.M. (4) Data inadequate
can pay the deposit in one installment. (5) Refer to D.G.M.
(1) Not eligible - rejected Q.19. S. lyengar age 27 years, born and brought up in
(2) Eligible - selected city 'M'. lyengar has produced certificate from a
gazetted officer and is ready to pay Rs. 50.000/-
(3) Data inadequate immediately. After passing his graduation and post
(4) Refer to D.G.M. - graduation in Arts with 52% and 55% marks, he
has been working as Assistant Sales Manager for
(5) Refer to J.G.M.
consumer products. He is Vice - President of city
Q.16. Kiran Jadeja produced character certificate from a unit of professional body of Sales Managers.
senior gazetted officer. Kiran is born and brought
(1) Refer to Ad.G.M. (2) Refer to D.G.M.
up in city 'M'. His data or birth being 12.5 1971.
He is son of a businessman and can deposit (3) Data inadequate (4) Eligible - selected
Rs. 50,000/- immediately. He has 6.5 years’ (5) Not eligible - rejected
experience of marketing consumer products.
Q.20. Sumati K. can pay deposit in one installment and
Kiran obtained 55% marks at his graduation has produced character certificate from gazetted
in Science and 60% in diploma in Marketing officer. She is born on 15.7.1972 and did her
Management. graduation in Arts with 58% marks and her M.B.A.
(1) Refer to D.G.M. (2) Not eligible - rejected with 62% marks from Bangalore. She was posted
as Marketing Manager of city 'M' in June 1992 and
(3) Eligible - selected (4) Data inadequate
since then she has been staying in that city. She is
(5) Refer to Ad.G.M Vice President of Women Executives Club.
Q.17. Mihir Ande a Commerce Graduate with 54 percent (1) Refer to A.G.M. (2) Refer to D.G.M.
of marks. Mihir has 5.5 years’ experience of
(3) Refer to J.G.M. (4) Data inadequate
marketing a consumer product. He can deposit Rs.
50,000/- immediately. He has produced a character (5) Eligible - selected
certificate issued by a gazetted officer and has been Q.21. Mahesh Bhat is born on 5th June 1969 has been
city 'M' for more than 20 years. He got married in staying in city ‘M’ for last 10 years. He did his
April 96 when he just completed 28 years of his graduation and post-graduation in Commerce
age. He is a member of the professional body of with 52% and 43% marks respectively. He has
Mihir Ande a Commerce Graduate with 54 percent got 'Best Marketing Manager Award" for his best
of marks. Mihir has 5.5 years’ experience of performance for last 7 years in consumer products.
marketing a consumer product. He can deposit Rs. He is facing some financial problem and cannot
50,000/- immediately. He has produced a character pay deposit in one installment but can pay it in 4
certificate issued by a gazetted officer and has been installment. He is President of marketing forum
city 'M' for more than 20 years. He got married in of the city.
April 96 when he just completed 28 years of his
age. He is a member of the professional body of (1) Eligible - selected (2) Not eligible - rejected
marketing and sales. (3) Refer to J.G.M. (4) Refer to A.G.M.
(1) Refer to Ad.G.M. (2) Refer to D.G.M. (5) Data inadequate
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Explanation
Q.1-10. I. (A)II III (B) IV A B C D E F
Q.1.(5) – Jayant √ − √ √ √ √
Shalini √ √ Ι √ √ √
Q.2.(4) ( )
Mahesh √ √ √ √ √ −
Q.3.(5) – ( ) – ( )
Q.11.(1) Q.12.(5) Q.13.(1)
Q.4.(1)
Q.14-21 1 2 3 4 5 6
Q.5.(1) Q.14.(1) ( )
Q.6.(5) ( ) – Q.15.(3) – ( )
Q.16.(2) ×
Q.7.(3) ( )
Q.17.(5) ×
Q.8.(5) ( ) –
Q.18.(1)
Q.9.(1) Q.19.(3) –
Q.10.(4) ( ) Q.20.(3) ( )
Q.11-13. Q.21.(5) ( ) –
NOTES

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CHAPTER
STATEMENT AND
14
COURSE OF ACTION
A course of action is a step (after an administrative decision) a. Is it an established fact?
taken in a given situation and circumstance to improve the
b. Is it based on experiences?
situation. In such questions, a situation is presented in a
statement and some courses of action are suggested in the c. Is it based on logic?
context of that situation. 8. In case you are having difficulty in deciding whether
Questions based on statement and courses of action are a suggested course of action is practical or not, ask
designed to test the ability of candidates to judge a problem yourself for the question.
correctly and determine the cause of the problem and then a. Will the suggested course of action create any new
prescribe a suitable course of action by which the problem problem?
can be solved.
b. Are the given situation and suggested course of action
Such problems have two parts properly related?
(I) Statement- It presents a problem. Types of Questions
(II) Courses of action- It suggests step for solve or minimizes 1. Problem and solution based Question: When the
that particular problem which is presented through the presented situation talks about a problem and the
given statement. suggested course of action talk of a solution.
Think & Analyse The Problem The solution or course of action is practically possible.
A suggested course of actions can be said to solve/reduce/
minimize, the problem
Find The Logical Positive Solution 2. Fact and improvement based: When the presented
situations talks of a simple fact (not a problem, just a
situation) and the suggested courses of action suggest
ways of improvement.
Problem Minimized or Resolved Note: A course of action if not possible in practical life is
Important points always to be remembered while not advisable or possible.
deciding “COURSE OF ACTION” This chapter can be categorized into two types.
1. The course of action either solve or lessen the problem. Type I: Based on two courses of action
2. The course of action should be practical. Type II: Based on more than two courses of action
3. The course of action should be directly related to the Type I: Based on two courses of action
statement.
In these types of questions, a statement is given that is
4. A Negative course of action should not be taken. followed by two courses of action. Candidates are required
5. The Simple problem must have a simple course of action, to assess the given statement and decide which of the
because a complex course of action may create another course(s) of action is/ are follow(s).
problem. Ex.1. Statement:
6. The course of action should independently be able to A large number of people die every year due to
solve the problem and it should not depend on other drinking polluted water during the summer.
conditions.
Courses of Action:
7. In case you are having difficulty in deciding whether a
I. The government should make adequate
suggested course of action will improve a situation, ask
arrangements to provide safe drinking water to
yourself for this question.
all its citizens.
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II. People should be educated about the dangers of Courses of Action:
drinking polluted water. I. The railway authorities should be instructed to
Sol. The situation demands to create awareness among close all the level crossings.
people about the dangers of drinking polluted II. Those who are found crossing the tracks, when
water so that they themselves refrain from the the gates are closed, should be fined heavily.
same, and at the same time taking steps to provide
safe drinking water. So, both the courses follow. Sol.(2) Accidents can be prevented by barring people from
the crossing track. So, this action suggests the
Ex.2. Statement: improvement.
Some workers of Ronald’s diamond company Ex.5. Statement:
were held by the police, due to finding smuggling
small pieces of diamonds when they were leaving In spite of the principal’s repeated warnings, a
the company after company hours. child was caught exploding crackers secretly in the
school.
Courses of Action:
Courses of Action:
I. The company should shut its business for some
time until the full proof security system Installed I. All the crackers should be taken away from the
on the company premises. child and he should be threatened not to do it
again.
II. Before the workers leave the company, they
should all be checked from now onwards. II. The child should be severely punished for his
wrong act.
Sol. It is not a practical step to shut the business. The
workers can be checked out there every day so that Sol.(2) Since the act has been repeated despite various
nothing like that happens again. Therefore, only warnings, so course of action I would only be
course of action II follows. another warning and would not help. Severe
punishment to set example for him and others is
Ex.3-7. In each of the following questions a statement is inevitable. Thus, Course of action II shall follow.
given followed by two Courses of Action. A Course
of Action is taken for improvement, follow up etc. Ex.6. Statement:
Read the statement carefully and give answer - The finance minister submits his resignation a
(1) Only I follows month before the new budget is to be presented in
the parliament.
(2) Only II follows
Courses of Action:
(3) Either I or II follows
I. The resignation should be accepted and another
(4) Neither I nor II follows person should be appointed as the Finance Minister.
(5) Both I and II follow II. The resignation should not be accepted.
Ex.3. Statement: Sol.(2) Clearly, an already working Finance Minister
A large number of people in ward X of the city are shall know better all the plans and resources of the
diagnosed to be suffering from malaria. government and he alone can present a suitable
Courses of Action: budget so, course of action II follows.

I. The city municipal authority should take Ex.7. Statement:

immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation There has been a significant drop in the water level
in ward X. of all the lakes supplying water to the city.
II. The people in the area should be advised to take Courses of Action:
steps to avoid mosquito bites. I. The water supply authority should impose a
Sol.(5) As both the action are for the prevention and elimination partial cut in supply to tackle the situation.
of mosquitoes. The action will reduce the problem. II. The government should appeal to all the residents
Ex.4. Statement: through mass media for minimal use of water.
On an average, about twenty people are run over Sol.(5) The situation can be tackled by periodic cuts in
by trains and die every day while crossing the supply, and urging people to conserve water. So,
railway tracks through the level crossing. both course of Action follows.

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Type II: Based on more than two courses of action (5) The government does not require any follow-
In these types of questions, a statement is given that is up investigation activities.
followed by more than two courses of action. Candidates Sol.(2) The formation of a committee by the government
are required to choose the group of course of action that is a right step for the relief of the cyclone affected
follows in the context of the given statement. people, presently or in the future.
Ex.8. Statement: Ex.9. Statement:
A cyclonic storm hit the eastern coastline last The manager submitted his resignation a month before
month resulting in huge loss of life and property the Cash Flow Budget was presented in a company.
on the entire. East coast and the government had to Courses of Action:
disburse a considerable amount for relief activities
through the district administrative machinery. I. The resignation should be accepted and another
person should be appointed as the manager.
Which of the following may be a follow-up
measure to be taken up by the government? II. All cash receipts and all cash expenditures are
not good, so a new manager should be recruited.
(1) The Government may set up a task force to
review the post relief scenario in all districts III. The manager resigned due to lack of money for
and also to confirm proper end-user receipt of Cash Flow Budget.
the relief supplies. IV. The resignation should not be accepted.
(2) The Government may set up a committee (1) Only I and III follow.
for proper disbursement of relief supplies in
(2) Only II follows.
future.
(3) Only II and III follow.
(3) The Government may empower the District
Magistrates to make all future disbursements (4) All follow.
of relief. (5) None of these
(4) The Government may send relief supplies to Sol.(5) Clearly, an already working Manager shall know
the affected people in future only after proper better all the plans and resources of a company and
assessment of the damage caused by such he can also present a suitable budget. Hence, the
calamities. option (5) is the answer.

NOTES

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EXERCISE
Q.1-5. In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action
is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action regarding the problem,
policy etc. based on the information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the statement to be
true. Then decide which of the two given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Either I or II follows
(4) Neither I nor II follows (5) Both I and II follow
Q.1. Statement : Imported fruits which are priced at nearly thrice of the regular price have been flooding the market,
making fruits out of reach for a middle class household.
Courses of Action:
I. The government should regulate the prices of fruits so as to make them affordable to the common man.
II. Indian farmers should be encouraged to grow the imported varieties of fruits as these are more popular among
the general public.
Q.2. Statement : Four cases of pick pocketing were reported at one of the most renowned five star hotels last evening
Courses of Action :
I. The hotel staff should be instructed to be vigilant and report any suspicious person or activity.
II. More CCTV cameras should be installed near the dining and reception areas of the hotel where these incidents
took place.
Q.3. Statement: Very few students have opted for academic research as professional courses offer better economic
dividends.
Courses of Action:
I. Academic research should be linked to the industry so as to improve its economic perspective.
II. Economic dividends of professional courses should be made less attractive so as to attract
students to academic research as well.
Q.4. Statement: People see tax as a burden and thus device ways to underpay or avoid it altogether.
Courses of Action :
I. Govt. should educate and inform citizens about how taxes help in development of the nation.
II. Tax rates should be increased so that the under- recovery in collection is compensated
Q.5. Statement: A plethora of bodies with no single one which can be held accountable for city’s development is the;key
reason behind its rather stagnant state.
Courses of Action :
I. Each body should be given a set of duties and there should be no duplication in such allocation.
II. An umbrella committee should be appointed with powers to regulate actions of all other bodies.
Q.6-11. In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action
is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action regarding the problem,
policy etc. based on the information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the statement to be
true. Then decide which of the two given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
Give answer-
(1) Only I follows. (2) Only II follows. (3) Either I or II follows.
(4) Neither I nor II follows. (5) Both I and II follow.
Q.6. Statement:
In response to the published tender notice, the Company ‘Z’ has received 57 sealed tenders.

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Courses of Action:
I. The concerned department has to open the tenders and scrutinise them as per the procedure.
II. The purchase committee will have to meet and recommend to the Management the parties identified for allotting
tenders.
Q.7. Statement:
The Company ‘X’ has decided to give 10% increase in salary to its employees from next months.
Courses of Action:
I. The accounts department will have to prepare new salary statement for all employees before the due date.
II. Employees association should ask for more rise in the salary considering the market condition.
Q.8. Statement:
The board of directors of the Company ‘K’ have decided in principle to wind up or self of its business in all but
core competency areas.
Courses of Action:
I. The top management will have to first identify core competency areas off its operation.
II. It will have to identify and shift its best people from core competency areas of the non-core area.
Q.9. Statement:
The State K is expecting a bumper crop of rice this year under its Rice Purchase Guarantee Scheme.
Courses of Action:
I. Other farmers will also start cultivation of rice from the next year.
II. The Price of rice will increase in the open market.
Q.10. Statement:
The eligibility for appearing for Common Entrance Test (CET) for Engineering in State ‘M’ is now raised to 60%
from earlier 50% at HSC examination.
Courses of Action:
I. Many candidates from state ‘M’ may not appear for C.E.T. this year and may appear for C.E.T. examinations
of other States.
II. At Pre-examination candidates obtaining less than 60% at HSC will have to be eliminated.
Q.11. Statement:
Four districts in state A have been experiencing a severe drought for the last three years resulting in the exodus of
people from these districts.
Courses of Action:
I. The government should immediately start food for work program in the district to cease mass exodus.
II. The government should make sincere efforts to provide drinking/potable water to these districts.
Q.12-16. In each of the following questions a statement is given followed by three Courses of Action. A Course of Action
is taken for improvement, follow up etc. Read the statement carefully and give answer -
(1) I and II follow (2) II and III follow (3) I and III follow
(4) I and either II or III follow (5) All follow
Q.12. Statement : Because of heavy rains for the last five days, the water level of the river has crossed the danger mark.
Course of Action:
I. The Government should employee paramilitary personnel to meet any eventuality.
II. The health officials should gear up to face the onset of any disease.

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III. Relief operations should be planned.
Q.13. Statement: Recently, in an unfortunate development, more than 120 people were killed when the police resorted
to lathi charge on a mob.
Courses of Action:
I. The police trainees should be given a course on mob behaviour and group psychology.
II. The police officer on duty should immediately be suspended.
III. An enquiry commission should be set up to examine any avoidable reasons of the incident.
Q.14. Statement: The fiscal deficit of the country is not likely to be contained within 7.2% limit as prescribed by the
IMF.
Courses of Action:
I. Efforts should be made not to let the fiscal deficit grow anymore
II. Efforts should be made to reduce the fiscal deficit.
III. Efforts should be made not to allow IMF to interfere in our internal economic matters.
Q.15. Statement: Poverty is increasing because the people, who are deciding how to tackle it, know absolutely nothing
about the poor.
Courses of Action:
I. The decision-makers should go to the grass root levels.
II. The decision-makers should come from the poor sections of the society.
III. A new set of decision-makers should replace the existing one.
Q.16. Statement: The company X has rejected the first lot of valves supplied by company A and has cancelled its entire
huge order quoting use of inferior quality material and poor rafts man ship.
Courses of Action:
I. The company A needs to investigate the functioning of its purchase, production and quality control department.
II. The company A should inspect all the values rejected by company X.
III. The company A should inform company X that steps have been taken for improvement and renegotiate schedule
of supply
Q.17-20. In each question given below a statement is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. (A course
of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement follow up or further action regarding
the problem, policy etc. based on the information given in the statements). You have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, then decide which of the three given/ suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing
and decide the answer.
Q.17. Statement:
The chairman of Car Company announced in the meeting that all trails of its first product the new car model ‘M’
are over and the company plans to launch its car in the market after six months.
Courses of Action:
(I) The network of dealers is to be finalised and all legal, financial and other matters in this connection will have
to be finalised shortly.
(II) The company will have to make a plan for the product other than a car.
(III) The material, managerial and other resources will have to be in fine tune to maintain production schedule.
(1) I and III only (2) Only I (3) All the three (4) Only II (5) None of these
Q.18. Statement :
Residents from Model Colony coming under North Ward of City ‘X’ have complained to the Ward Officer that for
last three days the tap water in the ward is contaminated and no action is being initiated by municipal staff.

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Courses of Action:
(I) The Ward Officer of North Ward should imitate action against residents who have lodged complaints against
municipal staff.
(II) The Ward Officer should ask his junior officer to visit Model Colony to assess the actual condition of water
with his staff and to get samples of water tested from laboratories.
(III) The Ward Officer should ask Ward Engineer to check water installations and pipelines in the Model Colony
area.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(3) Only either I or III and II (4) Only I and III
(5) None of these
Q.19. Statement:
The Deputy Mayor of city ‘Z’ has proposed to install a plant of mineral water and to supply citizen’s mineral water
bottles at Rs. 6 per liter as against Rs. 10 per liter being sold by local private companies.
Courses of Action:
(I) The local private companies of city ‘Z’ will have to close their operation.
(II) The Corporation of city Z will have to provide for losses in this project in its budget.
(III) The tap water scheme of city Z will have to be stopped.
(1) None of these (2) Only I and III (3) Only I and II (4) Only II and III (5) All three
Q.20. Statement:
The Management of School ‘M’ has decided to give free breakfast from next academic year to all the students in
its primary section through its canteen even though they will not get any government grant.
Courses of Action:
(I) The school will have to admit many poor students who will seek admission for the next academic year.
(II) The canteen facilities and utensils will have to be checked and new purchases to be made to equip it
properly.
(III) Funds will have to be raised to support the scheme for years to come.
(1) Only either I or II (2) Only II and III (3) Only I (4) None of these (5) All three
Q.21. Read the following information and answer the question.
A large number of students who have passed their XII standard examination in the city X could not get admission
to colleges in city X as the numbers of seats available are inadequate.
Which of the following could be the most feasible long term course of action?
(1) The government should encourage the private sector to open new colleges.
(2) The students should enroll in distance learning programs.
(3) Colleges of city X should increase the minimum cut-off for admission.
(4) The parents should be asked to send their children abroad for higher studies.
(5) The evaluation system of XII standard examination should be made tougher so that fewer students pass the
examination.
Q.22. Read the following information and answer the question.
Many shops in the local market have extended their shops and occupied most of the footpath in front of their shops
and blocked the traffic route.
Which of the following be the valid course of action?
(1) The civic authority should immediately activate a task force to clear all the footpaths encroached by the shop

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owners.
(2) The civic authority should charge a hefty penalty to the shop owners for occupying the footpath.
(3) The civic authority should provide notice to all the shop owners for occupying the footpath.
(4) The civic authority should set up a monitoring systems so that such encroachments do not recur in future.
(5) As their is no parking space for the customer vehicle hence, civil authority should immediately clear the
encroached area.
Q.23. Read the statement and then decide which of the given courses of action follows.
Statements:
Youth Congress members are protesting against the Central government, near PM’s residence in New Delhi, following
a suspected terror attack in Punjab’s Gurdaspur district.
Courses of Action:
I. National policy needed to tackle terrorism.
II. Punjab’s government should try to take strict action regarding the terror attack.
III. Punjab’s government has put all the districts in the state on high alert.
(1) Only II follows (2) Both I and III follow. (3) Either I or III follows
(4) All follow (5) None follows
Q.24-26. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Students in some of the corporation school in the city are in a fix. They cannot use the toilet when they need to,
due to lack of hygiene and poor maintenance. The stench near the primary block in the corporation - run school
in Saidapet was unbearable. Going past the toilet block to get to the head-master office is a very difficult task but
hundreds of children have little choice. The toilets at another school in West Manbalam were not usable for weeks
together because of a sewage block.” I complained to the engineer in the works department (of the corporation)
several times but he kept telling us that they did not have funds.” said the headmaster.
Q.24. Which of the following ‘course of actions’ is strong based on the above information?
(1) The principal of the corporation school should be suspended.
(2) Engineer of the corporation should be punished.
(3) The children of corporation’s school should be sent for the toilet in private school
(4) Toilet of the corporation’s school should be immediately reconstructed.
(5) None of these
Q.25. Which of the following ‘course of action’ is strongly based on the above information?
(1) Corporation school’s should be closed.
(2) Students of the school should not use the toilet.
(3) The corporation should immediately arrange the funds.
(4) Headmaster should use private funds for the reconstruction of the school toilet.
(5) Either 3 or 4
Q.26. Which of the following ‘course of action’ is strong based on the above information?
(1) Headmaster should sit on with students of a school in against of corporation.
(2) Headmaster should inform to corporation head-officers.
(3) Headmaster should close down the school.
(4) Headmaster office should be transferred from Saidapet to the other side of the school.
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Explanation
Q.1.(5) Both I and II are follow because they solve the the chances of any epidemic etc.
problem of the statement. Q.13.(3)
Q.2.(1) Only I follows because the second one does not solve
Q.14.(1)
our problem and the first one solve our problem.
Q.15.(4)
Q.3.(1)
Q.16.(5)
Q.4.(1) People should provide information about contribution
of tax payment in country’s development. Q.17.(1) 1st and IIIrd are advisible. IInd is not advisible
because it is not a better solution.
Only I follows because they solve the problem of
the statement. Q.18.(2) 1st not follows because it is the duty of the
municipal corporation to solve the problems of
Q.5.(1)
the residents. IInd and IIIrd is advisable because
Q.6.(5) Both I and II are advisable. without checking the pipe lines and water purity
Q.7.(1) Ist follows because it is a genuine procedure one cannot judge the real situation.
but IInd is not follows because the directors of Q.19.(1) None of the course of action is advisable.
company ‘K’ voluntarily decided to increase
Q.20.(2) Ist is not advisable because admission of poor
salary not by compulsion.
students is not necessary for the completion of
Q.8.(1) Ist is advisible. IInd is not advisible because it is scheme. IInd follows because without proper
not possible. management the scheme will not be Implemented.
Q.9.(4) Ist not follows because farmers are already IIIrd is admissible because money is required for
cultivating rice that’s why state K is expecting every scheme.
bumper crop. IInd also not follows because after Q.21.(1)
bumper crop price rise is not possible.
Q.22.(3)
Q.10.(2) Ist not follows but IInd follows because statement
Q.23.(4)
shows the conditions.
Q.24.(4)
Q.11.(5) Both courses of action are in favour of people so
both are right. Q.25.(3)

Q.12.(5) All the actions are advisable as they would reduce Q.26.(2)

NOTES

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CHAPTER
Statement AND
15
Assumption
An assumption is something which is assumed, supported (ii) It is a duty of related authorities to issue them.
and taken for granted, i.e. an assumption is the logic support (iii) It is for the benefit of the people.
for the statement. It is a fact that can be supported by
considering the given statement. DIFFERENCE BETWEEN IMPLICATION
An assumption is always positive and indefinite and we use AND ASSUMPTION
the IMPLICIT word for assumption (its means suggested Implication and Assumption both are different from
thought) because it’s not certain. each other. Sometimes implications are also treated as
In this chapter, a statement is followed by two or more assumptions. Implications mean something is “hidden”
assumptions. The candidate is required to assess the given in the statement while an assumption is slightly different
statement and decide which of the given assumption(s) is/ means something which is assumed, supposed and taken for
are implicit in the statement. granted.
When somebody says something, he does not put every Connect
Must be
aspect of his idea into words. There are lots of things Positive With
which remain unsaid. These unsaid things are defined as Statement
Assumption.
In other words, we can say that an assumption is the hidden Assumption
part of a statement which is not said directly but it is exposed
indirectly.
EXTRACTING THE ASSUMPTION Think
HIDDEN IN THE STATEMENT Logically Presupposing

The task of determining the validity of an assumption from

the statement is not very difficult. A statement may have TYPES OF QUESTIONS
more than one assumption. You can find out this by asking
(I) Based on two assumptions
yourself the following facts.
(II) Based on three or more assumptions
FACT-1
Examples of Type – I (Based On Two Assumptions)
When taking a statement of an advertisement, it is taken for
granted or assumed that - In these types of questions, a statement is given that is
followed by two assumptions. Candidates are required
(i) The advertisement would have an impact on its reader.
to assess the given statement and decide which of the
(ii) Second, these readers would expect the “qualities” in assumption is implicit in the statement.
the “subject” …(of which the advertisement talks).
GENERAL OPTIONS-
FACT-2
(1) If only I is implicit.
For an appeal, it is assumed that
(2) If only II is implicit.
(i) It would have some impact on the reader.
(3) If either I or II is implicit.
(ii) It would have some reason for its existence.
(4) If neither I nor II is implicit.
FACT-3
(5) If both I and II are implicit.
When taking a statement issued in public interest notice, it
Ex.1. Statement:
may be assumed
Whenever you have doubt on this subject, you may
(i) The notice would be read by the public and would make
refer to the book written by XYZ.
an impact.

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Assumptions: Sol.(2) ‘Films are indispensable’ does not mean that
I. The book written by XYZ is available in the they are the only means of entertainment. So, the
market. assumption I is not implicit. Clearly, II follows
from the statement. So, assumption II is implicit.
II. There is no other book on this subject in the Hence, option (2) is correct.
market.
Ex.5. Statement:
Sol.(1) The recommendation of the book written by XYZ
implies that it is available in the market. So, the For preparing of medical examination, the
assumption I is implicit. From the statement, it maximum number of students have taken
seems to be a good book, but this does not mean admission in UTL coaching in Lucknow city.
that no other books are available on this subject. Assumptions:
So, assumption II is not implicit. I. The number of maximum successful students
Hence, option (1) is correct. in the medical examination last year was from
Ex.2. Statement: UTL coaching.

It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of II. There is no other coaching in the city of Lucknow
5 or so. for preparing for medical examination.

Assumptions: Sol.(1) In coaching, the student would want to study only

when studies in the coaching would be good. And
I. At that age, the child reaches the appropriate the second assumption is negative. So, assumption
level of development and is ready to learn. I is implicit. Hence, option (1) is correct.
II. The schools do not admit children after six years Ex.6. Statement: An advertisement in the newspaper-
of age. ‘Learn a foreign language course to get a high
Sol.(1) Since the statement talks of putting the child in paying job’.
school at the age of 5, it means that the child is Assumptions:
mentally prepared for the same at this age. So,
the assumption I is implicit. But nothing about I. Those who learn a foreign language get highly
admission after 6 years of age is mentioned in the paid jobs.
statement. So, assumption II is not implicit. II. Only a foreign language can get someone a high
Hence, option (1) is correct. paying job.

Ex.3. Statement: Sol.(1) As ‘foreign language’ directly connects to ‘high

pay’ therefore.
Let us change the eligibility criteria to reduce the
number of applicants. Assumption I is implicit and in assumption II
‘only’ is written which makes the sense negative.
Assumptions:
Ex.7. Statement: The govt. has recently advised all the
I. The present eligibility criteria are very low. public sector banks to reduce the rate of interest on
II. A Large number of applications is not desirable. home loans upto Rs. 25 lakhs.
Sol.(4) From the statement, it can be concluded that the Assumptions:
eligibility criteria are low but the word ‘VERY’ in I. The public sector banks may reduce the interest
the assumption I makes it not implicit. Assumption on all home loans upto Rs. 25 lakhs.
II does not show the status of the applicants. So,
II. People may take undue advantage of the govt.’s
assumption II also not implicit.
decision.
Hence, option (4) is correct.
Sol.(1) As “govt. advised PSU to reduce rate of interest”
Ex.4. Statement: this could only be said if we assume that
Films have become indispensable for the entertainment PSU Banks will seek to government’s advice
of people. while in assumption II this will be done after
the accomplishment of the statement. Hence,
Assumptions: assumption (I) is implicit.
I. Films are the only media of entertainment. Example of Type – II (Based On Three Assumptions)
II. People enjoy films. Options are different in each question.

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Ex.8. Statement: Ex.10. Statement:
Unable to manage with the present salary, Kapil The IBPS announced some important information
joined another company. for candidates through an official website that the
Assumptions: next SBI PO MAINS examination will be held on
19th of the next month.
I. The new company has a better work environment.
Assumptions:
II. The present company offers moderate pay
package. I. The students will read the information and will
appear in the examination.
III. The new company offers a higher salary to all
its employees. II. The exam will be held on 19th of the next month.

(1) All are implicit III. The students can give online test till 18th of the
next month to pass the examination.
(2) None is implicit
IV. The demand for online test may increase during
(3) Only II is implicit the month.
(4) Only II and III are implicit (1) Only I and II are implicit
(5) None of these (2) Only IV is implicit
Sol.(3) Kapil has left the company in view of the (3) Only II and III are implicit
manage salary. Hence, assumption II is implicit.
However, we cannot say anything about the work (4) Only III is implicit
environment and salary of all the employees. (5) None of these
Hence, option (3) is correct. Sol.(5) All are implicit except II because it is a repeated
Ex.9. Statement: sentence. Hence, option (5) is correct.

A candidate was called for an interview for a Ex.11. Statement:

reputed post in a government organisation. The There is a big boom in the drug business and a
interviewer asked the candidate – “How do you number of jhuggi-jhopari dwellers in Delhi can be
keep yourself up-to-date with current affairs?” The seen pedalling with small pouches of smack and
candidate replied – “To keep myself up-to-date, I brown sugar.
always listen to 9.00 p.m. news on radio”. Assumptions:
Assumptions: I. Drug addiction is increasing in the country,
I: The candidate does not read the newspaper. especially in the capital.
II: The news at 9.00 pm on radio broadcasts current II. All the big dons involved in the smuggling of
affairs only. drugs live in jhuggi-jhopari areas.
III: News related to current affairs are only III. Most of the jhuggi-jhopari dwellers can do
broadcasts on radio. anything for money.
IV: Candidate has chosen a fixed timing of the day (1) Only I is implicit
for radio news. (2) Only II is implicit
(1) Only II is implicit. (3) Only III is implicit
(2) Either I or III is implicit. (4) Only I and III are implicit
(3) Either I or II is implicit. (5) Either I or III is implicit
(4) I and IV are implicit. Sol.(4) The statement talks of boom in the drug business
(5) Only IV is implicit. and cites examples from the capital city. This
Sol.(5) The candidate listens to news on the radio does not makes I implicit. Further, it is given that most
mean that he does not read the newspaper or that jhuggi- jhopari dwellers are seen to indulge in
radio is the only source of recent news. So, I, II and transactions of drug pouches. This means that they
III are not implicit. Only IV is implicit. Hence, do this for money and do not hesitate to engage
option (5) is correct. in illegal activities for the same. So, III is implicit
while II is not.

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Ex.12. Statement: (2) Students do not need mobiles in school.
The XYZ Society conducted a study that (3) Faculty and staff should be allowed to possess
indicated that many people have Inflammation mobiles.
and blood impurity problems during adulthood (4) Students need to have mobiles because some of
and that virtually all such people who received them have no stay-at-home guardian.
cupping treatment showed great improvement.
Therefore, in order to minimize the proportion of (5) The most important quality of an educational
the population that suffers from inflammation and leader is his interest in solving problems.
blood impurity, the XYZ Society recommended Sol.(1) In order to use the issue of students having mobiles
that cupping treatment be directed toward those as an example of how educational leadership
adults who suffer from severe blood impurity. creates problems where none exist, the author
Which of the following is an assumption on which must assume that students having mobiles is not
the argument depends? an important problem. Hence, option (1) is the
answer.
(1) Any person who receives cupping treatment
for inflammation and blood impurity may also Ex.14. Statement:
benefit from other forms of treatment. The education system needs change, not fine-
(2) Large insurance carriers cover cupping care for tuning.-said by Dr K. Kasturirangan, the
blood impurity problems to a lesser degree than chairperson of the drafting committee and former
they do other medical treatments. head of ISRO.
(3) Individuals who receive cupping or other What could be the assumption behind the statement
treatment before developing severe blood by Dr K. Kasturirangan?
impurity problems are not less likely to develop (1) The education system in other countries is
inflammation and blood impurity than those better than India.
who do not.
(2) Indian teachers are not as much perfect as
(4) Cupping treatment is more effective in treating foreign teachers because they are more talented
severe blood impurity problems when utilized and educated.
over a long period, as opposed to sporadically.
(3) There have been changes in economic,
(5) Severe inflammation, blood impurity and social, strategic demands, many other things.
other problems often cause individuals to miss Certainly, the country has moved much further.
workdays. Into a 2 trillion economy moving towards a five
Sol.(3) This statement rules out the possibility that cupping trillion economy. Also, a digitalized society is
care or other medical treatments could effectively around the corner.
prevent or lessen inflammation and blood impurity (4) The traditional method will help in new
among those people who have not yet developed changes. The traditional way means in which
severe inflammation and blood impurity problems. a child is taught at home, creating sounds,
Hence, option (3) is the answer. creating communication in a peculiar way.
Ex.13. Statement: (5) None of these
“The mega-city education department is unable Sol.(3) Digitization and many types of changes in society
to distinguish between displeasure and important may be the assumption behind the statement by Dr
problems. For example, prohibiting students from K. Kasturirangan. Hence, option (3) is the answer.
having mobiles is an overreaction. If a student uses
Ex.15. Statement:
mobile and thus interferes with instruction then
they should confiscate his/her mobile. Overall, Pop singer Clive Jones has been nominated for six
we need educational leadership that can solve Grammy Awards, and his new album is enjoying its
problems, not create them.” - said the Leader. eighth consecutive week at number one on the charts.
It is safe to say that Jones is today’s best pop artist.
Which of the following is an assumption made by
the Leader? Which of the following assumptions is most
pivotal to this argument?
(1) Students having mobiles does not constitute an
important problem for the mega-city schools. (1) Jones’s previous albums were also chart-
toppers.
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(2) Jones’s next album will outsell his current Ex.16. Read the passage carefully and answer the question
release. given below.
(3) Grammy nominations and record sales are The govt. has appealed to all citizens to use potable
accurate measures of an artist’s greatness. water judiciously as there is an acute shortage in
supply. Excessive use may lead to huge scarcity in
(4) Jones will win several of the Grammy Awards
future months.
for which he has been nominated.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in
(5) Jones is popular with both fans and music
the above statement?
critics.
(1) People may “Ignore the appeal and continue
Sol.(3) The unstated assumption that connects the
using water as per their consideration.”
premise to the conclusion in this argument is that
Grammy nominations and record sales are accurate (2) Govt. may be able to tap those who do not
measures of an artist’s greatness. Obviously, this is respond to the appeal.
a highly debatable assumption, but it does provide (3) Govt. may be able to put in place an alternate
the necessary link between the premise and the source of water in the event of a crisis situation.
conclusion. The success of Jones’s previous
(4) A large number of people may positively respond
albums (choice 1) and his next album (choice 2) are
to the govt.’s appeal and help tide over the crisis.
irrelevant to the conclusion, which is focused on
his success today. Jones may or may not win those (5) Only the poor are going to suffer from this
Grammy awards (choice 4), but that is essentially shortage of water supply.
irrelevant as well; it does not logically connect the Sol.(4) Since, Govt. is forecasting the scarcity of water in
premise to the conclusion. Jones’s popularity with future and appealing to all citizens. ‘Appealing’
both fans and critics (choice 5) is important, but word shows a request from the people and a belief
it likewise does not provide a logical connection. that people will take it in a positive way. Hence,
Hence, option (3) is the answer. Assumption (4) is implicit.

NOTES

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EXERCISE
Q.1-5. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions/inferences numbered I and II. An
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted and an inference is something which can be directly inferred
from the given facts. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions/ inferences and decide
which of those is/are implicit in the statement. Give answer-
(1) If only I is implicit. (2) If only II is implicit.
(3) If either I or II is implicit. (4) If neither I nor II is implicit.
(5) If both I and II are implicit.
Q.1. Statement: Using a calculator for simple calculations adversely affects the mathematical abilities of children.
Assumptions:
I. Using a calculator for complex calculations may not affect mathematical abilities adversely.
II. Complex calculations cannot be done manually without the help of a calculator.
Q.2. Statement : For underwater battles, only weaponry X should be used.
Assumptions:
I. Not all weaponry can function well underwater.
II. There are different kinds of weaponry available for battles on ground and underwater.
Q.3. Statement: An advertisement by EasyAir, a private airline ‘Travel to Meerut by our airlines and get a chance to
win an all expenses paid holiday to Bangkok’.
Assumptions:
I. Easy Air flights are available for Bangkok.
II. The city of Meerut has an airport.
Q.4. Statement: As the prices of petrol and diesel shoot up, more and more people are resorting to the use of electric
cars.
Assumptions:
I. Using electricity for powering cars is less expensive than using petrol or diesel.
II. Many people cannot afford the raised prices of petrol and diesel
Q.5. Statement: Book your railway tickets at least three months in advance to ensure a confirmed reservation.
Assumptions:
I. No booking is taken by the railways before three months of the date of journey.
II. Air tickets need to be booked as much in advance as train tickets
Q.6-10. In each question below is given a statement followed by some assumptions. An assumption is something supposed
or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is/
are implicit in the statements, then decide which of the answer is correct.
Q.6. Statement:
We must be prepared to face any eventuality and all the assignments must be completed as per their schedule-
Director tells to the faculty members.
Assumptions:
I. There is a possibility of any serious eventuality.
II. Dates are fixed for all the assignments.
III. Faculty members are supposed to complete all assignments.
(1) All are implicit (2) Only II and III (3) None
(4) Only III (5) Only I
Q.7. Statement:
Prakash decided to get the railway reservation in May for the journey he wants to make in July, to Madras.
Assumptions:
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I. The railway’s issues reservations two months in advance.
II. There are more than one trains to Madras.
III. There will be a vacancy in the desired class.
(1) Only II and III (2) Only I (3) All are implicit (4) Only I and III (5) None of these
Q.8. Statement:
“X-chocolate is ideal as a gift for someone you love” -an advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. People generally give gifts to loved ones.
II. Such advertisement generally influences people.
III. Chocolate can be considered as a gift item.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only I and III (3) All are implicit (4) Only II and III (5) None of these
Q.9. Statement:
In view of the recent spurt in Sugar prices in the open market, the government has asked the dealers to release a
vast quantity of imported sugar in the open market.
Assumptions:
I. The dealers will follow the government directive.
II. The sugar price will come down.
III. The prices of indigenous sugar will remain unchanged.
(1) None (2) Only I and II (3) Only I and III (4) All are implicit (5) Only II and III
Q.10. Statement:
Prabodh wrote a second letter to his mother after a month as he did not receive any reply to the first letter.
Assumptions:
I. Prabodh’s mother did not receive the letter.
II. The letter generally reaches within a fortnight.
III. His mother promptly sends a reply to his letters.
(1) Only II and III (2) Only III (3) None (4) Only I and III (5) None of these
Q.11-13. In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions (I), (II) and (III). An assumption is
something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and
decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.
Q.11. Statement: The govt. has decided to auction construction of highways to private entities in several blocks across
the country on build operate transfer basis.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement ?
I. An adequate number of private entities may not respond to the Government’s auction notification,
II. Many private entities in the country are capable of constructing highways within a reasonable time.
III. The Govt.’s proposal of build-operate-transfer may financially benefit the private entities.
(1) Only (I) and (II) are implicit (2) Only (II) and (III) are implicit
(3) Only (II) is implicit (4) Only (I) and (III) are implicit
(5) None of these
Q.12. Statement : The apex body controlling universities in the country has decided to revise the syllabus of all the
technical courses to make them focused towards the present needs of the industry there by making the technical
graduates more employable than they are at present.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement ?
I. Technical colleges affiliated to different universities may not welcome the apex body’s decision and may
continue with the same syllabus as at present.
II. The industry may welcome the decision of the apex body and scale up their hiring from these colleges.

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III. The Govt. may not allow the apex body to implement its decision in all the colleges as it may lead to chaos.
(1) None is implicit (2) Only (I) is implicit (3) Only (II) is implicit
(4) Only (III) is implicit (5) Only (I) and (II) are implicit
Q.13. Statement : The airlines have requested all their bonafide passengers to check the status of flight operations before
leaving their homes as heavy fog is causing immense problems to normal flight operations.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement ?
I. The majority of the air passengers may check the flight status before starting their journey to the airport.
II. The Govt. may take serious objection to the notice issued by the airline company.
III. Majority of the passengers may cancel their tickets and postponed their journey till the situation becomes
normal.
(1) None is implicit (2) Only (I) is implicit (3) Only (II) is implicit
(4) Only (III) is implicit (5) Only (I) and (III) are implicit
Q.14-18. In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption
is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions
and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement, then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3),
(4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it.
Q.14. Statement:
Move into the upper echelons without paying a steep price. Book a luxurious flat with us. ---- Advt. of a construction
company for its prestigious project.
Assumptions:
I. It is possible to join the select band of rich people through hard work.
II. Staying in luxury without paying the steep price is the criterion of the upper crust of society.
III. Booking a luxurious flat is very easy now.
(1) Only II (2) Only III (3) Only II and III (4) None (5) None of these
Q.15. Statement:
The employees association has appealed to the Managers of Company ‘S’ to introduce written examination for
Clerical cadre recruitment to prevent selection of incompetent persons.
Assumptions:
I. So far the Company ‘S’ used to select candidates without conducting a written examination.
II. A written examination can help to identify competent persons.
III. At higher level, written examination may not be of much use.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III (3) Only III (4) Only I and III (5) None of these
Q.16. Statement:
The simplest and most cost-effective way to upgrade your home-exchange your old furniture and get 25% to 33%
off on the new furniture. - An advertisement of a furniture company.
Assumptions:
I. Nowadays there is no demand for furniture product unless some attractive scheme is offered.
II. Some customers always desire to have the best quality and do not bother either for cost or for convenience.
III. Some customers want to keep their home up-to-date with reasonable cost and with less hassles.
(1) Only III (2) Only II (3) Only I (4) Only I and II (5) None of these
Q.17. Statement:
Tender specification will not be issued to the firms where there is 25% or more default in supplies against earlier
purchase orders placed on them. --- Condition of a Company ‘X’ inviting tenders for purchase of material.
Assumptions:
I. The Company ‘X’ will be watching the quality of performance of its suppliers.

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II. This time the firms should note to keep the percentage of default as less as possible.
III. The Company ‘X’ expects quality and professional approach from its suppliers.
(1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Only III
(4) Either II or III and I (5) None of these
Q.18. Statement:
Several labours and industrial courts in this state have no proper premises. Vacancies of judges and stenos are kept
pending. A statement of a retired judge of state ‘X’.
Assumptions:
I. Adequate number of staff and judges helps in smooth functioning of the industrial and labour courts.
II. The state is not bothered about the condition of the labour and industrial courts.
III. Physical facilities of an office help in increasing the efficiency of its employees.
(1) Only II (2) Only I and III (3) Only II and III (4) All I, II and III (5) None of these
Q.19. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The earth’s resources are being depleted too fast. To correct this, the United States must keep its resource consumption
at present levels for many years to come.
The argument above depends on which of the following assumptions?
(1) Per capita resource consumption in the United States is at an all-time high.
(2) The United States wastes resources.
(3) The United States uses more resources than any other country.
(4) The United States imports most resources instead of using it.
(5) Curbing U.S. resource consumption will significantly retard world resource depletion.

Explanation
Q.1.(4) Q.2.(5) Q.3.(5) Q.4.(5) Q.5.(4) assumptions are not relevent it cannot be said
Q.6.(1) All are implicit. definitely.

Q.7.(2) Only I is implicit because Prakash decide of two Q.13.(2) Only assumption (I) is implicit because most of
months ago to get ticket. II is not implicit bepause the passangers may check the schedule of flight.
we do not know the number of trains. Ill is not While (II) and (III) assumption are irrelevent to
implicit because there will be/will not be vacancy the statement.
in the desired class. Q.14.(2) There is not any mention about hard work so I is
Q.8.(3) not implicit. IInd is also not implicit because it is
talking about upper crust of society. But IIIrd is
Q.9.(2) The govt, directive has to follow by all dealers implicit because the booking luxurious flat is not
so I is implicit. Definitely after the release of vast easy then their is meaning of advertisement.
quantity of imported sugar the price will come
down so II is implicit but III is not impilcit because Q.15.(1) I is implicit it that’s why association has appealed
it is opposite of the statement. for written examination. II is also implicit but III is
not implicit because we do not know the procedure
Q.10.(4) I is implicit because it can be one possibility, II is for higher level.
not implicit because Prabodh wrote a second letter
to his mother after a month but fortnight means Q.16.(1) Only III is implicit. There are some customers who
only 15 days and we do not know the exact time. wanted to up date there home with reasonable cost.
III is implicit that’s why Prabodh is worry. Q.17.(5) If company X put some conditions for tenders that
Q.11.(2) Only (II) and (III) assumptions are implicit means company wanted quality performance and
because these two are relevent with situation while also expects it so I and III follows.
(I) is not relevent for the’statement. Q.18.(2)
Q.12.(3) Only (II) is implicit because it is related Q.19.(5)
assumptions to the statement while (I) and (III)

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CHAPTER
CAUSE and
16
EFFECT
Cause means the logical or scientific reason for an event. In other Ex.1-3. In each question given below two statements
words, we can say that the strong point behind any reason is (A) and (B). These statements may be either
known as Cause and the impact of the cause is known as Effect. independent cause or may be effects of independent
In the questions of cause and effect candidates are asked to causes or a common cause. One of these statements
determine that a given event is a cause or an effect. may be the effect of the other statement.
Candidates should always remember that causes Read, both the statements and decide which of
always occur before the effect and the effect takes place the following answer choice correctly depicts the
consequently after the cause. relationship between these two statements.
The question of cause and effect is designed to test the Mark answer (1) If event (A) is the cause and event (B) is
ability of candidates how they analyze the given statements its effect.
and then correlate them as cause and effect. Mark answer (2) If event (B) is the cause and event (A) is
When one event causes another to happen. its effect.
The “cause” is “why” it happens. Mark answer (3) If both the event (A) and (B) are
the ‘’effect” is “what” happens. independent cause.
Keywords for cause and effect. Mark answer (4) If both the event (A) and (B) are effect of
Keywords
independent causes.
Mark answer (5) If both the event (A) and (B) are effects
of some common causes.
Ex.1. (A) The average day temperature of the city has
increased by about 2 degrees in the current

year over the average of the past ten years.
CAUSE AND EFFECT (B) More people living in rural areas of the state
have started migrating to the urban areas in
comparison with the earlier year.
Sol.(4) As clearly we can see there is no connection
between the two statements. Hence, both are effects
of an independent cause.
Ex.2. (A) Most of the shopkeepers in the locality closed
their shops for the second continuous day.
Five Possibilities for Cause and Effect
(B) Two groups of people living in the locality
1. The fact in the first statement is the effect of that
have been fighting with each other with bricks
mentioned in the second statement ie, the second
and stones forcing people to stay indoors.
statement expresses the cause that leads to the
condition mentioned in the first. Sol.(2) As from statement (A) shopkeepers closed their
shop. The reason of “why” is explained in statement
2. The contents of the first statement from the direct
(B). Hence, (B) is the cause and (A) is the effect.
cause of the result discussed in the second statement.
Ex.3. (A) Majority of the first year students of the
3. Both the statements express generalised results that
engineering college failed in Mathematics in
may not be backup by any specific cause but may
the semester examination.
influence certain other factors.
(B) The college authority terminated,the contract
4. Both the statements are independent and may be
of the professor who taught mathematics to the
explained as effects of different independent causes.
first year students.
5. The effects in both the given statements may be caused
Sol.(1) As from statement (A) and (B) it is clearly stated that
by a third unmentioned event which may be called the
because of failure of students in maths subject college
common cause of the given effects.
authority terminated the contract of professor.
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Ex.4-7. Study the following information carefully and Ex.6. Below in each question one statement is given. This
answer the questions given below: statement may be either independent causes or may
Ex.4. The condition of the roads in the city has deteriorated be effects of independent causes or a common cause.
considerably during the first two months of monsoon Effect : At least twenty school children were
and most of the roads have developed big pot holes. seriously injured while going for a school picnic
Which of the following can be a possible effect of during the weekend.
the above cause ? Which of the following can be a probable cause of
(1) The municipal corporation had repaired all the above effect?
the roads in the city before onset of monsoon (1) The teacher accompanying the school
with good quality material. children fell ill during the journey.
(2) A large number of people have developed spine (2) The bus in which the children were travelling,
related injuries after regularly commuting long met with an accident while taking turn on the
distances by road within the city. main highway.
(3) The municipal corporation has been careful (3) The driver of the bus in which the children
in choosing the contractors for repairing were travelling did not report after the break
roads in the past. at the halting place on their journey.
(4) People always complain about potholed roads (4) The school authority banned all school picnics
during the monsoon months. for the next six months with immediate effect
(5) None of these (5) None of these
Sol.(2) As the cause states that “condition of the roads has Sol.(2)
already deteriorated” hence from the phrases we can (1) teacher fell ill …………….Not valid
select the valid effect. (2) met with an accident while taking turn
(1) ___ “had repaired” _____ X …………….This is valid reason.
(2) ___ “spine injuries occured” __ √ (3) --------- did not report after the break at the
(3) ___ “Careful in the past” _____ X halting place on their journey. …… Not valid
(4) ___ “People complain” _____ X (4) …………….banned all school picnics for the
Ex.5. It has been reported in recent years that a very large next six months ……… Not valid
number of seats in the engineering colleges in the country Ex.7. Prices of petroleum products have increased by 30
remain vacant at the end of the admission session. percent by this year .Which of the following can be
Which of the following may be the probable effect problem cause of the above effect?
of the above cause? (1) Prices of food grains and vegetables have
(1) There has been a considerable decrease shot up by more than 40 percent.
in hiring of engineering graduates due to (2) The truck owner association has decided to
economic slowdown in the recent years. increase their rent by about 30 percent with
(2) Students have always preferred to complete immediate effect.
graduation in three years instead of four years (3) The prices of crude oil in the international
for engineering. market have increased considerably during
(3) The govt. has recently decided to provide the past few weeks.
post qualification professional training to all (4) People have decided to demonstrate against
engineering graduates at its own cost. the govt. apathy to words rise in prices of
(4) There has always been a very poor success essential commodities.
rate among the engineering students. (5) None of these.
(5) None of these Sol.(5)
Sol.(3) As the effect states “vacant seats in engineering (1) .. …… due to 40 percent……….Not valid
college” Hence, for probable cause we can select (2) …….. increase their rent by about 30 percent
the cause. …….Not valid
(1) “economic slowdown” _____ X (3) ………..The prices of crude oil in the
(2) “Three years instead of four years” _____ X international market have increased…..Not
(3) “Govt. providing professional training” valid
_____ √ (4) ………..demonstrate against the govt. ……..
(4) “Poor Success Rate” _____ X Not valid

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EXERCISE
Q.1-4. Based on the information below in each questions are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements
may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these
statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following
answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer (1) If statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
Mark answer (2) If statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
Mark answer (3) If both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
Mark answer (4) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
Mark answer (5) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
Q.1. (A) Student have difficulties in the school .
(B) Toilets of school have lack of hygiene and poor maintenance.
Q.2. (A) Head master complained to the engineer of corporation.
(B) Corporation did not have funds.
Q.3. (A) Students face unbearable smell for going to head master’s office.
(B) The sewage of school toilet is blocked.
Q.4. (A) The students use the toilet least in the school.
(B) The number of students is very less in the school.
Q.5-9. Given below are pairs of events ‘A’ and ‘B’ you have to read both the events ‘A’ and ‘B’ and decide their nature
of the relationship. You have to assume that the information given in ‘A’ and ‘B’ is true and you will not assume
anything in deciding the answer. MARK ANSWER
(1) If ‘A’ is the effect and ‘B’ is its immediate and principal cause.
(2) If ‘A’ is the immediate and principal cause and ‘B’ is its effect.
(3) If ‘A’ is an effect but ‘B’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
(4) If ‘B’ is an effect but ‘A’ is not its immediate and principal cause.
(5) None of these
Q.5. Event (A) : Prices of gold have gone up in the local market.
Event (B) : India has won several prizes in the design of gold ornaments.
Q.6. Event (A) : Today, the Prime Ministers of country ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have decided to take steps to improve the
bilateral relations.
Event (B) : Next week a Committee of Foreign Ministers and Senior Officers of country ‘P’ and ‘Q’ will
work out further steps to improve the relationship.
Q.7. Event (A) : Recently the prices of personal computers (PCs) have come down.
Event (B) : Some school children are showing a keen interest in learning computers.
Q.8. Event (A) : This year Bank ‘M’ has celebrated its silver jubilee.
Event (B) : More customers are getting attracted to the market branch of Bank ‘M’.
Q.9. Event (A) : Recently the traffic jams on M G Road of city ‘Z’ are not reduced but the traffic has also
become manageable.
Event (B) : The flyover on MG Road of city ‘Z’ has recently been made operational and the number of
traffic police personnel has been increased.
Q.10-14. Given below are pairs of events A and B. You have to decide their nature of the relationship. You have to assume
that the information given in ‘A’ and ‘B’ is true and you will not assume anything beyond the given information in
deciding the answer. GIVE ANSWER -
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(1) If A is the effect and B is its immediate and principal cause.
(2) If A is the immediate and principal cause and B is its effect.
(3) If A is an effect but B is not its immediate and principal cause.
(4) If B is an effect but A is not its immediate and principal cause.
(5) None of these
Q.10. Event (A) : The opposition is protesting against the government over the decision of withdrawal of
subsidy on food and fertilizers.
Event (B) : Govt. has decided to withdraw subsidy on several items to reform the economy.
Q.11. Event (A) : India’s infant mortality rate is rising.
Event (B) : The economy of India is strengthening.
Q.12. Event (A) : The Bar Council of India has ordered all evening law colleges in the country to close down
from the coming academic session.
Event (B) : The standard of education in evening law colleges was found in the state of deterioration.
Q.13. Event (A) : The Govt has framed rules to regulate the level of noise pollution in urban areas from various
sources.
Event (B) : Loudspeakers can be used only after obtaining permission from a competent authority.
Q.14. Event (A) : No traffic shall be allowed on Jail road.
Event (B) : Due to the ongoing flyover construction, the traffic police have made several diversions.
Q.15. Statement : Many students were caught using unfair means during the final examinations by the special team of
the university.
Which of the following can be a possible consequence of the facts stated in the above statement ?
(A) The teachers responsible for invigilation in all such examination halls where the students
were caught are to be suspended from their services.
(B) All those students who were caught while using unfair means are to be debarred from
appearing in these examinations for a year.
(C) The college should be blacklisted by the university for holding final examinations at least for a year.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C) (4) Only (B) and (C) (5) None of these
Q.16. Statement : Most of the boundary walls of the local school collapsed completely last night. Which of the following
can be a possible consequence of the facts stated in the above statement ?
(A) The local school authority will close down the school till the boundary walls are erected.
(B) The govt. will levy penalty to the school management for their negligence.
(C) The management of the school will erect temporary fences till the boundary walls are erected.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C) (4) Only (A) and (C) (5) None of these
Q.17. Statement : The prices of foodgrains and other essential commodities have decreased for the second consecutive
week.
Which of the following can be a possible consequence of the facts stated in the above statement?
(A) The consumer price index will come down considerably.
(B) People will increase their purchase of quantity of essential commodities and foodgrains.
(C) Govt. will increase its taxes on essential commodities and foodgrains.
(1) Only (A) and (B) (2) Only (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) and (C)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C) (5) None of these
Q.18. Statement : Many persons in the locality are diagnosed to be suffering from gastrointestinal diseases after

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consuming poor quality drinking water supplied by the municipal authority.
Which of the following substantiates the facts stated in the above statement ?
(1) Gastrointestinal diseases are not very severe.
(2) People suffering from gastro-intestinal diseases need not take medicines.
(3) Many people suffer from gastro-intestinal diseases after consuming stale food.
(4) Gastrointestinal diseases are waterborne diseases.
(5) None of these
Q.19. It has been reported in many leading newspapers that the current year’s monsoon may be below the expected level
as many parts of the country are still not getting adequate rainfall.
Which of the following can be a possible fallout of the above situation ?
(1) People from those affected areas with less rainfall may migrate to urban areas
(2) Govt. may announce ex-gratia payment to all the farmers affected in these areas
(3) Govt. may declare these areas as drought affected areas.
(4) People may blame the govt. and agitate for not getting adequate water for cultivation
(5) None of these
Q.20-23.Read the given statements carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Q.20. After the government announced a compensatory policy for farmers in return for the acquisition of their land, the
farmers demanded a written proof of the policy.
Which of the following could be a CAUSE for demanding the written proof ?
(1) The farmers were unable to contest the inadequate compensation for their land in earlier such policies.
(2) The compensation promised in the policy was grossly inadequate.
(3) The farmers were unwilling to surrender their lands to the government.
(4) The farmers demand a certain percentage of share out of the revenue generated by the government of their
lands.
(5) The only option to enforce the government officials to frame a compensatory policy for the farmers was to
demand a proof.
Q.21. The number of cases concerning a non-contagious chemical poisoning is on the rise among local villagers.
Which of the following could be a CAUSE of the statement given above ?
(1) The government has ordered an immediate enquiry into the matter.
(2) Unless timely treatment is provided to the patients, the poisoning can prove to be fatal.
(3) Many factories surrounding the village do not dispose off their wastes appropriately.
(4) The only hospital in the area is not equipped to treat chemical poisoning related ailments.
(5) A study done a couple of years ago had reported that a large number of farmers had stopped using chemical
fertilizers owing to their ill-effects on health.
Q.22. In a governmental initiative which started a couple of years ago, school teachers of a particular State were engaged
in teaching the illiterate every evening after the regular school hours. Which of the following can be an EFFECT
of the statement given above ?
(1) A report given to the State government a couple of years ago stated a high percentage of illiterate population
as compared to some other States.
(2) Many teachers were, motivated to join the scheme started by the government as the remuneration provided
to them was attractive.
(3) Lack of accessibility to schools and extreme poverty were major causes of illiteracy in the State.

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(4) Evening classes help individuals working as daily wagers attend classes after work.
(5) The literacy rate in the State has improved significantly this year.
Q.23. Small grocery shop owners have gone on a day’s strike to protest against the entry of a foreign retail store chain
in the city.
Which of the following statements can be an EFFECT of the statement given above ?
(1) The small grocery shop owners perceive the big retail giants as sharks, trying to dominate the available
market space.
(2) Foreign investment in retail has shown a tremendous growth in India since a couple of years.
(3) There have been several countries in which retail chain giants have totally wiped out small scale grocery
shops.
(4) The government agreed to take all political steps required to safeguard the interests of small scale retailers.
(5) A recent survey indicated that a large number of people prefer to buy their daily grocery items from the
nearby grocery stores rather than big retail chain stores.
Q.24. Effect: A big change in world economic policy in favour of greater support for agriculture.
Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect?
(1) Government has traditionally equated economic progress with cement factories.
(2) Fear of food shortages, a rethinking of anti- poverty priorities and the crushing recession.
(3) Government across the developing world and international aid organizations ploughed investment into agriculture.
(4) Consumers in high growth giants such as China and India became wealthier, they began eating more meat, so
grain once used for human consumption got diverted to beef up livestock.
(5) None of these

Explanation
Q.1.(2) Q.2.(4) Q.3.(2) Q.4.(4) Q.14.(1) Flyover construction is a cause and traffic
diversion is an effect.
Q.5.(5) Both are independent events.
Q.15.(2) To teach a lesson to other students authority
Q.6.(2) The P.M. of country P and Q have decided to should debarre the students who are using unfair
improve bilateral relation after that the officers means for a year.
of both countries will work out.
Q.16.(3) The management should make temporary fences
Q.7.(5) Both are independent events. till the boundry walls are erectced.
Q.8.(5) Both are independent events. Q.17.(1) The consumer price index will come down due
Q.9.(1) The flyover on MG Road has recently been made to contineous decrease in prices of essential
operational & no. of traffic police personnel commodities. Only A and B
increased, due to this the traffic has become Q.18.(4) Given statement shows that gastro-intestinal
manageable. diseases are waterborn diseases.
Q.10.(1) When Govt. decided to withdraw subsidy the Q.19.(3)
opposition is protesting against the decision.
Q.20.(1)
Q.11.(5) Both are independent event.
Q.21.(3)
Q.12.(1) The standard of education in evening colleges
is very poor that’s why the BCI has taken such Q.22.(5)
decision.
Q.23.(4)
Q.13.(2) When government has framed rules to regulate
noise pollution and after that everyone have to Q.24.(2)
take permission to use loudspeaker.
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CHAPTER
Statement
17
and argument
The argument is a sequence of two or more phrases/ clauses/ 2. Simple information : If any argument shows
sentences that include a claim or conclusion. We arrive at that the sentence is imitating/copying anything then
such a conclusion with the help of one or more than one it can not be accepted.
statement which may be called a premise or proposition. EXAMPLE : Sachin should take retirement from
Arguments are generally based on certain premises cricket because most of the cricketers at his age
assumptions and conclusions. An argument can be in favour prefer to retire.
of or against the statement. You have to check the strength So, it will be a weak argument because it shows the
of the argument. You should not be confused that only imitation/copy of another sports persons.
favorable arguments are considerable. So, it is irrelevant
that an argument is favorable or against the statement. 3. Superfluous : If any argument is next to
impossible then it is taken as superfluous.
Statement
In making decisions about important questions,
Argument it is desirable to be able to distinguish between
‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments.
Strong Weak ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both
important and directly related to the question.
Simple Superfluous
Universal Analyzed Experienced Ambiguous
Information
‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor
importance and also may not be directly related
Cases of Strong Argument to the question or may be related to a trivial
aspect of the question.
1. uNIVERSAL tRUTH: If any argument is
universally accepted that cannot be denied and it One will have a better idea about the argument with
has link with the statement then it will be a universal following example-
truth. E.g. Mr X is the most attacking batsman in today’s
EXAMPLE : Light travels faster than sound. cricket, so India will score the required 50 runs in
The argument is universal and it will be generally remaining 4 overs.
accepted. Sol. In the above example, the argument proposes a
2. Analyzed Truth : The decision taken by our conclusion that “India will score the required 50
government, Supreme Court, a constitutional body, runs in remaining 4 overs”. This conclusion is
United Nations or any Supreme authority is always arrived at with the help of supporting evidence or
welcomed and is deemed as an analyzed truth. premises. ‘Mr X is the most attacking batsman in
today’s cricket.’ The conclusion and the premise are
EXAMPLE : “Aadhar Card is mandatory for LPG
connected by the assumption (which is not directly
Connection” - said by the government
said or’ unsaid or hidden) that “An attacking batsman
3. Experience Based : If any argument is said is able to score 50 runs in 4 overs”.
on the basis of experience then it will be accepted.
Now we can divide the given statement into three
EXAMPLE : All bank branches in rural areas should parts.
be computerized.
Premises- Mr X is the most attacking batsman in
Cases of Weak Argument today’s cricket.
1. Ambiguous : The argument which creates doubt Assumption (Hidden premise) - An attacking
or confusion is taken as ambiguous argument. batsman is able to score 50 runs in 4 overs.
EXAMPLE : One should eat, drink freely because Conclusion- India will score required 50 runs in 4
tomorrow one has to die. overs.

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Types of questions Sol. Both of the given arguments are weak because they
All the questions in this chapter can be categorized into do not support the statement.
two types: Ex.5. Statement : Due to increasing road traffic, illegal
Type I- Two arguments based parking, pollution, road jams government should
come up with a policy of only 1 four wheeler per
Type II- More than two arguments based family?
Type I- Two arguments based Arguments :
Ex.1. Statement : Is the investment of money in insurance I. Yes, it will limit the number of vehicles on the
policies a wise step? road.
Arguments : II. No, it will bring a huge loss to the four-
I. Yes, it ensures security and covers risks. wheeler automobile industry.
II. No, by the time the policy matures, the value Sol. Both arguments I and II are strong because both are
of money falls considerably. describing the effect of the policy.
Sol. Insurance is meant to cover the risk of life and Type II- More than two arguments based
property and it also promotes savings. So argument Ex.6. Statement : Should an administrative officer be
I is strong. Argument II is weak because of its lack transferred after one or two years?
of clear logic.
Arguments :
Ex.2. Statement : Reservation given to the women in
the various department may disturb the social I. Yes, they get friendly with local people and
management of the society. are manipulated by them.

Arguments : II. No, by the time their policies and schemes

start taking shape, they have to leave.
I. Yes, the work of male and female is divided
by the nature. III. No, this will create a lot of administrative
hassles and cause a lot of inconvenience to the
II. No, any person who is eligible or capable officers.
to the post that particular person should be
appointed. (1) Only II is strong.

Sol. It is true that reservation must be decided by a (2) I and II are strong.
person’s eligibility. Hence argument II is strong. (3) II and III are strong.
Argument I is weak because it is not appropriate. (4) I and III are strong.
Ex.3. Statement : Should all foreign companies be asked (5) All are strong.
to close their business in India?
Sol.(3) The Administrative officer should remain friendly
Arguments : with local people. So, the argument I is absurd and
I. No, it can adversely affect the Indian economy. not strong.
II. Yes, this is the only way that Indian companies Argument II and III are strong because the administrative
can achieve prosperity by remaining protected. officer requires some time to implement their schemes
Sol. If foreign companies shut down their business, it will and policies. Transfer after a short period creates a lot
definitely affect the economy. Hence argument I is of inconvenience to the officers.
strong. The argument II is weak because the word Ex.7. Statement : Banks are suffering from huge NPA in
“only” has been used. case of educational loans distributed in the last few
Ex.4. Statement : The person taking and giving dowry years since 50% of the students taking education
both should be punished under the law? loans do not repay the amount easily. Should banks
stop providing education loans now?
Arguments :
Arguments :
I. No, the person giving dowry is under pressure
so he should be not punished. I. No, banks should not stop providing
educational loans instead they must come up
II. No, because dowry helps in the economic
with the methods to recover the loans.
support to the person who taking dowry hence
he should be not punished. II. No, since education loans are very crucial for
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the development of a country by generating I. Yes, this should be done if the govt. wants to
highly educated masses. control the unemployment.
III. Yes, in order to reduce their NPA’s and to II. No, govt. does not have expertise to handle such
overcome the loss banks must stop providing industries.
educational loans. III. Yes, In this way employment and more
(1) If only argument I and II are strong. production can be generated.
(2) If only argument I and III are strong. Sol.(5)
(3) If only argument II and III are strong. Ex.10. Statement : Should the institutes of higher learnings
(4) If only argument II is strong. in India like IlTs and IIMs be made totally free from
govt. control ?
(5) None of these
Arguments :
Sol.(1) Only I and II are strong since education loans are
important for the HR growth of a nation. Rather I. Yes, such institutes in the developed countries
than stopping loan distribution banks must create are run by non-govt agencies.
more reliable methods of loan recovery and pre-loan II. No, govt. needs to regulate functioning of these
distribution analysis. institutes for national interest.
Ex.8-12. Each question below is followed by three arguments III. No, these institutes are not capable to take
numbered (I), (II) and (III). You have to decide policy decisions for smooth functioning.
which of the arguments is a ‘strong’argument and Sol.(2)
which is a ‘weak’argument.
Ex.11. Statement : Should the parliament elections in
(1) Only I and II are strong. India be held on the gap of two years throughout
(2) Only II is strong. the country?
(3) Only II and III are strong. Arguments :
(4) All I, II and III are strong. I. Yes, this is the only way to control the
(5) None of these corruption.

Ex.8. Statement : Should the govt. roll back all the II. Yes, this will provide a proper ruling system in
subsidies on the petrol, diesel and cooking gas? the country.

Arguments : III. No, some other countries hold elections after

two years.
I. Yes, this will largely help the oil companies to
sell their products at competitive price. Sol.(5) In argument I, the “ only” word is used, so the
argument I is weak because it is not the only way
II. No, the general public cannot afford the to control the corruption.
original prices of these products.
Present time, the parliament elections in India held
III. Yes, govt. needs to stop subsidizing these on the gap of five years. So we cannot sure to give
products and channelise the money for proper ruling system to the country in two years.
developmental projects. Hence, argument II is weak.
Sol.(1) First and second arguments are strong because govt. Argument III is also weak because there is
provides subsidies on that products which real cost comparison from the other countries and we can’t
is high and the products which are important for compare our country to other countries because all
daily routine. Hence, the original cost will be more countries have different constitution.
costly for the public due to the roll back of subsidies
on that products and companies will start selling the Ex.12. Statement : Should there be a common pay structure
products at different prices according to their quality. of the central govt. and all private sector employees
in the country?
In the other statement nothing is given about
development planning. Arguments :

Ex.9. Statement: Should the govt. takeover all the small I. No, each private unit should have the freedom
scale industries and provide them special assistance? to decide the pay structure of its employees.

Arguments: II. No, the workload and responsibilities of central

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govt. and private unit employees differ and (2) Before he became a detective, Abhinav Bindra
hence there should be different pay structure. was a neighbourhood police officer and
III. Yes, all govt. employees and private employees was highly respected by the residents of the
should be treated equally irrespective of their neighbourhood he patrolled.
working with central govt. or any private unit. (3) Detectives on the police force on which Abhinav
Sol.(1) Arguments I and II are strong because both Bindra serves are provided with extensive
sectors are free to decide the pay structure of their resources, including the use of a large computer
employees on the basis of their ability and workload. database, to help them solve crimes.
And argument III is weak because there is many (4) Abhinav Bindra was previously a detective in
difference between both sectors. a police department in another city, and in the
Ex.13-17. Read the following statements carefully and 4 years he spent there, he solved only 1 out of
answer the questions.. 30 crimes.

Ex.13. Statement : It has been reported in a recent study (5) Many of the officers in the police department
that intake of a moderate quantity of milk chocolate in which Abhinav Bindra serves were hired or
reduces the risk of suffering from central nervous promoted within the last 5 years.
system-related illness. Sol.(1) If we note that Abhinav Bindra receives the hardest
Which of the following arguments would be cases, and one would expect that the hardest cases
weakened by the study described in the above would have a lower success rate. Note that we are
statement? asked the weakest argument in the question, i.e. the
prediction is not addressed while the conclusion is
(1) People generally prefer to eat chocolate when focused.
they are young.
Ex.15. Statement : Cigarette companies claim that
(2) Majority of those not diagnosed related to the manufacturing both low- and high-nicotine cigarettes
central nervous system has stayed away from allows smokers to choose how much nicotine they
eating chocolates in their lives. want. However, a recent study has shown that the
(3) Chocolate contains certain elements which levels of nicotine found in the blood of smokers who
strengthen the functions of the central nervous smoke one pack of cigarettes per day are identical at
system. the end of a day’s worth of smoking, whatever the
level of nicotine in the cigarettes they smoke.
(4) Majority of those suffering from central nervous
system-related diseases are middle-aged. Which one of the following argument is strong in
respect of ‘most helps to explain the finding of the
(5) Many of those who suffer from diabetes also
nicotine study’?
suffer from other major ailments.
(1) Blood cannot absorb more nicotine per day than
Sol.(2) The study reported that chocolate reduces the risk
that found in the smoke from a package of the
of suffering from central nervous system is weaker
lowest-nicotine cigarettes available.
by the argument (2) which says that “Majority of
those not diagnosed related to the central nervous (2) Smokers of the lowest-nicotine cigarettes
system has stayed away from eating chocolates in available generally smoke more cigarettes per
their lives.” day than smokers of high-nicotine cigarettes.
Ex.14. Statement : Abhinav Bindra is clearly an incompetent (3) Most nicotine is absorbed into the blood of
detective. They have solved only a small percentage a smoker even if it is delivered in smaller
of cases assigned to them in the last 3 years i.e. only quantities.
1 in 25 which is less than any other detective on the (4) The level of tar in cigarettes is higher in low-
police force. nicotine cigarettes than it is in some high-
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously nicotine cigarettes.
weakens the argument above? (5) When taking in nicotine by smoking cigarettes
(1) Because the police chief regards Abhinav is discontinued, the level of nicotine in the
Bindra as the most capable detective, she blood decreases steadily.
assigns him only the most difficult cases, onesSol.(1) There is a similarity in the blood such that the
that others have failed to solve. maximum amount of nicotine absorbed is identical
for everyone. Because the maximum amount of
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nicotine absorbed per day is equal to the nicotine in a strengthen the argument given by the builders.
pack of low-nicotine cigarettes, each person absorbs Ex.17. The ministry of sports has been advised by a
the amount of nicotine equal to the low-nicotine pack committee to take the highest award in the field of
regardless of the type of cigarette smoked. sports back from two players who were allegedly
Ex.16. Real estate builders have refused to bring down the involved in match fixing.
property prices as proposed by the government this Which of the following statements would weaken
year. the argument put forward by the committee to the
Which of the following arguments would strengthen sports ministry ?
the stance taken by the builders ? (1) A good conduct in the past and a lack of
(1) Very few people ventured into buying properties evidence against the players make the case
this year owing to exorbitant prices set by the against them very weak.
builders. (2) The ministry of sports has never declined the
(2) With the ever increasing cost of basic materials recommendations made by the committee
such as cement and steel, the profit of the earlier.
builders has gone down by 48% this year. (3) Taking the award back from the players would
(3) The builders have earned huge profit in a set a good example to other players for avoiding
governmental scheme for building low cost such actions in the future.
housing societies. (4) There have been past cases where the award
(4) In a report published by a national daily, the had to be taken back from the players owing
margin of profit earned by a builder per square to “some misconduct later on.
foot is as much as eighty percent of its cost (5) The committee is constituted of some of the
price. most respected and esteemed members from
(5) The builders have to necessarily abide by the the field of sports and politics.
decrease of the government which controls the Sol.(1) In this statement its the matter of pride to take back
prices of the real estate. highest award from player and we need to find
Sol.(2) As builders refuses to bring down the prices and we argument that would make the argument weak. As
need to find the argument that supports (strengthen) lack of evidence and good conduct in the past will
this author statement. Prices are directly related definitely weaken the argument. Hence, (1) will
to the prices of building material hence, (2) will weaken the argument.

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EXERCISE
Q.1-2. In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish be­tween ‘strong’ Arguments
and ‘weak’ Arguments. ‘Strong’ Arguments are those which are important and directly related to the Statement. ‘Weak’
Arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the Statement or may be
related to a trivial aspect of the Statement. Each question below is followed by two Arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the Argument is a ‘strong’ Argument and which is a ‘weak’ Argument. Give answer -
(1) If only Argument I is strong.
(2) If only Argument II is strong.
(3) If either Argument I or II is strong.
(4) If neither Argument I nor II is strong.
(5) If both Arguments I and II are strong.
Q.1. Statement: Should all the venders on the roads in the big cities in India be forcibly sent to villages?
Arguments:
I. No, this is unfair and these people, may have to suffer for the business.
II. No, these people should be sent to a certain place to established their business in cities.
Q.2. Statement: Should the PSU banks in India be privatised in a phased manner like other public sector enterprises?
Arguments :
I. Yes, this is the only way to bring in competitiveness and provide better service to the public.
II. No, all the bank employees may go on strike.
Q.3-7. In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able in to distinguish between Strong arguments
and Weak arguments so far as they relate to the question, Strong arguments are those which are both important
and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be
directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed
by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments a Strong argument is and which
a Weak argument is. GIVE ANSWER -
(1) If only argument I is Strong. (2) If only argument II is Strong.
(3) If either I or II is Strong. (4) If neither I nor II is Strong.
(5) If both I and II are Strong.
Q.3. Statement:
Should ‘computer knowledge’ be made a compulsory subject for all students at secondary school certificate (S.S.C.)
examination in India ?
Arguments:
I. No, our need is ‘bread’ for everyone, we cannot follow western models.
II. Yes, according to the present and future demand, computer knowledge is necessary for our children.
Q.4. Statement:
Should ‘literacy’ be the minimum criterion for becoming a voter in India?
Arguments:
I. No. mere literacy is no guarantee of political maturity of an individual.
II. Yes, illiterate people are less likely to make the politically wiser decision of voting for a right candidate or
party.
Q.5. Statement:
Should schemes of voluntary retirement be introduced in all sick public sector units in India?
Arguments:

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I. Yes, excess and inefficient staff is one of the reasons for the sickness of public sector organisations.
II. Yes, this is what private and multinational companies do in developed countries.
Q.6. Statement:
Should postal services be privatised in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it will make life easy for the citizens of India.
II. No, privatisation is not a panacea for all the problems, even private service can be equally bad.
Q.7. Statement:
Should the system of offering jobs only to the children of government employees be introduced in all governments
offices in India?
Arguments:
I. No, it denies opportunity to many deserving individuals and government may stand to lose in the long run.
II. No, it is against the principle of equality and does the government not owe the responsibility to all its citizens.
Q.8-11. In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between Strong’ arguments
and Weak arguments so far as they are related to the question. Strong arguments must be both important and
directly related to the question, ‘Weak’ arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor
importance. Each question below is followed by two arguments. You have to decide which of the arguments is a
strong argument and which is a Weak argument. GIVE ANSWER -
(1) If only argument I is strong. (2) If only argument II is strong. (3) If either I or II is strong.
(4) If neither I nor II is strong. (5) If both I and II are strong.
Q.8. Statement:
Should the minimum appointment age of officers in govt. offices are increased?
Arguments:
I. Yes, with the increase in age people in these offices look old at the time of retirement.
II. No, It will add to the already existing problem of unemployment in our country.
Q.9. Statement:
Should the underground transportation system be introduced in Mumbai?
Arguments:
I. Yes, difficulties faced by commuters and pollution will be reduced.
II. No, It will cause a high burden on the national exchequer.
Q.10. Statement:
Should reservation in jobs be given to the children of class I officers of SC/ST category ?
Arguments:
I. Yes, reservations should be made for all SC/ST candidates irrespective of the ranks their parents hold.
II. No, these children do not need to secure jobs as their parents are highly placed.
Q.11. Statement:
Should the test of English language be made compulsory in the various examination conducted by the Union Public
Service Commission?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this is the only way to spread English in the country.
II. No, English is not the language which people of all parts of India can read, write and understand so the work
in offices is not to be done in this language.

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Q.12-16. In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish be­tween ‘strong’ Arguments
and ‘weak’ Arguments. ‘Strong’ Arguments are those which are important and directly related to the Statement.
‘Weak’ Arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the Statement
or may be related to a trivial aspect of the Statement.
Each question below is followed by three Arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the
Arguments is a ‘strong’ Argument and which is a ‘weak’ Argument.
Q.12. Statement: Should the govt. de-regulate the retail prices of petrol, diesel and cooking gas and allow the prices to
be driven by market conditions ?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will largely help the oil companies to sell their products at competitive price.
II. No, the general public cannot afford market driven prices of these products.
III. Yes, govt. needs to stop subsidizing these products and channelise the money for
developmental projects.
(1) Only I and II are strong (2) Only I and III are strong (3) Only II and III are strong
(4) All I, II and III are strong (5) None of these
Q.13. Statement: Should the Govt. take over all the private passenger transport companies across the country?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this should be done as the govt. runs the railways.
II. No, govt. does not have the expertise to handle such operations.
III. Yes, in this way the general public can be taken out of the clutches of the private transport
companies.
(1) Only I is strong . (2) Only I and II are strong. (3) Only II and III are strong.
(4) All I, II and III are strong. (5) None of these
Q.14. Statement : Should all the deemed universities be de-recognized and attached to any of the central or state universities
in India ?
Arguments:
I. Yes, many of these deemed universities do not confine to the required standards of a full-
fledged university and hence the level of education is compromised.
II. No, these deemed universities have been able to introduce innovative courses suitable to
the requirement of various industries as they are free from strict Govt. controls.
III. Yes, many such universities are basically money spinning activities and education takes a
backseat in these institutions.
(1) Only (I) and (II) are strong (2) Only (II) and (III) are strong
(3) Only (I) and (III) are strong (4) All (I), (II) and (III) are strong
(5) None of these
Q.15. Statement : Should there be a cap on drawing groundwater for irrigation purposes in India ?
Arguments:
I. No, irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily dependent
on groundwater in many parts of the country.
II. Yes, water tables have gone down to alarmingly low levels in some parts of the country where irrigation is
primarily dependent on groundwater, which may lead to serious environmental consequences.
III. Yes, India just cannot afford to draw groundwater any further as the international agencies have cautioned
India against it.
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(1) Only (I) and (II) are strong (2) Only (II) and (III) are strong (3) Only (I) and (III) are strong
(4) All (I), (II) and (III) are strong (5) None of these
Q.16. Statement : Should there be a restriction on the construction of high rise buildings in big cities in India ?
Arguments:
I. No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing population.
II. Yes, only the builders and developers benefit from the construction of high rise buildings.
III. Yes, the Govt. should first provide adequate infrastructural facilities to existing buildings before allowing the
construction of new high rise buildings.
(1) Only (II) is strong (2) Only (III) is strong (3) Only (I) and (III) are strong
(4) Only (I) is strong (5) None of these
Q.17-19. Read the following statements carefully and answer the questions.
Q.17. Many organizations have been resorting to recruitment based upon performance at graduate / post­graduate level
exams rather than conducting exams for the same purpose.
Which of the following Statements would strengthen the Argument given in the above Statement ?
(1) A recent study shows no link of past performance with the performance in recruitment exams.
(2) The graduate / post-graduate exams are considered to be severely deficient in training in job related
environment.
(3) Organisations which had undertaken recruitment on the basis of graduate post graduate exams report a significant
drop in the quality of the recruited employees.
(4) Such policies would add to unemployment among students having below average performance in graduation
or post-graduation.
(5) Such policies could save time, money and resources of the organization which are wasted in the conduct of
recruitment examinations.
Q.18. According to a recent government directive, all bank branches in rural areas should be computerized.
Which of the following Statements would weaken the government’s Argument ?
(1) Computerisation of bank branches in urban areas has helped in making their performance more efficient and
fast.
(2) Lack of skilled and qualified manpower has been suitably substituted by computers in banks.
(3) Non-computerised bank branches in the rural areas have been proved to be as efficient as their computerized
counterparts.
(4) The government has introduced a special test for computer knowledge in all recruitment
exams for banks.
(5) Unemployment in the rural areas could be controlled by training more and more professionals
in computers.
Q.19. Based on the findings of a recent study, it has been reported that regular consumption of ripe mango helps in controlling
blood pressure as it increases the level of potassium in the blood stream.
Which of the following contradicts the findings reported in the above Statement ?
(1) Increased level of potassium in blood stream enhances quality of health
(2) Many people who consume ripe mangoes regularly were found to be suffering from hypertension.
(3) Consumption of ripe mango helps in storing anti-oxidant in the body.
(4) Ripe mango is a good source of many vitamins
(5) None of these

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Explanation
Q.1.(5) According to the statement both arguments are Q.12.(5) Competition is helpful in making profit for any
strong. company thus argument I is strong.
Q.2.(4) According to the statement both arguments are As general public includes both classes i.e. rich and
not strong. poor, so it is not possible to decide whether they
are able to afford the prices or not thus argument
Q.3.(2) We cannot compare bread with education so
II is weak.
argument I is weak.
This is also a part of development so development
Q.4.(5) I is strong because if someone is literate then
could not be sugguested at the cost of equally
he does not gaurantee of political maturity. II
important thing.
is strong because if one is literate he can take
politically wiser decision. Q.13.(5) Running Railway and Passenger Transport system
suppose to have different features so should not
Q.5.(1) Argument I is strong because it stated the reason
be compared. So I is weak. II is weak as statement
but we can’t follow other countries so argument
doesn’t suggest that govt has no such expertise so
II is not strong.
it’s not necesserily true. The reason of overtaking
Q.6.(2) Argument I is not strong it makes life easy we the private companies by government may be
can’t confirm about this but Argument II is strong inconvenience of general public. So if overtaking
because private and government both have equal can reduce the inconvenience then argument III
demerits. is strong.
Q.7.(5) Both are strong because in I, it denies opportunity Q.14.(1) Only (I) and (II) are strong because both are
to many deserving individuals and in II, its true directly related to statement while (III) is not
that everyone has right to equality. strong because it cannot be clearly said.
Q.8.(2) I is not strong but II is strong because unemployment Q.15.(1) A is strong because it is correct and related
problem in India is very big. information.
Q.9.(1) Argument I is strong because if any work is B is strong because it is talking about that particular
beneficial for public it is good but I is not strong part where the ground water level is low. C is not
because if every good work is burden upon strong because it is not applicable in whole country.
exchequer what is the use of money.
Q.16.(4) Only A is strong because it provides the reason
Q.10.(4) I is not strong because if their parents hold high why the ban is not applicable. B & C are not strong
rank there is no need of reservation. II is not strong because it cannot be the reason for ban.
because every one wants a job where as he belongs
Q.17.(5)
any caste.
Q.18.(3)
Q.11.(4) I will not follow because of word ‘Only’. II will
not follow because we are not talking about office Q.19.(2) The people, who consume ripe mangoes all are
work. suffering from hypertension it can’t be said.

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CHAPTER
Drawing
18 Inference
Inference is a conclusion drawn on the basis of knowledge Ex.1-5. Below is given a passage followed by several
of facts available. In questions on INFERENCES, a inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated
paragraph is followed by some statements. On the basis of in the passage. You have to examine each inference
the information given in the passage, we have to check the separately in the context of the passage and decide
truthfulness or falsity of the given statement: upon its, degree of truth and falsity.
Each statement can be put into one of the five categories. Mark answer-
1. Definitely true 2. Probably true 3. Probably false (1) If the inference is definitely true i.e. it properly
4. Definitely false 5. Data inadequate follows from the statements of facts given.
Directions: In each question below is given a passage (2) If the inference is probably true though not
followed by some inferences. You have to examine each definitely true in the light of the facts given.
inference separately in the context of the passage and decide
(3) If the data are inadequate i.e. from the facts
upon the degree of truth or falsity the inference.
given you cannot say whether the inference is
(1) Definitely true (100% True) likely to be true or false.
(2) Probably true (51% to 99% True)
(4) If the inference is probably false though not
(3) Data inadequate (No Relation) definitely false in the light of the passage.
(4) Probably false (51% to 99% False)
(5) If the inference is definitely false i.e. it cannot
(5) Definitely false (100% False) possibly be drawn from the facts given or it
EXAMPLE contradicts the given facts.
India is a free nation, but the poverty still remains. Poverty More than a decade of erosion in budgetary
is an old phenomenon and this cannot be removed over support from the Union Government, has seriously
night. India remained subjugated for several hundred years affected. Indian Railways’ capacity to finance its
and the foreigners had impoverished the once glorious plan expenditures. The situation has come to a pass
nation that supplied textiles and other goods to the countries where the railways must now think of innovative
of Asia, Africa, Europe and even America but now India is ways to get longer mileage from its investments.
much industrialized and the nation may soon recover from Significantly the resource erunch has had grievous
the shock of reign domination that existed once our country. impact on the railways. As a result, it will not be in
Inference a position to acquire necessary equipments and this
India is a great country, which is trying to remove poverty. will seriously affect the railways capacity to serve
Keywords to look upon:- ‘still remains’, ‘existed once in the needs of the economy in future.
our country’. The fact is quite clear from the passage but it Ex.1. Railways has so far believed in traditional ways of
is not directly given in it. Hence, it is probably correct. generating income.
Tips to solve: To solve inference question, one needs to increase Sol.(2)
its analyzing power and practical thinking about the question.
Ex.2. Government has shifted its priority from railways
Waterfall Approach to solve such question
to other areas.
THINK LOGICALLY & OBSERVE
Sol.(3)
READ ALL
THINK LOGICALLY INFERENCES & THINK
& OBSERVE Ex.3. The Union Government has reduced drastically the
budgetary support to railways during the last decade.
USE MWTHOD
READ ALL INFERENCES OF ELIMINATION & WORK ON ALL
& THINK Sol.(1)
Ex.4. The fiscal position of railways in the earlier plan
USE MWTHOD READ THE STATEMENT
OF ELIMINATION & CONCENTRATE
& WORK ON ALL
period was better than the current plan period.
CONNECT &
READ THE STATEMENT THE BEST OPTION WITH STATEMENT & DRAW BEST CONCLUSION
CONCENTRATE Sol.(3)

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Ex.5. During the current plan period the railways will not (4) There will be direct settlement of claims and
be able to expand its network losses by the bus company.
Sol.(2) (5) None of these
Ex.6-7. Given below is one passage followed by several Sol.(1) This would be an appropriate inference of the given
possible inferences which can be drawn from the statement.
facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each
Example Based on Latest Pattern
inference separately in the context of the passage
and decide upon its degree of true or falsely. Ex.9. Statement: “We must change our brand name such
that it sounds similar to ‘Z’ toys in order to make
(1) If the inference is Definitely true, i.e. it properly
higher profits”- A worker at ‘XYZ’ toys.
follows from the statement of facts given;
Which of the following statement can be inferred
(2) If the inference is Probably true though not
from the worker’s statement?
definitely true in the light of the facts given;
(1) ‘Z’ toys have a considerably good holding in
(3) If the data are inadequate, i.e. from the facts
the market of toys.
given you cannot say whether the inference is
likely to be true or false (2) ‘XYZ’ is a fairly new brand launched recently
in the market.
(4) If the inference is Probably false though not
Definitely false in the light of facts given; (3) Most other toy companies in the market
resemble the name ‘Z’
(5) If the inference is Definitely false i.e. it cannot
possibly be drawn from the fact given or it (4) ‘XYZ’ toys have been making losses at present.
contradicts the given facts. (5) Brand name is the only factor behind ‘XYZ’
The most empirical argument in favor of prayer Inference: Since ‘XYZ’ company is having strong
is that it relieves the mind of tension which is the hold on the market they does not want their position
natural concomitant of life of hurry and worry. It to be degraded.
neutralizes mental repressions and purifies the sub Sol.(1) ‘XYZ’ company having considerably good holding
consciousness. It releases an extra amount of hope in the market of toys.
and energy and thus enables a person to face life Ex.10. Statement: Hybrid cars are good for the environment,
squarely. Life is not all sweetness, enjoyment and but they may not perform as well as cars that run
success, it is drudgery, pain and failure too. only on gasoline. The Toyota price gets great gas
Ex.6. Sub consciousness plays no role in our lives. mileage and has low emissions, making it a good
Sol.(5) The inference is definitely false because it has been ‘Green” option. However, many people think that
given in the passage that prayer purifies the sub it is unattractive. The prices also cannot accelerate
consciousness. Hence, the subconscious has a role as quickly as other models and cannot hold as many
in our lives. passengers as larger gas fueled SUVs. Although
Ex.7. Prayer is an important part of all religions. they save money on fuel, hybrid cars cost more up
front than gas fueled cars. A new hybrid car can cost
Sol.(3) Data are not adequate as it has not been given
almost $ 3500 more than the same car configured to
anywhere in the passage whether prayer forms an
run just on gasoline.
important part of all religions or not.
Which of the following can you infer from the passage?
Ex.8. Statements: Next time, when you lose your luggage
or meet with an accident while traveling by bus, (1) Hybrid cars are more dangerous than other
you do not need to go anywhere and wait for your options.
luggage. Which of the following can be inferred (2) Toyota is making a lot of money from the prices.
from the given information? (The inference is not (3) Cars that use gasoline are going to destroy the
directly stated but can be inferred from the given environment.
information.) (4) Hybrid cars may not be the best choice for
(1) Claims and losses of the customer will be settled everyone.
immediately. (5) Hybrid cars are not environment friendly.
(2) Details of all passengers will be linked with Sol.(4) Could be inferred from the statement. If a person had
Aadhaar card. a large family was short on money or needed a car
(3) The loss will be covered by any insurance company that could accelerate quickly, then a hybrid might
through the bus company. not be the best choice for them.
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EXERCISE
Q.1-5. Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the
passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon the degree
of its truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it properly follows the facts of the statement given.
Mark answer (2) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (3) if the ‘data are inadequate’ i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the data is
likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (4) if the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (5) if the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. if cannot be drawn from the given facts or contradicts
the given facts.
Economic liberalization and globalization have put pressures on the Indian industry, particularly on the service sector, to
offer quality products and services at low costs and with high speed. Organizations have to compete with unequal partners
from abroad. It is well recognized that developing countries like India are already behind other countries technologically,
in many areas, although some of them particularly India, boasts of huge scientific and technical manpower addition to
this, if an entrepreneur or industrialist has to spend a lot of his time, money and energy in dealing with unpredictable
services and in negotiating with the local bureaucracy. It can have a significant dampening effect on business.
Q.1. No other developing country except India claims that they have highly trained technical manpower.
Q.2. Foreign companies are more equipped than domestic companies to provide quality service in good time.
Q.3. Official formalities are less cumbersome in almost all the countries except India.
Q.4. Indian service industry was more comfortable before economic liberalization.
Q.5. India at present is to some extent on par with developed countries in terms of technological development.
Q.6-10. Given below is one passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the
passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree
of truth or falsity.
Mark answer
(1) If the inference is Definitely True, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given;
(2) If the inference is Probably True though not definitely true in the light of the facts given;
(3) If the data are inadequate, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false
(4) If the inference is Probably False though not Definitely false in the light of facts given;
(5) If the inference is Definitely false i.e. it cannot be possible be drawn from the fact given or it Contradict the
given facts.
A radical new surgery procedure, launched at meet long ago, is holding out fresh hope for patients of cardiac
myopathy or enlargement of the heart. The technique, now in India, allows patients to go home two weeks after
the operation, to lead a near normal sedentary life. Cardiac myopathy is a condition that has a variety of causative
factors. An attack from one of the 20 identified viruses, parasite infection, long-term alcohol abuse and blood
pressure could bring it on, and in rare cases, it could fallow childbirth and is even known to run in families. The
condition is marked by an increase in the size of the heart’s chambers and a decrease in the efficiency of pumping.
Q.6. The cardiac myopathy slows down the heartbeat.
Q.7. cardiac myopathy is hereditary.
Q.8. Earlier the patients suffering from cardiac myopathy were required to travel abroad for such operation.
Q.9. The new technique was never tried in India in the past.
Q.10. The efficiency of the heart is inversely proportional to the size of the heart.
Q.11-15. Given below is one passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated
in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its
degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer
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(1) If the inference is Definitely True, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given;
(2) If the inference is Probably True though not definitely true in the light of the facts given;
(3) If the data are inadequate, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false
(4) If the inference is Probably False though not Definitely false in the light of facts given;
(5) If the inference is Definitely false i.e. it cannot be possible be drawn from the fact given or it Contradict the
given facts.
Government sources say the soya bean production will be in the range of 90,000 to 95,000 tons during the 2001-
02 season. The crop will be thus double of 2000-01 season. Besides good monsoon, the record’s production is
attributed to the crash programed launched in Madhya Pradesh by the state government. Although 60 percent of the
country’s total soyabean production is grown in M.P., the yield per hectare is low as compared to other soyabean
producing countries.
Q.11. India is the largest exporter of soya bean.
Q.12. The Soya bean production during 2000-01 was about 40,000 tons.
Q.13. In no other state in the country, Soyabean yield is more than M. P.
Q.14. Central Government helped the M.P. Government in implementing the crash program.
Q.15. Good water supply is needed for cultivating Soyabean.
Q.16. Read the following information and answer the question.
Informed people generally assimilate information from several divergent sources before coming to an opinion. However,
the most popular news organization view foreign affairs solely through the eyes of our state department. In reporting the
political crisis in foreign country B, news organizations must endeavor to find an alternative source of information.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the argument above?
(1) To the degree that a news source gives an account of another country that mirrors that of our state department,
that reporting is suspect.
(2) To protect their integrity, news media should avoid the influence of state department releases
in their coverage of foreign affairs.
(3) Reporting that is not influenced by the state department is usually more accurate than are other accounts.
(4) The alternative sources of information mentioned in the passage might not share the same view as the state
department.
(5) A report cannot be seen as influenced by the statement department if it accurately depicts the events in a foreign country.
Q.17. Read the following information and answer the question.
A few travellers were severely beaten up by villagers recently in a remote rural part of the state as the villagers
found the movement of the travellers suspicious. The district authority has sent a police team to nab the culprits.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statement?
(1) The villagers dislike the presence of strangers in their vicinity
(2) Villagers are generally suspicious in nature
(3) Travellers prefer to visit the countryside
(4) The govt. generally provides protection to travellers across the country
(5) Govt. doesn’t play an important role for all these activities.
Q.18. Read the following information and answer the question.
Get more involved in our real world. Food inflation is a fantastic way to teach our children mathematics. Try
having your child plot a graph of how incomes have grown in India for different jobs between, say, 1950 and today
(engineer, doctor, maid, driver). Have them plot how costs have grown in the same period, it will be a fun exercise.
By the time they finish the exercise, not only will your children learn a lot, but likely you will realize too that while
our incomes have zoomed 300 times in this period, salaries of maids have probably gone up only 50 times, and
costs have gone up 100 times. Your maid still has a seven day week, with no paid vacation or casual leaves and
realizing just how lucky we are is often my first step towards serious philanthropy.

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All the following can be inferred from the above except for the one:
(1) Real world problems are a good way to understand other subjects as well as have appreciation for the real world problem.
(2) Food inflation has affected very differently different professional over the years.
(3) Though there are huge salary differences, for all the jobs/professions the increase has at least not been less
than the rate of inflation over a longer period.
(4) When we realize that we have been lucky, we tend to think about philanthropy and helping those who have
not been so lucky.
(5) Not only children, ever the parents and other adults need to understand and sensitise themselves about inequality.
Q.19. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Students in some of the corporation school in the city are in a fix. They cannot use the toilet when they need to,
due to lack of hygiene and poor maintenance. The stench near the primary block in the corporation - run school
in Saidapet was unbearable. Going past the toilet block to get to the head-master office is a very difficult task but
hundreds of children have little choice. The toilets at another school in West Manbalam were not usable for weeks
together because of a sewage block.” I complained to the engineer in the works department (of the corporation)
several times but he kept telling us that they did not have funds.” said the headmaster.
Which of the following ‘inferences ‘ is True based on the above information?
(1) Corporation did not have enough funds.
(2) The engineer of the corporation does not want to do work.
(3) There are not any standard of responsibility for corporation schools.
(4) The headmaster of corporation’s school is greedy.
(5) None of these

Explanation
Q.1.(4) According to passage some countries are the Q.7.(1) Cardiac Myopathy is known to run in families.
competitor of India on the basis of technology and Q.8.(3) According to the given passage, we can’t say that
so no other country except India is technologically the surgery procedure was earlier available or not
strong we cannot said. in abroad.
Q.2.(1) Economic liberalization, global and competition Q.9.(2) New technique is now present in India. That means
put pressure on Indian companies shows that it was probably not present in past. So statement
foreign companies are more equipped than is probable true.
domestic companies to provide equal service so
it is definitely true. Q.10.(1) We can conclude it through the last line of the passage.
Q.3.(3) There is no discussion about official formalities Q.11.(3) There is not any mention about the export of
so data is inadequate. soyabean.
Q.4.(2) It is mentioned in the passage that the entry Q.12.(5) Definitely false.
of foreign companies as a result of Economic The production will be in the range 45.to 47.5mt.
liberalization has put pressure on Indian industry
Q.13.(1) M.P. is the largest Soya producing state.
shows that before liberalisation industry was in
some comfort. Q.14.(3) Data inadequate
Q.5.(4) India is behind other countries technologically There is not any mention about central assistance.
represents that it is probably false in some extent Q.15.(1) Because of good monsoon and crash programme
India is on par with developed countries in turns the production of Soyabeen is good.
of technology.
Q.16.(4)
Q.6.(1) I is definitely true because cardiac myopathy
Q.17.(4)
condition is mark by an increase in the size of the
heart’s chamber and a decrease in the efficiency Q.18.(3)
of pumping. Q.19.(3)

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CHAPTER

19 COMBINED LOGICAL

Combined logical is the chapter in which all types of logical dedication and enthusiasm, it cannot be inferred.
such as- assumption, argument, course of action, cause and We can assume it but it cannot be inferred from it.
effect, inference and conclusion are asked in groups with a Ex.2. Which of the following weakens the statement given
statement or passage. by the principal?
Ex.1-2. Study the following information carefully and I. The number of awards should be increased for
answer the questions. all the students who have completed 1 year in
There are some criteria which will be considered school.
during the assessment of students- said by the II. The performance graph has been prepared
principal of CMS School. by the class teachers based on the students’
(a) Punctuality and concentration in the class are activities.
one of the key points which will surely be III. All students should be given relaxation for being
reviewed. late for 10 minutes twice a month.
(b) Hard work and dedication towards the exam (1) Only II (2) Both II and III
will be appreciated.
(3) Both I and III (4) Only I
(c) Increasing the student’s score in the answer
evaluation without any reason would not be (5) None of these
considered. Sol.(3) For I: Yes, it weakens the statement of the
Ex.1. Which of the following can be inferred from the school’s principal as it is said by the principal that
above statement? appreciation will be based on performance i.e. hard
work and punctuality.
I. Attendance of class will be evaluated by the
class teacher. For II: No, it strengthens the statement by the
principal as performance graph has been prepared
II. There will be at least two awards for deserving and appreciation will be done accordingly.
students based on their performance.
For III: Yes, it weakens because it is mentioned that
III. Some of the students of the school have done a punctuality is one of the key factor and if those who
tremendous effort with complete determination are punctual and those who get relaxation time and
and enthusiasm. both are considered as same, then it’s a partiality for
(1) Only I (2) Both II and III the punctual coming student.
(3) Both I and III (4) Only III Ex.3. Study the following information carefully and
(5) None of these answer the question.

Sol.(1) For I: Yes, it can be inferred from the given Analyst: Creative professionals, such as clothing
statements as it is clearly mentioned that punctuality designers, graphic designers, and decorators, often
and concentration are one of the key points which have very poor managerial skills and do not succeed
will surely be reviewed. when they try to run their own businesses. In fact,
most of these creative types are less skilled in business
For II: No, it is clear from the given statements that than is the average white-collar professional who
there will be appreciated but the number of awards does not work in a creative field. Generally, creative
cannot be inferred. talent and business acumen rarely go hand in hand. If
For III: No, as it is mentioned by the school’s the analyst’s argument is taken as true, which of the
principal that hard work and dedication towards following statements can properly be concluded?
exams will be applauded. (1) No successful businesspeople are creative.
But, are there some students who tried with
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(2) Some creative types are not less skilled at For IV: No, it has been mentioned that nowadays X
business than is the average white-collar worker has 4 major companies but we cannot say that the
who is not creative. top CEOs have the desire to open their company in
(3) Creativity precludes success in business. X.

(4) Any white-collar worker who is not creative is Ex.5. Study the following information carefully and
more successful in business than any creative answer the question given below.
professional. Statement:
(5) Business is not a creative endeavour. Start thinking about travelling by helicopter on
Sol.(2) The passage states that most creative types are less vacation. A helicopter trip can give a complete view
skilled in business than the average white-collar of the land that a train journey cannot. You can fly to
worker who does not work in a creative field. This many cities, see many mountains and rivers enjoying
implies that some creative types are not less skilled peace. Helicopter travel is a beautiful way to travel
than the average white-collar worker who is not around the country and abroad, and nothing can be
creative. more beautiful than a helicopter trip.

Ex.4. Study the following information carefully and Conclusions:

answer the question given below. I. While going on vacation, people want to enjoy
Statement- the view of the cities from the sky.

X, a district in L which has seen the phase of II. People should not travel by helicopter when
kidnapping, extortion, murder in the companies. they are going on vacation.
Nowadays there are 4 major companies in X. The Which of the following can be concluded from the
growth rate of X is top among all districts of L and given statement?
5th among all districts of India in the year 2019. (1) Only I follows
Which of the following can be inferred from the (2) Only II follows
above statement?
(3) Both I and II follow
I. Opportunities for employment has been increased
in X. (4) None follows
II. There is no case of murder, kidnapping and (5) Either I or II follows.
extortion in 2019. Sol.(4) I is an assumption. II is a suggestion but not a
III. People of X are hardworking and keen to go conclusion. Hence, neither I nor II follows.
forward. Ex.6-8. Study the following information carefully and
IV. Top CEO of India are desirous to have their answer the question given below.
company in X. Statement-
(1) Only II (2) Only I and III “Please be on full alert against gusts and high waves
(3) Only I (4) Only III and IV and be vigilant about landslides, floods and swollen
rivers,” the Japan Meteorological Agency said in a
(5) None of these statement.
Sol.(2) For I: Yes, as it is mentioned in the statement that (A) Nearly 290,000 households lost power in the
nowadays there are 4 major companies in X, then it region, while at least 10 houses were damaged
is obvious employment will increase. in Shizuoka with windows shattered and cars
For II: No, we cannot say that there is no case of flipped onto their sides.
murder, kidnapping or extortion, we can only say it (B) Television footage showed a huge roof
has been reduced. But this reduction has touch the collapsing at a gasoline station in Tateyama,
figure of zero, it cannot be inferred. south of Tokyo, with pumps crushed underneath.
For III: Yes, as it is mentioned the growth rate of X (C) A powerful typhoon with record-breaking winds
is top in L and 5th among all districts in India, and and heavy rain have battered the Tokyo region,
X has moved from the phase of darkness. It clearly sparking evacuation warnings for tens of thousands
indicates that people of X are hardworking and keen and causing widespread blackouts and transport
to move forward. disruption.
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(D) We need to inspect tracks and check if there is (A) Stop thinking of outcome and don’t let your
any damage as the typhoon is expected to pass eyes off your goal. It’s Ok to fail! We learn from
through the region overnight. failure and gain experience helping us achieve
(E) The typhoon already caused some travel disruption bigger.
on its approach. About 100 bullet trains connecting (B) There are no permanent jobs, you can be ousted
Tokyo with central and western Japanese cities from your seat at any moment, and not risking
were scrapped, along with ferry services in Tokyo to be on the edge is a risky business.
bay. (C) History establishes that we fail far more from
(F) Faxai, travelling north at a speed of 25 kilometres timidity than we do from daring. Future favours
per hour, was expected to hit north-eastern Japan the brave, dare to take the new goal. Failure is a
before fizzling out back to the Pacific. part of every success story and should be seen
(G) Airlines cancelled more than 100 flights scheduled as a method for success.
while some coastal highways were closed west (D) To explore all possibilities, to see the best part
of the capital in Kanagawa due to the storm, of you and to give wings to your journey, you
according to local media. must not deter to take the educated calculated
(H) Tournament rules say that if a pool match has to risk.
be scrapped due to extreme weather, it is classed (E) In sports, there is always pressure to be on the
as a draw, which could have a major impact on top of the curve. Taking mind off the outcome
what is set to be a very close competition. makes players tough. They count on their
Ex.6. Which of the following (A), (B) and (G) shows the preparation and don’t focus on the negative
effect of the thunderstorm? scenario before taking the battleground.

(1) Only A (2) All A, B and G (F) Our culture also defines our ways, there are
places where people play safe and believe in
(3) Only B (4) Only G steady growth, getting inspired by such mind
(5) Both A and G sets will fetch you nothing but regret. Instead,
take energy from those who have shined despite
Sol.(2)
odd of not being in the company where people
Ex.7. Which of the following (A), (B), (C) and (D) can be have an intense longing for growth.
inferred due to overnight storm?
(G) Failure is a part of the successful journey, whenever
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C you encounter it, learn from it and prepare yourself
(4) Only D (5) None of these to strike harder next time.
Sol.(4) (H) Taking risk is the least risky job, it increases
your testosterone level and boosts your
Ex.8. Which of the following (A), (G), (E) and (H) shows
confidence, thus setting yourself up for bigger
the effect of the storm according to local media?
challenges.
(1) Only A (2) Only G (3) Only E
Ex.9. Which among the following support the given
(4) Only H (5) None of these statement in favour of “Goal is life”?
Sol.(2) (1) F (2) A (3) E
Ex.9-13. Study the following information carefully and (4) B (5) Both E and F
answer the question given below.
Sol.(2)
Statement-
Ex.10. Which of the following statements supports those
If you do not take the risk in your life you cannot who are not disappointed with failure and move
achieve anything. In another way you can say, not towards new goals?
taking risk is a bigger risk. Feeling comfortable with
(1) H (2) G (3) C
status quo, holding back from challenges and not
pursuing a bigger goal are the sheer reasons for a (4) Both G and C (5) B
downfall. In this brisk-paced world, the only strategy Sol.(4)
that is guaranteed to fail is not taking the risk. Cost
Ex.11. Which of the following is the best inference in terms
of inaction is higher than what we can imagine.
of evaluating someone’s internal abilities?

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(1) D (2) A (4) Sentence D (5) None of these
(3) Only D and H (4) B Sol.(1)
(5) Only D, G and H Ex.15. Which of the following sentences is an effect of the
Sol.(5) given statement?

Ex.12. Which of the following can be an assumption in (1) Sentence A (2) Sentence B (3) Sentence C
favour of those people who have an intense longing (4) Sentence D (5) None of these
for growth? Sol.(2)
(1) A (2) B (3) C Ex.16. Which of the following sentences is a course of action
(4) D (5) F of the given statement?
Sol.(5) (1) Sentence A (2) Sentence B (3) Sentence C
Ex.13. Which of the following is the best argument in terms (4) Sentence D (5) None of these
of people should not care about the result? Sol.(3)
(1) A (2) H (3) B Ex.17. Which of the following sentences can be inferred
(4) E (5) F from the given statement?
Sol.(4) (1) Sentence A (2) Sentence B (3) Sentence C
Ex.14-18. Study the given information carefully and (4) Sentence D (5) None of these
answer the following questions. Sol.(4)
Statement: Ex.18. Which of the following sentences weakens the given
It is admission season, and, once again cries for statement?
quotas and reservations fill the air as students at (1) Sentence A (2) Sentence C (3) Sentence D
every level from playschool upwards all the way
to PhD programmes scramble to get a place in the (4) Sentence E (5) None of these
more sought-after courses and institutions in India’s Sol.(4)
ferociously competitive education system. The
Ex.19-20. Study the following information carefully and
demand-supply gap is staggering despite the fact
answer the questions given below.
that in absolute numbers India continues to have
the largest number of children out of school in any The CEO of a company has organized extra training
country in the world. for unskilled employees of the technical department
and the concerned employees are getting paid an
(A) For the poor, access to affordable government
extra amount for the training. But the average salary
education is limited due to the absence of
of employees more or less remains the same.
anything like the requisite physical and soft
infrastructure. Ex.19. Which of the following can be inferred from the
given statement?
(B) Everybody wants quota and with everybody
now figuring out which political button to push I. The employees of the technical department of
to get what they want, the pie is getting awfully any other company will get more bonus than
hard to slice and dice further. the employees of this company.
(C) At the higher education level, we need to create II. The employees of the technical department are
40 million University seats by 2020. not serious about training.
(D) To increase the employability of graduates, we III. Additional training arranged by the CEO for
need uniformity in school education. technical department employees will help
employees to improve their skills.
(E) Accordingly, a pro-rata reservation of 22.5%
(SC 15% and ST 7.5%) has been made for them (1) Both I and II (2) Both II and III
in educational institutions. (3) Only II (4) Only III
Ex.14. Which of the following sentences is a strong (5) None of these
argument with reference to the given statement?
Sol.(4) Only Statement III is assumed from the given
(1) Sentence A (2) Sentence B (3) Sentence C statement. As from the given statement, it can

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be assumed that the extra training will help the Constitution’s Article 14, the fundamental right
employees to improve their skills. to equality to all persons. This basic structure
Ex.20. What can be the reason behind the average of the of the Constitution cannot be reshaped by any
salary remain the same as employees? Parliament. And yet, the government maintains
that it does not discriminate or violate the right
I. The employees of the technical department to equality.
attend the extra training two or three days
although the trainers provide the training Ex.21. Which of the following arguments is strong regarding
regularly. “Isn’t it the same as NRC?”

II. The employee started taking more holidays after (1) a (2) c (3) b
the commencement of the extra training. (4) Both a and c (5) None of these
III. The employees are already taking technical Sol.(3)
training and doing hard work on a daily basis. Ex.22. Which of the following arguments can be an
(1) Both I and II (2) Both II and III assumption with respect to the government decision?
(3) Only II (4) Only III (1) c (2) a (3) b
(5) None of these (4) Both b and c (5) None of these
Sol.(2) Both II and III can be the reason for the average Sol.(2)
salary remain the same. Ex.23. Which of the following arguments is strong against
Ex.21-23. Study the following information carefully and the description mentioned in the statement?
answer the questions given below. (1) c (2) a (3) b
Statement- (4) All (5) None of these
The country is witnessing an unprecedented debate Sol.(1)
on CAB with the government trying to reassure
people that there is nothing to be afraid of for any Ex.24. Study the following information carefully and
Indian citizen of any denomination. answer the questions given below:
(a) The bill of 1955 bars illegal migrants from Statement:
acquiring Indian citizenship. An illegal migrant Adulteration is very unhealthy. But nowadays it is
is a foreigner who enters the country without being operated on a greater level. Adulteration is the
valid travel documents, like a passport and process of mixing of waste material with valuable
visa, or enters with valid documents, but stays material. Mostly the retailers involved in this process
beyond the permitted time period. while selling food grains to gain profit.
(b) The National Register of Citizens or NRC that (A) The food should be properly checked before
we saw in Assam targeted illegal immigrants. buying and the retailer caught doing this should
A person had to prove that either they or their be punished.
ancestors were in Assam on or before March 24,
(B) Bad health conditions are the result of these
1971. NRC, which may be extended to the rest
practices.
of the country, is not based on religion, unlike
CAB. Which of the following can be the inference of the
above statement?
(c) The CAB ringfences Muslim identity by
declaring India a welcome refuge to all (1) B (2) A and B
other religious communities. It seeks to (3) Either A or B (4) None of these
legally establish Muslims as second-class
(5) A
citizens of India by providing preferential
treatment to other groups. This violates the Sol.(1)

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EXERCISE
Q.1-3. Read the following statements and answer the by criticism of India as an outsourcing hub. India
questions given below : is seen by many in the west as a land of call centres
Statement :The union cabinet approved a proposal and back offices with cheap labour that costs people
for amending the child labour (prohibition and in the west, their jobs.
regulation) Act, 1986 to ban employment of children Q.4. Which of the following statements would weaken
aged up to 14 in any form of industry. the argument given in the passage ?
The questions are based on the information given (1) Outsourced jobs do not require highly skilled
above and give answers based on the sentences and qualified employees.
labelled (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) as given below. (2) Nearly 34% of the unemployed people would
(A) It will be an offence to employ such children secure jobs in the west if outsourced jobs were
not only in factories or industries but also in in sourced by their organizations.
homes or forms, If their labour is meant to (3) After suffering heavy losses in the elections
serve any commercial interest. the governments in the west are expected to
(B) Amendment would benefit the children who change their decision on outsourcing to India.
have been working in various industries now (4) Outsourcing, a dynamic, two-way relationship
and they can concentrate on education. has created jobs and growth in India as well
(C) The Government decision is in line with as the west.
the convention of the international labour (5) Although outsourcing to India allowed many
organisation which prohibits any form of child companies in the west to focus on their core
labour until the age of 14. operations, they heavily compromised the
(D) The cabinet approved another amendment to quality and the standards of their back office
define children aged 14-18 as ‘adolescents’ and jobs.
prohibit their employment mines explosives Q.5. Which of the following can be a possible repercussion
industries chemical and paint industries and of the opposition to outsourcing in the west?
other hazardous establishments.
(1) Jobs which are currently outsourced to India
(E) The ministry of labour is likely to introduce would be transferred to the other country
the amendment bill in parliament soon. which in all probability would be China.
Q.1. Which of the following can be inferred from the given (2) Call centres and back-office employees in
information ? (An inference is something that is not India would expect a salary at par with their
directly stated but can be inferred from the given western counterparts.
information)
(3) In-sourcing of jobs by the west would render
(1) A (2) B (3) C thousands of Indians unemployed,
(4) B and E (5) C and D (4) If in-sourced in the west itself, the companies
Q.2. Which of the following will be the effect if the would not be able to employ professionals
Government passes the amendment bill ? and experts of the same quality as available
(1) B (2) A (3) C in India.

(4) D (5) E (5) The western companies which earlier

outsourced to India would benefit financially
Q.3. Which among the following is an inspiration of the as offices would not have to be sent overseas.
government to introduce the bill?
Q.6. Which of the following can be inferred? (An
(1) A (2) B (3) C inference is something which is not directly stated
(4) D (5) E but can be inferred from the given facts)
Q.4-6. Read the following information carefully and answer (1) Unemployment in India is not as severe a
the questions which follow. problem as that in the west.
Ruling governments in the west are being punished (2) Employees working in the back offices and
by the voters for ever-rising unemployment rates. call centres in the west earn much more than
Their parliament is abuzz with campaigns marked their counterparts in India.
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(3) Developing countries such as China and India Q.10. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D)
do not outsource their back-office jobs at all to and (E) mentioned above would weaken/contradict
other countries the facts presented in the paragraph?
(4) Countries which do not outsource jobs do not (1) A (2) B (3) C
face the problem of unemployment (4) D (5) E
(5) One of the main reasons for the high unemployment Q.11-13. Read the following paragraph and answer the
rate in India is its clan of call centres and back questions which follow:
offices which undertake outsourced work from It is true that the green revolution has succeeded in
the west transforming the Indian economy from a situation
Q.7-10. Read the following information and five statements of severe food shortage into one where the country
given below it carefully and answer the questions. has not only become self-reliant in food production
but has also been able to generate a sizable surplus
The exodus from rural areas to the urban hubs in
for export. However, the high doses of chemical
search of job opportunities has now declined to
fertilizers and pesticides, which have been used
nearly twenty-six per cent of what if was at the turn
under this ‘conventional’ farming technology (along
of the 21st century.
with ‘high yielding varieties of seeds’ and irrigation)
(A) Since the last decade, the rural economy are now reversing the trend and causing severe
has transformed itself into a bankable, profit environmental and health hazards, including the
making and commercially viable venture contamination of groundwater.
(B) Job opportunities differ in urban and rural areas Q.11. Which of the following statements would strengthen
(C) The load on infrastructure and resources in the the author’s argument?
urban areas which had remained unmanageable (1) India faced severe food shortages before the
for a long time has been eased a little since the inception of the green revolution.
last decade. (2) Organic farming i.e. farming without the use
(D) This trend of reverse migration which .was of chemical fertilizers makes the food products
seen only in developed countries till now has too expensive at the retail level.
entered the scenes of developing nations as (3) Many farmers have reported that the soil in
well their fields became infertile within five years
(E) According to a recent report, more than eighty of switching over to chemical fertilizers.
per cent of the professionals having roots in (4) Farmers not relying on the hybrid and high
rural areas prefer to work in urban cities rather yielding variety of seeds as propagated by
than their home villages. green revolution do not make as much profit as
the one using methods of the green revolution.
Q.7. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E) mentioned above represents the effect of the (5) High yielding varieties of seeds as propagated
given information most appropriately? by green revolution do not require much water
for irrigation purposes and are also resistant to
(1) B (2) C (3) D
pest attacks.
(4) E (5) Either D or E Q.12. Which of the following can be inferred? (An
Q.8. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) inference is something which is not directly stated
and (E) mentioned above represents a cause of the but can be inferred from the given facts.)
given information most appropriately? (1) Many countries have banned the use of chemical
(1) E & A (2) D (3) C fertilizers
(4) B (5) None of these (2) Green revolution failed miserably to do any
good to India’s needs.
Q.9. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E) mentioned above represents an assumption (3) The negative effects of techniques of green
most appropriately? (An assumption is something revolution were not anticipated at its inception
supposed or taken for granted) (4) India will never face food shortage again
(1) A (2) B (3) C (5) The main focus of green revolution was to help
international fertilizer manufacturers sell their
(4) Both A and C (5) D products in India.

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Q.13. Which of the following statements represents a possible (5) A study done a couple of years ago had
Effect of the conventional Green Revolution reported that a large number of farmers had
techniques of farming if it continues in the days to stopped using chemical fertilizers owing to
come? their ill-effects on health.
(1) India would never face severe food shortage Q.16. In a governmental initiative which started a couple
again in the future of years ago, school teachers of a particular State
(2) Export of food products would increase were engaged in teaching the illiterate every
manifold evening after the regular school hours. Which of
the following can be an EFFECT of the statement
(3) Only groundwater would be used for irrigation given above ?
purpose
(1) A report given to the State government a
(4) Cases of chemical poisoning would increase couple of years ago stated a high percentage of
substantially the illiterate population as compared to some
(5) Farmers not following methods of Green other States.
Revolution would face severe health hazards (2) Many teachers were, motivated to join the
Q.14-17. Read the given statements carefully and answer the scheme started by the government as the
questions which follow. remuneration provided to them was attractive.
Q.14. After the government announced a compensatory (3) Lack of accessibility to schools and extreme
policy for farmers in return for the acquisition of poverty were major causes of illiteracy in the
their land, the farmers demanded a written proof of State.
the policy. (4) Evening classes help individuals working as
Which of the following could be a CAUSE for daily wagers attend classes after work.
demanding the written proof? (5) The literacy rate in the State has improved
(1) The farmers were unable to contest the significantly this year.
inadequate compensation for their land in Q.17. Small grocery shop owners have gone on a day’s
earlier such policies. strike to protest against the entry of a foreign retail
(2) The compensation promised in the policy was store chain in the city.
grossly inadequate. Which of the following statements can be an EFFECT
(3) The farmers were unwilling to surrender their of the statement given above?
lands to the government. (1) The small grocery shop owners perceive the
(4) The farmers demand a certain percentage big retail giants as sharks, trying to dominate
of share out of the revenue generated by the the available market space.
government of their lands. (2) Foreign investment in retail has shown a
(5) The only option to enforce government tremendous growth in India since a couple of
officials to frame a compensatory policy for years.
the farmers was to demand proof. (3) There have been several countries in which
Q.15. The number of cases concerning a non-contagious retail chain giants have totally wiped out small
chemical poisoning is on the rise among local villagers. scale grocery shops.
Which of the following could possibly be a CAUSE (4) The government agreed to take all political
of the statement given above ? steps required to safeguard the interests of
small scale retailers.
(1) The government has ordered an immediate
enquiry into the matter. (5) A recent survey indicated that a large number of
people prefer to buy their daily grocery items
(2) Unless timely treatment is provided to the
from the nearby grocery stores rather than big
patients, the poisoning can prove to be fatal.
retail chain stores.
(3) Many factories surrounding the village do not
Q.18-23. Read the following information and the five
dispose off their wastes appropriately.
statements given below it carefully and answer the
(4) The only hospital in the area is not equipped questions which follow.
to treat chemical poisoning related ailments.
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ABC Country and XYZ Country make competing (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C
plans for the river Kango’s precious water. The
(4) Only D (5) Both C and D
dams and hydropower projects planned are stated
to have a potential of about 40000 MW. There is, Q.20. Which of the statements A, B, C, D and E mentioned
however, apprehension in the ABC Country water above would ease ABC Country’s apprehensions
and power ministries that XYZ Country’s similar regarding XYZ Country’s similar dam construction
dam construction programs on the same river could projects?
adversely affect this potential. (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C
A. Kango river passes through both the countries. (4) Only D (5) Only E
B. ABC Country should take the lead and begin Q.21. Which of the statements A, B, C, D and E mentioned
construction of dams for hydropower projects above would best represent a course of action which
before XYZ Country does. can be taken by the ABC country government to
C. Building cascades of dams at multiple locations counter XYZ country’s competing plans?
in the river would have massive environmental
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C
impacts.
(4) Only D (5) Only E
D. A dam built by XYZ Country on river Xang,
close to ABC Country border, led to severe Q.22. Which of the statements A, B, C, D and E mentioned
floods in ABC Country and some parts of XYZ above represents a conclusion is implicit in the given
Country last year. paragraph which can be drawn from it?
E. Similar dams built on the river Xang which (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C
passes through both the countries did not affect (4) Only D (5) Both A and D
the power generating capacity of either dam.
Q.23 Which of the statements A, B, C, D and E mentioned
Q.18. Which of the statements A, B, C, D and E mentioned
above, XYZ Country would ease for assent
above represents an Assumption is implicit in the given
regarding similar dam construction projects of ABC
paragraph or an inference which can be drawn from it?
Country?
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(4) Only D (5) Both A and C
(3) Only C and E (4) Only E
Q.19. Which of the statements A, B, C, D and E mentioned
above would weaken the case for both countries to (5) Only E and D
build dams on the river?
Explanation
Q.1.(4) B and E of dams at multiple locations in the river would
Q.2.(2) A have massive environmental impacts.’

Q.3.(3) C Q.20.(5) The statement would ease ABC country

apprehensions regarding XYZ country similar
Q.4.(4) Q.5.(3) Q.6.(2) dam construction projects in that the ‘ Similar
Q.7.(2) Q.8.(1) Q.9.(2) dams built on the river Xang which passes
through both the countries did not affect the power
Q.10.(1) Q.11.(1) Q.12.(3)
generating capacity of either dam.’
Q.13.(4) Q.14.(1) Q.15.(3)
Q.21.(2) A course of action taken by the ABC country
Q.16.(5) Q.17.(4) government to counter XYZ country’s competing
Q.18.(1) An inference can be drawn from the given para- plans is that the ‘ABC should take the lead and
graph is that the Kango river passes through both begin construction of dams for hydro power
the countries. projects before XYZ does.
Q.19.(3) The weak statement for both the countries to build Q.22.(5)
dams on the river is that the ‘Building cascades Q.23.(4)

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CHAPTER
statement and
20 conclusion
“Conclusion” means a fact that can be truly inferred from (3) Neither I nor II follows.
the contents of a given sentence or passage. The questions (4) Only II follows.
in this section thus consist of a statement or a set of
statements, followed by certain inferences based on the (5) Either I or II follows.
facts contained in the given statements. The candidate is Sol.(3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows because any
required to analyse the given statements, understand their person can be philanthrope whether he is rich or
direct/indirect implications and then decide which of the poor.
given conclusions follows logically and for sure, from the
Ex.2. Statement:
given statements.
The most polluting units are those engaged in
Key Points to Remember electroplating of metals. These units generate
If the statement is formed with two or more statements then highly toxic substances. Such industries are
there should not be a mutual contradiction in the sentence. concentrated in the walled city.
Read carefully and try to find keywords. Conclusions:
The conclusion should not go against establishing the fact I. Electroplating industries must be shut down.
and prevailing notions of truth.
II. In the walled city there is greater pollution.
If definite words like all, always, at least, only, exactly and
etc. are used then the conclusion will be invalid. (1) Only I follows

If a conclusion is provided with the stated example then the (2) Only II follows
conclusion will be invalid. (3) Both I and II follow
Type of questions (4) Neither I nor II follows
1. Two, three or more statement based. (5) Either I or II follows
2. Passage based. Sol.(2) Only conclusion II follows. Electroplating
industries are polluting and these are concentrated
Examples in the walled city. Therefore, there is greater
Direction: (1-10.) pollution in the walled city.
Statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. Ex.3. Statement:
You have to consider the statement to be true even if they
This course is so designed that only a few children
seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You
can learn the topics by themselves.
have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow
from the given statements. Indicate your answer. Conclusions:
Ex.1. Statement: I. Learning the topics of this course by all the
Philanthropes with their human compassion and children is desirable.
zeal to help the needy have contributed to human II. Some learners find it difficult to learn the topics
welfare in every society. of this course in the absence of a teacher.
Conclusions: (1) Only I follows
I. Rich persons are philanthropes. (2) Only II follows
II. Poor people cannot act as philanthropes. (3) Both I and II follow
(1) Only I follows. (4) Neither I nor II follows
(2) Both I and II follow. (5) Either I or II follows

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Sol.(2) The use of the term ‘all’ in the first conclusion (5) Either I or II follows
makes it invalid. Clearly, the second conclusion Sol.(1) A friend who offers help in time of need is a true
follows. friend. The use of term ‘All’ in conclusion I does not
Ex.4. Statement: express the inherent meaning of the statement and
A car had driven off the road and hit a tree. The also II conclusion is not valid. Therefore, neither
driver was efficient enough. The driver was conclusion I nor II follows.
efficient enough. The road was not good. The Ex.7. Statement:
driver drove the car for the last fifteen years. Most Indians are aware that they have a great
Conclusions: heritage, but few would include science in it.
I. The accident occurred due to the bad condition Conclusions: 
of the road. I. Many Indians consider the sciences have
II. There was a mechanical fault in the car. made Indian heritage great.
(1) Only conclusion II follows II. Many Indians are not aware that India has a
(2) Both the conclusions follow. great scientific heritage.

(3) None of the conclusion follows. (1) Only conclusion I follows

(4) Only conclusion I follows (2) Only conclusion II follows

(5) Either I or II follows. (3) Both conclusions I and II follow

Sol.(2) Clearly, both conclusions can be drawn. It is (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
clearly mentioned that road was not good and the (5) Either I or II follows
driver drove the car off the road even if he was Sol.(3) According to the statement both the conclusions
efficient. So, there may be some mechanical fault follow.
in the car.
Ex.8. Statement:
Ex.5. Statement:
Tension is detrimental to physical and mental health.
Physical exercise is necessary for good health.
Conclusions:
Conclusions:
I. To be healthy one should be free from tension.
I. John plays Tennis at the age of seventy.
II. Mental health depends upon the tension
II. Men with irregular habits have to go to the experiences.
hospital.
(1) Only conclusion I follows
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only conclusion II follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(3) Neither I nor II follows
(4) Both conclusions I and II follow
(4) Both I and II follow
(5) Either I or II follows
(5) Either I or II follows
Sol.(4) According to the statement both the conclusions
Sol.(1) Only I follows will follow.
Ex.6. Statement: Ex.9. Statement:
A friend in need is a friend indeed. Private firm workers are hard-working.
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I. All are friends in good times. I. Some hard-working persons are private firm
II. Enemies in bad times are not friends. workers.
(1) Neither I nor II follows II. Government employees are not hard working.
(2) Only I follows (1) Only conclusion I follows
(3) Only II follows (2) Only conclusion II follows
(4) Both I and II follow (3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

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(4) Both conclusions I and II follow Ex.12. Statement:
(5) Either I or II follows The constitution assures fundamental rights.
Sol.(1) Only conclusion I follows. It has been said that private Parliament has the right to amend the constitution.
firm workers are hardworking. It does not mean that Conclusions:
government employees are not hard-working.
I. Parliament included fundamental right in the
Ex.10. Statement: constitution.
The best evidence of India’s glorious past is the growing II. Parliament did not assure the fundamental
popularity of Ayurvedic medicines in the west. rights.
  Conclusions: (1) Only conclusion I follows
I. Ayurvedic medicines are not popular in India. (2) Only conclusion II follows
II. Allopathic medicines are not popular in India. (3) Both conclusions I and II follow
(1) Only conclusion I follows (4) None of these
(2) Only conclusion II follows (5) Either I or II follows
(3) Both conclusions I and II follow Sol.(4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. The Fundamental
(4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows Rights were included in the constitution by the
(5) Either I or II follows Drafting committee headed by Dr. Br R Ambedkar.

Sol.(4) It is mentioned in the statement that best evidence Ex.13-14. In each of the following questions some statement
of India’s glorious past is the growing popularity are given followed by conclusions. You have
of Ayurvedic medicines in India. It implies that to consider the statement to be true even if
ayurvedic was originated in India and propagated they seem to be at variance from commonly
to the other countries. known facts. You have to decide which of the
given conclusions, if any, follow from the given
Ex.11-12. In each of the following questions, two statement statements.
are given followed by two conclusions I and II.
You have to consider the statement to be true even Ex.13. Statement:
if they seem to be at variance from commonly Rabindranath Tagore wrote many poems.
known facts. You have to decide which of the Every poet has aesthetic knowledge.
given conclusions, if any follow from the given
statements. The aesthetic is a part of the axiological study.

Ex.11. Statement: Conclusions:

The best performance in Olympic fetches a gold I. Rabindranath Tagore did different axiological
medal. study.

Player X got a gold medal but later was found to II. He followed the base of logic and ethics.
be using a prohibited drug. (1) Only conclusion I follows
Conclusions: (2) Both conclusions I and II follow
I. X should be allowed to keep the gold medal. (3) Only conclusion II follows
II. The gold medal should be withdrawn and (4) None of these
given to the runner up. (5) Either I or II follows
(1) Only conclusion II follows Sol.(2) Obviously both the conclusions follow
(2) Neither conclusion I nor II follows Rabindranath Tagore was a poet and every poet
(3) Both conclusions I and II follow has aesthetic knowledge. The aesthetic is a part
(4) Only conclusion I follows of axiological. study. So, Rabindranath Tagore did
a different axiological study. Any philosophy is
(5) Either I or II follows related to logic and ethics. Therefore, conclusion
Sol.(1) If a player is found guilty of doping. his medal II also follows.
is confiscated and it is given to the runner up. Ex.14. Statement:
Therefore, only conclusion II follows.
Water has no shape, has volume.
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The knowledge is. like water, flowed from one side in order for one to become proficient. But
to other. many schools music programs encourage
Conclusions: only children who demonstrate early aptitude
to continue studying music, while children
I. The knowledge is interdisciplinary who are not especially musical are directed
II. The knowledge is bound within a specific towards other activities. Having learned to
area. think of themselves as musically inept, these
III. The knowledge influences the core of mental children do not devote any time to music and
activity directly. thus deprive themselves of the opportunity to
develop a latent talent.
(1) Only conclusion I follows
The educator’s statements, if true, would best
(2) Only conclusion II follows support which of the following conclusions?
(3) Both conclusions I and II follow (1) Music education should not devote special
(4) Both conclusions I and III follow attention to talented students.
(5) Either I or II follows (2) Everyone has the potential to learn music.
Sol.(4) From the statements it is clear that knowledge (3) Talent is not always apparent at an early age.
is interdisciplinary. Mental activity is related to (4) Children are particularly sensitive to criticism
acquired knowledge. Thus, conclusion I and III from adults.
follow.
(5) All children should study music.
Ex.15. Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions. Sol.(3) By referring to the latent talent that some children
may be neglecting, the educator is implying that
Educator: Like any other difficult pursuit, not all talent shows its face at an early age.
music requires intense study and practice

NOTES

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EXERCISE
Q.1-3. In each question below is given some statements and conclusion. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow.
(1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Either I or II (4) Neither I nor II (5) Both follow
Q.1. Statement : Indian business as a whole has been quite understandably concerned about the continuing political
uncertainty.
Conclusions :
I. Inability of politicians to ensure stability is prominent.
II. Stability is entirely the responsibility of political class but as with most of the things political instability to
has an economic dimension.
Q.2. Statement : Diabetes is not an infection or a disease but a condition, like pregnancy. A relative or absolute deficiency
of insulin causes a pile-up of unused sugar in the body.
Conclusions :
I. Diabetes patients should not take in sugar at all. II. Insulin injections may care for diabetic patients.
Q.3. Statement : Technology, especially information technology, is destroying millions of jobs. The hope is that it will
create more than it destroys.
Conclusions :
I. To come out of the unemployment problem the Indian Government should promote the spread of information
technology in this country.
II. Software professionals find a job in this country as well as abroad.
Q.4-8. In each question below is given some statements and conclusion. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows.
(1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Either I or II (4) Neither I nor II (5) Both follow
Q.4. Statement : The state of poverty in India continues to be grim with the numbers of both rural and urban poor
increased in the post-reform era of the 1990s.
Conclusions :
I. This corresponds to an almost constant incidence of rural poverty and a law decline in the incidence of urban poverty.
II. Preliminary evidence through 1997 shows increases in the numbers of both rural poor (from 224 m in the early
1990’s to 250 m in the mid 1990’s) and urban poor (from 72 to 73 million in the 1990’s post-reform experience.
Q.5. Statement : The Ministry of Non-conventional Energy Sources (MNES) has modified the guidelines for wind
power projects, by scrapping the need for a quality certification by foreign agencies.
Conclusions :
I. The modification will benefit the companies, both Indian and foreign, in the business of manufacturing wind
turbines in India.
II. The move will also help in reducing the foreign exchange outflow in this sector as the companies were paying
an annual certification fee for the foreign agencies.
Q.6. Statement : Brain drain from India to developed countries in OECD including the US and Europe is only 2.7
percent of the pool of highly educated people in India.
Conclusions :
I. These figures fail to take into account the sizeable flow of professionals from the Indian subcontinent to
Bahrein, Kuwait Oman, Qatar and UAE.
II. There has been a strict restriction on migration to OECD countries.
Q.7. Statement : An analysis of India’s development in the last 50 years reads like a guide that how to misuse all its
natural resources.

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Conclusions :
I. All our environmental problems stem from our population.
II. We have a wrong notion of development the loss made in environmental sectors are several times more than
our economic gain in the last 50 years.
Q.8. Statement : The Indo-Gangetic plain alone has the potential to feed practically all of Asia and as we have 300
days of sun in most parts of the country we have a potential to harness solar energy and be the leader in the future
where fossil fuel for energy may not be available option-An economist.
Conclusions :
I. India is the country which has a perennial potential for all good things.
II. India is potentially on the take off and poised to become an economic superpower.
Q.9-13. In each of the following questions, a statement is followed by two conclusions. You have to assume everything in the
statement to be true then decide which of the two given conclusions logically followed beyond a reasonable doubt.
GIVEN ANSWER -
(1) If only conclusion I follows. (2) If only conclusion II follows. (3) If both I and II follow.
(4) If either I or II follows. (5) If neither I nor II follows.
Q.9. Statement : After this amendment to the constitution, no child below the age of 14 years will be employed to work
in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.
Conclusions :
I. Before this amendment, children below 14 years were employed to work in a factory or a mine.
II. The employer now abides by this amendment to the constitution.
Q.10. Statement : The dissimilarities between the problems of rural and urban development stand out clearly when we
compare the attitude of the government towards these two fields.
Conclusions :
I. The government has more a favorable attitude towards rural development than urban development.
II. The government has more a favorable attitude towards urban development than rural development.
Q.11. Statement : A neuroticism is a non-stupid person who behaves stupidly.
Conclusions :
I. Neurotic and stupidity go hand in hand. II. Normal persons behave intelligently.
Q.12. Statement : Caster on the social side are a product of human organisation and not a mystery of divine appointment.
Conclusions :
I. Castes are man-made. II. Divinity has created many mysteries in the world.
Q.13. Statement : Constitutional morality is not a natural sentiment.
Conclusions :
I. Sentiments are an inmate. II. Constitutional morality is to be cultivated.
Q.14-18. In each of the following questions, a statement is followed by two conclusions. You have to assume everything
in the statement to be true then decide which of two given conclusions logically followed beyond a reasonable
doubt. Given answer -
(1) If only conclusion I follows. (2) If only conclusion II follows. (3) If both I and II follow.
(4) If either I or II follows. (5) If neither I nor II follows.
Q.14. Statement : About 50% of the animal by-products (hair, skin horns etc.) is edible protein. American Chemist has
developed a method of isolating 45% of these proteins. They used an enzyme developed in Japan to break down
Soya protein.
Conclusions :
I. Americans have not been able to develop enzymes.
II. Animal by-products proteins have the same composition as Soya protein.

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Q.15. Statement : Their houses are on the highway with heavy traffic and they are facing a problem of noise pollution.
Conclusions :
I. People should build their houses only in interior areas. II. Noise pollution is not good for health.
Q.16. Statement : It does not matter what type of food you eat. What matters is whether you can digest it.
Conclusions :
I. Any type of food is equally good as long as it can be digested.
II. The type of food one eats is immaterial.
Q.17. Statement : No one questioned the utility of the present procedure and suggested its replacement by another one for
speedy disposal.
Conclusions :
I. The procedure should be abolished. II. The procedure should be made for speedy disposal.
Q.18. Statement : Now you do not need an import license to own an electronic typewriter.
Conclusions :
I. Electronic typewriters are now made indigenously.
II. Electronic typewriters are now freely permitted for import.
Q.19. In the past, consumers would rarely walk into an ice cream store and order low-fat ice cream. But that isn’t the
case today. An increasing health consciousness combined with a much bigger selection of tasty low-fat foods in
all categories has made low-fat ice cream a very profitable item for ice cream store owners.
Which of the following statements best supports in the form of conclusion according to paragraph?
(1) low-fat ice cream produces more revenue than other low-fat foods.
(2) Ice cream store owners would be better off carrying low-fat ice cream.
(3) Ice cream store owners no longer think that low-fat ice cream is an unpopular item.
(4) low-fat ice cream is not popular than other kinds of ice cream.
(5) Consumers are fickle and it is impossible to please them.
Explanation
Q.1.(4) I does not follow because political uncertainty is a Q.10.(4) Either of the conclusion is possible.
temporary phenomenon and IInd also does not follow. Q.11.(1) It is mentioned in the statement that a neurotic is
Q.2.(5) Sugar in excess is harmful for Diabetes patients a person who behaves stupidly. So, I follows. The
so I follows and II also follows because deficiency behaviour of normal persons can not be deduced
of insulin increase the no. of such patients. from the statement. So, II does not follow.
Q.3.(4) I is exactly opposite to the statement so I does not Q.12.(1) I follows but II does not follow.
follow. The statement is not mentioning about job Q.13.(3) II follows because morality is not natural so it can
in abroad. be developed and I also follows.
Q.4.(4) Poverty is increasing in both areas so I does not Q.14.(5) Neither of the conclusions follows the statement
follow. The statement does not show any data, II as it does not infer anything about the composition
also does not follow. of soya protein, animal by- product proteins or
Q.5.(5) Both conclusions follow because both are the ability to developed enzymes.
positive results of the rule. Q.15.(2) I doesn’t follow because it is a course of action.
Q.6.(4) Both conclusions are not related to the statement. II follows because noise pollution is a problem.
Q.7.(2) All environmental problems are occurred by Q.16.(1) I can be extracted through the statement but not
population is not correct so I does not follow’ but II.
II follows because in the last 50 years our loss is Q.17.(2)
higher than growth as per the statement.
Q.18.(3) Both are the possibilities to get import licence free
Q.8.(2) typewriter.
Q.9.(3) That’s why this amendment has been passed and Q.19.(1)
It will be bound upon the employer.

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