1.

__________ are tiny portions or is a hill-like structure found on the epidermis of friction skin containing sweat, with pores appearing as
black lines in a fingerprint impression.

a. Imaginary Lines
b. Furrows
c. Black Lines
d. Ridges
2. What is that downward slope of the ridges above the core formed from the direction of the thumb towards the little finger?
a. Accidental Whorl
b. Central Pocket loop whorl
c. Ulnar loop
3. He published nine (9) fingerprint patterns but he made no mention of the value of fingerprints for personal identification.
a. John Evangelist Purkinje
b. Francis Galton
4. What is that two innermost ridges running parallel with each other and diverging at a certain point surrounding the pattern area?
a. Pattern Area
b. Divergence
c. Convergence
d. Type lines
5. What are those that are sometimes referred to as papillary or epidermal ridges?
a. Latent ridges
b. Friction Ridges
6. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains no ending ridge or rod rising as high as the shoulder of the loop, the Core is placed on
the shoulder of the loop farther from the Delta.
a. True
b. False
7. The inner layer of the skin is known as
a. Dermis
b. Epidermis
8. What is that portion of the fingerprint bounded by the type lines where the characteristics needed for interpretation/classification is
found?
a. Double Lines
b. Loops
c. Ridges
d. Pattern Area
9. He discovered the three families of fingerprint patterns.
a. Govard Bidloo
b. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
c. J.C.A. Mayer
d. Francis Galton
10. A single ridge which divide into two or more ridges.
a. Type lines
b. Bifurcation
c. Core
d. Pattern Area
11. It appears after the sub-secondary classification at the extreme right portion of the classification formula.
a. Secondary Classification
b. Key Classification
c. Primary Classification
d. Final Classification
12. Complete this adage, “The neighboring fingers of the same person have never been found to be________________.”
a. Similar in all respects
b. Different in some respects
c. Different in every respects
d. Exactly identical in all respects
13. Which of the following is a type of secondary classification?
a. By slant line to the left
b. All of these
c. By slant line to the right
d. By small letter
14. What type of classification takes into consideration only the loop type starting from the right thumb (the first loop appearing in the set
of prints on a fingerprint card)?
a. Secondary Classification
b. Primary Classification
c. Final Classification
d. Key Classification
15. What is that epidermal hairless skin found on the lower surface of the hands and feet covered with minute ridges?
a. Polydactyl skin
b. Friction Skin
c. Epidermis
d. Flexure line
16. What do you call the inner terminus or focal point located at the center or the approximate center of the pattern area?
a. Center
b. Delta
c. Core
d. Open Delta
17. He used his own thumb print on a document to prevent forgery. This is the first known use of fingerprints in the United States.
a. Bertillon
b. Francis Galton
c. Thompson
18. It is the ridge count of the loop and the whorl in the little finger of both hands.
a. Secondary Classification
b. Key Classification
c. Primary Classification
d. Final Classification
19. What fingerprint pattern does not have ridge count?
a. Whorls
b. Arches
c. Radial loop
d. Ulnar Loop
20. Two ridges running parallel or nearly parallel to each other which separate in an opposite direction.
a. Delta
b. Core
c. Divergence
21. Which of the following is also called “delta” in fingerprint identification?
a. Lower ridge
b. Inner terminus
c. Outer terminus
22. He published a 41-pages book entitled “The Origin of Fingerprint” which describes his research starting in 1858 when he practiced
actual recording of the finger and palm prints of India.
a. Govard Bidloo
b. Sir William Herschel
c. J.C.A. Mayer
23. What patterns do not have numerical value for purposes of primary classification?
a. Plain whorl loops
b. Accidental Whorl and arches
c. Double loop whorl and arches
d. Loops and Arches
24. What classification takes into consideration the thumbs of both hands (ridge tracing for whorl type and ridge counting for loop type)?
a. Key classification
b. Final classification
c. Major Classification
d. Sub-Secondary Classification
25. What is the spreading apart of two lines which have been running parallel or nearly parallel?
a. Bifurcation
b. Convergence
c. Appendage
d. Divergence
26. What type of pattern possesses am angle, an up thrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of the loop?
a. Tented arch
b. Double Loop
c. Plain Arch
27. He discovered the outer and inner layer of the skin.
a. Govard Bidloo
b. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
c. J.C.A. Mayer
28. What corresponds to the study of the palms of the hands?
a. Plantar
b. Palmar
c. Furrows
d. Chiroscopic
29. What are the canals of depression found between ridges called?
a. Dents
b. Pores
c. Furrows
30. What is the act of counting the ridges which intervene between the core and delta of a loop?
a. Divergence
b. Ridge Tracking
c. Ridge Counting
31. He is an argentine Police Official who began the first fingerprint files based on Galton pattern types.
a. Mark Twain
b. Juan Vucetich
c. Thomson
32. What pattern type has ridges that enter on one side of the pattern and flow towards the other side with a rise in the center?
a. Vaulted arch loop
b. Loop
c. Tented Arch
d. Plain Arch
33. The Introduction of the coloring pigment in the human skin as a form of identification is known as-
a. Scarcification
b. Anthropometry
c. Tattoo
d. Photography
34. The configuration and details of individual ridges remain constant and unchanging. This is the principle of ___________.
a. Principle of Individuality
b. Principle of Permanency
c. Principle of Infallibility
35. He published an article entitled” On the Skin Furrows of the Hand”. In this article he points out his observation that chance prints left at
the scene of the crime would provide for positive identification of offenders when apprehended.
a. Govard Bidloo
b. Henry Faulds
c. J.C.A. Mayer
36. It represents all fingerprint patterns that appear in the Index finger of both hands. It must be written in capital letter.
a. Second Secondary Classification
b. First Secondary Classification
c. Second Sub-Secondary Classification
d. Third Secondary Classification
37. How many ridge counts must a pattern have, to be a loop?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 1
38. The outer Layer of the skin is known as
a. Dermis
b. Pores
c. Scarf
d. Epidermis
39. He published a book which was an atlas of anatomical illustrations of fingerprint.
a. Malphighi
b. Francis Galton
c. J.C.A. Mayer
40. He is credited as the first scientist of Friction Skin Identification as well as his role in promoting its use.
a. Govard Bidloo
b. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
c. J.C.A. Mayer
d. Francis Galton
41. What is the scientific name of fingerprint identification?
a. Dactyloscopy
b. Flouroscopy
c. Poroscopy
42. The core and delta are also termed as
a. Focal Points
b. Inner Terminus
c. Pattern Area
43. What is the Latin word for finger?
a. Dermis
b. Dermal
c. Digitus
d. Dactyl
44. A system of identification based on the measurements of the various bony structure of the human body.
a. Tattoo
b. Portrait Parle
c. Anthropometry
d. Photography
45. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there?
a. 12
b. 9
c. 8
46. He is the father of fingerprint science.
a. Vucetich
b. John Evangelist Purkenji
c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
d. Hans Gross
47. What are the little openings on the skin from where sweat is excreted?
a. Ridges
b. Whorl
c. Pores
d. Loop
48. What ridge divides itself into two or more branches that meet to form the original figure?
a. Island Ridge
b. Lake Ridge
c. Eyelet
d. All of the foregoing
49. What is an attempt at character reading through the patterns of fingerprints?
a. Dactylography
b. Dcatyloscopy
c. Dactylomancy
d. Dactylo-analysis
50. He undertook in 1856 an experiment by printing his right palm to prove himself if the ridges change. By 1897, forty one years later, he
again printed
his right palm. Though taken two scores apart, it proved that the ridge characteristics do not change.
a. John Evangelist Purkinje
b. Herman Welcker
c. William Herscel
d. Francis Galton
51. The inner terminus of the finger print pattern.
a. Delta
b. Core
c. Ridges
d. Pores
52. The Secondary Classification of the Thumb, Middle, Ring and Little fingers must be written in small letters.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False
53. There are three (3) principles of Fingerprint science. Which among the following is not included?
a. Principle of Individuality
b. Principle of Permanency
c. Principle of Infallibility
d. Principle of Uniqueness
54. He is a notorious gangster and a police character who attempted to erase his fingerprint by burning it with acid.
a. Locard
b. William West
c. Will West
d. John Dillinger
55. What objects appear as tiny black lines with tiny white dots (called pores) in an inked finger impression?
a. Pores
b. Sweat
c. Furrows
d. Ridges
56. What do you call the separating or spreading apart of two ridges that were previously running side by side?
a. Disjunction
b. Divergence
c. Convergence
d. Looping
57. What kind of pattern has two deltas in which at least one ridge makes a turn through one complete circuit?
a. Loop
b. Accidental Whorl
c. Arch
d. Plain whorl
58. What is the scientific examination of the prints of the soles of the feet?
a. Podoscopy
b. Horoscopy
c. Chiroscopy
d. Flouroscopy
59. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains an uneven number of rods rising as high as the shoulders of the loop, the core is placed
upon the end of the center rod whether it touches the looping ridge or not.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
60. Fingerprint pattern are ______, as all fingerprint experts agree.
a. Always inherited
b. Sometimes inherited
c. Inherited as mendelian characteristics
d. Never Inherited
61. It is done by cutting on various parts of the body and leaving scars to form elaborate designs.
a. Tattoo
b. Scarcification
c. Personal Description
d. Anthropometry
62. A system of identification based on the measurements of the varioys bony structure of the human body.
a. Tattoo
b. Scarcification
c. Personal Description
d. Anthropometry
63. Fingerprints offer an _______ means of personal identification
a. Infallible
b. Reliable
c. Dependable
d. All of these
64. No two fingerprints have ever been found alike in many billion of human and automated computer comparisons.
a. The statement is true
b. The statement is false
65. The first forensic professional organization is
a. DNA
b. IAI
c. FBI
66. When there are two or more possible Delta which conform to the definition, the one nearest to the core is chosen.
a. True
b. False
67. The Delta is placed upon or within the innermost sufficient recurve.
a. True
b. False
68. Other visible human characteristics change-fingerprint do no.
a. True
b. False
69. He devised the anthropometric system of identification.
a. Alphonse Bertlillon
b. Alphense Bertillion
c. Will West
70. In his “Philosophical Transaction”, he presented his observation on the appearance of the ridges on the fingers and palms.
a. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
b. Govard Bidloo
c. Sir Francis Galton
d. Dr. Nehemiah Grew
71. Govard Biloo presented the appearance and arrangement of the ridges on a thumb in his thesis entitled-
a. De externo Tactus Organo
b. Philosophical Transaction
c. Anatomia Humanis Corporis
72. He described the ridges found on the palmar surface of the hand and the pores which served as the mouth of the sweat glands.
a. J.C.A. Mayer
b. Herman Welcker
c. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
73. He is the father of Criminalistic.
a. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
b. Govard Bidloo
c. Sir Francis Galton
d. Hans Gross
74. It is the approximate center of a fingerprint pattern usually found in loops and whorls.
a. Delta
b. Core
c. Type line
75. When there is a choice between a bifurcation and another type of delta, the bifurcation is selected.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
76. It is the reproduction on some smooth surfaces of the pattern or design formed by ridges on the inside of the end joint of the fingers
and thumb.
a. Ridges
b. Pores
c. Fingerprint
77. This principle states that there are no two fingerprints which are exactly alike.
a. Principle of Individuality
b. Principle of Permanency
c. Principle of Infallibility
78. Damage to the dermis will not result to permanent ridge destruction.
a. True
b. False
79. There are ________ families of finger print pattern.
a. Two
b. Three
80. This are raised strips of the skin on the inside of the end joint of our fingers and thumbs by which fingerprints are made.
a. Papillary Ridges
b. Friction Ridges
c. Epidermal Ridges
d. All of these
81. The following are families of fingerprint pattern except-
a. Whorl
b. Loop
c. Arch
d. Accidental
82. Can fingerprint be erased?
a. Yes
b. No
83. The outer terminus in the pattern area.
a. Delta
b. Core
84. In loop the ridges are usually circular.
a. True
b. False
85. The science of palm print identification.
a. Dactyloscopy
b. Dactylography
c. Chiroscopy
86. The symbol for accidental whorl is
a. Z
b. X
87. It is that part of a loop or whorl in which the core and delta appear which we are concerned in the classification process.
a. Type lines
b. Pattern Area
88. There are five (5) types of pattern in the Whorl Family.
a. True
b. False
89. The upper ten impressions in the fingerprint card are taken individually.
These are referred to as the ___________.
a. Rolled impression
b. Plain Impression
90. These are the innermost ridges running parallel or nearly parallel to each other which diverge and surround or tend to surround the
pattern area.
a. Bifurcation
b. Type Lines
91. This is the impressions at the bottom of the card that are taken simultaneously without rolling, printing all of the fingers of each hand
at a forty-five degree angle and then the thumbs.
a. Rolled Impression
b. Slapped Impression
c. Flat Impression
d. B&C
92. In taking fingerprints, the technician must encourage the subject being fingerprinted to relax.
a. True
b. False
93. The symbol for radial loop is-
a. RL
b. R
94. The outer terminus of a fingerprint pattern usually found in loops and whorls.
a. Core
b. Delta
95. The delta must be located in from of the point of divergence of the two type lines which open towards the Delta.
a. True
b. False
96. In this pattern, the ridges enter from either side, re-curve and pass out or tend to pass out the same side they entered.
a. Loop
b. Whorl
97. In order to take advantage of the natural movement of the forearm, the hand should be rotated from the more difficult position to the
easiest position.
a. True
b. False
98. It is a type of fingerprint pattern which possesses either an angle or up thrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of the loop.
a. Plain Arch
b. Tented Arch
99. It is the Ridge counting of a Loop pattern that appears in the Index, Middle and Ring fingers of both hands.
a. Key Classification
b. Major Classification
c. Final Classification
d. Sub-Secondary Classification
100. It refers to a bone condition wherein the finger joints cannot be bent.
a. Ankylosis
b. Chiroscopy
c. Calcar
d. Webb Finger
101. What is written between the Final Classification and the Secondary Classification?
a. Key Classification
b. Major Classification
c. Sub-Secondary Classification
102. If the ridge counting of a loop in the Index finger is eleven (11), what must be the symbol for purposes of the Sub-Secondary
classification? a. I
b. M
c. O
103. It represents only about five (5) percent of the fingerprint patterns encountered.
a. Loop
b. Arches
c. Whorl
104. It is a biometric Identification Methodology that uses digital imaging technology to obtain, store, and analyze fingerprint data.
a. AFIS
b. Automated Fingerprint Identification System
c. Digital Imaging System
d. Both A & B
105. It refers to a single ending ridge in the center f a recurving ridge of a loop.
a. Appendage
b. Bar
c. Rod
d. Both B & C
106. It is a single ridge, which divides or forks into two ridges.
a. Converging Ridge
b. Bifurcating Ridge
c. Dissociated Ridge
107. It refers to the insertion on a fingerprint card the results of the interpretation of all ten patterns. Represented by letters, symbols or
numbers on the card required for each of the rolled prints.
a. Blocking Out
b. Ridge counting
c. Ridge tracing
108. The heart or the innermost center of a pattern.
a. Delta
b. Core
c. Pattern area
109. It refers to the appearance of extra fingers as anatomically known.
a. Poroscopy
b. Anyklosis
c. Polydactylism
110. It is the process of counting ridges that cross or touch an imaginary line drawn between the delta and core of a loop.
a. Ridge counting
b. Ridge tracing
c. Ridge Ending
d. None of these
111. It refers to the process of charting the ridge that originates from the lower side of the left delta toward the right delta to see where it
flows in relation to the right delta.
a. Ridge counting
b. Ridge Tracing
c. Ridge ending
112. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the ridges run its direction to the radius or to the thumb.
a. Radial Bone
b. Radial Loop
c. Ulnar Loop
113. For purposes of the Primary Classification, the Right Index and Left Middle are intended as Numerator.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
114. It constitutes approximately 65% of all fingerprint patterns.
a. Arch
b. Loop
115. The arch and loop patterns are not included in the Primary Classification.
a. True
b. False
116. It consists of one or more ridges which makes a complete circuit with two deltas.
a. Central Pocket Loop
b. Plain Whorl
117. It consists of two separate loop formations with two separate and distinct sets of shoulders, and two (2) deltas.
a. Central Pocket Loop Whorl
b. Accidental Whorl
c. Double Loop Whorl
118. It is a kind of fingerprint pattern consisting of two (2) different types of pattern with the exception of the plain arch.
a. Central Pocket Loop Whorl
b. Accidental Whorl
119. There are _____ types of impressions involved in taking fingerprints. a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
120. Plain impressions are printed last at the bottom of the card.
a. True
b. False
121. If the individual has a bandage or cast of a finger, thumb or hand, place the notation, “Cannot be Printed” or CP in the appropriate
finger block.
a. True
b. False
122. If an individual has more than ten fingers, the thumbs and the next four fingers and the extra finger should be printed.
a. True
b. False
123. There are four (4) steps in the Finger print Classification. Which among the following is not included?
a. Recording
b. Interpretation
c. Blocking
d. Pairing
124. The Classification formula is written horizontally on the fingerprint card. It is consists of six (6) classification.
a. True
b. False
125. It is the sum total of all numerical values of Whorls in a set of finger plus (+) a fraction of over 1.
a. Secondary Classification
b. Key Classification
c. Primary Classification
126. It is the process of writing the symbols of the corresponding patterns on the space provided in the fingerprint cards.
a. Pairing
b. Blocking
127. It is the process of assigning Numerical Values for Whorl patterns.
a. Pairing and Assigning of Numbers
b. Blocking of numbers
c. Tracing of numbers
d. Interpretation
128. The numerical value of the right thumb and right index for purposes of primary classification is-
a. 16
b. 8
129. The following patterns belong to the Non-Numerical Group except-
a. Tented Arch
b. Plain Arch
c. Plain Whorl
130. If the Ridge count of the Ring finger is 16, what is the symbol for purposes of the Sub-Secondary Classification?
a. I
b. O
c. M
131. Ridge tracing applies to__________ pattern.
a. Loop
b. Arch
c. Whorl
132. What is written between the Key Classification and the Primary Classification?
a. Secondary Classification
b. Key Classification
c. Major Classification
133. This classification is concerns with the THUMB of both hands. It is the Ridge of both thumbs.
a. Secondary Classification
b. Key Classification
c. Major Classification
134. It is the ridge count of the loop appearing on the set of prints on the fingerprint card.
a. Secondary Classification
b. Key Classification
c. Major Classification
135. It refers to a fingerprint pattern wherein the ridges flow from one side to the other without recurving and make a rise at the center.
a. Plain Arch
b. Tented Arch
c. Plain whorl
d. Plain Loop
136. It is the process of reduction in which exposed silver halides are reduced into metallic silver.
a. Development c. Reduction
b. Printing d. Crop
137. An intermediate bath between the developer and the fixer. It is usually a combination of water plus acetic acid or just plain water. It
function is to prevent the contamination of two chemicals.
a. Stop Bath c. Development
b. Fixation d. Reduction
138. It is the process of removing unexposed silver halide remaining in the emulsion after the first stage of development of the latent image.
a. Stop Bath c. Development
b. Fixation d. Reduction
139. It is a Reducer or developing agent
a. Elon c. Sodium Sulfite
b. Hydroquinone d. A or B
140. It is use as preservative in the Development process.
a. Sodium Sulfite c. Potassium Bromide
b. Hydroquinone d. Sodium Carbonate
141. It is use as accelerator in the chemical processes.
a. Sodium Carbonate c. Potassium bromide
b. Hydroquinone d. Sodium Bromide
142. It is a Dissolving agent in the fixer solution.
a. Hypo/Sodium thiasulphate c. Potassium Bromide
b. Hydroquinone d. Sodium Bromide
143. Which among the following chemical is use as neutralizer?
a. Boric Acid c. Potassium Alum
b. Acetic Acid d. A or B

144. Which of the following is use as Hardener in the fixing solution?

a. Potassium Alum
b. Boric Acid
c. Acetic Acid
d. Potassium Alum
145. It is a picture of small object taken through a microscope and generally has a magnification of more than 50 times.
a. Photomicrography c. Infra- Red Photography
b. Photomacrography d. Ultra-violet Photography
146. This is sensitive to ultraviolet and blue light only.
a. Panchromatic c. Infra-red
b. Orthochromatic d. X-ray
147. It is sensitive to all colors particularly red and red light.
a. Panchromatic c. Infra-red
b. Orthochromatic d. X-ray
148. It is placed between the emulsion and the plastic base of a film to prevent whatever light that passed through the emulsion and
reflected by the base back to the emulsion which forms a halo effect.
a. Base c. Anti-halation Backing
b. Emulsion d. Spectral Sensitivity
149. What is the equivalent of ASA 25 in DIN Rating?
a. DIN 18 c. DIN 30
b. DIN 15 d. DIN 33
150. It is given to negative or non-reversal film.
a. Color d. Bromide
b. Chrome
c. Chloride
151. It has a slow speed and it is suited for contact printing.
a. Chloride Paper c. Chloro-Bromide paper
b. Bromide Paper d. Exposure Latitude
152. It consists of crystals of light-sensitive compounds (silver nitrate) evenly distributed throughout plastic base material.
a. Base c. Emulsion
b. Anti-halation Backing d. Spectral Sensitivity
153. This refers to the size of the metallic silver grains that formed after development of an exposed film.
a. Spectral Sensitivity c. Emulsion Speed
b. Granularity d. Reversal Film
154. It refers to American Standards Association, expressed in arithmetical value system. The speed ratings numbers are directly
proportional to the sensitivity of the material.
a. DIN c. ASO
b. ASA d. ISO
155. A lens defect which is the inability to focus both horizontal and vertical plane at the same time lines running different directions.
a. Chromatic Aberration c. Coma
b. Astigmatism d. Curvature of Field
156. It has a fast speed and is recommended for projection printing and enlarging.
a. Chloride Paper c. Chloro-bromide Paper
b. Bromide Paper d. Exposure Latitude
157. It refers to the absence of all colors in the spectrum.
a. White c. Black
b. Rainbow d. Yellow
158. It refers to the inability to focus all the different colors of light on film at the same time.
a. Chromatic Aberration c. Coma
b. Astigmatism d. Curvature of field.
159. Also referred to as lateral spherical aberration, it is a lens defects in which the rays enters the lens obliquely.
a. Coma c. Astigmatism
b. Chromatic Aberration d. Curvature of Field
160. It is the remoteness or distance measured from the nearest to the farthest object in apparent sharp focus when the lens set of focus is
at a particular distance.
a. Focal Length c. Depth of Field
b. Angle of View d. Curvature of Field
161. A natural light in which the object casts a deep and uniform shadow.
a. Bright Sunlight c. Hazy Sunlight
b. Dull Sunlight d. Poor Sunlight
162. It refers to Deutche Industri Normen Rating, expressed in Logarithmic value system. In this system, an increase of three degrees
doubles the sensitivity of the film.
a. ASA Rating c. ISO Rating
b. DIN Rating d. ASO Rating
163. A form of natural light in which objects in open space casts no shadows.
a. Dull Sunlight c. Hazy Sunlight
b. Bright Sunlight d. Cloudy Sunlight
164. Consisting of light-sensitive silver salts in a gelatin medium and used to coat photographic films and papers.
a. Base c. Emulsion
b. Anti-Halation Backing d. Exposure
165. A light sensitive material that is placed inside a camera to store any image the camera focuses.
a. Film c. Aperture
b. Shutter d. None of these
166. A colored gelatin or medium which absorbs or transmits differentially light rays passing through it.
a. Lens c. Shutter
b. Filter d. Film
167. It refers to the process of removing unexposed silver halides remaining in the emulsion after the first image of development of the
latent image.
a. Fixation c. Stop Bath
b. Development d. Printing
168. It is known as “hypo” and its purpose are to harden the gelatin emulsion on the film, and to dissolve out all the unexposed and the
undeveloped silver halide in it.
a. Fixation c. Stop Bath
b. Fixing Bath d. Development
169. It is a distance measured from the optical center of the lens to the film plane when the lens set of focus is set at infinity position.
a. Focal Plane c. Focusing
b. Focal Length d. Depth of Field
170. It serves to support the emulsion layer of the film.
a. Base c. Anti-halation Backing
b. Emulsion d. Granularity
171. It refers to the sensitivity of the film to wavelength or color.
a. Speed c. Granularity
b. Spectral Sensitivity d. Graininess
172. It refers to silver halides which are light sensitive and impregnated in the emulsion exists as small crystals and upon development are
converted to pure silver granules.
a. Grain Size c. Film
b. Emulsion d. None of these
173. It refers to the Potassium Alum that solidifies the gelatin of the sensitized materials which was soften in the developing solution.
a. Developing agent c. Hardening Agent
b. Fixing Agent d. None of these
174. It refers to the sensitivity of the film to light.
a. Film Speed c. Film Graininess
b. Base d. Color Films
175. It contains minute grains of silver halide suspended in animal gelatin and coated on celluloid material.
a. Lens
b. Film
176. Lenses with larger apertures are also described as –
a. Faster
b. Slower
177. Lenses with smaller aperture requires a slower shutter speed and the depth of field is-
a. Wider
b. Narrower
178. It refers to the study of physical evidence through a laboratory work.
a. Criminology
b. Criminalistics
179. It is the study concerning the production of permanent records of images by the combined action of light on sensitive surfaces, a
mechanical device and the chemical process.
a. Dactyloscopy
b. Photography
e. Light
180. A visible form of energy that radiates in waves of different length. a. Light
b. Heat
181. A black box sealed against light with a piece of film in one end and a hole in the other end to let certain amount of light to get in and
strike the chemically sensitized material.
a. Film
b. Cartoon
c. Camera
182. A light sensitized material that records and image.
a. Lens
b. View Finder
c. Camera
d. Film
183. The process of converting the latent image into a visible and permanent image.
a. Chemical Process
b. Film
c. Collodion Process
d. Calotype Process
184. The birth year of photography.
a. 1829
b. 1839
185. He coined the word “Photography”.
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
b. Thomas Wedgewood
c. Sir John Herschel
186. A founder of Royal society who reported that silver chloride turned dark under exposure, but he appeared to believe that it was caused
by exposure to the air, rather than to light.
a. Robert Boyle
b. Isaac Newton
187. He discovered that white light is composed of different colors.
a. Robert Boyle
b. Isaac Newton
188. He achieved the first photographic image with camera obscura. However, the image required eight hours of light exposure and later
faded.
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
b. Thomas Wedgewood
189. He discovered a way of developing photographic plates, a process which greatly reduced the exposure time from eight hours down to
half an hour.
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
b. Thomas Wedgewood
c. Sir John Herschel
d. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre 190. The first photographic process.
a. Calotype Process
b. Daguerreotype Process
c. Collodion Process
d. Gelatin dry plate silver bromide process
191. The first negative-positive process making possible the first multiple copies.
a. Calotype Process
b. Daguerreotype Process
c. Collodion Process
d. Gelatin dry plate silver bromide process
192. This process reduced the exposure time from half and hour to two or three seconds of light exposure.
a. Calotype Process
b. Daguerreotype Process
c. Collodion Process
d. Gelatin dry plate silver bromide process
193. He invented the flexible, paper-based photographic film.
a. Hannibal Goodwin c. George Eastman
b. Kodak d. Daguerre
194. It is otherwise known as Instant Photos or One Step Photography.
a. Polaroid c. SLR
b. Camera Obscura d. Digital Camera
195. It is mounted over the opening at the front of the camera body. Its function is to produce an image on the film at the back of the
camera by gathering and focusing the rays of light from the object.
a. Camera
b. Shutter
c. Lens
196. The light-gathering power of the lens is indicated by-
a. F-number
b. Relative aperture
197. It holds the film in place at the back of the. It is designed to hold the film flat so that the image produced by the lens will be sharp over
the whole picture area. a. Focusing ring
b. Film Case
c. Film Holder
198. It helps the photographer see the precise area that will be photographed when he trips the shutter.
a. Focusing ring
b. Film Case
c. Film Holder
d. View Finder
199. These are essentially carved pieces of glass or other transparent materials used to refract rays of light so as to form an image of an
object on a photographic film. a. Aperture
b. Diaphragm
c. Magnifying lens
d. Photographic lens
200. The speed of the lens is expressed in terms of its-
a. Aperture
b. Diaphragm
201. The combination of blue and green light will produce what color?
a. Black
b. Cyan
c. Magenta
d. Yellow
202. In a stake out surveillance photography, where the photographer cannot get close to the subject, what kind of lens must be used?
a. Normal
b. Telephoto
203. How many parts does a camera generally have, with all other parts treated as accessories?
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Seven
204. The lens opening also known as the relative aperture is the indicator for light transmitting capability of the lens. Which lens opening will
admit more light to pass through its medium?
a. F16
b. F5.6
c. F4
d. F2.8
205. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens exposing the sensitized materials?
a. Range Finder d. View Finder
b. Shutter
c. Exposure
206. The light from the pinhole will form
a. A halo effect c. An inverted image
b. A photographic emulsion d. An emergent ray
207. What is the process of converting the exposed image on the film into the actual image?
a. Developing c. C. Fixing
b. Stop bath d. D. Washing
208. When light passes through an object, it is said to be
a. Transmitted c. C. Diffracted
b. Refracted d. D. Absorbed
209. He discovered that white light is composed of different colors.
a. Robert Boyle c. C.Angelo Sala
b. Isaac Newton d. D.Joseph Nicephore Niepce
210. He achieved the first photographic image with camera obscure-however, the image required eight hours of light exposure.
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre
211. The smallest and the simplest type of camera. It is known as Instamatic camera or Point and Shoot camera.
a. View finder camera
b. SLR
212. A type of camera with two objective lenses of the same focal length.
a. View Finder Camera
b. SLR
c. TLR
d. Press Type Camera
213. The chief attribute of this camera is its ability to deliver a complete processed print almost immediately after exposure.
a. View Finder Camera
b. SLR
c. Polaroid
d. Press Type of Camera
214. It is a wavelength emitted by the sun which cannot be seen, tough we can feel it in our bodies as warmth or heat.
a. Infra-red
b. Ultra-violet Light
c. Natural Light
d. Man-made light
215. It is another form of light that we cannot see, but we know about it because it tans our skin in summer.
a. Infra-red
b. Ultra-violet Light
c. Natural Light
d. Man-made light
216. The speed of light measured in a vacuum is approximately________?
a. 186, 281 miles/sec.
b. 299, 792.5 km/sec
c. 299, 795.2 km/sec
d. Both A and B
217. The complete range of electromagnetic radiation is called_____.
a. Electromagnetic Spectrum
b. Electromagnetic waves
218. The following are primary colors except-
a. Red
b. Green
c. Black
d. Blue
219. Colors made by combining the primary colors are called-
a. Sub-Primary Colors
b. Secondary Colors
c. Tertiary Colors
d. Elementary Colors
220. When light passes from one medium to another such as from air to water it is bent and this bending is called-
a. Refraction
b. Reflection
c. Absorption
d. Addition
221. It is the bouncing back of light upon hitting an object or material.
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Transmission
d. Absorption
222. The change of direction of light that passes through an object or material. a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Transmission
223. The maximum usable aperture of a lens is usually specified as the focal ration or f-number.
a. The statement is correct
b. The statement is partially true
c. The statement is false
d. The statement is doubtful
224. The lower the f-number, the more light per unit area is delivered in the focal plane.
a. True
b. Partially True
c. False
d. Partially false
225. The focal length determines the-
a. Depth of field
b. Angle of view
c. Color of the picture
226. Lenses with larger apertures are also described as being “faster”.
a. True c. Partially True
b. False d. Partially False
227. Lenses with larger maximum apertures provide significantly brighter viewfinder images.
a. True c. Partially True
b. False d. Partially False
228. The distance between the nearest object and the object farthest from the camera that both appear in focus.
a. Focal Length c. Lens Speed
b. Depth of Field d. Lens Hood
229. The first practical photographic process.
a. Calotype
b. Daguerreotype
230. Light sensitivity of the film is also known as-
a. Film Speed
b. Film Grains
231. He discovered the use of Hydroquinone as a developing agent.
a. John Carbutt
b. William Abney
232. In ________, the subjects will produced a strong shadow, because the source of light is not covered and the objects or subjects appear
glossy in open space due to direct sunlight and reflected lights coming from the sky which act as a reflector. a. Bright sunlight
b. Hazy Sunlight
233. In__________, the sun is covered by thin clouds and the shadow appears bluish because of the decrease of light falling on the subjects
in open space.
a. Bright sunlight
c. Cloudy Sunlight
234. It is a sheet of plastic (cellulose acetate) coated with emulsion containing lightsensitive silver halide salts with variable crystal size salt
that determine the sensitivity, contrast and resolution of the film.
a. Film
b. Camera
c. Lens
d. Shutter
235. In__________, the sun is totally covered by thick clouds. No shadows are cast due to the uniform illumination of lights around the
subjects in open space.
a. Bright sunlight c. Cloudy Sunlight
b. Hazy Sunlight d. Dull Sunlight
236. An examination wherein an informal interview of the subject is undertaken between 20 to 30 minutes.
a. Post-test Interrogation c. Actual Interrogation
b. Pre-test Interview d. Lie Detection Test
237. Which among the following is not a required qualification for a polygraph examiner?
a. Criminology Graduate c. Technical Know How
b. Honesty d. Integrity and Morals
238. Which among the forgoing is not a part in the conduct of a polygraph examination?
a. Pre-test Interview c. Post-Test Interview
b. Instrumental Test d. Psychological Test
239. Which among the following is not included in recording the psychophysiological response of the subject?
a. Use of Water therapy b. Psychological
c. Stress Evaluator d. Word Association Test
240. A person who is capable of detecting deception with the use of instrumentation or mechanical device.
a. Interrogator c. Medico-legal Officer
b. Detective d. Polygraph Examiner
241. Which among the following statement is not among the limitations of the polygraph?
a. It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent.
b. It is admissible as evidence.

c. It is an aid and not a substitute for investigation.

d. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument which records responses
242. An invaluable aid in investigation and an instrument in the detection of deception.
a. Photography c. Lie Detection
b. Chemistry d. Medicine
243. Questions in connection to the matter under investigation.
a. Irrelevant
b. Supplementary
c. Control
d. Relevant
244. It refers to query having no bearing or weight to the case under investigation.
a. Relevant Question
b. Supplementary Questions
c. Control Question
d. Irrelevant Question
245. A test usually administered as part of the standard test to draw a better conclusion.
a. Relevant Question
b. Supplementary
c. Control
d. Irrelevant
246. This measures, detects and graphically displays voice modulation.
a. Word Association Test
b. Psychological Stress Evaluator
c. Truth Serum
d. Water therapy
247. In this examination, stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject who in turn is instructed to answer as quickly as possible.
a. Word Association Test
b. Psychological Stress Evaluator
c. Truth Serum
d. Water Therapy
248. A test conducted wherein the subject is instructed not to produce verbal response.
a. Peak of Tension Test
b. Silent Test
c. Narrative
d. Guilt Complex Test
249. Using the Psychological Stress Evaluator, a lying subject or when a person is under stress, the frequencies___________?
a. Tends to disappear
b. Rise
c. Increases
d. Stop
250. This test not concerned with the answer whether it is yes or no, what is important is the time of response in relation to delay the
answer.
a. Word Association Test
b. Psychological Stress Evaluator
c. Truth Serum
d. Water Therapy
251. It refers to the composite records of pneumograph, galvanograph, and cardiosphygmograph tracings recorded from series of question.
a. Polygrams
b. Chart
c. Subject
d. A&B
252. A test undertaken when the subject is not aware of the details of the offense for which he is under scrutiny.
a. Guilt Complex Test
b. Silent Answer Test
c. Peak of Tension Test
d. Narrative
253. When response to control questions is consistently similar this is administered.
a. Guilt complex test
b. Silent answer Test
c. Peak of Tension Test
d. Narrative
254. It is a tracing on the chart wherein the subject answered in the irrelevant question.
a. Normal Tracing
b. Normal Response
c. Specific Response
d. Response
255. This test uses Hyoscine Hydrobromide Drug that is administered hypodermically which produces a state of delirium.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Narco-synthesis
d. Administration of truth serum
256. It is base on the maxim “in vino veritas”.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Narco-Synthesis
d. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverages
257. It is any deviation from the normal tracing of the subject.
a. Normal Response
b. Specific Response
c. Polygrams
d. Response
258. In this examination, psychiatric sodium pentothal is administered.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverages
d. Administration of truth serum
259. The most common scientific method of detecting deception.
a. Polygraphy
b. Polygraph
c. Truth Serum
d. Interrogation
260. He devised an instrument capable of continuously recording pulse rate, respiration and blood pressure.
a. William Marston
b. Angelo Mosso
c. John Larson
d. Sticker
261. Psychological Response to any demand.
a. Reaction
b. Stress
c. Pressure
d. All of the above
262. He is the father of Criminalistic.
a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Godard
c. Hans Gross
d. Becarria
263. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep to be considered fit for polygraph examination.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
264. It is a type of question related to the facts of the case.
a. Relevant question
b. Irrelevant question
c. General Question
d. Immaterial Question
265. He states that FEAR influenced the heart and could be use as a basis for detecting deception.
a. Marston
b. Larson
c. Mosso
d. Verguth
266. An act of discovery that is indicative of the fact that something is hidden or obscure.
a. Fear
b. Deception
c. Detection
d. Reaction
267. An inhibition of a previous activity of an organism as a result of stimulation.
a. Response
b. Reaction
c. Stimuli
d. Fear
268. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.
a. Response
b. Deception
c. Stimuli
d. Fear
269. This component drives the chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches per minute.
a. Cardiosphygmograph
b. Kymograph
c. Stimuli
d. Fear
270. A part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of the subject.
a. Finger electrode plate
b. Diacritic notch
c. Rubber convoluted tube
d. Kymograph
271. This component record changes of the subject’s blood pressure and pulse rate.
a. Cardiosphygmograph
b. Sphygmomanometer
c. Galvanograph
d. Pneumograph
272. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small amount of electricity.
a. Cardiosphygmograph
b. Sphygmomanometer
c. Galvanograph
d. Pneumograph
273. This component records the changes in the breathing of the subject.
a. Cardiosphygmograph
b. Sphygmomanometer
c. Galvanograph
d. Pneumograph
274. A kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to deceive others.
a. Black Lie
b. White Lie
c. Red Lie
d. Yellow Lie
275. It is a deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.
a. Reaction
b. Normal Response
c. Specific Response
d. Positive Response
276. Chart tracing of the subject when irrelevant questions were answered.
a. Reaction
b. Normal Response
c. Specific Response
d. Positive Response
277. Normal time interval for pre-test interview.
a. 20 to 30minutes
b. 30 to 60 minutes
c. 60 to 90 minutes
d. 90 to 120 minutes
278. What is the primary objective of the post test interview?
a. To thank the subject
b. To obtain confession
c. To make the subject calm
d. To explain polygraph test procedures
279. What is the purpose of the pre-test interview?
a. To prepare the subject for polygraph test
b. To obtain confession
c. To make the subject calm
d. To explain polygraph test procedures
280. Test undertaken when both relevant and control questions are similar in degree and consistency.
a. Guilt complex test
b. Silent answer Test
c. Peak of Tension Test
d. None of the Above
281. It refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal pattern of response.
a. Relevant Questions
b. Irrelevant Questions
c. Supplementary Questions
d. Control Questions
282. The number of basic tracings in a modern polygraph.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
283. Did you hide Senator Lacson in your in your beach resort? It is an example of –
a. Control Question
b. Irrelevant Question
c. Relevant Question
d. Leading Question
284. He developed the systolic blood pressure method for detecting deception.
a. William Marston
b. Harold Burtt
c. John Larson
d. Leonard Keeler
285. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure changes were signs of deception.
a. William Marston
b. Harold Burtt
c. Leonard Keeler
d. John Larson
286. An Italian Scientist who used hydrosphygmograph procedure for persons charged with the commission of a crime.
a. Angelo Mosso
b. Veraguth
c. Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi
287. Pioneer who first used the term psycho galvanic skin reflex.
a. Angelo Mosso
b. Veraguth
c. Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi
288. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with measurement, respiration component and blood pressure?
a. Harold Burtt
b. Hans Gross
c. Leonarde Keeler
d. John Larson
289. A primitive practice of detecting deception whereby controversies are settled by means of duel, the victor will be spared from
consequences and the loser will be pronounce guilty.
a. Ordeal
b. Trial by Combat
c. Combat
d. None f these
290. It is an instrument used for the recording of changes in blood pressure, pulse rate, respiration and skin resistance as indication of
emotional disturbances especially when questioned.
a. Polygraphy
b. Polygraph
c. Lie detector machine
d. B&C
291. It is a scientific method of detecting deception using polygraph.
a. Polygraphy
b. Lie Detection
c. B&A
d. None of the foregoing
292. It is an emotional response to specific danger that appears to beyond a person’s defensive power.
a. Stimulus
b. Fear
c. Reaction
d. Detection
293. It is a force or motion reaching the organism and excites the receptors.
a. Stimulus
b. Recation
c. Deception
d. Detection
294. It is use to measure the blood pressure and heart rate of the subject in the polygraph examination.
a. Pneumograph
b. Galvanograph
c. Kymograph
d. Cardio-Sphymograph
295. The component of the Polygraph machine that records the subject’s respiratory rate.
a. Pneumograph
b. Galvanograph
c. Kymograph
d. Cardio-Sphymograph
296. This component of the Polygraph machine records the amount of perspiration produced.
a. Pneumograph
b. Galvanograph
c. Kymograph
d. Cardio-Sphymograph
297. Questions formulated must be short, simple and direct answerable by either ‘yes” or “no” only, phrased in the language easily
understood by the subject.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False
298. These are questions which have no bearing to the case under investigation.
a. Relevant Question
b. Irrelevant Question
c. Control Question
d. Uncontrollable Questions
299. These are questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.
a. Relevant Question
b. Irrelevant Question
c. Control Question
d. Uncontrollable Questions
300. It is used to test or question individuals for the purpose of detecting deception and verifying the truth of statements through visual,
permanent and simultaneous recording of a person’s cardiovascular and respiratory pattern as a minimum instrumentation requirement.
a. Polygraphy
b. Polygraph
c. Lie Detection
d. Computer
301. The science of lie detection.
a. Polygraphy
b. Polygraph
c. Lie Detection
d. Computer

302. Within the U.S. Federal Government, a polygraph examination is also referred to as-
a. Psycho physiological Detection of Deception
b. PDD
c. Psychological Detection of Deception
d. Federal Scientific Detection of Deception
303. He invented the first scientific instrument to detect deception.
a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Cesare Beccaria
c. William Marston
d. Vittorio Benussi
304. An instrument that graphically measures an examinee’s inhalation and exhalation.
a. Pneumograph
b. Spygmograph
c. Kymograph
d. Galvanograph
305. An instrument that measured changes in pulse and blood pressure.
a. Pneumograph
b. Hydrospygmograph
c. Kymograph
d. Galvanograph
306. He invented the Pneumograph component of the Lie detector machine.
a. Vittorio Benussi
b. John Larson
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. William Marston
307. He conducted a further research that dealt with Sphygmomanometer, which was used to obtain periodic discontinuous blood pressure
readings during the course of an examination.
a. William Marston
b. John Larson
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi
308. A device invented that records both blood-pressure and galvanic skin response was invented in 1920 by_______.
a. William Marston
b. John Larson
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi
309. The term polygraph was first used in 1906 by James MacKenzie in his invention the “ink polygraph”, which was used for medical
purposes.
William Marston
John Larson
Cesare Lombroso
James Mackenzie
310. He is the self-proclaimed father of polygraph.
a. William Marston
b. John Larson
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi
311. Today, most polygraph test are administered with the digital equipment rather than the analog type.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False
312. The following are methods of detection of deception except:
a. Devices which record the psycho-physiological responses
b. Use of drugs that try to inhibit the inhibitor
c. Hypnotism
d. Torture
313. The nervous control of the human body includes the-
a. Central Nervous System
b. Autonomic Nervous System
c. Muscular System
d. Reproductive System
e. Both A & B
314. It primarily controls the motor and sensory functions that occur at or above the threshold.
a. Central Nervous System
b. Autonomic Nervous System
c. Muscular System
d. Reproductive System
315. It acts as a self-regulating autonomic response of the body.
a. Central Nervous System
b. Autonomic Nervous System
c. Muscular System
d. Reproductive System
316. When the person is under the influence of physical exertion or emotional stimuli, the sympathetic will dominate and over-rid the
parasympathetic, thus there will be changes in the heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory pattern, psycho galvanic reflexes, time of response
to question, and voice tracing.
a. True
b. Partially True
c. False
317. The parasympathetic nervous system works to restore things to normal when the condition of stress has been removed. It is dominant
branch when the condition is normal and the subject is calm, contented and relaxed.
a. True
b. Partially True
318. In this examination, lists of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject who is instructed to answer as quickly as possible.
a. Lie Detection
b. Word Association Test
c. Hypnotism
d. Psychological Stress Evaluator
319. In lie detector, the time interval between the words uttered by the examiner and the answer of the subject is recorded.
a. True
b. False
320. When the subject is asked with reference to his name, address, civil status, nationality, ect., which has no relation to the subject matter
of the investigation, the tendency is to delay the answer.
a. True
b. Partially True
c. Doubtful
d. False
321. The Psychological Stress Evaluator is not concerned with the answer, be it a “yes” or a “no”. The important factor is the time response
in relation to stimulus and non-stimulus words.
a. True
b. False
322. It detects, measures, and graphically displays the voice modulations that we cannot hear.
a. Word Association Test
b. Psychological Stress Evaluator
323. When the person is under stress as when he is lying, the micro tremor in the voice utterance is moderately and completely suppressed.
a. True
b. False
324. When a person is relaxed and responding honestly to the questions, those inaudible frequencies are registered clearly on the
instrument.
a. True
b. False
325. In the administration of truth serum, the drug given hypodermically to the subject is_________.
Shabu
Hyoscine Hydrobromide
Psychiatric Sodium Amytal
Morphine
326. The drug administered to the subject in Narcoanalysis/Narcosynthesis is________.
a. Shabu
b. Hyoscine Hydrobromide
c. Psychiatric Sodium Amytal
d. Morphine
327. The Latin maxim which means that in wine there is truth.
a. In Vino San Miguel
b. In Vino Matador
c. InVino Veritos
d. In Vino Veritas
328. It is the alteration of consciousness and concentration in which the subject manifests a heightened suggestibility while awareness is
maintained.
a. Narcism
b. Hypnosis
329. It is also called Prevarication. A type of deception in the form of untruthful statements with the intention to deceive, often with the
intention to maintain a secret of reputation, to protect someone’s feelings from getting hurt, or to avoid punishment.
a. Lie
b. Lei
330. It is a lie that is told when it is obvious to all concerned that is a lie.
a. Lie to Children
b. Bald Face Lie
331. It is often a platitude that may use euphemism that is told to make an adult subject acceptable to children.
a. Lie to Children
b. Bald Face Lie
332. It is a lie by omitting an important fact, deliberately leaving another person with a misconception.
a. Lie to Children
b. Bald Face Lie
c. White Lie
d. Lying by Omission
333. It would cause no discord if it were undiscovered and offers some benefit to the liar, the hearer, or both.
a. Lie to Children
b. Bald Face Lie
c. White Lie
334. A kind of lie that would normally cause discord if it were uncovered, but it offers some benefit to the liar and perhaps assists an orderly
society.
a. Perjury
b. Noble Lie
335. It is an strategic lie told when the truth may not be told because, for example, harm to a third party would come of it.
a. Perjury
b. Emergency Lie
336. It is the act of lying or making verifiably false statements on material matter under oath or affirmation in a court of law or in any of
various sworn statements in writing.
a. Perjury
b. Bluffing
337. Pretending to have the capability or intention one doesn’t.
a. Dissembling
b. Misleading
c. Bluffing
338. A polite term of lying, though some might consider it to being merely misleading.
a. Dissembling
b. Misleading
339. It occurs when the most fundamental aspect of a statement is true, but the degree to which it is true is not correct.
a. Jocose Lie
b. Exaggeration Lie
340. Lies that are meant in jest and are usually understood as such by all present parties.
a. Jocose lie
b. Promotion Lie
341. A lie in the advertisements that contain statement that is not credible.
a. Jocose Lie
b. Exaggeration
c. Jocose Lie
d. Promotion Lie
342. It is wooden puppet often led into trouble by his propensity to lie.
a. Pinocchio
b. Pacquio
343. The component of the Polygraph machine that measures the blood pressure and heart rate.
a. Cardio-sphygmograph
b. Pneumograph
344. It records the subject’s respiratory rate.
Cardio-sphygmograph
Pneumograph
Galvanograph
Keymograph
345. It is an act of deceiving or misleading usually accompanied by lying.
a. Detection
b. Deception
346. This valid test is only made possible when there is no widespread publicity about the crime.
a. Peak of Tension Test
b. Tension Test
347. It refers to the uttering or conveying falsehood or creating false or misleading information with the intention of affecting wrongfully the
acts or opinion of other.
a. Response
b. Lying
348. Which of the following is not a standard qualification of a polygraph examiner?
a. He must be free of prejudice
b. He is an impartial seeker of truth
c. He must be a policeman
d. He must be of good moral character
349. This test consists of series of relevant and irrelevant questions asked in a planned order.
a. Peak of Tension Test
b. General Peak of tension Question Test
350. The examination room must be equipped with paintings, decorations or other ornaments.
a. True
b. False
351. Permanent physical illness such as mental derangement, certain heart condition and addiction to narcotic drugs are definite causes that
makes a person unfit for a polygraph test.
a. True
b. False
352. This phase of the examination will condition the subject psychologically for the test.
a. Pre-test interview
b. Actual Interrogation
353. Questions formulated must be short, simple and multiple choice type.
a. True
b. False
354. Questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.
a. Relevant Question

b. Irrelevant Question
c. Control Question
d. Supplementary Question
355. These are questions which are unrelated to the matter under investigation but of similar nature although less serious as compared to
those relevant questions under investigation.
a. Relevant Question
b. Irrelevant Question
c. Control Question
d. Supplementary Question
356. It is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical projectile propelled from a firearm by means of the expansive force of gases coming from the
burning gunpowder.
a. Cartridge
b. Bullet
357. The science of motion of projectiles.
a. Firearm Examination
b. Ballistic
358. This consists of unburned, burning and partially burned powder together with graphite which came out from the muzzle. It is
responsible for the tattooing around the gunshot wound of entrance.
a. Smoke
b. Powder Grains
359. In a common police parlance, a bullet may be called ______.
a. Projectile
b. Tingga
c. Slug
360. A portion in the cartridge case which consists of a brass or gilding metal cup. The cup contains a highly sensitive mixture of chemical
compound.
a. Gunpowder
b. Propellant
c. Primer
361. It refers to the identification and investigation of firearms by means of ammunition fired through them.
a. Terminal Ballistic
b. Exterior Ballistic
c. Forensic Ballistic
362. It refers to any weapon designed to be operated from the shoulder.
a. Revolver
b. Rifle
363. Ignition of the propellant will cause the production of flame. The flame does not usually go beyond a distance of ___inches in pistols.
a. 6 inches
b. 3 inches
364. This is an instrument used for making measurement such as bullet diameter, bore diameter, and barrel length.
a. Micrometer
b. Taper Gauge
c. Caliper
365. He is credited as the father of Percussion Ignition.
a. Calvin Goddard
b. Alexander john Forsyth
366. Firing pin mark can be found in a “Fired Shell”.
a. True
b. False
367. It refers to the effect of the impact of the bullet on the target.
a. Terminal ballistic
b. Exterior Ballistic
368. The number of lands and grooves inside the bore of a fired firearm are always_________.
a. Different
b. The same
369. The size of the bullet grouping on the target.
a. Terminal Accuracy
b. Terminal Energy
370. All rim-fire cartridges and most center-fire revolver cartridges that are now manufactured have_________.
a. Long Neck Cartridges
b. Bottle Neck cartridges
c. Straight Cases
371. It refers to the properties and attributes of the bullet while still inside the gun.
a. Terminal Ballistic
b. Interior Ballistic
372. The elevated portion of the bore.
a. Land
b. Grooves
373. He is credited as the father of Criminalistic.
a. Calvin Goddard
b. Garrand
c. Aristotle
d. Hans Gross
374. In this firearm a pressure is applied on the trigger and will both cock and fire the firearm by release of the hammer.
a. Single Action Firearm
b. Double Action Firearm
c. Single Shot Firearm
d. Automatic Firearm
375. The speed of the bullet upon striking the target.
a. Terminal Accuracy
b. Terminal Energy
c. Terminal Velocity
376. It is an ancient smooth-bore and muzzle loading military shoulder arm designed to fire a single round lead ball.
a. Musket
b. Machine guns
c. Shoulder Arms
d. Revolver
377. This is a part of the firearm which causes firing mechanism.
a. Hammer
b. Trigger
c. Barrel
d. Ejector
378. As applied to ballistic or any other subject, it suggests a relationship to courts of justice and legal proceeding.
a. Ballistic
b. Legal
c. Forensic
379. The term ballistic is derived from the Greek word __________ which literally means to throw.
a. Ballista
b. Ballo
c. Ballein
d. B or C
380. Fired bullets should be marked by the recovering officer with his initials in the ____________.
a. Nose
b. Mouth
c. Ogive
d. A or C
381. It refers to the circular groove near the base of the case or shell designed for the automatic withdrawal of the case after each firing.
a. Ejector Groove
b. Extractor Groove
c. Land Groove
d. None of these
382. It is the amount of force on the trigger necessary to fire a gun.
a. Hair Trigger
b. Trigger Force
c. Trigger Pressure
383. He is the maker of the first known carbine.
a. David Williams
b. Alexander Forsyth
384. It is generally found on the primer cup.
a. Shearing Mark
b. Firing Pin mark
385. The trigger pressure of a shotgun is______.
a. 3-4lbs.
b. 4 lbs
386. He is credited as the father of Ballistic.
a. Samuel Colt
b. Calvin Goddard
387. It refers to the characteristics that are determinable even prior to the manufacture of the firearms. These are factory specification and
within the control of man.
a. Individual Characteristics
b. Class Characteristics
388. It describes the ability of the bullet to maintain its velocity against air resistance.
a. Trajectory
b. Air Resistance
c. Pull of Gravity
d. Ballistic Coefficient
389. Firearms that propel projectile of less than one inch in diameter.
a. Artillery
b. Small Arms
390. The depressed portion of the bore.
a. Groove
b. Land
391. The depth of entry of the bullet in the target.
a. Pull of Gravity
b. Air Resistance
c. Terminal Penetration
392. It is generally used in the preliminary examination of fired bullets and shells for the purpose of determining the relative distribution of
the class characteristics.
a. Bullet Comparison Microscope
b. Stereoscopic Microscope

393. It refers to a “Loaded Shell” for rifles, carbines, shotguns, revolvers and pistols from which a ball, bullet, shot or other missile may be
fired by means of a gun powder or other explosives..
a. Bullet
b. Ammunition
394. Sometimes it is called as “secondary firing pin mark” and found in the primer near the firing pin mark.
a. Firing Pin Mark
b. Shearing Mark
395. The first priming mixture is composed of Potassium Chlorate, Charcoal, and _________.
a. Ground Glass
b. Fulminate of Mercury
c. Barium Nitrate
d. Sulphur
396. Firearm which may be fired only by a single hand.
a. Rifle
b. Pistol
397. It refers to the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time.
a. Velocity
b. Air Resistance
398. In marking physical evidence, use distinctive mark such as X.
a. true
b. false
399. This is used in determining weights of bullets and shotgun pellets to determine probably the type of caliber and make of firearms from
which they were fired.
a. Micrometer
b. Bullet Comparison Microscope
c. Helixometer
d. Analytical Balance
400. The term cartridge is derived from the word “charta”, the Latin word for ____.
a. Plastic
b. Metal
c. Cartoon
d. Paper
401. The container of the priming mixture is _______.
a. Shell
b. Cartridge
c. Primer Cup
402. He produced the first practical revolver.
Samuel Colt
John M. Browning
403. The Gunpowder was invented in_________.
a. 1413
b. 1313
c. 1350
d. 1213
404. This instrument is use to measure the angle of twist in a rifled pistol and revolver.
a. Magnifying Glass
b. Gunsmith tools
c. Micrometer
d. Helixometer
405. The resistance encountered by the bullet whiles its flight.
a. Velocity Resistance
b. Air Resistance
c. Pull of Gravity
406. What kind of firearm that has a muzzle velocity of more than 1,400 feet per second??
a. High Power Firearm
b. Low Power Firearm
c. Pistol
407. Bore diameter is an example of class characteristic.
a. True
b. False
408. It is the distance measured between two opposite lands inside the bore. a. Caliber
b. Bore
409. The highly sensitive chemical mixture contained in the primer cup.
a. Priming Mixture
b. Gunpowder
410. The collecting officer can mark the cylindrical surface of the bullet.
a. True
b. False
411. These are generally found on bullets fired through “loose fit” barrels wherein the rifling is already worn out.
a. Shearing Mark
b. Stripping Mark
412. Skid mark can be found on fired bullets.
a. True
b. False
413. It refers to the characteristics markings peculiar and not found in all firearms.
Class Characteristics
Group Characteristics
414. This is especially designed to permit the firearm examiner to determine the similarity and dissimilarity between two fired bullets and
slugs or projectiles, or two fired shells by simultaneously observing their magnified image in a single microscopic instrument.
a. Stereoscopic Microscope
b. Bullet Comparison Microscope
415. It is applied to that part of the cartridge case that is occupied by the bullet.
a. Base
b. Crimp
c. Vents
d. Neck
416. These are found in the anterior portions of the fired bullets and caused by the forward movement of the bullet from the chamber
before it initially rotates due to the rifling inside the gun barrel.
a. Stripping Mark
b. Skid Mark
417. It is the hole in the web or the bottom of the primer pocket through which the primer ‘flash” provides ignition to the gunpowder.
a. Flash holes
b. Vents
c. Cannelures
d. A or B
418. It refers to the straight distance between the muzzle and the target.
a. Trajectory
b. Velocity
c. Range
419. This is used primarily in determining the bore diameter of firearms.
a. Gunsmith tools
b. Taper Gauge
420. The first reference to rifled barrels happened around this year.
a. 1575
b. 1498
421. The oldest propellant.
a. Black Powder
b. Pink powder
422. In this, the diameter or the base of the cartridge is bigger than the body of the cartridge.
Rimless type

Semi-rimmed
423. If the Shape if the base of the bullet is boat tailed, the shape of the nose is________.
a. Pointed
b. Round
424. It can be used in the close up examination of tampered serial numbers.
a. Gunsmith tool
b. Taper Gauge
c. Stereoscopic Microscope
425. It is equal to the height of the side of a land.
a. Depth of Grooves
b. Twist
426. The gun powder is otherwise known as_____________.
a. Powder charge
b. Propellant
c. Pulbura
d. A&B
427. The first reference to paper cartridge happened around this year.
a. 1313
b. 1575
428. It contains a compound at the base usually similar to barium nitrates, which is set on fire when the bullet is projected. The flash of the
smoke from the burning permits the light of the bullet to be seen especially at night time.
a. Incendiary Bullets
b. Tracer Bullets
429. The rifling inside the gun barrel may twist _________.
a. To the right only
b. To the left only
c. To the right & left
430. It refers to serrated grooves that are sometimes found rolled into the necks and bodied of the cases at the location of the bases of the
bullet to prevent the bullet from being pushed back or loosened.
a. Neck
b. Base
c. Crimp
d. Cannelures
431. It refers to the actual curved path of the bullet during its flight from the gun muzzle to the target.
a. Velocity
b. Trajectory
432. Land and groove marks are called__________.
a. Skid Mark
b. Shearing Mark
Rifling Mark
433. Type of firearms that propel projectiles less than one inch in diameter. a. Artillery
b. Small arms
434. When percussion ignition started?
a. 1853
b. 1807
435. If the shape of the nose is round, the shape of the base is______.
a. Boat-tailed
b. Flat base
436. It is a tabular metallic or non-metallic container which holds together the bullet, gunpowder and primer.
a. Bullet
b. Cartridge Case
c. Shell
d. B or C
437. It refers to firearms that have rifling inside their gun barrel.
a. Smooth-Bore Firearms
b. Rifled-Bore firearms
438. The bore diameter of the firearm is the________.
a. Type of firearm
b. Caliber of firearm
439. The term commonly used by physicians whenever there is blackening of the margin of the gunshot wound of entrance.
a. Powder Grains
b. Powder Burns
440. This kind of bullet contains a mixture such as phosphorous or other material that can be set on fire by impact. These are used on
targets that will readily burn such as aircrafts or gasoline depot.
a. Explosive Bullets
b. Incendiary Bullets
441. The term Bullet originated from the French word_______.
a. Boulette
b. Boul
d. None of these
442. The noise created at the muzzle of the gun due to the sudden escape of the expanding gas coming in contact with the air in the
surrounding atmosphere at the muzzle point.
a. Muzzle Energy
b. Trajectory
c. Velocity
d. Muzzle Blast
443. A part of the mouth of the case that is turned in upon the bullet and holds the bullet in place.
a. Crimp
b. Cannelure
444. It is the most powerful propellants.
a. Smokeless Powder
b. Black Powder
445. It refers to the attributes and movement of the bullet after it has left the gun muzzle.
a. Muzzle Energy
b. Exterior Ballistic
446. A type of weapon which fire or is designed to fire automatically or semiautomatically more than one shot without manual reloading.
a. Artillery
b. Machine guns
447. It is known as self-loading firearm.
a. Revolver
b. Automatic Pistol
448. The portion of the primer against which the priming mixture is crushed by a blow from the firing pin.
a. Disc
b. Anvil
449. The diameter of the base of the cartridge case is the same as the diameter of the body of the cartridge case or shell.
a. Rimmed type
b. Rimless type
450. In this firing weapon, the empty shell is ejected when the cartridge is fired and a new cartridge is slipped into the breach automatically
as a result of the recoil.
a. Rifle
b. Shotgun
c. Automatic Pistol
451. Most center-fire rifle cartridge cases are of_______.
a. Bottleneck type
b. Straight Cases
452. It refers to firearm whose projectile is a collection of lead pellets which varies in sizes with the type of cartridge applied.
a. Single Action Firearm
b. Double Action Firearm
c. Rifle
d. Shotgun
453. A firearm with a long barrel and butt.
a. Shotgun

c. Double Action Firearm

454. There are two classification of bullet according to mechanical construction. One is the lead bullet and the other is_________.
a. Jacketed Bullet
b. Round Nose
455. He is a wizard of modern firearms and pioneered the breech-loading single shot rifle.
a. David Williams
b. John M. Browning
456. The two classification of firearm according to the gun-barrel internal construction is the Rifled-bore firearm and the ___________.
a. Single Shot firearm
b. Repeating Arms
c. Smooth Bore Firearm
457. The muzzle velocity of a Rifle is________.
a. 2, 600 feet per second
b. 2, 500 feet per second
458. A type of firearms designed to fire only one shot every loading.
a. Repeating Arms
b. Single Shot Firearms
459. The following are attributes of the bullet while still inside the muzzle of the gun except-
a. Velocity
b. Firing pin hitting the primer
c. Ignition of the priming mixture
460. The bottom of the case which holds the primer and the shell head.
a. Extracting Groove
b. Base
c. Crimp
d. Mouth
461. These bullets have hardened steel cores and are fired at vehicles and other armored targets in general.
a. Armor Piercing Bullet
b. Incendiary Bullet
462. It refers to the investigation and identification of firearms by means of ammunition fired through them.
a. Terminal Ballistic
b. Forensic Ballistic
463. An English Monk scientist who invented the gunpowder in 1248.
a. Berthold Schwarts
b. Roger Bacon
464. A mechanism of the firearm by which the empty shell or ammunition is thrown from the firearm.
a. Extractor
b. Ejector
465. This firearm is first manually cocked then followed by pressure on the trigger to release the hammer.
a. Automatic Firearm
b. Single Shot Firearm
c. Double Action Firearm
d. Single Action Firearm
466. It refers to firearm that propelled projectile more than an inch in diameter.
a. Small Arms
b. Artillery
467. He founded the great firm Smith and Wesson and pioneered he making of breech loading rifles.
a. Daniel B. Wesson
b. Horace Smith
468. It contains the head stamp, caliber and year of manufacture.
a. Primer
b. Base
c. Shell Head
469. It is an instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by means of the expansive force of gases coming from the burning gunpowder.
a. Bullet
b. Firearm
470. Firearms that have no rifling inside the gun barrel.
a. Smooth-Bore firearm
b. Rifled-bore firearm
471. A smooth-bore and breech loading shoulder arm designed to fire a number of lead pellets or shots in one charge.
a. Carbine
b. Shotgun
472. A hand firearm equipped with rotating cylinder, serving as magazine, successively places a cartridge into position for firing.
a. Pistol
b. Magazine
c. Revolver
473. It initiates the path of the bullet.
a. Barrel
b. Frame
474. It houses the internal part of the firearm.
a. Yoke
b. Bolt
c. Hammer
d. Frame
475. It pulls the empty shell from the cylinder simultaneously.
a. Yoke
b. Firing Pin
c. Extractor
476. Smith and Wesson revolvers have _________.
a. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the right
b. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the left
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the right
d. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the left
477. It activates the parts necessary to fire the weapon.
a. Hammer
b. Trigger
478. A mechanism of the firearm responsible for the spent shell or ammunition to be withdrawn from the firing chamber.
a. Extractor
b. Ejector
479. What firearm has a muzzle velocity of not more than 1,400 feet per second?
a. High Powered firearm
b. Low Power Firearm
480. The metal containing the highly sensitive priming mixture of chemical compound, which when struck by the firing pin it would ignite.
a. Gunpowder
b. Primer
481. It refers to a firearm which has a cylindrical magazine situated at the rear of the barrel capable of revolving motion and which can
accommodate five or six cartridges; each of which is housed in a separate chamber.
a. Automatic Pistol
b. Revolver
482. It is the most simple form of modern cartridge and can generally found in
Cal. 22
a. Pin-Fire cartridge
b. Rim-Fire Cartridge
c. Center Fire Cartridge
d. All of these
483. In this kind of firearm, a pull or pressure on the trigger will cause one shot.
a. Automatic firearm
b. Single Shot firearm
c. Double Action firearm
d. Single Action Firearm
484. The first cartridge of a self-exploding type.
a. Pin-Fire cartridge
b. Rim-Fire Cartridge
c. Center Fire Cartridge
d. All of these
485. The Trigger pressure of a rifle is________.
a. 4 lbs.
b. 3-4 lbs
c. 3-5 lbs
d. 6-7 lbs
486. The inner surface of the barrel that has a series of parallel spiral grooves on the whole length is called_____.
a. Bore
b. Rifling
c. Twist
d. Hammer
487. The number of lands and grooves varies from __________.
a. 2 to 12
b. 3 to 12
c. 4 to 12
d. 6 to 5
488. It refers to a tabular metallic container for the gunpowder.
a. Bullet
b. Primer
c. Cartridge
d. None of these
489. Refers to as fingerprint pattern wherein the ridge flow from one side to the other without recurving, and ridges rising in the center.
a. Plain arch c. Plain whorl
b. Tented arch d. Plain loop
490. A pattern in which the ridges flow from one circle to another without recurving, usually forming a slight upward curve in the center
having resemblance of an arch.
a. Plain arch c. Plain whorl
b. Tented arch d. Plain loop
491. The system of fingerprinting is referred to as:
a. Poroscopy c. Dactyloscopy
b. Podoscopy d. Palmistry
492. It is a ridge in the center of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a rod, loop, or a spiral in the interior of the pattern.
a. Core c. Delta
b. Loop d. Bifurcation
493. A German criminologist who discovered that fingerprinting for identification purpose were already used in the Far East during the Tang
dynasty from 618 to 906 A.D.
a. Henry Faulds c. Robert Heindle
b. Dr. Nehemiah Greu d. Alphonse Bertillon
494. Regarded as the “Father of Fingerprints”
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry c. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Sir Frances Galton d. Gilbert Thompson
495. Basis of fingerprint identification.
a. Pores c. Friction ridges
b. Ridges d. Latent print
496. Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges are formed and developed?
a. 3rd month of fetal life c. At birth
b. 6th month of infancy d. 3 months after birth
497. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a loop, spiral or rod.
a. Delta c. Ridge
b. Core d. Whorl
498. Minimum identical characteristics detail to justify the identity between two points.
a. Nine c. Fifteen
b. Twelve d. Eighteen
499. An American who first utilized fingerprint classification to prevent forgery in New Mexico.
a. Sir Francis Galton c. Samuel Clemens
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson
500. First chief of the Identification Bureau in Paris who was known for his anthropometric measurement.
a. Alphonse Bertillon c. Samuel Clemens
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson
501. First Filipino expert on fingerprinting.
a. Atty. Agustin Patricio c. Atty. Lorenzo Sunico
b. Gen. Rafael Crame d. Col. Jose Lukban
502. The fingerprint classification which is used in the United States.
a. Henry System c. Beni’lion System
b. Batley System d. Galton System
503. Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of papillary ridges as means of identification.
a. Edgeoscopy c. Podoscopy
b. Poroscopy d. Chiroscopy
504. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the subject’s hand is:
a. Necessary c. Optional
b. Unnecessary d. Excessive
505. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is;
a. Temporary c. Lasting
b. Permanent d. Stable
506. An inking pad which requires no ink or roller.
a. Porelon c. Inkless pad
b. Special pad d. None of these
507. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the impression is held to be:
a. Plain whorl meeting c. Arches
b. Loops d. Dependent on ridge tracings
508. Referred to as outer terminus:
a. Delta c. Bifurcation
509. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the fingerprint card are referred to as:
a. Rolled impressions c. Fragmentary impressions
b. Plain impressions d. Visible impressions
510. Known for his rule which states that “No two individuals in the world are exactly the same size and that human skeleton does not
change after 20 years.
a. Darwin c. Galton
b. Mendel d. Bertillon
511. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprints is to view the area:
a. Obliquely c. Directly
b. About half an inch distance d. about one inch distance
512. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops, with its respective shoulder and deltas.
a. Double loop c. Central pocket loop
b. Accidental loop d. whorl
513. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from the thumb toward the little finger?
a. Tented Arch c. Ulnar loop
b. Radial loop d. Loop
514. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side
where the ridge has entered.
a. Tented arch c. Ulnar loop
b. Radial loop d. loop
515. It is triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation of a ridge at the outer portion of the pattern.
a. Latent prints c. Core
b. Ridge d. Delta
516. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a single ridge is called:
a. Enclosure ridge c. Short ridges
b. Dot ridges d. Resembling a loop
517. Points often missed in rolling impression.
a. Bifurcation c. Delta
b. Core d. Ridge
518. Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint pattern?
a. Loop c. Whorl
b. Arch d. Accidental
519. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals around core axes.
a. Whorl c. Double loop
b. Central packet loop d. Accidental
520. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on papillary ridges as a means of identification.
a. Poroscopy c. Podoscopy
b. Edeoscopy d. Dactyloscopy
521. In determining the identity of an unknown dead body found in a river, wherein no identifying papers are to be found, and the body is
badly mutilated and swollen, which among the following means of identification is least dependable?
a. Fingerprints c. Scars on the body
b. Tattoo markings on the body d. Measurement of the body

522. It constitutes approximately 65% of all fingerprints.

a. Loops c. Whorls
b. Arches d. Accidentals
523. That part of the fingerprint wherein we find the core and delta.
a. Bifurcation c. Type lines
b. Pattern area d. None of these
524. Refers to innermost ridges that run parallel, diverge and surround or tend to surround the pattern area.
a. Delta c. Core
b. Divergence d. Type lines
525. A smooth spreading apart of two ridges which have been running parallel or nearly parallel.
a. Island c. Divergence
b. Dot d. Convergence
526. A small ridge attached to another ridge.
a. Island c. Bifurcation
b. Dot d. appendage
527. If one finger is amputated, it is given a classification with that of;
a. The opposite finger c. The first finger
b. The next finger d. The last finger
528. It consist of recordings of all friction ridges present on the palmar surfaces of the hands and the inner surfaces of the fingers. They are
commonly utilized to make accurate and conclusive comparisons with all latent prints obtained during the investigation of a major case.
a. Major Case print c. Special case print
b. Fingerprint chart d. None of these
529. This test is used to detect the presence of semen particularly in stained clothing.
a. Microscopic test c. Florence test
b. Barberio’s test d. Ultraviolet test 530. The best method in comparative soil analysis.
a. Chemical examination c. UV light examination
b. Density gradient test d. Microscopic examination
531. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test is utilized?
a. Accelerated aging test c. Opacity examination
b. Bursting strength test d. Microscopic examination
532. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by decaying body.
a. Chloride c. Carbon dioxide
b. Ammonia d. Hydrogen sulfide
533. A condition whereby males have no spermatozoa in their seminal fluid.
a. Aspermia c. Sterility
b. Oligospremia d. Rigidity
534. It is the scientific study of serums which describes the analysis of antigen-antibody reactions.
a. Serology c. Biology
b. Posology d. Serumnology
535. An incendiary device made of glass bottle filled with gasoline or any inflammable mixture with a piece of absorbent cotton for a fuse or
wick.
a. Tear gas c. Molotov bomb
b. Molotov Cocktail d. RDX
536. Cheapest form of solid oxidizer in an explosive mixture.
a. C-4 c. Ammonium nitrate
b. RDX d. TNT
537. Most utilized and important military explosive.
a. C-4 c. Ammonium nitrate
b. RDX d. TNT
538. Earliest substance used for writing.
a. Leaves c. Linen
b. Paper d. Egyptian papyrus
539. Agents which produce intestinal evacuation.
a. Emetic c. Antidotes
b. Cathartics d. Demulcents
540. A product of decomposition found nearly in all soils.

a. Sedentary soil c. Primary minerals

b. Clay minerals d. Organic constituents
541. For radial cracks it states that stress lines on radial crack will be at right angle to the rear side.
a. RFC rule c. Flotation
b. 3 R’s d. Immersion
542. Normally responsible for retraction of the blood cloth.
a. Whiter blood cells (leucocytes)
b. Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
c. Blood platelets (thrombosytes)
d. Fibribogen
543. Rifling in the bore of small arms is primarily designed for:
a. Increase the speed of the bullet
b. Decrease the amount of recoil
c. Increase impact damage
d. Prevent the bullet from turning end over in the air
544. Scientific examination of bullets and firearms presumably used in the commission of a crime.
a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics
b. Exterior ballistics d. Forensic ballistics
545. A result of wear and tear, corrosion, erosion which affects the normal operation of a firearm.
a. Factory defect c. Individual intention characteristics
b. Precipitate d. Individual accidental characteristics
546. Cannelure is used in firearms identification to determine.
a. Manufacturer of the firearm c. Type of gun
b. Manufacturer of the bullet d. Weapon that fired the shot 547. A barrel of any firearm is legally classified as:
a. Part of the firearm c. Accessory
b. Nomenclature d. Complete firearm
548. Rate of twist in the rifling of a rifle or pistol barrel.
a. Land c. Leed
b. Grooves d. Ogive
549. A test used to determine the distance from the bullet hole at which the gun was fired.
a. Triangulation c. Alphanothylamine test
b. Photo-micrographic test d. Diphenylamine test
550. After repeated firing of a revolver, this is deposited frequently on the index finger of the hand which the shooter used to fire the gun.
Powder burn c. Precipitin
Residue d. Dirt
551. To link a shell with a shotgun that fired it, in the laboratory examination it should be given:
a. Wadding c. Pellets
b. Cap d. Wads
552. In firearms identification, it is essential to supplement the serial number with…
a. Caliber c. Make and model number
b. Frame number d. All of these
553. It is a result when the firearm is shot at around 2 to 8 inches to the target.
a. Smudging c. Contact burn
b. Tattooing d. Contact wound
554. It is produced when the muzzle is held against the target or body when fired.
a. Smudging c. Contact burn
b. Tattooing d. Contact wound
555. In the effort to identify the shell with the revolver which fired it, which among the following is essential?
a. Marks of the breechblock c. None of these
b. Marks of the firing pin hole d. Both A and B
556. In shots fired from an automatic pistol, the shell in most cases…
a. Will be found on the scene of the crime
b. Will remain in the chamber
c. Will be rarely found in the scene of the crime
d. Will be usually disposed by the perpetrator
557. When booking a fired bullet, the mark used to identify it is placed on.
a. Its base c. Its side and base
b. Its side d. Its nose
558. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are usually classified as:
a. Flare guns c. Matchlock
b. Zip guns d. Freakish device
559. The most reliable of all individual characteristics, when fired cartridges are concerned.
a. Extractor marks c. Chamber marks
b. Ejector marks d. Breechface markS
560. It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge’s failure to explode on time.
a. Misfire c. Ricochet
b. Hang fire d. Key hole shot
561. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its lands have been worn down would produce what kind of markings?
Slippage marks c. Rifling marks
Skid marks d. Shearing marks
562. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of projectiles.
a. Caliper d. Test bullet
b. Chronograph d. Bullet recovery box
563. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet.
a. Projectile c. Shell
b. Ball d. Missile
564. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles at the same time it leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the time it hits the target.
a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics
b. Exterior ballistics d. Posterior ballistics
565. The science which deals with the effect of the impact of the projectile on the target.
a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics
b. Exterior ballistics d. Posterior ballistics
566. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.
a. Trigger c. Sear
b. Hammer d. Main spring
567. Applied to a shot gun which indicates bore diameter is equal to the diameter of the lead ball whose weight in pound is equal to
reciprocal gauge index.
a. Caliber c. Shot
b. Gauge d. Charge
568. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a single round lead ball.
a. Shotgun c. Musket
b. Rifle d. Pistol
569. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number of lead pellets in one charge.
a. Shotgun c. Musket
b. Rifle d. Pistol
570. Placed in the barrels of the firearm to impart a spin on the bullet that pass through it.
a. Lands c. Rifling
b. Grooves d. All of these
571. The modern method of rifling which uses a hardened steel rod with several cutting rings spaced down the rod.
a. Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling
b. Broach rifling d. Electrochemical rifling
572. The most common method of rifling used today, wherein the grooves are formed in the barrel under very high pressure forming the
rifling in the barrel which hardens and polishes the inside of the barrel.
Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling
Broach rifling d. Electrochemical rifling

573. This produces a type of rifling called polygonal rifling, common in Glock, Steyr, IMI and a few other manufacturers.
a. Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling
b. Broach rifling d. Hammer forged rifling
574. Part of exterior ballistics which refers to the sound created at the muzzle end of the barrel.
a. Muzzle energy c. Muzzle noise
b. Muzzle blast d. Range
575. A type of rimmed cartridge wherein the diameter of the rim is greater than the diameter of the body of the cartridge case.
a. immed type c. Belted type
b. Semi-rimmed type d. Rebated type
576. A type of firearm which the pressure upon the trigger both cocks and release the hammer.
a. Automatic c. Double action
b. Single action d. slide action type
577. All calibers of Colt revolver has________.
a. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the right
b. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the left
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the right
d. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the left
578. A metallic cup charged with a priming composition, usually made up of potassium chlorate, antimony sulfide and fulminate of mercury.
a. Primer c. Cartridge
b. Gunpowder
579. It is committed by giving any payable instrument to bearer such as treasury or bank notes the appearance of a genuine document.
a. Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. All of these
580. It applies to documents whether public, official or commercial wherein handwriting or signature contained therein is imitated.
a. Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. All of these
581. The act of making it appears that persons have participated in any proceeding or act when in fact they have not participated in any
document.
a. Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. All of the foregoing
582. A person who alters by any means, the lettes, figures, words or signs contained in any bank or Treasury note is liable for:
a. Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. All of the foregoing
583. It refers to the assessment or altered, forged or suspected papers to determine if they are genuine or otherwise.
a. Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. Questioned document examination
584. Iodine fumes is useful in questioned document examination because:
a. It can be used to developed secret writings
b. It can be used to determine whether erasures have been made
c. It can determine the kind of ink used in writing
d. Both A and B
585. Which among the foregoing may be utilized as a means to carry out mechanical erasures?
a. Rubber eraser c. Blade
b. Sharp knife d. All of these
586. An erasure with the use of ink eradicators.
a. Mechanical erasure c. Electronic erasure
b. Chemical erasure d. All of the foregoing
587. Instruments whose origin are known and proven; which are used in comparison with a questioned document.
a. Simulated documents c. Standard documents
b. Falsified documents d. Forged documents
588. A document executed without the intervention of a notary or any competent public official by which some agreement or disposition is
proved.
a. Public document c. Private documents
b. Official document d. Commercial document
589. To obtain conviction for the charge of possession of false bank or treasury notes this is an essential requisite.
a. Intention to use it c. Intention to surrender it to authorities
b. Intention to keep it d. Intention to display it
590. A city mayor executed a document in his legal capacity as a local executive, that document is classified as:
a. Public document c. Private document
b. Official document d. Commercial document
591. A document notarized by a notary public or any competent authority is legally classified as:
a. Public document c. Private document
b. Official document d. Commercial document
592. A man who is unable to write may use this legally signify a signature.
a. Crude x c. Thumb mark
b. Cross mark d. Both A and B
593. Refers to the design of letters which are fundamental to a writing system.
a. Copy book form c. Line quality
b. System of writing d. Writing movement
594. It refers to any abnormality or maladjustment in the typewriter which is reflected in its product
a. Defect c. Misalignment
b. Mal alignment d. Alteration
595. Enlarged photographic court exhibit usually referred to as bromide enlargements of a document.
a. Standard document c. Collected documents
b. Questions documents d. Display exhibits
596. The appearance of paper when viewed by transmitted light, which discloses the formation and texture of the sheet.
a. Lock-through of paper c. Cross marks
b. Watermarks d. Sidelight marks
597. It consists of chemical solutions.
a. Non aqueous ink c. Ink eradicators
b. Aqueous ink d. all of these
598. Any characteristic of handwriting which is sufficiently well fixed and unique to serve as a fundamental point in the identification of the
writer.
a. Copy book form c. System of writing
b. Line quality d. Significant writing habits
599. Refers to any specimen of writing executed normally without any attempt to change or control its identifying habits and its usual
quality of execution.
a. Natural writing c. Cursive writing
b. Disguised writing d. System of writing
600. Jose Pidal in trying to alter his own signature to hide his identity is using:
a. Natural writing c. Cursive writing
b. Disguised writing d. System of writing
601. Writing in which are for most part joined together.
a. Natural writing c. Cursive writing
b. Disguised writing d. System of writing
602. Usual deviations found between repeated specimen of any individual handwriting or in the product of any typewriter.
a. Normal variation c. Tremor
b. Natural variation d. Wrong hand writing
603. A person executing a signature while his arm is steadied and assisted produces a:
a. Guided signature c. Scribble
b. Normal signature d. Handwriting signature
604. A preliminary embellished initial common to capital letters.
a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot
b. Beard d. Diacritic
605. A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal strokes.
a. Hook c. Loop
b. Spur d. Staff
606. An oblong curve found in small letters f, g, h and I.
a. Hook c. Loop
b. Spur d. Staff
607. The introductory backward stroke added to the start of many capital letters and which can also be seen occasionally in introductory
strokes of small letters.
a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot
b. Beard d. Hitch
608. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter.
a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot
b. Beard d. Diacritic
609. Visible record in the writing stroke of the basis movement and manner of holding the writing instrument.
a. Line quality c. Baseline
b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure
610. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes.
a. Embellishment c. Diacritic
b. Hump d. Knot
611. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious recurrence of stress of impulse.
a. Line quality c. Baseline
b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure
612. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surface with increase pressure.
a. Writing pressure c. Pen emphasis
b. Shading d. Natural variation
613. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.
a. Line quality c. Foot
b. Baseline d. Hitch
614. A signature written by the forger in his own style of handwriting without attempting to copy to form of the genuine signature.
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Disguised forgery d. Simple forgery
615. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skilful type of forgery.
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Disguised forgery d. Simple forgery
616. Which among the following is an indication of genuineness of handwriting?
a. Continuity c. Skilful writing
b. Smoothness d. Tremor
617. Combination of the basic design of letters and writing movement as taught in school.
a. Letter form c. Copy book form
b. Line quality d. System of writing
618. Document which is completely written and signed by one person.
a. Genuine documents c. Holographic document
b. Disputed document d. Authentic document
619. A document which contains some changes either as an addition or deletion.
a. Altered document c. Obliterated document
b. Disputed document d. Inserted document
620. Signatures used to acknowledge delivery, purchase of goods and mail.
a. Complete c. Cursory
b. Formal d. Careless scribble
621. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the original undecipherable.
a. Decipherment c. Obliteration
b. Restoration d. Interlineations
622. A class of signature for routine document or day to day correspondence.
a. Formal c. Cursory
b. Complete d. Careless scribble
623. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge important documents.
a. Complete c. Informal
b. Cursory d. Careless scribble
624. A process by which a canal like outline is produce on a fraudulent document underneath the genuine and tracing it with the use of a
pointed instrument.
a. Carbon process c. Projection process
b. Indention process d. Transmitted light process
625. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier than the rest of its outline.
a. Off its feet c. Clogged type face
b. Twisted letter d. Rebound
626. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is almost unconscious expression of fixed muscular habits reacting from fixed mental
impressions.
a. Handwriting c. Typewriting
b. Writing d. writing movement
627. A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation and pen lifts difficult.
a. Ball point pen c. Iron nutgall ink
b. Fountain pen d. Markers
628. Disconnection between letters or letter combination due to lack of movement control.
a. Pen lift c. Patching
b. Retouching d. Retracing
629. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on the paper during manufacture.
a. Water marks c. Paper design
b. Fiber marks d. Wire marks
630. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what particular condition is manifested?
a. Grainy image c. Overlapping image
b. Two image d. Three dimensional image
631. An element which is added to complete another letter.
a. Spur c. Diacritics
b. Beard d. hook
632. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place, purpose and normal writing conditions.
a. Complete signature c. Evidential signature
b. Standard signature d. Model signature
633. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of the ink stroke.
a. Shading c. Pen lift
b. Pen emphasis d. Pen pressure
634. The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity of paper money.
a. Quality or sharpness of the engraving
b. Color of the seal
c. Wet strength of the paper
d. Watermarks
635. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but made inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine coin.
a. Priceless coin c. False coin
b. Mutilated coin d. All of these
636. It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal strokes made by the momentum of the hand.
a. Tremor c. Genuine tremor
b. Tremors of fraud d. Deterioration
637. Any arcade formed in the body of the letters.
a. Staff c. Diacritics
b. Slant d. Humps
638. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the horizontal inch.
a. Pica c. Proportional spacing machine
b. Elite d. Adding machine
639. Developed the system of handwriting classification utilized by most police departments.
a. Lee and Abbey c. Levine
b. Rolando Wilson d. Land steiner
640. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but notarized by competent officials.
a. Official document c. Commercial document
b. Public document d. Private document
641. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine coin.
a. False coin c. Priceless coin
b. Counterfeit coin d. Mutilation of coins
642. It refers to the printing surface of a type block.
a. Character c. Pitch
b. Design d. Type face
643. Widening of the ink stroke due to added pressure on a flexible pen point.
a. Shading c. Shading
b. Pen pressure d. All of these
644. It represents the backbone or main stroke of letters.
a. Slant c. Staff
b. Diacritics d. Foot
645. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.
a. Decipherment c. Obliteration
b. Collation d. Examination
646. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their identifying characteristics.
a. Comparison c. Conclusion
b. Collation d. Examination
647. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed with the source of illumination behind it and the light passing through the paper.
a. Transmitted light examination c. Infrared examination
b. Oblique photography examination d. Ultraviolet examination
648. The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a person from his handwriting.
a. Questioned Document Examination c. Graphology
b. Polygraphy d. Psychology
649. Identifying typewriter characteristics which can be eliminated by cleaning the machine or replacing the ribbon.
a. Transitory defect c. Permanent defect
b. Alignment defect d. Defect
650. A defect in typewrites due to the wear and tear of the type block in which some letters lean to the left or right of their correct slant.
a. Off its feet c. Twisted letter
b. Clogged type face d. Rebound
651. And angle or inclination of the axis of the letter relative to the baseline.
a. Foot c. Staff
b. Slant d. Hitch
652. A distinct and peculiar character used to identify handwriting to any identifying factor related to the writing movement itself.
a. Quality c. Skill
b. Line quality d. System of writing
653. Going back over a defective portion of a writing stroke, it is a common defect in forgeries and is also known as retouching.
a. Patching c. Erasure
b. Smeared over writing d. Interlineations
654. Refers to written documents in the ordinary course of business or in the regular course of man’s activity. Also known as procured
standards.
a. Requested standards c. Standard documents
b. Collected standards d. Holographic documents
655. Also known as “post litel motam” or dictated standards is a document which are executed and prepared at one time upon request.
a. Requested standards c. Standard documents
b. Collected standards d. Holographic documents
656. Also known as formal signature it is executed in signing contracts, certifications, checks and other important documents.
a. Complete c. Careless scribble
b. Cursory d. None of these
657. A signature usually executed in the conduct of a person’s daily affairs.
a. Formal c. Informal
b. Cursory d. Both B and C
658. For signing mail, receipts and other insignificant documents such as signatures executed by celebrities to their fans.
a. Complete c. Careless scribble
b. Cursory d. Informal
659. Builder of the first pyramid, he was considered as the first or earliest recorded medico-legal expert.
a. Antistius c. Paulus Zacchias
b. Imhotep d. San Juan de Bautista
660. First chief medico legal officer of the Philippine Commonwelth.
a. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
b. Dr. Pedro Solis d. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos 661. Regarded as the Father of Forensic Medicine.
a. Antistius c. Paulus Zacchias
b. Imhotep d. San Juan de Bautista
662. Earliest known forensic pathologist or police surgeon, who performed the autopsy of Julius Caesar, reporting that out of the 23 stab
wounds, only one penetrated the chest cavity between the first and second rib which was Caesar’s proximate cause of death.
a. Antistius c. Paulus Zacchias
b. Imhotep d. San Juan de Bautista
los Santos
663. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere.
a. Red c. Reddish-brown
b. Clay d. Black
664. It has for its characteristics as, bright scarlet in color, with high oxygen content and leaves the blood vessel with pressure.
a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood d. Human blood
665. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usually does not spill far from the wound.
a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood d. Human blood
666. This blood contains a high number of deodorleins bacillus, it does not clot and has acidic reactions.
a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood d. Human blood
667. A condition in which foreign matters are introduced in the blood stream blocking the blood circulation in the finer capillaries and
arteriiles.
a. Infection c. Hemorrhage
b. Embolism d. Hematoma
668. It is the disorder of the fluid balance due to peripheral deficiency, characterized by the decreased blood volume, its flow, hemo-
concentration and renal deficiency.
a. Infection c. Hemorrhage
b. Shock d. Hematoma
669. Extravasations or loss of blood from the circulation due to inflicted wounds in the cardio-vascular system.
a. Infection c. Hemorrhage
b. Embolism d. Hematoma
670. The growth and development of micro-organism in the location of the injury or wound.
a. Infection c. Hemorrhage
b. Embolism d. Hematoma
671. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin due to the rupture of blood vessels as a result of the application of a blunt force.
a. Contusion c. Hemorrhage
b. Shock d. Hematoma
672. Wound produced to man’s instinctive reaction of self-preservation to repel attacks or an aggressor.
a. Defense wound c. Patterned wound
b. Self-inflicted wound d. Mutilated wound
673. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the instrument which caused it.
a. Defense wound c. Patterned wound
b. Self-inflicted wound d. Mutilated wound
674. Pulverization of the body into shape with the use of intense heat.
a. Exhumation c. Charring
b. Cremation d. Pounding
675. Prescribed depth of a grave under P.D. 856, Section 19 of the Code of Sanitation.
a. At least ½ meters deep c. At least 1 and ½ meters deep
b. At least 1 meters deep d. At least 2 meters deep

676. A significant difference between the male and female skull is that in males, the supercialiary ridges are ______ than compared with
females.
a. Less sharp c. More pointed
b. Sharper d. Smoother
677. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with male pelvis.
a. Greater c. Lesser
b. Equal d. Less significant
678. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation in respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient to declare a person
clinically dead?
a. 10-15 minutes c. 30-45 minutes
b. 15-30 minutes d. 45-60 minutes
679. A simple test used to determine cessation of respiration by placing water or mercury in a container on top of the chest of a person and
no visible movement is noticed.
a. Winslov test c. Barberio’s test
b. Florence test d. Castle Meyer test
680. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from a dead body in how many days?
a. 7 c. 21
b. 14 d. 28
681. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how many days from death?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
682. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone, loss of alignment of the affected bones and separation of fragment bones.
a. Simple fracture c. Communicated fracture
b. Compound fracture d. None of these
683. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.
a. Imprint abrasion c. Friction abrasion
b. Pressure abrasion d. Graze
684. Reduction of oxygen in the blood.
a. Hypoxia c. Hypercapnea
b. Asphyxia d. None of the foregoing
685. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and with accompanying movement over the skin.
a. Pressure abrasion c. Impact abrasion
b. Imprint abrasion d. Graze
686. A nervous disease marked by seizures with convulsion and loss of consciousness.
a. Epilepsy c. Catalepsy
b. Apoplexy d. Uremia
687. Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily eliminated in the urine; specifically a toxic condition seen in urinary suppression,
marked by nausea, vertigo, vomiting, coma and convulsion.
a. Epilepsy c. Catalepsy
b. Apoplexy d. Uremia
688. LIvor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many hours when the blood has already clotted or diffused to different parts
of the body wherein the discoloration is permanent and darker in color?
a. 12 hours c. 36 hours
b. 24 hours d. 48 hours
689. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination with either group A or B what would be the particular blood group of the sample?
a. Group A c. Group AB
b. Group B d. Group O
690. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years c. 30 years
b. 20 years d. 40 years
691. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white greasy substance in the soft fatty tissue after death.
a. Saponification c. Mummification
b. Rigor mortis d. Maceration
692. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent portions of the body
and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours.
a. Rigor mortis c. Maceration
b. Primary flaccidity d. Livor mortis
693. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after meals.
a. 2 to 3 hours c. 4 to 5 hours
b. 3 to 4 hours d. 5 to 6 hours
694. Rate of growth of human hair.
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm./day c. 0.6 to 0.6 mm./day
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm./day d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm./day
695. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body temperature is about:
a. 10 to 15⁰F c. 20 to 25⁰F
b. 15 to 20 ⁰F d. 25 to 30⁰F
696. Sudden inflammation of the pancreas caused by infections carried in the blood stream. It may follow obstruction of the pancreatic duct
and subsequent congestion of the gland.
a. Perforated peptic ulcer c. Acute intestinal obstruction
b. Generalized peritonitis d. Acute pancreatitis 697. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.
a. Wound c. Bruise
b. Trauma d. Scratch
698. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will endanger one’s life.
a. Non-mortal wound c. Trauma
b. Mortal wound d. Coup injury
699. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles causing skin discoloration and extreme pain.
a. Sprain c. Fracture
b. Contusion d. Dislocation
700. It is a fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is evident.
a. Simple c. Comminuted
b. Compound d. fracture
701. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external wounds.
a. Sprain c. Hematoma
b. Fracture d. Dislocation
702. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near contact
fire meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is approximately:
a. 6 inches c. 18 inches
b. 12 inches d. 24 inches
703. A physical injury found at the site of the application of force.
a. Extensive injury c. Contre coup injury
b. Coup injury d. Coup and contre coup injury
704. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log and stone.
a. Punctured wound c. Lacerated wound
b. Hack wound d. Incised wound
705. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what wound would be exhibited?
a. Punctured wound c. Lacerated wound
b. Hack wound d. Incised wound