Oral Surgery, Oral Diagnosis, Roentgenology

1. Which of the following is the most characteristics radiograph evidence of a vertical root fracture?
a. A persistent periodontal defect
b. A radiolucent halo surrounding the root of the fracture
c. A radiopaque lesion at the sight of the fracture
d. A visible fracture when transillumination is used

2. The main concept of the cone-shift technique is that as the vertical or horizontal angulations of x-ray tube head
changes, the object buccal or closest to the tube head moves to the ______ side of the radiograph when compared to
the lingual object.
a. Same
b. Opposite

3. Much of the speed of the film depends on the size of the silver hslide crystal used. The greater the gain size, the:
a. Faster the film
b. Slower the film

4. In surveying the jaw edentulous patients, what technique is preferred?

a. bisecting
b. paralleling

5. Using bisecting angle technique, the vertical angulation of the tube head for a normally erupted permanent upper left
central incisor should be about:

a. +30 degrees
b. +20 degrees
c. +45 degrees
d. +40 degrees

6. For a slighlty torsiverted upper permanent maxillary right central incisor, the vertical angulation of the tube head
using the bisecting angle technique should be about:

a. +30 degrees
b. +20 degrees
c. +45 degrees
d. +40 degrees

7. Mandibular second molar left:

a. +20 degrees
b. -15 degrees
c. -20 degrees
d. -5 degrees

8. Maxillary first molar right:

a. +45 degrees
b. +40 degrees
c. +30 degrees
d. +20 degrees
9. After fixing, the processed film should be washed in a sufficient flow of water and for an adequate time to:
a. prevent oxidation of developer
b. xinhibit decomposition of the thiosulfate clearing agent
c. assure removal of all processing chemicals that might affect appearance & stability of film
d. soften the film

10. The primary function of the developing agent is to amplify the latent image by:
a. softening the gelatin
b. preventing neutralization of acid fixer
c. converting the exposed silver halide crystals into metallic silver grains
d. dissolving the unexposed silver halide from the emulsion

11. Radiographic procedure that produces a single image of the facial structure including both maxillary & mandibular
arch and their supporting structure
a. panoramic radiography
b. rotational radiography
c. pantomography
d. all of the above

12. Function of the fixing solution is:

a. to dilute the developer
b. to remove the alkaliactivator
c. to soften the emulsion on the film
d. to remove the under developed silver halide crystals from the emulsion

13. The rays which are most likely to be absorbed by the skin and produce x-ray injuries:
a. X-rays of long wavelength
b. X-rays of short wavelength
c. Central x-rays
d. Penetrating x-rays

14. Improper direction of x-rays

a. Reticulated roentgenogram
b. Black spots on roentgenogram
c. Blurred roentgenogram
d. Distorted roentgenogram

15. Use of a long cone in right angle radiographic technique:

a. To avoid distortion of image shape
b. To avoid magnification of image
c. To reduce secondary radiation
d. To distorted roentgenogram

16. When a "B" film is used, exposure to a patient at 3 feet is 1 roentgen. Assuming that all other exposure factors are the
same, what would the exposure be with "D" speed film at 6 feet?
a. 1/8 R
b. 3/4 R
c. 1/4 R
d. 1/2 R

17. Radiopaque
a. Wood
b. Rubber
c. Lead
d. Glass

18. A fast film is more sensitive to x-ray radiation than a slow type of film, therefore:
a. It can be exposed properly with less radiation
b. It does not give a good detail
c. It cannot exposed properly with less radiation
d. Secondary radiation cannot be registered on fast film

19. An indicator of the quality of an x-ray beam:

a. Milliamperage
b. Machine output
c. Half-value layer
d. Exposure time

20. Radiopaque
a. Acrylic
b. Zinc oxide eugenol
c. Silicate
d. Composite resin

21. All are radiopaque, EXCEPT:

a. Genial tubercle
b. Median palatine suture
c. Anterior nasal spine

22. Usual number of films employed in a radiographic examination for children:

a. 15
b. 8
c. 13
d. 10

23. A temporomandibular joint radiography will show the following EXCEPT

a. Condylar fracture
b. Meniscus
c. Articular eminence
d. Lipping of condyle

24. The paralleling intraoral radiographic technique fulfills the following basic principles of shadow casting, EXCEPT:
a. Radiation should strike both object and film at right angles
b. Source of radiation should be as small as possible
c. Distance from radiation source to the object should as great as possible
d. Object and film should be parallel

25. The rule which governs horizontal tube movement indicated that the central ray must be:
a. Perpendicular to anteroposterior tangent of the tooth 0 angle to anteroposterior tangent of the tooth
b. At 45
c. At 30 0 angle to anteroposterior tangent of the tooth
d. Parallel to anteroposterior tangent of the tooth

26. An effective focal spot is:

a. Larger than the actual focal spot
b. Smaller than the actual focal spot
c. In the shape of rectangle
d. In the shape of a circle

27. Film badge dosimetry:

a. Only if lateral plates are exposed
b. A twin film sensitive to x-rays, beta and gamma rays and only useful in lateral plates are exposed
c. A twin film sensitive to x-rays, beta and gamma rays
d. Not important to use in modern tip

28. All are multilocular and radiolucent in appearance EXCEPT:

a. Ameloblastoma
b. Early cementoma
c. Myxoma
d. Fibrous dysplasia

29. Basic effect of x-radiation on living tissues

a. Cauterization
b. Precipitation
c. Ionization
d. Agglutination

30. Most penetrating type of x-ray radiation

a. Soft radiation
b. Green-rays
c. Long wave length radiation
d. Hard radiation

31. Tomography
a. All of these
b. Radiographic study of specific layers of tissue within the body
c. Laminography
d. Panoramic radiography

32. Amount of tissue damage following irradiation depends on:

a. All of these
b. Dose rate of irradiation
c. Column of tissue irradiation
d. Intensity of exposure

33. The following causes of very dark films EXCEPT:

a. Low milliamperage
b. Aged film
c. Overdevelopment
d. Solution too warm

34. The target angle in an x-rays tube for dental unit is usually:
a. 20 degrees
b. 40 degrees
c. 10 degrees
d. 50 degrees

35. Radiographic diagnosis of a dense radiopaque area over the apical 1/3 of the maxillary cuspid:
a. Palatine foramina
b. Canine eminence
c. Nasal cavity
d. Median suture

36. Cross sectional occlusal radiographs are useful in locating:

a. Mental foramen
b. Maxillary sinus muceceles
c. Sialoliths in wharton's duct
d. Sialoliths in sensen's duct

37. Technique of radiography that uses a selenium plate to record as image:

a. Laminography
b. Cineradiography
c. Cinemaradiography
d. Xeroradiography

38. Which of the following is primarily responsible for the absorption of photons produced by 100 kVp x-ray machine
operating at maximum output?
a. Compton effect
b. Photoelectric effect
c. 50% compton, 50% photoelectric
d. 25% compton, 75% photoelectric

39. When operating (dental radiography) in the maxilla:

a. Occlusal plane should be at 20 degrees angle to the floor
b. Occlusal plane should be at 10 degrees to the floor
c. Occlusal plane is between 45 degrees and 90 degrees angle to the floor
d. Occlusal plane should be parallel to the floor

40. Radiographic examination of jaw fractures should include the following:

a. Intraoral occlusal views
b. All of these
c. None of these
d. Posterior and anterior projections

41. When operating (dental radiography)in the mandible:

a. Occlusal plane should be 35 degrees angle to the floor
b. Occlusal plane should be at 90 degrees angle to the floor
c. Occlusal plane should be parallel to or at 10 degrees angle to the floor
d. Occlusal plane should be at 20 degrees angle to the floor

42. A cycle of electricity is the complete sine wave:

a. Midway between the peak and zero potential
b. Below the zero potential
c. Above and below the zero potential
d. Above the zero potential

43. During the negative part of the alternating current reversal:

a. No x-rays are produced
b. The cathode is energized
c. Electrons continue to flow across the tube
d. X-rays continue to be produced

44. The boiling off of electrons at the cathode when the tungsten filament is heated is known as the:
a. Thermal generation
b. Thermo-electrical diffusion
c. Electro-thermal kinetic movement
d. Thermionic emission
45. Each impulse of x-ray lasts _________ of a second
a. 1/120
b. 1/60
c. 1/100
d. 1/20

46. In accordance with the inverse square law, as the focal distance is increased from 8 inches to 16 inches the:
a. kVp must be increased
b. Milliamperage must be increased
c. kVp need not be increased
d. Milliamperage remains the same while the kVp is increased

47. Most scattered radiation emanates from the:

a. Tube head itself
b. Various equipment in the dental office
c. Patient
d. Cone of the tube head

48. Radiation scatter produces ________ exposure on the film.

a. Erratic
b. Uniform
c. Non-uniform
d. Unpredictable

49. The amount of energy of each type of radiation in the electromagnetic wave spectrum is determined by its:
a. Speed
b. Wavelength
c. Amplitude
d. Electromotive force

50. The diagnosis of pain is based upon its:

a. Both of the choices
b. Duration
c. Site
d. None of the choices

51. After the primary radiation is filtered and collimated it is known as the:
a. Primary beam
b. Purified beam
c. Useful beam
d. Central ray

52. In 60-cycle alternating current there are ________ impulses of x-rays per second.
a. 90
b. 120
c. 60
d. 100
53. The human lethal dose of radiation is estimated at _______ rad.
a. 450
b. 550
c. 600
d. 500

54. The effects of radiation on somatic cells:

a. Are passed on only within the irradiated individual
b. Are confined only to the cells affected at the time of exposure
c. Do not end with the death of the individual
d. Are passed onto succeeding generations

55. Film densities and changes are deemed best seen by the human eye in the kVp range of:
a. 60 to 70
b. 75 to 80
c. 70 to 75
d. 85 to 80

56. The disadvantage of the so-called long cone technique is the:

a. Increase object film distance
b. Increased focal film distance
c. Increased milliamperage
d. Increased radiation scatter
57. The measure of the quality of x-rays from the tube is:
a. Milliamperage rating
b. Kilovoltage
c. Half-value layer
d. Whole-range value layer

58. The device used to show radiograph contrast is the:

a. Light wedge
b. Step wedge
c. Illuminator
d. Film viewer

59. The area greatest radiation scatter are:

a. Behind the tube
b. In front of the patient
c. Behind the patient
d. In front of the tube

60. In the construction of the x-ray tube the size of the target area is dependent upon the:
a. Milliamperage
b. Kilovolt peak
c. Target objet of distance
d. Amount of heat produced by the x-ray at the anode

61. A method of measuring the equality of the beam of heterogeneous x-ray is:
a. Victorean chamber
b. Geiger counter
c. Radiation dosimeter
d. Aluminum half value layer
62. The resulting high contrast or low contrast films are due to variations in:
a. Milliamperage
b. Focal film distance
c. Film emulsion
d. Kilovoltage
63. The density of a film is determined by the:
a. Type of x-ray machine used
b. Manufacturing process involved
c. Differences in the absorption of the x-rays on the film emulsion
d. Composition of the emulsion on the film

64. With the use of xeroradiography the latent image is:

a. Chemical
b. Photo chemical
c. Electrostatic
d. Photoelectric

65. Of the following the shortest wavelength is given off by:

a. Electric waves
b. Radar
c. Visible light
d. Radio waves

66. Penumbra formation is inevitable in dental radiography because of:

a. Line focus
b. The minute vibration in the machine that cannot be avoided
c. The position of the patient in the chair
d. The distance between the tube and the object

67. The cathode in the x-ray tube consists of a tungsten filament surrounded by a focusing cup made of:
a. Pure silver
b. Titanium
c. Molybdenum
d. Vanadium

68. The breaking up of the natural molecules into positively and negatively charged particles by x-rays is known as:
a. Depolarization
b. De-ionization
c. Polarization
d. Ionization

69. In intra oral radiography the focal film distance is between ________ inches.
a. 6 and 18
b. 8 and 16
c. 10 and 24
d. 5 and 12

70. The amount of energy of each type of radiation is determined by its:

a. Amplitude
b. Milliamperage
c. Wavelength
d. Electromotive force
71. The speed of electrons bombarding the anode is controlled by the:
a. Difference in voltage across the tube
b. Amount of current flowing into the tube
c. Heat produced in the filament
d. Voltage of current supplied to the x-ray machine
72. The milliamperage in dental x-ray machines varies from:
a. 30 to 40
b. 25 to 35
c. 20 to 30
d. 5 to 15

73. The cone in the head of the x-ray machine:

a. Contribute to the secondary radiation and scatter
b. Reduces secondary radiation due its lead lining
c. Is an important device in the bisecting technique
d. Concentrates the central beam
74. The amount of electricity that flows between the cathode and anode is determined by the:
a. Voltage
b. Distance between the cathode and anode
c. Size of the cloud of electrons
d. Temperature of the cathode

75. A target made of metal with a high vapor pressure will result in:
a. Melting of the target
b. Blisters and roughness its smooth surface
c. Soft rays
d. Hard x-rays

76. The alternating current in the dental x-ray machine reverses itself every:
a. 1/20th of a minute
b. 1/20th of a second
c. 1/120th of a minute
d. 1/120th of a second

77. Aside from the object film distance the other important determinant in the bisecting angle technique for intra oral
radiography is the:
a. Milliamperage
b. kVp
c. focal film distance
d. absence of parallelism between the teeth and the plane

78. The tungsten target in the anode of the x-ray tube is set in a stem made of:
a. Brass
b. Cobalt
c. Silver
d. Copper

79. In the x-ray machine:

a. There are two major circuits and one minor circuit
b. There is a major circuit and two minor circuit
c. There is only a single major circuit
d. There are two major circuit

80. A "Herringbone" effect on the developed film indicates:

a. pressure line c. static electricity pattern
b. reticulation d. wrong side of the film expose
81. The roentgen is:
a. exceedingly valuable for detecting calculus
b. valuable only for subgingival calculus
c. valuable only for supragingival of calculus
d. useless in determining presence of calculus

82. To overcome distortion due to divergent x-ray, the following intra-oral technique is best:
a. bisecting c. paralleling
b. vertical d. neither bisecting nor paralleling technique is perfect

83. Which of the following increase the size of the penumbra?

a. movement of tube and small focal point
b. small focal point
c. movement of tube
d. long source object distance

84. Optimum temperature for the development of a radiograph:

a. 64F b. 70F c. 65F d.50F

85. The probable radiographic diagnosis for radiopaque area on the distal root of the mandibular right molar.
a. eburnated bone c. cementoma
b. condensing osteitis d. a radiographic film cannot be used for diagnosis

86. When taking radiograph of a patient whit thick and heavy bones, how should proper subject contrast be maintained?
a. using high contrast film c. increase kVp
b. increasing development time d. increasing exposure time

87. If an x-ray film is subjected to great changes in the temperature between different processing solution, it will exhibit:
a. blurred image c. reticulation
b. chemical stain d. herringbone pattern

88. Use to identify the position of certain anthropometric landmarks:

a. steroscopic radiography c. cephalometric radiography
b. velopharyngeal radiography d. carpal index radiography

89. Recommended dosimeter for personal monitoring in the dental office

a. 0 to 200 mR c. 500 mR
b. 350 mR d. 300 mR

90. most sensitive to radiation induced cancer

a. nerve b. skin c. thyroid d. female breast

91. Radiographic appearance of teeth in dentinogenesis imperfecta

a. abnormal pulp, normal dentin
b. disturbance in both enamel and dentin
c. missing enamel with abnormal dentin canals
d. shortened roots and oblirated root canals

92. Dento-skeletal analysis

a. cephalometric x-ray c. occlusal view
b. water's view c. panoramic x -ray

93. In radiation mA primary controls

a. electron speed
b. number of electrons produced
c. penetrating power of radiation
d. exposure time

94. The primary purpose of a lead diaphragm within the cone of an x-ray tubehead is to:
a. increase penetrating qualities of the beam
b. eliminate long wave length x-ray photos
c. reduce eliminate tube length leakage
d. restrict size and shape of the beam of radiation

95. Extra oral radiographic films used with intensifying screens will:
a. improve image quality
b. increase KVP
c. increase exposure time
d. decrease radiation to patient

96. Filters are used in the X-ray beam to:

a. reduce film density
b. increase contrast
c. reduced patient radiation dose
d. produce sharp image
97. “SANDWICH FILM”
a. periapical film
b. bite wing
c. occlusal film
d. non screen film

98. A depleted fixing solution has its:

a. acid content neutralized
b. hardening action altered
c. staining potential increased
d. all of the above

99. Rays with shorter wave lengts:

a. low penetration
b. soft radiation
c. produced blurred roentgenogram
d. high penetration

100. Dark line surrounding the root of the tooth:

a. periodontal membrane space
b. cementum
c. alveolar bone
d. dentin
101. Blurred roentgenogram
a. poor quality of film
b. insufficient fixing
c. Insufficient developing
d. movement of patient

102. Fogged roentgenogram

a. using old film
b. unsafe illumination in the dark room
c. stray radiation
d. all of the above
103. Roentgenogram with partial image is caused by:
a. using old film
b. improper direction of X-rays
c. X-ray not properly centered on film
d. low voltage

104. Ionizing radiation of potentially harmful if exposure is excessive like:

a. X-rays
b. Gamma rays
c. cosmic rays
d. all of the above

105. The radiation that comes directly from the tube through the aperture, collimator and filter and emerges as the useful
beam
a. stray radiation
b. leakage radiation
c. primary radiation
d. secondary radiation

106. Systematic comparison and contrast of symptoms of one of several disease:

a. different diagnosis
b. deductive diagnosis
c. exclusion diagnosis
d. laboratory diagnosis

107. Film emulsion after cracks when subjected to great changes in the temperature between the different processing
solution resulting in:
a. reticulation
b. multiple black liner streaks
c. distorted images
d. cone cut

108. Radiographic diagnosis of a lower incisor consisting of 2 crowns and one root with one root canal:
a. Concrescence
b. Supernumerary
c. Fusion
d. Germination

109. X-rays are:

a. None of these
b. Similar to light rays with the same wavelength
c. Not similar to light but with the same wavelength
d. The etiology of periodontal diseases

110. The use of double intensifying screen and screen film:

a. To reduce density
b. To reduce contrast
c. To reduce exposure time
d. To reduce target-skin distance

111. 100 erge/gm. of tissue

a. Gray
b. Roentgen
c. Rad
d. Rbe
112. Irradiation therapy is contraindicated in:
a. None of these
b. Geriatric patients
c. Infants and young children
d. Adults

113. Latent period.

a. Period between exposure and intensifying screen reaction
b. Period during which there is a clinical awareness of the radiation effect
c. Period during which the film is exposed and not developed
d. Period between x-ray exposure and occurrence of signs and symptoms of tissue changes

114. Used in the study of temporomandibular joint and in speech and swallowing evaluation:
a. Cineradiography
b. Tempororadiography
c. Xeroradiography
d. Laminography

115. The substance most commonly used for protection against x-ray radiation.
a. Steel
b. Platinum
c. Selenium
d. Lead

116. Radiolucent:
a. Tuberosity
b. Coronoid process
c. Hamular process
d. Maxillary sinus

117. The underdeveloped image in an exposed film is called:

a. Latent x-ray
b. Fluorescence
c. Latent image
d. Luminescence

118. X-rays travel at a speed of:

a. 196,000 miles per second
b. 186,000miles per second
c. 176,000 miles per second
d. 206,000 miles per second

119. Radiographic view that best demonstrates a mediolaterally displaced subcondylar fracture:
a. Posteroanterior projection
b. Maxillary oclussal view
c. Panoramic protection
d. Lateral skull protection

120. Appears as white ring with a dark center immediately beneath and between the lower and central incisors:
a. Mental process
b. Genial tubercle
c. External oblique line
d. Lingual
121. The following maybe demonstrated on conventional TMJ radiographs, except:
a. Areas of bone destruction on condylar heads
b. Range of anteroposterior movement of condyles
c. Perforation in particular disk
d. Position of condyle in glenoid fossa

122. Reading side of radiotized film:

a. Any side
b. Left side of film
c. Right side of film
d. Depressed side of embossed dot

123. Cross-sectional occlusal radiographs are useful in locating:

a. Sialoliths in Wharton’s Duct
b. Mental foramen

124. Which of the following materials is most difficult to distinguish radiographically from dental caries?
a. Gold inlay
b. Composite resin
c. Zinc oxide
d. Methyl, methacrylate

125. To increase only the penetrative quality of x-radiation, an operator should increase:
a. Kilo
b. Miliamperage
c. Exposure time
d. Collimation

126. In radiology, mA controls:

a. Penetrating power of radiation
b. Exposure time
c. Electron speed
d. Number of electrons produced

127. Technique of radiography that uses a selenium plate to record as image:

a. Cinemaradiography
b. Laminography
c. Cineradiography
d. Xeroradiography

128. Contraindications for performing a sialogram:

a. Suspected acute inflammation in the gland
b. Suspected ductal obstruction
c. Masseteric hypertrophy
Masseteric hypertrophy and suspected ductal obstruction
129. A localized collection of pus in a cavity formed by the disintegration of tissues:

a. cyst
b. transverse fracture
c. abscess
d. tumor

130. Le Fort I
a. Pyramidal fracture
b. transverse fracture
c. horizontal fracture

131. Le Fort II
a. Horizontal fracture
b. transverse fracture
c. pyramidal fracture

132. Le Fort III

a. whorizontal fracture
b. transverse fracture
c. pyramidal fracture
133. Classification of fracture one in which the overlying integument is intact:
a. greenstick fracture
b. simple fracture
c. compound fracture
134. Classification of fracture in which one side of a bone is broken the other being bent:
a. simple
b. greenstick fracture
c. compound fracture
135. Classification of fracture in which an external wound is associated with the break in the bone:
a. simple fracture
b. greenstick fracture
c. compound fracture
136. Characteristic “dish face”

a. transverse fracture
b. horizontal fracture
c. pyramidal fracture
d. none of the above

137. Cheilosplasty is a surgery for:

a. cleft chain
b. cleft teeth
c. cleft palate
d. cleft lip
138. The rationale of premedicating one's patient is:
a. Allay apprehension
b. All of these
c. Control salivary secretion
d. None of these
139. Dental hemorrhage is best controlled by:
a. Heat
b. Ligation
c. Pressure
d. Medicament
140. The preferred method of treatment of a non-displaced fracture of the mandibular condyle is:
a. Cement with a plaster cast
b. Open reduction
c. Closed reduction
d. Condylectomy
141. Tooth#9 requires root-end surgery. Which flap design is generally NOT indicated?
a. A submarginal curved flap (semilunar)
b. A submarginal scalloped flap ( Ochsenbein-Luebke)
 c. A full mucoperosteal flap ( triangular, rectangular, trapezoidal, horizontal)
d. None of the above
142. Implants composed of tissues taken from an individual of the same species who is not genetically related to recipient:
a) autogenous graft
b) allogenic graft
c) syngenesio plastic graft
d) xenogeinic implant

143. To positively destroy all living organsms, the minimum required temperature in autoclaving is:

a. 110 oC
b. 121 oC
c. 100 oC
d. 90.5 oC

144. Synthetic suture material:

a. cotton
b. silk
c. nylon
d. linen
145. Sutures placed at 5 mm intervals are closed enough. There must be adequate spacing in order:
a. to prevent excessive tension
b. to allow enough blood supply
c. to permit seepage from the normal tissue & exudate of injury
d. to minimize swelling
146. Forceps for mandibular molars

a. forceps no. 65
b. forceps no. 16
c. forceps no. 150
d. forceps no. 1
147. Cow horn forceps is for:
a. tooth no. 36
b. tooth no. 27
c. tooth no. 18
d. tooth no. 43

148. Contraindication in the use of curette include the following:

a. Removal of granuloma
b. Acute infections and presence of pus
c. None of these
d. To remove sequestra from healing socket

149. In multiple extraction, suture are best placed:

a. 1/2 inch apart
b. 1/4 inch apart
c. Cross the socket
d. Across the interseptal partitions

150. The best hemostatic agent for the control of local hemorrhage:
a. Vitamin k
b. Bone wax
c. Surgical
d. Gel foam

151. External cold application which is used to achieve hemostasis will produce:
a. Transient vasoconstriction
b. Increased vascular permeability
c. Reduced vascular permeability
d. More active biochemical process of blood clotting
152. Alveolectomy:
a. Surgical excision of alveolar process
b. Cutting into alveolarprocess
c. Surgical contouring of alveolar process
d. Surgical contouring of gingival tissues
153. Removal of non-absorbable sutures from an intraoral mucoperiosteal flap which are placed over sinus openings are
done:
a. In 1-2 days
b. In 3-5 days
c. 5-7 days
d. 7-10 days
154. Muscle most frequently encountered in an incorrect anterior superior alveolar nerve block:
a. Risorius
b. Orbicularis
c. Buccinator
d. Quadratus labii supercris
155. Credit for beginning of entiseptic surgery is given to:
a. Pierra taunchard
b. Joseph lister
c. Einhorn
d. Edward hunter

156. It is difficult to remove partially or fully impacted maxillary canines when they lie close to:
a. Infraorbital nerve
b. Greater palatine nerve
c. Maxillary sinus
d. Greater palatine artery
157. In fracture of the mandible, an adequate airway may be impaired:
a. By dislodge prosthesis and blood clots
b. By posterior inferior displacement
c. By direct impingement
d. All of these
158. Using the paraperiostial technique, the most difficult tooth in the maxilla to be anesthesized:
a. Cental molar
b. Third molar
c. First molar
d. Canine
159. Management of accidental opening of maxillary sinus:
a. Irrigate the socket coaptate gingival tissue without tension
b. Trim bone, coaptate gingival tissue without tis density
c. Pack socket with a gel foam and then apply pressure density
d. Alternate irrigation with NSS and H2O then suture
160. Forceps no. 16 is used for the removal of the:
a. Maxillary left first bicuspid
b. Mandibular right first bicuspids
c. Mandibular left first molar
d. Mandibular central incisor
161. The Partsch procedure is used for:
a. An aneurysmal bone cyst
b. A peripheral giant cell reparative granuloma
c. Large odontoma
d. A large follicular cyst
162. For the initial incision at the height of tuberosity during the removal of an impacted maxillary third molar the knife
blade used is:
a. No. 12
b. No. 11
c. No. 23
d. No. 15
163. Soft tissue incision for dentoalveolar surgey
a. Mucosa only
b. Mucosa, submucosa and muscle
c. Mucosa, submucosa and periosteum
d. Mucosa and submucosa

164. Forceps no. 203 is suitable for the removal of the:

a. Roots fragments of the mandibular left first molar
b. Maxillary right first bicuspid
c. Root fragments of the maxillary left first molar
d. Mandibular right first molar

165. Ash forceps no. 90 is used for the removal of the:

a. Mandibular right first bicuspid
b. Maxillary central incisors
c. Mandibular left first molar
d. Maxillary left first molar

166. For the initial horizontal incision during the removal of an impacted lower third molar the knife blade of choice is:
a. No.23
b. No. 11
c. No. 12
d. No. 15

167. Epinephrine is added to the local anesthetics because it:

a. Decrease the rate of local absorption of the local anesthesia n the site of injection
b. Potentiates the action of all local anesthetics
c. Prevents rapid deterioration of the solution
d. Increase rate of destruction of local anesthetics

168. Debridement is best defined as

a. excising 2 mm margin around a contaminated area
b. removal of foreign matter and devitalized tissues
c. through wound lavage
d. excising of muscle fascia
169. Cowhorn forcep
a. tooth no. 27
b. tooth no. 16
c. tooth no. 36
d. tooth no. 43
170. bi-beveled chisels are primarily used to:
a. a split teeth
b. sharpen line angles
c. establish purchase points
d. remove bone
171. an advantage of chromic gut over plain structures in deep wounds:
a. total non- absorbability
b. all the choice are correct
c. less tissue irritation
d. delayed resorption
172. When accidental displacement of a root into maxillary sinus complicate tooth removal, the dentist should:
a. refer to an experienced surgeon for root removal
b. place a drain in the socket to prevent sinusitis
c. pack the socket with gelfoam to prevent fistula formation
d. enlarge the tooth socket to gain access to the root
173. When the crown of the multiroot tooth fractures the prudent next step is to:
a. leave root in place and explain the reasons to the patient
b. reflect a flap
c. re apply forceps in a more apical direction
d. divide the roots with the bur
174. The beak of an extraction forceps is designed so that most of the extraction pressure is transmitted to the:
a. root of the tooth
b. alveolar bone
c. crown of the tooth
d. cemento-enamel junction
175. A compound fracture is characterized by:
a. many small fragment
b. a star shape appearance
c. an incomplete break in bone
d. communication with oral cavity
176. Floor of the antrum of highmore is at greatest risk with surgery involving the removal of:
a. single remaining maxillary molar
b. nasopalatine
c.maxillary third molar
d. torus palatinus
177. When luxating a tooth with a forceps, the movement should be:
a. A sharp and definite so as to tear periodontal ligament fiber
b. firm and deliberate primarily to the facial surface with secondary movements of the lingual surface
c. a series of gentle wiggles so as to allow the patient to get used to the pressure
d. in a figure of 8-motion so as to expand bone in all direction
178. Which of the following is an indication of a successful allogenic occurs:
a. ankyloses occurs
b. both the pulp and the periodontal ligament survive
c. the tooth survives for 12 month
d. the periodontal ligament is re-establish
179. Which of the following types of fractures is mostly likely to produce respiratory obstruction?
a. a bilateral fracture of the mandible in the second premolar area
b. a fracture of the angle of the mandible
c. a unilateral fracture of the maxilla
d. a unilateral fracture through the condyle
180. Proper treatment of an alveolar osteitis following extraction of a tooth is to
a. irrigate with hydrogen
b. apply a steroid dressing
c. debribe the wound gently by irrigation and place a sedative dressing
d. place the patient on systemic antibiotics

181. When mandibular teeth are to be extracted the patient should be positioned so that the occlusal plane of the mandibular
arch is:
a. perpendicular to the floor when the teeth are closed together
b. parallel to the floor when the mouth is wide open
c. perpendicular to the floor when the mouth is wide open
d. parallel to the floor when the teeth are closed together

182. The most common cause of post-extraction bleeding is:

a. inhabitation of ADP release by platelets because of ingestion of analgesic containing aspirin
b. acquired coagulation factor deficiency
c. failure of patient to follow post extraction instruction
d. congenital coagulation factor deficit

183. The surgical procedure most frequently performed to correct a skeletal mandibular is bilateral:
a. body osteotomy
b. oblique subcondylar osteotomy
c. horizontal osteotomy of the ramus
d. sagittal split osteotomy of the ramus

184. When muscle usually penetrated with the needle when administering an inferior alveolar nerve block is:
a. buccinators muscle
b. master muscle
c. medial pterygoid muscle
d. lateral pterygoid muscle
185. Which of the following maxillary impaction is most likely to be displaced in the antrum or in the infratemporal fossa
with the incorrect extraction technique?
a. faciolingual
b. distoangular
c. vertical
d. mesio angular
186. The purpose of taping the eyes prior to draping a patient before surgery is to:
a. prevent lacriminal secretion from contaminating the field
b. to induce sleeping
c. to prevent corneal abrasion
d. keep patient from seeing the surgical procedure
187. The most frequent complication of sub apical orthodontic surgery is:
a. devitalization of teeth
b. massive infection
c. hemorrhage
d. trismus
188. A 25 year old male patient prior to installation of a complete upper denture requires extraction of all erupted teeth with
extensive decay radiograph reveals he has 2 maxillary 3rd molars that are full bony impactions. The molars should be.
a. retained as they will never erupt
b. retained under a denture until they erupt
c. extracted along with other teeth
d. surgically exposed and possibly used for prosthetic retention
189. Sterilization of instrument by boiling should be at least:
a. 5 mins
b. 10 mins
c. 30 mins
d. 15 mins

190. Fractured roots should be removed at the time of extraction to :

a. prevent dry socket
b. eliminate possible residual infection
c. lessen possibility of secondary hemorrhage

191. Three days after extraction of a maxillary 2nd M, a young patient develops a fluctuant palatal abscess. The treatment
of choice is:
a. incision and drainage with antibiotic therapy only
b. massive antibiotic therapy only
c. heat therapy every hour for three days
d. caldwel-luc operation

192. Which of the following cardiac conditions requires treatment with antibiotic prior to surgery?
a. rheumatic carditis
b. congestive heart disease
c. coronary insufficiency
d. angina pectoris

193. Paresthesia following a mandibular block injection is due to:

a. contact of the needle with the nerve trunk
b. acid pH of the local anesthetic solution
c. vascular penetration
d. sensitivity reaction
194. Most common post-operative complications after extraction are hemorrhage and:
a. shock
b. trismus
c. dry socket
d. cellulitis

195. Highest incidence of dry socket occurs with the extraction of

a. mand. incisors
b. maxillary 2nd molar
c. mand.3rd molar
d. max.cuspid

196. Suture placed at 5mm.intervals are closed enough. there must be adequate spacing in order:
a. to prevent excessive tension
b. to allow enough blood supply
c. to permit seepage from the normal tissue of exudates of injury
to minimize swelling

197. The objective in the removal of bone surrounding a bony impacted lower third molar is to:
a. Expose the bifurcation
b. Expose the cervical line
c. Expose the greatest height of contour
d. Identify the crown of the tooth

198. Incidence of fracture occurring in the mental region of the mandible.

a. 15%
b. 8%
c. 14%
d. 18%

199. Technique for soft tissue lengthening.

a. Z plasty
b. Sliding technique
c. V-Y plasty
d. Y-V plasty

200. Methods of treatment of mandibular fracture

a. All of these
b. Cost metal of plastic splints
c. Multiple loop wiring
d. Arch bars wired to teeth
201. All are true of favorable fractures, except:
a. The large buccal cortical fragment medial muscular displacement
b. Fracture line extends from a anterolateral to a posteromedial point
c. All choices are correct
d. Fracture line extends from a posterolateral point to an anteromedial point
202. Majority of upper third molar teeth luxate in a:
a. Occlusal direction
b. Distopalatal direction
c. Mesiopalatal direction
d. Distobuccal direction
203. Treatment of pericoronitis:
a. All of these
b. None of these
c. Extraction of third molar
d. Electrosurgical removal of overlying flap
204. Important adjust in the surgical management of facial deformity:
a. Cytogenous transplantation
b. Corticotomy
c. Obwegesser-oral point method
d. Genioplasty
205. Pressure point in controlling hemorrhage arising from the facial artery:
a. Over the premaseteric incisure
b. Between the mandibular mental region and sternocleidomastoid muscle
c. Between the tongue of the ear and zygomatic process of the temporal bone
d. Between the mandibular genial angle and sternocleidomastoid muscle
206. Which of the following conditions will warrant hospital admission for dental surgery:
a. Hemophilia
b. History of pertuasis
c. Hemoglobin of 12 gm.
d. All is correct
207. Removal of nonresorbable sutures from an intraoral mucoperiosteal flap which are placed over sinus openings done:
a. In 3-5 days
b. In 10-14 days
c. In 21 days
d. In 7-10 days
208. Radiographic examination of jaw fractures should include the following:
a. All of these
b. Intraoral occlusal views
c. None of these
d. Posterior and anterior projections
209. Contraindication for extraction:
a. Acute pericononitis
b. All of these
c. Malignant disease
d. Irradiated jaws
210. Areas anesthetized by intraoral inferior alveolar nerve block
a. Body of the mandible
b. Floor of the mouth
c. None of these
d. Inferior potion of ramus
211. Surgical drainage in osteomyelitis:
a. Should not be undertaken
b. Increases the amount of absorption of toxic materials
c. Should be established in early stages of acute disease
d. Should be established late in the chronic disease
212. Common indication for antrostomy
a. To expose root of tooth for apicoectomy
b. Removal of impacted maxillary third molars
c. Established of drainage for an alveolar abscess
d. Following closure of an oroantral fistula
213. External cold application which is used to achieve hemostasis will produce:
a. Reduced vascular permeability
b. Increased vascular permeability
c. More active biochemical process of blood clotting
d. Transient vasoconstriction
214. Premedication is given prior to a local anesthesia to:
a. Check excessive salivation
b. Allay, fear and raise pain threshold
c. Depress reflex irritability
d. Lessen metabolic activity
215. It is difficult to remove partially or fully impacted maxillary canines when they lie close to:
a. Maxillary sinus
b. Greater palatine artery
c. Infraorbital nerve
d. Great palatine nerve
216. Most serious complication which may arise from an abscessed maxillary cuspid:
a. Sinusitis
b. Cellulitis
c. S.A.B.E
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
217. A type of wiring technique in which a wire arch bar is tied in the midline and is especially indicated for symphysis
fractures:
a. Single-loop wiring
b. Ivy-loop wiring
c. Risdon wiring
d. Multiple-loop wiring
218. Average duration of immobilization of jaw fractures in children:
a. 5 to 6 weeks
b. 3 to 4 weeks
c. 2 weeks
d. 8 weeks
219. Management of accidental opening of maxillary sinus
a. Trim bone, coaptate gingival tissues w/o tension
b. Alternate irrigation with NSS & H202 then suture
c. Pack socket with gel foam and then apply pressure density
d. irrigate the socket, coaptate gingival tissue without tension
220. A patient complain of a slight tooth ache that has been “on and off” for a week. The tooth in question #18. Which of
the following teeth would be optimum to use as a baseline?
a. #19 - sound
b. #15 - primary cavitation on occlusal
c. #3 - full gold crown
d. #30 – occlusal amalgam
221. Your practice is involved with a local minor hockey team, the millwrights. A player gets hit with a sick and his central
incisors are intruded. Which of the following is the least useful examination procedure?
a. Soft tissue exam
b. Hard tissue exam
c. Radiograph
d. Vitality test
e. Percussion test
222. _______________ most often refer pain to the temporal region, while_____________ most often refer pain in the ear.
a. Maxillary second premolars, mandibular molars
b. Maxillary molars, mandibular molars
c. Maxillary second premolars, mandibular premolars
d. Maxillary molars, mandibular premolars
223. One year after performing endodontic treatment on tooth #3, you take a new perapical radiograph and notice that there
is still a lesion present. What is the most likely problem?
a. You failed to locate a second mesiobuccal canal
b. You failed to locate a second distobuccal canal
c. You failed to locate a second palatal canal
d. Nothing, it takes more than 12 months for the bone to heal
224. Which cells do not characterized the cellular response at the onset of pulpal inflammation?
a. Plasma cells
b. Macrophages
c. Lymphocytes
d. Polymorphonuclear (PMN) Leukocytes
225. A patients presents with all the characteristics of pulpal pathosis. Your assistant hand you an x-ray which shows no
evidence of any restoration or caries. At first you dont believe that the x-ray is from the right patient , but it is. This
scenario is pathognomonic of:
a. Condensing osteitis
b. A vertical fracture of the tooth
c. Periodontal abscess
d. Secondary occlusal trauma
226. A patient walks into your office holding a cup with a tooth in it. What liquid would you LEAST hope the patient kept
the tooth in?
a. Milk
b. water
c. Saliva
d. Saline
227. The main benefit of primary incisor replantation is:
a. Maintenance of a normal anterior dentitions
b. To relieve parental guilt
c. To maintain child’s self-esteem
d. To maintain child’s social acceptance
228. Internal resorption of a tooth is generally believed to be caused by inflammation due to an infected coronal pulp. This
condition is frequently precipitated by traumatic injury to the tooth.
a. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
b. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. Both statement are true
d. Both statement are false

229. The external resorption in which an infected pulp may further complicate the resorptive process, is termed as:
a. Surface resorption
b. Inflammatory resorption
c. Replacement resorption

230. Which of the following is not a key feature of replacement resorption?

a. Lack of mobility
b. Lack of PDL on x-ray
c. Pink appearance
d. Infra-occlusion

231. The earliest and most common symptom associate with an inflamed pulp is:
a. A dull throbbing on mastication
b. Sensitivity to hot, and/or cold stimuli
c. A persistent feeling of discomfort
d. Mild bleeding
e. Pain on percussion

232. Which condition is characterized by pain that is spontaneous and has periods of cessation (intermittent in nature)?
a. Reversible pulpits
b. Irreversible pulpits

233. A seven year old boy arrives at the office with a complaint that tooth #8 is draining pus into his mouth. The tooth had
been traumatized earlier. The vitality tests reveal no response. What is the treatment of choice?
a. Extraction
b. Apexogenesis / pulpotomy
c. Root canal treatment
d. It is only necessary to give the child analgesics and antibiotics for pain and infection
e. Apexification

234. Suggestive of congenital syphilis:

a. mottled enamel
b. mulberry molars
c. dentin dysplasia
d. supernumerary teeth

235. Indicative of a high caries activity:

a. 50,000 lactobacilli per cc of saliva
b. 50,000 lactobacilli per milliliter of saliva
c. 50,000 lactobacilli per liter of saliva
d. 50,000 lactobacilli per mg of saliva
236. Method used for determining carries activity susceptibility :
a. lactobacillus count
b. Snyder test
c. Fosdick test

237. Bilateral involvement of which facial spaces are involved in Ludwig’s Angina:

a. submandibular space
b. submental space
c. sublingual space
d. all of the above

238. Loss of sensitivity to painful stimuli

a. hypo esthesia
b. hypo algesia
c. ageusa
d. analgesa

239. Isolated facial paralysis of sudden onset caused by a neuritis of the 7th nerve within the facial canal:

a. Trochlear neuritis
b. Atypical facial neuralgia
c. Maxillo facial neuritis
d. Bells palsy

240. Excessive sensitivity to painful stimuli:

a. hypo esthesia
b. hypo algesia
c. hyper algesia
d. paresis

241. Diminished sensitivity usually to touch

a. hypo algesia
b. hypo esthesia
c. analgesia
d. paresthesia

242. Loss of impairment of motor function in a body part:

a. paralysis
b. paresis
c. anesthesia
d. analgesia

243. Loss of all sensation

a. anesthesia
b. ageusia
c. analgesia
d. dysesthesia

244. A cavity occurring in either hard or soft tissue with a liquid semi liquid or air content surrounded by a definite
connective tissue wall or capsule and usually has an epithelial living.
a. abscess
b. granuloma
c. cyst
d. cellulitis

245. A cyst forming in the floor of the mouth generally from a sublingual gland:
a. periodontal cyst
b. Follicular cyst
c. ranula
d. dentigerous cyst

246. Cyst containing a crown of unerupted tooth:

a. retention cyst
b. Keratocyst
c. dentigerous cyst
d. Dermoid cyst

247. The stellate reticulum in the enamel organ takes place before any calcified tooth structure is formed in this particular
kind of cyst
a. dermoid cyst
b. dentigerous cyst
c. periodontal cyst
d. primordial cyst

248. Eruption cyst

a. cyst form after the tooth has erupted
b. cyst form when tooth is erupting
c. cyst form before tooth erupt

249. Radiographic changes in the bone of the skull of a person afflicted with sickle cell anemia:
a. "soap bubble" appearance
b. "honey comb" appearance of the bone
c. "sunburst" appearance
d. Hair on end effect" affect

250. Outward effects of therapeutic irradiation to head and neck include the following EXCEPT:
a. Sialolithiasis
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of skin
c. Micrognathia
d. Agenesis of roots of teeth

251. Bilateral asymptomatic, yeast-like radiolucent lesions in the bone at the angle of the mandible in a 5 year old child are
most likely related to:
a. Latent bone cyst
b. Embryonic bone cyst
c. Cherubism
d. Idiopathic bone cyst
252. Concussion
a. Brain damage
b. Scalp injury
c. Hemorrhage within the skull
d. Skull fracture

253. Normal clotting time would be in the range of:

a. 20-30 minutes
b. 5-10 minutes
c. 30 second
d. 1-3 minutes

254. Average duration of immobilization of jaw fractures in children:

a. 5 to 6 weeks
b. 2 weeks
c. 3 to 4 weeks
d. 8 weeks

255. Infection of tooth no. 14 reach the meninges of the brain through the facial vein and its connection with:
a. Optic vein
b. Infraorbital vein
c. Ophthalmic
d. Basilar plexus

256. Loss of sensitivity to painful stimulus:

a. Hypoesthesia
b. Hypoanesthesia
c. Analgesia
d. Hypoalgesia

257. Most common pathogenic sign of the mandibular fracture:

a. Ecchymosis
b. Malocclusion
c. Trismus
d. Pain

258. Systematic effect of regional anesthesia complication are as follows EXCEPT:

a. Allergy
b. Psychogenic
c. Mucosal irritation
d. Drug toxicity

259. The following are clinical features of hemophilia, EXCEPT:

a. Prolonged bleeding time
b. Hemarthrosis
c. Easy bruisability
d. Prolonged coagulation time

260. Which of the following conditions will warrant hospital admission for dental services?
a. History of pertussis
b. Hemoglobin of 12 gm
c. All is correct
d. Hemophilia

261. All are clinical features of cyst, EXCEPT:

a. Usually painless
b. Rapid expansion
c. Crepitation
d. Fluctuant

262. A pronounced elevation of temperature as a major diagnostic feature of all EXCEPT:

a. Aphthous ulcer
b. Ludwig's angina
c. Primary herpes
d. Herpangina

263. All mucoepidermoid mixed tumor are:

a. Neoplastic
b. New growth
c. Benign
d. Malignant
264. Incomplete paralysis:
a. paresis (muscular weakness)
b. paresthesia
c. analgesia
d. hypoesthesia

265. Salient roentgenographic findings showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating outwardly
describe as "hair-on-end" effect and generalized osteoporosis:
a. Sickle-cell anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Polycythemia

266. Common place of involvement of epulis fissuration:

a. Labial alveolar mucosa
b. Buccal alvelar mucosa
c. Formix or oral vesibule
d. Palatal mucosa

267. Blood disease related to administration of these drugs aminopyrine, acetophenetidin or

chloramphenicol:
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sprue
d. Polycythemia

268. Patient present multiple acute ulcerations of the oral cavity involving the gingiva palate floor of the
mouth; multiple foci of infection throughout the gastric intestinal tract, skin & lungs; fever and chill
with total WBC below 2 000/cu.mm.
a. Leukemia
b. Generalized infection
c. Septicemia
d. Agranulocytosis

269. Peripheral giant-cell reparative granuloma always from in:

a. Either gingiva or palate
b. Gingiva only
c. Alveolar process only
d. Either gingiva or alveolar process

270. The most important procedure in diagnosis is:

a. Elicitation of the chief complaint
b. Proper interpretation of radiographic findings
c. Development of the case history
d. Conduct of a thorough examination

271. Which of the following is a possible important sign of sub-acute bacterial endocarditis?
a. Splinter hemorrhage
b. Discharge from the ear
c. Enlargement of the tongue
d. Intestinal obstruction

272. Blood disease characterized by a reduction in the manner of platelet in the circulating blood:
a. Thrombocythemia
b. Leukemia
c. Leukoanemia
d. Polycythemia vera

273. Hunter'r glossitis is related to:

a. Spine
b. Thallasemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Aplastic anemia

274. Kissing disease

a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. AIDS
c. Syphilis
d. HIV

275. Oral manifestation includes generalized gingival hyperplasia, spontaneous gingival hemorrhage and
presence of mucosal spots, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly and with WBC count of 100 000/cu.mm
a. Exaggerated leukocytosis
b. Polycythemia
c. Uncontrolled generalized infection
d. Leukemia

276. Basaloid mixed tumor most likely arises from:

a. Subperpendicular gland
b. Sublingual gland
c. Palatal accesory gland
d. Parotid gland

277. A denticle in the pulp can be diagnosed by:

a. Histopathologic examination
b. Radiographic examination
c. Pulp filter
d. Clinical examination

278. Dryness of the skin is common to all the following, EXCEPT:

a. Hypothyroidism
b. Ectodermal dysplasia
c. Senile keratosis
d. Hyperthyroidism

279. Exopthalmus us a sign of which of the following endocrine glands disorder.

a. Hypothyroidism
b. Hypoparathyroidism
c. Hypoadrenalism
d. Hyperthyroidism

280. An oral lesion of the secondary stage of acquires syphilis is:

a. Hutchinson's teeth
b. Chancre
c. Gumma
d. Mucous patch

281. Thallasemia is basically an anomaly of the:

a. Plasma
b. Hematocrit
c. White blood cells
d. Red blood cells

282. It is possible for inexperienced students, to diagnosed a wide and very radiolucent area in the
midline suture for a:
a. Abscess
b. Palatal cyst
c. Fracture
d. Granuloma

283. It is the most rare for a male patient to have:

a. Chronic gingivitis
b. Chronic desquamative gingivitis
c. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

284. A definitive diagnosis of any periapical pathology is possible only by:

a. A proper interpretation of radiographic findings
b. Electric pulp testing
c. Microscopic examination of a biopsy specimen
d. Thorough and proper analysis of all clinical findings

285. Red blood count 7 to 10 million suggest

a. Hemophilia
b. Erythroblastosis
c. Polycythemia
d. Leukemia

286. Cavernous sinus thrombosis following infection of the anterior maxillary teeth most often results
from spread of infected emboli along the:
a. Pterygoid plexus
b. Facial artery
c. Angular artery
d. Opthalmic vein

287. When should a specimen for bacteriologic diagnosis be collected?

a. During the acute stage of the disease
b. Two days after initiation of antibiotic treatment
c. After diagnosis is made
d. Ten days after initiation of antibiotic treatment

288. Oral manifestation of a blood disease characterized by this triad of sympoms- generalized weakness,
sore tongue and numbness of the extremities
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Plummer's vinzon syndrome
d. Sprue

289. Recurrent apthous major is also called:

a. Mikulicz's scarring apthal
b. Sutton's disease
c. Periodenitis mucosa necrotica
d. All of these

290. Classical symptom characterized by increased erythrocytes destruction, anemia jaundice,

erythrotosis and local tissue anemia:
a. Sickle-cell anemia
b. Leukemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Neutropenia

291. Blood disease characterized by an abnormal increase in the number of circulating red blood cells and
generally accompanied by an increase blood level.
a. Leukemia
b. Polycythemia
c. Anemia
d. Plummer-vinson syndrome

292. The Paul-Bunell test is for:

a. Cyclic neutropenia
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Agranulocytosis
d. Herpangina

293. The most critical period of gestation in the fetus when exposure to radiation may lead to the
production of congenital anomalies is between the:
a. 4th through the 8th week
b. 5th through the 10th week
c. 6th through the 10th week
d. 2nd through the 6th week

294. Nikolsky’s sign is a test for:

a. Pemphigus
b. Darier’s disease
c. Weber-Ferguson disease
d. Lichen Planus
295. Water-Hammer pulse is a finding in:
a. Paroxysmal nocturnal dysplasia
b. Rheumatic heart disease
c. Anemia
d. Tetralogy of Fallot

296. In a typical neuralgia the pain:

a. Is more localized
b. Is oriented along the distribution of the cranial nerves
c. Is usually prolonged and constant
d. Follows the distribution of certain blood vessels

297. Chvostek’s sign is related to:

a. Parkinsonianism
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Tetany
d. Damage to the 8th cranial nerve

298. A positive finding for the capillary fragility test is _________ per one inch circle.
a. 8
b. 5
c. 20
d. 10

299. The so-called “shift to the left” in the leukocyte count is characteristic of:
a. Leukemia
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Acute appendicitis
d. Aplastic anemia

300. The following is an example of non-pathologic pigmentary macule

a. The ephelides
b. Vitiligo
c. White sponge nevus
d. Hemangioma

301. The most common papule found in the mouth is that of:
a. Leukode
b. Lichen planus
c. Herpes
d. Sialo-dochitis

302. The normal hematocrit range for women is:

a. 37 to 47%
b. 27 to 35%
c. 12 to 15%
d. 14 to 23%
303. Saddle nose is a manifestation of:
a. Developmental anomaly of the middle third of the face
b. Achondroplasia
c. Syphilis
d. Chronic rhinitis

304. Argyll Robertson pupils are associated with:

a. Tuberculosis
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Syphilis
d. Poliomyelitis

305. Prior to the onset of oral symptoms a positive history of sore throat is manifested in:
a. Hepatic stomatitis
b. Moniliasis
c. Costen’s syndrome
d. Acute necrotizing gingivitis

306. Vitamin D deficiency

a. Nyctalopia
b. Scurvy
c. Osteomalacia
d. Angular cheilosis

307. The serum alkaline phosphatase is increased in:

a. Paget’s disease
b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Von Recklinghausen’s disease
d. Osteopetrosis

308. Spontaneous gingival bleeding may occur in patients using:

a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Quinidine
c. Diclofenac
d. Chloramphenicol

309. Hatchet face refers to a:

a. Appearance of the face in anxiety reaction
b. Type of the malocclusion
c. Form of familial skeletal deformity
d. Sign of temporomandibular joint dysfunction

310. Palpitation may accompany one of the following:

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Myositis ossificans
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypothyroidism

311. Addison’s disease is manifested in the mouth by:

a. Pigmentation of the oral mucosa
b. Generalized gingival hypertrophy
c. Premature loss of teeth
d. Early periodontal disease

312. The normal prothrombin time is:

a. 2 to 4 minutes
b. 40 to 45 seconds
c. 1 to 2 minutes
d. 10 to 20 seconds

313. Cacogeusia is associated with:

a. Hypertension
b. Paralysis of the 8th dorsal nerve
c. Food impaction
d. Malocclusion

314. The normal bleeding time by capillary tube is:

a. 5 to 10 minutes
b. 4 to 6 minutes
c. 2.5 to 5 minutes
d. 1 to 7 minutes

315. Widening of the palpebral fissures is observed in:

a. Cushing’s syndrome
b. Obesity
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Renal disease

316. Radiographic diagnosis of a single radiopaque mass in the jaw surrounded by a radiolucent area:
a. purulent material in jaw c. exostosis
b. involucrum d. sequestra

317. Numerous area of radiolucency in bones are common to the following, EXCEPT:
a. malignant melanoma c. Alocrs-Schoberg
b. Multiple myeloma d. hyperparathyroidism

318. Absence of lamina dura relation to all teeth suggest :

a. periodontis c. gingivosis
b. periodontisis d. systemic bone disease

319. Radiographic diagnosis of a dense radiopaque mass which extends from the lingual surface of the
anterior of mandibular.
a. hyperplastic bone c. exostisis
b. root fragment d. hypertrophy of bone

320. Direction of the central x-ray on tooth #13 and toothy #14
a. directly on the ala of the nose
b. none of these
c. center of the tip of these
d. directly on one side of the nose tip

321. the following represent infections of tooth origin:

a. cellulitis c. partulis
b. all of these d. subperiostal abscess

322. the differential diagnosis for a 50 year old patient presenting a sloe enlargement of his maxila and
gradual loss of vision hearing include:
a. ostemalacia c. ossifying fibroma
b. paget's disease d. ameloblastoma

323. treatment for hemangioma

a. excision x-ray and sclerotherapy
b. conservative excision
c. excision with removal of teeth and block resection of bone
d. irradiation

324. malignant
a. sarcoma
b. exostosis
c. chondroma
d. central hemagioma

325. the most reliable technique for taking the clotting time
a. Lee-White method c. Clark method
b. Ivy method d. Duke method

326. which of the following is a reactive lesion of the gingival that may demonstrate a bone
radiographically and often demonstrate bone formation microscopically:
a. pyogenic granuloma
b. sharpen line angles
c. peripheral ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma

327. which of the following appears as a radiolucency associated with apex of single vital tooth?
a. periapical cyst
b. traumatic bone cyst
c. periapical granuloma
d. residual cyst

328. Fissural cysts located entirely is solo tissue

a. median alveolar
b. nasoalveolar
c. primordal
d. globulomaxillary
329. differential diagnosis between pulp polyp to gingival polyp is based in:
a. size of polyp
b. color of polyp
c. radiographic appearance
d. origin of the stalk

330. sialadenitis
a. inflammation of the tonsils
b. inflammation of the salivary gland
c. inflammation of the salivary duct
d. inflammation of the nodes

331. caused by the indiscreet use of air pressure syringes on atomizing spray bottles activated by
compressed air:
a. granuloma
b. periodontal abscess
c. folic acid
d. liver extract

332. Treatment for pernicious anemia

a. vit. B. 12
b. all of these
c. folic acid
d. liver

333. In which of the following location is the squamous cell carcinoma most easily managed?
a. floor of the mouth
b. lower lip
c. face above the lip line
d. buccal mucosa

334. A white lesion involving the buccal mucosa of a 65 year old male was biopsied. a diagnosis of
carcinoma-in-situ w3as reported. this condition is synonymous with:
a. fordye's disease
b. grave's disease
c. bowen's disease
d. edit's disease

335. Clinically the condition which most closely mimics gonorrhea in that vitching, burning urethritis is a
prominent symptom is:
a. Behcet's disease
b. Steven- johnson syndrome
c. Sutton's disease
d. Reiter's disease

336. The steven- johnson syndrome is closely related to:

a. scleroderma
b. pemphigus
c. erythema vulgaris
d. lupus vulgaris

337. Wickham's striae maybe found on the mucous membrane of a patient with:
a. keratosis
b. lichen planus
c. erythema multiforme

338. the primary laboratory findings associated with argranulocytosis

a. decrease platelets
b. increase in white cell count
c. decrease in red cell count
d. decrease in white cell count

339. A medical history reveals that the patient has the following signs and symptoms of polyuria,
polydypsia and weightloss. what is the possible diagnosis:
a. polynephritis
b. diabetes mellitus
c. Addison's disease
d. hyperthyroidism

340. Teeth frequently involved in the pulpitis aperta

a. deciduous molar and second permanent molar
b. deciduous and permanent cuspids
c. deciduous and permanent central incisors
d. deciduous molar and first permanent molar

341. Basic iron deficiency in plummer-vinson syndrome maybe due to

a. all of these
b. excessive loss of iron in the body
c. faulty absorption
d. inadequate dietary intake

342. Inflammatory changes of the salivary and lacrimal glands secondary to conditions as tuberculosis,
sarcoidosis or lymphoma.
a. Miculicz’ syndrome
b. lymphadenopathy
c. lymphoma
d. lymphadenitis

343. Plummer-vinson's syndrome

a. calcium deficiency
b. iron deficiency
c. mineral deficiency
d. vitamin deficiency

344. Sialoadenoma
a. benign tumor of the salivary gland
b. malignant tumor of the salivary gland
c. degenerative change of the salivary gland
d. inflammation of the salivary gland

345. Pain in the region of the IMJ is most often caused by:
a. pressure on the meniscus
b. condyle displacement
c. damage to meniscus
d. muscle spasm

346. Which of the following has the potential of undergoing spontaneous malignant transformation?
a. Paget's disease of the bone
b. osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Albright's syndrome
d. osteomalacoa

347. The most reliable histologic for diagnosis of oral squamous cell carcinoma is:
a. hyperchromatism
b. degeneration
c. encapsulation
d. invasion

348. Birid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesion of the maxilla and the mandible, multiple skin lesion and
calcification of the falx cerebri are characteristic of:
a. basal cell nevus syndrome
b. Garner's syndrome
c. Sturge-weber syndrome
d. Horner's syndrome

349. Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst:

a. incisive canal cyst
b. median alveolar cyst
c. nasopalatine cyst
d. nasolabial cyst

350. Which of the following most commonly involved only one bone?
a. Paget's disease of bone
b. ossifying fibroma
c. histiocytosis X
d. Albright's syndrome

351. Which of the following disorders is likely to result in a prolonged bleeding time?
a. hemophilia
b. hemophilia C
c. thrombocytopenia
d. hemophilia A

352. The first clinical sign of early caries of enamel is:

a. loss of translucency
b. sensitivity
c. brown or black pigment spot
d. cavitation

353. When dentinal tubules become completely calcified, dentin is:

a. none of these
b. necrotic
c. atrophic
d. insensitive
354. A distinct proliferative clinical entity originating as a response of oral; tissue to local irritation that
occurs at any age and most frequently on the gingival is a:
a. hemagioma
b. Mucocele
c. traumatic neuroma
d. pyogenic granuloma

355. What is the common location of the AIDS-related "oral hairy leukoplakia"?
a. lateral border of the tongue
b. soft plate
c. foliate
d. buccal mucosa

356. Hairy tongue is characterized by hypertrophy of which of the following papillae?

a. filiform
b. fungiform
c. foliate
d. circumavallate

357. Which of the following sign and symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of plummer-vinson
syndrome?
a. atrophic mucosa, dysphagia and microcytic anemia
b. arthritis, xerostomia, and bald tongue
c. deep fissures at the angle of the mouth, enlarge lymph nodes and glossodynia
d. vesiculo erosive stomatitis, neuritis and enlargement

358. Which of the following conditions tends to involve the ventral surface of the tongue:
a. mucosal dysplasia
b. nicotine stomatitis
c. hairy tongue
d. migratory glossitis

359. The most common intraoral location for a pigmented nevus is the:
a. buccal mucosa
b. hard palate
c. fiacor of the mouth
d. soft plate

360. The organisms that most commonly causes the infective endocarditis:
a. staphylococcus aureus
b. streptococcus veridans
c. staphylococcus pyogenes
d. streptococcus mitis

361. Dysplastic lesion of squamous epithelium occurs most often on the:

a. gingival
b. buccal mucosa
c. floor of the mouth
d. plate
362. Masticatory space infections have as their hallmark:
a. hematemesis
b. dyspnea
c. erythema
d. trismus

363. An anxious nervous patient is appointed for surgical procedure. The patient states that she has had
recent weight loss and easily fatigued. Physical findings includes tremors, tachycardia and warm
sweaty palms. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. gastritis
b. hyperthyroidism
c. diabetes
d. renal disease

364. A lady patient has an infected wisdom tooth almost a week. Her WBC count is probably in the range
of:
a. 4,000- 9,000 /cu.m.m
b. 15,000-20,000/cu.m.m
c. 25,000-35,000/cu.m.m
d. none of the above

365. Maxillary torns and mandibular tori are bone exostosis:

a. they have no pathological significance and therefore need no surgical attention:
b. they are benign tumors and need no surgical attention
c. they are malignant tumors and need surgical attention
d. Their excision is not essential in instances when dentures will be made on that area.

366. Sialoliths are commonly found during radiographic examination at:

a. submandibular duct
b. parotid duct
c. sublingual gland duct
d. minor salivary gland

367. A possible important sign of a patient with subacute bacterial endocarditis:

a. blurred vision
b. discharge from the ear
c. splinter hemorrhage
d. enlarge tongue

368. A patient came to your clinic with right eye totally swollen and closed. Radiograph shows a badly
decayed and abscessed maxillary right cuspid. The reason for swelling beneath the right eye is:
a. lymphatic drain upward in this region
b. porosity of the bone in that area
c. infection has passed in the angular veins which has no valves
d. Apex of the cuspid lies above the attachment of the levator muscle of the angle of the mouth of
the upper lip.

369. The most useful and radiographs in examining sialoliths is:

a. cross-sectional occlusal
b. water view
c. peri apical
d. bite wing

370. Which of the following is common to all forms of shock?

a. impaired tissue perfusion
b. vasoconstriction
c. hypovolemia
d. hypertension

371. The earliest sign of hemorrhagic sock is:

a. dyspnea
b. tachycardia
c. hypotension
d. vasoconstriction

372. Radiographic diagnosis of a thin radiopaque line outlining and separated from it by a radiolucent
area is:
a. cementicle
b. periosteum
c. lamina dura
d. hypercementosis

373. Tooth with in a tooth:

a. dens in dente
b. dens invaginatus
c. dilated composite odontome
d. all of the above

374. Candidiasis :
a. candidiosis
b. moniliasis
c. thrush
d. all of the above

375. Increased respiratory rate

a. hyperpnoea
b. apnea
c. asphyxia
d. dyspnea

376. The normal platelet count of an adult female is:

a. 15,000 to 40,000/ cu.mm
b. 1,500 to 4,000/cu .mm
c. 150,000 to 4000,000/cu.mm
d. none of the above

377. A normal bleeding time

a. 7 seconds or less
b. 25 minutes
c. 7 minutes or less
d. at least hour

378. Difficulty in swallowing:

a. dysphobia
b. dysphagia
c. odynophagia
d. none of the above

379. Non vital bone:

a. sequestered
b. sequestered
c. sequence
d. sequestration

380. Congenital absence of teeth :

a. onodontia
b. periodontia
c. macrodontia
d. microdontia

381. Benign
a. lymphoma
b. osteoma
c. sarcoma
d. multiple myeloma

382. Malignant
a. chondroma
b. central hemangioma
c. sarcoma
d. Exostoses

383. A cyst that may envelop the crown of a tooth, as seen on the radiograph.
a. Dentigenerous
b. Follicular
c. Dermoid
d. Radicular

384. Major radiograph finding in ectodermal dysplasia.

a. Congenitally missing teeth
b. Ground-glass appearance of bone
c. Osteoporosis
d. Calcification of false canabris

385. Granuloma Pyogenicum or:

a. Pyogenic granuloma
b. Capillary-hemangioma-granuloma type
c. Fibro endothelial papilloma
d. All of these

386. Type of fracture in which the fragments have become interdigitated by trauma, permitting little or no
mobility:
a. Complicated
b. Pathological
c. Comminuted
d. Impacted

387. In traumatic fractures, the neurologic conditions appraised are:

a. Cerebrospinal rhinorrhea
b. Unconsciousness
c. All of these
d. Unequal pupils

388. All are clinical features of cysts, except:

a. Crepitation
b. Usually painless
c. Rapid expansion
d. Fluctuance

389. The best blood product that is administered preoperatively to patients with classic hemophilia, to
assure surgical hemostasis is:
a. Factor VIII concentrate
b. Whole blood
c. Fresh plasma
Factor IX concentrate
390. Earliest sign of oxygen want:
a. Syncope
b. Dyspnea
c. Tachycardia
d. Cyanosis

391. Always in indication of airway obstruction:

a. Increased pulse rate
b. Increase respiratory
c. Slow pounding pulse
d. Stertorous breathing
392. The following are clinical features of hemophilia, except:
a. Easy bruisability
b. Prolonged bleeding time
c. Hemarthosis
d. Prolonged coagulation time

393. Most hemorrhages are controlled by pressure. The pressure point to control the external carotid
artery is located:
a. Between the sternocleidomastoid muscle and genial angle of mandible
b. Over the premasseteric incisure
c. Over the mandibular notch
d. Between the tragus of the ear and zygomatic process of the temporal

394. Bence Jones protein found in the urine may be suggestion of:
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Christian’s Syndrome
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Hodgkin’s disease

395. Sialolithiasis.
a. Obstruction of the duct due to infection
b. Obstruction of the duct to stone formation
c. Obstruction of the duct due to unknown origin

396. Hereditary intestinal polyposis syndrome is associated with which of the following:
a. Xerostomia
b. Multiple nevi
c. Senile elastosis
d. Gardner’s syndrome

397. A true denticle in the pulp can be diagnosed by:

a. Pulp tester
b. Histopathological examination
c. Radiographic examination
d. Clinical examination

398. The most important procedure in diagnosis is:

a. Proper interpretation of radiographic findings
b. Elicitation of the chief complaint
c. Conduct of a thorough examination
d. Development of the case history

399. Which of the following liberate histamine in inflammation?

a. Plasma cells
b. Mast cells
c. Lymphocytes
d. Eosinophils

400. Target lesions or iris lesions are seen.

a. All of these
b. Ectodermosis eosiva pluciorificialis
c. Steves-Johnsons syndrome
d. Erythema multiform

401. Unerupted supernumerary teeth are:

a. Never associated with follicular cyst
b. Always multiple in some patient
c. Diagnosed clinically
d. Diagnosed during routine x-ray exam

402. Anodontia is characteristics of which of the following disease process?

a. Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis
b. Cleidocranial dysostosis
c. Ectodermal dysplasia
d. Dilantin hyperplasia

403. Pronounced microcheilia and micrognathia which make dental therapy technically challenging is
most common to:
a. The Sturge-Weber Syndrome
b. Sytton’s disease
c. Crouzon’s disease
d. The Pierre Robin Syndrome

404. In Hodgkin’s diseases, diagnosis is usually made by a biopsy of:

a. Lymphnodes
b. Spleen
c. Skin
d. Adrenals
405. Generally, the treatment of choice for cementoma is:
a. No treatment
b. Extraction of involved teeth
c. Block resection of involved area
d. Endodontric treatment of involved teeth

406. It is the most rare for a male patient to have:

a. Chronic gingivitis
b. Chronic desquamative gingivitis
c. Periodontitis
d. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

407. The palpable soft tissue of the oral maxillofacial area appears hard and dense. This brawny condition
is known as:
a. Induration
b. Suppuration
c. Fluctuation
d. Inflammation

408. A beefy red tongue, dermatitis and gastro-intestinal disorder maybe associated with a deficiency of:
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Thiamine
c. Niacin
d. Vit. K

409. Tongue lesion characterized by glossitis glossodynia and glossopyrosis are common symptoms of:
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Thallasenea
d. Sprue

410. Magenta-colored tongue and angular cheilosis are associated with a deficiency of:
a. Riboflavin
b. Thiamine
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Niacin

411. Which cyst is usually found between the maxillary cuspid and lateral or between the premaxilla and
the maxilla during development?
a. Pseudo-cyst
b. Residual cyst
c. Globulomaxillary cyst
d. Nasolabial cyst

412. Differential diagnosis of radiolucent areas around and close to the apex of the teeth does not include
consideration of:
a. Incisive foramen
b. Mental foramen
c. Mandibular foramen
d. Maxillary sinus

413. All are multilocular and radiolucent in appearance, except:

a. Myxoma
b. Cavity cementoma
c. Ameloblastoma
d. Fibrous dysplasia

414. The classic and diagnostic features of paroxysmal pain displayed myotic douloreux are the
following, except:
a. Unilateral
b. Extreme, shocking pain that lasts from seconds to minutes
c. Confined to the distribution of CNV branches
d. With subjective sensory or motor loss in the infected region

415. Alveolotomy
a. Surgical contouring of alveolar process
b. Cutting into alveolar process
c. Surgical excision of alveolar process
d. None of these

416. A patient taking orinase-met is most likely being treated for:

a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Infectious hepatitis
c. Candidiasis
d. Tuberculosis

417. The typical laboratory finding of hemophilia:

a. Prolonged blood coagulation & normal bleeding time
b. Prolonged blood coagulation & prolonged bleeding time
c. Prolonged blood coagulation & bleeding time
d. Prolonged blood coagulation & shorter bleeding time

418. Infection from a maxillary 1st molar spreads most often to which space:
a. Buccal
b. Nasal
c. Infratemporal
d. Retropharyngeal

419. Salient roentgenographic findings showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating outwardly
describe as “hair-on-end” effect and generalized osteoporosis
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Sickle-cell anemia
c. Polycythemia
d. Pernicious anemia