Q. No.

QUESTIONS

1. ‘Power of Parliament to modify the rights conferred by this part in their application to forces etc.’
is the basis of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

a) Article 32

b) Article 33

c) Article 33(1)

d) Article 32(1)

2. In which of the following respects the Directive Principles differ from the Fundamental Rights?

a) The Directives are not enforceable in the courts and do not create any justiciable rights in favor of
individuals

b) The Directives require to be implemented by legislation, and so long as there is no law carrying
out the policy laid down in a Directive, neither the state nor an individual can violate any existing law
or legal right under the color of following a Directive

c) The Courts are not competent to compel the Government to carry out any Directive or to make
any law for that purpose

d) All of them

3 Which of the following interpretations of the Constitution regarding the utility of Directives is/are
found to be correct? I. Even though the implementation of a Directive Principle may cause hardship
to a few individuals, it should be upheld in the larger interests of the community. II. In view of the
absolute prohibition of consumption of liquor in Article 47, there cannot be any fundamental right to
manufacture and sell intoxicating liquor.

a) I and II

b) Neither I nor II

c) Only I

d) Only II

4 Which kinds of justice have been mentioned in Article 38 in Part IV of the Indian Constitution?

a) Social
b) Economic
c) Political
d) All of them

5 According to Article 39 of the Indian Constitution the State shall, in particular, direct its policy
towards securing: I. That the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate
means of livelihood. II. That the ownership and control of the material resources of the community
are so distributed as best to subserve the common good. III. That there is equal pay for equal work
for both men and women.

a) I, II and III

b) II and III
c) I and III

d) I and II

6 Which of the following directives has been given the Supreme Court for the welfare of the
children according to clauses (e), (f) of Article 39 of the Indian Constitution?

a) The Children should not be employed in hazardous jobs in factories for manufacture of match
boxes and fire works

b) Positive steps should be taken for the welfare of such children as well as for improving the
quality of their life

c) The employer of children below 14 years must comply with the provisions of the child labour Act
providing for compensation, employment of their parents/ guardians and their education

d) All of them

7 ‘Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases’ is an essence of which of the
following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

a) Article 40

b) Article 41

c) Article 39

d) Article 42

8 Which of the following statements regarding ‘Right to education is/are found to be correct? I. The
duty of the State, under this directive is not only to establish educational institutions but also to
effectively secure the right to education, by admitting students to the seats available at such
institutions, by admitting candidates found eligible according to some rational principle. II. Even
though this right is not a fundamental right and is not judicially enforceable as such, once the State,
by legislative or administrative actions, provides facilities for education, its action must conform to
the standard of equality and rationality underlying Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) I and II

d) None of them

9 Living, wage etc. for workers have been mentioned in Article of Indian Constitution.

a) 41

b) 43

c) 43A

d) 42

10 ‘Uniform Civil code for the citizens’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian
Constitution?
a) Article 43

b) Article 43A

c) Article 44

d) Article 45

11 Which of the following Articles says “The State shall endeavor to provide early childhood care
and education for all children until they complete the age of six years”?

a) Article 44

b) Article 45

c) Article 43A

d) Article 46

12 According to Article 47 of the Indian Constitution, it is the duty of the state to raise the level of
nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health. Which of the following statements
regarding public health is/are correct? I. Article 47 makes improvement of public health a primary
duty of the State. II. In case of need, the local authority should approach the State Government to
grant loan or aid, and the latter should supply the money required in view of primary duty of the
‘State’ under Article 47.

a) I and II

b) Only II

c) Only I

d) None

13 Which of the following Articles is associated with Fundamental Duties?

a) Article 50

b) Article 51

c) Article 49

d) Article 51A

14 Fundamental Duties have been added in the Constitution by which of the following Amendment
Acts?

a) 40th Amendment Act

b) 42nd Amendment Act

c) 48th Amendment Act

d) 44th Amendment Act

15 Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties is/are found to be correct? I.
Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by mandamus or any other legal remedy. II. If the state
seeks to promote any of these duties, that can be done only through methods permitted by and in
consonance with the constitution.

a) I and II

b) Only I

c) Only II

d) Neither I nor II

16 Which of the following directions has/have been issued by the Supreme Court to the Central
Government to take a number of steps to improve the environment?

a) To direct all educational institutions throughout Indian to give weekly lessons in the first ten
classes, relating to the protecting and improvement of the nature

b) To get books written for the said purpose and to distribute them free of cost

c) To introduce short term courses for training up teachers who teach this subject

d)All of them

17 The Fundamental Rights as given in the Constitution are: (

a) Subject to reasonable restrictions

(b) Absolute

(c) Inalienable

(d) None of the options

18 The right to constitutional remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights is given in:

(a) Article 13

(b) Article 14

(c) Article 19d

(d) Article 32

19 A boy, aged 11 years, has been compelled to work in a factory making match boxes. Which
Fundamental Right is violated in this case?

(a) Right to Equality

(b) Right against Exploitation

(c) Right to Freedom

(d) Right to Freedom of Religion.

20 The Right to Freedom of Religion is included in:

(a) Articles 25 to 27

(b) Articles 25 to 28
(c) Articles 26 to 29

(d) Articles 22 to 28

21 The concept of Directive Principles has been borrowed from:

(a) Irish Constitution

(b) Canadian Constitution

(c) Russian Constitution American Constitution

22 The Fundamental Rights:

(a) Were added by 42nd amendment

(b) Were added by 44th amendment

(c) Formed a part of original Constitution

(d) Were added by Parliament in 1952

23 Which one of the following amendments established the importance of Directive Principles over
certain Fundamental Rights?

(a) 24th amendment

(b) 25th amendment

(c) 42nd amendment

(d) 44th amendment

24 Freedom of Residence under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is available in which of the
following clauses?

a) 19 (1) (e)

b) 19 (1) D

c) 19 (1) B

d) 19 (1) C

25 Directive Principles have been included in the Constitution to achieve the ideals of:

(a) Individual liberty

(b) Political liberty

(c) Democracy

(d) Welfare state

26 Under which Articles have the Directive Principles of State Policy been mentioned in the
Constitution?

(a) Articles 37-50

(b) Articles 38-51

(c) Articles 36-51

(d) Articles 36-52

27 Consider the following statements: The Indian Constitution is (1) unwritten Constitution (2)
written Constitution (3) largely based on Government of India Act, 1935

a) 2 and 1 are correct

b) 2 and 3 are correct

c) 1 and 2 are correct

d) 1 and 3 are correct.

28 One of the Directive Principles is that the State shall introduce free and compulsory education for
all children up to the age of

(a) 10 years

(b) 10 years

(c) 06 years

(d) 14 years

29 The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure:

a) fundamental rights to all individuals

b) fundamental duties to citizen of India

c) dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation

d) security of service to Government Servant.

30 At present, there are_________ Freedoms under Article 19.

(a) Seven

(b) Six

(c) Eight

d) Ten

31 ‘Justice, social, economic and political’ is enshrined in:

a) Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India

b) Writs issued by the Supreme Court of India

c) Preamble to the Constitution of India

d) Directive Principle of State Policy taken into account making enactments.

32 Consider the following statements with reference to the term ‘secularism’: 1. Secularism means
that the State has no recognized religion of State 2. Secularism means that the State treats all the
religions equally 3. Secularism means that the State regulates the relation of man with God. Which
of these statements are correct –
a) 1, 2, and 3

b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 3

33 Which of the following said that “In any event, whatever system of Government we may
establish here must fit in with the temper of the people and be acceptable to them”:

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

c) D. D. Basu

d) M. V. Pylee.

34 Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of the citizens under the Constitution of
India?

a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighboring countries

b) To protect monuments of national importance

c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so

d) To know more and more about the history of India.

35 Find the odd one out.

(a) Right to Equality

(b) Right to Property

(c) Cultural and Educational Rights

(d) Right against Exploitation

36 Which of the following statement is true with respect to the Preamble?

a) It is the part of the Constitution

b) It is not the part of the Constitution

c) Still this question is to be decided by the court

d) None of the options

37 Which of the following feature is not borrowed from United Kingdom:

a) The Cabinet system of Government

b) The Parliamentary type of Government

c) Bicameral Parliament

d) Written Constitution.

38 The feature ‘power of judicial review’ is borrowed from which of the following country:
a) UK

b) USA

c) Canada

d) Ireland.

39 Which of the following Articles describe about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a
foreign state not to be citizens:

a) Article 5

b) Article 7

c) Article 8

d) Article 9.

40 The expression ‘every person’ in Article 5 includes:

a) a prisoner

b) member of armed forces

c) persons living within the territory of India

d) all of the options

41 Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have
migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following provision is incorrect?

a) he or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the
Government of India Act, 1935

b) such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948.

c) such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a citizen

d) such person has got married in India.

42 The Fundamental rights secured under Article 32 to the individual are:

a) limited to the State action only

b) meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons

c) meant to protect persons against the action of foreigner

d) all of the options are correct.

43 The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in which part of the Constitution?

(a) Part II

(b) Part III

(c) Part IV

(d) Part V
44 Which of the following are included in the concept of ‘the State’ under Article 12:

a) Railway Board and Electricity Board

b) Judiciary

c) University

d) all of the options.

45 Which provision of the Constitution of India has been described as the soul of the Constitution?
(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) Preamble

(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies

46 How many Fundamental Duties were incorporated in Article 51-A, by the 42nd Amendment Act,
1976?

(a) Ten

(b) Nine

(c) Two

(d) Twenty

47 Under Article 13(1) pre-Constitution laws:

a) become completely void

b) not void

c) become void (from the date of the commencement of the Constitution) insofar as they are
inconsistent with the fundamental rights

d) none of the options

48 Article 13(2)

: a) includes law amending the Constitution

b) does not include a law amending the Constitution

c) states that the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights

d) none of the options.

49 The controversial 42nd Amendment was passed in:

(a) 1974

(b) 1976

(c) 1978

(d) 1980
50 Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to:

a) All persons living within the territory of India

b) All Indian citizens living in India

c) All persons domiciled in India

d) None of the options

51 A new Chapter IV A on Fundamental Duties was inserted in the Indian Constitution in?

(a) 1972

(b) 1976

(c) 1980

(d) 1984

52 Which of the following rights are conferred to Indian citizens under protection of certain rights
regarding freedom of speech etc.?

a) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms

b) Right to form associations or unions

c) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India

d) All of them

53 Which of the following statements is/are found to be correct? I. The rights conferred by Article
19 the Indian Constitution are not available to any person who is not and cannot be a ‘Citizen of
India’. II. A person cannot complain of the infringement of any of the rights conferred by Article 19,
if his citizenship of India has been validly terminated by law made by Parliament in pursuance of the
power conferred by Article 11. III. The National Awards are violative of the principles of equality

. a) I and II

b) I, II and III

c) II and III

d) I and III

54 How many times has the President declared financial emergency in the country so far?

(a) Once

(b) Twice

(c) Thrice

(d) Never

55 Which of the following constitutes a faecet of the freedom of the Press? I. The right to publish
includes the right to publish not only its own views but also those of its correspondents. II. The right
to circulate refers to the matter to be circulated as well as the volume of circulation. III. To require a
newspaper to reduce its space for advertisements would directly affect its circulation since it would
be bound to raise its price.

a) I and II

b) I, II and III

c) II and III

d) I and III

56 Clause (1) B of Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is associated with which of the following?

a) Right to freedom of expression

b) Freedom of assembly

c) Freedom to form association

d) Freedom to practice any profession

57 Right to Freedom of Association is guaranteed by which of the following clauses?

a) 19 (1) A

b) 19 (1) B

c) 19 (1) C

d) 19 (1) D

58 Right to Freedom of Association is the ordinary right which is enjoyed by all citizens to form
associations. This right state that: I. The word ‘form’ includes not only the right to start an
association but also to continue it, or refuse to be a member of an association, if he so desires. II. It
also includes the right that composition of a society shall not be so altered by law as to introduce
members other than those who voluntarily joined to form the society, without the consent of
members of the original association. Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I and II

d) Neither I nor II

59 Which one of the following is a Human Right as well as Fundamental Right under the Constitution
of India?

a) Right to information

b) Right to Education

c) Right to work

d) Right to Housing

60 Which article of the Indian constitution includes fundamental duties to the Indian Citizens?
a) Article 50A

b) Article 50B

c) Article 51A

d) Article 51B

61 India is a republic because:

a) The head of the state is not a hereditary monarch.

b) Constitution rests on the people’s will

c) The leader of the majority party becomes the Prime Minister

d) None of the options

62 Which of the following statement is true? 1) Constitution of India does not accept strict
separation of power 2) Constitution of India does accept strict separation of power 3) Constitution
of India prescribes for independent judiciary 4) Preamble of the Indian Constitution is enforceable in
the court of law

a) 1,4,2

b) 1,3

c) 1,2,4

d) 1,3,4

63 Sovereignty lies in

a) Parliament in India

b) People of India

c) Constitution of India

d) Preamble to the Constitution of India

64 Which of the following is correctly matched?

a) Republic: Head of the state is hereditary monarch.

b) Sovereign: Constitution rests on the people’s will.

c) Democratic: Constitution does not recognize legal supremacy of another country.

d) Secular: State is without religion of its own.

65 Directive Principles of State Policy is not enforceable but: 1)These principles are fundamental in
governance of the country, 2) It is the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws 3)
Laws, include all normative exercise of power including the decision making 4) Are subsidiary to
fundamental rights Choose the correct one:

a) 1,2

b) 1,2,3,4
c) 1,2,3

d) 1,2,4

66 Constitution of India was adopted on: a) 26th January, 1950 b) 24th November 1950 c) 15th
August, 1947 d) 26th November 1949

67 Which of the following fundamental rights cannot be suspended during proclamation of

emergency:

a) Article 20 & 21

b) Article 16 & 19

c) Article 18 & 28

d) Article 15 & 14

68 Which of the following Article deals with amendment of Indian Constitution:

a) Article 362

b) Article 368

c) Article 367

d) Article 363

69 The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it:

a) Uses value loaded words

b) Contains the real objective and philosophy of the Constitution makers

c) It is a source of power and limitation

d) It gives an exhaustive list of basic features of the constitution.

70 Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?

(a) Article 359

(b) Article 356

(c) Article 323

(d) Article 360

71 The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens have been enumerated from:

(a) Articles 12 to 35 of the Constitution

(b) Articles 13 to 36 of the Constitution

(c) Articles 15 to 39 of the Constitution

(d) Articles 16 to 40 of the Constitution

72 Which among the following parts of constitution of India, includes the concept of welfare states?
a) Preamble
b) Fundamental rights

c) Directive principles

d) Fourth Schedule

73 In which among the following parts of Constitution of India are enshrined the Fundamental
Duties?

a) Part III

b) Part IIIA

c) Part IVA

d) Part IV

74 Identify the Article of the Constitution which abolished untouchability?

(a) Article 16 (

b) Article 17

(c) Article 19

(d) Article 15

75 The President of India can proclaim National Emergency

(a) On the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister

(b) On the advice of the Speaker

(c) On the advice of the leader of the ruling party or set of parties in power

(d) At his own discretion

76 We borrowed the Concept of Fundamental Duties from the:

(a) American Constitution

(b) Irish constitution

(c) Canadian Constitution

(d) USSR Constitution

77 Part II of the Constitution deals with:

(a) The Union and its Territory

(b) Citizenship

(c) Tribunals

(d) Elections

78 Which part of the Indian Constitution reflects the ideology of Gandhi

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Fundamental Duties

(c) Directive Principles

(d) Preamble

79 Equal pay for equal work for both men and women has been laid down in the Indian Constitution
as one of the

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) . (b) Fundamental Duties.
(c) (c) Guidelines in the Preamble.
(d) (d) Directive Principles of State Policy.

80 The authority to alter the boundaries of States in India rests with the:

(a) State Government

(b) Parliament

(c) Prime Minister

(d) President

81 To produce the Constitution, the Constituent Assembly took:

(a) 2 years 11 months and 17 days

(b) 3 years 10 months and 20 days

(c) 4 years 11 months and 17 days

(d) 5 years 6 months and 5 days

82 When a financial emergency is proclaimed

(a) Union budget will not be presented

(b) Salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced

(c) Repayment of government debts will stop

(d) Payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed

83 The terms: ‘Secular, Socialist and Integrity’ were added to the Preamble in

(a) 1979

(b) 1977

(c)1976

(d) 1975

84 Who is the custodian of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution?

(a) Parliament

(b) President
(c) Supreme Court

(d) All of the options

85 The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is :

(a) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic

(b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic

(c) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

(d) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democracy

86 How many types of Emergency have been visualized in the Constitution of India?

(a) Four

(b) Three

(c) One

(d) Two

87 How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?

(a) About 6 months in 1949

(b) About 2 years since Aug 15, 1947

(c) Exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948

(d) About 3 years since Dec 9, 1946

88 Which of the following is correct regarding the Indian Constitution?

(a) It is completely based on British Constitution.

(b) It is original

(c) It is made only on the basis of Government of India Act, 1935

(d) It is a mixture of several Constitutions.

89 Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right?

(a) Right to strike

(b) Right against exploitation

(c) Right to equality

(d) Right to freedom of religion

90 Welfare State is well defined in which of the following?

(a) Indian Preamble

(b) Directive Principles

(c) Schedule VII of the Constitution

(d) Fundamental Rights

91 Which of the following is enforceable in a court of law? (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Fundamental
Duties (c) Directive Principles (d) Preamble

92 Interpretation of Indian Constitution is based on the spirit of the:

(a) Preamble

(b) Fundamental Rights

(c) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Fundamental Duties

93 When there is a conflict between Fundamental Rights (Part III) and the Directive Principles of
State Policy (Part IV) of the Constitution of India, the _______ will prevail.

(a) Directive Principles (

b) Fundamental Rights

(c) Harmonious Interpretation of DPSP and Fundamental Rights (

d) Neither

94 Protection under Article can be claimed by an institution only if it is established by a religious or

linguistic minority.

(a) 25

(b) 26

(c) 29

(d) 30

95 The right to move court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is itself a guaranteed
Fundamental Right

. (a) High

(b) Subordinate

(c) Quasi-Judicial

(d) Supreme

96 Assertion :-The Preamble of the Constitution starts with ?We, the people of India? Reason :It
implies that the Constitution is created by the entire nation.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

97 Which one of the Directive Principles is Gandhian? (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and
women (b) Organization of village Panchayats as effective units of local self-government (c)
Protection of workers, especially children (d) None of the options

98 Assertion: -The Chapter on the Fundamental Rights was framed upon the model of American
Constitution. Reason:-Fundamental rights are enforceable.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

99 No person can be employed in factories or mines unless he is above the age of

(a) 12 years.

(b) 14 years

. (c) 18 years.

(d) 20 years.

100 A Presidential proclamation can remain in force for:

(a) Three months

(b) Two months

(c) Six months

(d) Till the President revokes it

101 Which portion of the Indian Constitution reflects the mind and ideals of its framers?

(a) Preamble

(b) Fundamental Rights

(c) Directive Principles

(d) Emergency Provisions

102 The doctrine of Double jeopardy is mentioned in Article?

(a) 20

(b) 14

(c) 15

(d) 16

103 Which right has been deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights and has become a
constitution right?

(a) Right to Equality

(b) Right to Freedom

(c) Right to Property

(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies

104 Assertion :-The Constitution of India is often termed as a borrowed document. Reason :-The
concept of Rule of Law is borrowed from UK.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

105 Assertion :-Secularism is a basic feature of the Constitution of India in the sense that the State
should be neutral to the different religions. Reason :-One of the Directive Principles of State Policy
states that uniform civil code may be implemented.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

106 Assertion :-In the Constitution of India the unity and fraternity of the people of India, professing
numerous faiths, has been sought to be achieved by enshrining the ideal of a secular State. Reason
:-The ideal of a Secular State means that the state protects all religions equally and does not itself
uphold any religion as the state religion.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

107 Assertion: -If a person feels that his Fundamental Rights have been infringed by a State, he can
approach Supreme Court for his right. Reason: -Fundamental Rights are justiciable.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

108 Assertion: -For any violation of any of the Directive Principles of State Policy, the affected party
cannot move the court. Reason: -The Directives Principles are not justiciable.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

109 Assertion :- Article 25 stipulates that all persons have the right to entertain any religious belief
and to propagate it. Reason :-India is a secular state

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

UNIT - 2 ANSWERS (​Highlight the right options​)

1
The provisions concerning the elections of the members of the Rajya Sabha have been
influenced by the Constitution of:
(a) South Africa
(b) Switzerland
(c) U.S.A.
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

2
The tenure of the Council of Ministers lasts:
(a) As long as it enjoys the support of the electorate
(b) As long as it enjoys the support of the majority of the members of the Parliament
(c) Six years
(d) Five years.

3
Which one of the following is the popularly elected House of the Parliament?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha
(d) None of the options

4
The seat of a Member of Parliament can be declared vacant if he absents himself from the
House without permission fora period of:
(a) 60 days
(b) Two years
(c) Six months
(d) One year

5
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 250
(b) 245
(c) 240
(d) 200

6
In order to be elected a member of Council of States a person must not be less than:
(a) 30 years.
(b) 25 years
(c) 21 years
(d) 35 years

7
The Estimates Committee of the Parliament consists of members of only:
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Both the Houses
(d) None of the above

8
How many times at least has the Parliament to meet in a year?
(a) Thrice
(b) Twice
(c) Once
(d) Multiple

9
Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament are presided over by the
(a) President of India
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) An MP nominated by the President

10
The Governor of a State is appointed by:
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The President
(c) The President on the recommendation of the Central Council of Ministers headed by Prime
Minister
(d) The President on the advice of the Chief Minister of the State

11
Who in empowered to suspend the operation of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) President
(c) The Cabinet
(d) Parliament

12
The salaries and allowances of Union Ministers are determined by the
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Parliament
13
Which of the following part of the Constitution deals with elections?
(a) X
(b) XV
(c) XX
(d) XVI

14
The normal term of the Governor’s office:
(a) Depends on the tenure of the State Legislature
(b) Is 3 years
(c) Is 4 years
(d) Is 5 years

15
The President can dissolve Lok Sabha at the advice/request of whom of the following before the
completion of the tenure?
(a) At the written request of the members
(b) At the advice of the Prime Minister
(c) At the written request of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) At the advice of the Vice-President

16
The minimum age limit for a Governor is:
(a) 30 years
(b) 32 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 45 years

17
Subject to the provisions of the constitution, according to Article 73, of the Indian Constitution
the executive power of the Union shall extend:
I. To the matters with respect to which Parliament has power to make laws.
II. To the exercise of such rights, authority and jurisdiction as are exercisable by the
Government of India by virtue of any treaty or agreement.
Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?
a) I and II ​b) Only I c) Only II d) None of them

18
President of India can be impeached for
a) Violation of Constitution of India
b) Violation of International Obligation
c) Violation of Legal Rights
d) All of the options

19
Which one of the following is not a qualification for election as president?
1) He must have completed the age of 35 years
2) He must be qualified for election as a member of house of people
3) He must not be more than age of 65 years
4) He must not be an acting minister either for union or for any state
Choose the correct one:
a) 1,2
b) 3,4
c) 2,4
d) 1,4

20
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
(a) Prime Minister​ (b) Vice- President (c) Chief Minister (d) Chief Justice

21
Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the structure of the Union
Government?
(a) It is Unitary
(b) It is Federal
(c) It is Federal in peace times and Unitary in the Emergencies
(d) It is Unitary in peace times and Federal in Emergencies

22
What is the age at which an Indian can become a candidate for Presidentship?
(a) 45
(b) 65
(c) 60
(d) 35

23
Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?
(a) Chief of the Army
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chief of the Air Force

24
Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Citizens of India
25
In India, a citizen who has attained the age of has a right to vote irrespective of his religion,
race, caste, colour, creed, sex, place of birth, etc.
(a) 21 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 18 years
18 years for girls and 21 years for boys

26
Chief Minister of a State is responsible to
(a) Prime Minister (b) Rajya Sabha ​(c) Legislative Assembly​ (d) Governor

27
The Governor of a State is:
(a) Head of State of the State he is appointed as Governor
(b) Head of Government
(c) President's agent
(d) Non-political figure

28
Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice President is
available?
(a) Senior most Governor of a State
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Auditor General of India

29
In India, political parties are given recognition by
(a) Election Commission​ (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) President (d) Law Commission

30
Judicial Review function of the Supreme Court means the power to
(a) Review the functioning of judiciary in the country
(b) Undertake periodic review of the Constitution.
(c) Examine the constitutional validity of the laws
(d) Review its own judgement

31
The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(b) Chief Minister of the concerned state
(c) Governor of the concerned state
(​d) President
32
Which is the highest court of appeal in India?
(a)​Supreme Court ​( b) President (c) High Court (d) Privy Council

33
Formally all the executive powers of the Union Government are vested in
(a) The President of India
(b) The Cabinet Ministers only
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Council of Ministers

34
Judicial Review signifies that the Supreme Court
(a) Can impeach the President
(b) Can declare emergency
(c) Can review cases decided by the High Courts.
(d) Has final authority over all cases

35
Public interest litigation applies to any case of public injury arising from
(a) The violation of the law
(b) The violation of a constitutional provision
(c) The breach of any public duty
(d) All the options

36
Indian Constitution provides for a ______ system.
(a) Presidential
(b) Unicameral
(c) ​Parliamentary
(d) Unitary

37
The Chief Election Commissioner of India is:
(a) Elected by the Parliament
(b) Nominated by the Prime Minister
(c) ​Appointed by the President
(d) None of the options

38
Who among the following are not appointed by the President?
(a) Governor of State
(b) Chief Justice and Judges of High Courts
(c) ​Vice-President
Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court.

39
Which of the following is not a prescribed qualification for appointment as a Judge of the
Supreme Court?
(a) He should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for a minimum period of five years
(b) He should not be more than 55 years of age
(c) He should have worked as an advocate in any High Court for a minimum
period of ten years
(d) He should be an eminent jurist in the opinion of the President

40
What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?
(a) To increase agricultural production
(b) To create employment
(c) To make people politically conscious
(d) To make people participate in development administration

41
If the Parliament passes a law which is against the Constitution, it can be declared as
unconstitutional by the
(a) Election Commission
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President
Supreme Court

42
What should be the minimum strength, of the elected members in a State Legislative Assembly?
(a) 250
(b) 500
(c) 300
(a) (d) 60

43
To ensure impartiality, the retired Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court are
debarred from practicing law
(a) In any Criminal Court
(b) In any court other than State High Courts
(​c) In any court of India
In any court other than the Supreme Court
44
The final authority to interpret the constitution
(a) Parliament
(​b) Supreme Court
(c) Attorney General
(d) High Court

45
Which of the following conditions of Presidents’ office is/ are found to be correct?
I. The President shall not be a member of either house of Parliament.
II. The President shall not hold any other office of profit.
III. The emoluments and allowance of the President shall not be diminished during his term of
office.
a) I, II and III​ b) Only II c) I and III d) II and III

46
Who among the following decides if a particular bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) President
(​b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Finance Minister

47
When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charges shall be
preferred by___________ of Parliament.
a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
c) Either House
d) None of them

48
Which of the following statements regarding the mandatory time limit of Presidential election
according to Article 62 of the Indian Constitution is/are found to be correct?
I. The election of the President must be completed within the time fixed by the Article and there
is no provision for extension of this time limit.
II. Because of the rigidity of the time limit, the election must be held and completed before the
expiration of the outgoing President, notwithstanding the fact that at the time of such election,
the Legislative Assembly of a state has been dissolved.
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Neither I nor II
d) I and II
49
Judges of High Courts are appointed by the
(a) President.
(b) Governor.
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Prime minister on the advice of Council of ministers

50
When the President is unable to discharge his functions owing to absence, illness or any other
cause, ______________ shall discharge his functions until the date on which the President
resumes his duties.
a) Speaker
b​) Vice President
c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
d) Prime Minister

51
Who administers the oath of office to the President?
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Vice-President
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner
(d) The Chief-Justice of India

52
The election of the Parliament is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Indian
Constitution?
a) Article 52
b) Article 53
c) Article 54
d) Article 53(1)

53
The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of:
a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament
b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States
c) The members of State legislative Assemblies, councils and All M.P.’s
d) Both (A) and (B)

54
It the President wants to resign; he has to address the letter of resignation to the:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) Speaker
(d) Chief Justice of India

55
Which of the following methods is adopted for the election of the President of India?
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Proportional Representation through single transferable vote
d) Both (A) and (C)

56
If the office of the President falls vacant, except due to the expiry of his term, it is to be filled
within:
(a) One year
(b) One month
(c) Three months
(d) Six months

57
Rajya Sabha enjoys more powers than the Lok Sabha in case of
(a) Money Bills.
(b) Non-Money Bills.
(c) Setting up of new all-India services.
(d) Amendment of the Constitution.

58
The ‘Eligibility for re-election’ of President is the basis of the Indian Constitution.
a) Article 56
b) Article 57
c) Article 58
d) Article 54

59 The meetings of the State Legislative Council are presided by the ______
a) Deputy Speaker
b) Speaker
c) Chairman
d) Governor

60 Which among the following constitutional amendment act, reduced the age of voting from 21
years to 18 years?
a) 59th Amendment Act
b) 60th Amendment Act
c)61st Amendment Act
d)62nd Amendment Act

61 How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of India?
a) 2 ​b) 12​ c) 10 d) 15

62 The Parliament of India is consisted of _______:

a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President
c) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President and Prime Minister
d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Council of Ministers

63 Which of the following is not a qualification for being a member of Parliament?

a) Must be a graduate with 55% of marks​ b) Must be an Indian citizen c) Must be minimum of 25
years of age d) Must not hold any office of profit

64 Which of the following is a mandatory qualification for being a member of Parliament of the
House of People?
a) Must be a graduate with 55% of marks
b) Must be 25 years of age
c) Must hold a office of profit
d) None of the options

65 Which of the following is a ground of disqualification for member of Parliament?

a) If he defects and commits an offence under anti-defection law
b) If he acquires shares in a private company
c) If he earns money from selling of any books
d) None of the options

66 Which of the following is not a ground for disqualifying a member of Parliament ?

a) If he is convicted and sentenced for 10 years imprisonment
b) If he holds an office of profit
c) If he voluntarily gives up the citizenship of India
d) If he earns money from selling of any books

67 In case of disqualification of a member of Parliament, the President shall consult whom ?

a) Prime Minister
b) Council of Minister
c) Chief Justice of India
d) Election Commission of India

68 The Maximum permissible life of the ordinance issued by the President under Article 123 is
a) 6 months ​b) 6 weeks​ c) 7 months 2 weeks d) 1 year
69 The ordinance may be promulgated by the President of India when
a) The National Emergency is in force
b) There is armed rebellion
c) The houses of Parliament is not in session
d) None of the options

70
The President can issue pardon under which provision of the Constitution?
a) 53
b) 65
c) 72
d) 52

71
The President of India under article 72 can
a) Pardon
b) Remit any sentence
c) Commute any sentence
d) All of the options.

72
Under Article 72, the President can not
a) Declare a person innocent
b) Pardon any person
c) Suspend the sentence awarded to a person
d) All of the above

73
The power of pardoning with respect to punishment or sentence by Court Martial can be
exercised by:
a) President
b) Governor
c) Chief Justice of India
d) Chief Justice of the state where court martial was conducted

74
Who is the ex-officio chairman of the Council of State?
a) President of India
b) Vice-President of India
c) Prime Minister
d) Minister for Parliamentary affairs

75
The Indian President is
a) Head of the State
b) Head of the Government
c) De facto Head of the Parliament
d) De facto Head of the Coast Guard

76
Which of the following statement with respect to the office of Governor is true ?
a) The Governor is the Vice-Chancellor of all State Universities
b) The Governor can impose National emergency
c) The Govern can issue pardon
d) None of the options

77
Which of the following statements with respect to the office of Governor is true ?
a) The Governor can withhold assent to a bill passed by the State Legislature and refer it to the
President
b) The Governor can declare a person to be innocent
c) The Governor can appoint the Chief Justice of the High Court
d) The Governor is the Vice-Chancellor of all State Universities

78
Which of the following statements with respect to the office of Governor is true?
a) The Governor need to be minimum of 65 years of age
b) The Governor can be impeached by the Parliament
c) The Governor may be transferred or removed by the President
d) The Governor needs to be a PhD holder

79
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The Vice-President is impeached through a motion passed by half of the state legislatures
b)The Vice-President is removed through a motion passed by Council of State and approved by
House of People
c) The Vice-President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces
d) The Vice-President is the sole authority who can impose National Emergency

80
Who is appointed as the acting President, in absence of the Vice-President?
a) Prime Minister
b) Home Minister
c) Chief Justice of High Court of Delhi
d) Chief Justice of India

81
How many Presidents have been impeached in India ?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 ​d) 0

82
How many Judges of the Supreme Court of India have been impeached?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 ​d) 0

83
Who is the current (14th ) President of India ?
a) Ram Nath Kovind​ b) Pranab Mukherjee c) Pratibha Patil d) KR Narayanan

84
Who was the first President of India ? a) Dr. BR Ambedkar ​b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad​ c) VV Giri d)
Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

85
What is the strength of the Supreme Court of India ? ​a) 30 Judges and 1 Chief Justice​ b) 29
Judges and 1 Chief Justice c) 6 Judges and 1 Chief Justice d) 127 Judges and 1 Chief Justice

86
Who is the current (47th) Chief Justice of India ? ​a) Sharad Arvind Bobde​ b) Rajan Gogoi c)
Dipak Misra d) JS Khehar
1 Data theft includes:

a)unauthorized attempts to bypass the security mechanisms of an information system or

network.

b)use of information and communication technologies to support hostile behaviour

.
c)form of fraud or cheating of another persons’ identity

d) without the permission of the person who is in charge of the computer, to download, copy
or extract any data, computer data base or information from computer.

2 are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you to falsifying

their identity.

(a) Computer viruses

(b) Phishing scams
(c) Phishing trips
(d)Spyware scams

3 A person is being harassed repeatedly by being followed called or be written to he/she is a

target of
(a) Bullying
(b) Stalking
(c) (c)Identity theft
(d) (d)Phishing

4 Hacking means:

(a) unauthorized attempts to bypass the security mechanisms of an information system or

network.

(b) use of information and communication technologies to support deliberate, repeated and
hostile behavior

(c) a form of fraud or cheating of another persons’ identity in which someone pretends to be
someone else by assuming that person’s identity.

(d) without the permission of the owner to download computer data.

5 What is meant by the term 'cyber-crime'?

a) Any crime that uses computers to jeopardize or attempt to jeopardize national security
b) The use of computer networks to commit financial or identity fraud
c) The theft of digital information
d) Any crime that involves computers and networks
6 When IT Act 2000 came into effect?

(a) October 17, 2000

(b) October 17, 2001
(c)November 11, 2000
(d) November 11, 2001
7 Which section of IT Act 2000 deals with the punishment for cheating by impersonation by
using computer resources?

(a) Section 66D

(b) Section 66C
(c) Section 66B
(d) Section 66F

8 Which are the sections of IT Act applicable for Cyber pornography?

a) 66, 66A, 66B

b) 67, 67A, 67B
c) 67, 67C, 67D
d) None of the options

9 Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals?

a) Unauthorized account access

b) Mass attack using Trojans as botnets
c) Email spoofing and spamming
d) Report vulnerability in any system

10 -------- are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you to falsifying
their identity.

A. Computer viruses
B. Phishing scams
C. Phishing trips
D. Spyware scams

11 -------- are often delivered to a PC through an email attachment and are often designed to
do harm.

A. Spam
B. Email
C. Portals
D. Virus

12 Which section of IT Act was invalidated by Supreme Court of India?

 (a) Section 66F
(b) Section 66B
(c) Section 66D
(d)Section 66A

13 Which of the following is not a type of cyber-crime?

a) Data theft
b) Forgery
c) Damage to data and systems
d) Installing antivirus for protection

14 Cyber-laws are incorporated for punishing all criminals only.

a) True
b) False

15 Which of the following is not an example of a computer as weapon cyber-crime?

a) Credit card fraudulent

b) Spying someone using keylogger
c) IPR Violation
d) Pornography
16 In which year India’s IT Act came into existence?

a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003

17 Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals?

a) Unauthorized account access

b) Mass attack using Trojans as botnets
c) Email spoofing and spamming
d) Report vulnerability in any system

18 Under which section of IT Act, stealing any digital asset or information is written a cyber-
crime.

a) 65
b) 65-D
c) 67
d) 70
19 What is the punishment in India for stealing computer documents, assets or any software’s
source code from any organization, individual, or from any other means?

a) 6 months of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 50,000

b) 1 year of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 100,000
c) 2 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 250,000
d) 3 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 500,000

20 What type of cyber-crime, its laws and punishments do section 66 of the Indian IT Act
holds?

a) Cracking or illegally hack into any system

b) Putting antivirus into the victim
c) Stealing data
d) Stealing hardware components
21 The use of the Internet or other electronic means to stalk or harass an individual, a group of
individuals, or an organization is termed:

a) Cyberspace b) Cyber stalking

c) Pornography d) None of these
22 By hacking web server taking control on another person’s website called as web ..........

a) Spoofing
b) Hijacking
c) Spamming
d) None of these.

23 Section 66F of IT Act deals with

a) Cyber stalking
b) Email bombing
c) Child pornography
d) Cyber terrorism
24 Act of attempting to acquire information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card
details by masquerading as a trustworthy entity is called

a) email bombing
b) Spamming
c) Cyber stalking
d) Phishing
25 The practice of making a transmission appears to come from an authorized user.

a) Hacking
b) Spoofing
c) Spamming
d) Spamdexing
26 The practice of forging a return address on an e‐mail so that the recipient is fooled into
revealing private information is termed?

a) hacking
b) cracking
c) dumpster diving
d) spoofing

27 Section 66C of IT Act deals with

a) Cyber stalking
b) Email bombing
c) Child pornography
d) Punishment for Identity Theft
28 Section-66E of IT Act deals with

a) Punishment for violation of Privacy.

b) Spamming
c) Cyber stalking
d) Phishing
29 “Identity theft is the crime of obtaining the personal or financial information of another person
to use their identity to commit fraud, such as making unauthorized transactions or purchases”-
this statement is:

a) True
b)False

30 Viruses are programs that attach themselves to a computer or a file and then circulate
themselves to other files and to other computers on a network. They usually affect the data
on a computer, either by altering or deleting it: this statement is:

a) False
b) True

31 Osama Binladen attack, the LITE attack on America’s Army deployment system during Iraq
War are examples of:
a) Cyber Terrorism
b) Phishing
c) Cyber Warfare
d) Bandwidth Theft

32 Phishing is described under:

a) Section 56
b) Section 65
c) Section 66
 d) Section 43

33 Which is the landmark judgment of Cyber bullying/harassment in India?

a) Shreyas Singhal v. UOI
b) State of Bihar v. Shreya Singhal
c) Shreya Singhal v. UOI
d) UOI v. Shreya Singhal
34 “All cyber wars are cyber-crimes but not all cyber-crimes are cyber wars”. – this statement
is:

a) True
b) False

35 Bandwidth Theft refers to:

a) process of ‘befriending’ a young person online “to facilitate online sexual contact and/or
a physical meeting with them with the goal of committing sexual abuse
b) amount of data transferred from a web site to a user's computer. When you view a web
page, you are using that site's bandwidth to display the files
c) a cyber-crime in which a target is contacted through electronic means by someone posing
as a legitimate institution to lure individuals in to providing sensitive data such as personally
identifiable information, banking and credit card details, passwords etc
d) none of the options

36 The age of offence of child abuse is mentioned as years under IT Act, 2000.

a) 14 years
b) 16 years
c) 18 years
d) 21 years
37 The chairman of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal is appointed by?
a) President of India
b) Governor in consultation with the Chief Minister
c) Central Government alone
d) Central Government in consultation with Chief Justice of India
38 Which is not a compounding offence as mentioned under the IT Act, 2000?

a) Hacking with a computer system

b) Transmission of obscene material / content
c) Grooming
d) Misutilization of personal information

39 To gradually change, or change someone or something, from one thing to another is

called?
a) Morphing
b) Grooming
c) Phishing
d) Obscenity
40 Cyber bullying is recognized under provision of IT Act, 2000
 a) Section 66 A
b) Section 66B
c) Section 66 C
d) Section 66 D
41 Malwares, Denial of service attacks, Hacking are types of :
a) Cyber Terrorism
b) Cyber Warfare
c) Phishing
d)Hacking
42 Cyber stalking involves following a person’s movements across the Internet by posting
messages (sometimes threatening) on the bulletin boards frequented by the victim. This
statement is:
a) True
b) False

43 Electronic signature or other identity theft like using others’ password or electronic signature
etc. Punishment is three years imprisonment or fine of one lakh rupees or both this offence
is a form of?

a) Identity theft
b) Hacking
c) Cyber Stalking
d) Denial of Service Attack.
44 Intellectual property (IP) refers to creations of the mind, such as:

a) Inventions
b) literary and artistic works
c) designs; and symbols, names and images used in commerce
d) All of the options

45 Why is IP protected by law?

a) IPR is essential for better identification, planning, commercialization, rendering, and thus
the preservation of inventions or creativity.

b) to protect the investment, time, money, and effort invested by the inventor/creator of the
IP

c) IPR affects the economic development of a country by promoting healthy competition and
encouraging industrial growth and economic growth

d) All of the options

46 Exclusive right granted for an invention is called

a) Copyright
b) Geographical Indication
 c) Patent
d) Trademark

47 Patent is granted for

a) 10 years
b) 20 years
c) 15 years
d) Life time

48 To qualify for patent protection, an invention must satisfy which of the following
requirements:

a) Innovation, inventive step, and industrial application

b) Creativity and originality
c) Innovation and inventive step
d) None of the options
49 Patents are rights.

a) Fundamental
b) Common law
c) Territorial
d) None of the options

50 What cannot be patented?

a) Mere Discovery of a Scientific Principle

b) Discovery of any living thing or Discovery of non–living substance occurring in nature
c) Mere discovery of any new property or new use for a known substance etc.
d) All the options

51 Which of the following is not a remedy for infringement of patent?

a) Injunction
b) Damages
c) Asking the infringer to do community service
d) Accounts of profit

52 The set of exclusive rights granted to the author or creator of an original work, including the
right to copy, distribute and adapt the work is called

a) Trademark
b) Copyright
c) Industrial design
d) Patent
53 Copyright is not available to which of the following work?

a) Original Literary Work

b) Original Dramatic work
c) Medicine
d) Cinematography films

54 Which of the following amounts to fair use?

a) Photocopying a textbook for academic purposes

b) Downloading pirated versions of your favorite movie
c) Photocopying copyrighted textbook and selling it
d) All the options

55 An order passed to take into possession the infringed documents, copies and other relevant
material of the defendant, by the solicitor of the plaintiff is called

a) Mareva Injunction
b) Anton Piller order
c) Accounts of profit
d) Damages

56 Distinctive symbols, signs, logos that help consumer to distinguish between competing
goods or services is called

a) Patent
b) Trademark
c) Copyright
d) Cyber crime

57 Which of the following is a function of trademark?

a) It identifies the goods / or services and its origin

b) It guarantees its unchanged quality
c) It advertises the goods/services
d) All of the options.

58 Any indications which define the goods as originating in the territory of a country or a region
or locality in that territory, provided a given quality reputation or other characteristics of the
product are attributable to its geographical origin is called:

a) Geographical indications
b) Trademark
c) Patents
d) Industrial design
59 Which of the laws govern Geographical Indication of Goods?
a) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
 b) Indian Indications Act, 2020
c) Indian Geographic Act, 1956
d) Trademark Indications Act, 1999

60 Design protection deals with the outer appearance of an article, including decoration, lines,
colours, shape, texture and materials

a) True
b) False

61 Geographical indication has been granted to

a) Kadri pak
b) Mysore pak
c) Bangalore pak
d) None of the options

62 A product having transistors or other circuitry elements, which are inseparably formed on a
semiconductor material or an insulating material or inside the semiconductor material and
designed to perform an electronic circuitry function is called as

a) Semiconductor integrated circuit

b) Geographic design
c) Industrial design
d) Patent

63 A layout of transistors, and other circuitry elements and includes lead wires connecting such
elements and expressed in any manner in a semiconductor integrated circuit is called as

a) Industrial design
b) Two-dimensional design
c) Layout-design
d) Trademark

64 Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas that are
of
a) Ethical value
b) Moral value
c) Social value
d) Commercial value

65 The term ‘Intellectual Property Rights’ covers

a. Copyrights
b. Know-how
c. Trade dress
d. All of the options
66 Trade mark:
a) is represented graphically
b) is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of
others
c) may include shapes of goods or combination of colors
d) All of the options

67 Which of the following is/are included in Geographical indications of Goods?

a. Handicraft
b. Foodstuff
c. Manufactured
d. All of the options

68 Patent is a form of:

a) Tangible Property
b) Intellectual Property
c) Industrial property
d) Both (b) and (c)

69 Digital Signature Certificate is requirement under various

applications
a) Statutory
b) Legislative
c) Governmental
d) Voluntary

70 In the following case the Hon’ble Supreme Court struck down Section 66 A of I.T.
Act:

a. Kartar Singh v/s State of Punjab

b. Maneka Gandhi v/s UOI
c. K. A. Abbas v/s UOI
d. Shreya Singhal v/s UOI
71 Cyber revolution holds the promise of quickly reaching the
a) Masses
b) Individual only
c) Only a set of people
d) Only organizations
72 Crime in any form adversely affects
a) All the members of the society
b) Does not affect anyone
c) Affects only an individual
d) None of the options
73 Internet was initially developed as a
a) Only a research tool
b) Only an information sharing tool
 c) Both as a research and information sharing tool
d) None of the options
74 The objective of the Information Technology Act 2000 is to
a) To provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data
b) Interchange and other means of electronic communication
c) To encourage alternatives to paper-based methods of communication
d) All of the options
75 The Information Technology Act, 2000 essentially does not deal with
a) Legal recognition of electronic documents
b) Legal recognition of physical signatures
c) Offences and contraventions
d) Justice Dispensation systems for cyber crimes
76 What does not fall under the ambit of Identity Theft?
a) Illegally obtaining the personal or financial information of another person
b) Fraudulent actions
c) Making authorized transactions
d) Making unauthorized transactions and purchases
77 Illegally using passwords or electronic signature is punishable with
a) Three years of imprisonment or fine of Rs. One Lakh rupees or both
b) Five years of imprisonment or fine of Rs. One Lakh or both
c) One year of imprisonment without any fine
d) No punishment at all
78 Pursuing stealthily refers to
a) Identity theft
b) Phishing
c) Cyber Stalking
d) None of the options
79 Following a person’s movements across the internet by posting messages is an act of
a) Spamming
b) Cyber Stalking
c) Denial of Service Attack
d) Cyber Warfare
80 Flooding a computer resource with more requests than it can handle is known as
a) Worm attack
b) Virus attack
c) Cyber Stalking
d) Denial of Service Attack
81 Usage of computer technology to disrupt the activities of a State by disabling financial
system amounts to
a) Cyber Terrorism
b) Cyber Warfare
c) DDoS
d) Spamming
82 An act to lure individuals to provide sensitive data by posting as a legitimate institution
amounts to
a) Cyber Bulling
b) Cyber Terrorism
 c) Grooming
d) None of the options
83 Befrending a young person online to facilitate online sexual contact amounts to

a) Grooming
b) Cyber Bullying
c) Identity Theft
d) Spoofing
84 Online sexual abuse of children involves

a) Blackmailing and coercing children for sexual act

b) Transmitting of material depicting children in sexually explicit act in an electronic form
c)Inducing children to online relationship
d) All the options
85 Ram an employee of XYZ company has an illegal access to his Manager’s office computer.
He downloads vital data and deletes the same and sells it to ABC company. Has Ram
committed any offence ?

a) No, as Ram is an employee, he can freely access his Manager’s office computer
without even seeking permission.
b) Ram has committed damage to computer system
c) Ram has committed an act of Cyberwarfare
d) Ram has committed an act of spamming

86 is a prefix used to describe a person, thing or idea as part of computer and

information age.
a) Cyber
b) Identity Theft
c) Virus
d) Worm
87 Internet time theft refers to
a) Gaining access to internet without another person’s knowledge
b) Gaining access to internet with another person’s knowledge
c) Not gaining access at all
d) None of the options
88 The world’s most prevalent computer virus in the year May 2000 was

a) I LOVE YOU
b) I HATE YOU
c) I MISS YOU
d) I KILL YOU
89 DDoS stands for:

a) Distributed Denial of Service

b) Disturbed Denial of Service
c) Dislocated Denial of Service
d) Division Denial of Service