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General Chemistry 101 Chapter 1 Review Questions

1) Molecules can be described as

A) mixtures of two or more pure substances.
B) mixtures of two or more elements that has a specific ratio between components.
C) two or more atoms chemically joined together.
D) heterogeneous mixtures.
E) homogeneous mixtures.
Answer: C

2) Identify the TRUE statement.

A) Hydrogen peroxide is used as rocket fuel and removes color from hair.
B) Hydrogen peroxide can be used as a drink and can be used to bathe in.
C) Both water and hydrogen peroxide are stable molecules.
D) Water reacts with skin.
E) Hydrogen peroxide is smaller than water.
Answer: A

3) Which of the following represents a hypothesis?

A) Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
B) Nitrogen gas is a fairly inert substance.
C) Nickel has a silvery sheen.
D) When a substance combusts, it combines with air.
E) When wood burns, heat is given off.
Answer: D

4) The statement, "In a chemical reaction, matter is neither created nor destroyed" is called
A) the Law of Conservation of Mass. D) the Law of Multiple Proportions.
B) Dalton's Atomic Theory. E) the Law of Definite Proportions.
C) the Scientific Method.
Answer: A

5) Dalton's Atomic Theory states

A) that all elements have several isotopes.
B) that matter is composed of small indestructible particles.
C) that the properties of matter are determined by the properties of atoms.
D) that energy is neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction.
E) that an atom is predominantly empty space.
Answer: B

6) A scientific theory
A) is just a theory.
B) is a strict set of rules and procedures that lead to inarguable fact.
C) isn't used much in modern chemistry.
D) is based on continued observation and experiment.
E) is a framework for proving an argument you know to be true.
Answer: D
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7) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) A scientific law is fact.
B) Once a theory is constructed, it is considered fact.
C) A hypothesis is speculation that is difficult to test.
D) An observation explains why nature does something.
E) A scientific law summarizes a series of related observations.
Answer: E

8) Identify a gas.
A) definite volume and definite shape
B) definite volume and no definite shape
C) definite shape and no definite volume
D) no definite shape and no definite volume
Answer: D

9) Which of the following statements about crystalline and amorphous solids is TRUE?
A) A crystalline solid is composed of atoms or molecules arranged with long-range repeating
order.
B) An example of a crystalline solid is glass.
C) An example of an amorphous solid is table salt (NaCl).
D) An amorphous solid is composed of atoms or molecules with a majority of its volume empty.
E) All of the above statements are TRUE.
Answer: A

10) Which of the following statements about the phases of matter is TRUE?
A) In both solids and liquids, the atoms or molecules pack closely to one another.
B) Solids are highly compressible.
C) Gaseous substances have long-range repeating order.
D) There is only one type of geometric arrangement that the atoms or molecules in any solid can
adopt.
E) Liquids have a large portion of empty volume between molecules.
Answer: A

11) A substance that can't be chemically broken down into simpler substances is
A) a homogeneous mixture. D) a compound.
B) an element. E) an electron
C) a heterogeneous mixture.
.Answer: B

12) A substance composed of two or more elements in a fixed, definite proportion is

A) a homogeneous mixture. D) a solution.
B) a heterogeneous mixture. E) an alloy.
C) a compound.
Answer: C
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13) Decanting is
A) a process in which the more volatile liquid is boiled off.
B) dissolving a solid into a liquid.
C) separating a solid from a liquid by pouring off the liquid.
D) pouring a mixture through a filter paper to separate the solid from the liquid.
E) heating a mixture of two solids to fuse them together.
Answer: C

14) Distillation is
A) a process in which the more volatile liquid is boiled off.
B) dissolving a solid into a liquid.
C) separating a solid from a liquid by pouring off the liquid.
D) pouring a mixture through a filter paper to separate the solid from the liquid.
E) heating a mixture of two solids to fuse them together.
Answer: A

15) Filtration is
A) a process in which the more volatile liquid is boiled off.
B) dissolving a solid into a liquid.
C) separating a solid from a liquid by pouring off the liquid.
D) pouring a mixture through a filter paper to separate the solid from the liquid.
E) heating a mixture of two solids to fuse them together.
Answer: D

16) Two or more substances in variable proportions, where the composition is variable
throughout are
A) a solution. D) an amorphous solid.
B) a homogeneous mixture. E) a heterogeneous mixture.
C) a compound.
Answer: E

17) A physical change

A) occurs when iron rusts.
B) occurs when sugar is heated into caramel.
C) occurs when glucose is converted into energy within your cells.
D) occurs when water is evaporated.
E) occurs when propane is burned for heat.
Answer: D

18) A chemical change

A) occurs when methane gas is burned.
B) occurs when paper is shredded.
C) occurs when water is vaporized.
D) occurs when salt is dissolved in water.
E) occurs when powdered lemonade is stirred into water.
Answer: A
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19) Define potential energy.

A) energy associated with the temperature of an object
B) energy associated with the motion of an object
C) energy associated with the force of an object
D) energy associated with the gravity of an object
E) energy associated with the position or composition of an object
Answer: E

20) Identify the type of energy that is NOT chemical energy.

A) battery D) ball rolling down the hill
B) gasoline in a car E) food
C) light bulb
Answer: D

21) All of the following are SI base units of measurement, EXCEPT

A) meter. C) second. E) mole.
B) gram. D) kelvin.
Answer: B

22) The outside temperature is 35°C. What is the temperature in K?

A) -238 K C) 95 K E) 63 K
B) 308 K D) 31 K
Answer: B

23) Determine the density of an object that has a mass of 149.8 g and displaces 12.1 mL of water
when placed in a graduated cylinder.
A) 8.08 g/mL C) 12.4 g/mL E) 11.4 g/mL
B) 1.38 g/mL D) 18.1 g/mL
Answer: C

24) Determine the volume of an object that has a mass of 455.6 g and a density of 19.3 g/cm3.
A) 87.9 mL C) 18.5 mL E) 31.2 mL
B) 42.4 mL D) 23.6 mL
Answer: D

25) Osteoporosis is a condition in which the bone density becomes low. Healthy bones in young
adults have a bone density of 1.0 g/cm3. Identify the incorrect statement.
A) Compression of the vertebrae can be caused by osteoporosis.
B) Low density bones absorb less x-ray than high density bones.
C) A bone density of 1.5 g/cm3 is caused by osteoporosis.
D) Exercise decreases osteoporosis.
E) Patients with osteoporosis are more susceptible to fractures.
Answer: C

26) Systematic error is defined as

A) error that tends to be too high or too low.
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B) error that has equal probability of being too high and too low.
C) error that averages out with repeated trials.
D) error that is random.
Answer: A

27) Read the water level with the correct number of significant figures.

A) 5 mL C) 5.32 mL E) 5.3200 mL
B) 5.3 mL D) 5.320 mL
Answer: B

28) Read the length of the metal bar with the correct number of significant figures.

A) 20 cm C) 15.0 cm E) 15.000 cm
B) 15 cm D) 15.00 cm
Answer: D
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29) Identify the exact number.

A) 2 C) 2.00 E) 2.0000
B) 2.0 D) 2.000
Answer: A

30) What answer should be reported, with the correct number of significant figures, for the
following calculation? (433.621 - 333.9) × 11.900
A) 1.19 × 103 C) 1.1868 × 103 E) 1.186799 × 103
B) 1.187 × 103 D) 1.18680 × 103
Answer: A

31) What answer should be reported, with the correct number of significant figures, for the
following calculation? (249.362 + 41) / 63.498
A) 4.6 C) 4.573 E) 4.57277
B) 4.57 D) 4.5728
Answer: B

32) What answer should be reported, with the correct number of significant figures, for the
following calculation? (965.43 × 3.911) + 9413.4136
A) 13189 C) 1.32 × 104 E) 1.319 × 104
B) 13189.2 D) 1.3 × 104
Answer: A

33) If the walls in a room are 955 square feet in area, and a gallon of paint covers 15 square
yards, how many gallons of paint are needed for the room? (3 ft = 1 yd)
A) 47 gallons C) 7.1 gallons E) 2.3 gallons
B) 21 gallons D) 24 gallons
Answer: C

34) Gas is sold for $1.399 per liter in Toronto, Canada. Your car needs 12.00 gallons. How
much will your credit card be charged in Canadian dollars?
A) $16.79 C) $4.44
B) $67.15 D) $63.54
Answer: D

35) Identify the longest length.

A) 3.10 ft C) 1.02 yd E) 91.44 cm
B) 37.0 in D) 1.00 m
Answer: D

36) Identify the shortest length.

A) 3.10 ft C) 1.02 yd E) 91.44 cm
B) 37.0 in D) 1.00 m
Answer: E
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37) Identify the composition of diamond.

A) carbon atoms C) nitrogen atoms E) silicon atoms
B) boron atoms D) chlorine atoms
Answer: A

38) Give the composition of water.

A) one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms
B) one hydrogen atom and one oxygen atom
C) two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom
D) one hydrogen molecule and two oxygen molecules
Answer: C

39) Give the composition of hydrogen peroxide.

A) two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms
B) one hydrogen molecule and one oxygen atom
C) two hydrogen molecules and one oxygen molecule
D) one hydrogen atom and two oxygen molecules
Answer: A

40) Identify a state of matter.

A) melting point C) odor E) density
B) solid D) volume
Answer: B

41) Identify the crystalline solid.

A) plastic C) diamond E) coffee
B) cloth D) water
Answer: C

42) Choose the pure substance from the list below.

A) coffee C) water E) apple juice
B) a casserole D) salt water
Answer: C

43) A banana split is an example of

A) a compound. C) a heterogeneous mixture.
B) an element. D) a homogeneous mixture.
Answer: C

44) Household ammonia is an example of

A) a compound. C) a heterogeneous mixture.
B) an element. D) a homogeneous mixture.
Answer: D

45) Diamond is an example of

A) a compound. B) an element.
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C) a heterogeneous mixture. D) a homogeneous mixture.

Answer: B

46) Water is an example of

A) a compound. C) a heterogeneous mixture.
B) an element. D) a homogeneous mixture.
Answer: A

47) Identify a solid.

A) gold C) water E) oxygen
B) helium D) neon
Answer: A

48) Identify a liquid.

A) nitrogen C) potassium bromide E) sugar
B) tin D) gasoline
Answer: D

49) Choose the pure substance from the list below.

A) lemonade C) air E) juice
B) salt D) wine
Answer: B

50) Choose the element from the list below.

A) sodium chloride C) hydrogen peroxide E) rust
B) table salt D) iron
Answer: D

51) Choose the compound from the list below.

A) silver C) helium E) sodium
B) methanol D) tin
Answer: B

52) Choose the heterogeneous mixture from the list below.

A) sports drink C) tea E) carbon (graphite)
B) fluorine gas D) lasagna
Answer: D

53) Choose the homogeneous mixture from the list below.

A) cola C) ice water E) salsa
B) mud D) a tree
Answer: A

54) Choose the homogeneous mixture from the list below.

A) cola float C) concrete E) chunky spaghetti sauce
B) wine D) trail mix Answer: B
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55) Which of the following are examples of physical change?

A) Powdered fruit drink is dissolved in water.
B) Coffee is brewed.
C) Dry ice sublimes.
D) Ice melts.
E) All of these are examples of physical change.
Answer: E

56) Which of the following is an example of physical change?

A) Dew forms on a blade of grass.
B) A Halloween light stick glows after shaking.
C) browning meat
D) An oxygen balloon explodes when contacted with a flame.
E) None of the above is a physical change.
Answer: A

57) Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

A) dry ice sublimes
B) charcoal burning
C) ethanol evaporates
D) ice melting
E) All of the above are examples of chemical change.
Answer: B

58) Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

A) coffee brewing
B) water boiling
C) leaves turning color in the fall
D) sugar dissolves in water
E) None of the above is a chemical change.
Answer: C

59) Which of the following represents a physical property?

A) Sodium metal is extremely reactive with chlorine gas.
B) Mercury is a silvery liquid at room temperature.
C) Iron has a tendency to "rust."
D) Butane is highly flammable.
E) Xenon has an unreactive nature.
Answer: B

60) Which of the following represents a chemical property of hydrogen gas?

A) It is a gas at room temperature. D) It is odorless.
B) It is less dense than air. E) It has a low density.
C) It explodes with a flame.
Answer: C
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61) Identify the unit of measurement which is a SI base unit of measurement.

A) meter C) quart E) kilometer
B) Celsius D) gram
Answer: A

62) Kelvin is a measure of

A) temperature. C) time. E) volume.
B) mass. D) length.
Answer: A

63) Identify the largest measurement.

A) attoL C) deciL E) petaL
B) microL D) gigaL
Answer: E

64) What symbol is used to represent the factor 10-3?

A) M C) μ
B) m D) n
Answer: B

65) Which of the following is the smallest volume?

A) 11 cm3 D) 5.0 × 107 nL
B) 0.065 dL
C) 2.8 × 103 mL
Answer: A

66) What symbol is used to represent the factor 10-2?

A) M C) μ
B) m D) c
Answer: D

67) The factor 0.01 corresponds to which prefix?

A) deka C) centi
B) deci D) milli
Answer: C

68) The factor 106 corresponds to which prefix?

A) deka C) mega
B) deci D) milli
Answer: C

69) Which multiplier does the abbreviation m represent?

A) 1 × 103 C) 1 × 109 E) 1 × 10-6
B) 1 × 106 D) 1 × 10-3
Answer: D
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70) Which multiplier does the abbreviation mega represent?

A) 1 × 10-1 C) 1 × 103 E) 1 × 109
B) 1 × 10-3 D) 1 × 106
Answer: D

71) Which of the following is an example of intensive properties?

A) boiling point
B) height
C) volume
D) None of the above is an example of intensive properties.
E) All of the above are examples of intensive properties.
Answer: A

72) Which of the following is an example of extensive properties?

A) mass C) solubility E) taste
B) color D) viscosity
Answer: A

73) Identify the common substance that has the highest density.
A) glass C) aluminum E) iron
B) ethanol D) lead
Answer: D

74) Identify the common substance that has the lowest density.
A) water C) copper E) gold
B) titanium D) sugar
Answer: A

75) What is the volume (in cm3) of a 43.6 g piece of metal with a density of 2.71 g/cm3?
A) 16.1 C) 0.425 E) none of the above
B) 19.5 D) 6.65
Answer: A

76) A piece of metal ore weighs 9.00 g. When a student places it into a graduated cylinder
containing water, the liquid level rises from 21.25 mL to 26.47 mL. What is the density of the
ore?
A) 0.340 g/mL C) 1.72 g/mL
B) 0.580 g/mL D) 2.94 g/mL
Answer: C

77) A mass of mercury occupies 0.950 L. What volume would an equal mass of ethanol occupy?
The density of mercury is 13.546 g/mL, and the density of ethanol is 0.789 g/mL.
A) 0.0553 L C) 16.3 L
B) 0.0613 L D) 18.1 L
Answer: C
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78) If the melting point of molybdenum metal is 2623°C, what is its melting point in Kelvin?
A) 1454 K C) 2896 K
B) 2350 K D) 4753 K
Answer: C

79) If the temperature is 228°F, what is the temperature in degrees Celsius?

A) 442.4°C C) 108.9°C E) 428°C
B) 501°C D) -45°C
Answer: C

80) Determine the mass of an object that has a volume of 88.6 mL and a density of 2.22 g/mL.
A) 90.82 g C) 39.9 g E) 197 g
B) 0.0251 g D) 86.4 g
Answer: E

81) The outside temperature is 35°C, what is the temperature in °F?

A) 95°F C) 3°F E) 63°F
B) 1.67°F D) 57°F
Answer: A

82) Which of the following is the lowest temperature?

A) 48°C C) 313 K
B) 75°F D) All of these temperatures are all equal.
Answer: B

83) How many significant figures are in 0.00226500 mL?

A) 3 C) 5 E) 7
B) 4 D) 6
Answer: D

84) How many significant figures are in 4.930 × 104 m?

A) 2 C) 3 E) 5
B) 4 D) 1
Answer: B

85) How many significant figures are in the measurement, 263.900 m?

A) 2 C) 4 E) 6
B) 3 D) 5
Answer: E

86) How many significant figures are in the measurement, 0.003800 g?

A) 4 C) 6 E) 8
B) 5 D) 7
Answer: A
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87) The correct answer (reported to the proper number of significant figures) to the following is:

12.5 × 9.68 = ________

A) 121 C) 121.000 E) 121.0

B) 121.0000 D) 121.00
Answer: A

88) Round the following number to four significant figures and express the result in standard
exponential notation: 442,722
A) 0.4427 × 106 C) 4.427 × 10-5 E) 44.27 × 104
B) 442,700 D) 4.427 × 105
Answer: D

89) Which of the following numbers has the greatest number of significant figures?
A) 0.6080 D) 1.06 × 1024
B) 0.504
C) 529000
Answer: A

90) How many of the following numbers contain 3 significant figures?

0.509 9.040 0.0300 7.03 × 1024

A) one C) three
B) two D) four
Answer: C

91) How many significant figures are there in the answer to the following problem?

(9.992 × 3.200) + 0.610 = ?

A) one C) three
B) two D) four
Answer: D

92) The correct answer (reported to the proper number of significant figures) to the following is:

(1612 - 1501) × (8.56 × 8.86) = ________

A) 8.4 × 103 C) 1.7 × 105 E) 1.6 × 104

B) -1.1 × 105 D) 2.0 × 103
Answer: A
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93) How many significant figures are in the measurement, 31.600 m?

A) 3 C) 5 E) 2
B) 4 D) 1
Answer: C

94) A student performs an experiment to determine the density of a sugar solution. She obtains
the following results: 1.07 g/mL, 1.81 g/mL, 1.93 g/mL, and 1.75 g/mL. If the actual value for
the density of the sugar solution is 1.75 g/mL, which statement below best describes her results?
A) Her results are precise, but not accurate.
B) Her results are accurate, but not precise.
C) Her results are both precise and accurate
D) Her results are neither precise nor accurate.
E) It isn't possible to determine with the information given.
Answer: D

95) A student performs an experiment to determine the density of a sugar solution. She obtains
the following results: 1.70 g/mL, 1.73 g/mL, 1.66 g/mL, 1.68 g/mL. If the actual value for the
density of the sugar solution is 1.40 g/mL, which statement below best describes her results?
A) Her results are precise, but not accurate.
B) Her results are accurate, but not precise.
C) Her results are both precise and accurate
D) Her results are neither precise nor accurate.
E) It isn't possible to determine with the information given.
Answer: A

96) A student performs an experiment to determine the density of a sugar solution. She obtains
the following results: 1.81 g/mL, 1.81 g/mL, 1.80 g/mL, 1.81 g/mL. If the actual value for the
density of the sugar solution is 1.79 g/mL, which statement below best describes her results?
A) Her results are precise, but not accurate.
B) Her results are accurate, but not precise.
C) Her results are both precise and accurate
D) Her results are neither precise nor accurate.
E) It isn't possible to determine with the information given.
Answer: C

97 Identify a unit that is used for volume.

A) cm3 C) in2 E) km
B) g D) degrees Fahrenheit
Answer: A

98) Identify a unit that is used for area.

A) L C) yd2 E) m
B) yd D) Kelvin
Answer: C
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99) Without using a calculator, solve the following problem:

A) 1 × 10-6 C) 1 × 1024
B) 1 × 104 D) 1 × 1034
Answer: C

100) Without using a calculator, solve the following problem:

A) 1 × 108 C) 1 × 10-13
B) 1 × 101 D) 1 × 10-20
Answer: C

101) Which of the following is the greatest mass?

A) 100,000 μg D) 1.000 × 10-6 Mg
-2
B) 1.000 × 10 kg
C) 1.000 × 10-2 cg
Answer: B

102) The mass of a proton is 1.67 × 10-27 kg. What is the mass of a proton in nanograms?
A) 1.67 × 10-21 ng C) 1.67 × 10-15 ng
B) 1.67 × 10-18 ng D) 1.67 × 10-12 ng
Answer: C

103) The mass of a single arsenic atom is 1.244 × 10-22 g. This is the same mass as
A) 1.244 × 10-16 mg. C) 1.244 × 10-28 μg.
B) 1.244 × 10-25 kg. D) 1.244 × 10-31 ng.
Answer: B

104) A student weighed 30.00 μg of sulfur in the lab. This is the same mass as
A) 3.000 × 10-8 g. C) 3.000 × 10-5 mg.
B) 3.000 × 10-5 kg. D) 3.000 × 104 ng.
Answer: D

105) Convert 3.3 μm to meters.

A) 3.3 × 10-9 m C) 3.3 × 10-3 m
B) 3.3 × 10-6 m D) 3.3 × 106 m
Answer: B
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106) The average distance between nitrogen and oxygen atoms is 115 pm in a compound called
nitric oxide. What is this distance in centimeters?
A) 1.15 × 10-9 cm C) 1.15 × 1012 cm
B) 1.15 × 10-8 cm D) 1.15 × 1016 cm
Answer: B

107) The diameter of an atom is approximately 1 × 10-10 m. What is the diameter in

millimeters?
A) 1 × 10-16 mm C) 1 × 10-7 mm
B) 1 × 10-13 mm D) 1 × 10-4 mm
Answer: C

108) Which of the following volumes is equal to 41 mL?

A) 41 cm3 C) 0.41 L
D) 0.00041 kL
B) 41 dm3
Answer: A

109) Convert 90 cm3 to m3.

A) 9 × 10-5 m3 C) 9 × 103 m3
B) 9 × 10-1 m3 D) 9 × 107 m3
Answer: A

110) Convert 22 m3 to liters.

A) 2.2 × 10-2 L D) 2.2 × 104 L
B) 2.2 L
C) 2.2 × 102 L
Answer: D

111) A fishing boat accidentally spills 3.0 barrels of diesel oil into the ocean. Each barrel
contains 42 gallons. If the oil film on the ocean is 2.5 × 102 nm thick, how many square meters
will the oil slick cover?
A) 1.9 × 10-3 m2 C) 1.9 × 107 m2
B) 1.9 × 106 m2 D) none of these
Answer: B

112) Because of the high heat and low humidity in the summer in Death Valley, California, a
visitor requires about one quart of water for every two miles traveled on foot. Calculate the
approximate number of liters required for a person to walk 15 kilometers in Death Valley.
A) 4.4 L C) 46 L
B) 18 L D) 70 L
Answer: A
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113) The estimated costs for remodeling the interior of an apartment are: three 1-gallon cans of
paint at $13.22 each, two paint brushes at $12.22 each, and $145 for a helper. The total estimated
cost with the appropriate significant figures is $________.
A) 209.10 D) 2 × 102
B) 2.1 × 10 2 E) 209.1
C) 209
Answer: C

114) How many liters of wine can be held in a wine barrel whose capacity is 28.0 gal?
1 gal = 4 qt = 3.7854 L.
A) 1.35 × 10-4 C) 106 E) 7.40
B) 0.135 D) 7.40 × 103
Answer: C

115) The recommended adult dose of Elixophyllin , a drug used to treat asthma, is 6.00 mg/kg
of body mass. Calculate the dose in milligrams for a 115-lb person. 1 lb = 453.59 g.
A) 24 C) 1.5 E) 3.1 × 105
B) 1,521 D) 313
Answer: D

116) The density of air under ordinary conditions at 25°C is 1.19 g/L. How many kilograms of
air are in a room that measures 11.0 ft × 12.0 ft and has a 10.0 ft ceiling? 1 in. = 2.54 cm
(exactly); 1 L = 103 cm3
A) 3.99 C) 4.45 × 104 E) 44.5
B) 0.166 D) 0.1145
Answer: E

117) How many liters of air are in a room that measures and has a 10.0 ft ceiling?
1 in. = 2.54 cm (exactly); 1 L = 103 cm3
A) 2.80 × 104 C) 30.2 E) 9.14 × 105
B) 104 D) 3.02 × 107
Answer: A

118) A recipe requires 1.89 liters of milk for a soup base. How many quarts are needed?
A) 1.79 qt. C) 1.89 qt. E) 0.859 qt.
B) 2.00 qt. D) 4.16 qt.
Answer: B

119) If a room requires 25.4 square yards of carpeting, what is the area of the floor in units of
ft2? (3 ft. = 1 yd.)
A) 76.2 ft2 C) 152.4 ft2 E) 64.5 ft2
B) 8.47 ft2 D) 229 ft2
Answer: D
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All About Atoms subatomic particles, Elements, and Moles

120) Identify the description of an atom.
A) neutrons and electrons in nucleus; protons in orbitals
B) neutrons in nucleus; protons and electrons in orbitals
C) protons and neutrons in nucleus; electrons in orbitals
D) protons and electrons in nucleus; neutrons in orbitals
E) electrons in nucleus; protons and neutrons in orbitals
Answer: C

121) Identify the largest subatomic particle.

A) a neutron C) a proton E) a nucleus
B) an electron D) an orbital
Answer: A

122) Identify the smallest subatomic particle.

A) a neutron C) a proton E) a nucleus
B) an electron D) an alpha particle
Answer: B

123) The mass number is equal to

A) the sum of the number of the electrons and protons.
B) the sum of the number of the neutrons and electrons.
C) the sum of the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
D) the sum of the number of protons and neutrons.
Answer: D

124) The atomic number is equal to

A) the number of the protons.
B) the sum of the number of the neutrons and electrons.
C) the sum of the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
D) the sum of the number of protons and neutrons.
Answer: A

125) What does "X" represent in the following symbol? X

A) mercury C) scandium E) selenium

B) chlorine D) bromine
Answer: D

126) What does "X" represent in the following symbol? X

A) silicon C) zinc E) nickel

B) sulfur D) ruthenium
Answer: A
 19

127) Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in the following: X

A) p+ = 18 n° = 18 e- = 22 D) p+ = 18 n° = 22 e- = 40
B) p+ = 18 n° = 22 e- = 18 E) p+ = 40 n° = 22 e- = 18
C) p+ = 22 n° = 18 e- = 18
Answer: B

128) Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in the following: X

A) p+ = 12 n° = 25 e- = 12 D) p+ = 25 n° = 12 e- = 13
B) p+ = 12 n° = 12 e- = 13 E) p+ = 12 n° = 13 e- = 25
C) p+ = 12 n° = 13 e- = 12
Answer: C

129) Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in the following: X

A) p+ = 36 n° = 29 e- = 36 D) p+ = 29 n° = 36 e- = 29
B) p+ = 29 n° = 29 e- = 36 E) p+ = 29 n° = 36 e- = 36
C) p+ = 36 n° = 36 e- = 29
Answer: D

130) What element is defined by the following information?

p+ = 11 n° = 12 e- = 11

A) sodium C) magnesium E) selenium

B) vanadium D) titanium
Answer: A

131) What element is defined by the following information?

p+ = 20 n° = 20 e- = 20

A) zirconium C) potassium E) argon

B) calcium D) neon
Answer: B

132) What element is defined by the following information?

p+ = 17 n° = 20 e- = 17

A) calcium C) chlorine E) oxygen

B) rubidium D) neon
Answer: C
 20

133) Give the symbol for silver.

A) S C) Ar E) Sl
B) Si D) Ag
Answer: D

134) Ions differ in the number of

A) electrons. C) protons. E) electrons and protons.
B) neutrons. D) neutrons and protons.
Answer: A

135) What species is represented by the following information?

p+ = 12 n° = 14 e- = 10

A) Si4+ C) Ne E) Mg2+
B) Mg D) Si
Answer: E

136) Identify the largest atom or ion of carbon.

A) p+ = 6 n° = 6 e- = 6 C) p+ = 6 n° = 6 e- = 7
B) p+ = 6 n° = 7 e- = 6 D) p+ = 6 n° = 6 e- = 5
Answer: C

137) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Halogens are very reactive elements.
B) The alkali metals are fairly unreactive.
C) Sulfur is a main group element.
D) Noble gases do not usually form ions.
E) Zn is a transition metal.
Answer: B

138) Which of the following does NOT describe a metal?

A) good conductor of heat
B) good conductor of electricity
C) tends to gain electrons
D) forms ionic compounds with nonmetals
E) found on the left side of the periodic table
Answer: C

139) Which of the following does NOT describe a nonmetal?

A) tends to gain electrons
B) found in the upper right hand corner of the periodic table
C) poor conductor of electricity
D) nonmetals are generally unreactive
E) poor conductor of heat
Answer: D
 21

140) Identify the instrument that is used to determine the mass of a molecule.
A) mass spectrometer
B) nuclear magnetic resonance spectrometer
C) infrared spectrometer
D) gas chromatograph
E) ultraviolet spectrophotometer
Answer: A

141) The atomic mass for cadmium is

A) 48 C) 40.08 E) 64.411
B) 112.41 D) 20
Answer: B

142) Calculate the atomic mass of silver if silver has 2 naturally occurring isotopes with the
following masses and natural abundances:

Ag-107 106.90509 amu 51.84%

Ag-109 108.90476 amu 48.46%

A) 107.90 amu C) 107.79 amu E) 108.19 amu

B) 108.00 amu D) 108.32 amu
Answer: E

143) Silver has an atomic mass of 107.868 amu. The Ag-109 isotope (108.905 amu) is 48.16%.
What is the amu of the other isotope?
A) 106.905 amu C) 106.903 amu
B) 106.908 amu D) 106.911 amu
Answer: A

144) What mass (in mg) does 2.63 moles of nickel have?
A) 44.8 mg C) 129 mg E) 1.54 × 105 mg
4
B) 2.23 × 10 mg D) 3.56 × 105 mg
Answer: E

145) How many moles of Kr are contained in 398 mg of Kr?

A) 4.75 × 10-3 moles Kr D) 2.99 × 10-3 moles Kr
B) 33.4 moles Kr E) 1.19 × 10-4 moles Kr
-4
C) 2.11 × 10 moles Kr
Answer: A

146) How many moles of Cs are contained in 595 kg of Cs?

A) 2.23 × 102 moles Cs C) 7.91 × 104 moles Cs E) 5.39 × 102 moles Cs
B) 4.48 × 103 moles Cs D) 1.26 × 103 moles Cs
Answer: B
 22

147) How many iron atoms are contained in 354 g of iron?

A) 2.62 × 1025 Fe atoms C) 4.69 × 1024 Fe atoms E) 9.50 × 1022 Fe atoms
B) 2.13 × 1026 Fe atoms D) 3.82 × 1024 Fe atoms
Answer: D

148) How many phosphorus atoms are contained in 158 kg of phosphorus?

A) 3.07 × 1027 phosphorus atoms D) 1.18 × 1024 phosphorus atoms
B) 2.95 × 1027 phosphorus atoms E) 8.47 × 1024 phosphorus atoms
C) 3.25 × 1028 phosphorus atoms
Answer: A

149) Calculate the mass (in ng) of 2.33 × 1020 atoms of oxygen.
A) 6.19 × 106 ng C) 2.25 × 103 ng E) 4.69 × 107 ng
B) 1.62 × 107 ng D) 3.73 × 106 ng
Answer: A

150) How many xenon atoms are contained in 2.36 moles of xenon?
A) 3.92 × 1024 xenon atoms D) 7.91 × 1025 xenon atoms
B) 2.55 × 1023 xenon atoms E) 1.87 × 1026 xenon atoms
C) 1.42 × 1024 xenon atoms
Answer: C

151) Rutherford proposed the

A) atomic bomb. C) First Law of D) theory of explosives.
B) hydroelectric. Conservation. E) nuclear theory.
Answer: E

152) Identify the charges of the protons, neutrons, and electrons.

A) protons +1, neutrons 0, electrons -1
B) protons 0, neutrons -1, electrons 0
C) protons -1, neutrons -1, electrons 0
D) protons 0, neutrons 0, electrons 0
E) protons +1, neutrons +1, electrons +1
Answer: A

153) Identify the element that has an atomic number of 40.

A) neon C) zirconium E) gold
B) calcium D) bromine
Answer: C

154) Give the symbol for potassium.

A) K C) Po E) Pt
B) P D) Ka Answer: A
 23

155) An ion has 26 protons, 29 neutrons, and 23 electrons. The symbol for the ion is ________.
A) 55Fe3+ C) 52Cu3+ E) 55V3-
B) 55Fe3- D) 52Cu3-
Answer: A

156) Isotopes differ in the number of

A) gamma particles. C) compounds. E) neutrons and protons.
B) electrons. D) neutrons.
Answer: D

157) How many electrons does the Se2- ion possess?

A) 32 C) 4 E) 34
B) 36 D) 0
Answer: B

158) How many protons does the As3- ion possess?

A) 30 C) 4 E) 33
B) 36 D) 8
Answer: E

159) What is the chemical symbol for thallium?

A) Ti C) Tm E) Tr
B) Tl D) Th
Answer: B

160) Which of the following represent isotopes?

A: X B: X C: X D: X
A) A and D C) B and D E) all of the above
B) A and C D) C and D
Answer: B

161) What does "X" represent in the following symbol? X

A) dysprosium C) terbium E) copper

B) nickel D) silicon
Answer: E

162) In which of the following sets do all species have the same number of electrons?
A) Cl-, Ar, Ca2+ C) K+, Rb+, Cs+
B) C, N3-, O2- D) Br, Br-, Br+
Answer: A
 24

163) Predict the charge that the ion formed from chlorine would have.
A) 1- C) 1+ E) 3-
B) 2+ D) 4-
Answer: A

164) Predict the charge of the most stable ion of sodium.

A) 1+ C) 4+ E) 6+
B) 3- D) 5+ Answer: A

165) Which of the following elements is a metal?

A) Sb C) Br E) He
B) O D) Ag
Answer: D

166) Which of the following elements is a liquid at room temperature?

A) radon C) mercury E) calcium
B) boron D) lithium
Answer: C

167) Which of the following statements about subatomic particles is TRUE?

A) A neutral atom contains the same number of protons and electrons.
B) Protons have about the same mass as electrons.
C) Electrons make up most of the mass of an atom.
D) Protons and neutrons have opposite, but equal in magnitude, charges.
E) Neutrons and electrons are found in the nucleus of an atom.
Answer: A

168) Identify the cation.

A) O2- C) Br E) I2
D) Kr
B) Sr2+
Answer: B

169) List the element that is in the highest percentage by mass in our bodies.
A) nitrogen C) oxygen E) sodium
B) phosphorus D) silicon Answer: C

170) The average atomic mass for silver is ________.

A) 28.09 C) 107.87
B) 14 D) 47
Answer: C

171) Which of the following contains the most atoms? You shouldn't need to do a calculation
here.
A) 10.0 g Mg C) 10.0 g Ca E) 10.0 g Ba
B) 10.0 g Li D) 10.0 g Kr
Answer: B
 25

172) How many Li atoms are contained in 97.9 g of Li?

A) 5.90 × 1025 Li atoms C) 8.49 × 1024 Li atoms E) 4.18 × 1024 Li atoms
B) 7.09 × 1021 Li atoms D) 4.27 × 1022 Li atoms
Answer: C

173) Calculate the mass (in g) of 2.1 × 1024 atoms of W.

A) 3.9 × 102 g C) 3.2 × 102 g E) 6.4 × 102 g
B) 2.4 × 102 g D) 1.5 × 102 g
Answer: E

174) How many atoms are in 7.50 moles of Ca?

A) 4.52 × 1024 atoms C) 5.02 × 1023 atoms E) 7.53 × 1023 atoms
B) 1.52 × 1024 atoms D) 3.01 × 1024 atoms
Answer: A

175) How many atoms are in 2.50 moles of N?

A) 4.52 × 1024 atoms C) 5.02 × 1023 atoms E) 7.53 × 1023 atoms
B) 1.51 × 1024 atoms D) 3.01 × 1024 atoms
Answer: B

Quantum Mechanical Model of Atoms

176) A type of energy embodied in oscillating electric and magnetic fields is called
A) infrared radiation. C) magnetism. E) electromagnetic
B) microwave radiation. D) electricity. radiation.
Answer: E

177) The vertical height of a wave is called

A) wavelength. C) frequency. E) median.
B) amplitude. D) area.
Answer: B

178) The number of cycles that pass through a stationary point is called
A) wavelength. C) frequency. E) median.
B) amplitude. D) area.
Answer: C

179) The distance between adjacent crests is called

A) wavelength. C) frequency. E) median.
B) amplitude. D) area.
Answer: A
 26

180) Which of the following visible colors of light has the highest frequency?
A) green C) blue E) orange
B) red D) yellow
Answer: C

181) Which of the following visible colors of light has the longest wavelength?
A) blue C) yellow E) violet
B) green D) red
Answer: D

182) Which of the following colors of electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wavelength?
A) blue C) orange E) yellow
B) violet D) green
Answer: B

183) Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest frequency?
A) yellow C) orange E) purple
B) blue D) green
Answer: C

184) A sunburn is caused by overexposure to ________ radiation.

A) ultraviolet C) microwave E) radio
B) gamma D) x-ray
Answer: A

185) ________ is/are used to image bones and internal organs.

A) Ultraviolet light C) Microwaves E) Radio waves
B) Gamma rays D) X-rays
Answer: D

186) Food can be cooked by ________ radiation.

A) ultraviolet C) microwave E) radio
B) gamma D) x-ray
Answer: C

187) The heat that is felt from a hot object is called ________ radiation.
A) ultraviolet C) infrared E) microwave
B) gamma D) x-ray
Answer: C

188) When waves of equal amplitude from two sources are out of phase when they interact, it is
called
A) destructive interference. D) effusion.
B) diffraction. E) amplitude.
C) constructive interference.
Answer: A
 27

189) When waves of equal amplitude from two sources are in phase when they interact, it is
called
A) destructive interference. C) constructive D) effusion.
B) diffraction. interference. E) amplitude.
Answer: C

190) When a wave encounters an obstacle or a slit that is comparable in size to its wavelength, it
bends around it. This characteristic is called
A) destructive interference. C) constructive D) effusion.
B) diffraction. interference. E) amplitude.
Answer: B

191) Calculate the wavelength (in nm) of the blue light emitted by a mercury lamp with a
frequency of 6.88 × 1014 Hz.
A) 229 nm C) 206 nm E) 675 nm
B) 436 nm D) 485 nm
Answer: B

192) ________, used to destroy molecules within unwanted cells such as cancer cells, are called
ionizing radiation.
A) Beta and gamma rays C) Microwave and infrared E) Visible and microwave
B) Alpha and beta rays D) X-rays and gamma rays
Answer: D

193) Calculate the energy of the green light emitted, per photon, by a mercury lamp with a
frequency of 5.49 × 1014 Hz.
A) 2.75 × 10-19 J C) 5.46 × 10-19 J E) 4.68 × 10-19 J
B) 3.64 × 10-19 J D) 1.83 × 10-19 J
Answer: B

194) Calculate the energy of the orange light emitted, per photon, by a neon sign with a
frequency of 4.89 × 1014 Hz.
A) 3.09 × 10-19 J C) 3.24 × 10-19 J E) 5.11 × 10-19 J
B) 6.14 × 10-19 J D) 1.63 × 10-19 J
Answer: C

195) Calculate energy of red light emitted by a neon atom with a wavelength of 703.2 nm.
A) 3.54 × 10-19 J C) 2.34 × 10-19 J E) 2.83 × 10-19 J
B) 4.27 × 10-19 J D) 6.45 × 10-19 J
Answer: E

196) Calculate energy of violet light emitted by a hydrogen atom with a wavelength of 410.1 nm.
A) 4.85 × 10-19 J C) 1.23 × 10-19 J E) 5.27 x 10-19 J
B) 2.06 × 10-19 J D) 8.13 × 10-19 J
Answer: A
 28

197) How many photons are contained in a flash of green light (525 nm) that contains 189 kJ of
energy?
A) 5.67 × 1023 photons C) 1.25 × 1031 photons E) 7.99 × 1030 photons
B) 2.01 × 1024 photons D) 4.99 × 1023 photons
Answer: D

198) Determine the shortest frequency of light required to remove an electron from a sample of
Ti metal if the binding energy of titanium is 3.14 × 103 kJ/mol.
A) 7.87 × 1015 Hz C) 2.11 × 1015 Hz E) 6.19 × 1015 Hz
B) 4.74 × 1015 Hz D) 1.27 × 1015 Hz
Answer: A

199) What total energy (in kJ) is contained in 1.0 mol of photons, all with a frequency of 2.75 ×
1014 Hz?
A) 182 kJ C) 457 kJ E) 110 kJ
B) 219 kJ D) 326 kJ
Answer: E

200) Determine the longest wavelength of light required to remove an electron from a sample of
potassium metal, if the binding energy for an electron in K is 1.76 × 103 kJ/mol.
A) 147 nm C) 113 nm E) 387 nm
B) 68.0 nm D) 885 nm
Answer: B

201) When an electric current is passed through a tube containing neon, neon atoms absorb some
of the electrical energy and reemit it as a ________ color.
A) white C) violet E) red
B) yellow D) blue
Answer: E

202) When an electric current is passed through a tube containing mercury, mercury atoms
absorb some of the electrical energy and reemit it as a ________ color.
A) white C) violet E) red
B) yellow D) blue
Answer: D

203) When an electric current is passed through a tube containing hydrogen, hydrogen atoms
absorb some of the electrical energy and reemit it as a ________ color.
A) white C) violet E) red
B) yellow D) blue
Answer: E

204) Identify the color of a flame test for potassium.

A) violet C) white E) blue
B) red D) yellow Answer: A
 29

205) Identify the color of a flame test for sodium.

A) violet C) white E) blue
B) red D) yellow
Answer: D

206) Identify the color of a flame test for lithium.

A) violet C) white E) blue
B) red D) yellow
Answer: B

207) Identify the color of a flame test for barium.

A) violet C) white E) blue
B) red D) yellow Answer: C

208) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) The emission spectrum of a particular element is always the same and can be used to identify
the element.
B) Part of the Bohr model proposed that electrons in the hydrogen atom are located in "stationary
states" or particular orbits around the nucleus.
C) The uncertainty principle states that we can never know both the exact location and speed of
an electron.
D) An orbital is the volume in which we are most likely to find an electron.
E) All of the above are true.
Answer: E

209) Calculate the wavelength of an electron (m = 9.11 × 10-28 g) moving at 3.66 × 106 m/s.
A) 1.99 × 10-10 m C) 1.81 × 10-10 m E) 2.76 × 10-9 m
B) 5.03 × 10-10 m D) 5.52 × 10-9 m
Answer: A

210) Calculate the wavelength of a baseball (m = 155 g) moving at 32.5 m/s.

A) 7.60 × 10-36 m C) 2.15 × 10-32 m E) 3.57 × 10-32 m
B) 1.32 × 10-34 m D) 2.68 × 10-34 m
Answer: B

211) Determine the velocity of a medicine ball (m = 10.0 kg) with a wavelength of
1.33 × 10-35 m.
A) 8.81 m/s C) 2.21 m/s E) 6.44 m/s
B) 12.3 m/s D) 4.98 m/s
Answer: D

212) Determine the mass of a ball with a wavelength of 3.45 × 10-34 m and a velocity of
6.55 m/s.
A) 0.293 g C) 293 g E) 3.41 g
B) 12.6 g D) 346 g Answer: C
 30

213) What are the possible orbitals for n = 3?

A) s, p, d C) s
B) s, p, d, f D) s, p
Answer: A

214) What value of l is represented by a d orbital?

A) 1 C) 0
B) 2 D) 3
Answer: B

215) What value of l is represented by a f orbital?

A) 1 C) 0
B) 2 D) 3
Answer: D

216) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) We can sometimes know the exact location and speed of an electron at the same time.
B) All orbitals in a given atom are roughly the same size.
C) Since electrons have mass, we must always consider them to have particle properties and
never wavelike properties.
D) Atoms are roughly spherical because when all of the different shaped orbitals are overlapped,
they take on a spherical shape.
E) All of the above are true.
Answer: D

217) Which of the following quantum numbers describes the shape of an orbital?
A) principal quantum number D) Schrödinger quantum number
B) magnetic quantum number E) angular momentum quantum number
C) spin quantum number
Answer: E

218) Which of the following quantum numbers describes the orientation of an orbital?
A) magnetic quantum number D) spin quantum number
B) principal quantum number E) Schrödinger quantum number
C) angular momentum quantum number
Answer: A

219) Which of the following quantum numbers describes the size and energy of an orbital?
A) magnetic quantum number
B) principal quantum number
C) angular momentum quantum number
D) spin quantum number
E) Schrödinger quantum number
Answer: B
 31

220) How many different values of l are possible in the third principal level?
A) 1 C) 3 E) 4
B) 2 D) 0
Answer: C

220) Determine the energy change associated with the transition from in the
hydrogen atom.
A) -2.18 × 10-19 J C) +4.58 × 10-19 J E) +3.76 × 10-19 J
B) +6.54 × 10-19 J D) -1.53 × 10-19 J
Answer: C

221) Determine the energy change associated with the transition from in the
hydrogen atom.
A) +3.03 × 10-19 J C) +5.51 × 10-19 J E) +2.69 × 10-19 J
B) -1.82 × 10-19 J D) -3.03 × 10-19 J
Answer: D

222) Identify the orbital.

C) px orbital
D) dyz orbital
E) py orbital

A) pz orbital
B) dxy orbital
Answer: C

223) Identify the orbital.

C) px orbital
D) dyz orbital
E) py orbital
Answer: E

A) pz orbital
B) dxy orbital
 32

224) Identify the orbital.

C) px orbital
D) dyz orbital
E) py orbital
Answer: A

A) pz orbital
B) dxy orbital

225) Identify the orbital.

C) px orbital
D) f orbital
E) py orbital
Answer: A

A) d orbital
B) dxy orbital

226) Identify the orbital.

C) px orbital
D) f orbital
E) py orbital
Answer: D

A) d orbital
B) dxy orbital

227) During a thunderstorm, you see a flash of lightning. Five seconds later, you hear the
thunder. How far away is the storm?
A) 1 yard C) 1 mile E) 12 miles
B) 10 miles D) 6 miles Answer: C

228) Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 640 nm appears as orange light to the
human eye. The frequency of this light is ________ s-1.
A) 4.688 × 1014 C) 1.920 × 102 E) 2.133 × 10-15
B) 4.688 × 105 D) 1.920 × 1011
Answer: A
 33

229) An FM radio station broadcasts electromagnetic radiation at a frequency of 101.2 MHz. The
wavelength of this radiation is ________ m.
A) 2.964 × 106 C) 3.036 × 1016 E) 0.3373
B) 2.964 Answer: B
D) 3.036 × 1010

230) On the electromagnetic spectrum, visible light is immediately between two other
wavelengths. Name them.
A) infrared and gamma ray D) microwave and ultraviolet x-ray
B) radio and gamma ray E) infrared and ultraviolet
C) gamma ray and ultraviolet x-ray
Answer: E

231) Place the following types of electromagnetic radiation in order of decreasing energy.

visible light radio waves infrared light

A) radio waves > infrared light > visible light

B) visible light > infrared light > radio waves
C) radio waves > visible light > infrared light
D) visible light > radio waves > infrared light
E) infrared light > radio waves > visible light
Answer: B

232) Which of the following occurs as the energy of a photon increases?

A) The frequency decreases. D) The frequency increases.
B) The speed increases. E) None of the above occurs as the energy
C) Planck's constant increases. of a photon increases.
Answer: D

233) Identify the color that has a wavelength of 545 nm.

A) blue C) red E) violet
B) green D) yellow
Answer: B

234) Calculate the wavelength (in nm) of the red light emitted by a neon sign with a frequency of
4.76 × 1014 Hz.
A) 630 nm C) 476 nm E) 176 nm
B) 159 nm D) 776 nm
Answer: A

235) Electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 575 nm appears as yellow light to the
human eye. The energy of one photon of this light is 3.46 × 10-19 J. Thus, a laser that emits 1.3
× 10-2 J of energy in a pulse of light at this wavelength produces ________ photons in each
pulse.
A) 2.7 × 10-17 B) 7.8 × 10-24 C) 2.2 × 1019
 34

D) 3.8 × 1016 E) 6.5 × 1013

Answer: D

236) The de Broglie wavelength of an electron with a velocity of 6.90 × 106 m/s is ________ m.
The mass of the electron is 9.11 × 10-28 g.
A) 9.49 × 109 C) 1.05 × 10-16 E) 1.05 × 10-10
B) 9.49 × 1012 D) 1.05 × 10-13
Answer: E

237) Determine the mass of a ball with a velocity of 45.0 m/s and a wavelength of
8.92 × 10-34 m.
A) 33.4 g C) 2.66 g E) 16.5 g
B) 594 g D) 60.6 g
Answer: E

238) Determine the velocity of a marble (m = 8.11 g) with a wavelength of 3.46 × 10-33 m.
A) 42.3 m/s C) 23.6 m/s E) 52.9 m/s
B) 2.36 m/s D) 38.8 m/s
Answer: C

239) Which of the following transitions (in a hydrogen atom) represent emission of the longest
wavelength photon?
A) n = 1 to n = 3 C) n = 3 to n = 4 E) n = 5 to n = 4
B) n = 3 to n = 2 D) n = 5 to n = 2
Answer: E

240) How many orbitals are contained in the third principal level (n = 3) of a given atom?
A) 9 C) 12 E) 10
B) 1 D) 6
Answer: A

241) How many sublevels are contained in the second shell (n = 2) of a given atom?
A) 1 C) 3 E) 15
B) 2 D) 18
Answer: B

242) Give all possible values of l if n = 3.

A) 3 C) 0, 1, 2 E) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) +1/2 D) -1, 0, 1
Answer: C

243) In which orbital below would an electron (on average) be closest to the nucleus?
A) 4f C) 2s E) 5p
B) 4s D) 5d
Answer: C
 35

244) In which orbital below would an electron (on average) be farthest from the nucleus?
A) 1s C) 3s E) 3p
B) 6f D) 5d
Answer: B

245) For a hydrogen atom, which electronic transition would result in the emission of a photon
with the highest energy?
A) 2s → 3p C) 4p → 2s
B) 2p → 6d D) 5f → 3d
Answer: C

246) For hydrogen, what is the wavelength of the photon emitted when an electron drops from a
4p orbital to a 2s orbital in a hydrogen atom? The Rydberg constant is 1.097 × 10-2 nm-1.
A) 656.3 nm C) 364.6 nm Answer: B
B) 486.2 nm -3
D) 2.057 × 10 nm

247) Describe the shape of a 2px orbital.

A) spherical C) three balls E) eight balls
B) dumbbell shaped D) four balls
Answer: B