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7\-

ts) ALL INDIA INSTITUE OF SPEECH AND HEARING, MYSURU,

M.Sc-SLP -Entrance Examination 2019
Reg. No.
l. According to DSM-V, under how many levels can the severity ofautism be grouped into?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
2. Agenesis ofcorpus callosum is commonly seen in
a) Aicardi syndrome b) Rett's syndrome c) Ohtahara syndrome d) Angleman,s
syndrome
J. Sounds in a language that cause changes in meaning are called as
a) Phonemes b) Syllables c) Phones d) Vowels
4. People who study a foreign language in school and live or work in a country where that language is
spoken are referred as
a) Elective bilinguals b) Circumstantial c) Sequential d) Eventual
bilinguals bilinguals bilinguals
5. Resting expiratory level occurs around, ...........% of vital capacity
a)20 b) 40 c) 60 d) S0
6. The method of obtaining a comprehensive and detailed description of both quantitative and
qualitative data about persons and their communication skills is referred to as
a) Background b) Diagnosis c) Appraisal d) prognosis
7. In a closed-open question continuum, the example 'How have Mr. Naveen's spirits been since his
stroke'? is a
a) Open end- Take off b) Closed end- c) Closed end- Yes/no d) Closed end-
anyrvhere question Multiple choice question Circumscribed
question amplification
question
8 The extent to which a test identifies individuals with real problems in the targeted area of
communication is
a) Test sensitivity b) Test specificity c) False positive d) False negative
9 Ifthere is a relapse following the completion of treatment program, rvhich among the following
would be the most suitable option?

a) Counselling b) Cognitive c) Booster treatment d) Contextual

treatment treatment
10 A l3-year-old boy with repaired cleft lip and palate presents with Class III malocclusion. Assessment
of articulation reveals no compensatory articulatory errors. The category of speech sounds maximally
affected would be
a) Velars b) Nasals c) Laterals d) Fricatives
l1 A surgeon refers a 2O-year-old male planning to undergo pharyngeal flap surgery to a speech
pathologist with a request to work on improving lateral pharyngeal wall movements. The best suited
treatment plan will be
a) Resonance therapy b) Training using c) Training using
d) Articulation
palatal training speech bulb therapy using
appliance motor approaches
12. Assessment ofarticulation in a child with repaired cleft palate reveals that he presents with backed
oral productions. Which ofthe following sounds would be perceived in his speech?
a) Mid-dorsum palatal b) Pharyngeal c) Glottal stops d) Bilabial trills
fricatives fricatives
l3 The medical report ofa person who reported for speech evaluation reveals that he has T2N1Ms level
ofhead and neck carcinoma. Which stage ofcancer does this indicate?
a) Stage IV b) Stage III c) Stage II d) Stage I
t4 A 62-year old lady has been referred to a speech pathologist for preoperative assessment and
counselling. She presents with malignant tumors originating from the salivary and mucous gland
epithelium. The type ofcancer cell that is involved would be
a) Sarcoma b) Adenosarcoma c) Leukoma d)Adenocarcinoma
15. Informal speech and language assessment of a 4-year-old child with repaired cleft lip and palate
reveals that her phonetic repertoire includes vowels, glides, nasals, and glottal stops. All pressure
consonants were substituted with glottal stops. The speech sounds initially targeted during therapy
would be
a) Velar stops b) Bilabial stops c) Fricatives d) Affricates
16 An eight year-old-child with repaired cleft of palate presents with symptoms of velopharyngeal
insufficiency. During case history, his mother also complains of the child having difficulties in
leaming at school. On assessment using nasoendoscopy, pulsations are noticed on the posterior
pharyngeal wall. These could be indicative of
a) Treacher Collin syndrome b) Piene Robin c) Velocardiofacial d) Fetal alcohol
sequence syndrome syndrome

17. Which of the following is not a sonorant?

a) lll b) hl c) /s/ d) I rl
18. Which theory supports the concept of phonological process?
a) Generative Phonology b) Natural c) Autosegmental d) Metrical
Phonology Phonology Phonology
19 Which of the following pertains to the phenomenon of combining sounds to formulate syllables and
words?
a) Allophonic variations b) Morphophonemics c) Phonotactics d) Phonological
Processes

Adding of /i/ to the end ofa word is referred to as

a) Coalescence b) Metathesis c) Epenthesis d) Diminutization
21 The therapy approach which aims at enhancing knowledge of phonological and communication
aspects using higher order linguistic skills is
a) Non-linear b) Metaphon c) Motokinesthetic d) Maximal
Opposition
22. With the usage of which therapy technique, the post therapy speech of a person who stutters is
perceived as unnatural?
a) MIDVAS b) Pause and talk c) Lidcombe program d) Prolonged speech
therapy
23 Lidcombe therapy program is based on the philosophy of
a) Direct approach b) Indirect approach c) Both direct and d) Semi direct
indirectapproaches approach
24. If a person with stuttering says "l .want um um uh water", it is referred to as
a) Repetition b) Unfilled pauses c) Filled pauses d) Prolongation
25. In a person with neurogenic stuttering, disfluencies occur due to
a) Environmental causes b) Developmental c) Psychosocial stress d) Brain damage
causes

2
26 Intonation refers to pitch movement within a
a)Word b) Syllable c) Phrase or sentence d) Paragraph
2',7. Anticipatory struggle hypothesis is based on the principles of
a) Neurological theory b) Physiological c) Psychophysiological d) Psychological
theory theory theory
28 According to Van Riper, the core behaviors of stuttering are
a)Syllable/part-word b)Syllable/part-word c)Syllable/part-word d) Syllable/part-
repetitions, prolongation, repetitions, repetitions, word repetitions,
and blocks and
prolongation, prolongation, blocks, prolongation,
interjections interjections, and filled and unfilled
filled pauses pauses

29. The deep layer of lamina propria is composed of

a) Elastic fibres comparable b) Loose fibrous c) Collagen fibres d) Muscle fibres
to a bundle ofsoft rubber matrix comparable to a comparable to a
bands comparable to soft bundle ofcotton bundle ofstiff
gelatin thread rubber bands
30. The contraction of which ofthe following muscles make the arytenoid to move away from the
midline?
a) Lateral cricoarytenoid b) Posterior c) Inter arytenoid d) Thyroarytenoid
cricoarytenoid
31 When a buzz is produced as in vocal function exercise, the vocal folds normally yield to
a) Vocal attack b) Pressed voice c) Soft breathy voice d) Voice with good
vocal economy
32 Which of the following cranial nerve transmits the sensory information from the laryngeal mucosa?
a) XI b) xII c) X d) Vlll
)) The strongest auditory perceptual conelate ofspectrum is
a) Duration b) Pitch c) Loudness d) Quality

34 The major contribution to vocal loudness in a spoken utterance is

a) Speaking pitch b) Speaking loudness c) Spoken vowels d) Spoken
consonants

35. 'Madame on phone' is an explanation for

a) Spasmodic dysphonia b) Vocal cord palsy c) Sulcus vocalis d) Puberphonia
36. Amer-Ind and ISL are examples of which ofthe following respectively?
a) Unaided symbol sets and b) Unaided symbol c) Aided symbol sets d) Aided symbol
aided symbol systems systems and aided and unaided symbol sets and aided
symbol sets systems symbol systems

31 Apraxia ofspeech is a subcategory of which ofthe following?

a)Limb-kinetic apraxia b) Buccofacial c) Ideational apraxia d) ldeomotor
apraxla apraxia

38 The dentist referred a 14-year-old child to a speech-language pathologist whose oromotor evaluation
revealed normal findings, except for some atrophy on the left lateral border of the tongue. What
disorder explains this tongue atrophy?
a) LMN disorder b) UMN disorder c) Oral infection d) Cerebellar lesion

3
39 Repetitive eye blinking and abnormal facial movements that are often dystonic in nature are seen in
which of these syndromes?
a) Shy-drager syndrome b) Worster drought Bare
c) Guillain d) Meige,s
syndrome syndrome syndrome

40 An l8-year-old had asymmetry on the face, difficulty in speaking clearly and pain behind the ears. A
visit to the clinic revealed poor motor control on the entire right side ofthe face, inability to close the
right eye, retroauricular pain, impaired voluntary emotional movements, slurred and slow
unintelligible speech. There was no sign ofaphasia or hemiplegia. Which ofthe following conditions
the person will have?
a) Bilateral UMN facial b) Bilateral LMN c) Right facial nerve d) Bell,s palsy
palsy facial palsy palsy
41. Altering speech breathing and increasing the length of breath groups carried out as a part of
dysarthria intervention helps in improving which ofthe following?
a) Prosody b) Resonation c) Phonation d) Articulation
42. Which of the following instrument is used for measuring chest wall kinematics?
a) Pneumotachometer b) Aerophone II c) Videokymography d) plethysmography
43. It is hard to comment on the presence ofparaphasia in persons with global aphasias due to poor
a) Comprehension b) Cognition c) Verbal output d) Awareness
44 High density lipoproteins is a
a) Bad cholesterol b) Good cholesterol c) Neither good or bad d) Not a true form of
cholesterol cholesterol
45 Which of the following is the most widely used acronym as a waming sign for stroke?
a) FAST b) SAFETY c) SMILE d) wHO-rCF
46. A person with aphasia obtains a score of l0 in fluency under spontaneous speech, 150 in auditory
verbal comprehension, 70 in repetition task and 60 in naming task. what will be the Ae r"o." oithi.
person?
a) 76 b) 61 c) 5l d) 30.5
17. Which type of memory consists of factual information?
a) working memory b) Episodic memory c) Declarative memory d) Non-Declarative
memory
48 Gradual loss ofconceptual knowledge is seen in which variant of primary progressive aphasia?
a) Semantic variant b) Non-fluent c) Fronto-timporil d) Logopenic
Variant lobular dementia
variant
49 Repetition is spared in
a) Transcortical motor b) Broca's aphasia c) Wemicke's aphasia d) Global aphasia
aphasia

50. Inability to recognize one's face is refemed to as

a) Anosognosia b) Autotopagnosia c) Astereognosis d) prosopagnosia
51. A person's inability to select the correct object from a group ofobjects, even when provided with the
name ofthe target object is labelled as
a) Semantic anomia b) word selection c) Disconnection d) Callosal anomia
anomia anomia
52. Alexia and agraphia are often symptoms ofdamage to
a) Broca's area b) Angular gyrus c) Wemike,s area d) Calcarine fissure

4
 53. Intensive treatment approach focussing on increasing spoken language output while discouraging the
use ofcompensatory communication strategy is
a) CILT b) MIT c) PACE d) HELPSS
54. A patient with aphasia consistently says 'drive' while shown a picture of a car. This indicates the
presence of
a) Phonemic paraphasia b) Literal paraphasia c) Semantic paraphasia d) Neologism
55. During treatment, a person is shown a picture ofa sofa, and he says "fosa." Which of the following
error is demonstrated by the person?
a) Echolalia b) Substitution c) Verbal paraphasia d) Transposition
56. Stuttering tends to occur at the same locations as before, even when previously stuttered words are
removed from the reading passage being rehearsed. This is termed as
a) Expectancy effect b) Adaptation effect c) Consistency effectd) Adjacency effect
57. A technique which involves slowing speech rate and speaking one syllable at a time is known as
a) Biofeedback b) Speech pacing c) DDK d) DAF
58. Resonant voice therapy is a type of
a) Vocal hygiene therapy b) Symptomatic c) Psychogenic voice d) Physiological
voice therapy therapy voice therapy
59. Stra\ phonation is a type of
a) Semi-occluded vocal tract b) Vocal function up
c) Vocal warm d) Vocal cool down
exercises exercises exercises exercises
60' Which one ofthe following term is not associated wit)t acquired stuttering?
a) Cortical stuttering b) SAAND c) Neurogenic d) Developmental
stuttering stuttering

6l . The ability of a language development assessment test to accurately reject typically developing
children is known as
a) Specificity b) Sensitivity c) Reliability d) Validity

62. Adding grammatical markers and semantic details to children's utterance refers to
a) Extension b) Selftalk c) Modelling d) Expansion

63. Which type of reinforcement is provided to reduce the frequency of occurrence ofan undesirable
behavior?
a) Negative reinforcement b) Positive c) Punishment d) Token
reinforcement reinforcement

64. There is no problem in the calculation of .. in case ofopen-end classes

a) Mean deviation b) Standard deviation c) Arithmetic mean d) Mode

65 Laryngocoele arises as a hemiation of laryngeal mucosa through which of the following membranes?
a) Thyrohyoid b) Cricothyroid c) Cricotracheal d) Cricosternal

66 The motor component of autonomic nervous system consists of

a) Sympathetic system b) Parasympathetic c) Sympathetic & d) Somatic system
system parasympathetic
sYstem

67. Synthesis of proteins takes place in

a)Nucleus b) Cytoplasm c) Exosome d) Cell membrane

5
68 A section ofDNA that codes for particular protein is called
a) Gene b) Ribosome c) Chromosome d) Chromatid

69 A microphone has a sensitivity listed as lv/p" and an output impedance of 100Q. What is the power
sensitivity in dBm?
a) 4 dBm b) 0 dBm c) I dBm d) 4 dBm
'70 What time limit is given to furnish the information regarding the life or liberry of a person according
to the Right to Information Act?
a) 48 hours b) 24 hours c) 30 days d) 30 hours

71. Which studies are useful in estimating incidence of a given condition?

a) Cross-sectional b) Case-control c) Descriptive d) Cohort

72. A researcher conducts a study on children with speech sound disorders to assess the influence of
training with different tongue twisters on cluster production. Identifo the independent variable in the
study.
speech
a) Children with tongue
b) Different c) Cluster production d) There is no
sound disorder twisters independent
variable in the
study

Erickson third stage of development is characterized by

a) Autonomy vs. Shame Vs.

b) Identity c) IndustryVs. d) Initiative Vs.
and Doubt Confusion Inferiority Guilt

74 Bandura's four elements ofobservation learning does not include

a) Attention b) Determination c) Reproduction d) Retention
75 The phenomenon in which characteristics of features from two ad.jacent sounds are combined so that
one sound replaces two other sounds is
a) Epenthesis b) Coalescence c) Assimilation d) Deaffrication

76. A method oftransfer ofthe time-based acoustic graphical plot into a spectrum that displays the
energy in the natural resonant frequencies is called as
a) LPC b) LTAS c) LSVT d) FFT
77. Which of the following places the vowels in clockwise order on the Cardinal vowel chart?
a)u a e i b)i a u e c)a i e u d)u i e a

78 In plural words like'Sheep' and'Fish', there are two morphemes each; the first morpheme in each
case has a phonological representation, but the second one has no phonological representation and is
called
a) Inflectional morpheme b) Derivational c) Allo-morpheme d) Zero morpheme
morpheme
19. The process of sensing sound field with a microphone, processing it by a microprocessor and feeding
back through a loudspeaker to destructively interfere the sound field ofthe primary source is known as
a) Adaptive feedback control b) Active noise c) Automatic gain d) Speech
control control enhancement

6
80. Final common pathway or lower motor neuron is responsible for
a) Planning motor activity b) Influencing skilled c) Integrating and d) Muscle
movement coordinating contraction and
movement movement
81. Which ofthe following is considered as a prototypic condition associated with hypokinetic
dysarthria?
a) Multiple Sclerosis b) Parkinson's c) Amyotrophic lateral d) Meningitis
disease Sc lerosis

82 Which term best describes the compulsive repetition of words and phrases with increasing rate and
decreasing loudness, resulting from damage to basal ganglia?
a) Palilalia b) Echolalia c) Neurogenic d) Disinhibited
stuttering vocalizations
83. Which muscle may be injected with botulinum toxin for the treatment of neurogenic adductor
spasmodic dysphonia?
a) Posterior cricoarytenoid b) Thyroarytenoid c) Cricothyroid d) Thyrohyoid

84 Articulator strength training may be most logically relevant to persons with which ofthe following
rype of dysarthria?
a) Progressive Flaccid b) Nonprogressive c) Ataxic dysarthria d) Hypokinetic
dysarthria flaccid dysarthria dysarthria
85 Which ofthe following is an essential component of behavioural approach to treatment of Apraxia of
Speech?
a) Systematic and intensive b) Articulatory c) Breathing exercises d) Phonatory effort
drill training
strength training
86. Pseudobulbar affect is most commonly observed in persons presenting with lesion to which of the
following regions?
a) Unilateral upper Motor b) BilateralUpper c) Basal ganglia d) Unilateral Lower
Neuron Motor Neuron Motor Neuron

87 ISAA is used in the assessment of which ofthe following conditions?

a) Intellectual Disability b) Specific Language c) Dyslexia d) Autism
Impairment

88 Number ofdifferent types ofwords divided by total number ofwords in an utterance gives a measure
of ................ in language sample analysis.
a) Mean length ofutterance b) Type token ratio c) Number ofdifferent d) Total number of
words words
89 Length of conversational tums is a measure of
a) Phonology b) Syntax c) Semantics d) Pragmatics

90 Children who show oral language deficits along with academic difficulties in the absence of any
associated conditions are labelled as
a) Language based leaming b) Hyperlexia c) Intellectual d) Autism
disability disability
9l Nativistictheoriesarguethatlanguageacquisitionismadepossibletargelyby.............mechanism
a) Environmental b) Cognitive c) Social d) Innateness
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92. Which is a relatively structured evidence based treatment strategy used for preschoolers who stutter?
a) Parent-child interaction b)Lidcombe program c) Finger thumb d) Fluency shaping
therapy analogy therapy
93. How many phonemes does the word 'choose' have?
a)l b)2 c)3 d)4
94. Which among the following factors primarily affects the lung volumes?
a) Height b) Age c) Gender d) Chest
circumference

95. Which of the following is a speech act?

a) Production of
ofan utterance b) Paralinguistics c) Context in which d) Communicatrve
an utterance utterance is intent ofan
produced ufterance

96. A 16 year old boy was brought to the clinic by his father with a complaint of poor clarity, fast rate
and intermittent repetitions in his speech. He also reported of poor academic performance, language
formation difficulties and inattention. What according to you is the problem with the boy?
a) Dysarthria b) Leaming disability c) Stuttering d) Cluttering
97. Arrange the following in the order ofincreasing linguistic complexity.
1. Conversation 2. Words 3. Sentences 4. Phrases
a)2,4,3,1 b)4,3,1,2 c)3,2,1,4 d)r,2,3,4
98. Ofthe following terms, which is not t)?ically used to describe a 10-year old who performs poorly in
language assessment since early childhood?
a) Language impairment b) Language c) Language disorder d) Childhood
disability aphasia

99. A 2l year old student is undergoing voice evaluation. The main complaints are gradual change in the
voice quality and increased effort during speaking. He is also a student of classical vocal music.
Which among these are the likely pathologies ofthe vocal fold?
a) Vocal fold hemorrhage b) Vocal fold c) Vocal nodule d) Sulcus vocalis
paralysis

100. Cycle-to-cycle variation in amplitude refers to

a) Extent of fluctuation in b) Speed of c) Jitter d) Shimmer
amplitude fluctuation in
amplitude

8
 (e} ALL INDIA INSTITUE OF SPEECH AND HEARING, MYSURU,
M.Sc-AIID -Entrance Examination 2019 Reg. No.

I As sound intensity is increased by some factor, rms pressure increases by

a) Cube root ofthat b) Square ofthat c) Cube ofthat factor d) Square root ofthat
factor factor factor

2 Most often perforations in the pars flaccid are

a) Exotosis b) Carcinoma c) Cholesteatoma d) Glomus jugalaris

3 As frequency increases difference limen for frequency

a) Increases b) Decreases c) Does not change d) Changes
randomly

4 Which condition does not typically result in high frequency hearing loss?
a) Noise induced b) Presbycusis c) Meniere's disease d) Acoustic neuroma
hearing loss

5 A 36-year-old man has hearing loss in the left ear, high pitched tinnitus and giddiness. He has
normal hearing sensitivity in the right ear. Weber test will lateralize to t}e
a) Right ear b) Left ear c) Center d) Ear with tinnitus

6 Perilypahtic fistula can occur in

a) CSOM b) Otosclerosis c) Barotrauma d) Eustachian tube
dysfunction

7 The discrepancy between the MAF and MAP is known as

a) Ear differences b) Missing 6 dB
c) Hearing d) Difference
differences limen

8 Which type of hearing loss will have negative Rinne findings?

a)Unilateral b) Unilateral c) Bilateral SNHL d) Normal hearing
SNHL conductive HL

9 According to law, "The amount of change in a stimulus intensity

necessary to produce a JND is a constant proportion ofthe stimulus intensity".
a) Steven's law b) Newton's law c) Weber's law d) The law of
diminishing
retums

10. What is the maximum permissible total harmonic distortion for bone vibrators
(ANSr 53.6-2004)?
a)1.5%o b)2.5% c) t0% d) s5%

I l. Ripples or undulations in the tympanogram that are synchronized with the patient's
pulse indicate
a)Patulous b) Glomus jugular c) Pin-hole perforation d) Resolving
tube tumor
Eustachian CSOM
12
3CLT and spatio-temporal dipole models are used to
the
a) Understand b) Obtain c) Record near-field d) Estimate signal
sites
generation frequency ABRs to noise ratio of
ofAEPs specific ABRs AEPs

1
13. Ifthe compensated peak admittance is 0.8 mmho and the ear canal volume is 1.2 cc at
226 Hz, what is the uncompensated peak admittance ?
a)I.2 mmhos b) 0.4 mmho c) 0.8 mmho d) 2.0 mmhos

14. In case of unilateral profound hearing loss, the ABR recorded in the poorer ear due to
cross-hearing will have an approximate latency of
a) 5.6 ms b) 5.8 ms c) 6.0 ms d) 7.0 ms

i5. Typically in DP gram, the OAEs are plotted against their

a) Fl b) F2 c)ZFl-F2 d) 2F2-F l
16. Which is a horizontal electrode montage?
a) Cz-M I 6) Cz-M2 c) Fz-A I d) Ml-Mz

t7 Which AEP is elicited using derived band technique?

a) Complex b) MMN c) FFR d) Stacked ABR
ABR

18 CID W-l speech material is usually used to obtain

a) Speech b) Speech c) Speech detection d) Speech
discrimination identification threshold recognition
scores scores threshold

19. Which is a test for lateralization?

a) Weber b) Rinne c) Bing d) Schwabach

20 In the Steinberg4ardner plot, ifthe angle between the loudness function and the
abscissa is less than 45 degrees, it indicates
a) Hyperrecruitment b) Decruitment No
c) d) Complete
Recruitment Recruitment
21.
A patient has high frequency dead region starting from I kHz. In the same patient, if
psychophysical tuning curve (PTC) was determined at 2 kH4 then the tip of PTC
would be at
a)2kJlz b) A frequency c) A frequency higher d) A frequency
lower than 2
than 2 kHz higher than 4 kHz
kHz
22 Given below are the air conduction thresholds, bone conduction thresholds and
loudness discomfort levets (LDLs) ofa patient evaluated for hyperacusis. Based on
Johnson hyperacusis quotient, the patient has degree of hyperacusis.

250 500 I 2kHz 4 6 8 kHz Speech

Hz Hz kHz kHz kllz
AC 5 l0 l0 15 l0 10 l5 10
BC 0 5 10 10 0
LDL 65 70 70 75 70 70 75 80
a) Mild b) Moderate c) Severe d) profound
23. In Feldman Masking curves, ifthe tkeshold curve and the masking curve coincide
within an intensity difference of less than 10 dB, it is referred to as
a) Distance b) Persistence c) Convergence d) Congruence

2
24. Which vestibular patholory is diagnosed using Dix-Hallpike maneuver?

a) Meniere's Disease b) Vestibular c) Benign d) Vestibular

Neuritis Paroxysmal Migraine
Positional
Vertigo

25. 'Performance Intensity for Phonetically Balanced (PIPB)' test was administered on 50
patients with confirmed Meniere's disease. Out of them, 30 patients obtained a roll
over index (ROI) of<0.45, and 20 patients obtained a ROI of> 0.45. Based on the
above data, the sensitivity of PIPB test to identiry Meniere's disease is
a)60% b)30% c)20o/o d)40%

26 Which ofthe following test does not assess 'binaural separation'?

a) Synthetic b) Competing c) Dichotic CV d) Binaural Fusion
Sentence Sentence test test
identification with
contralateral
competing
message

27 . A 45 year old patient has a pure-tone average of 41.25 dB HL, speech recognition
threshold of45 dB HL, speech identification score of 88o/o, speech perception in noise
scores of 600/o and the acoustic reflexes are present. Based on the above information,
the patient might have
a) Moderate b) Moderate mixed c) Moderate
d) Moderate
retrocochlear hearing loss conductive
cochlear hearing
hearingloss hearing lossloss

28. The upper two+hird ofthe lateral surface ofthe auricle is supplied by the
a) auricular temporal b) Great auricular c) Lesser
d) Auricular branch
nerve nerve occipital nerve ofVagus
29.
I he unlt ot loudness rs
a) Phon b) Sone c) dB d) Bark

tt, The principle behind 'Weber' test is

a) Precedence b) Cocktail party c) Hass d) Stenger effect
effect effect effect

3 l. 2 kHz dip in BC is seen in

a) Noise induced b) Meniere disease c) Otosclerosis d) Semicircular
hearing loss canal
dehiscence
32. The following is a custom hearing aid model
a) BTE b) RIC c) OTE d) ITC

33. The number of Camegie stages in the embryonic period is

a)8b)23c)25 d) 42

34 A stimulus having a rise time of>2 seconds is usually not associated with
a) Decreased heart b) Looking c) Reduced d) Startle
rate around breathing rate

2
35 Birth weight <1500 g as a risk indicator for hearing loss was eliminated fiom high risk
register for the first time in
a) JCIH position b) JCIH position c) JCIH position d) JCIH position
statement 1994 statement 1982 statement statement 2007

36. For a child to be refened for detailed assessment for (C)APD, the answer 'yes' on
SCAP must appear on at least
a) 1 question b) 3 questions c) 5 questions d) 7 questions

37. In a full term baby, tle maturation ofABR is complete by

a) Birth b) 18 months of c) 24 months of d) 33 months of
gestational age gestational age gestational age

38 Ifthe correct expected response to auditory presentation of l, 3, 4, 5 is 4, the test being

used is
a) Children's b) Auditory c) Phoneme d) WIPI
auditory test number test detection test

39. The test with separate normative values for use in children with cochlear implants is
a) Verbal auditory b) Early speech c) NU-CHIPS d) BKB-SIN
screening test perception test

40 Which is usually not an advantage of peri-modular electrode array in cochlear

implants?
a) More focused b) Provides c) Improved d) More enerry
of
stimulation higher current frequency efficient
ganglion cells thresholds discrimination
41. Intracochlear electrodes ofa cochlear implant with excessively high impedance are
said to have
a) Open circuit b) Closed circuit c) Short circuit d) Partial short
circuit
42. The function of the Dacron mesh in auditory brainstem implants is to
tissue
a) Prevent b) Unfasten the c)Provide d) Decrease
growth electrode array the
stability to impedance ofthe
from the surface electrodearray electrode array
ofthe neural after after implantation
tissue implantation
The reason for using bipolar stimulation mode less commonly than monopolar
stimulation in cochlear implants is that bipolar mode of stimulation
a) Resultsin Produces
b) in c) Results d) Is achieved using
poorer
relatively a relatively
relatively two electrodes
thresholds pattem better
localized located within the
ofexcitation thresholds cochlea

44 The age criteria given by United States Food and Drug Administration for auditory
brainstem implants is
a) I year ofage or b) 3 years ofage or c) 5 year ofage d) 12 years ofage or
older older or older older

4
45 Which is not the name of the Electrically Evoked Compound Action Potential given by
any ofthe cochlear implant manufactures?
a) ART b) ESRT c) NRI d) NRT

46. Which of the following is false?

a) The sound b) In multichannel c) Procedure for d) The thresholds in
processor part of cochlear initial cochlear plants are
auditory implants, mapping of not as important as
brainstem cochlear the comfort level /
.
rmplants rs
different sites of
implants and MCL
stimulation
.ii ur ioir,ut or auditory
cochlear generate brainstem
implants different Pitch implants are
perception the same

41 The NAL-NL2 prescription is based on the whereas the IHAFF

prescription is based on the
a) Comfortable b) Loudness c)Threshold d)Suprathreshold
loudness data; normalization data; data; threshold
threshold3 data data; threshold suprathreshold data
data data

48 The measure that is used to predict the real ear response ofa hearing aid from a 2 cc
coupler response is
a) RECD b) RESD c) EAT d) REAR

49. The words 'which', 'witch' and 'wick' are examples of

a) Visemes b) Homophonous c) Homophenous d) Phonous words
words words

50 An FM device can be coupled to a hearing aid through

a) Headphones b) Neckloop c) Bluetooth d) Channel hopping

5l Ifa hearing aid user complains that the speech from a distance is easier to understand
than speech nearby, then optimize the hearing aid to
a) Increase the b) lncrease the c) Reduce the
d) Couple a vented
gain for the gain for thesoft gain for the
earmold
loud sounds sounds loud sounds
52.
A cochlear implant cannot be recommended to an ear with severe to profound hearing
loss having
a) Enlarged b) Mondini c) Cochlear d) Sparsely ossified
vestibular deformity nerve aplasia cochlea
aqueduct
53 In order to increase the battery life of a hearing aid, which ofthe following should be
done?
room b) Store in a
a) Store at c) Keep in d) Store in a metal
temperature refrigerator sunlight box

54 A compression hearing aid provides 100 dB output for a 60 dB input sound. Ifthe
knee-point is set at 65 dB SPL and compression ratio is set at 2:1, calculate the output
for 70 dB input.
a) 110.5 dB b) 107.5 dB c) 105.5 dB d) 1ls dB
5
55 Electrical capacity of 675 size battery is . .. ... ..., whereas for 3 12 size battery
is.................
a) 600 mAh, 175 b) 700 mAh, 175 c) 500 mAh, 175 d) 800 mAh,300 mAh
mAh mAh mAh

56. CROS hearing aids used to achieve the benefits ofear leve[ amplification instead.ofa
body wom hearing aid is called
a) FROS b) CRIS CROS c) POWER CROS d) BICROS

57 . In a dual microphone hearing aid, if the sound arives at both the microphones at 90
degree simultaneously, it will result in approximately reduction in
gain
a) 20dB b) 6dB c) lsdB d) OdB

58. In a second order directional microphone, Iow frequency roll-offis as high as

a) 5dB b) l2dB c) 23dB d) 37dB

59. The best method to reduce feedback in digital hearing aids is

a) Gain reduetion b) Notch filter c) Feedback path d) Low pass
cancellation filtering

60. Which is not true with respect to directional microphones?

a) Two omni b) Microphone c) Directional d) Directional
directional matchingis microphones microphone
microphones are essential for enhance
can boosts low
required to form directional SNR frequencies
adaptive benefit of
directionality adaptive
directional
microphones

61. Which is a standard label for hearing aid batteries?

a) PR46 b) PR47 c) pR48 d) pR42

62. which prescriptive formula attempts to achieve loudness normalization utilizing the
hearing threshold data?
a) DSL [i/o] b) LGOB c) CAMEe d) NAL-NL2

63. Pure-tone sweep is not a preferred stimulus for electro-acoustic measurement,

because of
a) Intermodulation b) Blooming c) Entrainment d) Chirping artifact
distortion effect artifact
64. The standard bone vibrator has a plane circular tip area of
a) 175+100 mm2 b) l7Gr25 mm2 c) 175i25 mm2 d) l7Grl00 mm2

65 The level per cycle can be computed for noise using the formula
a) Overall intensity b) Overall c) Overall d) Overall intensity
SPL - log10 intensiry SpL
- intensity SpL _ SPL - 100 log
Band width Band
20 log 1000 Band Band width
width width
6
66. The mechanical behaviour ofthe B-71 bone vibrator leads to acoustic radiation at
a) 1000 H2,2000 b) 2000 [Iz, 3000 c) 4000 ]Iz d) 3000 Hz & 4000
Hz,3000 Hz& Hz&4000H2 Hz
4000 Hz
67. According to Niemeyer (1965), social hearing index is calculated based on the
scores obtained at
a) 50 dB SPL,65 b) ss dB SPL,60 c) 60 dB SPL, 70 d) 45 dB SPL,65
dB SPL & 80 dBdB SPL & 80
dB SPL & 80 dB SPL & 80 dB
SPL dB SPL dB SPL SPL

68. According to AAOO method, the lower fence considered for calculating percentage
of hearing impairment is
a) 26 dB b) l5 dB c) 20 dB d) 24 dB

69. According to Studebaker (1967), the interaural attenuation for the mastoid placed
bone vibrator for frequencies from 250 Hz to 4000 Hz ranges from
a)0to5dB b)0to 10dB c) 0to15dB d) Oto20dB

'70 The best way to help a person with auditory closure difficulties is
a) Reduce or remove b) Use ear plugs c) Ask the person to d) Use noise
the noisesource avoid noisy desensitisation
environments

71 According to ASIIA (1990 & 1999) recommendation, the symbol 'v' is used to depict
a) Unmasked mastoid b) Masked c) Unmasked forehead d) Masked
BC threshold mastoidBC BC threshold forehead BC
threshold threshold
'72
In which condition overmasking ofpure-tone is likely?
a) Effective masking b) Effective c) Effective masking d) Effective
level ylsS BCs + masking level levelNrc < BCre+ masking level
IA rrr 2 BC6 + IA vre 5 BCrs - IA
IA
73
RETSPLs are not used for calibration of output through
aural
a) Supra b) Insert c) Bone vibrators d) Loudspeakers
earphones earphones

'LACE' refers to
a) Listening and b) Language c) Lip reading d) Lip reading
Communication acquisition ability for activity for
Enhancement and cognitive communicative communicative
enhancement exchange education

75 A comprehensive habilitation program for infants and their families without formal
lipreading instruction refers to
a) Acoupedic b) Cued speech c) IEP d) SKI - HI
approach

76 An individual,s ability to scan the auditory environment for relevant acoustic signal refers
to
a) Auditory b) Auditory c) Lateralization d) Localization
projection summation

7
77 The scheme that promotes inclusive education at primary and secondary levels ofeducation
is
a) ADIP b) SSA c) IEP d) NPPCD

78. A deficit in re-auditorization may manifest as

a) Localization deficit b) Binaural c) Hearing loss d) Binaural
separation interaction
deficit deficit

79. "Guide and coach parents to use natural developmental patterns ofaudition, speech,
language, cognition, and communication" is
a) A principle given of
b) A principle c) A principle d) A general language
by Erber auditory ofAVT training principle
tra in ing

80 A child with an IQ of 60 will be diagnosed as

a) Mild Intellectual b) Moderate c) Profound d) Severe
Disability Intellectual Intellectual Intellectual
Disability Disability Disability

81. Piaget has proposed ... ...... ... ........ stages of cognitive development.
a)4 b)6 c)3 d)s
82 Leaming means establishment ofassociation between the stimulus and response
through
a) Reinforcement b) Punishment c) Motivation d) Environment

83. A 2cc coupler is not considered to be a good approximation ofthe average adult ear
canal because
a) The residual b) The acoustic c) The acoustic d) The residual
volume ofadult impedance ofthe impedance of volume of
ear canal is not residual ear the residual ear adult ear canal
2cc canal volume canal volume varies with
changes at high changes at low frequency
frequency frequency

As per the standard ANSI S 1.4-1983, the standard frequency weighting curve that
84
is flat over the frequency range of 31.6 Hz to 8000 Hz is
a) A weighting b) B weighting c) C weighting d) D weighting
curve curve curve {.:urye
85. Ifthe reverberation time is 5.0 sec and the volume ofthe room is 2000 mr, what is
the total absorption in the room measured in metric Sabins equal to
a) s .44 b) 4 .44 c) 3 .44 d) 6 .44
86 The loudness of a 500 Hz tone if loudness level is 64 phons for the sound pressure
level of60 dB is
a) 6 sones b) l0 sones c) 4 sones d) 2 sones
87. Atresia ofthe extemal ear is caused by the failure ofthe . .. ... . .. ... .. . groove to
develop or canalize.
a) II Brachial b) III Brachial c) I Brachial d) IV Brachial

8
88. Impetigo is a staphylococci infection ofthe superficial layer ofthe
a) Tympanic b) Auricle c) Auditory tube
d) Eustachian
membrane tube

89. Glue ear is also known as

a) Serous otitis b) Chronic c) Acute d) Acute
media suppurative Mastoiditis suppurative
otitis media otitis media
90 The common site of otosclerosis rs
a) Roundwindow b) Oval window c) Utricle d) Umbo

91 Angular movement is sensed by

a) Cochlea b) Utricle c) Saccule d) Semi circular
canals
92. Nasopharyngeal tonsil is also called
a) Palatine tonsil
b) Adenoids c) Faucial tonsil d) Lingual tonsil

93. The rejection ofa true null hypothesis is

a) Power ofthe b) Type Ilenor c) Confidence level d) Type I enor
test
94. The algebraic sum ofthe deviations ofthe individual items from the arithmetic
average is always
a) Infinity b) One c) Zeto d) Average itself

95. Mitotic cell division results in two cells that have

a) 2n chromosomes b) n chromosomes c) n chromosomes d) 2n chromosomes
and are andare and are and are
genetically genetically genetically genetically
identical identical different different

96. Type II error refers to

aj False Negative b) True Positive c) False Positive d) True Negative
97 A graphical representation ofthe effect size ofan intervention against a measure of
study size in meta-analysis is
a) Forest plan b) Funnel plot c) Pie chart d) Histogram

98. In which Act, the major aim is to appoint guardianship?

a) Consumer b) National Trust c) Rights of d) Rehabilitation
Protection Act Act Persons with Council oflndia
Disability Act Act
99. Most of the sensory and motor nerve fibers crossover at the level of """' in the
brainstem
a) Medulla b) Pons & Medulla c) Pons d) Medulla
oblongata oblongata oblongata and
cerebellum
100. Gyri ofHeschl lies in the
a) Frontal lobe b) TemPora[ lobe c) occipital lobe d) Parietal Lobe

9
t.