AIIMS-MBBS-2019-25 May-Morning

Physics

1. A person wear normal spectacles in which the distance of

glasses and eyes is approximately 2 cm, then power required is -
5D. If he wears contact lens, then the required power is:
(1) −5.2D
(2) −4.54D
(3) +5.2D
(4) +4.7D

2. If radius of the earth is 6347 km, then what will be difference

between acceleration of free fall and acceleration due to gravity
near the earth's surface?
(1) 0.3400
(2) 0.0340
(3) 0.0034
(4) 0.24
3. A semi circular arc of radius r and a straight wire along the
diameter, both are carrying same current i. Find out magnetic
force per unit length on the small element P, which is at the
centre of curvature.

 µ 0i 2 
(1)  
 4r 
 µ 0i 2 
(2)  
 2r 
 µ 0i 2 
(3)  
 r 
 2µ 0i 2 
(4)  
 r 

4. Find the charge in steady state of the capacitor.

 (1) 10 nC
(2) 20 nC
(3) 30 nC
(4) 40 nC

5. A current of 10 amp is passing through a metallic wire of cross

sectional area 4 × 10−6 m 2 . If the density of the aluminum
conductor is 2.7 gm/cc considering aluminum gives 1 electrons
per atom for conduction find the drift speed of the electrons if
molecular weight of aluminum is 27 gm.
(1) 1.6 × 10−4 m / s
(2) 3.6 × 10−4 m / s
(3) 2.6 × 10−4 m / s
(4) 1.5 × 10−4 m / s

6. If speed of sound in air in 330 m/s then, find the number of

tones present in an open organ pipe of length 1 m whose
frequency if ≤ 1000.
(1) 2
(2) 4
 (3) 8
(4) 6

7. An electrons is revolving in n = 3 orbit. What will be the

magnetic field at the centre of hydrogen atom?
(1) 0.1 T
(2) 5 T
(3) 0.5 T
(4) 0.05 T

8. A light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a young's double

slit. The distance between slits and screen is D = 1.8 m and
distance between slits is d = 0.4 mm. If screen moves with a
speed 4m/s, with what speed first maxima will move ?
(1) 5 mm / s
(2) 4 mm / s
(3) 3 mm / s
(4) 2 mm / s
9. An electron collides elastically with H-like atom and excites it
from ground state to n = 3. Find out the energy transfer to H-like
atom
(1) 12.1 eV
(2) 10.2 eV
(3) 12.75 eV
(4) 10 eV

N1 50
10. A transformer with turns ratio = is connected to a 120
N2 1
volt AC supply. If primary and secondary circuit resistances are
1.5 kΩ and 1 Ω respectively then find out power out put
(1) 5.76 W
(2) 11.4 W
(3) 2.89 W
(4) 7.56 W

11. Modern treatment method P.E.T. is based on !

(1) proton emission
(2) positron emission
 (3) β− emission
(4) particle emission

12. A gun applies a force F on a bullet which is given by

F= (100 − 0.5 ×10 t ) N .
5
The bullet emerges out with speed

400 m / s . Then find out the impulse exerted till force on bullet
becomes zero.
(1) 0.2 N − s
(2) 0.3 N − s
(3) 0.1 N − s
(4) 0.4 N − s


13. A proton is projected with velocity V = 2iˆ in a region where

( )
magnetic field B = ˆi + 3jˆ + 4kˆ µT and electric field

=E 10iˆ µ V / m . Then find out the net acceleration of proton:
(1) 1400 m / s 2
(2) 700 m / s 2
(3) 1000 m / s 2
 (4) 800 m / s 2

14. For the system given below, find the angular frequency of
oscillation?

10
(1)
3
(2) 10 3
20
(3)
3
(4) 20 3
15. For a telescope, focal length of objective lens is 15 cm and focal
length of eye piece is 10 mm. If tube length is 16 cm, then find
the magnification:
(1) 150
(2) 15
(3) 1.5
(4) 10

16. If sink and source temperature of a refrigerator are 4ºC and 15ºC
respectively. Then efficiency of refrigerator is:
(1) 0.076
(2) 0.0382
(3) 0.019
(4) 1

17. In an isothermal process 2 water drops of radius 1 mm are

combined to form a bigger drop. Find the energy change in this
process if T = 0.1 N / m
(1) 1 µJ
(2) 0.5 µJ
 (3) 0.25 µJ
(4) 0.75 µJ

18. The given transistor operates in saturation region then what

should the be value of VBB :

 R out = 200 Ω, R in = 100 kΩ, VCC = 3 volt, VBE = 0.7 volt, 

 
V
 CE = 0, β= 200 

(1) 4.1 volt

(2) 7.5 volt
(3) 8.2 volt
(4) 6.8 volt

19. Body A of mass 4 m moving with speed u collides with another

body B of mass 2 m at rest the collision is head on and elastic in
 nature. After the collision the fraction of energy lost by colliding
body A is :
5
(1)
9
1
(2)
9
8
(3)
9
4
(4)
9

20. A disc of radius 20 cm and mass half kg is rolling on an inclined

plane. Find out friction force so that disc performs pure rolling.

5 2
(1) N
3
5
(2) N
3 2
 5
(3) N
2
5
(4) N
2 3

21. If temperature of Sun = 6000 K , radius of Sun is 7.2 × 105 Km ,

radius of Earth = 6000 Km & distance between earth and

Sum= 15 × 107 Km . Find intensity of light on Earth.

(1) 19.2 × 1016

(2) 12.2 × 1016
(3) 18.3 × 1016
(4) 9.2 × 1016

22. If radius of O 2 molecule = 40Å , T = 27º C and P = 1 atm . Find

the time of relaxation.
(1) 10−10 sec
(2) 10−12 sec
(3) 10−14 sec
(4) 10−8 sec
23. Frequency of L-C circuit is f1 . If a resistance R is also added to
f2
it, the frequency becomes f 2 . The ratio of will be:
f1

R 2C
(1) 1+
4L

R 2C
(2) 1−
4L

R 2C
(3) 1+
L

R 2C
(4) 1−
L

24. If one mole of an ideal gas goes through the process A →B and
PA 1
B → C. Given that TA = 400 K , and TC = 400 K . If = , then
PB 5
find the heat supplied to the gas:
 (1) 2059.2 J
(2) 3659.2 J
(3) 2225.2 J
(4) 2659.2 J

25. A capacitor of capacitance 9nF having dielectric slab of ε r =2.4

dielectric strength 20 MV/m and P.D. = 20V calculate area of
plates.
(1) 2.1× 10−4 m 2
(2) 4.2 × 10−4 m 2
(3) 1.4 × 10−4 m 2
(4) 2.4 × 10−4 m 2
26. In figure two parallel infinitely long current carrying wires are
shown. If resultant magnetic field at point A is zero. Then
determine current I.

(1) 50 A
(2) 15 A
(3) 30 A
(4) 25 A

27. A liquid enter at point A1 with speed 3.5 m/s and leaves at point
A 2 . Then find out the height attained by the liquid above point
A2 .
 (1) 61.25 cm
(2) 51.25 cm
(3) 41.25 cm
(4) 71.25 cm

a b
28. If potential energy is given by U
= − . Then find out
r2 r
maximum force. ( Given= b 4) .
a 2,=
16
(1) − N
27
32
(2) − N
27
32
(3) + N
27
16
(4) + N
27
29. Find γ for the mixture of 11 gm CO 2 and 14 gm N 2 ?
7
(1) γ mi x =
5
10
(2) γ mi x =
5
11
(3) γ mi x =
8
4
(4) γ mi x =
3

30. The de-Broglie wavelength of electron in 3rd orbit of He +1 ion is

approximately
(1) 2Aº
(2) 3Aº
(3) 4Aº
(4) 5Aº

31. Find ratio of acceleration and angular acceleration of com? If for

the below diagram
= m 2=
kg and r 10 cm
 1
(1)
5
1
(2)
10
1
(3)
15
1
(4)
20

32. Energy of electron (in eV) in 2nd orbit of He + ion?

(1) −10.6 eV
(2) −13.6 eV
(3) −15.6 eV
(4) −25.6 eV
33. A toroid having average diameter 2.5 m, number A turns 400,
current = 2A and magnetic field has 10 T what will be induced
magnetic field (in amp/m)
105
(1)
4π
108
(2)
4π
108
(3)
2π
102
(4)
2π

34. Find magnification for lens.

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 7
 (4) 12

35. Calculate radiation power for sphere whose temperature is

227ºC and radius 2 m and emissivity 0.8.
(1) 1425 W
(2) 1500 W
(3) 1255 W
(4) 1275 W

36. Determine efficiency of carnot cycle if in adiabatic expansion

volume 3 times of initial value and r = 1.5
1
(1) 1 −
2
1
(2) 1 −
3
1
(3) 1 +
2
1
(4) 1 +
3
37. Maximum amplitude of SHM so block A will not slip on block
B, K = 100 N / m

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

38. The temperature of food material in refrigerator is 4ºC and

temperature of environment is 15ºC. If carnot cycle is used in its
working gas, then find its carnot efficiency.
(1) 0.038
(2) 0.028
(3) 0.053
(4) 0.072
39. The graph between velocity and position for a damped
oscillation will be :-
(1) Straight line
(2) Circle
(3) Ellipse
(4) Spiral

40. Assertion: In U 235 fission reaction neutrons are required to be

slowed down.
Reason: The probability of capture of slow moving neutrons is
high for U 235 .
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

1
41. Assertion: P v/s graph is straight line for adiabatic process
V
Reason: PV = constant for adiabatic process
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

42. Assertion: Electron moving perpendicular to B ρ will perform

circular motion
Reason: Force by magnetic field is perpendicular to velocity
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

43. Assertion: A glass ball is dropped on concrete floor can easily

get broken compared if it is dropped on wooden floor
Reason: On concrete floor glass ball will take less time to come
to rest
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

44. Assertion: Distance between position of bright and dark fringe

remain same in YDSE
λD
Reason: fringe width β =
d
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

45. Assertion: Paramagnetic substances get poorly attracted in

magnetic field.
 Reason: Because magnetic dipoles are aligned along external
magnetic field weakly
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

46. Assertion: Heavy water is used to slow down neutron in nuclear

reactor
Reason: It does not react with slow speed neutron and mass of
deuterium is comparable to the neutron
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
47. Assertion: Collision between two billiard's ball are inelastic
Reason: Momentum remains conserve during the collision
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

48. Assertion: Rayleigh scattering can be considered as elastic

collisions of photons with massive particles.
Reason: In Rayleigh scattering, the energy of incident and
scattered is same
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

49. Assertion: FM broadcast is better than AM broadcast.

 Reason: Noise change is maximum in amplitude of AM waves.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

50. Assertion: In adiabatic process work is independent of path.

Reason: In adiabatic process work done is equal to negative of
change in internal energy.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

51. Assertion: Water drops take spherical shape when falling freely.
Reason: Water has minimum surface tension among all liquids.
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

52. Assertion: In ionospheric reflection, phase change does not

occurs with the light wave.
Reason: The ionosphere reflection is similar to the total internal
reflection is similar to the total internal reflection in miraj
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

53. Assertion: There is no loss in energy in elastic collision

Reason: Linear momentum is conserved in elastic collision
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

54. Assertion: In both radio activity and photoelectric effect

electrons may be ejected.
Reason: In photoelectric effect and radio activity emission
occurs only of unstable elements.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
55. In hydrogen atom, the electron is moving round the nucleus with
velocity 2.18 × 106 m/s in an orbit of radius 0.528 Å . The
acceleration of the electron is
(1) 9 × 1018 m/s 2

(2) 9 × 1022 m/s 2

(3) 9 × 10−22 m/s 2

(4) 9 × 1012 m/s 2

56. Assertion: On distributing an electric dipole in stable

equilibrium in an electric field, it returns back to its stable
equilibrium orientation.
Reason: A restoring torque acts on the dipole on being
distributed from its stable equilibrium.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
57. Assertion: Diamond glitters brilliantly.
Reason: Diamond does not absorb sunlight.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

58. Assertion: Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron but its
emission spectrum has many lines.
Reason: Only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum
of hydrogen atom whereas in the emission spectrum, all the
series are found.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
59. Assertion: A transistor is a voltage operating device.
Reason: Base current is greater than the collector current.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

60. Assertion: If a compass needle be kept at magnetic north pole

of the earth, the compass needle may stay in any direction.
Reason: Dip needle will stay vertical at the north pole of earth.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
 AIIMS-MBBS-2019-25 May-Morning
Chemistry

61.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

62. Match following coloumn

Polymer Monomer
(i) Buna-S (P) Styrene
(ii) ethylene glycol (Q) terylene
(iii) elastomer (R) chloroprene
Correct set of answer:
(1) (i) – (P) (ii) – (Q) (iii) – (R)
 (2) (i) – (R) (ii) – (P) (iii) – (Q)
(3) (i) – (Q) (ii) – (R) (iii) – (P)
(4) (i) – (P) (ii) – (R) (iii) – (Q)

63. Find the end product of reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

64. Compare stability of free radicals


(I) CH 3 − CH − CH 3 , (II)
  
(III) CH 2 − CH ( CH 3 )2 (IV) CH 2 − CH 3

(1) II > I > III > IV

(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) I > II > III > IV
(4) IV > III > I > II

65. .
Write IUPAC name of following compound
(1) 4–Methoxy–6–Nitro cyclohexene
(2) 5–Methoxy–3–Nitro cyclohexene
(3) 3–Nitro–1–Methoxycyclohex–4–ene
(4) 3–Nitro–5–Methoxy cyclohexene

66.
Identify structure of ‘P’ and ‘Q
Correct order of pK a value is:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
67. Which is incorrect for paper chromatography
(1) It is a part of partition chromatography
(2) It is a stationary phase
(3) R f value decrease when rate of adsorption increase
(4) None of these

68. Order of acidic nature

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) a > c > d > b
(2) a > b > d > c
(3) a > b > c > d
(4) d > c > b > a

69.
 (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

70.

(1)
 (2)

(3)

(4)

71. Assertion: Glucose does not gives 2,4-DNP test

Reason: Glucose exists in cyclic hemiacetal form
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
72. Assertion: Phenol reacts with CH 3I in presence of NaOH to
form methoxybenzene.
Reason: Phenoxide is better nucleophile than phenol
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

73. Which of the following number of lone pair at central atom zero
XeO3 , XeO 2 F2 , XeO 4 , XeO3F2 , Ba 2 XeF4
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) zero

74. Which of the following does not give ppt with CrO 4−2

(1) Ca +2
(2) Sr +2
 (3) Pb +2
(4) Ba +2

75. Calculate emf of cell at 25ºC

Cell notation :
RT
If value of E 0Cell is 4 volt (Given in 10 = 0.06)
F
(1) 3.94 Volt
(2) 4.06 Volt
(3) 2.03 Volt
(4) 8.18 Volt

76. Find out time period of Ist order reaction. When reaction
2
complete rd . If the value of rate constant is 4.3 × 10 –4
3
(1) 0.0025 × 103 sec
(2) 0.25 × 103 sec
(3) 0.025 × 103 sec
(4) 2.5 × 103 sec
77. The vapour pressure of pure CHCl3 and CH 2Cl2 are 200 and
41.5 atm respectively. The weight of CHCl3 and CH 2Cl2 are
resepectively 11.9 g and 17 gm. The vapour pressure of solution
will be
(1) 80.5
(2) 79.5
(3) 94.3
(4) 105.5

78. If n = 2 for He + ion than find out the wave length

°
(1) 3.33 A
°
(2) 6.42 A
°
(3) 1.47 A
°
(4) 2.37 A

79. Correct order of bond dissociation energy

(1) Br2 > Cl2
(2) F2 > Cl2
 (3) I 2 > F2
(4) F2 > I 2

80. When Ag+ reacts with excess of sodium-thio sulphate then the
obtained species having charge & geometry respectively will
be?
(1) −3 , Linear
(2) −2 , tetrahedral
(3) −1, square planer
(4) −3 , square planar

81. The correct relation is:

(5) ∆G =− RT ln K/Q
(6) ∆G =+ RT ln K
(7) ∆G =− RT ln Q/K
(8) ∆G =+ RT ln Q

82. Which of the following has max. solubility at low pH?

(1) NH 4Cl
(2) NaCl
 (3) Na 3PO 4
(4) Sr ( OH )2

83. Which of the following is correct order of packing efficiency?

(1) HCP = FCC > BCC > SC
(2) SC > BCC > HCP =
FCC
(3) BCC > SC > HCP < FCC
(4) FCC= HCP > SC > BCC

84. Find empirical formula of the compound if M = 68% (Atomic

mass=34) and remaining 32% oxygen:
(1) MO
(2) M 2O
(3) MO 2
(4) M 2O3

85. Which of the following is a formula of methanides:

(a) Be 2C (b) CaC2 (c) Mg 2C3 (d) Al4C3
(1) Only a, d
(2) Only a, b
 (3) Only c, d
(4) Only b, d

86. Which of the following inert gas participate in chemical

reaction?
(1) Xe
(2) He
(3) Ne
(4) None

87. The Hybridisation and magnetic behavior of complex

[Ni ( CO )4 ] is :

(1) dsp 2 , paramagnetic

(2) dsp 2 , diamagnetic
(3) sp3 , paramagnetic
(4) sp3 , diamagnetic

88. The tetrahedral voids are present in 0.5 mole of hcp crystal
structure.
(1) 3.6 × 1023
 (2) 9 × 1023
(3) 3.6 × 1024
(4) 6.02 × 1023

89. Which element can have oxidation state from 4 to 6 ?

(1) Fe
(2) Mg
(3) Co
(4) Cr

90. Which of the following statement is incorrect about colloidal

solution?
(1) Lyophobic sols are more stable than lyophilic sols.
(2) Lyophilic colloids have a unique property of protecting
lyophobic colloids
(3) Lyophilic colloids are more soluble then lyophilic colloids.
(4) None of these

91. On Heating hydrazoic acid form

(1) NH 3
 (2) N 2 + NH 3
(3) N 2 H 4 + NH 3
(4) H 2 + 3N 2

92. Assertion: ZnO becomes yellow when it is heated.

Reason: The anionic sites occupied by unpaired electrons (due
to F-centres)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

1
93. Assertion: The graph between P V/s is a straight line.
V
Reason: The anionic sites occupied by unpaired electrons (due
to F-centres)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
 (2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

94. Assertion: Yb +2 is more stable in compare to Gd +2

Reason: The electronic configuration of Gdis [ Xe] 4f 7 5d 2 6s 2 .

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

95. Assertion: The chemical properties of different isotope are

same.
Reason: Isotopes having same number of neutron.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
 (2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

96. Which metals upon heating in presence of air followed by

hydrolysis gives Ammonia.
(1) Li, K
(2) Rb, Mg
(3) Li, Mg
(4) Ca, K

97. At 25ºC 1 mole of butane is heated then CO 2 and H 2O liquid is

formed work done is :
(1) 75.6 atm
(2) 85.6 atm
(3) 50.3 atm
(4) None of these

98. The element having greatest difference between its first and
second ionization energies, is:
 (1) Ca
(2) Sc
(3) Ba
(4) K

99. The ion that has sp 3d 2 hybridization for the central atom is :

[ ICl4 ]
−
(1)

(2) [ ICl2 ]−
[ IF6 ]
−
(3)

[ BrF2 ]
−
(4)

100. Consider the van der Waals constants, a and b, for the following
gages,
Gas Ar Ne Kr Xe
a / ( atm dm 6 mol−2 ) 1.3 0.2 5.1 4.1

b / (10−2 dm3mol−1 ) 3.2 1.7 1.0 5.0

Which gas is expected to have the highest critical temperature?

(1) Kr
(2) Ne
 (3) Xe
(4) Ar

101. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of each of FeC2O 4 ,

Fe 2 ( C2O 4 )3 , FeSO 4 and Fe 2 ( SO 4 )3 in acidic medium, the

number of moles of KMnO 4 required is:

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 1.5

102. The synonym for water gas when used in the production of
methanol is :
(1) natural gas
(2) fuel gas
(3) laughing gas
(4) syn gas

103. The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali metal ions

is:
 (1) Li + > Na + > K + > Cs + > Rb +
(2) Na + > Li + > K + > Rb + > Cs +
(3) Na + > Li + > K + > Cs + > Rb +
(4) Li + > Na + > K + > Rb + > Cs +

104. Air pollution that occurs in sunlight is:

(1) reducing smog
(2) acid rain
(3) oxidizing smog
(4) fog

105. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm. x

is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass m of the adsorbent. The
x x
plot of versus log p is shown in the given graph. is
m m
proportional to :
 (1) p 2/3
(2) p 3/2
(3) p3
(4) p2

106. During the change of O 2 to O −2 , the incoming electron goes to

the orbital :
(1) π 2 p y

(2) σ * 2 pz
(3) π * 2 px
(4) π 2 px

107. Assertion: Molecular weight of a compound is 180, if its vapour

density is 90.
vapour density
Reason: Molecular weight = .
2
(5) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(6) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
 (7) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(8) If both assertion and reason are false.

108. Assertion: In absorption spectrum, n f > n i , while in emission

spectrum, n f > n i
Reason: Energy is limited in absorption spectrum, that is,
electron moves from lower to higher orbit and energy is
absorbed in emission spectrum, because election jumps from
higher to lower orbit.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

109. Assertion: At equilibrium, ∆G =

0.
Reason: At equilibrium, ∆G 0 =
RT log K c .
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
 (2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

110. Assertion: Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5, is + 10 by

conventional method is wrong.
Reason: Because the maximum oxidation state of Cr can not be
more than +6 since it has 5 electron in 3d orbital and one
electron in 4s orbital.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

111. Assertion: The alkali metal dissolves in liquid NH3, giving deep
blue solution.
Reason: Blue colour of the solution is due to the ammoniated
electron which absorbs energy in visible region of light.
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

112. Assertion: The melting point of trans-isomer is higher than that

of corresponding cis-isomer.
Reason: trans-isomer being symmetrical fits more closely in the
crystal lattice than cis-isomer.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

113. Assertion: The reduction in concentration of the dissolved

oxygen in water is caused by eutrophication.
Reason: This is due to phosphate pollution in water.
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

114. Assertion: One mole of silver deposits by 1 Faraday charge.

Reason: Faraday charge required depends upon no of electron.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

115. Assertion: La(OH)3 is the most basic, while Lu(OH)3 is the least
basic.
Reason: As the size of lanthanoids decreases, covalent character
of hydroxides decreases and basic character increases.
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

116. Assertion: is less reactive than towards

nucleophilic substitution reactions ( SN1) .
Reason: Alkyl halides which can form less stable carbocation
favour SN1 reaction.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

117. Assertion: The p-chlorobenzoic acid is stronger than benzoic

acid.
 Reason: This is due to +M effect of chlorine.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

118. Assertion: Soframycin is applied to diseased skin surface and

wounds.
Reason: Soframycin is an antibiotic.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

119. Assertion: Complementary base pairing occurs in DNA.

 Reason: This is because adenine is combined with cytosine with
a double bond and guanine is combined with thymin with a
triple bond.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

120. Assertion: Mg cannot be obtained by reduction of its metal

oxide by aluminium.
Reason: Mg is less electropositive than Al.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
 AIIMS-MBBS-2019-25 May-Morning
Biology

121. Identify the diagram

(1) (a)- Laminaria, (b)- Porphyra, (c)- Fucus, (d)- Polysiphonia

(2) (a)- Polysiphonia, (b)- Laminaria, (c)- Porphyra, (d)- Fucus
(3) (a)- Fucus, (b)- Porphyra, (c)- Laminaria, (d)- Polysiphonia
(4) (a)- Fucus, (b)- Laminaria, (c)- Porphyra, (d)- Polysiphonia

122. Select the correct digram.

123.

Identify a, b, and c
(1) (a) Elongation, (b) Termination, (c) Initiation
(2) (a) Initiation, (b) Termination, (c) Elongation
(3) (a) Initiation, (b) Elongation, (c) Termination
(4) (a) Termination, (b) Elongation, (c) Initiation

124. Match the column I and II

Column-I Column-II
(a) Parasitism (i) ++
(b) Commensalism (ii) +-
(c) Amensalism (iii) 0+
(d) Mutualism (iv) 0-
 (1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

125. Genes on same chromosome can be

(1) Linked
(2) Homologous
(3) Autosomes
(4) Identical alleles

126. Match the Column-I with II

Column I Column II
(1) Pusa Shubhra (a) Leaf and stripe rust
(2) Pusa swarnim (b) Curl blight black rot
(3) Pusa sadabahar (c) Chily mosaic virus
(4) Himgiri (d) White rust
(1) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
(2) 1-b, 2-d, 3-dc, 4-a
(3) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
 (4) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c

127. Which of the following is correct about symplast?

(1) Living continuum
(2) Cell wall and intercellular space
(3) Non-Living continuum
(4) None of these

128. Match the Column-I with II

Column I Column II
(i) Elaioplast (a) Storage of starch
(ii) Aleuroplast (b) Storage of fat
(iii) Amyloplast (c) Storage of protein
(iv) Chromoplast (d) Colored pigments
(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(2) i-d, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(4) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d

129. Virus free plants can be formed by

(1) Meristem culture
 (2) Callus culture
(3) Somatic cell culture
(4) Protoplast fusion

130. Which of the following is correct set of macronutrients?

(1) K, B, C, H
(2) K, H, Mn, N
(3) C, Zn, H, N
(4) C, H, Mg, N

131. Percentage of (G + C) is
G+C
(1) ×100
( A+G+T+C )
100
(2) ×G+C
( A+T )
G+C
(3)
( A+G+T+C )
(G+C) × (A +T)
(4)
100

132. Arrange them on the basis of increasing size:

 (1) Nucleotide, chromosome, gene, genome
(2) Genome, chromosome, Nucleotide gene
(3) Nucleotide, genome, gene, chromosome
(4) Nucleotide, gene, chromosome, genome

133. Which of the following is microelement?

(1) Ca
(2) Mg
(3) Mn
(4) S

134. The genetic code of proline are :

(1) CCC CCG CCU
(2) CUU UCA CUG
(3) GUU GUC GUG
(4) GGU GUC GGA

135. The coding strand of DNA is :

5´AATTCAAATTAGG3´
What is the sequence of mRNA?
(1) 3´TTAAGTTTAATCC5´
 (2) 5´AAUUCAAAUUAGG3´
(3) 3´AAUUCAAAUUAGG5´
(4) 5´TTAAGTTTAATCC3´

136. Match the following:

(1) A-Tobacco mosaic virus, B-Coccus, C-Bacillus

(2) A-Coccus, B-Bacillus, C- Tobacco mosaic virus
(3) A-Bacillus, B-Coccus, C- Tobacco mosaic virus
(4) A-Coccus, B- Tobacco mosaic virus, C-Bacillus

137. Synthesis of lipid is function of:

(1) SER
(2) RER
(3) Golgi body
(4) Mitochondria

138. DNA polymerase links nucleotide by forming which type of

bond:
 (1) Phosphodiester bond
(2) Hydrogen bond
(3) Hydrogen bond
(4) Ester bond

139. Match the following:

(a) Siliqua (i) Lycopersicumesculentum
(b) Caryopsis (ii) Triticumaestivum
(c) Berry (iii) Helianthus annuus
(d) Cypsela (iv) Brassica campestris
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

140. Select the wrong statement:

(1) The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide
bases
(2) Less than 10% of the genome codes for protein
(3) Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the
human genome
 (4) Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968) and Y has the fewest
(231)

141. Match the Column-I with II

Column-I Column-II
(a) Pleiotropic gene (i) Both allele express equally
(b) Co-dominance (ii) Change in nucleotide
(c) Epistasis (iii) One gene shows multiple
phenotypic expression
(d) Mutation (iv) Rust disease
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

142. Match the Column-I with II

Column-I Column-II
(a) K.C. Mehta (i) Fluid mosaic
model
(b) P.Maheshwari (ii) First
 recombinant
plasmid
(c) Cohen and Boyer (iii) Haploid
culture
(d) Singer and Nicolson (iv) Rust disease
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

143. Choose the correct statement.

(1) Transcription and translation occur in same compartment for
prokaryotes
(2) Monocistonic RNA-more than one structural genes under
single promoter
(3) Introns and exons both code for protein synthesis
(4) In prokaryotes, splicing and tailing occurs before translation.

144. Assertion : In eukaryotes, both intron and exon are transcribed

to form hnRNA
Reason : Splicing is required in prokaryotes
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

145. Assertion: Parthenocarpy involves formation of seedless fruit.

Reason: Apomixis occurs without fertilization
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

146. Assertion: Somaclonal variations produce slight differences in

plant
Reason: In bacteria, transcription and translation occurs in
cytoplasm
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

147. Assertion: In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in nucleus

Reason: In bacteria, transcription and translation occurs in
cytoplasm.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

148. Assertion: Fig and wasp cannot complete their life cycle
without each other.
Reason: It is mutualistic relationship
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

149. Assertion: Biofortification is used to increase nutrient value of

crops
Reason: Meristem culture is used to obtain virus resistant plants
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

150. Assertion: Isolated protoplasts are used for somatic

hybridisation
Reason: Callus culture does not allow variation
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

151. Assertion: In C3 cycle, the first stable compound is 3C

compound
Reason: In C4 plants Calvin cycle is absent
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

152. Assertion: In vernalization, flowering is induced by low

temperature
Reason: ABA is growth inhibiting hormone
 If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

153. Assertion: In commensalism, one organism is benefitted and

other is unaffected
Reason: Cattle egret bird and cattle is an example of
commensalism
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
154. Identify the given diagram of tissue performing secretion and
absorption

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
(4) Stratified columnar epithelium

155. Cervical vertebrae differ from other vertebra in having -

(1) Spinous process
(2) Centrum
(3) Transverse process
(4) Transverse foramen

156. Protein on reaction with which yields Ruhemann's purple?

(1) Ninhydrin
(2) Cu2+
(3) H2O2
 (4) Benedict's solution

157. Which maintains static equilibrium -

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Utricle &Saccule
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Semicircular canal

158. Which of the following is correct about biogas –

(1) Methane gas is produced along with ethyl alcohol by
methanogen.
(2) Methanogens acts on cellulose and release biogas
(3) Biogas is produced by thunder and lightening
(4) Maximum gas found in biogas is CO2

159. Blood group of the father is A and blood group of mother is B.

Then predict the blood group of the progeny -
(1) A, AB
(2) A, B, AB, O
(3) B, AB
(4) O, A, B
160. Skeletal muscles are controlled by -
(1) Sympathetic nervous system
(2) Parasympathetic nervous system
(3) Somatic nervous system
(4) Sympathetic and parasympathetic both

161. Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is affected by-

(1) Natural selection
(2) New mutation
(3) Genetic drift
(4) All of the above

162. Mark the incorrect statement for inbreeding

(1) Inbreeding depression increases productivity
(2) Inbreeding depression can be overcome by outcrossing
(3) Produces purelines
(4) Increases homozygosity

163. Mark the correct one

(1) Labeo – Internal fertilization
 (2) Frog – Internal fertilization
(3) Birds – external fertilization
(4) Balaenoptera – internal fertilization

164. Mark the correct statement

(1) Saheli is once a week oral contraceptive
(2) Progestasert releases estrogen
(3) Cu-T is a barrier method
(4) Vasectomy and tubectomy are temporary methods of
contraception

165. Choose the correct statement for Periplaneta americana

(1) It has 6 muscular hearts
(2) It has 10 thoracic segments
(3) Anal style is present in both male and female
(4) It is nocturnal and present in damp places

166. Animal of which phylum have hooks and suckers and are
endoparasite on other animals
(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Annelida
 (3) Ascheminthes
(4) Arthropoda

167. Nucleoside is:

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) D and A

168. Acoelomate animals with flame cells are :

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Annelida
(3) Ascheminthes
(4) Arthropoda

169. In Gene cloning :

(1) Gene is isolated and inserted in same organism
 (2) Gene is isolated and inserted in different organism
(3) Gene is isolated and inserted in plasmid of other organism
(4) Gene is isolated and inserted in chromosomal DNA

170. Assertion: Amoxicillin is a broad spectrum antibiotic

Reason: It is derived from penicilin G
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

171. Assertion: 100 ml of blood delivers 5 ml O2 to tissues in

normal conditions
Reason: One molecule of Hb can bind with 4 molecules of O2
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
 (4) If both assertion and reason are false.

172. Assertion: Proto-oncogenes are present in normal cells

Reason: Proto-oncogenes may causes malignant tumour in
animals, if activated
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

173. Mark the correct statement regarding earthworm.

(1) One pair of female genital pores are present in 14th segment.
(2) Four pairs of spermathecae are situated on ventro lateral
sides of the intersegmental grooves i.e. 5th segments.
(3) Clitellum is present in 13-15 segements.
(4) Four pairs of spermathecae are located in 6th-9th segments.

174. Assertion: Malpighian tubules are excretory organs in most of

the insects
 Reason: These help in excretion of urea and creatinine
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

175. Assertion: Opioids are used as drugs of abuse

Reason: These slow down metabolism and produce
hallucinations
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

176. Assertion: Amount of cyanocobalamine required daily is 3

mcg
Reason: Its deficiency causes pernicious anaemia
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

177. Assertion: Cockroach shows sexual dimorphisms.

Reason: The female cockroach bears a pair of short thread like
anl styles.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

178. Assertion: Insertion of recombinant DNA within the coding

sequence of β -galactosidase results in colourless colonies.
Reason: Presence of insert results in inactivation of enzyme β -
galactosidase known as insertional inactivation.
 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

179. Assertion: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic

engineering because this bacterium is associated with roots of all
cereals and pulse crops.
Reason: A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal
genome gets automatically transferred to the crop with which
the bacterium is associated.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

180. Assertion: Na and K ions are necessary for muscle contraction.

Reason: Na and K concentration changes across the muscle cell
membrane resulting in development of potential difference.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
 AIIMS-MBBS-2019-25 May-Morning
General knowledge and mental ability

181. In a Shopping Plaza, 20% discount is being offered on a product

of Rs. 2000/-. If the Shop Owner offers 10% additional discount
on the actual/initial price at the time of billing, what will the
final price of the product?
(1) 1800
(2) 1600
(3) 1440
(4) 1400

182. There are 2 Blue, 2 Green & 2 Red balls in a Bag. If 3 of these
balls are taken out of the bag, what is the probability that there is
One ball of each color in these three.
(1) 3/5
(2) 2/5
(3) 2/3
(4) none of these
183. The four letters in the box have certain relationship. Then what
will replace the question mark?

(1) K
(2) M
(3) L
(4) None of these

184. What will be the next number in the series: 1, 2, 4, 7, 11, ?

(1) 15
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) None of these

185. My sister is half of my age. After 10 Years. She will be 3/4th of

my age. How old is she now?
(1) 5
(2) 10
 (3) 15
(4) None of these

186. There are 3 bells. Bell 1 rings after every 3 minutes, bell 2 after
every 6 minutes & ball 3 after every 15 minutes. After how
many minutes will they ring together?
(1) 15
(2) 24
(3) 30
(4) None of these

187. If fig (c) related to fig (d) in the same way, as fig (1) related to
fig (b). Then which fig, will come at question mark.

(1)
 (2)

(3)

(4)

188. 80 students can speak English, 60 French and 50 German, 40

students speak English and French. 30 students speak French
and German, 25 students speak English and German and 10
students speak all 3 languages. How many students can speak
only 2 language?
(1) 95
(2) 85
(3) 65
(4) None of these

189. The following paper is folded and cut as shown. Find the pattern
on unfolded paper?
 (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

190. Find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
India : ₹:: UK : ?
(1) $
(2) £
(3) @
(4) None of these
191. Arrange the following states in decreasing order of their LOK
SABHA seats.
(1) Madhya Pradesh > Maharashtra > Bihar > West Bengal
(2) Maharashtra > Bihar > West Bengal > Madhya Pradesh
(3) Madhya Pradesh > Maharashtra > Bihar > West Bengal
(4) Maharashtra > West Bengal > Bihar > Madhya Pradesh

192. Loksabha Elections 2019 have been conducted in how many

phases?
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9

193. Rafale fighter aircraft is designed & built by which company?

(1) Airbus Group
(2) Lockheed Martin
(3) Raytheon Company
(4) Dassault Aviation
194. WikiLeaks founder Julian Assange was arrested recently from
the embassy of
(1) France
(2) Italy
(3) Ecuador
(4) Dubai

195. Among the following rivers, which river has a different

direction of flow?
(1) Godavari
(2) Kaveri
(3) Narmada
(4) Krishna

196. Who is the new Chief Justice of India?

(1) Ranjan Gogoi
(2) Govind Mathur
(3) Pradeep Nandrajog
(4) Gita Mittal

197. Who presents the annual budget?

 (1) Prime minister
(2) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(3) Finance Minister
(4) Finance Secretary

198. How many gold medals did India win in the 2018 Asian Games?
(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 15
(4) 20

199. What is the highest peak in india?

(1) Nanda Devi
(2) Kanchenjunga
(3) Kamet
(4) Yalung Kang

200. Which virus attack affected the National Health Service in

England?
(1) Marburg virus
(2) Swine Flu
(3) Nipah Virus
(4) Wanna Cry
 AIIMS-MBBS-2019-25 May-Morning
Answer key

1 2 41 4 81 1 121 3 161 4
2 1 42 2 82 4 122 1 162 1
3 1 43 1 83 1 123 2 163 4
4 * 44 1 84 1 124 4 164 1
5 3 45 1 85 1 125 1 165 4
6 4 46 1 86 1 126 2 166 1
7 4 47 2 87 4 127 1 167 2
8 2 48 1 88 3 128 4 168 1
9 1 49 1 89 4 129 1 169 2
10 1 50 1 90 1 130 4 170 4
11 2 51 4 91 4 131 1 171 2
12 3 52 1 92 1 132 4 172 2
13 1 53 2 93 3 133 3 173 2
14 3 54 3 94 3 134 1 174 3
15 2 55 2 95 3 135 2 175 3
16 2 56 1 96 3 136 2 176 2
17 2 57 2 97 2 137 1 177 3
18 3 58 2 98 4 138 1 178 1
19 3 59 4 99 1 139 3 179 4
20 2 60 2 100 1 140 2 180 1
21 1 61 2 101 1 141 3 181 4
22 2 62 1 102 4 142 2 182 2
23 2 63 4 103 4 143 1 183 3
24 4 64 2 104 3 144 3 184 2
25 2 65 2 105 1 145 2 185 1
26 3 66 3 106 3 146 2 186 3
27 1 67 2 107 3 147 2 187 2
28 1 68 2 108 4 148 1 188 3
29 3 69 1 109 3 149 3 189 1
30 4 70 1 110 1 150 2 190 2
31 4 71 1 111 1 151 3 191 4
32 2 72 1 112 1 152 2 192 3
33 2 73 1 113 1 153 1 193 4
34 2 74 1 114 1 154 1 194 3
35 1 75 1 115 3 155 4 195 3
36 2 76 4 116 4 156 1 196 1
37 3 77 3 117 3 157 2 197 3
38 1 78 1 118 3 158 2 198 3

39 4 79 4 119 3 159 2 199 2

40 1 80 1 120 3 160 3 200 4
 AIIMS-MBBS-2019-25 May-Morning
Solutions – Physics

1. Consider the following figure.

For glasses:
Write the lens equation.
1 1 1
− =
v u f
Substitute the values as,
1 1 1
− =
−x ∞ f
f = − x cm
x
= −
100
The expression of power is given by,
1
Power =
f
Therefore,
 100
Power = −
x
100
−5 =−
x
x = 20 cm
If he used contact lens,
Consider the following figure.

Here,
v = −∞ , and u = −22 cm
Therefore,
1 1 1
− − =
∞ −22 f
f = 22
Therefore, power will be as,
100
p' = − D
22
= −4.54D
2. The expression acceleration due to gravity near the earth surface
is given by,
GM
g=
R2
= 9.8
The expression acceleration of free fall is given by,
GM 2
g free=
fall 2
− ω R
R
= 9.8 − ω2 R
Solve the difference as follows.
ω2 R
g − g free fall =
2
 2π 
=  R
 T 
4π2
= × 6347 × 103
( 24 × 60 × 60 )
2

= 0.03401

3. The expression of magnetic force is given by,

F = Bi
F  µ 0i 2 
= Bi
=  
  4r 
4. The capacitor is in parallel to 100 Ω resistance of volt will be as,
V = IR
Substitute the values,
 12 
V=  200
 300 
=8V
The expression of charge is given by,
q = cV
= 1× 8
= 8 nC

5. The expression to calculate the drift speed is given by,

i = neAv d
Calculate the value of n as follows.
NA M
n
= ×
V mw
N Aρ
=
mw
6 × 1023 × 2.7 × 103
=
27 × 10−3
= 6 × 1028
Substitute the values in the above expression.
 i = neAv d
i
vd =
neA
10 × 1019
=
6 × 1028 × 4 × 10−6 × 1.6
= 2.6 × 10−4 m / s

6. The expression of fundamental frequency is given by,

v
f=
2
Substitute the values as,
330
f=
2 ×1
= 165 Hz
Calculate the number of overtones allowed as,
1000
n=
165
=6
7. The expression for magnetic field is given by,
µ 0i
B=
2r
µ eV
= 0×
2r 2πr
µ eV
= 0 2
4πr
Calculate the potential as,

V
= ( 2.18 ×10 )  13 
6

= 7.3 × 105 m / s
Calculate the value of r as,
0  32 
 
r =  0.529 A   
  1 
0
= 7.461 A
Substitute all values in the above expression as.
µ 0eV
B=
4πr 2

=
(10−7 )(1.6 ×10−19 )( 7.3 ×105 )
4.761× 4.761× 10−20
= 0.0515 T
8. Consider the following expression.
λD
β=
d
Differentiate the above expression.
dβ λ dD
=
dt d dt
Substitute the values as,
500 × 10−9
−4 ( )
VB = 4
4 × 10
= 5 mm / s

9. The expression of energy transferred to H-like atom is given by,

 1 1 
E=
−13.6  2 − 2  eV
 n1 n 2 
Substitute the values as,
 1 1 
E= −13.6  2 − 2  eV
 (1) ( 3) 
 
= 12.1 eV
10. Consider the following expression.
V2 N 2
=
V1 N1
Substitute the values as,
V2 1
=
120 50
12
V2 =
5
Let transformer is ideal.
Pin = Pout
Therefore,
V22
Pout =
R2
Substitute the values as,

(12 / 5)
2

Pout =
10
= 5.76 W

11. P.E.T. is positron emission tomography is a nuclear medicine

functional imaging technique used to observe metabolic
processes to diagnosis of disease.
 F18 → positron + r rays, used to detect cancer,
heart prob. brain dis-order

12. Consider the given expression.

F= (100 − 0.5 ×10 t ) N
5

Given that, F = 0

(100 − 0.5 ×10 t ) =

5
0
100
t=
0.5 × 105
= 2 × 10−3 sec
Calculate the impulse as,
I = ∫ Fdt

∫ (100 − 0.5 ×10 t ) dt

5
=
 105 t 2 
= 100t −
 2 2 
 ( ) 
2
5 2 × 10 −3
10
= 100 ( 2 × 10 ) −
−3 
 2 2 
 
= 0.1 Ns
13. The expression of force is given by,
   
(
F =QE + Q V × B )
= (1.6 ×10 ) (10iˆ ×10 ) + (1.6 ×10 ) ( 2iˆ ) × ( ˆi + 3jˆ + 4kˆ ) ×10
−19 −6 −19 −9

= (1.6 ×10 ) 10iˆ − 8jˆ + 6kˆ  ×10 N

−19 −6

Calculate the acceleration as follows,

 (1.6 × 10 ) 10iˆ − 8jˆ + 6kˆ  × 10 N

−19 −6

a=
1.6 × 10−27
= 1400 m / s 2

14. Use energy method.

1 2 1 1
Kx + mv 2 + Iω2 =C
2 2 2
1 dx 1 dv 1 2v dv
K ( 2x ) + m ( 2v ) + I 2 0
=
2 dt 2 dt 2 r dt
m m
Kvx + va + va = 0
4 2
3ma
− Kx =
4
Simplify further.
 4K
a= − x = −ω2 x
3m
4K
ω2 =
3m
4K
ω=
3m
Substitute the values as,
4 (100 )
ω=
3 (1)
20
= rad / sec
3

15. The expression of magnification is given by,

f0
m=
fe
Substitute the values as,
15
m=
1
= 15
16. The efficiency of refrigerator is given by,
 T 
η= 1 − 2 
 T1 
Substitute the values as,
 273 + 4 
η= 1 − 
 273 + 15 
11
=
288
= 0.0382

17. The expression of energy change in process is given by,

∆U = T∆A
Use volume conservation as,
4 4
2 × π (1) = πR 3
3

3 3
R = 21/3
Substitute the values in the energy expression as,
∆U = T∆A

( − (2 ))
2
= ( 0.1) × 4π 1 2 1/3

4π ( 0.41× 10−6 ) J
=
= 0.52 µJ
18. Consider the given figure.

From the above figure,

V=
CE VCC − IC R 0
0= 3 − IC ( 200 )
3
IC =
200
= 15 mA
As we know that,
IC
β=
IB
15 mA
IB =
200
= 75 µA
Therefore,
V=
BE VBB − I B R in
VBB = 0.7 + ( 75 × 10−6 )(100 × 103 )
= 8.2 V
19. The expression of final velocity is given by,
 M 2 − M1  2M1u1
VB  u
 2 +
 M 2 + M1  M 2 + M1

Here,
M1 = 4M , u1 = u
M 2 = 2M , u 2 = 0
Therefore,
 2M − 4M  2 ( 4M ) u
VB   ( 0 ) +
 2M + 4M  2M + 4M
4
= u
3
The fraction of energy lost by colliding body A is as,
2
1 4
1
M 2 VB2 ( 2M )   u 2
2 2 3
=
1 1
M1u12 ( 4M ) u 2
2 2
8
=
9
20. Consider the following figure.

From the above figure,

Mgsin θ − f = ma cm
As we know that,
τcm = Icm α
And,
MR 2  a cm 
f=  
2  R2 
Ma cm
=
2
2f
a cm = R
M
Therefore,
  2f 
mg sin θ − f = M  
M
mg sin θ
f=
3
Substitute the values.
1  10   1 
f =  
2  3   2 
5
= N
3 2

21. Consider the following figure.

The expression of total energy emitted by Sun is given by,

σT 4 ( 4πR 2 )
E=

The expression of total energy received by Sun is given by,

σT 4 ( 4πR s 2 )
π(Re )
2
=E'
4πd 2
σT 4 R s 2
=
d2
( πR e
2
)
 Substitute the values.

( 5.67 × 10 ) ( 6000 ) ( 7.2 × 10 ) ( 3.14 ) ( 6000 × 10 )

4 2
−8 8 3

E' =
(1.5 ×10 )
2
11

= 19.2 × 1016

22. As we know that,

λ 1 m0
=τ =
Vrms 2πnd 2 3RT
Now,
N µN a
n
= =
V V
And,
PV = µRT
µ P
=
V RT
So,
P
n
= × Na
RT
Therefore,
m 0 RT
τ=
2πPN a d 2 3RT
 Substitute the values.

( 32 ) ( 3 × 8.3 × 10−1 )
τ=
2 ( 3.14 ) (10 )( 6.02 ×10 )( 40 ×10 )
2
5 23 −10

= 0.01× 10−10
= 10−12 sec

23. The frequency f1 is given as,

1
f1 =
LC
The frequency f 2 is given as,
2 2
 1   R 
=f1   −  2L 
 LC   
Take the ratio as,
2 2
 1   R 
  −  2L 
f2  LC   
=
f1 1
LC
R 2C
= 1−
4L
24. The expression to calculate the heat supply to the gas is give as,
∆Q =n∆T ( CP − C v )

Substitute the values.

∆Q =n∆T ( CP − C v )
 400 
= 1× 8.31×  400 − 
 5 
= 2659.2 J

25. Let the separation between plants is d. Therefore,

v
E=
d
Substitute the values.
v
E=
d
20
20 × 106 =
d
d = 10−6 m
The expression of capacitance is given by,
ε 0 Aε r
C=
d
Substitute the values.
 9 × 10−9
(
=
8.85 × 10 ) A ( 2.4 )
−12

10−6

A=
( 9 ×10−15 )
(8.85 × 2.4 ×10 ) −12

= 4.2 × 10−4 m 2

26. Consider the following figure.

At point A
B1 = B2
µ 0i1 µ 0i 2
=
2πr1 2πr2
i1 10
=
29 9
i1 = 30 A
27. Consider the following figure.

Here,
A1 = A 2 so V=
1 V=
2 3.5 m / s
Use Bernoulli theorem.
1 1
Patm + ρ ( 3.5 ) + ρg ( =
0 ) Patm + ρ ( 0 ) + ρgh
2 2

2 2
( 3.5 × 3.5)
2

h=
2g
= 0.6125 m
= 61.25 cm

28. The expression of force is given as,

du  2a b 
F =− =−  − 3 + 2 
dr  r r 
2a b
= 3 − 2
r r
Substitute the values.
 2× 2 4
Fmax
= −
(3 / 2) (3 / 2)
3 2

4×8 4× 4
= −
27 9
16
= −
27

29. Moles of CO 2 are,

11
Moles of CO 2 =
44
= 0.25
Moles of N 2 are,
14
Moles of N 2 =
28
= 0.50
The value of γ for the mixture of gases is given by the relation,
n1 + n2 n1 n
= + 2
γ mix − 1 γ 1 − 1 γ 2 − 1
Where, n1 and n2 are the number of moles of the two gases and
γ mix is the specific heat ratio for mixture. Therefore,
 0.25 + 0.50 0.25 0.50
= +
γ mix − 1 1.29 − 1 1.4 − 1
0.75
= 0.862 + 1.25
γ mix − 1
2.112γ=
mix 0.75 + 2.112
γ mix ≈ 1.4
7
=
5

30. The expression of wavelength is given as,

2πr
λ=
n
Substitute the values.
n2
2π ( 0.529 A )
λ= z
n
3
= 2π ( 0.529 A )
2
0
=5A

31. The acceleration is given as,

F 20
a
= = = 10
m 2
 As we know that,
τ = Iα
1 1
( 2 )( 0.1) × α
2
20 ×
=
10 z
α =200
Take the ratio.
a 10
=
α 200
1
=
20

32. The expression of energy is given by,

z2
E = −13.6 2
n
Substitute the values.

( 2)
2

E= −13.6 2
( 2)
= −13.6 eV

33. The expression to calculate the induced magnetic field is given

as,
 µ0 ( H + I )
B=
 N 
=µ 0  ×i + I
 2πr 
Substitute the values.
 N 
10 =µ 0  ×i + I
 2πr 
10 400 × 2 × 2
= I −
4π × 10−7 2π × 2.5
108
=
4π

34. Consider the lens equation.

1 1 1
− =
v u f
Substitute the values.
1 1 1
− =
v 20 25
1 1 1
= −
v 25 20
4−5
=
100
v = −100
The magnification is given as,
 v
m=
u
−100
=
−20
=5

35. The expression of power is given as,

P = σAeT 4
Substitute the values.
=P ( 5.67 ×10−8 )( 4π × 22 ) ( 0.8)( 227 + 273) 2

≈ 1425 W

36. Consider the following expression.

T1V1r −1 = T2 V2r −1
V −1
T2  V1 
= 
T1  V2 
Substitute the values.
1.5−1
T2  1 
= 
T1  3 
1
=
3
 The efficiency is given as,
T2
η = 1−
T1
1
= 1−
3

37. The expression of force is given as,

m 2A =
F =ω µmg
So,
µg
A=
ω2
And
K
ω=
m
So,
100
ω=
1.5
Substitute the values.
 A=
( 0.4 )( 9.8 )
2
 100 
 
 1.5 
= 6 cm

38. The efficiency is given as,

T2
η = 1−
T1
Substitute the values.
273 + 4
η = 1−
273 + 15
= 0.038

39. In damped oscillation, the amplitude will decrease so the graph

of V v/s x will be as,
40. In U 235 fission reaction neutrons are required to be slowed down
because the probability of capture of slow moving neutrons is
high for U 235 .
Therefore, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

1
41. P v/s y
is not straight line process equation for adiabatic
V
PV y ≠ constant.
Therefore, both assertion and reason are false.

42. If F ⊥ V at all instants then motion will be circular.

Therefore, both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion.

43. Force exerted by concrete floor is more because change in

momentum is fast.
Therefore, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
44. Distance between consecutive fringe is independent of its
number.
Therefore, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

45. Paramagnetic substances get poorly attracted in magnetic field

because magnetic dipoles are aligned along external magnetic
field weakly.
Therefore, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

46. Heavy water is used to slow down neutron in nuclear reactor

because it does not react with slow speed neutron and mass of
deuterium is comparable to the neutron.
Therefore, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

47. Billiard's ball are not perfect elastic body. Some part of initial
kinetic energy is lost in form of deformation energy and
momentum remains conserved during every collision.
 Therefore, both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion.

48. Rayleigh scattering can be considered as elastic collisions of

photons with massive particles because in Rayleigh scattering,
the energy of incident and scattered is same.
Therefore, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

49. FM broadcast is better than AM broadcast because noise change

is maximum in amplitude of AM waves.
FM broadcast is better than AM broadcast because in AM
broadcast electric signals superimpose with main signal.
Therefore, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

50. In adiabatic process work is independent of path because in

adiabatic process work done is equal to negative of change in
internal energy.
For adiabatic process,
 Q =0 =∆U + W
W = −∆U
Therefore, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

51. Water drops take oval shape when falling freely. Surface tension
of water is not minimum among all liquids.
Therefore, both assertion and reason are false.

52. In ionospheric reflection, phase change does not occurs with the
light wave because the ionosphere reflection is similar to the
total internal reflection is similar to the total internal reflection
in miraj and in total internal reflection the reflection occurs from
a rarer medium, so the reflected ray does not get inverted in
phase.
Therefore, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

53. There is no loss in energy in elastic collision and Linear

momentum is conserved in elastic collision.
 Therefore, both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion.

54. Assertion is true but reason is false.

55. The expression of the acceleration of electron is,

v2
a=
r
Substitute values,

( 2.18 ×106 )
2

a=
0.528 × 10−10
= 9 × 1022 m/s 2

56. On distributing an electric dipole in stable equilibrium in an

electric field, it returns back to its stable equilibrium orientation.
The restoring torque brings it back to its stable equilibrium.
Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.

57. Diamond glitter brilliantly because light enters in diamond

suffers total internal reflection.
 Thus, the both assertion and reason is true but reason is not the
correct explanation of the assertion.

58. The electron rises to some higher energy level when the atom
gets some energy from external (outside). The electron can
return either, directly to the lower energy level after passing
through other lower energy levels, hence all possible transitions
take place in the source and many lines are seen in the spectrum.

59. A transistor is a current operating device because the action of

transistor is controlled by the charge carriers. Base current is
very much larger than the collector current.
Thus, both assertion and reason is false.

60. At the magnetic poles of earth, only vertical component of

earth's field exists and the horizontal component is zero. Hence,
as compass needle is free to rotate in horizontal plane, it will
affected by horizontal component only as H=0, Hence, the dip
needle will stand vertical at the north pole of earth.
 AIIMS-MBBS-2019-25 May-Morning
Solutions – Chemistry

61. The complete reaction is shown below.

In the above reaction, the reactant undergoes 1,4 Michael

addition first then the formed intermediate undergoes reduction
in the presence of NaBH 4 to form the desired product.

62. (i) Buna-S is made up of monomer units, 1,3-butadiene and

styrene.
(ii) Terylene is made up of monomers units, ethylene glycol and
terephtalic acid
(iii) Elastomer is made up of monomers unit, chloroprene.
63. The complete reaction is shown below.

The desired product of the given reaction is α,β − unsaturated

carbonyl compound.

64. The given free radicals are shown below:


(I) CH 3 − CH − CH 3 , (II)
 
(III) CH 2 − CH ( CH 3 )2 (IV) CH 2 − CH 3

The stability of free radicals is mostly affected by the factors

like resonance, hyperconjugation and inductive effect.
In compound (II), there is high resonance effect due to which it
is highly stable than other three compounds. The effect of
hyperconjugation is directly proportional to the number alpha
hydrogen. So, compound I has six alpha hydrogen atoms,
compound III has one alpha hydrogen atom and compound IV
 has three alpha hydrogen atoms. Therefore, the order is
II > I > IV > III .

65. The given compound is shown below:

The IUPAC name of the given compound is 5–Methoxy–3–

Nitro cyclohexene.

66. The complete reaction is shown as follows:

67. In case of paper chromatography, there are both stationary and
dynamic phases present. So, the statement that tt is a stationary
phase is incorrect.

68. The given compound are shown below.

a) , (b) , (c) and (d)

In compound (a), NO 2 possesses the -M effect at para position
due to which it is highly acidic than other three compounds.
The compound (b) has intermolecular hydrogen bonding and it
is less acidic than (a). In compound (d), there is absence of an
electron donating group, due to which it is more acidic than
compound (c), which has electron donating methyl group.
Therefore, the correct order of acidic nature is a > b > d > c
69. The complete reaction is shown below.

70. The reactant, NH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − OH possesses two

nucleophilic groups −OH and − NH 2 in which is − NH 2 is
stronger. So, − NH 2 react at the region at which stable
carbocation gets formed. The complete reaction is shown below.
71. In glucose, there is absence of free aldehyde group and it forms
cyclic hemiacetal form as shown below.

So, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.

72. Phenol reacts with CH 3I in presence of NaOH to form

methoxybenzene as shown below:
 In the presence of NaOH, phenol forms phenoixde ion which is
a better nucleophile than phenol.
So, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.

73. The geometries of the given compounds are shown below.

Among the above shown compounds XeO 4 , and XeO3F2 do not

have lone pairs of electrons.
74. The cation Ca +2 , which is from Vth group, is not able to give
ppt with CrO 4−2 as its has high solubility.
Order of Ksp ⇒ BaCrO 4 < SrCrO 4 < CaCrO 4

75. The cell equation is given as follows.

M + M 2+ → M 2+ + M
−4 −2
.
10 10
The Nernst equation for the above cell is calculated as follows.

E= E °Cell −
−2.303 RT
log
[P]
cell
nF [R ]
−2.303 RT 10−2
= 4− log −4
2F 10
RT  RT 
= 4− log10  log10 0.06
= 
F  F 
= 3.94

76. The reaction is given as follows.

 R→P
a
2
a−x x = a
3
2
a− a
3
According to the half-life of a first order reaction,
2.303 a
t= log
k a−x
2.303 a
= log
4.3 × 10 –4 a/3
2.303
= log 3
4.3 × 10 –4
= 2.5 × 103 sec

77. The vapour pressure of pure CHCl3 and CH 2Cl2 are 200 and
41.5 atm respectively. The weight of CHCl3 and CH 2Cl2 are
respectively 11.9 g and 17 gm.
The molar mass of CHCl3 is 119.5 g/mol and the molar mass of
CH 2Cl2 is 85 g/mol
The number of moles of CHCl3 is calculated below.
 11.9
n CHCl3 =
119.5 g/mol
= 0.1
The number of moles of CH 2Cl2 is calculated below.
17 g
n CH2Cl2 =
85 g/mol
= 0.2
So, total moles are 01. + 0.2 =.
0.3
According to the Raoults’ law, the vapour pressure of solution is
calculated below.
° °
PT = PCHCl3
× x CHCl3
+ PCH 2 Cl 2
× x CH2Cl2
0.1 0.2
= 200 × + 41.5 ×
0.3 0.3
= 94.3 atm

78. Asn=2 and Z=2 for He + ion, so the wave length is calculated
below.
 n2
= 2πr nλ=  r 0.529
Z
n2 °
2π × 0.529 A = nλ
Z
2 × 3.14 × 0.529 × 2 °
λ= A
2
°
λ = 3.33 A

79. The order of bond dissociation energy is given below.

Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I 2
Fluorine has very small size due to which inter-electronic
repulsion is there between two fluorine atoms this results in the
weaken bond.

80. The reaction of Ag + with excess of sodium-thiosulphate is given

below.
3−
Ag + + Na 2S2O3 →  Ag ( S2O3 )2  . This complex possesses -3

charge. The coordination number for Ag is 2 which correspond

to sp hybridization and linear geometry.
81. The equation for standard Gibbs free energy given below.
= ΔG ° + RTlnQ …(1)
∆G
If =
∆G 0 and
= Q K then the above equation at equilibrium
becomes,
∆G ° = − RTlnK …(2)
Substituting equation (2) in equation (1), the new relation forms
as,
∆G =− RTlnK + RTlnK
K
∆G =− RTln
Q

82. The compound, Sr ( OH )2 has max. solubilityin acidic solution

that is at low pH as shown below.

Sr ( OH )2 → Sr + + 2OH −

It gives high amount of hydroxide ions which are neutralized by

the high amount of H + ions.

83. The packing efficiency of SC is 52%, BCC is 68%, HCP is 74%

and FCC is 74%. So, the correct order of packing efficiency is
HCP = FCC > BCC > SC .
84. The atomic mass of M is 34 and its abundance is 68%and
remaining is 32% oxygen. The atomic mass of oxygen is 16.
The empirical formula is calculated below.
Element %mass Mole
M 68% 68/34=2
O 32% 32/16=2
So, the empirical formula is M 2O 2 or MO .

85. The reactions that give methanides are as follows.

Be 2C + 4H 2O → 2Be ( OH )2 + CH 4
CaC2 + 2H 2O → Ca ( OH )2 + C2 H 2
Mg 2C3 + 4H 2O → 2Mg ( OH )2 + C3H 4
above 1300° C
SiC + H 2O  → SiO 2 + CH 4

86. The inert gas participate in chemical reaction is xenon because

the size of xenon is very large which decreases its ionization
potential.
87. The oxidation state of Ni in the complex,[Ni ( CO )4 ] is

calculated below.
x + 4 (0) =
0
x=0
The electronic configuration of Ni is [ Ar ] 3d8 4s 2 4p 0 . The orbital

diagram of nickel in the presence of strong filed ligand CO is

shown below.

As no unpaired electron is present in this complex, so it is

diamagnetic.

88. In the hexagonal closed packing Z=6 and the total number of TV
are 2 × Z = 2 × 6 .
= 12
As, Total TV in 1 mole is 12, so total TV in 0.5 mole is
6 mol .
12 × 0.5 =
The total number tetrahedral voids present 0.5 mole of hcp
crystal structure is calculated as,
 6 mol × N A= 6 mol × 6.023 × 1023
= 3.6 × 1024

89. The element that can have oxidation state from 4 to 6 is

chromium, Cr. Its oxidation state varies from +1 to +6.

90. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because of
the extensive solution. Therefore, the statement (1) is incorrect.

91. On heating hydrazoic acid form H 2 + 3N 2 as shown in the

reaction below.
2N 3H 
∆
→ H 2 + 3N 2

92. The color of ZnO at room temperature is white. ZnOlooses

oxygen atom on heating which makes it yellow in color because
of the formation of F-centres or anionic sites as shown below.
heating 1
ZnO  → Zn 2+ + O 2 + 2e −
2
So, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
93. The Boyle’s law states that pressure is inversely proportional
1
volume as P ∝ and temperature is constant. The graph for the
V
same is given below.

For adiabatic process, the equation is given as

PV γ = constant
So, the assertion is true but the reason is false.

94. The electron configuration of Yb +2 is [ Xe] 4f 14 5d 0 6s 0 and the

electron configuration of Gd +2 is [ Xe] 4f 7 5d1 6s 0

So, Yb +2 is more stable in compare to Gd +2 due to the fully filled

stabilized electron configuration.
So, the assertion is true but the reason is false.

95. The chemical properties of different isotope are same but in

isotopes the number of neutrons is different. So, the assertion is
true but the reason is false.
 96. The elements Li and Mgupon heating in presence of air
followed by hydrolysis giveammonia. The reactions for the
same are shown below.
6Li + N 2 → 2Li3 N
Li3 N + 3H 2O → 3LiOH + NH 3 ↑
Mg + N 2 → Mg 3 N 2
Mg 3 N 2 + 6H 2O → 3Mg ( OH )2 + 2NH 3 ↑

97. The reaction of butane is given below.

13
C4 H10 + O 2 → 4CO 2 + 5H 2O
2
The value of ∆n g is calculated below.

 13 
∆ng =4 − 1 + 
 2
7
= −
2
The work done is calculated below.
W = −∆n g RT
7 
= −  × 0.0821× 298 
2 
= 85.6 atm
98. Potassium (K) have high difference in the first and second
ionization energy because alkali metals achieve stable noble
gas configuration after first ionization.

99. The below table represents the hybridization of the given

species.
Species Hybridization
ICl−2 sp 3d

ICl−4 sp 3d 2

BeF2− sp 3d

IF6− sp 3d 3

Thus, the ion ICl−4 has sp 3d 2 hybridization.

100. The expression of the critical temperature is,
8a
Tc =
27 Rb
a
From the given data, the value of   is highest for Kr. Thus,
b
Kr has the greatest value of critical temperature.
101. Consider the reaction,
MnO 4− + 5e − → Mn 2+
The reaction equation of compound FeC2O 4 is,
FeC2O 4 → Fe3+ + 2CO 2 + 3e −
3
So, 1 mole of FeC2O 4 requires moles of KMnO 4 .
5
The reaction equation of compound Fe 2 ( C2O 4 )3 is,

Fe 2 ( C2O 4 )3 → Fe3+ + CO 2 + 6e −
6
So, 1 mole of Fe 2 ( C2O 4 )3 requires moles of KMnO 4 .
5
The reaction equation of compound FeSO 4 is,

FeSO 4 → Fe3+ + e −
1
So, 1 mole of FeSO 4 requires moles of KMnO 4 .
5
Since Fe 2 ( SO 4 )3 does not oxidize.

The total number of required moles is,

3 6 1
n= + +
5 5 5
n=2
102. An equimolar mixture of CO and H2 is obtained when steam
is passed over red hot coke. It is also named as syn gas.
The reaction is,
H 2O ( g ) + C → CO + H 2

103. The order of size of metal ions is,

Li + < Na + < K + < Rb + < Cs +
Since the hydration energy is inversely proportional to the
size. So, the order of hydration enthalpies is,
Li + > Na + > K + > Rb + > Cs +

104. Air pollution that occurs in sunlight is oxidizing smog.

105. By Freundlich adsorption isotherm,

1
x
∝ pn ...... (I)
m
1
x
= kp n
m
x 1
log
= log k + log p
m n
From the given graph,
 2
Slope =
3
1 2
=
n 3
From equation (I),
2
x
∝ p3
m

106. The electronic configuration of O 2 is,

σ 1s 2 σ *1s 2 σ 2 s 2 σ * 2 s 2 =
σ 2 pz2 π 2 px2 π=
2 p y2 π * 2 p1x π * 2 p1y

When electron is added in O 2 to form O 2− , the added electron

goes to π * 2 px or π * 2 p y .

Thus, option (3) is correct.

107. Molecular weight of a compound is twice the vapor density of

that compound.
So, assertion is true but reason is false.

108. While moving from one orbit to another, an electron either

radiates or absorbs energy. It radiate energy while moving
 from higher to lower orbit, and it absorb energy while moving
away from lower to higher orbital.

109. The equation of Gibb's free energy is, ∆G = ∆G ° + RT log K c

At equilibrium, ∆G =
0
So, ∆G ° = − RT log K c

110. Consider the molecular structure of CrO5 is,

The oxidation number is calculated as,

x + ( −2 ) + 4 ( −1) =0
x=6
Thus, the oxidation number of CrO5 atom cannot be higher
than valence electrons.

111. The blue color of the solution is due to the excitation of

electrons. Alkali metals are dissolved in liquid ammonia and
give blue colored solution. The high conductivity of such
 solutions is due to the presence of ammoniated electron. The
reaction is shown below.
+ −
M + ( x + y ) NH 3 →  M ( NH 3 ) x  e ( NH 3 ) y 
Ammoniate electrons

112. trans isomer has a high melting point because it is

symmetrical due to closely packed structure and hence it also
take more energy to melt.

113. The reduction in concentration of the dissolved oxygen in

water is caused by eutrophication due to phosphate pollution
in water.

114. Faraday charge required depends upon no of electron. The

reaction is shown below,
Ag + + e − → Ag ( s )
1 mol 1F
1 mol ( deposited )

Thus, one mole of silver deposits by 1 Faraday charge.

115. The basic strength of hydroxides is La(OH)3 > Lu(OH)3. Due
to lanthanide contraction, size of M 3+ ions decrease and there
is an increase in the covalent character of M-OH bond.

116. The stability of carbocation which is formed in the reaction

decides the reactivity towards SN1 reaction.
Consider the order of reactivity as shown below,

Since, the compound 1-chloro, 1-ethylcyclopentane is more

reactive towards SN1 mechanism than 1-chlorocyclopentane
as it forms more stable tertiary carbocation as intermediate.

117. "-I" effect of chlorine makes p-chlorobenzoic acid more

acidic because, the presence of electron withdrawing groups
on the phenyl ring increases their acidity in comparison to
unsubstituted acids.
118. Soframycin is not an antibiotic, it is an antiseptic. So, it is
used to diseased skin surface and wound.

119. Complementary base pairing is the phenomenon, where in

DNA guanine always hydrogen bonds to cytosine and adenine
always binds to thymine.

120. Mg2+ ions cannot be reduced by chemical reactions because

magnesium metal is highly electropositive and has very low
standard reduction potential.
 AIIMS-MBBS-2019-25 May-Morning
Solutions – Biology

121. The given diagram represent the images of algar in an order of

Fucus, Porphyra, Laminaria, and Polysiphonia. The Fucus,
Porphyra, Laminaria belongs to brown algae
whereaPolysiphonia belongs to red algae.

122. The correct diagram is represented by image 1 showing three

antipodal cells at the chalazal end and 2 synergids and 1 egg
cell at the micropylar end of embryo sac.

123. In the given figure, the process if initiation, termination, and

elongation is represented by images a, b, and c respectively.

124. The correct option is (4)

125. Genes are the carries of genetic information. These genes are
the functional unit and are present on the chromosomes. Those
genes that are present on same chromosomes are referred to as
linked genes.
126. The correct option is (2).

127. The symplast can be defined as the continuous type of network

of interconnected protoplasts of the plant cell. Thus option (1)
is correct.

128. The correct option is (4).

129. Virus free plant can be formed by the meristem culture. It is

due to the reason that meristem is a continuous growing tissue
and multiplication of virus is not possible in this zone.

130. Macronutrients are those that are required by the plants in

larger quantities for proper growth and development. Among
all the given options, the correct option that represents the set
of macronutrients is (4).

131. There are two types of nitrogenous bases are found in the
genetic material of an organism. The two types of nitrogenous
bases are purines and pyrimidines. The percentage of these
 bases can be calculated by the formula that is represented in
option (1). Thus, option (1) is the correct answer.

132. The correct option is (4).

133. Mn stands for manganese. It is a type of microelement.

134. The genetic code is triplet in nature. Three bases together form
one genetic code that is specific for one type of amino acid.
Here, CCC, CCG, and CCU code for proline amino acid.

135. The sequence of messenger RNA is reverse compliment of

complementary DNA strand. Thus, the correct option is (2).

136. The correct option is (2).

137. Various types of organelles are responsible for performing

different types of functions. The function of synthesis of lipids
alongwith the detoxification of drugs in the body is carried out
by smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
138. In the structure of DNA, phosphodiester bond is formed
between the two nucleotide with the help of enzyme DNA
polymerase.

139. The correct option is (3).

140. Among all the given options, statement 2 is worng.

141. The correct option is (3).

142. The correct option is (2).

143. Prokaryote are microscopic unicellular creatures. They possess

simplest type of organization. In these cells, the process of
transcription and translation occurs in the same compartment.

144. The statement saying that ‘both intron and exon are
transcribed to form hnRNA in eukaryotes is correct’; but reson
is false because splicing occurs in eukaryotic cell.
145. The statements saying that ‘Parthenocarpy involves formation
of seedless fruitand Apomixis occurs without fertilization.are
correct’; but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

146. The statements saying that ‘Somaclonal variations produce

slight differences in plant and They are produced while
performing tissue culture..are correct’; but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.

147. The statements saying that ‘In eukaryotes, transcription occurs

in nucleus andIn bacteria, transcription and translation occurs
in cytoplasm.are correct’; but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.

148. In the given question, both the assertion and reason are true
and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Hence option (1) is correct.

149. In the given question, only the assertion is true and the reason
is not true. Hence option (3) is correct.
150. In the given question, both the assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. Hence
option (2) is correct.

151. In the given question, only the assertion is true and the reason
is not true. Hence option (3) is correct.

152. In the given question, both the assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. Hence
option (2) is correct.

153. In the given question, both the assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. Hence
option (2) is correct.

154. The given diagram represents simple cuboidal epithelium

tissue. This tissue performs specific task of absorption and
secretion.

155. Cervical vertebrae possess transverse foramen whereas other

vertebrae lack this transverse foramen.
156. When protein reacts with the ninhydrin reagent, it yields
Ruheann’s purple.

157. Utricle and saccule are responsible for the maintenance of

static equilibrium.

158. The release of biogas is based on the activity of the

methanogens. These methanogens are the methane producing
microbes. Hence the correct option is (2).

159. The blood group of the progeny would be A, B, AB, and O.

160. Nervous tissue is divide into peripheral nervous system and

central nervous system. The function of skeletal muscles is
under the control of somatic type of nervous system.

161. The Hardy Weinberg principle is affected by the process of

natural selection, mutation, and the genetic drift.
162. The productivity is not at all increased by the process of
inbreeding depression that occurs due to the continuous self
pollination.

163. The correct option is (4).

164. The correct statement is saheli is once a week oral

contraceptive.

165. The Periplanetaamericana is nocturnal in natire and

predominantly resides in damp places.

166. Platyhelminthes possess suckers and hooks and are

endoparsites on the other types of animals.

167. The correct option is (2).

168. The Platyhelminthes possess suckers and hooks and are

endoparsites on the other types of animals. These are the
animals that belong to the category of acoelomate animals and
possess flame cells.
169. The process of gene cloning becomes possible with the help of
recombinant DNA technology. It is a process in which
isolation and insertion of gene of interest is carried out in
different organisms.

170. In the given question, both the assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. Hence
option (2) is correct.

171. In the given question, both the assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. Hence
option (2) is correct.

172. In the given question, both the assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. Hence
option (2) is correct.

173. A single female genital pore is present on the 14th segment

through which female reproductive bodies (ova) are discharged
during copulation. The segments 14-16 of a matured
 earthworm consist of a glandular tissue called clitellum which
helps to distinguish the mouth and tail end.

174. In the given question, only the assertion is true and the reason
is not true. Hence option (3) is correct.

175. In the given question, only the assertion is true and the reason
is not true. Hence option (3) is correct.

176. In the given question, both the assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. Hence
option (2) is correct.

177. Anal styles are thread like appendages arising from the 9th
segment of the male cockroach. So, cockroach shows sexual
dimorphisms. Anal styles are absent in female cockroach.
Thus, assertion is true but reason is false.

178. Presence of insert results in inactivation of enzyme β -

galactosidase known as insertional inactivation. the insertion
 of recombinant DNA within the coding sequence of β -
galactosidase results in colourless colonies.
The plasmid in the bacteria, lacking an insert produces blue
coloured colonies, while those plasmids with an insert do not
produce any colour due to insertional inactivation of the
enzyme, β -galactosidase.

179. Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects certain plants in which Ti-

plasmid causes the formation of tumor like growth called a
crown gall. Agrobacterium does not infect grasses.
So, both assertion and reason is false.

180. Na and K concentration changes across the muscle cell

membrane resulting in development of potential difference.
So, Na and K ions are necessary for muscle contraction.
Thus, both assertion and reason are true.
 AIIMS-MBBS-2019-25 May-Morning
Solutions – General knowledge and mental ability

181. 20% discount on Rs. 2000 is equivalent to the discount of

20
( Rs. 2000 ) = Rs. 400 .
100
10% discount on initial price (Rs. 2000) is equivalent to the
10
discount of ( Rs. 2000 ) = Rs. 200 .
100
The final price of the product is,
P = 2000 − ( 400 + 200 )
P = 1400

182. Total number of balls is, 2 + 2 + 2 =6

The required probability is calculated as,
2
C1 × 2 C1 × 2 C1
P= 6
C3
2× 2× 2
P=
20
2
P=
5
183. According to the given pattern,
In second row, the element in first box is second letter ahead
of the second box element in first row.
So the required element will be "L".

184. The given series is,

1, 2, 4, 7, 11
The pattern is,
1, (1 +
= 1 2 ) , ( 2 +=
2 4 ) , ( 4 +=
3 7 ) , ( 7 +=
4 11)
Thus, the next number in the series is,
11 + 5 =
16

185. Let's consider my present is x .

So, from given condition, the present age of my sister will be,
x
2
After 10 years,
x  3
 + 10  = ( x + 10 )
 2  4
2 x + 40 = 3 x + 30
x = 10
 10
Thus, the present age of my sister is = 5.
2

186. The bells will ring together after,

Required time = LCM ( 3 min, 6 min, 15 min )
= 30 min

187. Fig (1) have 4 outer sides and 3 inner side (colored), fig (b)
have 5 outer sides (colored) and 4 inner sides.
Fig (d) have 7 outer sides (colored) and 6 inner sides. So, fig
(c) will have 6 outer sides and 5 inner side (colored).
Thus, option (2) is correct.

188. The number of students speaking only English and French is,
40 − 10 =
30
The number of students speaking only French and German is,
30 − 10 =
20
The number of students speaking only English and German
is, 25 − 10 =
15
Thus, the number of students that can speak only 2 language
is, 30 + 20 + 15 =
65
189. The pattern on unfolded paper will be .

190. The official currency of India is Rupee (₹), So the official

currency of UK is Pound (£ ).

191. The LOK SABHA seats according to the given states in

decreasing order is,
Maharashtra > West Bengal > Bihar > Madhya Pradesh

192. Loksabha elections 2019 was held in seven phases from 11

April to 19 May.

193. Rafale fighter aircraft is designed and built by a France

company named as Dassault Avation.

194. WikiLeaks founder Julian Assange was arrested from the

embassy of Ecuador due to the allegations of sexual assault.
195. Narmada river has a different flow of direction among the
given rivers. It is one of the rivers in India that flows in a rift
valley, flowing west between the Satpura and Vindhya
ranges.

196. Ranjan Gogoi is the new Chief Justice of India.

197. The finance minister of the country presents the annual

budget every year in the parliament.

198. In Asian Games 2018, India won 15 Gold, 2 Silver and 30

Bronze medals.

199. The Kanchenjunga is the highest mountain peak in India with

an elevation of 8,586 m.

200. Wanna Cry is a virus that affected the National Health

Service in England. Due to this virus, some patient's
operations were cancelled in England.