fIITJEE
HYDERABAD – SENIOR
PART TEST- 3
Revision| JEE ADV-2011-P2 Date: 08-06-20
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 240
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
3. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Marking Scheme:
7. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics,Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part
consists of four sections.
14. In Section I (Total Marks: 24), for each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you
darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble
is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
15. In Section II (Total Marks: 16), for each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you
darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY and zero marks
otherwise. There are no negative marks in this section.
16. In section III (Total marks: 24), for each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you
darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks otherwise.
There are no negative marks in this section.
17. In section IV ( Total marks : 16), for each question you will be awarded 2 marks for each
row in which you have darkened ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s)
ONLY and zero marks otherwise. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum
of 8 marks. There are no negative marks in this section.
Useful data
R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 or 8.206 ´ 10–2L atm K–1 mol–1; 1 F = 96500 C mol–1
h = 6.626 ´ 10–34 Js; 1 eV = 1.602 ´ 10–19 J
c = 3.0 ´ 108 ms–1; NA = 6.022 ´ 1023
Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.
If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.
NAME:
ENROLLMENT NO.:
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PART I: PHYSICS
SECTION – I (Total Marks : 24)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice question. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Water flows out of a big tank along a tube bent at right
angles; the inside radius of the tube is equal to r (see
figure). The length of the horizontal section of the tube is
equal to . The water flow rate is Q. What is the moment
of reaction forces of flowing water, acting on the tube’s
walls, relative to the point O.
2 Q2 Q2 Q2
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
r2 2 r 2 r2
2. A brass body of mass m is suspended from a spring balance and immersed in water. The spring
balance indicates reading F. What is the mass of copper contained in the brass if the densities of
copper and zinc are c and z and that of water is 0.
c z c 0 F c z z 0 F
(A) m (B) m
z c 0 z 0 g z c 0 z 0 g
c z z 0 F c z c 0 F
(C) m (D) m
z c c z 0 g z c c z 0 g
3. Statement-1: Imagine holding two identical bricks under water. Brick A is completely submerged
just below the surface of water, while brick B is at a greater depth. The magnitude of force exerted
by the person (on the brick) to hold brick B in place is the same as magnitude of force exerted by
the person (on the brick) to hold brick A in place.
Statement-2: The magnitude of buoyant force on a brick completely submerged in water is equal
to magnitude of weight of water it displaces and does not depend on depth of brick in water.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true,
4. A small uniform tube is bent into a circular tube of radius R and kept in the vertical plane. Equal
volumes of two liquids of densities and ( ) fill half of the tube as shown in the figure. is the
angle which the radius passing through the interface makes with the vertical.
1 1
(A) tan (B) tan
1
(C) tan (D) none of these
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5. A cuboid is filled with liquid of density 2 upto height h
and with liquid of density 1, also upto height h as
shown
(A) Force on face ABCD due to liquid of density 1 is 1gh
2
1gh2
(B) Force on face CDEF due to liquid of density 2 is
2
2 gh
(C) Force on face CDEF due to liquid of density 2 is 1gh h
2
(D) none of these
6. The side wall of a wide vertical cylindrical vessel of height h = 75 cm has a narrow vertical slit
running all the way down to the bottom of the vessel. The length of the slit is = 50 cm and the
width b = 1.0 mm. With the slit closed, the vessel is filled with water. What is the resultant force of
reaction of the water flowing out of the vessel immediately after the slit is opened. (density of water
1000 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 1 N (B) 3 N (C) 5 N (D) 7N
7. A steel ball of diameter d and density starts sinking with zero initial velocity in olive oil whose
viscosity is . How soon after the beginning of motion will the velocity of the ball differ from the
steady-state velocity by n?
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
8. The cubical container ABCDEFGH which is completely filled with an ideal (nonviscous and
incompressible) fluid, moves in a gravity free space with a acceleration of
Where a0 is a positive constant. Then the only point in the container shown in the figure where
pressure is maximum, is
(A) B (B) C (C) E (D) F
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SECTION – II (Total Marks : 16)
(Multiple Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice question. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE may be correct.
9. Ideal fluid flows along a flat tube of constant cross-section,
located in a horizontal plane and bent as shown in figure(top
view). The flow is steady. Choose the correct statement.
(A) pressure at point 2 < pressure at point 1
(B) velocity of fluid at 1 < velocity of fluid at 2
(C) the density of streamlines grows on transition from point 1 to point 2.
(D) all of the above
10. A vertical capillary with inside diameter 0.50 mm is submerged into water so that the length of its
part protruding over the water surface is equal to h = 25 mm. Find the curvature radius of the
meniscus. (Angle of contact = 0o, Surface tension = 73 x 10 –3 N/m, density of water = 10 3 km/m3, g
= 9.8 m/s2)
(A) meniscus will be formed at the top of the capillary
(B) water will come out of the capillary
(C) radius of curvature of the meniscus 0.6 mm
(D) none of these
11. A drop of water is placed between two well cleaned glass plates (angle of contact is 0 o), the
distance between which is d. If the circular area of contact of the liquid with the plate is A and
atmospheric pressure is p0, then which of the following options are correct?
T
(A) pressure inside the drop is p0
R
TA
(B) force experienced by each plate is
d
2TA
(C) force experienced by each plate is
d
(D) none of these
12. A closed box with horizontal base 6m by 6m and a height 2m is half filled with liquid. It is given a
constant horizontal acceleration g/2 and vertical downward acceleration g/2.
(A) The angle of the free surface with the horizontal is equal to45o
(B) Length of exposed portion of top of box is equal to 4m
(C) Water pressure at the bottom of centre of box is equal to (atmospheric pressure = 105 N/m2,
density of water = 1000 kg/m3, g = 10 m/sec2) 0.11 MPa
(D) Maximum value of water pressure in the box is equal to 0.12 MPa
SECTION – III (Total Marks : 24)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to the each of questions is single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS.
13. Work that should be done in order to squeeze all water from a horizontally located cylinder during
V3
the time t by means of a constant force acting on the piston is .
s2 t 2
The volume of water in the cylinder is equal to V,
the cross-sectional area of the orifice to s, with s
being considerably less than the piston area. The
friction and viscosity are negligibly small. Find
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14. A vessel filled with air under pressure p0 contains a soap bubble of diameter d. The air pressure
having been reduced isothermally n-fold, the bubble diameter increased -fold. The surface
p0 d(1 3 / n)
tension of the soap water solution is . Find α.
(2 1)
15. A vessel contains oil (density = 0.8 gm/cm3) over mercury (density = 13.6 gm/cm3). A uniform
sphere floats with half its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in oil. The density of the
36
material of sphere in gm/cm3 is , Find .
16. An open tank 10m long and 2m deep is filled up to 1.5 m height with oil of specific gravity 0.82.
The tank is uniformly accelerated along its length from rest to a speed of 20 m/sec horizontally.
The shortest time in which the speed may be attained without spilling any oil is (5 sec) , find . [g
= 10 m/sec2]
17. A narrow tube completely filled with a liquid is lying on a
series of cylinders as shown in figure. Assuming no
sliding between any surfaces, the value of acceleration of
the cylinders for which liquid will not come out of the tube
from anywhere is given by , find .
18. A non uniform cylinder of mass m, length and radius r is having its centre of mass at a distance
from the centre and lying on the axis of the cylinder. The cylinder is kept
4
in a liquid of uniform density . The moment of
inertia of the rod about the centre of mass is I. The
angular acceleration of point A relative to point B
just after the rod is released from the position
shown in figure is , find .
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SECTION – IV (Total Marks : 16)
(Matrix-Match Type)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has 4 statements (A, B, C and D) given in column-I
and Five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in column-II. Any given statement in column-I can have correct
matching with one or more statement(s) is given in column-II. For example, if for given question
statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for the particular question, against
statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
19. Vertical arms of a special U-tube are connected by a thin transparent rubber tube having a piston
inside. The tube contains three immiscible liquids A, B and C of densities A, B and C(C > A >
B). Initially when the piston is held in the middle,
lengths of columns of liquid C in both the arms are
equal, length of column of liquid A in the left arm
is h, the connecting tube meets liquid A in the
middle and in the right arm is liquid B. If after
release, the piston stops before reaching an end
of the connecting tube, find by what amounts will
the liquid levels in both the arms change?
Column – I Column – II
(A) rise of liquid A in left arm (p) ( A B )h
2(2C A B )
(B) fall of liquid C in left arm (q) ( A B )h
2(2C A B )
(C) fall of liquid B in right arm (r) ( A B )h
(2C A B )
(D) rise of liquid C in right arm (s) (A B )h
2(A B )
(t) None
20. A cubical box is completely filled with mass m of a liquid
and is given horizontal acceleration a as shown. Match
the force due to fluid pressure on the faces of the cube
with their appropriate values (assume zero pressure as
minimum pressure)
Column – I Column – II
(A) Force on face ABFE (p) ma
2
(B) Force on face BFHD (q) mg
2
(C) Force on face ACGE (r) ma mg
+
2 2
(D) Force on face CGHD (s) ma
mg
2
(t) mg
ma
2
PART II: CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I :: Single Correct Choice Type (8)
This Section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct
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21. An amount of 1 mole each of A and D is introduced in 1 L container. Simultaneously the
following two equilibria are established. A B + C: KC = 106 M and B + D A: KC =
10−6 M−1 The equilibrium concentration of A will be
(A) 10−6 M (B) 10−3 M (C) 10−12 M (D) 10−4 M
22. A metal cation gives black precipitate with H 2S which dissolves in hot conc. HNO 3 to give
white ppt. When cation reacts with KI it gives intensely brown solution on further treating
with thiosulphate becomes colourless and white ppt. becomes visible. Metal ion also
reacts with KCN to form a soluble complex Z. Oxidation state of metal and charge present
on the complex ion are respectively
(A) +1 & –2 (B) +2 & –2 (C) +1 & –3 (D) +2 & –4
23. Reagent A is H2S (g) dissolved in a buffer solution with pH = 3 and reagent B is H 2S (g)
dissolved in a buffer solution with pH = 8. Pick up the incorrect statement
(A) Reagent A gives a black ppt. with aq. CuSO4
(B) Reagent A gives an yellow ppt with aq CdCI2
(C) Reagent B gives a black ppt. with aq. ZnSO 4
(D) Reagent B gives a black ppt. with aq. NiSO4
The minimum pH at which 1.0 10 3 mole of Al OH 3 go into solution in (1lit) as Al OH 4
24.
. K sp Al OH 3 5 10 M K diss Al OH 4 1.3 10 34 m4 .
33 4
(A) 4.6 (B) 9.4 (C) 6.4 (D) 8.4
25. When AgNO3 (aq) reacts with excess of iodine we get
(A) AgIO3 (B) HIO3 (C) AgO (D) HI
26. In which of the following group of ions, all the ions exhibit paramagnetic nature?
(A) Cu ,Zn2 , Sc 3 (B) Mn2 , Fe 2 ,Ni2
(C) Cr 2 , Mn3 , Sc 3 (D) Cu2 ,Ni2 ,Ti4
27. Which one of the following nitrates will leave behind a metal on strong heating?
(A) Copper nitrate (B) Cobalt nitrate (C) Silver nitrate (D) Lead nitrate
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28. For the reaction H2 g I2 g 2HI g .
The equilibrium constant kp changes with
(A) Total pressure (B) Catalyst
(C) The amounts of H2 & I2 present (D) Temperature
SECTION-II :: Multiple Correct Choice Type (4)
This Section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s). Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
29. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of atomization as they have stronger interatomic
interaction.
(B) IE2 of 23 V 24Cr 25Mn and Ni 29Cu 30 Zn
28
(C) Mn compounds are more stable than Fe2+ towards oxidation to their +3 state.
2+
(D) The elements which gives the greater number of oxidation states does not occur in or near the
middle of the series.
30. Identify the correct statements among the following?
(A) In qualitative analysis Fe+2 is always identified by converting it into Fe+3 ion.
(B) Due to more solubility of PbCl 2 , Pb+2 ions are precipitated in I Group as well as II group in
qualitative analysis.
(C) To precipitate Al+3 ions in III group in place of ammonium hydroxide we can also use NaOH.
(D) Both sulphates and phosphates give positive test with BaCl 2 solution, so phosphate must be
tested before testing for sulphate.
31. The correct statements among the following is/are?
(A) Solution of nitrite can be decomposed by sulphamic acid
(B) Green precipitate of Cr(OH)3 is soluble in Na2O2
(C) Nitrate ions are identified by Brown ring test and it is not trustworthy in presence of
chromates, Iodate, sulphites, ferrocyanide ions etc.
(D) Nesslers reagent is used to detect NH4+ ion or ammonia gas
32. CuSO4 .5H2O s CuSO 4 s 5H2O g :K p 10 10 atm 10 2 moles of CuSO4 .5H2O s is taken
1
in a 2.5L container at 27°C then at equilibrium (Take R L.atm mol1 k 1 )
12
(A) Moles of CuSO4 .5H2O left in container is 9 103
(B) Moles of CuSO4 .5H2O left in container is 9.8 10 3
(C) Moles of CuSO4 left in the container is 103
(D) Moles of CuSO4 left in the container is 2 10 4
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SECTION-III :: Integer Answer Type (6)
This Section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer ranging from 0
to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
33. When one mole of A(g) is introduced in a closed vessel of one litre capacity maintained at
constant temperature, the following equilibrium is established.
A g B g C g ;K C1
C g
D g B g ; K c
2
C
The total pressure at equilibrium is twice the initial pressure. Find K c1 / K C2 if A 1
eq 2
eq
34. How many of the following statements are correct for green vitriol?
(i) It can be used for the preparation of Mohr’s salt.
(ii) It is a hydrated salt and its anhydrous form is white in colour.
(iii) The decomposition reaction of its anhydrous form is redox in nature.
(iv) It is used for making Fenton’s reagent used as a catalyst in organic chemistry.
(v) It can be used for the preparation of Potassium ferrocyanide.
(vi) It has same number of molecules of water of crystallization as white vitriol or blue vitriol.
(vii) It turns brownish-yellow on exposure to atmosphere.
(viii) Its aqueous solution is acidic in nature due to hydrolysis.
(ix) Out of the decomposition products of its anhydrous form only one can turn acidified K 2Cr2O7
solution green.
35. In how many of the following reactions coloured precipitate is obtained.
(i) CuSO 4 NaOH excess
(ii) ZnSO 4 NaOH excess
(iii) FeSO4 NaOH excess
(iv) CuSO4 KI excess
(v) NiC2 NH3 excess
(vi) Bi NO3 3 KI excess
(vii) FeC3 NaOH excess
(viii) ZnSO4 NH3 excess
1
36. Slope of the like drawn between in KC and for a given reaction is –1. Then heat of the
T
reaction in calories is:
37. The dissociation constant of a substituted benzoic acid at 25°C is 1 104 . The pH of a
0.01M solution of its sodium salt is
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38. The maximum concentration (in M) of equimolar solutions of ferrous sulphate and sodium
sulphide so that when mixed in equal volumes, there is no precipitation of ferrous sulphide
K sp
6.025 10 18 is x 109. The value of ‘x’ is
SECTION-IV :: Matrix Type (2)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and
five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching
with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B
matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B,
darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
39. For a tribasic acid, H3A, Ka1 = 10−4, Ka2 = 10−8 and Ka3 = 10−12. Match the pH ( Column II) of
the resulting solution (Column I) at 25oC.
Column – I Column – II
(A) Equimolar mixture of H3A and NaOH (p) 12
(B) Equimolar mixture of NaH2A and NaOH (q) 8
(C) Equimolar mixture of Na2HA and Na3A (r) 6
(D) Equimolar mixture of H3A and Na3A (s) 10
40. Match the following:
Column – I Column – II
CuSO4 Chocolate Brown precipitate with K 4 Fe CN 6
NaBr Colourless gas evolved with dil H2SO4
KNO2 Gives yellow turbidity with dilHCl
CaS2O3 Gives brown fumes with conc. H2SO4
Gives white ppt. with BaCl2 solution
PART III: MATHEMATICS
SECTION – I (Total Marks: 24)
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
41. Let a 2 i 3 j and b be any vector in xy-plane perpendicular to a . If a vector c in the
5 3
same plane have lengths of projections along a and b equals to and , then c
13 13
2 3 9 19 19 9 19 8
(A) i j (B) i j (C) i j (D) i j
13 13 13 13 13 13 13 13
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sin2 0 0 cos2 0 0
42. If A 0 sin2 0 and B 0 cos 2 0 where , , R and
0 0 sin2 0 0 cos2
C A 5 B5 5A B A 3 B3 10 A 2B 2 A B thenC
(D) 2 A B
2
(A) I (B) 5I (C) 32I
(where I is identity matrix of order 3)
43. If a,b,c,d,e, f are position vectors of 6 points A,B,C,D,E & F respectively such that
3a 4b 6c d 4e 3 f x, then
(A) AB is parallel to CD (B) line AB, CD and EF concurrent
(C) EB is perpendicular to AF (D) 7x is position vector of the point dividing CD
in 1:6
44. Vectors a,b and c with magnitude 2,3 & 4 respectively are coplanar. A unit vector d is
ˆi ˆj kˆ
perpendicular to all of them. If a b c d and the angle between a and b
6 3 3
ˆ ˆ ˆ
is 30 , then | c.i | | c.j | | c.k | is equal to
o
5 5 5 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 9 12 18
45.
If the shortest distance between the line r ˆi 2ˆj 3kˆ 1 2iˆ 3ˆj 4kˆ and
r 2iˆ 4ˆj 5kˆ 2 3iˆ 4 ˆj 5kˆ is x, then cos1 cos 6x is equal to
1
(A) (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2
2
a b 1 c a c b ab c a c b c 2
If b c 1 2010 and a b a c bc a b a c a P then sum of all digits in
2
46.
c a 1 b c b a ca b c b a b2
the number P is
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (d) 5
1 2 5
47. Let M and N be any two 3 x 3 matrices with integer entries satisfying MN =2 0 2 0
0 0 1
then the maximum value of det M + det N is
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 64
n n
k n
Ck .k 2 n n
48. If det n
k 0 k 0
0 holds for some n N. Then Ck equals
n n
k 0 k 1
k n
C .k Ck 3k
k 0 k 0
141 31 21 11
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 5 15
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SECTION–II (Total Marks: 16)
Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE may be correct.
49. Let A,B,C be square matrices of same order and I the unit matrix of the same order such
that
A + B + C = AB + BC + CA . Consider the following three statements.
(i) ABC = AC – CA
(ii) BCA = BA – AB
(iii) CAB =CB – BC
Then
(A) (i) and (ii) equivalent (B) (ii) and (iii) are equivalent
(C) (iii) and (i) are equivalent (D) None of the above
50. Consider a pyramid OPQRS located in the first octant x 0, y 0, z 0 with O origin and
OP and OR along the x-axis and y-axis respectively. The base OPQR of the pyramid is
square with OP = 2. The point S is directly above the mid-point T of diagonal OQ such
that TS = 2, then ;
1 1
(A) The acute angle between RS and PQ is cos
6
(B) The equation of the plane containing O,R,S is 2x – z = 0
4
(C) The length of perpendicular from P on the plane containing O,R,S is
5
(D) The perpendicular distance from O to the straight line containing PQ is 4.
a b c
51. A = b c a and trace A = 9 and a,b,c N such that ab+bc+ca = 26. Let A1 denotes
c a b
adjA and A2 denotes adj A1 ….. and so on …. and if det(A4) = K then
(A) K = 348 (B) K is divisible by 324
(C) Last two digits of K are 6 and 1 (D) Sum of last three digits of K is 15
52. Let first and second row vectors of matrix A be r1 11 3 and r 2 = [ 2 1 1] let the third row
vector r 3 be in the plane of r 1 and r 2 perpendicular to r 2 with magnitude 5 , then which of the
following can be true ?
(A) Trace (A) = 3 (B) Volume of parallelepiped formed by r 2 ,r 3 and r 2 r3 =30
(C) Row vectors are linearly dependent
(D) r1 r 2 r 2 r 3 r 3 r1 0
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FIITJEE - REVISION HYD-SENIOR PART TEST- 3 | ADVANCED 2011-P2 | DATE : 08-06-2020 | PCM-13
SECTION – III (Total Marks: 24)
Integer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single–digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS.
U2n1 0
53. Let A n be square matrix of order 2 given as A n = , n N where
0 U2n
n
trace A k =
/2
Un cosn x cosnx dx, then nlim
0
k 1
( [ ] denotes greatest integer function)
1 x 1 1
1 1 1
54. If x,y,z are non-zero real numbers and 1 y 1 2y 1 =0 then is equal
x y z
1 z 1 z 1 3z
to …
55. If , , are different from 1 and the roots of ax bx cx d 0
3 2
a 0 ,
1 1 1
15 pd
and if equals then [|p|]
2 abc d
2 2 2
Equals ( [.] is GIF)
5 8 7 x
4 and B = y
56. Let A = 3 5 . If AB is a scalar multiple of B, then the value of
2 3 3 1
x +y+5 is …
57. Let A1,A 2,A 3 ,A 4 be the areas of the triangular faces of a tetrahedron, and h1,h2 ,h3 ,h4 be
1
the corresponding altitudes of the tetrahedron. If volume of tetrahedron is cubic units,
6
then the minimum value of A1 A 2 A 3 A 4 h1 h2 h3 h4 (in cubic units) is
58. The distance of the point (-1, -5, -10) from the point of intersection of the line
x 2 y 1 z 2
and plane x – y+z = 5 is k then k – 4 =
3 4 12
FIITJEE Limited. (Hyderabad Centres): SAIFABAD KUKATPALLY DILSUKHNAGAR NARAYANAGUDA MADHAPUR
FIITJEE - REVISION HYD-SENIOR PART TEST- 3 | ADVANCED 2011-P2 | DATE : 08-06-2020 | PCM-14
SECTION – IV (Total Marks: 16)
Matrix–Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given Column I and five
statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or
more statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches will the statements
given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r
in the ORS.
59. Let be the plane parallel to y-axis and containing the points (1, 0, 1) and (3, 2, -1). Also
A (4, 0,0) and B (6, 0, -2) are two points and P (x0, y0, z0) is a variable point on the
plane = 0
Column – I Column – II
If the equation of the plane =0 is x + ay + bz =c, then |a+b+c| is 16
If (PA + PB) is minimum, then |4x0 + y0 + 2z0| is 12
Maximum of |PA – PB| = 3
If the reflection of the line AB in the plane 8
x2 y z
0 is
1
0
1
, then 4 4 is
17
60. Match the statements given in Column I with the intervals/union of intervals given in
Column II
Column – I Column – II
In R , Let 3i + j , i + 3j and i 1 j be position vectors of
2 4
X,Y,Z with respect to the origin O, respectively. If the distance of Z
3
from the bisector of acute angle of OX and OY is , sum of
2
possible value of | | is
If a,b,c are non coplanar vectors such that b c a , a b c, 2
c a b , value of | a | | b | | c | is
Let A and B are two non singular matrices of order 3 such that A+B=I, 1
A 1 B 1 2I , then |adj (2AB)| + 1, is
A,B are non zero square matrices such that 3
A2006 = O & AB = A + B then 2 + det B =
0
FIITJEE Limited. (Hyderabad Centres): SAIFABAD KUKATPALLY DILSUKHNAGAR NARAYANAGUDA MADHAPUR