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UNIT TWO REVIEW QUESTIONS (GENETICS)

Write the letter of the correct answer on the space provided (page 8)
1. Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of
A. One haploid gamete C. Three diploid gametes
B. Four diploid gametes D. Four haploid gametes
2. What happens to the chromosome number during meiosis?
A. It doubles B. It stays the same C. It halves D. It becomes diploid
3. Which ratio did Mendel find in his F2 generation? A. 3:1 B. 1:3:1 C. 1:2 D. 3:4
4. During which phase of meiosis is chromosome number reduced?
A. Anaphase I B. Metaphase I C. Telophase I D. Telophase II
5. Two pink-flowering plants are crossed. The offspring flower as follows: 25% red, 25% white, and 50%
pink. What pattern of inheritance does flower color in these flowers follow?
A. Dominance B. Multiple alleles C. Incomplete dominance D. polygenic trait
6. Alleles for the same trait are separated from each other during the process of
A. Prophase II B. Metaphase II C. Anaphase II D. Anaphase I
7. The process by which one strain of bacterium is apparently changed into another strain is called
A. Transcription B. transformation C. Duplication D. Replication
8. Before DNA could definitely be shown to be genetic material in cells, scientists had to show that it could:
A. tolerate high temperature C, carry and make copies of information
C. be taken down into small sub units D. be modified in response to environmental conditions
9. A nucleotide does not contain: A. a 5-carbon sugar C. an amino acid
B. a nitrogen base D. a phosphate group
10. According to Chargaff’s rule of base pairing, which of the following is true about DNA?
A. A=T, and C=G B. A=C, and T=G C. A=G, and T=C D. A=T=C=G
11. The bonds that hold the two strands of DNA together come from
A. The attraction of phosphate groups for each other
B. Strong bonds between nitrogenous bases and the sugar-phosphate backbone
C. Weak hydrogen bonds between nitrogen bases
D. Carbon-to-carbon bonds in the portion of the nucleotides.

12. In order for the cell to divide successfully, the cell must first

A. Duplicate its genetic information C. Increase its number of chromosomes

B. Decrease its volume D. decrease its number of organelles

13. Sister chromatids are attached to each other at an area called

A. Centriole B. Spindle C. Centromere D. Chromosome

14. If a cell has 12 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each of its daughter cells have after mitosis
and cytokinesis? A. 4 B. 6 C. 12 D. 24
15. Different forms of a gene are called
A. Hybrids B. dominant factors C. Alleles D. Recessive factors
16. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be
A. Hybrid B. Heterozygous C. Homozygous D. Dominant
17. A Punnett square is used to determine the
A. Probable outcome of a cross C. Actual outcomes of a cross
B. Result of incomplete dominance D. Result of meiosis
18. The physical characteristics of an organism are called
A. genetics B. heredity C. phenotype D. genotype
19. The probability of flipping a coin twice and getting two heads is
A. 1 B.1/2 C. 1/4 D. ¾
20. A situation in which a gene has more than two alleles is known as
A. Complete dominance B. Codominance C. Polygenic dominance D. Multiple alleles
21. A pink-flowered Mirabilis plant (RW) is crossed with a white-flowered Mirabilis (WW). What is the
chance that a seed from this cross will produce a red-flowered plant?
A. 0 B. 1/4 C. 1/2 D. 1

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22. In prokaryotes, DNA molecules are located in the

A. Nucleus B. Ribosomes C. Cytoplasm D. Histones
23. The main enzyme involved in linking individual nucleotides into DNA molecules is
A. DNA protease B. Ribosome C. Carbohydrase D. DNA polymerase
24. During replication, which sequence of nucleotides would bond with the DNA sequence TATGA?
A. TATGA B. ATACT C. CACTA D. AGTAT
25. Which of the following does NOT describe the structure of DNA?
A. Double helix C. Contain adenine-guanine pair
B. Nucleotide polymer D. Bacteria contain DNA but not protein
26. The two backbones of the DNA molecule consist of
A. Adenine and sugars C. Phosphates and sugars
B. Adenine and thymines D. Thymines and sugars
27. In eukaryotic chromosomes, DNA is tightly coiled around proteins called
A. DNA polymerase B. Chromatin C. Histones D. Nucleotides
28. The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
A. Translation B. Transcription C. Transformation D. Replication
29. Which of the following describes RNA?
A. RNA is usually double-stranded and contains the base thymine
B. RNA is usually single-stranded and contains the base uracil
C. RNA is longer than DNA and uses fives bases to encode information
D. RNA is made in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and stays there to carry out its function
30. In eukaryotes, nearly all the DNA is found in the
A. Nucleus B. Ribosomes C. Cytoplasm D. Histones
31. How does RNA differ from DNA?
A. RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose C. RNA contains uracil and ribose
B. RNA contains ribose and thymine D. RNA contains adenine and ribose
32. A chart that traces the inheritance of a trait in a family is called a (an)
A. Pedigree B. Karyotype C. Genome D. Autosome
33. Cutting DNA into small pieces that can be sequenced is accomplished by
A. Restriction enzymes B. DNA polymerase C. Gel electrophoresis D. RNA polymerase
34. A woman is homozygous for A-- blood type. A man has AB -- blood type. What is the probability that the
couple’s child will have type B-- blood? A. 0% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
35. Crossing dissimilar individuals to bring together their best characteristics is called
A. Domestication B. Inbreeding C. Hybridization D. Polyploidy
36. Crossing individuals with similar characteristics so that these characteristics will appear in their offspring is
called: A. polyploidy B. inbreeding C. hybridization D. recombination
37. Taking advantages of naturally occurring variations in organisms to pass wanted traits on to future
generations is called: A. selective breeding B. in breeding C. hybridization D. mutation
38. Organisms that contain genes from other organisms are called:
A. Transgenic B. mutagenic C. donors D. clones
39. A substance that have been engineered into transgenic rice has the potential to treat
A. Cancer B. High blood pressure C. Vitamin A deficiency D. malaria
40. Which of the following is most likely to be used in a court case to determine who the father of a particular
child is? A. Microarray B. DNA fingerprinting C. Gene therapy D. Genetic engineering
41. Which of the following characteristics does NOT apply to a plasmid?
A. Made in DNA C. Found in bacterial cells
B. Has circular loops D. found in animal cells

42. Two parents of genotype Aa are cross-bred. The alleles show complete dominance. What proportion of the
offspring will genotypically look like their parents? A. 1/2 B. 3/4 C. 1/4 D. 2/3
43. A mating between two heterozygous individuals such as Bb could produce offspring of genotype.

A. Homozygous dominant C. Homozygous recessive

B. Heterozygous D. All of the above are produced
44. As was shown by Gregor Mendel in garden pea, what percentage of the F 2 generation of a monohybrid
cross has the recessive phenotype? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 80%

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45. Which of the following are not contrasting pairs in Mendel’s breeding experiment
A. Yellow versus round seeds C. round versus wrinkled seeds
B. Inflated versus constricted pods D. Tall versus short plants
46. From which of the following generations did Mendel formulate his principle of dominance?
A. F1 generation B. F2 generation C. P1 generation D. F3 generation
47. A cross between two individuals that differ with respect to the alleles that carry for a single locus is known
as: A. Monohybrid cross B. Dihybrid cross C. Genotypic cross D. Genotypic cross
48. A plant has a genotype AaBb. If there is no linkage of genes, the gametes it produces are
A. AB and ab B. Aa and Bb C. AA, aa, BB, and Bb D. AB, Ab, aB, and ab
49. Mendel formulated his law of independent assor tment from the results of
A. his monohybrid cross C. his test cross
B. his dihybrid cross D. incomplete dominance
50. Why did Mendel opened all his experimental flowers at their bud stage and cut their stamens?
A. To promote the flowers to self-pollinate C. To prevent the flowers from self-pollinating
B. To enable him artificially cross pollinate the plants D. B and C E. A and B
51. If two phenotypically tall plants are crossed, the first generation of plants will always be
A. All phenotypically and genotypically tall
B. All phenotypically tall C. One fourth will be short D. half will be short
52. In a certain fly species gray body (B) is dominant over black body (b). Two gray flies were mated and
produce 21 gray and 7 black. The parents were probably
A. Bb and Bb B. Bb and bb C. BB and bb D. BB and BB
53. If an organism produces a certain trait consistently generation after generation, the organism is said to be:
A. True breeding B. Pure breeding C. Hybrid D. A and B E. All
54. The forms of a gene such as those controlling tallness and shortness in a pea plant (T and t) are referred to
as: A. Homologous chromosome C. sister chromatids
B. Alleles D. Polymorphs E. A and B
55. The genotypes of homozygous tall and heterozygous tall plants are
A. TT and Tt B. TTT and Tt C. TTT and TTt D. Ttt and Ttt
56. Suppose 1000 pea plants are produced from Tt and tt crosses, how many of them are expected to be tall?
A. 750 B. 500 C. 50 D. 0 E. 250
57. If a cross between two tall plants gave you only tall plants, which of the following conclusions you arrive
at? (Assume tallness is dominant).
A. The two parents are pure for tallness
B. One of the parents were pure tall and the other is hybrid tall
C. Both parents were hybrid tall D. Shortness is dominant over tallness E. A and C
58. Mesfin is left handed. His parents are both right handed. If right handedness (R) dominant over left
handedness (r), what was the genotype of the parents?
A. RR and Rr B. Rr and Rr C. Rr and rr D. RR E. rr
59. In humans blue eye color is due to a recessive gene (b) and brown eye color is due to a dominant gene (B).
If the mother is BB and the father is Bb, what proportion of their children would be expected to be the blue
eyed? A.1/4th B. 1/2th C. 3/4th D. 1/8th E. 0
60. In a certain family, the father is blood type B, his wife's blood group is unknown. They have blood group
AB child. What would be the possible blood group of the wife?
A. A B. O C. AB D. B E. A and C
61. Upon crossing two green podded pea plants Mendel obtained 428 green and 152 yellow podded plants.
What are the most likely genotypes of the two green plants that he crossed?
A. Gg and Gg B. gg and GG C. Gg and gg D. GG and Gg E. A and B
62. Synthesis of new DNA occurs during: A. Prophase B. Interphase C. Mitosis D. Cytokinesis
63. Mitosis differs from meiosis in that mitosis
A. has one division per cycle C. forms no chiasmata
B. is an equational division D. occurs in body cells E. all of the above
64. For haploid cells to be formed from diploid cells, a special type of cell division that reduces the
chromosome number is required. This process is known as
A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Reduction division D. A and C E. All
65. Which of the following is a correct match between the phase in meiosis and the event happening?
A. Prophase I—synapsis completed and crossing over occurs

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B. Anaphase I –sister chromatids separate

C. Anaphase II –homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles
D. After Telophase II and cytokinesis—two haploid cells formed E. A and D
66. The process of breakage and rejoining of chromosomes so that genetic material may be exchanged between
homologous (non-sister) chromatids is referred to as:
A. Crossing over B. Chiasmata C. Kinetochore D. Linkage
67. The basic activities occurring in meiosis are:
A. The reduction of chromosome number
B. The production of genetic variation in offspring
C. The reshuffling of genes by crossing over D. All of the above
68. Crossing-over
A. Occurs between non-sister chromatids C. Results in genetic recombination
B. Occurs when chromosomes pair and undergo synapsis during meiosis D. All are correct
69. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Gametogenesis is the process by which sex cells are formed
B, Human males are heterozygotic
C. Human females are homogametic D. A and B E. All of the above
70. The alternative forms of a gene known as
A. Isomers B. Alleles C. Loci D. Cross over E. Factors
71. In meiosis chromosomes replicate
A. During prophase and metaphase C. During interphase
B. Only once during the entire process D. A and B E. B and C
72. In humans the number of tetrads formed during meiosis is: A. 23 B. 46 C. 4 D. 36
73. Which of the following is correct regarding the number of adenine (A), guanine (G), thymine (T), and
cytosine (C) in a DNA molecule? A. G=A B. A+C = G+T C. C=T D. A+T = G+C
74. For a DNA molecule that has 100 cytosine and 50 thymine base the correct number of base pairs are
A. 100 thymine – Cytosine and 50 Adenine – Guanine
B. 100 Guanine – Cytosine and 50 Adenine – Thymine
C. 50 Guanine – Cytosine and 100 Adenine – Thymine D. A and B
75. What property of DNA molecules make them easily separated and replicated?
A. Their double helical structure
B. The presence of a weak hydrogen bond between the bases
C. The fact that they are made of pentose sugar
D. The fact that the deoxyribose sugar is attached to phosphate
76. When a DNA replicates the two daughters DNA contains
A. One molecule each C. One old and one new molecule each
B. Two old nucleotides each D. Two nucleotides that are new
77. RNA differs from DNA in that
A. Its sugar is ribose C. It is single strand
B. It contains the base uracil instead of thymine D. All of the above
78. Which of the following is NOT true about RNA?
A. is a single stranded C. is much smaller molecule than DNA molecule
B. The thymine is replaced by uracil D. The sugar in the nucleotides is deoxyribose, not ribose
79. The sequence of bases in the two chains of a DNA molecule is
A. Complementary and identical C. Complementary but not identical
B. Non-complementary but identical D. Non complementary and not identical
80. Those bacterial enzymes which are able to cut DNA molecules only at specific base sequences are termed
as: A. Restriction enzymes C. Cloning enzymes
B. Vector enzymes D. Plasmids E. DNA ligase
81. The first genetically engineered protein to be commercially produced was:
A. Human insulin produced by E. coli C. Human growth hormone
B. Human blood clotting factor D. Human females menstrual cycle controlling hormone
82. Inbreeding may be disadvantageous in that
A. It may cause loss of vigour, size and fertility
B. It may produce some harmful traits because the recessive alleles are no longer masked
C, It promotes homozygosity, which in turn decreases diversity or genotypes D. All of the above

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83. Suppose in a monohybrid cross of 80 F2 plants were produced, what is the number of the plants that are
expected to have the dominant and the recessive phenotypes?
A. 70 dominant + 10 recessive C. 60 dominant + 20 recessive
B. 50 dominant + 30 recessive D. 40 dominant + 40 recessive
84. If, due to incomplete dominance, the F1 plants from a cross of red flowered with white flowered parents
are pink, which of the following ratios are expected in F2 generation?
A. 2 red: 1 pink: 1white B. 1 red: 1 pink: 1white C. 1 red: 2 pink: 1 white D. 3 red: 1 pink: 1white
85. Among the following traits of the garden pea studied by Gregor Mendel, identify the one that did not
express itself in the F1 generation? A. Green pod color C. Round seed shape
B. Purple flower color D. Constricted pod shape
86. Regarding seed characteristics, suppose a heterozygous round yellow pea plant of RrYy genotype is self-
pollinated and produced 160 seeds, how many of the seeds are expected to be round yellow?
A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 105 E. 120
87. The particular experiment to find out if an organism is homozygous or heterozygous for a dominant
trait is called: A. crossing over B. monohybrid cross C. the test cross D. dihybrid cross.
88. Suppose a lost and found baby is claimed by the four families whose blood genotypes are shown below. If
a baby has blood type o, which of the families is the possible parent?
A. AO and BB B. AA X OO C. AO X BO D. AB X OO E. AB X BO
89. . Two parents of genotype Aa are cross bred. The alleles do not show codominance. What proportion of the
offspring will look like their parents? A. none B. 3/4 C. 1/4 D. ½
90. . The genotype of a homozygote could be: A. AA B. aa C. Aa D. A and B
91. The number of different types of genotypes formed when monohybrid is selfed is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D, 4
92. Which of the following is the recessive character on Mendel's experiment in pea plant?
A. Green pod B. Inflated pod C. Tall stems D. Terminal flower

93. A cross between two tall pea plants gave both tall and short plants. The genotypes of the two tall plants
could be: A. TT x TT B. Tt x Tt C. Tt x TT D. tt x tt
94. The person who discovered the laws of heredity and laid the foundation of the science of genetics is

A. Gregor Mendel B. Aristotle C. Carlos Linnaeus D. William Harvey

95. Some F1 (Tt) pea plants were self-pollinated and produced 1000 seeds. If these seeds are sown how many
of them are expected to produce tall plants? A. 500 B. 300 C. 750 D. 250
96. When the F1 hybrid of a monohybrid cross is backcrossed with homozygous recessive parent, what
percentage of the offspring would be homozygous recessive?
A. 50% B. 25% C. 0% D. 75%
97. In a cross between round green pea of RRyy genotype and wrinkled yellow pea of rrYY genotype, which
of the following is expected in F1? A. RRyy B. rrYY C. RrYy D. RRYY
98. The number of different types of phenotypes (phenotypic classes) formed when a dihybrid is selfed is:
A. 2 B. 4 C. 9 D. 3
99. Which of the following processes represents a test cross? A) Tt x tt B) TT x Tt C) Tt x Tt D) tt x tt
100. If the genotype of an organism is DdRr, the possible gametes that can be produced are:
A. DR, Dr, dR and dr C. DD, Dd, DR, and Dr
B. RR, RD, Rr and Rd D. Dd, DR, dd, and Dr
101. Which type of dominance is/are involved in the human ABO blood system?

A. Incomplete dominance only C. Complete dominance and codominance

B. Codominance only D. Complete dominance only

102. When individuals of genotype AaBb were crossed with individuals of genotype AaBb, 3200 offspring are
produced. How many of the offspring would be expected to have aabb genotype?

A. 800 B. 600 C. 200 D. 400

103. The stage of meiosis in which crossing over occurs is:

A. First prophase B. Second prophase C, First anaphase D. Second metaphase.

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104. The stage of meiosis where pairs of homologous chromosomes separate is:
A. Prophase I B. Anaphase I C. Metaphase II D. Anaphase II
105. If a cell having 40 chromosomes enters meiosis, it will produce four daughter cells each with chromosome
number of: A. 10 B. 20 C. 15 D. 40
106. Which of the following is NOT true about meiosis

A. Meiosis is used for gamete formation

B. Four gametes are produced at the end of meiosis
C. Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half
D. Meiosis produces genetically identical daughter cells

107. Which of the following is referred to as the Mendel’s first Law?

A. The occurrence of alleles in pairs

B. The dominance of one allele over the other
C. The equal contribution of alleles by both parents
D. The separation (segregation) of alleles during gamete formation

108. Which one of the following is best expressed if two plants with flower color cross breed and produce
flower color ―Z― which is an intermediate of the two?

A. Incomplete dominance B. Full dominance C. Complete dominance D. Over dominance

109. The DNA of certain organism has guanine as 30 percent of its bases. What percentage of its bases would be
accounted for by adenine? A. 10% B. 15% C. 30% D. 20%
110. RNA differs from DNA in that it is
A. Much larger B. Stable C. single stranded D. Replicates itself
111. What percentage of short plants results from a cross between hybrid tall and pure shot pea plants?
A. 50% B. 25% C. 75% D. 100%
112. Which of the following parts of the DNA ladder make up the cross bars?
A. Sugars B. Acids C. phosphates D. Bases
113. Which of the following ratios are expected in the F2 generation when F1 plants are self-pollinated due to
dominance in flower color of a Snapdragon plant?
A. 2 red: 1 pink :1 white C. 1 red: 1 pink: 1 white
B. 1 red: 2 pink : 1 white D. 3 red: 1 pink: 1 white
114. Which of the following is NOT correct about crossing over? It:
A. Occurs between sister chromatids
B. Occurs between non-sister chromatids D. Results in genetic recombination
C. Occurs when chromosomes pair and undergo synapsis during meiosis
115. A haemophliac man marries a normal homozygous woman. What is the possibility that their son will be
haemophiliac? A. 50% B. 0% C. 75% D. 100%
116. On chromosomes the point at which crossing over occurs is known as:
A. centromere B. tetrad C. chiasmata D. synapse
117. What percentage of the F2 progeny of a monohybrid cross is expected to have the recessive phenotype?
A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
118. How many chromosomes do humans inherit from each of their parents?
A. 23 pairs of chromosomes C. 46 chromosomes
B. 23 chromosomes D. 46 pairs of chromosomes
119. What is the probability of getting the gamete Ab from the genotype AaBb?
A. 25% B. 50% C. &5% D. 100%
120. The components of a nucleotide are
A. Phosphate, protein and nitrogenous base C. Deoxyribose sugar and nitrogenous base
B. Phosphate, ribose sugar and nitrogenous base D. Ribose sugar and nitrogenous base
121. If one side a DNA molecule contains the sequence AGTCCG, the complementary sequence on the other
side would be: A. CTGAAT B. TCAGGC C. AGTCCG D. GCCTGA
122. The first genetically engineered proteins to be commercially produced was
A. Human insulin produced by Escherichia coli (E. coli.) C. Human growth hormone
B. Human blood clotting factor D. Human female’s menstrual cycle controlling hormone

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123. Inbreeding may be disadvantageous in that:

A. It may cause loss of vigor, size and fertility
B. It may produce some harmful traits because the recessive alleles are no longer masked
C. It promotes homozygosity, which in turn decreases diversity or genotypes D. All of the above
124. Which of the following is true about both DNA and RNA?
A. Both are single stranded C. Both have a five carbon sugar
B. Both are polymers of amino acids D. Both contain the same four nitrogenous bases
125. If it is known that the total amount of DNA in a cell contains 300 nucleotides and adenine constitutes to 80
of these, how many nucleotides go to guanine? A. 35 B. 70 C. 80 D. 140
126. The four nucleotides that are used as building blocks of DNA differ from each other in their
A. Organic base molecules C. Sugar molecules
B. Phosphate molecules D. Fatty acids and glycerol

127. In a DNA molecule the ―up-rights‖ of the ladder are made of

A. Sugar and phosphate C. Organic bases

B. Sugar and organic bases D. Phosphate group and bases
128. Which of the following pairs of individuals have identical DNA finger prints?
A. Father and son B. Brother and sister C. Mother and daughter D. Identical twins
129. What does a restriction enzyme do?
A. Restricts transcription C. Prevents the DNA from replicating
B. Cuts DNA at specific sites D. Hydrolyses the DNA molecule
130. Which two nitrogenous bases belong to purines?
A. Adenine and thymine C. Guanine and cytosine C. Adenine and guanine D. Thymine and uracil
131. Which one of the following is true?
A. Recessive alleles are only expressed in the homozygote
B. Dominant alleles are expressed only in the heterozygote
C. Recessive alleles are expressed in the heterozygote
D. Genetically modified organisms are never used to manufacture vaccine
132. In cell division, what is the phase that comes following the metaphase called?
A. Prophase B. Interphase C. Anaphase D. Telophase
133. Which of the following sequences represents the correct change in number of chromosomes during
fertilization? A). n + n 2n B). 2n 2n C). n n D). 2n n+n
134. Suppose two heterozygous round yellow (RrYy x RrYy) pea plants were crossed and seeds were produced,
how many of the seeds are expected to the heterozygous round yellow (2008 E.C.)?

A. 4 B. 16 C. 9 D. 3
135. Along a neuron impulse is transmitted correctly in the direction of

A. Cell body—dendrites—axon C. Dendrites—cell body—axon

B. Axon—dendrites—cell body D. Cell body—axon—dendrites

136. Which of the following neuron is directly connected to salivary glands?

A. Sensory B. Motor C. Association

137. Which of the following drugs are legal in Ethiopia?

A. Khat B. Hashish C. Marijuana D. Cocaine

138. Which of the following is a drug abuse?
A. Dependence on drugs C. Excessive use of drugs
B. Mishandling of drugs D. All of the above
139. As was shown by Gregor Mendel in garden pea, what percentage of F2 generation of a monohybrid cross
has the recessive phenotype? A. 75% B. 50% C. 25% D. 12.5%
140. Which of the following parts of a flower did Mendel remove from young flowers to prevent self-
pollination? A. Stamens B. Sepals C. Petals D. Ovaries

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141. Which of the following bases is NOT found in RNA?

A. Adenine B. Guanine C. Cytosine D. Thymine
142. If a heterozygous tall pea plant (Tt) is crossed with a short pea plant (tt), what percentage of the progeny is
expected to be short? A. 100% B. 75% C.50% D. 25%
143. Which of the plants with the following genotypes is heterozygous?
A. BBYY B. BbYy C. bbyy D. YYBB
144. What do geneticists call the genotype in which the two alleles of a pair are identical?
A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Homozygous D. Heterozygous
145. Which one of the following is referred to as the First Law of Mendel?
A. The occurrence of alleles in pairs
B. The dominance of one allele over the other
C. The equal contribution of alleles by both parents
D. The separation of alleles during gamete formation
146. Which of the following is the best way to check whether an individual having a dominant phenotype is
homozygous or heterozygous for the trait?
A. To self the individual
B. To cross it to a homozygous dominant individual
C. To cross it to homozygous recessive individual
D. To cross it to a homozygous dominant individual
147. How many chromosomes do humans inherit from each of their parents (2005 E.C)?
A. 23 chromosomes C. 46 chromosomes
B. 23 pairs of chromosomes D. 46 Pairs of chromosomes

Purines and pyrimidenes are the nitrogen-containing bases found in the nucleotides that make up DNA and RNA.
The two-carbon nitrogen ring bases (adenine and guanine) are purines, while the one-carbon-nitrogen ring bases
(thymine and cytosine) are pyrimidines.
Purines have two rings in their structure, while pyrimidines have just one.
Purines are larger than pyrimidines because they have a two-ring structure while pyrimidines only have a single ring.

____________________________________________________________________________________________

ANSWER
Name ________________________________ Section ___________R. No______
1 15 29 43 57 71 85 99 113 127 141
2 16 30 44 58 72 86 100 114 128 142
3 17 31 45 59 73 87 101 115 129 143
4 18 32 46 60 74 88 102 116 130 144
5 19 33 47 61 75 89 103 117 131 145
6 20 34 48 62 76 90 104 118 132 146
7 21 35 49 63 77 91 105 119 133 147
8 22 36 50 64 78 92 106 120 134
9 23 37 51 65 79 93 107 121 135
10 24 38 52 66 80 94 108 122 136 THE
11 25 39 53 67 81 95 109 123 137 END
12 26 40 54 68 82 96 110 124 138
13 27 41 55 69 83 97 111 125 139
14 28 42 56 70 84 98 112 126 140

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