UNIT IV

PROTECTION METHODS AND STRUCTURAL

HEALTH MONITORING

Submitted by
Aserf (422003)
& Bhavya.C. S (422007)
& Joshith (422010)
& Kabilesh (422012)
& Sangeetha (422017)
& Saramgi.S (422018)
Multiple Choice Questions
Unit 4 submitted by Saramgi 422018
corrosion
1. The corrosion of reinforcement due to extreme exposure is
common for structure located in________
a) Dry condition
b) Coastal zone
c) Regional zone
d) Hot conditions
Answer: b) Coastal zone
2. _______ is the commonly accepted theory of corrosion.
a) Direct corrosion
b) Chemical action theory
c) Electro osmosis theory
d) Electrolytic theory
Answer: d) Electrolytic theory
3. Corrosion of steel is an___________ process
a) Chemical
b) Electro chemical
c) Physical
d) Bio chemical
Answer: b) electro chemical
4. No corrosion take place if the concrete is dry or probably below the
relative humidity of 60%
a) True
b) False
Answer: a) True
5. The increased volume of rust thrust on cover concrete resulting in
a) Cracks
b) Spalling of concrete
c) Both crack and spalling of concrete
d) None of the above
 Answer: c) both crack and spalling of concrete

Corrosion protection methods

6. _________is an admixture that is used in concrete to prevent metal
embedded in concrete from corroding
a) Efflorescence
b) Swelling
c) Epoxy coatings
d) Corrosion inhibitors
Answer: d) corrosion inhibitor
7. The inhibitor has anodic or Cathodic actions only is known as
a) Anodic inhibitor
b) Cathodic inhibitor
c) Organic inhibitor
d) Inorganic inhibitor
Answer: d) Inorganic inhibitor
8. The inhibitors have both anodic and Cathodic actions known as
e) Anodic inhibitor
f) Cathodic inhibitor
g) Organic inhibitor
h) Inorganic inhibitor
Answer: c) organic inhibitor
9. Anodic inhibitor is also known as
a) Passivation inhibitors
b) Safe inhibitor
c) Resistive inhibitor
d) Desalination inhibitor
Answer: a) passivation inhibitor
10.Which inhibitor is prevent the occurrence of the Cathodic reduction
of the metal
a) Anodic inhibitor
b) Cathodic inhibitor
c) Passivation inhibitor
d) Inorganic inhibitor
 Answer: b) Cathodic inhibitor
11.Which type of inhibitor acts through a process of surface adsorption
designed as a filim forming

a) Anodic inhibitor
b) Cathodic inhibitor
c) Organic inhibitor
d) Inorganic inhibitor
Answer: c) organic inhibitor
12.VCI stands for
a) Volatile corrosion inhibitor
b) Vertical corrosion identifier
c) Verified corrosion inhibitor technique
d) Vermis composting inhibitor

Answer: a) volatile corrosion inhibitor

13.Epoxy resin is
a) Not used for surface coating
b) A good abrasive
c) An elastomer
d) A polyester
Answer: b) a good abrasive
14.Which of the following is not a type of protective coating?
a) Metallic
b) Non-metallic
c) Organic
d) Inorganic
Answer: b) Non- metallic
15.Which of the following readily sublime and form a protective layer
on the metal surface?
a) Anodic inhibitor
b) Cathodic inhibitor
c) Volatile inhibitors
 d) Non-volatile inhibitors
Answer: c) volatile inhibitor
16.The organic or inorganic substances which when added to the
environment are able to reduce the rate of corrosion are called
___________
a) Inhibitors
b) Stimulants
c) Insulators
d) Stipulator
Answer: a) inhibitors
17.Which of the following is not an anodic inhibitor?
a) Alkalis
b) Molybdates
c) Phosphates
d) Dicyclohexyl ammonium nitrile
Answer: d) Dicyclohexyl ammonium nitrile
18.Which of the following metal is not used as a sacrificial anode?
a) Zinc
b) Copper
c) Magnesium
d) Aluminium
Answer: b) copper
19.Cathodic protection is achieved by supplying electrons to the metal
structure to be protected.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a) True
20.Which of the following cases in which the metal structure is
protected?
a) Current passes from metal to electrolyte
b) Current enters it from the electrolyte
c) Electrical contact with dissimilar metals
 d) Connecting the positive terminal of the power
supply
Answer: b) current enters it from the electrolyte
21.Which of the following is/are the types of Cathodic protection?
a) External impressed current supply
b) Sacrificial anode
c) External impressed current supply and sacrificial anode
d) Neither external impressed current supply nor sacrificial
anode
Answer: c) External impressed current supply and sacrificial anode
22.Which of the following terminal of the power supply should be
connected to the metal to be protected?
a) Negative terminal
b) Positive terminal
c) Both positive and negative terminals
d) Either positive or negative terminal
Answer: a) Negative terminal
23.Which of the following material is/are used as an impressed-
currents anode?
a) Graphite
b) Platinized titanium
c) Silicon-iron
d) Graphite, platinized titanium, and silicon-iron
Answer: d) Graphite, platinized titanium, and silicon-iron
24.Which of the following materials is/are used as backfill around the
anode in impressed currents?
a) Coke breeze
b) Gypsum
c) Bentonite
d) Coke breeze, gypsum, and bentonite
Answer: d) Coke breeze, gypsum, and bentonite
25.Which of the following is/are the typical sacrificial anodes?
a) Magnesium only
 b) Zinc and magnesium
c) Aluminum-tin only
d) Magnesium, Zinc, and aluminum-tin
Answer: d) Magnesium, Zinc, and aluminum-tin
26. Dry intervals in surface wetting leads to ___________
a) Cracking
b) Fogging
c) High strength
d) Good workability
Answer: a) Cracking

27. Damp proofing ____________ resist water well enough.

a) Does
b) Does not
c) Doesn’t effect
d) Depends on the temperature
Answer: b) Does not
28. Chemically active pore fillers ____________ the setting of concrete.
a) Retards
b) Decrease
c) Accelerates
d) No change
Answer: c) Accelerates
29. Chemically inactive pore fillers ____________ the workability.
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Don’t affect
d) Improve
Answer: d) Improve
30. In Prestressed concrete structures the primary problem is damaged caused to
____________
a) Bridge decks
b) Spans
c) Anchorages
d) Ridges
Answer: c) Anchorages
31. Rehabilitation of structures may be required due to several reasons. Choose
the correct reason.
a) Environmental effects
b) Tensile effects
c) Compressive effects
d) Range effects
Answer: a) Environmental effects
32. The structural concrete slab panels can be repaired by ____________
a) Internal bonding
b) External bonding
c) Stress bonding
d) Layered bonding
Answer: b) External bonding
33. Prestressed concrete structures showing visible signs of distress in the form of
____________
a) Surface cracks
b) Patterns
c) Patches
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a) Surface cracks
34. If the loss of prestress is excessive resulting in tensile cracks, which method
should be used?
a) Preloading method
b) Hollow method
 c) Transparent method
d) Layered method
Answer: a) Preloading method

35. The following factors play vital role in corrosion process

a) Temperature
b) Solute concentration
c) Both
d) None
Answer: c) Both
36. Which of the following can be used for Cathodic protection?
a) Al
b) Cd
c) Cu
d) Either
Answer: a) Al
37. Main form of ceramic degradation
a) Corrosion
b) Weathering
c) Dissolution
d) Swelling
Answer: c) Dissolution
38. This form of corrosion occurs due to concentration difference in a component
a) Uniform
b) Galvanic
c) Inter-granular
d) Stress
Answer: c) Inter-granular
39. How many photographic 'rust grades' are there in BS EN ISO 8501-1?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) None
Answer: c) 4
40. MIO is a type of?
a) Specification
b) Pigment
c) Paint for motorway structures
 d) Resin
Answer: b) Pigment
41. In which 'Corrosivity Category' can steel be used without corrosion protection?
a) C1
b) C2
c) C3
d) C4
Answer: a) C1
42. What is the most common form of corrosion protection?
a) Hot dip galvanizing
b) Correct Paint coatings
c) Thermally sprayed metal coatings
d) Paint and metal coatings together
Answer: b) Correct Paint coatings
43. Which standard refers to 'the treatment of welds, edges and other surface
imperfections'?
a) BS 7079
b) ISO 8501-3
c) BS EN ISO 8504-3
d) BS EN ISO 8503-5
Answer: b) ISO 8501-3
44. Which of the following organisations have 'prescriptive' specifications for steel
bridges?
a) The Environment Agency
b) The Highways Agency
c) Network Rail
d) The Local Authority
Answer: both b & c
45. Identify one of the main requirements of a prefabrication primer?
a) To be 'weldable'
b) To provide long term protection
c) To be a thick coating
d) To dry slowly
Answer: a) To be 'weldable'
46. Which of the following can be found in a corrosion protection specification?
a) How to mix paints
b) Coating film thicknesses
c) Types of coating equipment
d) Method of surface preparation
Answer: both b & c
b) Coating film thicknesses & c)Types of coating equipment
47. Which of the following surface preparation methods can be 100% efficient in
removing all rust and millscale?
a) Rotary wire brushing
b) Needle gunning
c) Abrasive blast cleaning
d) Scraping
Answer: c) Abrasive blast cleaning
48. An example of an anodic coating is _____
a) Zinc
b) Copper
c) Nickel
d) Chromium
Answer: a) Zinc
49. The method of immersing a material into a molten bath for coating is known as
_____
a) Electroplating
b) Hot dipping
c) Cladding
d) Cementation
Answer: b) Hot dipping
50. Phosphate coating and Chromate coating are classifications of ______ coatings.
a) anodic
b) Cathodic
c) chemical
d) vitreous
Answer: c) chemical
51. The mixture of oil and a pigment is known as _____
a) Varnish
b) Paint
 c) Lacquer
d) Enamel
Answer: b) Paint
52. Which common application do anodizing and galvanizing serve?
a) Corrosion resistance
b) Improved surface
c) Zinc coating
d) Increased strength
Answer: a) Corrosion resistance
53. Chemical formula of Rust is,
a) Fe2O3
b) FeO
c) Fe3O4
d) Fe2O3.XH2O
Answer: d). Fe2O3.XH2O
54. Which of following metals could provide cathodic protection to Fe?
a) Al & Cu
b) Al & Zn
c) Zn & Cu
d) Al & Ni
Answer: b) Al & Zn
55. Process of corrosion enhanced by,
a) AIR & Moisture
b) Electrolytes in water
c) Metallic impurities
d) Gases like CO2 & SO2
e) All of above.
Answer: e) All of above.
56. Which type of chemical reaction is observed at cathode, in electrochemical
corrosion?
a) Oxidation reaction
b) Peretectic reaction
c) Reduction reaction
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Reduction reaction
 57. What is meant by corrosion?
a) Chemical reaction between anode, cathode and electrolyte, which
leads to loss of metal
b) Deterioration of metals due to reaction with its environment
c) Both a. and b.
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Both a. and b.

UNIT –4
DISTRESSES AND REMEDIES
Unit 4 Submitted by Bhavya 422007
1. What are the causes of deterioration
a) Environmental effect
b) Mechanical factor
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
2. How the deterioration occurs due to corrosion
a) Spalling of concrete cover
b) Dislocation
c) Swelling of concrete
d) All the above
3. How can we determine the cause for deterioration of concrete
structure
a) Inspect & observe the structure
b) Observe in bad & good weather
c) Study the problem &allow enough time to do the job
d) All the above
4. Write the methods of corrosion protection
a) Corrosion inhibitors
b) Corrosion resisting steel
c) Coating for steel
d) Cathodic protection
e) All the above
5. How to identify the corrosion effects in structures
a) Brown marks associated with the cracks
b) Nil cracks on the beam & column
 c) None of the above
d) Both a & b
6. The principle types of damages are
a) Increases in strength of concrete
b) Cracking & spalling of concrete
c) Nil discolouration
d) None of the above
7. What are the optimum relative humidity for corrosion
a) 40-50%
b) 60-70%
c) 70-80%
d) 100-110%
8. concrete is regularly used in railway sleeper & high corrosion
resistance areas
a) Sulphur infiltrates concrete
b) Fiber reinforced concrete
c) Polymer concrete
d) High strength concrete
9. The protective coatings are used to
a) Corrode the steel
b) Prevent from corrosion
c) Increase the corrosion
d) Slightly increase the corrosion
10.Which of the following is not lost during corrosion
a) Malleability
b) Ductility
c) Conductivity
d) Colour
11.Corrosion due to the formation of cavities around the metal is called as
a) Pitting corrosion
b) Soil corrosion
c) Water line corrosion
d) Galvanic
12.The products of corrosion occupy a volume as much as times
the orginal volume of steel, depending upon the oxidation state
 a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
13.What are the coating for reinforcement to prevent corrosion
a) Organic coating
b) Epoxy coating
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
14.What are the various types of spalling
a) Aggregate splitting
b) Surface spalling
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
15.For construction building & bridge fabrication & erection of structural
steel codes are prepared by
a) BIS
b) IS
c) AISC
d) All the above
16.Full form of AISC is
a) American Inspection of Steel Construction
b) American Institute of Steel Construction
c) An Indian Institute of Steel Construction
d) None of the above
17.Advantage of frame type foundation is
a) If occupies less space
b) Foundation materials are saved
c) It is easy to erect machine
d) All of them
18.Which works are involved in erection
a) Fixing & bringing in their position & to align their centers &
angles
b) To carry out the machine adjustments
c) To carry out the leveling of the machine
 d) All of them
19.The equipment used for erection work are
a) Chain pulley block
b) Rope & chain
c) Rollers
d) All of them
20.Which is not the main activities for erecting an equipment
a) Designing
b) Measurement
c) Alignment
d) Loading & Unloading
21.To control corrosion , concrete with is used
a) Low permeability
b) Low thermal coefficient
c) More cement content
d) More coarse aggregates
22.The repair & rehabilation of damaged of damaged or spalled concrete
is done by removing the
a) Loose concrete
b) Collapsing
c) Breakage
d) Binding
23.During fabrication joining of two or more components are
a) Temporarily
b) Permanently
c) Temporarily & Permanently both
d) None of the above
24.During fabrication which processes are included
a) Welding
b) Brazing
c) Soldering
d) All the above
25.Corrosion of reinforcement due to
a) Chlorides
b) Free & thaw action
 c) Biological process
d) None of the above
26.The main reason for cracks in masonry joints are
a) Moisture
b) Sulphate
c) Magnesium
d) Sodium
27. Desicants are chemicals that,
a) Remove humidity
b) Add humidity
c) Add moisture
d) Remove moisture
28.Which stone is used for building situated in industrial towns
a) Marble slab
b) Compact sandstone
c) Gneiss
d) Slate
29. Which of the below joints is used for masonry in arches
a) Butt
b) Table
c) Rebated
d) Dowel
30.When a construction made by using only stones is known as
a) Brick masonry
b) Stone masonry
c) Brick & stone masonry
d) None of these
31.Why mortars are used in stone masonry work
a) To keep them in position
b) To make a joint
c) To fill up hollow spaces
d) All the above
32.Which statement is false
Stone is ,
a) More stronger than brick
 b) More durable
c) More weather resisting than bricks
d) More resistant to fire than brick
33.The basic stress in masonry units having height to width ratio of 1.5
may be increased by a factor of,
a) 1.2
b) 1.4
c) 1.6
d) 2.0
34.Water retentivity for brick masonry should not be less than
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
35. For masonry work with solid bricks, consistency of mortar should be
a) 5 – 8 cm
b) 9 – 13 cm
c) 14 – 18 cm
d) 19 – 23 cm
36.How many types of brick masonry are possible
a) 4
b) 2
c) 5
d) 6
37.Which of the below should be avoided in brick masonry
a) Horizontal joint
b) Queen closer
c) Brick bat
d) Vertical joints
38. The portion of brick cut across the width in half is called
a) Half split
b) Half closer
c) Half bat
d) Half bed
39.The bricks used for corners of wall of a structure are called
 a) Spalls
b) Quoins
c) Hearting
d) Side
40.Which IS code gives a code of practice for brick work
a) IS 2212
b) IS 3102
c) IS 3466
d) IS 1077
41.Internal defects in a welded joint can be found by a process called
a) Tension test
b) Visual inspection
c) Radio graphing
d) None of these
42.Welded joint strength increases due to annealing by
a) 6%
b) 10%
c) 14%
d) None of these
43. Which material fails by brittle fracture
a) White cast iron
b) Steel
c) Aluminum
d) Copper
44.Which of the following material don’t give brittle fracture
a) White cast iron
b) Grey cast iron
c) Aluminum
d) ceramics
45.When does brittle fracture is noticed
a) On overloading
b) On sudden loading
c) Uniaxial loading
d) compressing
46.What is the characteristic of brittle fracture
 a) Prior warning
b) High speed
c) Necking
d) Ductile rupture
47.Brittle fractures always occurs above yield stress
a) True
b) False
48.In fracture crack is unstable & propagates rapidly
a) Ductile
b) Brittle
c) Shear
d) Tensile
49.Which of the following is not a type of fracture in brittle materials
a) Bright granular
b) Flat type
c) Neck
d) Chevron patterns
50.Which of the following is associated with minimum plastic deformation
a) Ductile fracture
b) Brittle fracture
c) Fatigue
d) None of these

Unit 4 submitted by sangeetha 422017

1. The strength and quality of concrete depends on
1. Aggregate shape
2. Aggregate grading
3. Surface area of the aggregate
4. All of them
Ans: 3
2. The lower water-cement ratio in concrete produces
1. More density
2. Small creep and shrinkage
3. More bond
4. All of them
Ans: 4
3. The entrained air in concrete
1. Increases workability
2. Decreases workability
3. Increases strength
4. None of the above
Ans: 1
4. For making concrete, water tight following is done
1. Through mixing
2. Proper compaction
3. Proper curing
4. All of them
Ans: 4
5. After casting, an ordinary cement concrete on drying
1. Shrinks
2. Expands
3.0Remains unchanged
4. Swells
Ans: 1
6. The approximate ratio of strength of cement concrete at three months to that
28 days of curing is
1. 1.15
2. 1.30
3. 1.0
4. 0.75
Ans: 1
7. A crusher which can be used as either primary or secondary crusher is
1. Hammer mill
2. Jaw crusher
3. Gyrator crusher
4. Cone crusher
Ans: 1
8. Concrete mixers are specified by
1. Number cement bags used in a batch
2. Nominal volume of concrete that can be mixed in a batch
3. Volume of grit used
4. None of them
Ans: 3
9. While calculating the dead load of a building, the weight of brick masonry is
taken as
1. 1200 kg/m3
2. 1600 kg/m3
3. 1920 kg/m3
4. 2300 kg/m3
10. Rich cement mortars are more liable to cracking as compared to lean mortars
because rich mortars have

1. High shrinkage
2. Less strength
3. Both (A) and (B)
4. None of above
Ans: 1

11. In a cavity wall, both leaves of which are load bearing, the effective thickness is
taken as
1. Sum of thickness of both leaves
2. Two-third of the sum of thickness of both the leaves
3. Actual thickness of the stronger leaf
4. Larger of (B) and (C)
Ans: 4

12. For earthquake resistant masonry buildings, the vertical distance between
openings one above the other in a load bearing wall shall not be less than

1. 50 cm
2 .60 cm
3. 75cm
4. 100cm
Ans: 2

________________________________________
13. The mode of failure of a very short masonry member having h/t ratio of less
than 4 is by

1. Shear
2. Vertical tensile splitting
3. Buckling
4. All the above
Ans: 1

14. The basic stress in masonry units having height to width ratio of 1.5 may be
increased by a factor of

1. 1.2
2. 1.4
3. 1.6
4. 2.0
Ans: 3

15. For designing masonry components of a structure, seismic forces provision in

the design calculation is not necessary for buildings constructed in

1. Zone I only
2. Zone I and II
3. Zone I, II and III
4. Zone I, II, III and IV
Ans: 2

16. Water retentivity for brick masonry should not be less than

1. 50%
2. 60%
3. 70%
4. 80%
Ans: 3

17. Consider the following statements:

1. Masonry in rich cement mortar though having good strength with high
shrinkage is much liable for surface cracks.
2. Lime mortar possesses poor workability and poor water retentivity and also
suffers high shrinkage.
3. Masonry in lime mortar has better resistance against rain penetration and is
less liable to crack when compared to masonry in cement mortar.
Which of these statements are correct?

1. 1,2 and 3
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 1 and 3
Ans: 4

18. For masonry work with solid bricks, consistency of mortar should be

1. 5 to 8 cm
2. 9 to 13 cm
3. 14 to 18 cm
4. 19 to 23 cm
Ans: 2

19. For masonry built in 1: 1: 6 cement-lime-sand mix mortar or equivalent, the

horizontal shear stress permissible on the area of a mortar bed joint is

1. 0.15 MPa
2. 0.125 MPa
3. 0.1 MPa
4. 0.075 MPa
Ans:1

20. Minimum compressive strength in N/mm² for H1 type mortar used for masonry
is
1. 3
2. 5
3. 7.5
4. 10
Ans: 4

21. The Repair and rehabilitation of damaged or spalled concrete is done by

removing the
1. Loose concrte
2. Collapsing
3. Breaking
4. Bonding
Ans: 1

22. How many types of crack can be obtained in building

1.3
2. 4
3. 6
4. 2
Ans: 4

23. Lime mortar is generally made with

1. Quick lime
2. Fat lime
3. White lime
4. Hydraulic lime
Ans: 4

24. The important purpose of frog in a brick is to

1. Emboss manufacture name
2. Reduce the weight of brick
3. Form keyed jointed between mortar and brick
4 improve insulation by providing hollows
Ans: 3

25. A good brick, when immersed in water bath for 24hours, should not absorb
more than
1. 20% of its dry weight
2. 30% of its saturated weight
3. 10% of its dry weight
4. 20% of its saturated weight
Ans: 1

26. for good bonding in brick masonry

1. All bricks need not be uniform in size
2. Bats must be used in alternate courses only
3. The vertical joints in alternative courses should fall in plumb
4. Cement mortar must have surkhi as additive
Ans: 3

27. After addition of cement, the gauged mortar should be used within
1. 30 minutes
2. 1-2 hours
3. 8-10 hours
4. 24 hours
Ans: 2

28. In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretches
in each courses is known as
1. English bond
2. Double Flemish bond
3. Single Flemish bond
4. Zigzag bond
Ans: 2

29. The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of
wall is
1. 90 mm
2. 180 mm
3. 190mm
4. 280mm
Ans: 1

30. The pressures acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be
1. along the direction of bedding planes
2. at 45 to the direction of bedding planes
3. at 60 to the direction of bedding planes
4. Perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
Ans: 4

31. Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker wall?
1. Headers
2. Brick bars
3. Stretchers
4. Queen closer
Ans: 1

32. Minimum thickness of wall where single Flemish bond can be used is
1. Half brick thick
2. One brick thick
3. One and half brick thick
4. Two brick thick
Ans: 3

33. the most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and foe
forming joints is
1. Trowel
2. Square
3. Bolster
4. Scotch
Ans: 1

34. Expansion joints of masonry walls are provided in wall length greater than
1. 10m
2. 20m
3. 30m
4. 40m
Ans:4

35. The type of bond provide in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is
1. Single Flemish bond
2. Double Flemish bond
3. Zigzag bond
4. English bond
Ans: 4

36. A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as
1. Bed joint
2. Wall joint
3. Cross joint
4. Bonded joint
Ans:3

37. the slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than
1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 40
Ans:2

38. As compared to English bond, double Flemish bond

1. Stronger
2. More compact
3. Costly
4. None of the above
Ans: 4

39. As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course

should be
1. Less
2. More
3. Equal
4. Equal or more
Ans:1

40. The proportion of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick
construction are
1. 1:2
2. 1:4
3. 1:6
4. 1:8
Ans: 1

41. Number of vertical joints in a stricter course is x times the number of joints in
header course, where x is equal to
1. ½
2. 1
3. 2
4. ¼
Ans: 1

42. A queen close is a

1. Brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall
2. Brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of the wall
3. Brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the breadth
4. Brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other
Ans: 3

43. Single Flemish bond consists of

1. Double Flemish bond facing and English bond backing in each course
2. English bond facing and double Flemish bond backing in each course
3. Stretcher bond facing and double Flemish bond backing in each course
4. Double Flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
Ans: 1

44. The impression of structure is?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 6
Ans:3

45. How many types of damages are present in classification of damage?

1.1
2.2
3.3
4.4
Ans: 3

46. To control corrosion, concrete with ______ is used

1. Low permeability
2. Low thermal compatibility
3. More cement concrete
4. More coarse aggregate
Ans: 1

47. The main reason for crack in masonry joints is

1. Moisture
2. Sulphate
3. Magnesium
4. sodium
Ans:2

48. Creep in concrete is increases with

1. Increase in humidity
2. Increase in water
3. Decrease in temperature
 4. Decrease in humidity
Ams: 4

49. What are the causes of deterioration?

1. Poor quality material used
2. Quality of super vision
3. Environmental effect
4. All the above
Ans: 4
50. Which of the following will give higher ratio of brick work strength to mortar
strength?
1. 1:14:3
2. 1:4
3. 1:1:6
4. 1:2:9
Ans: 4

Unit 4
Submitted by kabilesh =422012

1. The strength and quality of concrete depends on

1. Aggregate shape

2. Aggregate grading

3. Surface area of the aggregate

4. All of them

Ans: 3

2. The lower water-cement ratio in concrete produces

1. More density

2. Small creep and shrinkage

3. More bond

4. All of them

Ans: 4

3. The entrained air in concrete

1. Increases workability

2. Decreases workability

3. Increases strength

4. None of the above

Ans: 1

4. For making concrete, water tight following is done

1. Through mixing

2. Proper compaction

3. Proper curing

4. All of them

Ans: 4

5. After casting, an ordinary cement concrete on drying

1. Shrinks

2. Expands
3.0Remains unchanged

4. Swells

Ans: 1

6. The approximate ratio of strength of cement concrete at three months to

that 28 days of curing is

1. 1.15

2. 1.30

3. 1.0

4. 0.75

Ans: 1
7. A crusher which can be used as either primary or secondary crusher is

1. Hammer mill

2. Jaw crusher

3. Gyrator crusher

4. Cone crusher

Ans: 1

8. Concrete mixers are specified by

1. Number cement bags used in a batch

2. Nominal volume of concrete that can be mixed in a batch

3. Volume of grit used

4. None of them
Ans: 3

9. While calculating the dead load of a building, the weight of brick

masonry is taken as

1. 1200 kg/m3

2. 1600 kg/m3

3. 1920 kg/m3

4. 2300 kg/m3

10. Rich cement mortars are more liable to cracking as compared to lean
mortars because rich mortars have

1. High shrinkage
2. Less strength
3. Both (A) and (B)
4. None of above
Ans: 1

11. In a cavity wall, both leaves of which are load bearing, the effective
thickness is taken as
1. Sum of thickness of both leaves
2. Two-third of the sum of thickness of both the leaves
3. Actual thickness of the stronger leaf
4. Larger of (B) and (C)
Ans: 4

12. For earthquake resistant masonry buildings, the vertical distance

between openings one above the other in a load bearing wall shall not be
less than

1. 50 cm
2 .60 cm
3. 75cm
4. 100cm
Ans: 2
13. The mode of failure of a very short masonry member having h/t ratio of
less than 4 is by

1. Shear
2. Vertical tensile splitting
3. Buckling
4. All the above
Ans: 1

14. The basic stress in masonry units having height to width ratio of 1.5
may be increased by a factor of

1. 1.2
2. 1.4
3. 1.6
4. 2.0
Ans: 3

15. For designing masonry components of a structure, seismic forces

provision in the design calculation is not necessary for buildings
constructed in

1. Zone I only
2. Zone I and II
3. Zone I, II and III
4. Zone I, II, III and IV
Ans: 2

16. Water retentivity for brick masonry should not be less than

1. 50%
2. 60%
3. 70%
4. 80%
Ans: 3

17. Consider the following statements:

1. Masonry in rich cement mortar though having good strength with
high shrinkage is much liable for surface cracks.
2. Lime mortar possesses poor workability and poor water retentivity
and also suffers high shrinkage.
3. Masonry in lime mortar has better resistance against rain penetration
and is less liable to crack when compared to masonry in cement mortar.
Which of these statements are correct?

1. 1,2 and 3
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 1 and 3
Ans: 4

18. For masonry work with solid bricks, consistency of mortar should be

1. 5 to 8 cm
2. 9 to 13 cm
3. 14 to 18 cm
4. 19 to 23 cm
Ans: 2

19. For masonry built in 1: 1: 6 cement-lime-sand mix mortar or

equivalent, the horizontal shear stress permissible on the area of a mortar
bed joint is

1. 0.15 MPa
2. 0.125 MPa
3. 0.1 MPa
4. 0.075 MPa
Ans:1

20. Minimum compressive strength in N/mm² for H1 type mortar used for
masonry is
1. 3
2. 5
3. 7.5
4. 10
Ans: 4
21. The Repair and rehabilitation of damaged or spalled concrete is done by
removing the
1. Loose concrte
2. Collapsing
3. Breaking
4. Bonding
Ans: 1

22. How many types of crack can be obtained in building

1.3
2. 4
3. 6
4. 2
Ans: 4

23. Lime mortar is generally made with

1. Quick lime
2. Fat lime
3. White lime
4. Hydraulic lime
Ans: 4

24. The important purpose of frog in a brick is to

1. Emboss manufacture name
2. Reduce the weight of brick
3. Form keyed jointed between mortar and brick
4 improve insulation by providing hollows
Ans: 3

25. A good brick, when immersed in water bath for 24hours, should not
absorb more than
1. 20% of its dry weight
2. 30% of its saturated weight
3. 10% of its dry weight
4. 20% of its saturated weight
Ans: 1

26. for good bonding in brick masonry

1. All bricks need not be uniform in size
2. Bats must be used in alternate courses only
3. The vertical joints in alternative courses should fall in plumb
4. Cement mortar must have surkhi as additive
Ans: 3
27. After addition of cement, the gauged mortar should be used within
1. 30 minutes
2. 1-2 hours
3. 8-10 hours
4. 24 hours
Ans: 2

28. In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and
stretches in each courses is known as
1. English bond
2. Double Flemish bond
3. Single Flemish bond
4. Zigzag bond
Ans: 2

29. The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the
thickness of wall is
1. 90 mm
2. 180 mm
3. 190mm
4. 280mm
Ans: 1

30. The pressures acting on the stones in stone masonry construction

should be
1. along the direction of bedding planes
2. at 45 to the direction of bedding planes
3. at 60 to the direction of bedding planes
4. Perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
Ans: 4

31. Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker wall?
1. Headers
2. Brick bars
3. Stretchers
4. Queen closer
Ans: 1

32. Minimum thickness of wall where single Flemish bond can be used is
1. Half brick thick
2. One brick thick
3. One and half brick thick
4. Two brick thick
Ans: 3

33. the most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar
and foe forming joints is
1. Trowel
2. Square
3. Bolster
4. Scotch
Ans: 1

34. Expansion joints of masonry walls are provided in wall length greater
than
1. 10m
2. 20m
3. 30m
4. 40m
Ans:4

35. The type of bond provide in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is
1. Single Flemish bond
2. Double Flemish bond
3. Zigzag bond
4. English bond
Ans: 4

36. A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known
as
1. Bed joint
2. Wall joint
3. Cross joint
4. Bonded joint
Ans:3

37. the slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than
1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 40
Ans:2

38. As compared to English bond, double Flemish bond

1. Stronger
2. More compact
3. Costly
4. None of the above
Ans: 4

39. As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header

course should be
1. Less
2. More
3. Equal
4. Equal or more
Ans:1

40. The proportion of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick
construction are
1. 1:2
2. 1:4
3. 1:6
4. 1:8
Ans: 1

41. Number of vertical joints in a stricter course is x times the number of

joints in header course, where x is equal to
1. ½
2. 1
3. 2
4. ¼
Ans: 1

42. A queen close is a

1. Brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall
2. Brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of the wall
3. Brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the
breadth
4. Brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other
Ans: 3

43. Single Flemish bond consists of

1. Double Flemish bond facing and English bond backing in each course
2. English bond facing and double Flemish bond backing in each course
3. Stretcher bond facing and double Flemish bond backing in each course
4. Double Flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
Ans: 1

44. The impression of structure is?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 6
Ans:3

45. How many types of damages are present in classification of damage?

1.1
2.2
3.3
4.4
Ans: 3

46. To control corrosion, concrete with ______ is used

1. Low permeability
2. Low thermal compatibility
3. More cement concrete
4. More coarse aggregate
Ans: 1

47. The main reason for crack in masonry joints is

1. Moisture
2. Sulphate
3. Magnesium
4. sodium
Ans:2

48. Creep in concrete is increases with

1. Increase in humidity
2. Increase in water
3. Decrease in temperature
4. Decrease in humidity
Ams: 4

49. What are the causes of deterioration?

1. Poor quality material used
2. Quality of super vision
3. Environmental effect
4. All the above
Ans: 4

50. Which of the following will give higher ratio of brick work strength to
mortar strength?
1. 1:14:3
2. 1:4
3. 1:1:6
4. 1:2:9
Ans: 4

Unit -4
Submitted by asref -422003
1. To control corrosion, concrete with _________ is
used.

A. Low permeability
B. Low thermal coefficient
C. More cement content
D. More coarse aggregates
2. Creep in concrete structure increases with:

A. Increase in humidity
B. Increase in water
C. Decrease in temperature
D. Decrease in humidity
3. The main reason for cracks in masonry joints is:

A. Moisture
B. Sulphate
 C. Magnesium
D. Sodium
4. How many types of cracks can occur in a building?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 6
5. Shear cracks between the main wall and cross wall
can be corrected using:

A. Grouting
B. Rebuilding
C. Guining
D. Toothing
7. Leaks in the pitched roof may be caused due to:

A. Improper slopes
B. Unfinished roof and wall junction
C. Depression on top of roof
D. Heavy wind
8. Rehabilitation of structures may be required due to
several reasons. Choose the correct reason.
 A. Environmental effects
B. Tensile effects
C. Compressive effects
D. Range effects
9. What is the problem of rehabilitation?

A. Unique
B. Submerged
C. Lined
D. Layered
10. Maintaining prestressed concrete structures of
various types in a fit and serviceable condition is
primary function of ____________

A. Maintenance engineer
B. Design engineer
C. Surface engineer
D. Structural engineer
11. The structural concrete slab panels can be repaired
by ____________

A. Internal bonding
B. External bonding
 C. Stress bonding
D. Layered bonding
12. Prestressed concrete structures showing visible
signs of distress in the form of ____________

A. Surface cracks
B. Patterns
C. Patches
D. None of the mentioned
13. In the case of dormant cracks wider than about 1m,
it is more economical to use ____________

A. Epoxy resin
B. Grouting
C. Tensioning
D. Ranging
14. The repair and rehabilitation of damaged or spalled
concrete is done by removing the ____________

A. Loose concrete
B. Collapsing
C. Breakage
D. Bonding
15. The crack propagation in the concrete girders can
be arrested by using the principles of
____________

A. Pre tensioning
B. Post tensioning
C. Prestressing
D. Loading
16. The corrosion of reinforcement due to extreme
exposure is common for structure located in
____________

A. Dry conditions
B. Costal zones
C. Regional zones
D. Hot condition
17. In restoration of strength by adding external
reinforced concrete the damages concrete is first
repaired by applying ____________

A. Preload
B. Tensile load
C. Compressive load
D. Overload
18. _______ is the commonly accepted theory of
corrosion.

a) Direct corrosion
b) Chemical action theory
c) Electro osmosis theory
d) Electrolytic theory
19. Anodic inhibitor is also known as

a) Passivation inhibitors
b) Safe inhibitor
c) Resistive inhibitor
d) Desalination inhibitor
20. Which of the following is/are the types of Cathodic
protection?

a) External impressed current supply

b) Sacrificial anode
c) External impressed current supply and
sacrificial anode
d) Neither external impressed current supply nor
sacrificial anode
21._________is an admixture that is used in concrete to
prevent metal embedded in concrete from corroding
 a) Efflorescence
b) Swelling
c) Epoxy coatings
d) Corrosion inhibitors
22. The increased volume of rust thrust on cover
concrete resulting in

a) Cracks
b) Spalling of concrete
c) Both crack and spalling of concrete
d) None of the above
23. Corrosion of steel is an___________ process

a) Chemical
b) Electro chemical
c) Physical
d) Bio chemical
24. No corrosion take place if the concrete is dry or
probabily below the relative humidity of 60%

a) True
b) False
25. Cracks which run at 45 degree to the axis of the beam
and are wider at the lower fibre and disappear in the
compressive zone are

a) Cracks due to externally applied loads

b) Cracks due to poor construction practices
c) Cracks due to excessive shear
d) None of the above
26. No cracks are visible on the exposed surface of a
veranda slab. But itleaks sufficiently during rains.
The possible reason is

a) Less thickness of slab

b) Porosity of slab materials
c) Under reinforcement of slab
d) Excessive thickness of slab
27. If the cracks width is less than 0.1mm then they are
called

a) Fine
b) Thin
c) Medium
d) wide
28. Which one is true statement for type of crack as per
width of crack from following
 a) Thin – less than 1mm
b) Medium – 1mm to 2 mm
c) Wide – more than 2mm
d) All of above
29. Increased in porosity will _______ rate of freeze-thaw
deterioration

a) increase
b) decrease
c) independent on porosity
d) both increase or decrease
30. Intrinsic crack is also known as

a) Plastic cracks
b) Plastic settlement cracks
c) Dry shrinkage cracks
d) All the above
31. The cracks which are due to incorrect design, faculty
construction or overloading are

a) Structural cracks
b) Non-structural cracks
c) Thermal expansion
 d) None of these
32. Shear crack in RCC member occurs due to

a) Thermal expansion
b) Large differential settlement in the
foundation
c) Deflection of RCC beam
d) All of these
33. In case of framed structural roof slab, beams and
move jointly, causing ______ cracks in walls

a) Square
b) Rectangle
c) Triangle
d) Diagonal
34. Intrinsic concrete crack is

a) Depending on loading
b) Independent of load
c) Independent on bleeding
d) Independent on rapid early drying
35. Thermal conductivity of concrete depends on

a) Type of aggregate
 b) Temperature of concrete
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
36.Temperature differential may be considerable in

a) In thick section
b) In thin section
c) In section with rich mix
d) In thick section with rich mixes
37. What are the causes of deterioration

a) Environmental effect
b) Mechanical factor
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
38. How the deterioration occurs due to corrosion

a) Spalling of concrete cover

b) Dislocation
c) Swelling of concrete
d) All the above
39. How can we determine the cause for deterioration of
concrete structure

a) Inspect & observe the structure

b) Observe in bad & good weather
c) Study the problem &allow enough time to do
the job
d) All the above
40. How to identify the corrosion effects in structures

a) Brown marks associated with the cracks

b) Nil cracks on the beam & column
c) None of the above
d) Both a & b
41. The principle types of damages are

a) Increases in strength of concrete

b) Cracking & spalling of concrete
c) Nil discoloration
d) None of the above
42. Corrosion due to the formation of cavities around the
metal is called as

a) Pitting corrosion
 b) Soil corrosion
c) Water line corrosion
d) Galvanic
43. The repair & rehabilation of damaged of damaged or
spalled concrete is done by removing the

a) Loose concrete
b) Collapsing
c) Breakage
d) Binding
44. Corrosion of reinforcement due to

a) Chlorides
b) Free & thaw action
c) Biological process
d) None of the above
45. Advantage of frame type foundation is

a) If occupies less space

b) Foundation materials are saved
c) It is easy to erect machine
d) All of them
46. What are the coating for reinforcement to prevent
deterioration

a) primer coating
b) Epoxy coating
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
unit -4
submitted by Joshith-422010
1,The process of becoming inferior in quality is termed as __________
(a) Corrosion
(b) Deterioration
(c) Pitting
(d) Blistering

2, The process of becoming inferior in quality functioning and condition is known as_________
(a) Corrosion
(b) Deterioration
(c) Pitting
(d) Blistering

3, Which of the following deterioration occurs evenly over the metal surface area?
(a) Corrosion
(b) Uniform Deterioration
(c) Pitting
(d) Blistering

4, Which of the following deterioration occurs in localized sites of metal surface?

(a) Corrosion
(b) Uniform Deterioration
(c) Pitting
(d) Local Deterioration

5, Which one of the following is a type of localized deterioration?

(a) Corrosion
(b) Pitting
 (c) Blistering
(d) Chalking

6,Which of the following deterioration leads to adhesion of two metals?

(a) Uniform Corrosion
(b) Crevice corrosion
(c) Pitting
(d) Blistering

7, Blistering causes in steels having low strength less than

(a) 80 ksi
(b) 90 ksi
(c) 100 ksi
(d) 110 ksi

8, Broken or Unbroken bubbles are seen in which type of deterioration

(a) Filiform Corrosion
(b) Pitting
(c) Blistering
(d) Chalking

9, Which of the following deterioration occurs in thread like filament structure within coating
(a) Filiform Corrosion
(b) Pitting
(c) Blistering
(d) Chalking

10, Which of the following deterioration forms a power residue over the metal surface
(a) Filiform Corrosion
(b) Pitting
(c) Blistering
(d) Chalking

11, Which of the following deterioration occurs between two metal joints ?
(a) Uniform Corrosion
(b) Crevice corrosion
(c) Pitting
(d) Blistering

12, Which of the following deterioration forms cavities or holes in metals ?

(a) Uniform Corrosion
(b) Crevice corrosion
(c) Pitting
(d) Blistering

13, Which of the following deterioration is difficult to predict ?

 (a) Uniform Corrosion
(b) Crevice corrosion
(c) Pitting
(d) Blistering

14, Which of the following is a corrosion resistant material ?

(a) Iron
(b) Steel
(c) Copper
(d) Aluminum

15, Which of the following is a Powder Coating Material ?

(a) Tin
(b) Zinc
(c) Epoxy
(d) aluminum

16, Which of the following is a corrosion resistant material ?

(a) Stainless Steel
(b) Low strength Steel
(c) Iron
(d) Copper

17, Which of the following is not a Powder Coating Material ?

(a) Polyester
(b) nylon
(c) Epoxy
(d) aluminum

18, Coating Steel with zinc is termed as ________

(a) galvanizing
(b) anodic protection
(c) ionizing
(d) oxidizing

19, Which of the following material is more active material than steel?
(a) Tin
(b) Zinc
(c) Lead
(d) Iron

20, Which of the following material is less active material than steel?
(a) Tin
(b) Zinc
(c) Lead
(d) Iron
21, Which coating act as a barrier and prevents electro chemical charge?
(a) Sacrificial Coating
(b) Cathodic Protection
(c) Anodic Protection
(d) Protective Coating

22, Which of the following coating uses oxidize material?

(a) Sacrificial Coating
(b) Cathodic Protection
(c) Anodic Protection
(d) Protective Coating

23, Cathodic protection is used in

(a) Steel pols
(b) bridges
(c) pipelines
(d) columns

24, During anodic protection the steel will act as_________of electro chemical cell
(a) anode
(b) cathode
(c) electrolyte
(d) salt bridge

25, During cathodic protection the steel will act as_________of electro chemical cell
(a) anode
(b) cathode
(c) electrolyte
(d) salt bridge

26, During Sacrificial Coating the metal and coating will act as _________
(a) anode
(b) cathode
(c) electrolyte
(d) electro chemical cell

27, Corrosion inhibitors is not affected by which of the following

(a) pH
(b) temperature
(c) chemical composition in the air
(d) metal surface

28, Which of the following is a corrosion inhibitor material

(a) Zinc Sulphate
(b) Zinc Silicate
 (c) Calcium Sulpate
(d) Gypsum

29, Which of the following structure uses Zinc Silicate as a corrosion inhibitor material
(a) Statue of Unity
(b) Eiffel tower
(c) Qutab minar
(d) Statue of Liberty

30, Which of the following prevention measures prevent traping of water and rust ?
(a) Corrosion inhibitors
(b) Design Modification
(c) Protective Coating
(d) Sacrificial Coating

31, Which of the following welding defect is caused by trapping of gases during solidification
in welding zone?
(a) Porosity
(b) Slag inclusion
(c) Incomplete fusion
(d) Incomplete Penetration

32, Porosity welding defect can be prevented by

(a) Proper Selection of filler materials
(b) Increasing the welding speed
(c) Providing enough shielding gas
(d) Cleaning the welding zone

33, Slag inclusion means

(a) Trapping of oxides fluxes in welding zone
(b) Trapping of gases during solidification
(c) Proper Selection of filler materials
(d) Increasing the welding speed

34, Slag inclusion welding defect can be prevented by

(a) Cleaning the welding zone
(b) Proper Selection of filler materials
(c) Increasing the welding speed
(d) Reducing the welding speed

35, Incomplete fusion is caused by

(a) Poor weld bead
(b) Trapping of oxides fluxes in welding zone
(c) Trapping of gases during solidification
(d) Trapping of electrode

36, Incomplete fusion can be prevented by

 (a) Providing Proper Shielding Gas
(b) Proper Selection of filler materials
(c) Increasing the welding speed
(d) Cleaning the welding zone

37, Which of the following welding defect occurs when the depth of welding zone is
insufficient
(a) Incomplete Penetration
(b) Porosity
(c) Slag inclusion
(d) Incomplete fusion

38, Incomplete Penetration can be prevented by

(a) trapping of gases during solidification
(b) Reducing the weld travel speed
(c) Proper Selection of filler materials
(d) Increasing the welding speed

39, Hot Cracking welding defect can be prevented by

(a) By giving the proper cooling rate
(b) Proper Selection of filler materials
(c) Increasing the welding speed
(d) Cleaning the welding zone

40, Cold Cracking welding defect can be prevented by

(a) Proper Selection of filler materials
(b) Increasing the welding speed
(c) Using good electrode
(d) Reducing the welding speed

41, Poisson’s ratio of steel is ________

(a) 0.1
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.3
(d) 2.0
42, Structural Steel normally has carbon content less than _______
(a) 1.0%
(b) 0.6%
(c) 3.0%
(d) 5.0%
43, What happens when Manganese is added to steel?
(a) decreases strength and hardness of steel
(b) improves corrosion resistance
(c) decreases ductility
(d) improves strength and hardness of steel
44,  Which of the following is added to steel to increase resistance to corrosion?
(a) Carbon
(b) Manganese
(c) Sulphur
(d) Copper
45, Chrome and Nickel are added to Steel to improve _________
(a) corrosion resistance and high temperature resistance
(b) strength
(c) ductility
(d) weldablity
46,  Unit mass of Steel = ________
(a) 785 kg/m3
(b) 450 kg/m3
(c) 450 kg/cm3
(d) 7850 kg/m3
47,  Elastic Modulus of Steel is __________
(a) 1.5 x 109 N/mm2
(b) 2.0 x 105 N/mm2
(c) 2.0 x 105 N/m2
(d) 1.5 x 109 N/m2
48, Steel is mainly an alloy of
(a) Iron and Carbon
(b) Sulphur and Zinc
(c) Zinc and tin
(d) Phosphorous and Tin
49, Which of the following is a disadvantage of Steel?
(a) High strength per unit mass
(b) High durability
(c) Fire and corrosion resistance
(d) Reusable
50, Which of the following is the effect of increased content of Sulphur and Phosphorous in
Steel ?
(a) yields high strength
(b) affects weldability
(c) increases resistance to corrosion
(d) improves resistance to high temperature